CPT 7 - Practice Test
Which statement best describes the final stage of the sales process?
a. Making the sale by asking for a financial commitment to solving the customer's needs
One of the two interdependent divisions of the nervous system is the central nervous system. What is the second division?
a. Peripheral nervous system
Contraction of the hamstring and rectus abdominis muscles create what motion of the pelvis in the sagittal plane?
a. Posterior pelvic tilt
Individuals in this stage of change may sporadically engage in physical activity but without any form, structure, or consistency.
a. Preparation
Which of the following should be emphasized the most in a core training program?
a. Quality of movement
Abnormal breathing may be associated with which of the following effects?
a. Shallow rapid breaths with use of the sternocleidomastoid
Which two electrolytes are most commonly supplemented by athletes to replace those lost in sweat?
a. Sodium and potassium
What is the primary action of the multifidus?
a. Stabilize and extend the spine
In which training stage would you utilize work intervals performed just above VT1 and recovery intervals performed below VT1?
a. Stage 2 training
What plyometric term relates to a rapid eccentric motion followed by an explosive concentric motion?
a. Stretch-shortening cycle
Which part of a food label would help a client review the ingredients in a food product?
a. The ingredients list
What is bioenergetics?
a. The study of the ways in which food is turned into energy
What percentage of adults experience low-back pain at least once in their lifetime?
b. 80%
Which of the following represents a criterion for terminating an exercise test or exercise bout that involves exertion?
b. Any indication of chest pain or angina-like symptoms
Which exercise primarily strengthens the gastrocnemius and soleus?
b. Calf raise
What disease is a condition of altered airflow through the lungs, generally caused by airway obstruction due to mucus production?
b. Chronic obstructive lung disease
Most bodyweight training exercises are considered which type of movements?
b. Closed-chain movements
A client who has been training for 6 months has recently moved farther from the fitness facility. Which barrier should she be preparing to overcome?
b. Convenience
You are working with a new client who recently started a low-carbohydrate diet for weight loss. However, she complains of being tired and lacking energy for her training sessions. What might be the reason for her low energy?
b. Inadequate carbohydrate intake
Proper abdominal crunches on a stability ball allows for:
b. Increased spinal extension due to the curvature of the ball
How could the personal trainer make the "single-leg throw and catch" balance exercise more difficult for the client?
b. Increasing the velocity of each throw
Improving this using balance training would most likely decrease the risk of injury.
b. Injury resistance
How does the stretch-shortening cycle improve concentric force production?
b. It builds up extra heat in the muscles, which makes them more powerful.
When discussing suspended bodyweight training, which of the following is the most accurate statement?
b. It increases flexibility and joint mobility.
What type of movement happens during the concentric phase of plyometric exercise?
b. Jump
Omega-3 fatty acids do not include which of the following fatty acids?
b. Palmitic acid
Which of the following would not be an example of core musculature to stabilize the trunk and pelvis?
b. Pectoral group
Which phase of the OPT model introduces lifting near or at maximal intensity?
b. Phase 4
Using the healthcare continuum, how would training with a fitness professional be classified?
b. Preventive care
The body can adapt to new demands while becoming stronger and more resilient through which exercise programming approach?
b. Progressive overload
Which of the following nutrition professionals is nationally recognized by the Commission on Dietetic Registration to provide clinical, community, food service, and nutrition education?
b. Registered dietitian nutritionist
What are the three levels of the OPT model?
b. Stabilization, strength, and power
What is the complete transition from eccentric to concentric muscle actions known as?
b. Stretch-shortening cycle
What is defined as the distance covered in one stride?
b. Stride length
What does the electron transport chain (ETC) do?
b. The ETC uses a hydrogen gradient to create ATP.
An important aspect of an established exercise group includes which of the following?
b. The group feels distinct from other people.
What is an example of an individual in the exhaustion stage of the general adaptation syndrome?
b. The person has suffered an ACL sprain.
What are triglycerides?
b. The stored form of fat
The posterior oblique system includes which of the following muscle groups?
b. Thoracolumbar fascia and contralateral gluteus maximus
Which muscles are typically overactive in association with upper crossed syndrome?
b. Upper trapezius
Which sense provides information about changes in pressure on the skin, muscle length, and joint angles?
c. Somatosensory system
What phase of the OPT model aims to enhance stabilization endurance and simultaneously increase prime-mover strength?
c. Strength Endurance
The pathway for hormones secreted by the endocrine system may be described by which of the following?
c. The gland secretes the hormone, which travels through the bloodstream to reach a target cell, where it binds to a receptor and influences a particular action.
What are the three branched chain amino acids (BCAAs)?
c. Valine, leucine, and isoleucine
Unrealistic goals can become a barrier when which of the following happens?
c. When goals are not adjusted
Which of the following tests is designed to test reaction capabilities, acceleration, and maximal sprinting speed?
d. 40-yard dash
Before carbohydrates, fat, or protein can enter the citric acid cycle (CAC), they need to be converted to what common molecule?
d. Acetyl CoA
During what phase of the stretch-shortening cycle is stored elastic energy converted to explosive force production?
d. Amortization
Which ADL would be most likely to involve the hip hinge?
d. Cleaning
Which of the following defines the general goal or outcome of training in zone 1?
d. Develop an appropriate aerobic base
At the beginning of an exercise session, a client has shared that they are in a bad mood and would rather skip the session. Which of the following observations should the fitness professional share with the client?
d. Exercise is known to improve mood, even with bouts as short as 10 minutes, so exercise is a good remedy.
What is the primary function of the global muscles of the core?
d. Force production during dynamic whole-body movements
Which of the following is the initial assessment that should be completed prior to starting any exercise or training program?
d. Health risk assessment
Vitamin and mineral supplements are which kind of supplements?
d. Health supplements
The most well-known and well-researched effect of omega-3 fats relates to which of the following?
d. Heart health
Which of the following is not a goal of Phase 1 of the OPT model?
d. Increasing strength
What muscles does the tubing (shoulder) external rotation exercise primarily target?
d. Infraspinatus and teres minor
Which of the following should be considered when determining if a client is ready to undertake plyometric training?
d. Injury history
When a gymnast balances on a beam, they are aware of their body's general orientation and the relative position of its parts. This is due to which key sensory function?
d. Proprioception
According to the OPT model, an integrated program that is planned correctly will not include which of the following factors for training?
d. Rehabilitation
Which characteristic is exhibited by type I muscle fibers?
d. Slow to fatigue
What is atherosclerosis?
d. The processes by which plaque is formed in arteries leading to reduced blood flow
Why is the arching quadriceps stretch considered a controversial lower-body stretch?
d. The stretch provides excessive stress on the kneecap and other tissues in the front knee.
Iodine has a major role in which bodily process?
d. Thyroid function
What is the purpose of the Current Good Manufacturing Practices?
d. To provide guidelines to help ensure quality and purity of products
What type of diabetes occurs when specialized cells in the pancreas (called beta cells) stop producing insulin?
d. Type 1
If a new client indicates that they are frustrated with their lack of expected results, which barrier are they likely experiencing?
d. Unrealistic goals
Asking a client to close their eyes during a balance exercise would challenge which system?
d. Vestibular system
Davis's law describes what type of changes within the cumulative injury cycle?
- a. Adhesions may begin to form structural changes in the soft tissue.
What is glycogen?
- a. The storage form of carbohydrate in animals and humans
What is the recommended frequency for cardiorespiratory training if participating in moderate-intensity exercise like brisk walking?
a. 5 times a week
How can health best be defined?
a. A state of complete physical, mental, and social well-being, and not merely the absence of disease or infirmity
Which of the following would occur during intermittent exercise?
a. All three energy systems would be used at some point during the activity.
A community could influence physical activity for its inhabitants by doing which of the following?
a. Creating more green spaces, playgrounds, and walking trails
What group of hormones are released by the brain during exercise help reduce pain?
a. Endorphins
When a client makes a plan, such as, "When I am done with work, I will run for 30 minutes," what are they doing?
a. Forming an implementation intention
Which pressing exercise would be appropriate for someone who has high levels of upper-body strength but has no equipment because they are traveling?
a. Handstand push-up
Which muscle would be considered overactive, leading to the low back arching during the overhead squat assessment?
a. Hip flexor complex
What is a characteristic of a type I muscle fiber?
a. Less force production
Which muscle would be considered underactive, leading to shoulder elevation during the pushing assessment?
a. Lower trapezius
Which muscles are typically underactive in association with upper crossed syndrome?
a. Lower trapezius
Dan, an NASM Certified Personal Trainer, completed what he felt was a very successful interview with the hiring manager at a top fitness studio. What is the best course of action if Dan is interested in moving on to the next phase of the interview process?
b. Writing a handwritten note to thank the hiring manager for the opportunity to interview for the job
What is Bernadette's waist-to-hip ratio (WHR) if she is measured with a waist circumference of 28 inches and a hip circumference of 33 inches?
c. 0.85
Which of the following is an example of linear periodization?
c. 4 weeks in Phase 1 followed by 4 weeks in Phase 2
What are the three stages of the general adaptation syndrome?
c. Alarm reaction, resistance development, and exhaustion
Competitive athletes who performed balance training exercises reduced the risk of which injury by 46%?
c. Ankle sprains
Which of the following statements would be accurate with regard to muscle force and velocity during a concentric contraction?
c. As the velocity of the muscle action increases, its ability to produce force decreases.
Which type of muscle contraction/action attenuates force through muscle fiber lengthening?
c. Eccentric action
What breathing change occurs at the second ventilatory threshold (VT2)?
c. Expiration becomes more forceful.
What type of client is ideally suited for stage 2 training around VT1?
c. Fitness enthusiasts regularly engaging in physical activity or those seeking further improvements in cardiovascular endurance or weight loss
When discussing fitness trackers and heart rate monitors, which of the following statements is the most accurate?
c. Fitness trackers provide the user with conformational feedback, such as a recorded history of exercise time and effort.
How is upper crossed syndrome characterized?
c. Forward head and protracted shoulders
Which of the following is not a purpose of an effective cool-down?
c. Increase breathing rate
Which lower-body stretch is considered controversial and may be a risk for injury?
c. Inverted hurdler's stretch for hamstrings
Which individual is suffering from an acute disease?
c. Jorge, who is sick with the flu
How is a general warm-up best defined?
c. Low-intensity exercise consisting of movements that do not necessarily relate to the more intense exercise immediately following.
The intensity and direction of someone's effort describes which of the following?
c. Motivation
Which resistance training system is most appropriate for hypertensive clients?
c. Peripheral heart action system
How are dietary supplements defined?
c. Regulated dietary materials used to increase intake of a desired nutritional component
Which essential component of an OPT workout is beneficial for developing stability, muscular endurance, hypertrophy, strength, power, and athleticism?
c. Resistance training