Criminal justice EXAM #3

67) What percentage of state inmates represent themselves at trial? A) 3% B) 6% C) 50% D) 1%

A) 3%

28) Approximately ________ of all state-level felony defendants are released before trial. A) 91% B) 83% C) 57 % D) 10%

A) 91%

119) According to the latest statistics, what percentage of death-row inmates in the United States are male? A) 98% B) 78% C) 67% D) 88%

A) 98%

50) Which of the following is NOT a type of juror challenge? A) Challenges for knowledge B) Challenges to the array C) Challenges for cause D) Peremptory challenges

A) Challenges for knowledge

57) The ________ system relies on full-time salaried staff. A) public defender B) contract attorney C) assigned counsel D) private counsel

A) public defender

44) The most widely used system of indigent defense involves ________. A) public defender programs B) contract attorney programs C) victims' assistance programs D) court-appointed defense attorney's judicial degree programs.

A) public defender programs

11) How many regional courts of appeal are there in the United States? A) 10 B) 12 C) 6 D) 60

B) 12

22) How many states have intermediate appellate courts? A) 50 B) 39 C) 19 D) 15

B) 39

32) Approximately what percentage of states use grand juries as part of the pretrial process? A) 20% B) 50% C) 100% D) 30%

B) 50%

91) "Truth in sentencing" guarantees that offenders will serve at least ________ of their sentence. A) 50% B) 85% C) 25% D) 65%

B) 85%

117) The Supreme Court case of In re Kemmler deals with what form of execution? A) Hanging B) Electrocution C) Lethal injection D) Firing squad

B) Electrocution

2) Courts that have the authority to review a decision made by a lower court are said to have ________. A) limited jurisdiction B) appellate jurisdiction C) special jurisdiction D) original jurisdiction

B) appellate jurisdiction

103) Three-strikes laws require ________ sentencing. A) quasi-independent B) mandatory C) alternative D) indeterminate

B) mandatory

100) What goal of sentencing is sometimes referred to as the "lock 'em up approach"? A) Rehabilitation B) Retribution C) Deterrence D) Incapacitation

D) Incapacitation

66) What is the single most important criterion for determining the level of proof necessary for conviction in criminal trials? A) Ethical and procedural standards B) Standards of professional responsibility C) Standards for criminal justice D) Reasonable doubt standard

D) Reasonable doubt standard

23) Which of the following is NOT a reason for the dependent's first appearance before a judge? A) The defendant is afforded the opportunity for bail. B) The defendant is given formal notice of the charges. C) The defendant is advised of his or her rights. D) The defendant is given the opportunity to cross-examine witnesses.

D) The defendant is given the opportunity to cross-examine witnesses.

52) The ________ is a two-sided structure under which the American criminal trial court operates that pits the prosecution against the defense. A) grand jury system B) election system C) appointment system D) adversarial system

D) adversarial system

87) A model of criminal punishment in which an offender is given a fixed term that may be reduced by good time or gain time is called ________ sentencing. A) mandatory B) indeterminate C) quasi-independent D) determinate

D) determinate

62) One study suggests that some prosecutors have an inherent tendency to be lenient toward ________ defendants but discriminate against ________ defendants when deciding whether to prosecute. A) minority; male B) male; female C) minority; female D) female; minority

D) female; minority

36) All of the following discretionary decisions are always inappropriate, EXCEPT ________. A) deciding not to prosecute friends or political cronies B) overzealously prosecuting a case to seek heightened visibility C) reducing charges in exchange for personal considerations D) following a state bar version of the ABA rules

D) following a state bar version of the ABA rules

85) A sentence of 8 to 25 years under the supervision of the state department of correction is an example of ________ sentencing. A) consecutive B) structured C) concurrent D) indeterminate

D) indeterminate

73) A jury that is isolated from the public has been ________. A) challenged B) preempted C) subpoenaed D) sequestered

D) sequestered

86) Proportionality holds that ________. A) caseloads should be equally divided among the available judges B) similar crimes should be punished with the same degree of severity C) caseloads should be equally divided among the available prosecutors D) the severity of sanctions should bear a direct relationship to the seriousness of the crime

D) the severity of sanctions should bear a direct relationship to the seriousness of the crime

1) High-level appellate courts are also referred to as ________. A) courts of last resort B) trial courts of limited jurisdiction C) trial courts of general jurisdiction D) intermediate appellate courts

A) courts of last resort

74) Juries in most states are composed of how many members? A) 8 B) 23 C) 12 D) 6

C) 12

77) How many states allow the use of videotaped testimony for child witnesses? A) 12 B) 24 C) 37 D) 32

C) 37

121) About how many offenses are punishable by death under federal laws? A) 30 B) 20 C) 60 D) 100

C) 60

104) Approximately what percentage of federal cases is the result of guilty pleas? A) 50% B) 20% C) 90% D) 10%

C) 90%

20) All of the following EXCEPT which are names used in place of "trial court of general jurisdiction"? A) Superior court B) High court C) Appellate court D) Circuit court

C) Appellate court

60) Which of the following is an example of jury tampering? A) Addressing the jury in the courtroom B) Avoiding jury duty C) Contacting a sequestered jury D) Wrangling over jury selection

C) Contacting a sequestered jury

70) Who creates a record of all that occurs during the trial? A) Bailiff B) Court administrator C) Court reporter D) Clerk of court

C) Court reporter

90) ________ states eliminated the use of parole and created explicit standards to specify the amount of punishment appropriate for a given offense. A) Presumptive B) Indeterminate C) Determinate D) Mandatory

C) Determinate

102) Which of the following is a form of structured sentencing? A) Contemporary sentencing B) Quasi-independent sentencing C) Determinate sentencing D) Indeterminate sentencing

C) Determinate sentencing

109) ________ is known as the suspension of criminal proceedings before sentencing and referral to a private agency. A) Long form B) Short form C) Diversion D) Presentence investigation

C) Diversion

118) The Supreme Court case of Wilkerson v. Utah deals with what form of execution? A) Electrocution B) Lethal injection C) Firing squad D) Hanging

C) Firing squad

96) Which the following is the primary sentencing tool of the just deserts model? A) Probation B) Fine C) Imprisonment D) Restitution

C) Imprisonment

17) Which of the following refers to the lawful authority of a court to hear or to act on a case from its beginning and to pass judgment on the law and the facts? A) Limited jurisdiction B) Overlapping jurisdiction C) Original jurisdiction D) Appellate jurisdiction

C) Original jurisdiction

84) Which of the following refers to the goal of criminal sentencing that attempts to make the victim "whole again"? A) Deterrence B) Incapacitation C) Restoration D) Retribution

C) Restoration

120) Which of the following refers to the act of taking revenge on a criminal perpetrator? A) Adjudication B) Incapacitation C) Retribution D) Probation

C) Retribution

54) Which of the following officially notifies witnesses that they are to appear in court to testify? A) Sentence B) Appeal C) Subpoena D) Bill

C) Subpoena

3) Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of the U.S. Supreme Court? A) The U.S. Supreme Court wields immense power. B) The U.S. Supreme Court consists of nine justices. C) The U.S. Supreme Court justices serve for eight years. D) The U.S. Supreme Court is the highest federal court.

C) The U.S. Supreme Court justices serve for eight years.

37) Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding the role of the judge in the courtroom work group? A) If a guilty verdict has been returned, the judge is responsible for imposing a sentence. B) The judge holds ultimate authority in ruling on matters of law. C) The judge is responsible for presenting the state's case against the defendant. D) The primary duty of a judge is to ensure justice.

C) The judge is responsible for presenting the state's case against the defendant.

69) Which of the following is NOT a responsibility of a bailiff? A) To prevent the escape of the accused B) To announce the judge's entry into the courtroom C) To cross-examine witnesses D) To ensure order in the courtroom

C) To cross-examine witnesses

21) Which of the following provides the first appellate level for courts of limited jurisdiction? A) Courts of last resort B) Intermediate appellate courts C) Trial courts of general jurisdiction D) District courts

C) Trial courts of general jurisdiction

27) Which type of bail is similar to a credit contract? A) Conditional release B) Third-party custody C) Unsecured bonds D) Deposit bail

C) Unsecured bonds

10) McNabb v. U.S. formally established that a defendant has to appear at a first appearance within how many hours after arrest? A) 72 B) 24 C) 12 D) 48

D) 48

49) The federal Speedy Trial Act allows for the dismissal of charges when the prosecution does not seek indictment within 30 days of arrest, or when a trial does not begin within ________ working days after indictment. A) 180 B) 90 C) 120 D) 70

D) 70

124) Which of the following cases essentially says that requiring sentencing judges to consider facts not proven to a jury violates the Constitution? A) Elledge v. Florida B) Rita v. U.S. C) Gall v. U.S. D) Apprendi v. New Jersey

D) Apprendi v. New Jersey

41) What is the primary purpose of any criminal trial? A) Recognition of informal rules of civility B) Cooperation and communication with the police C) Instruction to meet the needs of trial judges D) Determination of the defendant's guilt or innocence

D) Determination of the defendant's guilt or innocence

43) Which of the following terms refers to the issue of whether the defendant is actually responsible for the crime of which he or she stands accused? A) Demonstrated guilt B) Implied guilt C) Legal guilt D) Factual guilt

D) Factual guilt

110) Which of the following Supreme Court cases limited the number of appeals a condemned person may lodge with the courts? A) Gregg v. Georgia B) Furman v. Georgia C) Coleman v. Thompson D) McCleskey v. Zant

D) McCleskey v. Zant

18) As state court systems developed, which of the following court models was copied by most states? A) Federal Judiciary Act of 1789 B) Federal Reorganization Act of 1801 C) Magistrate's Act of 1968 D) New York State Field Code of 1848

D) New York State Field Code of 1848

16) Which of the following is NOT an alternative to bail? A) Third-party custody B) Conditional release C) Release on recognizance D) Nolo contendere

D) Nolo contendere

63) Which of the following terms describes an attorney who works for a law firm? A) Public defender B) Prosecuting attorney C) Court-appointed counsel D) Private attorney

D) Private attorney

114) Which sentencing principle holds that the severity of sanctions should bear a direct relationship to the seriousness of the crime committed? A) Social debt B) Deterrence C) Equity D) Proportionality

D) Proportionality

79) Which of the following is a just deserts perspective that emphasizes taking revenge on a criminal perpetrator or group of offenders? A) Deterrence B) Restoration C) Rehabilitation D) Retribution

D) Retribution

113) Which of the following sentencing principles objectively holds that an offender's criminal history should be taken into account in sentencing decisions? A) Equity B) Good time C) Proportionality D) Social debt

D) Social debt

42) Who keeps order in the courtroom and announces the judge's entry to the courtroom? A) The clerk of court B) The court administrator C) The court recorder D) The bailiff

D) The bailiff

128) What is the primary purpose of the preliminary hearing? A) To once again inform the defendant of the specific charges against him or her B) To allow the defendant to enter a plea C) To help ensure reappearance of the accused D) To give the defendant the opportunity to challenge the legal basis for detention

D) To give the defendant the opportunity to challenge the legal basis for detention

31) Which of the following cases supports the decision by Congress to deny bail to offenders who represent a danger to the community? A) Sell v. U.S. B) McNabb v. U.S. C) U.S. v. Montalvo-Murillo D) U.S. v. Hazzard

D) U.S. v. Hazzard

51) In 1972, the Judicial Conference of the United States adopted a policy opposing ________ in district courts, and that policy was incorporated into the Code of Conduct for United States Judges. A) movement of a trial to another location B) broadcast of in-camera trials C) media coverage of proceedings D) broadcast of civil proceedings

D) broadcast of civil proceedings

61) The most important form of prosecutorial discretion lies in the power to ________. A) serve as a judge of probate to oversee wills and the administration of estates B) test the credibility and the memory of the witness C) handle certain matters relating to individuals declared mentally incompetent D) charge, or not to charge, a person with an offense

D) charge, or not to charge, a person with an offense

108) The U.S. Supreme Court approved a two-step trial procedure in the case of Gregg v. Georgia pertaining to ________. A) alternative sentencing B) writs of habeas corpus C) felonies D) death penalty cases

D) death penalty cases

6) A formal written accusation submitted to the court by a grand jury, alleging that a specified person has committed a specified offense, usually a felony, is known as an ________. A) arraignment B) enforcement C) assessment D) indictment

D) indictment

9) A formal written accusation submitted to a court by a prosecutor, alleging that a specified person has committed a specified offense, is known as a(n) ________. A) arraignment B) bail C) plea D) information

D) information

39) The role of a defense attorney does NOT include ________. A) representing the accused B) testing the strength of the prosecution's case C) appealing a conviction D) representing the state

D) representing the state

111) Opportunities for federal appeals by death-row inmates were further limited by the ________ Act A) Antiterrorism and Effective Death Penalty B) Violent Crime Control and Law Enforcement C) Victims of Crime D) Victim and Witness Protection

A) Antiterrorism and Effective Death Penalty

58) Which of the following is NOT another name for a prosecuting attorney? A) Assigned counsel B) State's attorney C) District attorney D) Solicitor

A) Assigned counsel

68) Which of the following witnesses provides information about the personality, family life, business acumen, and so on of the defendant in an effort to show that this is not the kind of person who would commit the crime with which he or she is charged? A) Character witnesses B) Expert witnesses C) Secure witnesses D) Eyewitnesses

A) Character witnesses

71) Who is responsible for swearing in witnesses? A) Clerk of court B) Bailiff C) Judge D) Court recorder

A) Clerk of court

24) Which of the following is an alternative to the cash bond system? A) Conditional release B) Pretrial release C) Preliminary hearing D) Plea bargaining

A) Conditional release

29) Which of the following laws limits the right to bail for certain kinds of offenders? A) Danger law B) Detention law C) Offender law D) Judicial concern law

A) Danger law

7) At which stage of the hearing are defendants brought before a judge to possibly be afforded the opportunity for bail? A) First appearance B) Pretrial release C) Grand jury hearing D) Preliminary hearing

A) First appearance

94) Which of the following cases determined that the method of execution of an offender may not create a substantial risk of wanton and unnecessary infliction of pain, torture, or lingering death? A) Gregg v. Georgia B) Baze v. Rees C) Furman v. Georgia D) Atkins v. Virginia

A) Gregg v. Georgia

95) ________ takes into account the financial resources of the offender. A) Imprisonment B) A day fine C) Probation D) A writ

A) Imprisonment

101) Under the indeterminate sentencing model, what is the primary determinant of the amount of time served? A) Inmate's behavior while incarcerated B) Pressure from politicians C) Leniency of the judge D) Leniency of the parole board

A) Inmate's behavior while incarcerated

78) Which of the following is NOT one of the goals of contemporary sentencing? A) Mitigation B) Rehabilitation C) Restoration D) Incapacitation

A) Mitigation

93) Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of restorative justice? A) Pain is imposed to punish, deter, and prevent. B) The emphasis is on dialogue and negotiation. C) Victims are central to the process of resolving a crime. D) There is direct involvement by both the offender and the victim.

A) Pain is imposed to punish, deter, and prevent.

26) Bob consigned all of his stock holdings to the court as collateral against pretrial flight. What type of bail did he post? A) Property bond B) Deposit bail C) Unsecured bond D) Signature bond

A) Property bond

82) ________ is the earliest known rationale for punishment. A) Retribution B) Restoration C) Rehabilitation D) Incapacitation

A) Retribution

15) Which of the following cases is an example where the U.S. Supreme Court ruled that the use of antipsychotic drugs on a nonviolent offender who does not represent a danger while institutionalized must be in the defendant's best medical interest? A) Sell v. U.S. B) Herrera v. Collins C) U.S. v. Hazzard D) Marbury v. Madison

A) Sell v. U.S.

83) ________ deterrence seeks to reduce the likelihood of recidivism by convicted offenders. A) Specific B) Focused C) General D) Primary

A) Specific

45) Who is responsible for summoning members of the public for jury duty and subpoenaing witnesses for the prosecution and the defense? A) The clerk of court B) The court recorder C) The bailiff D) The court administrator

A) The clerk of court

89) Who is the final arbiter of the actual sentence served in a state that relies on an indeterminate sentencing scheme? A) The parole board B) The governor C) The judge D) The prosecutor

A) The parole board

38) Which work group member has the responsibility of demonstrating to a jury that a defendant is guilty beyond a reasonable doubt? A) The prosecutor B) The bailiff C) The defense counsel D) The judge

A) The prosecutor

116) Which of the following is NOT a right under the Crime Victims' Rights Act to the victims of federal crimes? A) The right to appeal any state or federal grant of clemency B) The right to confer with the federal prosecutor handling the case C) The right to be reasonably protected from the accused D) The right to proceedings free from unreasonable delay

A) The right to appeal any state or federal grant of clemency

99) According to the NVCAP, which is the most comprehensive victims' bill of rights? A) Victims' Rights and Protection Act of 2008 B) Victims of Crime Act of 1984 C) Victim and Witness Protection Act of 1982 D) Violent Crime Control and Law Enforcement Act of 1994

A) Victims' Rights and Protection Act of 2008

33) Which of the following is NOT decided during the preliminary hearing? A) Whether the defendant would be allowed to enter a plea B) Whether the crime occurred within the territorial jurisdiction of the court C) Whether there are reasonable grounds to believe that the defendant is guilty D) Whether the crime was committed

A) Whether the defendant would be allowed to enter a plea

56) Court-appointed defense attorneys, whose fees are paid at a set rate by local or state government, are also called ________. A) assigned counsel B) private counsel C) opposing counsel D) public counsel

A) assigned counsel

47) All of the following are outsiders to the courtroom work group, EXCEPT ________. A) bailiff B) victims C) defendants D) lay witnesses

A) bailiff

40) Criminal defendants who are unable to afford their own lawyer can use all of the following systems, EXCEPT ________. A) bailiffs B) contractual arrangements C) assigned counsel D) public defenders

A) bailiffs

75) Evidence that requires interpretation or that requires a judge or jury to reach a conclusion based on what the evidence indicates is called ________. A) circumstantial evidence B) direct evidence C) exculpatory evidence D) real evidence

A) circumstantial evidence

13) Bob's wallet was stolen while eating lunch at the university cafeteria. When the man who stole his wallet was caught, Bob opted to resolve the case informally at a ________. A) dispute-resolution center B) criminal justice center C) deferral court D) community court

A) dispute-resolution center

30) The lawful authority of a court to hear cases that arise within a specified geographic area or that involve particular kinds of law violations is known as ________. A) original jurisdiction B) special jurisdiction C) appellate jurisdiction D) limited jurisdiction

A) original jurisdiction

112) The U.S. Supreme Court case of McCleskey v. Kemp deals with the issue of ________ in capital crimes. A) racial discrepancies B) death sentencing rates C) death-qualified juries D) unguided discretion

A) racial discrepancies

64) A defendant would be entitled to counsel if she were too poor to afford an attorney in each of the following situations, EXCEPT if ________. A) she was charged with a misdemeanor with a maximum penalty of a $100 fine B) she was charged with a felony C) she was charged with a capital crime D) she was charged with a misdemeanor with a maximum penalty of six months in jail

A) she was charged with a misdemeanor with a maximum penalty of a $100 fine

81) Which of the following sentencing goals is closely associated with the phrase "an eye for an eye"? A) Rehabilitation B) Retribution C) Incapacitation D) Deterrence

B) Retribution

19) Which of the following is NOT part of the structure developed by states that follow the federal court model? A) Trial courts of general jurisdiction B) Special-purpose courts C) Appellate courts D) Trial courts of limited jurisdiction

B) Special-purpose courts

8) There are ________ federal judicial districts. A) 18 B) 94 C) 14 D) 64

B) 94

123) In ________ the U.S. Supreme Court recognized that evolving standards of decency might necessitate a reconsideration of whether the death penalty violated the Eighth Amendment. A) Coker v. Georgia B) Furman v. Georgia C) Woodson v. North Carolina D) Schriro v. Summerlin

B) Furman v. Georgia

4) Which Supreme Court case held that new evidence of innocence is no reason to order a new state trial when constitutional grounds are lacking? A) Keeney v. Tamayo-Reyes B) Herrera v. Collins C) McNabb v. U.S. D) Marbury v. Madison

B) Herrera v. Collins

80) Which of the following refers to the use of imprisonment or other means to reduce the likelihood that a particular offender will commit more crime? A) Rehabilitation B) Incapacitation C) Deterrence D) Retribution

B) Incapacitation

122) What method of execution is used in most death-penalty states? A) Hanging B) Lethal injection C) Firing squad D) Electrocution

B) Lethal injection

12) In which U.S. Supreme Court case was the Court's authority as the final interpreter of the U.S. Constitution established? A) Sell v. U.S B) Marbury v. Madison C) U.S. v. Hazzard D) U.S v. Montalvo-Murillo

B) Marbury v. Madison

105) Which Supreme Court case upheld the constitutionality of the federal sentencing guidelines? A) Coleman v. Thompson B) Mistretta v. U.S. C) Coker v. Georgia D) Furman v. Georgia

B) Mistretta v. U.S.

55) Which of the following organizations, located on the campus of the University of Nevada at Reno, provides specialized training to judges? A) American Bar Association B) National Judicial College C) Bureau of Justice Statistics D) Judicial Training Academy

B) National Judicial College

34) What type of plea is most similar to a guilty plea? A) Negotiated plea B) No-contest plea C) Not guilty plea D) Bargained plea

B) No-contest plea

107) Which of the following is NOT a form of structured sentencing? A) Determinate B) Quasi-independent C) Presumptive D) Voluntary/advisory

B) Quasi-independent

125) Which of the following is NOT an advantage of fines? A) Fines can be collected by existing criminal justice agencies and are relatively inexpensive to administer. B) The impact of a fine depends on the ability of the sentenced person to pay. C) Fines can promote rehabilitation by enforcing economic responsibility D) Fines can be made proportionate to both the severity of the offense and the ability of the offender to pay.

B) The impact of a fine depends on the ability of the sentenced person to pay.

48) Which of the following represents the order of the steps in a criminal trial? A) The judge's charge to the jury, jury selection, opening statements, trial initiation, presentation of evidence, closing arguments, jury deliberations, the verdict B) Trial initiation, jury selection, opening statements, presentation of evidence, closing arguments, the judge's charge to the jury, jury deliberations, the verdict C) Jury selection, trial initiation, opening statements, presentation of evidence, closing arguments, the judge's charge to the jury, jury deliberations, the verdict D) Opening statements, jury selection, presentation of evidence, trial initiation, closing arguments, the judge's charge to the jury, jury deliberations, the verdict

B) Trial initiation, jury selection, opening statements, presentation of evidence, closing arguments, the judge's charge to the jury, jury deliberations, the verdict

92) When a judge, prior to sentencing, reviews information on the background of a convicted defendant, it is called ________. A) postconviction evidence B) a presentence investigation C) judicial choice D) a criminal history report

B) a presentence investigation

14) One purpose of ________ is to help ensure the reappearance of the accused at trial. A) adjudication B) bail C) plea D) arraignment

B) bail

65) A BJS survey found most of both state- and county-based public defender offices ________. A) had appropriately sized caseloads B) employed substantially fewer than needed support staff C) paid their attorneys over $80,000 a year D) employed private attorneys

B) employed substantially fewer than needed support staff

88) Cooperating with the authorities, good character, and no prior record are examples of ________ circumstances. A) compensatory B) mitigating C) unforeseen D) aggravating

B) mitigating

115) A defendant having no record of criminal convictions punishable by more than 60 days of imprisonment is an example of ________. A) advisory sentencing B) mitigating circumstances C) truth in sentencing D) aggravating circumstances

B) mitigating circumstances

97) The Innocence Protection Act of 2004 provides federal funds to help eliminate ________. A) the use of firing squads as a means of execution B) the backlog of unanalyzed DNA samples C) the writ of habeas corpus D) structured sentencing

B) the backlog of unanalyzed DNA samples

76) The Batson decision laid out the requirements defendants must prove when seeking to establish ________. A) ineffective assistance of counsel B) the discriminatory use of peremptory challenges C) an exception to the hearsay rule D) the right to a free lawyer

B) the discriminatory use of peremptory challenges

5) On appeal, when a trial court of general jurisdiction offers a new trial instead of the review of the lower court's decision, it is giving a ________. A) jury trial B) trial de novo C) constitutional trial D) adversarial trial

B) trial de novo

46) Criminal trials under the American system of justice are built around ________. A) a public defender system B) the grand jury system C) an adversarial system D) the court system

C) an adversarial system

25) A document guaranteeing the appearance of a defendant in court as required and recording the pledge of money or property to be paid to the court if he or she does not appear is known as a(n) ________. A) unsecured bond B) property bond C) bail bond D) signature bond

C) bail bond

98) The U.S. Supreme Court has ruled that ________ must decide the facts that lead to a death sentence. A) appellate courts B) high courts C) juries, not judges D) judges, not juries

C) juries, not judges

127) When a defendant "stands mute" at his arraignment, he is considered to have entered a ________. A) guilty plea B) no-contest plea C) not guilty plea D) negotiated plea

C) not guilty plea

59) During a trial, the ________ stage happens before the ________ stage, but after the ________ stage. A) closing arguments; opening statement; jury selection B) presentation of evidence; opening statement; closing statement C) opening statement; closing statement; jury selection D) jury selection; opening statement; presentation of evidence

C) opening statement; closing statement; jury selection

126) The intentional making of a false statement as part of the testimony by a sworn witness in a judicial proceeding is called ________. A) probative value B) hearsay C) perjury D) reasonable doubt

C) perjury

53) Weapons, tire tracks, and fingerprints are examples of ________. A) circumstantial evidence B) exculpatory evidence C) real evidence D) testimonial evidence

C) real evidence

72) A written order issued by a judicial officer requiring an individual to appear in court to give testimony is called a ________. A) warrant B) verdict C) subpoena D) motion

C) subpoena

35) All of the following are considered professionals in the courtroom work group, EXCEPT the ________. A) judge B) defense attorney C) victim D) prosecuting attorney

C) victim

106) Recommended sentencing policies that are not required by law are known as ________. A) indeterminate sentencing B) determinate sentencing C) voluntary sentencing guidelines D) presumptive sentencing

C) voluntary sentencing guidelines