crisis 2 exam five practice questions

755. Allopurinol is prescribed for a client and the nurse provides medication instructions to the client. Which instruction should the nurse provide? 1. Drink 3000 mL of fluid a day. 2. Take the medication on an empty stomach. 3. The effect of the medication will occur immediately. 4. Any swelling of the lips is a normal expected response.

1. Drink 3000 mL of fluid a day. Rationale: Clients taking allopurinol are encouraged to drink 3000 mL of fluid a day, unless otherwise contraindicated. A full therapeutic effect may take 1 week or longer. Allopurinol is to be given with, or immediately after, meals or milk. A client who develops a rash, irritation of the eyes, or swelling of the lips or mouth should contact the primary health care provider because this may indicate hypersensitivity.

738. Which cast care instructions should the nurse provide to a client who just had a plaster cast applied to the right forearm? Select all that apply. 1. Keep the cast clean and dry. 2. Allow the cast 24 to 72 hours to dry. 3. Keep the cast and extremity elevated. 4. Expect tingling and numbness in the extremity. 5. Use a hair dryer set on a warm to hot setting to dry the cast. 6. Use a soft, padded object that will fit under the cast to scratch the skin under the cast.

1, 2, 3 Rationale: A plaster cast takes 24 to 72 hours to dry (synthetic casts dry in 20 minutes). The cast and extremity should be elevated to reduce edema if prescribed. A wet cast is handled with the palms of the hand until it is dry, and the extremity is turned (unless contraindicated) so that all sides of the wet cast will dry. A cool setting on the hair dryer can be used to dry a plaster cast (heat cannot be used on a plaster cast because the cast heats up and burns the skin). The cast needs to be kept clean and dry, and the client is instructed not to stick anything under the cast because of the risk of breaking skin integrity. The client is instructed to monitor the extremity for circulatory impairment, such as pain, swelling, discoloration, tingling, numbness, coolness, or diminished pulse. The primary health care provider is notified immediately if circulatory impairment occurs.

761. In monitoring a client's response to disease-modifying antirheumatic drugs (DMARDs), which assessment findings would the nurse consider acceptable responses? Select all that apply. 1. Control of symptoms during periods of emotional stress 2. Normal white blood cell, platelet, and neutrophil counts 3. Radiological findings that show no progression of joint degeneration 4. An increased range of motion in the affected joints 3 months into therapy 5. Inflammation and irritation at the injection site 3 days after the injection is given 6. A low-grade temperature on rising in the morning that remains throughout the day

1, 2, 3, 4 Rationale: Because emotional stress frequently exacerbates the symptoms of rheumatoid arthritis, the absence of symptoms is a positive finding. DMARDs are given to slow the progression of joint degeneration. In addition, an improvement in the range of motion after 3 months of therapy with normal blood work is a positive finding. Temperature elevation and inflammation and irritation at the medication injection site could indicate signs of infection.

696. The nurse is preparing to administer eye drops. Which interventions should the nurse take to administer the drops? Select all that apply. 1. Wash hands. 2. Put gloves on. 3. Place the drop in the conjunctival sac. 4. Pull the lower lid down against the cheekbone. 5. Instruct the client to squeeze the eyes shut after instilling the eye drop. 6. Instruct the client to tilt the head forward, open the eyes, and look down.

1, 2, 3, 4 Rationale: To administer eye medications, the nurse should wash hands and put gloves on. The client is instructed to tilt the head backward, open the eyes, and look up. The nurse pulls the lower lid down against the cheekbone and holds the bottle like a pencil with the tip downward. Holding the bottle, the nurse gently rests the wrist of the hand on the client's cheek and squeezes the bottle gently to allow the drop to fall into the conjunctival sac. The client is instructed to close the eyes gently and not to squeeze the eyes shut to prevent the loss of medication.

711. The nurse is assigned to care for a client with complete right-sided hemiparesis from a stroke (brain attack). Which characteristics are associated with this condition? Select all that apply. 1. The client is aphasic. 2. The client has weakness on the right side of the body. 3. The client has complete bilateral paralysis of the arms and legs. 4. The client has weakness on the right side of the face and tongue. 5. The client has lost the ability to move the right arm but is able to walk independently. 6. The client has lost the ability to ambulate independently but is able to feed and bathe herself or himself without assistance.

1, 2, 4 Rationale: Hemiparesis is a weakness of one side of the body that may occur after a stroke. It involves weakness of the face and tongue, arm, and leg on one side. These clients are also aphasic, unable to discriminate words and letters. They are generally very cautious and get anxious when attempting a new task. Complete bilateral paralysis does not occur in hemiparesis. The client with right-sided hemiparesis has weakness of the right arm and leg and needs assistance with feeding, bathing, and ambulating.

745. The nurse has given the client instructions about crutch safety. Which statements indicate that the client understands the instructions? Select all that apply. 1. "I should not use someone else's crutches." 2. "I need to remove any scatter rugs at home." 3. "I can use crutch tips even when they are wet." 4. "I need to have spare crutches and tips available." 5. "When I'm using the crutches, my arms need to be completely straight."

1, 2, 4 Rationale: The client should use only crutches measured for the client. When assessing for home safety, the nurse ensures that the client knows to remove any scatter rugs and does not walk on highly waxed floors. The tips should be inspected for wear, and spare crutches and tips should be available if needed. Crutch tips should remain dry. If crutch tips get wet, the client should dry them with a cloth or paper towel. When walking with crutches, both elbows need to be flexed not more than 30 degrees when the palms are on the handle.

708. A client with a spinal cord injury is prone to experiencing autonomic dysreflexia. The nurse should include which measures in the plan of care to minimize the risk of occurrence? Select all that apply. 1. Keeping the linens wrinkle-free under the client 2. Preventing unnecessary pressure on the lower limbs 3. Limiting bladder catheterization to once every 12 hours 4. Turning and repositioning the client at least every 2 hours 5. Ensuring that the client has a bowel movement at least once a week

1, 2, 4 Rationale: The most frequent cause of autonomic dysreflexia is a distended bladder. Straight catheterization should be done every 4 to 6 hours (catheterization every 12 hours is too infrequent), and urinary catheters should be checked frequently to prevent kinks in the tubing. Constipation and fecal impaction are other causes, so maintaining bowel regularity is important. Ensuring a bowel movement once a week is much too infrequent. Other causes include stimulation of the skin from tactile, thermal, or painful stimuli. The nurse administers care to minimize risk in these areas.

760. Cyclobenzaprine is prescribed for a client for muscle spasms, and the nurse is reviewing the client's record. Which disorder, if noted in the record, would indicate a need to contact the primary health care provider about the administration of this medication? 1. Glaucoma 2. Emphysema 3. Hypothyroidism 4. Diabetes mellitus

1. Glaucoma Rationale: Because cyclobenzaprine has anticholinergic effects, it should be used with caution in clients with a history of urinary retention, glaucoma, and increased intraocular pressure. Cyclobenzaprine should be used only for a short time (2 to 3 weeks). The conditions in options 2, 3, and 4 are not a concern with this medication.

720. The nurse is instituting seizure precautions for a client who is being admitted from the emergency department. Which measures should the nurse include in planning for the client's safety? Select all that apply. 1. Padding the side rails of the bed. 2. Placing an airway at the bedside. 3. Placing the bed in the high position. 4. Putting a padded tongue blade at the head of the bed. 5. Placing oxygen and suction equipment at the bedside. 6. Flushing the intravenous catheter to ensure that the site is patent.

1, 2, 5, 6 Rationale: Seizure precautions may vary from agency to agency, but they generally have some common features. Usually, an airway, oxygen, and suctioning equipment are kept available at the bedside. The side rails of the bed are padded, and the bed is kept in the lowest position. The client has an intravenous access in place to have a readily accessible route if antiseizure medications must be administered, and as part of the routine assessment the nurse should be checking patency of the catheter. The use of padded tongue blades is highly controversial, and they should not be kept at the bedside. Forcing a tongue blade into the mouth during a seizure more likely will harm the client who bites down during seizure activity. Risks include blocking the airway from improper placement, chipping the client's teeth, and subsequent risk of aspirating tooth fragments. If the client has an aura before the seizure, it may give the nurse enough time to place an oral airway before seizure activity begins.

710. The nurse is caring for a client who begins to experience seizure activity while in bed. Which actions should the nurse take? Select all that apply. 1. Loosening restrictive clothing. 2. Restraining the client's limbs. 3. Removing the pillow and raising padded side rails. 4. Positioning the client to the side, if possible, with the head flexed forward. 5. Keeping the curtain around the client and the room door open so when help arrives they can quickly enter to assist.

1, 3, 4 Rationale: Nursing actions during a seizure include providing for privacy, loosening restrictive clothing, removing the pillow and raising padded side rails in the bed, and placing the client on 1 side with the head flexed forward, if possible, to allow the tongue to fall forward and facilitate drainage. The limbs are never restrained because the strong muscle contractions could cause the client harm. If the client is not in bed when seizure activity begins, the nurse lowers the client to the floor, if possible; protects the head from injury; and moves furniture that may injure the client.

687. The nurse is preparing a teaching plan for a client who had a cataract extraction with intraocular implantation. Which home care measures should the nurse include in the plan? Select all that apply. 1. Avoid activities that require bending over. 2. Contact the surgeon if eye scratchiness occurs. 3. Take acetaminophen for minor eye discomfort. 4. Expect episodes of sudden severe pain in the eye. 5. Place an eye shield on the surgical eye at bedtime. 6. Contact the surgeon if a decrease in visual acuity occurs.

1, 3, 5, 6 Rationale: Following eye surgery, some scratchiness and mild eye discomfort may occur in the operative eye and usually is relieved by mild analgesics. If the eye pain becomes severe, the client should notify the surgeon, because this may indicate hemorrhage, infection, or increased intraocular pressure (IOP). The nurse also would instruct the client to notify the surgeon of increased purulent drainage, increased redness, or any decrease in visual acuity. The client is instructed to place an eye shield over the operative eye at bedtime to protect the eye from injury during sleep and to avoid activities that increase IOP, such as bending over

743. A client is being discharged to home after application of a plaster leg cast. Which statement indicates that the client understands proper care of the cast? 1. "I need to avoid getting the cast wet." 2. "I need to cover the casted leg with warm blankets." 3. "I need to use my fingertips to lift and move my leg." 4. "I need to use something like a padded coat hanger end to scratch under the cast if it itches."

1. "I need to avoid getting the cast wet." Rationale: A plaster cast must remain dry to keep its strength. The cast should be handled with the palms of the hands, not the fingertips, until fully dry; using the fingertips results in indentations in the cast and skin pressure under the cast. Air should circulate freely around the cast to help it dry; the cast also gives off heat as it dries. The client should never scratch under the cast because of the risk of altered skin integrity; the client may use a hair dryer on the cool setting to relieve an itch.

699. A client is prescribed an eye drop and an eye ointment for the right eye. How should the nurse best administer the medications? 1. Administer the eye drop first, followed by the eye ointment. 2. Administer the eye ointment first, followed by the eye drop. 3. Administer the eye drop, wait 15 minutes, and administer the eye ointment. 4. Administer the eye ointment, wait 15 minutes, and administer the eye drop.

1. Administer the eye drop first, followed by the eye ointment. Rationale: When an eye drop and an eye ointment are scheduled to be administered at the same time, the eye drop is administered first. The instillation of two medications is separated by 3 to 5 minutes.

683. The client sustains a contusion of the eyeball following a traumatic injury with a blunt object. Which intervention should be initiated immediately? 1. Apply ice to the affected eye. 2. Irrigate the eye with cool water. 3. Notify the primary health care provider (PHCP). 4. Accompany the client to the emergency department.

1. Apply ice to the affected eye. Rationale: Treatment for a contusion begins at the time of injury. Ice is applied immediately. The client then should be seen by a PHCP and receive a thorough eye examination to rule out the presence of other eye injuries.

676. During the early postoperative period, a client who has undergone a cataract extraction complains of nausea and severe eye pain over the operative site. What should be the initial nursing action? 1. Call the surgeon. 2. Reassure the client that this is normal. 3. Turn the client onto her or his operative side. 4. Administer the prescribed pain medication and antiemetic.

1. Call the surgeon. Rationale: Severe pain or pain accompanied by nausea following a cataract extraction is an indicator of increased intraocular pressure and should be reported to the surgeon immediately. Options 2, 3, and 4 are inappropriate actions.

746. The nurse is caring for a client being treated for fat embolus after multiple fractures. Which data would the nurse evaluate as the most favorable indication of resolution of the fat embolus? 1. Clear mentation 2. Minimal dyspnea 3. Oxygen saturation of 85% 4. Arterial oxygen level of 78 mm Hg

1. Clear mentation Rationale: An altered mental state is an early indication of fat emboli; therefore, clear mentation is a good indicator that a fat embolus is resolving. Eupnea, not minimal dyspnea, is a normal sign. Arterial oxygen levels should be 80 to 100 mm Hg. Oxygen saturation should be higher than 95%.

686. A woman was working in her garden. She accidentally sprayed insecticide into her right eye. She calls the emergency department, frantic and screaming for help. The nurse should instruct the woman to take which immediate action? 1. Irrigate the eyes with water. 2. Come to the emergency department. 3. Call the primary health care provider (PHCP). 4. Irrigate the eyes with diluted hydrogen peroxide.

1. Irrigate the eyes with water. Rationale: In this type of accident, the client is instructed to irrigate the eyes immediately with running water for at least 20 minutes, or until the emergency medical services personnel arrive. In the emergency department, the cleansing agent of choice is usually normal saline. Calling the PHCP and going to the emergency department delays necessary intervention. Hydrogen peroxide is never placed in the eyes.

714. The nurse is teaching a client with myasthenia gravis about the prevention of myasthenic and cholinergic crises. Which client activity suggests that teaching is most effective? 1. Taking medications as scheduled 2. Eating large, well-balanced meals 3. Doing muscle-strengthening exercises 4. Doing all chores early in the day while less fatigued

1. Taking medications as scheduled Rationale: Clients with myasthenia gravis are taught to space out activities over the day to conserve energy and restore muscle strength. Taking medications correctly to maintain blood levels that are not too low or too high is important. Muscle-strengthening exercises are not helpful and can fatigue the client. Overeating is a cause of exacerbation of symptoms, as is exposure to heat, crowds, erratic sleep habits, and emotional stress.

751. The nurse is caring for a client who has had spinal fusion, with insertion of hardware. The nurse would be most concerned with which assessment finding? 1. Temperature of 101.6° F (38.7° C) orally 2. Complaints of discomfort during repositioning 3. Old bloody drainage outlined on the surgical dressing 4. Discomfort during coughing and deep-breathing exercises

1. Temperature of 101.6° F (38.7° C) orally Rationale: The nursing assessment conducted after spinal surgery is similar to that done after other surgical procedures. For this specific type of surgery, the nurse assesses the neurovascular status of the lower extremities, watches for signs and symptoms of infection, and inspects the surgical site for evidence of cerebrospinal fluid leakage (drainage is clear and tests positive for glucose). A mild temperature is expected after insertion of hardware, but a temperature of 101.6° F (38.7° C) should be reported.

692. The nurse is preparing to test the visual acuity of a client, using a Snellen chart. Which identifies the accurate procedure for this visual acuity test? 1. The right eye is tested, followed by the left eye, and then both eyes are tested. 2. Both eyes are assessed together, followed by an assessment of the right eye and then the left eye. 3. The client is asked to stand at a distance of 40 feet (12 meters) from the chart and to read the largest line on the chart. 4. The client is asked to stand at a distance of 40 feet (12 meters) from the chart and to read the line that can be read 200 feet (60 meters) away by an individual with unimpaired vision.

1. The right eye is tested, followed by the left eye, and then both eyes are tested. Rationale: The nurse instructs the client to make slow head movements to prevent worsening of the vertigo. Dietary changes such as salt and fluid restrictions that reduce the amount of endolymphatic fluid are sometimes prescribed. Lying still and watching television will not control vertigo.

697. The nurse prepares a client for ear irrigation as prescribed by the primary health care provider. Which action should the nurse take when performing the procedure? 1. Warm the irrigating solution to 98.6° F (37.0° C). 2. Position the client with the affected side up following the irrigation. 3. Direct a slow, steady stream of irrigation solution toward the eardrum. 4. Assist the client to turn her or his head so that the ear to be irrigated is facing upward.

1. Warm the irrigating solution to 98.6° F (37.0° C). Rationale: Before ear irrigation, the nurse should inspect the tympanic membrane to ensure that it is intact. The irrigating solution should be warmed to 98.6° F (37.0° C), because a solution temperature that is not close to the client's body temperature will cause ear injury, nausea, and vertigo. The nurse should check the temperature of the solution on the inner forearm. The affected side should be down following the irrigation to assist in drainage of the fluid. When irrigating, a direct and slow steady stream of irrigation solution is directed toward the wall of the canal, not toward the eardrum. The client is positioned sitting, facing forward with the head in a natural position; if the ear is faced upward, the nurse would not be able to visualize the canal.

722. The nurse has completed discharge instructions for a client with application of a halo device who sustained a cervical spinal cord injury. Which statement indicates that the client needs further clarification of the instructions? 1. "I will use a straw for drinking." 2. "I will drive only during the daytime." 3. "I will be careful because the device alters balance." 4. I will wash the skin daily under the lamb's wool liner of the vest."

2. "I will drive only during the daytime." Rationale: The halo device alters balance and can cause fatigue because of its weight. The client should cleanse the skin daily under the vest to protect the skin from ulceration and should avoid the use of powder or lotions. The liner should be changed if odor becomes a problem. The client should have food cut into small pieces to facilitate chewing and use a straw for drinking. Pin care is done as instructed. The client cannot drive at all, because the device impairs the range of vision.

682. A client arrives in the emergency department following an automobile crash. The client's forehead hit the steering wheel, and a hyphema is diagnosed. The nurse should place the client in which position? 1. Flat in bed 2. A semi-Fowler's position 3. Lateral on the affected side 4. Lateral on the unaffected side

2. A semi-Fowler's position Rationale: A hyphema is the presence of blood in the anterior chamber. Hyphema is produced when a force is sufficient to break the integrity of the blood vessels in the eye and can be caused by direct injury, such as a penetrating injury from a BB or pellet, or indirectly, such as from striking the forehead on a steering wheel during an accident. The client is treated by bed rest in a semi-Fowler's position to assist gravity in keeping the hyphema away from the optical center of the cornea.

719. A client has a neurological deficit involving the limbic system. On assessment, which finding is specific to this type of deficit? 1. Is disoriented to person, place, and time. 2. Affect is flat, with periods of emotional lability. 3. Cannot recall what was eaten for breakfast today. 4. Demonstrates inability to add and subtract; does not know who is the president of the United States.

2. Affect is flat, with periods of emotional lability. Rationale: The limbic system is responsible for feelings (affect) and emotions. Calculation ability and knowledge of current events relate to function of the frontal lobe. The cerebral hemispheres, with specific regional functions, control orientation. Recall of recent events is controlled by the hippocampus.

691. A client with Meniere's disease is experiencing severe vertigo. Which instruction should the nurse give to the client to assist in controlling the vertigo? 1. Increase sodium in the diet. 2. Avoid sudden head movements. 3. Lie still and watch the television. 4. Increase fluid intake to 3000 mL a day.

2. Avoid sudden head movements. Rationale: The nurse instructs the client to make slow head movements to prevent worsening of the vertigo. Dietary changes such as salt and fluid restrictions that reduce the amount of endolymphatic fluid are sometimes prescribed. Lying still and watching television will not control vertigo.

758. The nurse is preparing discharge instructions for a client who sustained a skeletal muscle injury and is receiving baclofen. Which instruction should be included in the teaching plan? 1. Restrict fluid intake. 2. Avoid the use of alcohol. 3. Stop the medication if diarrhea occurs. 4. Notify the primary health care provider (PHCP) if fatigue occurs.

2. Avoid the use of alcohol. Rationale: Baclofen is a skeletal muscle relaxant. The client should be cautioned against the use of alcohol and other central nervous system depressants, because baclofen potentiates the depressant activity of these agents. Constipation, rather than diarrhea, is a side effect. Restriction of fluids is not necessary, but the client should be warned that urinary retention can occur. Fatigue is related to a central nervous system effect that is most intense during the early phase of therapy and diminishes with continued medication use. The client does not need to notify the PHCP about fatigue.

705. The nurse is caring for the client with increased intracranial pressure as a result of a head injury? The nurse would note which trend in vital signs if the intracranial pressure is rising? 1. Increasing temperature, increasing pulse, increasing respirations, decreasing blood pressure 2. Increasing temperature, decreasing pulse, decreasing respirations, increasing blood pressure 3. Decreasing temperature, decreasing pulse, increasing respirations, decreasing blood pressure 4. Decreasing temperature, increasing pulse, decreasing respirations, increasing blood pressure

2. Increasing temperature, decreasing pulse, decreasing respirations, increasing blood pressure Rationale: A change in vital signs may be a late sign of increased intracranial pressure. Trends include increasing temperature and blood pressure and decreasing pulse and respirations. Respiratory irregularities also may occur.

744. A client being measured for crutches asks the nurse why the crutches cannot rest up underneath the arm for extra support. The nurse responds knowing that which would most likely result from this improper crutch measurement? 1. A fall and further injury 2. Injury to the brachial plexus nerves 3. Skin breakdown in the area of the axilla 4. Impaired range of motion while the client ambulates

2. Injury to the brachial plexus nerves Rationale: Crutches are measured so that the tops are 2 to 3 fingerwidths from the axillae. This ensures that the client's axillae are not resting on the crutch or bearing the weight of the crutch, which could result in injury to the nerves of the brachial plexus. Although the conditions in options 1, 3, and 4 can occur, they are not the most likely result from resting the axilla directly on the crutches.

693. A client's vision is tested with a Snellen chart. The results of the tests are documented as 20/60. What action should the nurse implement based on this finding? 1. Provide the client with materials on legal blindness. 2. Instruct the client that he or she may need glasses when driving. 3. Inform the client of where he or she can purchase a white cane with a red tip. 4. Inform the client that it is best to sit near the back of the room when attending lectures.

2. Instruct the client that he or she may need glasses when driving. Rationale: Vision that is 20/20 is normal—that is, the client is able to read from 20 feet (6 meters) what a person with normal vision can read from 20 feet (6 meters). A client with a visual acuity of 20/60 can only read at a distance of 20 feet (6 meters) what a person with normal vision can read at 60 feet (18 meters). With this vision, the client may need glasses while driving in order to read signs and to see far ahead. The client should be instructed to sit in the front of the room for lectures to aid in visualization. This is not considered to be legal blindness.

756. Colchicine is prescribed for a client with a diagnosis of gout. The nurse reviews the client's record, knowing that this medication would be used with caution in which disorder? 1. Myxedema 2. Kidney disease 3. Hypothyroidism 4. Diabetes mellitus

2. Kidney disease Rationale: Colchicine is used with caution in older clients, debilitated clients, and clients with cardiac, kidney, or gastrointestinal disease. The disorders in options 1, 3, and 4 are not concerns with administration of this medication.

704. The nurse is assessing the motor and sensory function of an unconscious client who sustained a head injury. The nurse should use which technique to test the client's peripheral response to pain? 1. Sternal rub 2. Nailbed pressure 3. Pressure on the orbital rim 4. Squeezing of the sternocleidomastoid muscle

2. Nailbed pressure Rationale: Nailbed pressure tests a basic motor and sensory peripheral response. Cerebral responses to pain are tested using a sternal rub, placing upward pressure on the orbital rim, or squeezing the clavicle or sternocleidomastoid muscle.

688. Tonometry is performed on a client with a suspected diagnosis of glaucoma. The nurse looks at the documented test results and notes an intraocular pressure (IOP) value of 23. What should be the nurse's initial action? 1. Apply normal saline drops. 2. Note the time of day the test was done. 3. Contact the primary health care provider (PHCP). 4. Instruct the client to sleep with the head of the bed flat.

2. Note the time of day the test was done. Rationale: Tonometry is a method of measuring intraocular fluid pressure. Pressures between 10 and 21 mm Hg are considered within the normal range. However, IOP is slightly higher in the morning. Therefore, the initial action is to check the time the test was performed. Normal saline drops are not a specific treatment for glaucoma. It is not necessary to contact the PHCP as an initial action. Flat positions may increase the pressure.

747. The nurse has conducted teaching with a client in an arm cast about the signs and symptoms of compartment syndrome. The nurse determines that the client understands the information if the client states that he or she should report which early symptom of compartment syndrome? 1. Cold, bluish-colored fingers 2. Numbness and tingling in the fingers 3. Pain that increases when the arm is dependent 4. Pain that is out of proportion to the severity of the fracture

2. Numbness and tingling in the fingers Rationale: The earliest symptom of compartment syndrome is paresthesia (numbness and tingling in the fingers). Other symptoms include pain unrelieved by opioids, pain that increases with limb elevation, and pallor and coolness to the distal limb. Cyanosis is a late sign. Pain that is out of proportion to the severity of the fracture, along with other symptoms associated with the pain, is not an early manifestation.

684. A client arrives in the emergency department with a penetrating eye injury from wood chips that occurred while cutting wood. The nurse assesses the eye and notes a piece of wood protruding from the eye. What is the initial nursing action? 1. Apply an eye patch. 2. Perform visual acuity tests. 3. Irrigate the eye with sterile saline. 4. Remove the piece of wood using a sterile eye clamp.

2. Perform visual acuity tests. Rationale: If the eye injury is the result of a penetrating object, the object may be noted protruding from the eye. This object must never be removed except by the ophthalmologist, because it may be holding ocular structures in place. Application of an eye patch or irrigation of the eye may disrupt the foreign body and cause further tearing of the cornea.

754. A client has been on treatment for rheumatoid arthritis for 3 weeks. During the administration of etanercept, which is most important for the nurse to assess? 1. The injection site for itching and edema 2. The white blood cell counts and platelet counts 3. Whether the client is experiencing fatigue and joint pain 4. Whether the client is experiencing a metallic taste in the mouth and a loss of appetite

2. The white blood cell counts and platelet counts Rationale: Infection and pancytopenia are adverse effects of etanercept. Laboratory studies are performed prior to and during medication treatment. The appearance of abnormal white blood cell counts and abnormal platelet counts can alert the nurse to a potentially life-threatening infection. Injection site itching is a common occurrence following administration. A metallic taste and loss of appetite are not common signs of adverse effects of this medication.

680. A client is diagnosed with a problem involving the inner ear. Which is the most common client complaint associated with a problem involving this part of the ear? 1. Pruritus 2. Tinnitus 3. Hearing loss 4. Burning in the ear

2. Tinnitus Rationale: Tinnitus is the most common complaint of clients with otological problems, especially problems involving the inner ear. Symptoms of tinnitus range from mild ringing in the ear, which can go unnoticed during the day, to a loud roaring in the ear, which can interfere with the client's thinking process and attention span. Options 1, 3, and 4 are not associated specifically with problems of the inner ear.

752. The nurse is caring for a client with a diagnosis of gout. Which laboratory value would the nurse expect to note in the client? 1. Calcium level of 9.0 mg/dL (2.25 mmol/L) 2. Uric acid level of 9.0 mg/dL (540 mcmol/L) 3. Potassium level of 4.1 mEq/L (4.1 mmol/L) 4. Phosphorus level of 3.1 mg/dL (1.0 mmol/L)

2. Uric acid level of 9.0 mg/dL (540 mcmol/L) Rationale: In addition to the presence of clinical manifestations, gout is diagnosed by the presence of persistent hyperuricemia, with a uric acid level higher than 8 mg/dL (480 mcmol/L); a normal value for a male ranges from 4.0 to 8.5 mg/dL (240- 501 mcmol/L) and for a female, from 2.7 to 7.3 mg/dL (160-430 mcmol/L). Options 1, 3, and 4 indicate normal laboratory values. In addition, the presence of uric acid in an aspirated sample of synovial fluid confirms the diagnosis.

701. A miotic medication has been prescribed for the client with glaucoma, and the client asks the nurse about the purpose of the medication. Which response should the nurse provide to the client? 1. "The medication will help dilate the eye to prevent pressure from occurring." 2. "The medication will relax the muscles of the eyes and prevent blurred vision." 3. "The medication causes the pupil to constrict and will lower the pressure in the eye." 4. "The medication will help block the responses that are sent to the muscles in the eye."

3. "The medication causes the pupil to constrict and will lower the pressure in the eye." Rationale: Miotics cause pupillary constriction and are used to treat glaucoma. They lower the intraocular pressure, thereby increasing blood flow to the retina and decreasing retinal damage and loss of vision. Miotics cause a contraction of the ciliary muscle and a widening of the trabecular meshwork. Options 1, 2, and 4 are incorrect.

721. The nurse is evaluating the status of a client who had a craniotomy 3 days ago. Which assessment finding would indicate that the client is developing meningitis as a complication of surgery? 1. A negative Kernig's sign 2. Absence of nuchal rigidity 3. A positive Brudzinski's sign 4. A Glasgow Coma Scale score of 15

3. A positive Brudzinski's sign Rationale: Signs of meningeal irritation compatible with meningitis include nuchal rigidity, a positive Brudzinski's sign, and positive Kernig's sign. Nuchal rigidity is characterized by a stiff neck and soreness, which is especially noticeable when the neck is flexed. Kernig's sign is positive when the client feels pain and spasm of the hamstring muscles when the leg is fully flexed at the knee and hip. Brudzinski's sign is positive when the client flexes the hips and knees in response to the nurse gently flexing the head and neck onto the chest. A Glasgow Coma Scale score of 15 is a perfect score and indicates that the client is awake and alert, with no neurological deficits.

702. A client was just admitted to the hospital to rule out a gastrointestinal (GI) bleed. The client has brought several bottles of medications prescribed by different specialists. During the admission assessment, the client states, "Lately, I have been hearing some roaring sounds in my ears, especially when I am alone." Which medication would the nurse identify as the cause of the client's complaint? 1. Doxycycline 2. Atropine sulfate 3. Acetylsalicylic acid 4. Diltiazem hydrochloride

3. Acetylsalicylic acid Rationale: Aspirin (acetylsalicylic acid) is contraindicated for GI bleeding and is potentially ototoxic. The client should be advised to notify the prescribing primary health care provider so the medication can be discontinued and/or a substitute that is less toxic to the ear can be taken instead. Options 1, 2, and 4 do not have effects that are potentially associated with hearing difficulties.

750. A client is complaining of low back pain that radiates down the left posterior thigh. The nurse should ask the client if the pain is worsened or aggravated by which factor? 1. Bed rest 2. Ibuprofen 3. Bending or lifting 4. Application of heat

3. Bending or lifting Rationale: Low back pain that radiates down 1 leg (sciatica) is consistent with herniated lumbar disk. The nurse assesses the client to see whether the pain is aggravated by events that increase intraspinal pressure, such as bending, lifting, sneezing, and coughing, or by lifting the leg straight up while supine (straight legraising test). Bed rest, heat (or sometimes ice), and nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) usually relieve back pain.

762. The nurse is administering an intravenous dose of methocarbamol to a client with a muscle skeletal injury. For which adverse effect should the nurse monitor? 1. Tachycardia 2. Rapid pulse 3. Bradycardia 4. Hypertension

3. Bradycardia Rationale: Intravenous administration of methocarbamol can cause hypotension and bradycardia. The nurse needs to monitor for these adverse effects. Options 1, 2, and 4 are not effects with administration of this medication.

703. In preparation for cataract surgery, the nurse is to administer cyclopentolate eye drops at 9:00 a.m. for surgery that is scheduled for 9:15 a.m. What initial action should the nurse take in relation to the characteristics of the medication action? 1. Provide lubrication to the operative eye prior to giving the eye drops. 2. Call the surgeon, as this medication will further constrict the operative pupil. 3. Consult the surgeon, as there is not sufficient time for the dilative effects to occur. 4. Give the medication as prescribed; the surgeon needs optimal constriction of the pupil.

3. Consult the surgeon, as there is not sufficient time for the dilative effects to occur. Rationale: Cyclopentolate is a rapidly acting mydriatic and cycloplegic medication. Cyclopentolate is effective in 25 to 75 minutes, and accommodation returns in 6 to 24 hours. Cyclopentolate is used for preoperative mydriasis, not pupil constriction. The nurse should consult with the surgeon about the time of administration of the eye drops, because 15 minutes is not adequate time for dilation to occur.

677. The nurse is developing a teaching plan for a client with glaucoma. Which instruction should the nurse include in the plan of care? 1. Avoid overuse of the eyes. 2. Decrease the amount of salt in the diet. 3. Eye medications will need to be administered for life. 4. Decrease fluid intake to control the intraocular pressure.

3. Eye medications will need to be administered for life. Rationale: The administration of eye drops is a critical component of the treatment plan for the client with glaucoma. The client needs to be instructed that medications will need to be taken for the rest of her or his life. Options 1, 2, and 4 are not accurate instructions.

709. The nurse is evaluating the neurological signs of a client in spinal shock following spinal cord injury. Which observation indicates that spinal shock persists? 1. Hyperreflexia 2. Positive reflexes 3. Flaccid paralysis 4. Reflex emptying of the bladder

3. Flaccid paralysis Rationale: Resolution of spinal shock is occurring when there is return of reflexes (especially flexors to noxious cutaneous stimuli), a state of hyper-reflexia rather than flaccidity, and reflex emptying of the bladder.

741. A client has sustained a closed fracture and has just had a cast applied to the affected arm. The client is complaining of intense pain. The nurse elevates the limb, applies an ice bag, and administers an analgesic, with little relief. Which problem may be causing this pain? 1. Infection under the cast 2. The anxiety of the client 3. Impaired tissue perfusion 4. The recent occurrence of the fracture

3. Impaired tissue perfusion Rationale: Most pain associated with fractures can be minimized with rest, elevation, application of cold, and administration of analgesics. Pain that is not relieved by these measures should be reported to the primary health care provider because pain unrelieved by medications and other measures may indicate neurovascular compromise. Because this is a new closed fracture and cast, infection would not have had time to set in. Intense pain after casting is normally not associated with anxiety or the recent occurrence of the injury. Treatment following the fracture should assist in relieving the pain associated with the injury.

759. The nurse is analyzing the laboratory studies on a client receiving dantrolene to treat muscle spasms from an injury. Which laboratory test would identify an adverse effect associated with the administration of this medication? 1. Platelet count 2. Creatinine level 3. Liver function tests 4. Blood urea nitrogen level

3. Liver function tests Rationale: Dose-related liver damage is the most serious adverse effect of dantrolene. To reduce the risk of liver damage, liver function tests should be performed before treatment and throughout the treatment interval. Dantrolene is administered at the lowest effective dosage for the shortest time necessary.

695. Betaxolol hydrochloride eye drops have been prescribed for a client with glaucoma. Which nursing action is most appropriate related to monitoring for side and adverse effects of this medication? 1. Assessing for edema 2. Monitoring temperature 3. Monitoring blood pressure 4. Assessing blood glucose level

3. Monitoring blood pressure Rationale: Hypotension, dizziness, nausea, diaphoresis, headache, fatigue, constipation, and diarrhea are side and adverse effects of the medication. Nursing interventions include monitoring the blood pressure for hypotension and assessing the pulse for strength, weakness, irregular rate, and bradycardia. Options 1, 2, and 4 are not specifically associated with this medication.

685. The nurse is caring for a client following enucleation to treat an ocular tumor and notes the presence of bright red drainage on the dressing. Which action should the nurse take at this time? 1. Document the finding. 2. Continue to monitor the drainage. 3. Notify the primary health care provider (PHCP). 4. Mark the drainage on the dressing and monitor for any increase in bleeding.

3. Notify the primary health care provider (PHCP). Rationale: If the nurse notes the presence of bright red drainage on the dressing, it must be reported to the PHCP, because this indicates hemorrhage. Options 1, 2, and 4 are inappropriate at this time.

740. The nurse is assessing the casted extremity of a client. Which sign is indicative of infection? 1. Dependent edema 2. Diminished distal pulse 3. Presence of a "hot spot" on the cast 4. Coolness and pallor of the extremity

3. Presence of a "hot spot" on the cast Rationale: Signs of infection under a casted area include odor or purulent drainage from the cast or the presence of "hot spots," which are areas of the cast that are warmer than others. The primary health care provider should be notified if any of these occur. Signs of impaired circulation in the distal limb include coolness and pallor of the skin, diminished distal pulse, and edema.

718. A client with Guillain-Barré syndrome has ascending paralysis and is intubated and receiving mechanical ventilation. Which strategy should the nurse incorporate in the plan of care to help the client cope with this illness? 1. Giving client full control over care decisions and restricting visitors 2. Providing positive feedback and encouraging active range of motion 3. Providing information, giving positive feedback, and encouraging relaxation 4. Providing intravenously administered sedatives, reducing distractions, and limiting visitors

3. Providing information, giving positive feedback, and encouraging relaxation Rationale: The client with Guillain-Barré syndrome experiences fear and anxiety from the ascending paralysis and sudden onset of the disorder. The nurse can alleviate these fears by providing accurate information about the client's condition, giving expert care and positive feedback to the client, and encouraging relaxation and distraction. The family can become involved with selected care activities and provide diversion for the client as well.

749. The nurse is caring for a client who had an above-knee amputation 2 days ago. The residual limb was wrapped with an elastic compression bandage, which has come off. Which immediate action should the nurse take? 1. Apply ice to the site. 2. Call the primary health care provider (PHCP). 3. Rewrap the residual limb with an elastic compression bandage. 4. Apply a dry, sterile dressing and elevate the residual limb on 1 pillow.

3. Rewrap the residual limb with an elastic compression bandage. Rationale: If the client with an amputation has a cast or elastic compression bandage that slips off, the nurse must wrap the residual limb immediately with another elastic compression bandage. Otherwise, excessive edema will form rapidly, which could cause a significant delay in rehabilitation. If the client had a cast that slipped off, the nurse would have to call the PHCP so that a new one could be applied. Elevation on 1 pillow is not going to impede the development of edema greatly once compression is released. Ice would be of limited value in controlling edema from this cause. If the PHCP were called, the prescription likely would be to reapply the compression dressing anyway.

694. The nurse is caring for a hearing-impaired client. Which approach will facilitate communication? 1. Speak loudly. 2. Speak frequently. 3. Speak at a normal volume. 4. Speak directly into the impaired ear.

3. Speak at a normal volume. Rationale: Speaking in a normal tone to the client with impaired hearing and not shouting are important. The nurse should talk directly to the client while facing the client and speak clearly. If the client does not seem to understand what is said, the nurse should express it differently. Moving closer to the client and toward the better ear may facilitate communication, but the nurse should avoid talking directly into the impaired ear.

690. The nurse notes that the primary health care provider has documented a diagnosis of presbycusis on a client's chart. Based on this information, what action should the nurse take? 1. Speak loudly but mumble or slur the words. 2. Speak loudly and clearly while facing the client. 3. Speak at normal tone and pitch, slowly and clearly. 4. Speak loudly and directly into the client's affected ear.

3. Speak at normal tone and pitch, slowly and clearly. Rationale: Presbycusis is a type of hearing loss that occurs with aging. Presbycusis is a gradual sensorineural loss caused by nerve degeneration in the inner ear or auditory nerve. When communicating with a client with this condition, the nurse should speak at a normal tone and pitch, slowly and clearly. It is not appropriate to speak loudly, mumble or slur words, or speak into the client's affected ear.

739. The nurse is evaluating a client in skeletal traction. When evaluating the pin sites, the nurse would be most concerned with which finding? 1. Redness around the pin sites 2. Pain on palpation at the pin sites 3. Thick, yellow drainage from the pin sites 4. Clear, watery drainage from the pin sites

3. Thick, yellow drainage from the pin sites Rationale: The nurse should monitor for signs of infection such as inflammation, purulent (thick white or yellow) drainage, and pain at the pin site. However, some degree of inflammation, pain at the pin site, and serous drainage would be expected; the nurse should correlate assessment findings with other clinical findings, such as fever, elevated white blood cell count, and changes in vital signs. Additionally, the nurse should compare any findings to baseline findings to determine if there were any changes.

715. The nurse is instructing a client with Parkinson's disease about preventing falls. Which client statement reflects a need for further teaching? 1. "I can sit down to put on my pants and shoes." 2. "I try to exercise every day and rest when I'm tired." 3. "My son removed all loose rugs from my bedroom." 4. "I don't need to use my walker to get to the bathroom."

4. "I don't need to use my walker to get to the bathroom." Rationale: The client with Parkinson's disease should be instructed regarding safety measures in the home. The client should use her or his walker as support to get to the bathroom because of bradykinesia. The client should sit down to put on pants and shoes to prevent falling. The client should exercise every day in the morning when energy levels are highest. The client should have all loose rugs in the home removed to prevent falling.

736. The nurse has given instructions to a client returning home after knee arthroscopy. Which statement by the client indicates that the instructions are understood? 1. "I can resume regular exercise tomorrow." 2. "I can't eat food for the remainder of the day." 3. "I need to stay off the leg entirely for the rest of the day." 4. "I need to report a fever or swelling to my health care provider."

4. "I need to report a fever or swelling to my health care provider." Rationale: After arthroscopy, the client usually can walk carefully on the leg once sensation has returned. The client is instructed to avoid strenuous exercise for the length of time prescribed by the surgeon. The client may resume the usual diet. Signs and symptoms of infection should be reported to the primary health care provider.

716. The nurse has given suggestions to a client with trigeminal neuralgia about strategies to minimize episodes of pain. The nurse determines that the client needs further teaching if the client makes which statement? 1. "I will wash my face with cotton pads." 2. "I'll have to start chewing on my unaffected side." 3. "I should rinse my mouth if toothbrushing is painful." 4. "I'll try to eat my food either very warm or very cold."

4. "I'll try to eat my food either very warm or very cold." Rationale: Facial pain can be minimized by using cotton pads to wash the face and using room temperature water. The client should chew on the unaffected side of the mouth, eat a soft diet, and take in foods and beverages at room temperature. If brushing the teeth triggers pain, an oral rinse after meals may be helpful instead.

712. The nurse has instructed the family of a client with stroke (brain attack) who has homonymous hemianopsia about measures to help the client overcome the deficit. Which statement suggests that the family understands the measures to use when caring for the client? 1. "We need to discourage him from wearing eyeglasses." 2. "We need to place objects in his impaired field of vision." 3. "We need to approach him from the impaired field of vision." 4. "We need to remind him to turn his head to scan the lost visual field."

4. "We need to remind him to turn his head to scan the lost visual field." Rationale: Homonymous hemianopsia is loss of half of the visual field. The client with homonymous hemianopsia should have objects placed in the intact field of vision, and the nurse also should approach the client from the intact side. The nurse instructs the client to scan the environment to overcome the visual deficit and does client teaching from within the intact field of vision. The nurse encourages the use of personal eyeglasses, if they are available.

679. The nurse is performing an otoscopic examination on a client with mastoiditis. On examination of the tympanic membrane, which finding should the nurse expect to observe? 1. A pink-colored tympanic membrane 2. A pearly colored tympanic membrane 3. A transparent and clear tympanic membrane 4. A red, dull, thick, and immobile tympanic membrane

4. A red, dull, thick, and immobile tympanic membrane Rationale: Otoscopic examination in a client with mastoiditis reveals a red, dull, thick, and immobile tympanic membrane, with or without perforation. Postauricular lymph nodes are tender and enlarged. Clients also have a low-grade fever, malaise, anorexia, swelling behind the ear, and pain with minimal movement of the head.

735. The nurse is conducting health screening for osteoporosis. Which client is at greatest risk of developing this problem? 1. A 25-year-old woman who runs 2. A 36-year-old man who has asthma 3. A 70-year-old man who consumes excess alcohol 4. A sedentary 65-year-old woman who smokes cigarettes

4. A sedentary 65-year-old woman who smokes cigarettes Rationale: Risk factors for osteoporosis include female gender, being postmenopausal, advanced age, a low-calcium diet, excessive alcohol intake, being sedentary, and smoking cigarettes. Long-term use of corticosteroids, anticonvulsants, and/or furosemide also increases the risk.

678. The nurse is performing an admission assessment on a client with a diagnosis of detached retina. Which sign or symptom is associated with this eye problem? 1. Total loss of vision 2. Pain in the affected eye 3. A yellow discoloration of the sclera 4. A sense of a curtain falling across the field of vision

4. A sense of a curtain falling across the field of vision Rationale: A characteristic manifestation of retinal detachment described by the client is the feeling that a shadow or curtain is falling across the field of vision. No pain is associated with detachment of the retina. Options 1 and 3 are not characteristics of this problem. A retinal detachment is an ophthalmic emergency, and even more so if visual acuity is still normal.

700. Which medication, if prescribed for the client with glaucoma, should the nurse question? 1. Betaxolol 2. Pilocarpine 3. Erythromycin 4. Atropine sulfate

4. Atropine sulfate Rationale: Options 1 and 2 are miotic agents used to treat glaucoma. Option 3 is an anti-infective medication used to treat bacterial conjunctivitis. Atropine sulfate is a mydriatic and cycloplegic (also anticholinergic) medication, and its use is contraindicated in clients with glaucoma. Mydriatic medications dilate the pupil and can cause an increase in intraocular pressure in the eye.

681. The nurse is performing an assessment on a client with a suspected diagnosis of cataract. Which clinical manifestation should the nurse expect to note in the early stages of cataract formation? 1. Diplopia 2. Eye pain 3. Floating spots 4. Blurred vision

4. Blurred vision Rationale: A gradual, painless blurring of central vision is the chief clinical manifestation of a cataract. Early symptoms include slightly blurred vision and a decrease in color perception. Options 1, 2, and 3 are not characteristics of a cataract.

713. The nurse is assessing the adaptation of a client to changes in functional status after a stroke (brain attack). Which observation indicates to the nurse that the client is adapting most successfully? 1. Gets angry with family if they interrupt a task 2. Experiences bouts of depression and irritability 3. Has difficulty with using modified feeding utensils 4. Consistently uses adaptive equipment in dressing self

4. Consistently uses adaptive equipment in dressing self Rationale: Clients are evaluated as coping successfully with lifestyle changes after a stroke if they make appropriate lifestyle alterations, use the assistance of others, and have appropriate social interactions. Options 1 and 2 are not adaptive behaviors; option 3 indicates a not yet successful attempt to adapt.

689. The nurse is caring for a client following craniotomy for removal of an acoustic neuroma. Assessment of which cranial nerve would identify a complication specifically associated with this surgery? 1. Cranial nerve I, olfactory 2. Cranial nerve IV, trochlear 3. Cranial nerve III, oculomotor 4. Cranial nerve VII, facial nerve

4. Cranial nerve VII, facial nerve Rationale: An acoustic neuroma (or vestibular schwannoma) is a unilateral benign tumor that occurs where the vestibulocochlear or acoustic nerve (cranial nerve VIII) enters the internal auditory canal. It is important that an early diagnosis be made, because the tumor can compress the trigeminal and facial nerves and arteries within the internal auditory canal. Treatment for acoustic neuroma is surgical removal via a craniotomy. Assessment of the trigeminal and facial nerves is important. Extreme care is taken to preserve remaining hearing and preserve the function of the facial nerve. Acoustic neuromas rarely recur following surgical removal.

723. The nurse is admitting a client with Guillain-Barré syndrome to the nursing unit. The client has complaints of inability to move both legs and reports a tingling sensation above the waistline. Knowing the complications of the disorder, the nurse should bring which most essential items into the client's room? 1. Nebulizer and pulse oximeter 2. Blood pressure cuff and flashlight 3. Nasal cannula and incentive spirometer 4. Electrocardiographic monitoring electrodes and intubation tray

4. Electrocardiographic monitoring electrodes and intubation tray Rationale: The client with Guillain-Barré syndrome is at risk for respiratory failure because of ascending paralysis. An intubation tray should be available for use. Another complication of this syndrome is cardiac dysrhythmias, which necessitates the use of electrocardiographic monitoring. Because the client is immobilized, the nurse should assess for deep vein thrombosis and pulmonary embolism routinely. Although items in the incorrect options may be used in care, they are not the most essential items from the options provided.

742. The nurse is admitting a client with multiple trauma injuries to the nursing unit. The client has a leg fracture and had a plaster cast applied. Which position would be best for the casted leg? 1. Elevated for 3 hours, then flat for 1 hour 2. Flat for 3 hours, then elevated for 1 hour 3. Flat for 12 hours, then elevated for 12 hours 4. Elevated on pillows continuously for 24 to 48 hours

4. Elevated on pillows continuously for 24 to 48 hours Rationale: A casted extremity is elevated continuously for the first 24 to 48 hours to minimize swelling and promote venous drainage. Options 1, 2, and 3 are incorrect.

706. A client recovering from a head injury is participating in care. The nurse determines that the client understands measures to prevent elevations in intracranial pressure if the nurse observes the client doing which activity? 1. Blowing the nose 2. Isometric exercises 3. Coughing vigorously 4. Exhaling during repositioning

4. Exhaling during repositioning Rationale: Activities that increase intrathoracic and intraabdominal pressures cause an indirect elevation of the intracranial pressure. Some of these activities include isometric exercises, Valsalva's maneuver, coughing, sneezing, and blowing the nose. Exhaling during activities such as repositioning or pulling up in bed opens the glottis, which prevents intrathoracic pressure from rising.

707. A client has clear fluid leaking from the nose following a basilar skull fracture. Which finding would alert the nurse that cerebrospinal fluid is present? 1. Fluid is clear and tests negative for glucose. 2. Fluid is grossly bloody in appearance and has a pH of six. 3. Fluid clumps together on the dressing and has a pH of seven. 4. Fluid separates into concentric rings and tests positive for glucose.

4. Fluid separates into concentric rings and tests positive for glucose. Rationale: Leakage of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) from the ears or nose may accompany basilar skull fracture. CSF can be distinguished from other body fluids, because the drainage will separate into bloody and yellow concentric rings on dressing material, called a halo sign. The fluid also tests positive for glucose.

698. The nurse is providing instructions to a client who will be self-administering eye drops. To minimize systemic absorption of the eye drops, the nurse should instruct the client to take which action? 1. Eat before instilling the drops. 2. Swallow several times after instilling the drops. 3. Blink vigorously to encourage tearing after instilling the drops. 4. Occlude the nasolacrimal duct with a finger after instilling the drops.

4. Occlude the nasolacrimal duct with a finger after instilling the drops. Rationale: Applying pressure on the nasolacrimal duct prevents systemic absorption of the medication. Options 1, 2, and 3 will not prevent systemic absorption.

431. The staff nurse reviews the nursing documentation in a client's chart and notes that the wound care nurse has documented that the client has a stage II pressure injury in the sacral area. Which finding would the nurse expect to note on assessment of the client's sacral area? 1. Intact skin 2. Full-thickness skin loss 3. Exposed bone, tendon, or muscle 4. Partial-thickness skin loss of the dermis

4. Partial-thickness skin loss of the dermis Rationale: In a stage II pressure injury, the skin is not intact. Partial-thickness skin loss of the dermis has occurred. It presents as a shallow open ulceration with a redpink wound bed, without slough. It may also present as an intact or open/ruptured serum-filled blister. The skin is intact in stage I. Full-thickness skin loss occurs in stage III. Exposed bone, tendon, or muscle is present in stage IV.

753. A client with a hip fracture asks the nurse about Buck's (extension) traction that is being applied before surgery and what is involved. The nurse should provide which information to the client? 1. Allows bony healing to begin before surgery and involves pins and screws 2. Provides rigid immobilization of the fracture site and involves pulleys and wheels 3. Lengthens the fractured leg to prevent severing of blood vessels and involves pins and screws 4. Provides comfort by reducing muscle spasms, provides fracture immobilization, and involves pulleys and wheels

4. Provides comfort by reducing muscle spasms, provides fracture immobilization, and involves pulleys and wheels Rationale: Buck's (extension) traction is a type of skin traction often applied after hip fracture before the fracture is reduced in surgery. Traction reduces muscle spasms and helps immobilize the fracture. Traction does not allow for bony healing to begin or provide rigid immobilization. Traction does not lengthen the leg for the purpose of preventing blood vessel severance. This type of traction involves pulleys and wheels, not pins and screws.

717. The client is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of Guillain-Barré syndrome. Which past medical history finding makes the client most at risk for this disease? 1. Meningitis or encephalitis during the last 5 years 2. Seizures or trauma to the brain within the last year 3. Back injury or trauma to the spinal cord during the last 2 years 4. Respiratory or gastrointestinal infection during the previous month

4. Respiratory or gastrointestinal infection during the previous month Rationale: Guillain-Barré syndrome is a clinical syndrome of unknown origin that involves cranial and peripheral nerves. Many clients report a history of respiratory or gastrointestinal infection in the 1 to 4 weeks before the onset of neurological deficits. On occasion, the syndrome can be triggered by vaccination or surgery.

748. A client with diabetes mellitus has had a right below-knee amputation. Given the client's history of diabetes mellitus, which complication is the client at most risk for after surgery? 1. Hemorrhage 2. Edema of the residual limb 3. Slight redness of the incision 4. Separation of the wound edges

4. Separation of the wound edges Rationale: Clients with diabetes mellitus are more prone to wound infection, wound separation, and delayed wound healing because of the disease. Postoperative hemorrhage and edema of the residual limb are complications in the immediate postoperative period that apply to any client with an amputation. Slight redness of the incision is considered normal, as long as the incision is dry and intact.

737. The nurse witnessed a vehicle hit a pedestrian. The victim is dazed and tries to get up. A leg appears fractured. Which intervention should the nurse take? 1. Try to reduce the fracture manually. 2. Assist the victim to get up and walk to the sidewalk. 3. Leave the victim for a few moments to call an ambulance. 4. Stay with the victim and encourage him or her to remain still.

4. Stay with the victim and encourage him or her to remain still. Rationale: With a suspected fracture, the victim is not moved unless it is dangerous to remain in that spot. The nurse should remain with the victim and have someone else call for emergency help. A fracture is not reduced at the scene. Before the victim is moved, the site of fracture is immobilized to prevent further injury.

757. Alendronate is prescribed for a client with osteoporosis, and the nurse is providing instructions on administration of the medication. Which instruction should the nurse provide? 1. Take the medication at bedtime. 2. Take the medication in the morning with breakfast. 3. Lie down for 30 minutes after taking the medication. 4. Take the medication with a full glass of water after rising in the morning.

4. Take the medication with a full glass of water after rising in the morning. Rationale: Precautions need to be taken with the administration of alendronate to prevent gastrointestinal adverse effects (especially esophageal irritation) and to increase absorption of the medication. The medication needs to be taken with a full glass of water after rising in the morning. The client should not eat or drink anything for 30 minutes following administration and should not lie down after taking the medication.