CWT #2

What type of qualified promotions are used for promotions to First Lieutenant and Captain, and is not competitive? a. "Fully" qualified b. "Most" qualified c. "Best" qualified d. "Totally" qualified

a. "Fully" qualified

What articles of UCMJ does an unprofessional relationship violate? a. Articles 92, 134 b. Articles 7, 31 c. Articles 15, 31 d. Articles 122, 23

a. 92, 134

What type of communication is disrespectful and a personal attack? a. Aggressive b. Passive c. Assertive

a. Aggressive

What aspect of the Air Force is most closely related to standards and accountability? a. Air Force Core Values b. Air Force Doctrine c. Air Force Mission d. Air Force Vision

a. Air Force Core Values

What enlisted Professional Military Education (PME) school is the first of three programs designed to provide the skills necessary to become an effective first-line supervisor? a. Airman Leadership School (ALS) b. Noncommissioned Officer Academy (NCOA) c. Senior Noncommissioned Officer Academy (SNCOA)

a. Airman Leadership School (ALS)

What is NOT a type of pay? a. Allowance Pay b. Basic Pay c. Special Pay d. Incentive Pay

a. Allowance Pay

When is an Enlisted Performance Report (EPR) due? a. Annually b. Biannually c. Monthly d. Bimonthly

a. Annually

What type of pay is based on a member's grade and time in service? a. Basic Pay b. Special Pay c. Incentive Pay

a. Basic Pay

What is the most common terrorist tactic? a. Bombing b. Arson c. Sabotage d. Threat

a. Bombing

What source of supervisory guidance for people who supervise civilians includes qualified civilian personnel specialists in such areas as employee utilization, position classification, equal opportunity, administration and other important areas? a. Civilian Personnel Flight b. Contracts signed c. US Constitution d. "36" series of Air Force publications

a. Civilian Personnel Flight

Under which method of urinalysis testing may a commander refer a military member for urine testing when there's reasonable suspicion of drug abuse or when its conducted as an examination of a specified member in conjunction with the member's participation in a DOD drug treatment program, and use results obtained from this testing to refer a member for evaluation by Life Skills and in an administrative discharge action? a. Command-directed Examination b. Probable Cause Search and Seizure under the UCMJ c. Inspection Under Military Rule of Evidence, UCMJ d. Medical purposes

a. Command-directed Examination

Which is NOT inappropriate comment for an officer performance report? a. Completed charges/investigation b. Recommendation for decoration c. Recommendation for promotion d. Previous reports or ratings e. Marital status

a. Completed charges/investigation

Which conflict management style is considered "middle of the road" approach, and also a "lose:lose" situation? a. Compromising b. Collaborating c. Avoiding d. Forcing e. Accommodating

a. Compromising

What is defined as the operational advantage in, through, and from cyberspace to conduct operations at a given time and in a given domain without prohibitive interference? a. Cyber superiority b. Cyber mission c. Cyberspace d. Cyber Domain

a. Cyber superiority

Since 1951, who has supported civil authorities in response to major disasters and emergencies? a. Department of Defense (DoD) b. Federal Administration c. National Guard d. US Military

a. Department of Defense (DoD)

In the incident response chain, in a Department of Defense (DoD) response, who determines whether Title 10 military can take on a supporting role, and also retains command of federalized military forces providing support? a. Department of Defense (DoD) Response b. Local Response c. State Response d. Federal Response

a. Department of Defense (DoD) Response

What is the third step in the Risk Management (RM) process? a. Develop controls and make decisions b. Asses the hazards c. Supervise and evaluate d. Identify the hazard e. Implement controls

a. Develop controls and make decisions

Which counseling approach is counselor-centered, a quick approach to problem solving that provides short-term solutions, and the leader has all the skills to asses the situation and to offer useful courses of action? a. Directive approach b. Non-directive approach c. Eclectic Approach d. Counseling Approach

a. Directive approach

After the terrorist attacks on September 11, 2001, what policy change did the United States enact as a response? a. Doctrine of pre-emption b. Terrorist retaliation c. War d. Operation Enduring Freedom (OEF)

a. Doctrine of pre-emption

What type of performance report for an officer is used to document the time he/she attended a course, and how well he/she performed in that course? a. Education/Training Report b. Letter of Evaluation (LOE) c. Officer Performance Report (OPR) d. Promotion Recommendation Form (PRF)

a. Education/Training Report

What element of Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF) spreads deployments more equally across the force, which reduces the stress on particular airmen and increases morale, retention, and overall quality of life? a. Equitability b. Transparency c. Predictability d. Readiness

a. Equitability

What step of the officer evaluation process requires the supervisor to judge observed performance versus predetermined standards? a. Evaluation b. Documentation c. Observation d. All the above

a. Evaluation

What policy is goals and guidelines that shape the conduct of American relations with other nations of the world? a. Foreign policy b. US policy c. National Security Policy d. Air Force Policy

a. Foreign policy

IF a complainant utilizes his/her chain of command, legal office, security forces, the chaplain, Equal Opportunity Office, Inspector General system, congressional channels, or the US attorney General, what type of relief is the complainant seeking? a. Formal b. Inspector General c. Informal d. Justice

a. Formal

What is the range for a General Schedule (GS) employee? a. GS-1 through GS-15 b. GS-1 through GS-9 c. GS-15 through GS-35 d. GS-5 through GS-30

a. GS-1 through GS-15

What counseling skill aspect can add structure and organization to the counseling, and the leader uses problem-solving and decision-making skills to help the subordinate reach a solution? a. Guiding skills b. Responding skills c. Watching and listening skills

a. Guiding skills

What is defined as integrated and synchronized application of all appropriate capabilities for a unified effort? a. Joint operations b. Joint functions c. Military operations d. Joint warfare values

a. Joint operations

What is the first step of the Intervention Process Model? a. Make a decision b. Use supportive interaction skills c. Involve counselee in developing solutions d. Put the issue in perspective

a. Make a decision

What is the first step of the Intervention Process Model? a. Make a decision to intervene b. Use supportive interaction skills c. Involve counselee in developing solutions d. Put the issue in perspective

a. Make a decision to intervene

Which is NOT a principle of Risk Management (RM)? a. Make risk decisions at the lowest level b. Accept no unnecessary risk c. Integrate RM into operations, activities, and planning at all levels d. Apply the process cyclically and continually

a. Make risk decisions at the lowest level

What contains the procedures of court-martial, texts on rules of evidence, and guides for writing charges? a. Manual for Courts-Martial (MCM) b. Uniformed Code of Military Justice (UCMJ) c. US Constitution d. Tongue and Quill

a. Manual for Courts-Martial (MCM)

What type of Airman Comprehensive Assessment (ACA) is due midway between the time supervision began and the performance report? a. Midterm b. Initial c. Verbal d. End-of-reporting/follow-up

a. Midterm

What type of authority is inherent in an officer's commission, but NOT spelled out in directives? a. Moral authority b. Legal authority c. Ultimate authority d. Direct authority

a. Moral authority

What are the guiding principles that enable all response partners to prepare for and provide a unified national response, as part of the policies and guidelines of the Defense Support of Civil Authorities? a. National Response Framework b. Department of Defense (DoD) response c. Guidelines and Policy d. Lead Federal Agency

a. National Response Framework

What branch's mission is to maintain, train and equip combat-ready forces capable of winning wars, deterring aggression, and maintaining freedom of the seas? a. Navy b. Marine Corps c. US Coast Guard d. Army

a. Navy

What strategies are key to achieving change? a. Participation, behavior modification, mandating change, time allowance, and group dynamics b. Time allowance, change management, group dynamics, participation, and time behavior modification c. Mandating change, followership, participating, behavior modification, and group dynamics

a. Participation, behavior modification, mandating change, time allowance, and group dynamics

What step is NOT part of the officer evaluation process? a. Promotion b. Evaluation c. Observation d. Documentation

a. Promotion

What step is NOT part of the officer evaluation process? a. Promotion b. Evaluation c. Observation d. Documentation e. None of the above

a. Promotion

What is the AF's policy on fraternization? a. Punishable under UCMJ b. None if the accused is a warrant officer c. Death d. None if both are male

a. Punishable under UCMJ

What is the fourth step of the Intervention Process Model? a. Put the issue in perspective b. Make a decision to intervene c. Use supportive interaction skills d. Involve counselee in developing solutions

a. Put the issue in perspective

What standard of nuclear weapons operations states that nuclear weapons and their components must not be allowed to become vulnerable to loss, theft, sabotage, damage, or unauthorized use? a. Security b. Reliability c. Safety d. Nature

a. Security

What tier of the enlisted force structure consists of MSgt, SMSgt, and CMSgt? a. Senior NCO b. NCO c. Junior Enlisted

a. Senior NCO

What type of courts-martial normally tries offenses of immediate severity, and consists of a panel of not less than three court members? a. Special courts-martial (SPCM) b. Summary courts-martial (SCM) c. General courts-martial (GCM) d. None of these

a. Special courts-martial (SPCM)

What special SNCO position is the senior enlisted leader of the squadron/group/wing-level? a. Superintendent b. Command Chief Master Sergeant c. First Sergeant d. Chief Master Sergeant of the Air Force

a. Superintendent

What is a current and perceived capability, intention, or attack directed to cause denial of service, corruption, compromise, or fraud, waste, and abuse to an information system? a. Threat b. Vulnerability c. Information Operations d. Virus

a. Threat

Which conflict management style is the most ideal, considered a "win:win" situation, and requires high assertiveness and high cooperation? a. Compromising b. Collaborating c. Avoiding d. Forcing e. Accommodating

b. Collaborating

What is NOT an aspect of naval doctrine? a. Amphibious Warfare b. Combat warfare c. Mine warfare d. Strike warfare

b. Combat warfare

What special SNCO position leads the enlisted force in that organization and advises commanders on proper enlisted utilization? a. Superintendent b. Command Chief Master Sergeant c. First Sergeant d. Chief Master Sergeant of the Air Force

b. Command Chief Master Sergeant

What is NOT an administrative tool to maintain discipline? a. Discharge b. Court-martial c. Verbal Counseling d. Control Roster

b. Court-martial

What is a penalty can be associated with sexual harassment? a. It depends b. Courts-martial c. Death d. Verbal counseling

b. Courts-martial

What is NOT a rule of supervision? a. Open channels of communication b. Provide feedback only when requested c. Get involved d. Establish standards and stick to them e. Give your people a chance to develop

b. Provide feedback only when requested

What standard of nuclear weapons operations is also a product of the system's safety features, including safety design, weapon compatibility, personnel reliability, technical guidance, specific job qualifications, and nuclear technical inspections? a. Security b. Reliability c. Safety d. Nature

b. Reliability

What type of typology of terrorists and terror groups are often tied to ethnic and nationalist identities, and their objectives/actions are divinely guided? a. Social b. Religious c. Social d. Political

b. Religious

Which of the following is NOT a source of conflict according to the conflict management lesson? a. Environmental Stress b. Religious differences c. Role incompatibility d. Informational deficiencies e. Personal differences

b. Religious differences

What counseling skill aspect is a follow-up to listening and watching skills and involves questioning, summarizing, interpreting, informing and confronting? a. Guiding skills b. Responding skills c. Watching and listening skills

b. Responding skills

What type of pay is based on individuals who have a special skill or are assigned in a specific location? a. Basic Pay b. Special Pay c. Incentive Pay

b. Special Pay

What promotion method is for enlisted personnel specifically for those individuals whose performance and potential clearly set them far above their peers, E-5 through E-7? a. Whole Person Concept b. Stripes for Exceptional Performers (STEP) c. Weighted Airman Promotion System (WAPS) d. Fully qualified

b. Stripes for Exceptional Performers (STEP)

What type of courts-martial tries minor offenses, consists of one officer who renders verdict and imposes sentences? a. Special courts-martial (SPCM) b. Summary courts-martial (SCM) c. General courts-martial (GCM) d. None of these

b. Summary courts-martial (SCM)

What is the ultimate source of an officer's authority? a. Congress b. The US Constitution c. UCMJ d. The President

b. The US Constitution

What are operating systems, applications, poor practices, and the operator in relation to cyberspace operations? a. They are issues b. They are vulnerabilities c. They are intelligence targets d. They are threats

b. They are vulnerabilities

What is the correct equation for a threat? a. Threat = Intent + Vulnerability b. Threat = Capability + Intent c. Threat = Weakness + Intent d. Threat = Capability + Asset

b. Threat = Capability + Intent

What element of Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF) allows airmen to understand the how, why, and when of deployments, eliminates the mystery of deployments and has a positive effect on the morale, retention, and overall qualify of life of Airmen? a. Equitability b. Transparency c. Predictability d. Readiness

b. Transparency

What is used for constitutional authority to make laws to govern the armed forces? a. Manual for Courts-Martial (MCM) b. Uniformed Code of Military Justice (UCMJ) c. US Constitution d. Tongue and Quill

b. Uniformed Code of Military Justice (UCMJ)

What public opinion group consists of citizens who don't regularly seek information about foreign affairs and do not form opinions consistently unless their own interests are directly affected by events? a. General Public b. Uninformed public c. Effective Public d. Informed public

b. Uninformed public

What is a weakness in an information system, cryptographic system, or components (e.g. system security procedures, hardware design, internal controls) that could be exploited? a. Threat b. Vulnerability c. Information Operations d. Virus

b. Vulnerability

Under the standard for reliability of nuclear weapons does the AF engage the Department of Energy's National Nuclear Security Administration and other government agencies to ensure nuclear warheads and related interfaces continue to meet AF war-fighting requirements? a. Reliability b. Weapon System Reliability c. Individual Reliability d. Security

b. Weapon System Reliability

What is the Air Force policy on sexual harassment? a. It is circumstantial b. Zero tolerance c. Always convict d. Inspector General Complaint

b. Zero tolerance

After the terrorist attacks on September 11, 2001, the United State's policy changed and launched the war on terror via a two-pronged approach: Go after the ______, Go after their ______. a. supporters, freedom b. terrorists, supporters c. supporters, military d. terrorists, homeland

b. terrorists, supporters

What type of qualified promotions are used for Major through Colonel, uses a board to screen each officer's records to determine degree of qualifications, and is highly competitive? a. "Fully" qualified b. "Most" qualified c. "Best" qualified d. "Totally" qualified

c. "Best" qualified

What is the rate active duty earns leave per month? a. 1.5 days/month b. 2 days/month c. 2.5 days/month d. 3 days/month

c. 2.5 days/month

According to the Department of Defense (DOD) 5500.7 R, under what circumstance(s) is/are you allowed to receive an upgrade in travel accommodations while traveling? a. The same upgrades are available and offered to the public b. No other reasonable accommodation exists c. All of the above d. None of the above

c. All of the above

Under Department of Defense (DOD) 5500.7 R, what defines a "prohibited source" that you may not receive gifts from? a. A company that does business with the Department of Defense (DoD) b. A company that seeks business with the Department of Defense (DoD) c. All of the above d. None of the above

c. All of the above

What (if any) fundraising is okay under Department of Defense (DOD) 5500.7 R? a. Combined Federal Campaign (CFC) b. Air Force Assistance Fund (AFAF) c. All of the above d. None of the above

c. All of the above

Which is NOT a trait of a good counselor? a. Sincerity b. Integrity c. Appreciation d. Be a good listener

c. Appreciation

What type of communication is direct but respectful and empathetic? a. Aggressive b. Passive c. Assertive

c. Assertive

Which conflict management style uses low assertiveness and low cooperation, considered a "lose:lose" situation? a. Compromising b. Collaborating c. Avoiding d. Forcing e. Accommodating

c. Avoiding

What is/are NOT a common mistake(s) made by supervisors when delegating? a. Improper selection of subordinates b. Supervising too closely c. Calculated delegation d. Unclear delegation

c. Calculated delegation

What is NOT a proper complaint channel available to civilian employees concerning discrimination? a. Installation's Equal Opportunity (EO) office Counselor b. Directly with Equal Employment Opportunity Commission (EEOC) c. Civilian Personnel Flight d. US Federal District Court

c. Civilian Personnel Flight

What is defined as the process used to promote individual behavior changes in a work situation? a. Intervention b. Coercion c. Corrective Supervision d. Punishment

c. Corrective Supervision

What is defined as a global domain within the information environment consisting of the interdependent networks of information technology infrastructures and resident data, including the internet, telecommunications networks, computer systems, and embedded processors and controllers? a. Cyber superiority b. Cyber mission c. Cyberspace d. Cyber Domain

c. Cyberspace

Which approach selects from various sources and allows the counselor to adjust the technique to emphasize what is best for all situations? a. Directive approach b. Non-directive approach c. Eclectic Approach d. Counseling Approach

c. Eclectic Approach

What public opinion group consists of citizens that actively seek to influence policy? a. General Public b. Uninformed public c. Effective Public d. Informed public

c. Effective Public

What special SNCO position is responsible for providing sound advice to the commander on a variety of topics about all assigned enlisted members? a. Superintendent b. Command Chief Master Sergeant c. First Sergeant d. Chief Master Sergeant of the Air Force

c. First Sergeant

What type of courts-martial tries the most serious offenses and composed of a judge and not less than a five member panel? a. Special courts-martial (SPCM) b. Summary courts-martial (SCM) c. General courts-martial (GCM) d. None of these

c. General courts-martial (GCM)

What type of pay is for individuals required to perform hazardous duties regardless of where they are located? a. Basic Pay b. Special Pay c. Incentive Pay

c. Incentive Pay

Under the standard for reliability of nuclear weapons, what requires commanders to ensure that only trained, certified, and reliable people have access to nuclear weapons, delivery systems, and C2 systems? a. Reliability b. Weapon System Reliability c. Individual Reliability d. Security

c. Individual Reliability

If a complainant seeks out the potential harasser and communicates with him/her that their gestures/comments/behaviors are unwanted, or informs the potential harasser's supervisor, what type of relief is the complainant seeking? a. Formal b. Inspector General c. Informal d. Justice

c. Informal

What is defined as the integrated employment of the core capabilities of influence operations, electronics warfare operations, network warfare operations, in concert with specified integrated control enablers, to influence, disrupt, corrupt or usurp adversarial human and automated decision making while protecting our own? a. Threat b. Vulnerability c. Information Operations d. Virus

c. Information Operations

What is the second step of the Intervention Process Model? a. Put the issue in perspective b. Make a decision c. Use supportive interaction skills d. Involve counselee in developing solutions

c. Use supportive interaction skills

What is the second step of the Intervention Process Model? a. Put the issue in perspective b. Make a decision to intervene c. Use supportive interaction skills d. Involve counselee in developing solutions

c. Use supportive interaction skills

What counseling skill aspect involves concentrating on what the counselee says and does, and the counselor can tell whether the counselee accepts what is said, understands what is important, and understands what the counselor is trying to communicate? a. Guiding skills b. Responding skills c. Watching and listening skills

c. Watching and listening skills

What promotion method is for enlisted personnel composed of Enlisted Performance Reports (EPRs), Specialty Knowledge Test (SKT) score, Professional Development Guide (PDG) score, Time in Service (TIS), Time in Grade (TIG), and Decorations, E-5 through E-7? a. Whole Person Concept b. Stripes for Exceptional Performers (STEP) c. Weighted Airman Promotion System (WAPS) d. Fully qualified

c. Weighted Airman Promotion System (WAPS)

What consequences are likely if Department of Defense (DOD) 5500.7 R is violated? a. Disciplinary action b. Any penalty provided by law c. a, b d. None of the above

c. a, b

What describes how nuclear weapons must be "useable enough" so an enemy is convinced they may be rapidly employed int he event of an attack, but also must not be so "useable" as to allow for the unauthorized use to individual action or mechanical error? a. Weapons of Mass Destruction (WMD) paradox b. nuclear paradox c. usability paradox d. reliability paradox

c. usability paradox

What source of supervisory guidance for people who supervise civilians includes hiring, firing, promotions, demotions, awards, disciplinary actions and other matters that relate to civilian administration? a. Civilian Personnel Flight b. Contracts signed c. US Constitution d. "36" series of Air Force publications

d. "36" series of Air Force publications

What is NOT a principal component of the Department of the Navy? a. Marine Corps b. Reserve Components c. Shore establishment d. Air Force

d. Air Force

What program's objective is to promote readiness and health and wellness through the prevention and treatment of substance abuse; minimize the negative consequences of substance abuse to the individual, family, and organization; provide comprehensive education and treatment to individuals who experience problems attributed to substance abuse; and to return identified substance abusers to unrestricted duty status or assist them in their transition to civilian life? a. Airmen and Family Readiness Center (A&FRC) b. Chaplain Services Branch c. Air Force Aid Society d. Alcohol/Drug Abuse Prevention and Treatment (ADAPT)

d. Alcohol/Drug Abuse Prevention and Treatment (ADAPT)

What is/are the concept(s) of the Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF)? a. To organize, train, and equip to deploy and sustain our air and space capabilities for military operations worldwide b. To balance the workload for Airmen while still providing Combatant Commanders with the proper forces in the right place, at the right time c. Based on three principles, predictability, equitability, and transparency d. All of the above

d. All of the above

What is/are the element(s) of the Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF) a. Equitability b. Transparency c. Predictability d. All of the above

d. All of the above

According to the Secretary of Defense, what is/are the objective(s) of Operation Enduring Freedom? a. Make clear to Taliban leaders and supporters that harboring terrorists is unacceptable and carries a price b. Acquire intelligence to facilitate future operations against al Qaeda and the Taliban regime c. Develop relationships with groups in Afghanistan that oppose the Taliban regime and the terrorists d. All the above

d. All the above

According to the Secretary of Defense, what is/are the objective(s) of Operation Enduring Freedom? a. Make it increasingly difficult for terrorists to use Afghanistan freely as a base of operation b. Alter military balance over time by denying Taliban offensive systems that hamper progress of opposition forces c. Provide humanitarian relief to Afghans suffering oppressive conditions under Taliban regime d. All the above

d. All the above

What concept(s) is/are important to remember for Air Force Officers when dealing with the public relations? a. "Stay in your lane" b. Do not release classified information c. Provide truthful, timely and accurate information consistent with security guidelines d. All the above

d. All the above

What guidelines must be met for an order to be enforceable? a. The order is within the realm of authority b. The order is related to duty, morale, or discipline c. The order is clear and unequivocal, received, and understood d. All the above

d. All the above

What is/are the key component(s) of Information Operations? a. Influence operations b. Network Warfare Operations c. Electronic Warfare Operations d. All the above

d. All the above

Which is NOT a principle of Risk Management (RM)? a. Make risk decisions at the appropriate level b. Accept no unnecessary risk c. Integrate RM into operations, activities, and planning at all levels d. Apply the process one time

d. Apply the process one time

Who provides legal advice and representation to military members in a variety of legal issues? a. Any civilian lawyer b. Any judge c. Staff Judge Advocate (SJA) d. Area Defense Counsel (ADC)

d. Area Defense Counsel (ADC)

What is NOT a way to involve the counselee in developing solutions to the problem? a. Collaborate on a path forward b. Encourage follower identification of alternatives c. Agree on a solution d. Carry them

d. Carry them

What special SNCO position was created to provide a representative voice for issues concerning the enlisted corps? a. Superintendent b. Command Chief Master Sergeant c. First Sergeant d. Chief Master Sergeant of the Air Force

d. Chief Master Sergeant of the Air Force

According to Department of Defense (DOD) 5500.7 R, what flying status are members to travel on, while traveling in an official capacity? a. Stand-by b. Whatever's available c. First class d. Coach

d. Coach

_____ is defined as support provided in response to requests for assistance form civil authorities. a. Federal response b. National Guard c. Posse Comitatus d. Defense Support of Civil Authorities

d. Defense Support of Civil Authorities

What is NOT a reason for a separate legal system for the military? a. Good order and discipline b. Deployable needs c. Protect individual rights d. Efficiency

d. Efficiency

What type of Airman Comprehensive Assessment (ACA) is due for AB through TSgt, and 2d Lt through Capt? a. Midterm b. Initial c. Verbal d. End-of-reporting/follow-up

d. End-of-reporting/follow-up

What type of Airman Comprehensive Assessment (ACA) occurs in conjunction with the closeout of a performance report? a. Midterm b. Initial c. Verbal d. End-of-reporting/follow-up

d. End-of-reporting/follow-up

What provides a reliable, long-term cumulative record of performance and potential based on that performance, and used to document performance and potential, and provide information for making promotion, retention, retirement, assignment, and other management decisions? a. Whole Person Concept b. Stripes for Exceptional Performers (STEP) c. Weighted Airman Promotion System (WAPS) d. Enlisted Performance Reports (EPR)

d. Enlisted Performance Reports (EPR)

In the incident response chain, what response requires a Presidential declaration of emergency, and is only if the state's emergency plan is activated, and all state resources are overwhelmed and exhausted? a. Department of Defense (DoD) Response b. Local Response c. State Response d. Federal Response

d. Federal Response

What is a so-called "blue collar" position that includes the skilled or unskilled trades or crafts such as sheet metal workers, mechanics, and facility maintenance personnel? a. General Contractor b. General Schedule (GS) c. Federal employee d. Federal Wage System

d. Federal Wage System

Which conflict management style uses high assertiveness and low cooperation, and attempts to satisfy our own needs before another? a. Compromising b. Collaborating c. Avoiding d. Forcing e. Accommodating

d. Forcing

What promotion method is for enlisted personnel who meet the Time in Grade requirements, E-2 through E-4? a. Whole Person Concept b. Stripes for Exceptional Performers (STEP) c. Weighted Airman Promotion System (WAPS) d. Fully qualified

d. Fully qualified

What is the first step in the Risk Management (RM) process? a. Develop controls and make decisions b. Asses the hazards c. Supervise and evaluate d. Identify the hazard e. Implement controls

d. Identify the hazard

What public opinion group consists of citizens who regularly keep up with, and form opinions about foreign affairs and national security policy? a. General Public b. Uninformed public c. Effective Public d. Informed public

d. Informed public

What is the third step of the Intervention Process Model? a. Put the issue in perspective b. Make a decision to intervene c. Use supportive interaction skills d. Involve counselee in developing solutions

d. Involve counselee in developing solutions

What is NOT an aspect of naval doctrine? a. Surface Warfare b. Air Warfare c. Undersea Warfare d. Land warfare

d. Land warfare

What are the two types of officer authority? a. Moral and appropriate b. Legal and ethical c. Ethical and moral d. Legal and moral

d. Legal and moral

Under which method of urinalysis testing can the results of any examination conducted for a valid medical purpose including emergency medical treatment, periodic physical examination, and other such examinations necessary for diagnostic or treatment purposes be used to refer a member to Life Skills, as evidence to support disciplinary action under the UCMJ, or administrative discharge action? a. Command-directed Examination b. Probable Cause Search and Seizure under the UCMJ c. Inspection Under Military Rule of Evidence, UCMJ d. Medical purposes

d. Medical purposes

What program is used to initially qualify, certify, and then monitor personnel assigned to nuclear operations tasks through their assignment, and ensures only those persons whose behavior demonstrates integrity, reliability, trustworthiness, allegiance, and loyalty are allowed to perform duties associated with nuclear weapons? a. Personnel Trust Program b. Reliability Program c. Weapons of Mass Destruction (WMD) program d. Personnel Reliability Program (PRP)

d. Personnel Reliability Program (PRP)

What type of typology of terrorists and terror groups force governments to change structure or policies, or to achieve radical societal change? a. Social b. Religious c. Social d. Political

d. Political

The unique nature of nuclear weapons is such that their use can produce ______ and ______ effects well beyond their actual physical effects? a. Political, spiritual b. Spiritual, psychological c. Physical, psychological d. Political, psychological

d. Political, psychological

What is critical to the Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF) and defined as the ability to fulfill the requirements of the mission? a. Equitability b. Transparency c. Predictability d. Readiness

d. Readiness

What is defined as a decision-making process to systematically evaluate courses of action, identify risks and benefits, and determine the best course of action (COA) for any given situation? a. Decision Model b. Analysis Model Process c. COA Decision Process d. Risk Management

d. Risk Management

How are nation states, user error, insider threats, hackers/criminals, and extremists/terrorists associated with cyberspace operations? a. They are issues b. They are vulnerabilities c. They are intelligence targets d. They are threats

d. They are threats

What is defined as a circumstance or event with the potential to cause harm to an information system in the form of destruction, disclosure, adverse modification of data, and/or denial of service? a. Virus b. Vulnerability c. Security Issue d. Threat

d. Threat

What is NOT a reason the Department of Defense employs civilians? a. To free military personnel for military duties b. To obtain a nucleus of trained workers that can be expanded in an emergency c. To acquire abilities not otherwise available d. To lessen the financial impact of active duty members on the Air Force e. To assure continuity of administration and operation

d. To lessen the financial impact of active duty members on the Air Force

What is NOT a right in the military Justice system? a. Right to counsel b. Rights advisement c. Right to reasonable search and seizure d. You have no rights as a military member

d. You have no rights as a military member

What is/are the source(s) of supervisory guidance for people who supervise civilians? a. Civilian Personnel Flight b. "36" series of Air Force publications c. None of the above d. a and b

d. a and b

When are performance reports for an officer prepared? a. Annually b. After a change of reporting official and a minimum of 120 days supervision c. At the request of the ratee d. a and b

d. a and b

What are the two operational concepts of the Marines? a. Maneuver b. Combined arms c. None d. a, b

d. a, b

Who is required to receive an Airman Comprehensive Assessment (ACA)? a. Colonel and below b. All Enlisted c. Senior Enlisted members d. a,b

d. a,b

Which conflict management style uses low assertiveness, high cooperation, considered a "win:lose" situation"? a. Compromising b. Collaborating c. Avoiding d. Forcing e. Accommodating

e. Accommodating

What traits are attributes of a good mentor? a. Genuine desire to help b. Positive experiences c. Time and Energy d. Up to date knowledge e. All of the above

e. All of the above

According to Department of Defense (DOD) 5500.7 R, under what stipulation(s) can a member use government property? a. No adverse affects on duty performance b. No adverse reflection on the United States c. No significant additional cost d. a,c e. All the above

e. All the above

What is the fundamental purpose of the US's nuclear arsenal? a. To deter an enemy's use of its nuclear arsenal or other Weapons of Mass Destruction (WMD) b. To counter any possibility nuclear attack from any other country c. To prevent all Weapons of Mass Destruction (WMD) from being utilized d. None of the above

a. To deter an enemy's use of its nuclear arsenal or other Weapons of Mass Destruction (WMD)

What is the Department of Defense's (DOD) policy on substance abuse? a. To prevent and eliminate drug and alcohol abuse and dependence from the DOD b. Zero tolerance c. Read the label d. Substance abuse is absolutely incompatible with Air Force standards

a. To prevent and eliminate drug and alcohol abuse and dependence from the DOD

An officer's responsibilities to subordinates in the career progression system include Career Development Counseling, Seeking out Additional Duties, Providing time for self-development, Correcting Deficiencies, and Recognizing outstanding contributions and achievements. a. True b. False

a. True

The purpose of an Airman Comprehensive Assessment (ACA) is to provide formal communication between a rater and ratee, and performance feedback on expectations to include information to assist the ratee. a. True b. False

a. True

What promotion method is for enlisted personnel that has weighted factors similar to Weighted Airman Promotion System (WAPS), and uses the individual's record to meet a board, E-7 (phase II) through E-9? a. Whole Person Concept b. Stripes for Exceptional Performers (STEP) c. Weighted Airman Promotion System (WAPS) d. Fully qualified

a. Whole Person Concept

Active duty accrue leave while on leave as if he/she were actually on duty. a. true b. false

a. true

The reason Airmen should neither confirm nor deny the presence of nuclear weapons at any location is "to deny militarily useful information to potential or actual enemies, to enhance the effectiveness of nuclear deterrence, and contribute to the security of nuclear weapons, especially against the threats of sabotage and terrorism." a. true b. false

a. true

Which is NOT a principle of Risk Management (RM)? a. Make risk decisions at the appropriate level b. Accept all risks c. Integrate RM into operations, activities, and planning at all levels d. Apply the process cyclically and continually

b. Accept all risks

What concept is defined as taking ownership of your responsibilities, being responsible for your actions, and willingly facing the consequences? a. Standards b. Accountability c. Air Force Core Values d. Character

b. Accountability

What operational joint chain of command does not include a Unified Combatant Commander, but rather a Service Secretary and Military Departments not assigned to Combatant Commanders? a. Joint Operations b. Administrative c. Operational d. Joint Warfare

b. Administrative

What type of punishment is available to commanders for offenses not serious enough for a court-martial, but more serious than an LOC/LOR/LOA? a. Death b. Article 15/NJP c. Verbal Counseling d. Discharge

b. Article 15/NJP

What is the second step in the Risk Management (RM) process? a. Develop controls and make decisions b. Asses the hazards c. Supervise and evaluate d. Identify the hazard e. Implement controls

b. Asses the hazards

What are the four steps in delegation of effective supervision? a. Assign the task, define the task, delegate authority, standardize b. Define the task, assign the task, grant authority, follow-up c. Define the task, delegate the task, grant authority, follow-up d. Assign the task, counsel subordinate, grant authority, follow-up

b. Define the task, assign the task, grant authority, follow-up

What step of the officer evaluation process requires the supervisor to record the results to provide a long term-record of an officer's professional development, and is the primary instrument for identifying the best qualified officer? a. Evaluation b. Documentation c. Observation d. All the above

b. Documentation

Before the sexual harassment complaint is found to be valid, a commander must take swift, firm corrective disciplinary action against the offender. a. True b. False

b. False If the sexual harassment complaint is found to be valid, the commander must take swift, firm corrective or disciplinary action against the offender. Additionally, the commander must ensure no retaliatory action is taken against the complainant. Explain the various forms of sexual harassment. Finally, commanders and supervisors must take special care to ensure reprisals of a direct or indirect nature do not take place with the complainant.

A Letter of Evaluation (LOE) is mandatory for officers. a. True b. False

b. False In any case, LOEs are optional for officers.

According to Department of Defense (DOD) 5500.7 R, a supervisor may solicit commercial activities from a junior member, as long as its not done while either member is on duty. a. True b. False

b. False No conflicts of interest or even appearance, no solicitation of junior members

An unprofessional relationship can only occur on-duty. a. True b. False

b. Fasle An unprofessional relationship can occur both on or off-duty

What mission statement of the National Guard states "maintain properly trained and equipped units available for prompt mobilization for war, national emergency or otherwise needed"? a. Local Mission b. Federal Mission c. State Mission d. Department of Defense (DoD) mission

b. Federal Mission

_____ is a personal relationship between an officer and an enlisted member which violates the customary bounds of acceptable behavior in the Air Force and prejudices good order and discipline, discredits the armed services, or operates to the personal disgrace or dishonor of the officer involved. a. An unprofessional relationship b. Fraternization c. Friendship d. A professional relationship

b. Fraternization

What are the four categories of the Air Force Reserve accessibility? a. Ready, inactive, standby, call-up b. Full mobilization, partial mobilization, presidential selected reserve call-up, volunteer c. Retired Reserve, Standby Reserve, Volunteer, and Ready Reserve d. None of these

b. Full mobilization, partial mobilization, presidential selected reserve call-up, volunteer

What is a so-called "white collar" job that includes professional, technical managerial, clerical, administrative, and fiscal services? a. General Contractor b. General Schedule (GS) c. Federal employee d. Federal Wage System

b. General Schedule (GS)

What type of Airman Comprehensive Assessment (ACA) is due within 60 days of being assigned a rater? a. Midterm b. Initial c. Verbal d. End-of-reporting/follow-up

b. Initial

What type of authority is explicitly stated in a directive? a. Ultimate authority b. Legal authority c. Direct authority d. Moral authority

b. Legal authority

What type of performance report for an officer is used to cover periods of performance too short to require an Officer Performance Report (OPR) with less than 120 days of supervision, or period of time when the officer is under the supervision of someone other than his/her designed rater? a. Education/Training Report b. Letter of Evaluation (LOE) c. Officer Performance Report (OPR) d. Promotion Recommendation Form (PRF)

b. Letter of Evaluation (LOE)

In the incident response chain, who are the first responders, and are composed of the local organization (local to the incident)? a. Department of Defense (DoD) Response b. Local Response c. State Response d. Federal Response

b. Local Response

What tier of the enlisted force structure consists of SSgt and TSgt? a. Senior NCO b. NCO c. Junior Enlisted

b. NCO

Who is the only organization in the US Military charged with both a federal and a state mission, and because of this, is distinctly different from all the other services? a. Army Reserve b. National Guard c. Air Guard d. Active Duty Army

b. National Guard

Which counseling approach is counselee centered, requires the counselee to take responsibility for problem solving, and is usually a more relaxed approach? a. Directive approach b. Non-directive approach c. Eclectic Approach d. Counseling Approach

b. Non-directive approach

What enlisted Professional Military Education (PME) school 's mission is to prepare technical sergeants to be professional, war-fighting airmen who can lead and manage AF units in the employment of air, space, and cyberspace power? a. Airman Leadership School (ALS) b. Noncommissioned Officer Academy (NCOA) c. Senior Noncommissioned Officer Academy (SNCOA)

b. Noncommissioned Officer Academy (NCOA)

What type of communication avoids the real issue? a. Aggressive b. Passive c. Assertive

b. Passive

Which of the following is NOT a method for identifying substance abusers? a. Arrest, Apprehension, Investigation b. Personal grooming deterioration c. Incident to Medical Care d. Self-identification

b. Personal grooming deterioration

Under which method of urinalysis testing may a commander order a urine test when there's probable cause to believe the military member has ingested drugs, is drug intoxicated, or has committed a drug-related offense, and use the results to refer a member to Life Skills, to support and use as evidence in disciplinary action under the UCMJ or administrative discharge action? a. Command-directed Examination b. Probable Cause Search and Seizure under the UCMJ c. Inspection Under Military Rule of Evidence, UCMJ d. Medical purposes

b. Probable Cause Search and Seizure under the UCMJ

Under which method of urinalysis testing may a commander conduct inspections in the for of unit sweeps or randomly selected segments of the squadron/unit/duty section/dormitory, and use the results to refer a member to Life Skills, as evidence to support disciplinary action under the UCMJ, or administrative discharge? a. Command-directed Examination b. Probable Cause Search and Seizure under the UCMJ c. Inspection Under Military Rule of Evidence, UCMJ d. Medical purposes

c. Inspection Under Military Rule of Evidence, UCMJ

Which is NOT a principle of Risk Management (RM)? a. Make risk decisions at the appropriate level b. Accept no unnecessary risk c. Integrate RM into operations, activities, and planning at wing level d. Apply the process cyclically and continually

c. Integrate RM into operations, activities, and planning at wing level

What tier of the enlisted force structure consists of AB, Amn, A1Cs, and SrA? a. Senior NCO b. NCO c. Junior Enlisted

c. Junior Enlisted

What is NOT a step a supervisor should take when a subordinate's duty performance reveals a possible substance abuse problem? a. Counseling b. Referral c. Manual labor d. Reprimand e. Discharge

c. Manual labor

What are the three core missions of the US Coast Guard? a. Fly, fight, win b. Maneuver, fight, and combined arms c. Maritime safety, maritime security, maritime stewardship

c. Maritime safety, maritime security, maritime stewardship

What is a policy that deals with the protection of the nation's people and territories against physical assault and protection of vital economic and political interests, the loss of which could threaten fundamental values and the vitality of the nation? a. Foreign policy b. US policy c. National Security Policy d. Air Force Policy

c. National Security Policy

What step of the officer evaluation process requires planning and preparation, requires communication, and requires feedback? a. Evaluation b. Documentation c. Observation d. All the above

c. Observation

What type of performance report for an officer is used to record an officer's performance over a specific period, provides a brief description of the unit mission, the officer's job description, and a short narrative to document his/her most significant achievements and the impact of those accomplishments on the unit mission? a. Education/Training Report b. Letter of Evaluation (LOE) c. Officer Performance Report (OPR) d. Promotion Recommendation Form (PRF)

c. Officer Performance Report (OPR)

Which operational joint chain of command includes a Unified Combatant Commander? a. Joint Operations b. Administrative c. Operational d. Joint Warfare

c. Operational

What element of Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF) allows airmen to know when they are next vulnerable to deploy, and gives airmen a better ability to plan their training, leave, advanced education, etc around their deployment vulnerability rotations? a. Equitability b. Transparency c. Predictability d. Readiness

c. Predictability

What are the three types of AF Reserve categories? a. Ready Reserve, On-call Reserve, and Active Reserve b. Constant Reserve, Ready Reserve, and Active Reserve c. Retired Reserve, Standby Reserve, and Ready Reserve d. Standby Reserve, On-call Reserve, and Active Reserve

c. Retired Reserve, Standby Reserve, and Ready Reserve

What standard of nuclear weapons operations states that all individuals involved with nuclear weapons are responsible for the safety of those devices? a. Security b. Reliability c. Safety d. Nature

c. Safety

What enlisted Professional Military Education (PME) school is to enhance development of senior noncommissioned officers? a. Airman Leadership School (ALS) b. Noncommissioned Officer Academy (NCOA) c. Senior Noncommissioned Officer Academy (SNCOA)

c. Senior Noncommissioned Officer Academy (SNCOA)

What type of typology of terrorists and terror groups includes special interests groups? a. Spiritual b. Religious c. Social d. Political

c. Social

Who is the commander's lawyer at each AF base and runs the installation legal office? a. Any judge b. Chuck Norris c. Staff Judge Advocate (SJA) d. Area Defense Counsel (ADC)

c. Staff Judge Advocate (SJA)

What mission statement of the National Guard states "provide trained and disciplined forces for domestic emergencies or as otherwise required by state laws"? a. Local Mission b. Federal Mission c. State Mission d. Department of Defense (DoD) mission

c. State Mission

In the incident response chain, what response level requires the Governor to declare a State of Emergency, the National Guard provides military assistance to state and local governments, and also allows for lateral requests/support from other states? a. Department of Defense (DoD) Response b. Local Response c. State Response d. Federal Response

c. State Response

What phase is NOT included in the Change equals Effort over Time change management model? a. Turning Point Phase b. Excitement Phase c. Storming Phase d. Hard Work Phase e. Institutionalized Phase

c. Storming Phase

What is the fifth step in the Risk Management (RM) process? a. Develop controls and make decisions b. Asses the hazards c. Supervise and evaluate d. Identify the hazard e. Implement controls

c. Supervise and evaluate

Which of the following is NOT a mission of the Marines? a. Furnish security detachments and organizations for service on naval vessels of the Navy; b. Furnish security detachments for protection of naval property at naval stations and bases c. Suppressing violations of US drug, immigration, and fisheries law, as well as securing the nation from terrorist threats d. Perform other duties as the President may direct; and e. Develop in coordination with the Army and Air Force, those phases of amphibious operations that pertain to the tactics, techniques, and equipment used by landing forces.

c. Suppressing violations of US drug, immigration, and fisheries law, as well as securing the nation from terrorist threats

What is the direct source of an officer's authority? a. Congress b. UCMJ c. The President d. The US Constitution

c. The President

What traits are NOT good attributes of a mentee? a. Learning attitude b. Able to accept feedback and act c. Unwilling to expand capabilities d. Focused on achieving goals

c. Unwilling to expand capabilities

What is/are the goal(s) of Risk Management (RM)? a. Enhance mission effectiveness at all levels, while preserving assets and safeguarding health and welfare. b. Create an Air Force cultural mindset in which every leader, Airman, and employee is trained and motivated to manage risk in all their on- and off-duty activities. c. Integrate RM into mission and activity planning processes, ensuring decisions are based upon risk assessments of the operation/activity. d. Identify opportunities to increase AF warfighting effectiveness in all environments, and ensure success at minimal cost of resources. The RM process shall be institutionalized and be an inherent part of all military operations to address safety, occupational and environmental health risks. e. All the above

e. All the above

What types of tasks should NOT be delegated? a. Pet projects b. Morale problems c. Staff Problems d. Subordinate performance reports e. All the above

e. All the above

What is the fourth step in the Risk Management (RM) process? a. Develop controls and make decisions b. Asses the hazards c. Supervise and evaluate d. Identify the hazard e. Implement controls

e. Implement controls

Who is required to receive an Enlisted Performance Report (EPR)? a. A1C and below if they have 20 months or more of Total Active Federal Military Service (TAFMS) b. All enlisted members c. Enlisted members SrA through CMSgt d. a, b e. a, c

e. a, c a. A1C and below if they have 20 months or more of Total Active Federal Military Service (TAFMS) c. Enlisted members SrA through CMSgt