Drill

In which types of situations do attitudes serve as a good predictor of behaviors? 1 When social influences are minimized 2 Specific attitudes best predict specific behaviors 3 When people act impulsively and don't spend too much time reflecting

1 and 2 Item I is true: When social influences are minimized, behavior is less susceptible to be altered by social interactions; therefore, people are more likely to behave in ways that align with their attitudes, so attitudes are a better predictor of behaviors when social influences are minimized Item II is true: Specific attitudes are better predictors of specific behaviors than general attitudes

Including those produced in the Krebs cycle, how many total NADH and FADH2 molecules would be generated from the complete β-oxidation of lauric acid (12 Sat Fatty Acid) and subsequent entry of the acetyl-CoA into the Krebs cycle?

23 NADH and 11 FADH2. Each turn of the β-oxidation cycle produces one acetyl-CoA and a fatty acid two carbons shorter than before. Only 5 turns of cycle are necessary. Thus, 5 NADH and 5 FADH2 would be generated during β-oxidation. When the 6 acetyl-CoA molecules go through the Krebs cycle, and additional 18 NADH would be generate (3 per turn of the Krebs cycle) and and additional 6 FADH2 would be generated (1 per turn)

Matt and Cati discuss the reasons why they avoid driving above the speed limit. Matt says that he wants to avoid a traffic fine, while Cati says that speeding is dangerous and, if everyone did it, there would be more accidents and people would get hurt. According to Kohlberg, which of the following describes the phases of moral reasoning demonstrated by Matt and Cati, respectively? A. Preconventional; conventional B. Preconventional; postconventional C. Conventional; preconventional D. Postconventional; conventional

A Matt's reasoning reflects a desire to avoid punishment, which reflects stage one in Kohlberg's preconventional phase (obedience). Cati's reasoning takes into account social order, reflecting stage four in the conventional phase (law and order).

An object creates an upright image on the opposite side that is bigger. What is the optical element in between the object and the image? A. Concave mirror B. Convex mirror C. Converging lens D. Diverging lens

A. All real images are inverted and all virtual images are upright. The fact that the image is upright shows it is virtual. For mirrors, virtual images appear on the side opposite the object, whereas for lenses, they appear on the same side as the object. Since the image is on the opposite side, the optical element must be a mirror. Since the image is larger than the object, the mirror must be concave.

A Stroke Patient comprehends speech but cannot move her mouth to form words. Which of the following brain area is likely affected? A. Broca's Area B. Wernicke's Area C. Arcuate Fasciculus D. Superior Temporal Gyrus

A. Broca's Area = Motor Function of Language Wernicke's Area = Unable to Comprehend Speech Arcuate Fascuculus = Unable to Repeat Words heard but spontaneous language production Superior Temporal Gyrus = Where Wernicke's Area is

A mass is oscillating on a spring with amplitude A and period T. If the motion is simple harmonic, what would the period be if the amplitude were increased to 2A? A. T B. SQRT(2) C. 2T D. 4T

A. Simple Harmonic Motion is independent of amplitude

The process of orographic lifting, whereby moving air encounters a mountain and is thus forced upward, is one of the primary causes of air rising into the atmosphere. As dry air rises, it cools according to the dry adiabatic lapse rate, which is roughly 10°C/km. Suppose a cubic meter parcel of dry air at 300 K rises from sea level to a height of 6,000 meters, where the ambient pressure is approximately 0.5 atm. What best approximates the work done by the parcel as it rises (assume that the average pressure during the rising process was the mean of the starting and ending pressures)? A. 45 kJ B. 45 J C. 60 kJ D. 60 J

A. To determine the work done by the rising, expanding gas, first determine the change in volume of the gas. Approximating the air parcel as an ideal gas, one can determine the change in volume using the fact that PV / T is constant, meaning V ∝ T / P. Noting that the rising process is considered adiabatic according to the passage, the temperature change of the parcel will be due exclusively to the expansion and not to heat exchange with the environment: in rising 6 km, according to the dry adiabatic lapse rate, the parcel must have decreased 60°C, thus changing from 300 K to 240 K, a factor of 4/5. The pressure halved, so the net effect is that the volume changed by a factor of (4/5)/(1/2) = 8/5 = 1.6. Given a starting volume of 1 m3, this yields ΔV = 0.6 m3. The work done by the expanding gas is given by W = PΔV, and as suggested by the question stem, P should be set to the average ambient pressure (usually you will use this equation with constant P), or 0.75 atm. Thus W = PΔV = (75 kPa)(0.6 m3) = 45 kJ.

A guitar string is playing notes that are flat (frequency too low). How can the string be made to play the correct notes? A. Increase the tension in the string to increase the wave speed B. Increase the tension in the string to decrease the wavelength C. Decrease the tension in the string to increase the wave speed D. Decrease the tension in the string to decrease the wavelength

A. (I Choose B.)

The viral capsid: A. is made of protein and functions in attachment to the host. B. is coded for and translated by host machinery. C. is a complex mixture of amino acids and rRNA. D. can form many shapes and is composed of peptidoglycan.

A. (I Choose B.) A. Only choice A is a true statement. While the host translates viral proteins, the viral genome must code for them (choice B is wrong).

The Singapore Flyer is the world's tallest Ferris wheel at a height of 165 m. It makes a complete revolution in about 40 minutes. What is the centripetal acceleration acting on one of the passenger capsules while the wheel is operating? A. 1/1800 m/s2 B. 1/900 m/s2 C. 1/180 m/s2 D. 1.2 m/s2

A. (I Choose B.) Because the motion is circular, the acceleration experienced by the capsule is centripetal, so we apply that equation

When the bucket is at the top of the circle, upside down, the sea shells do not fall out of the bucket. What is the net force on the sea shells inside the bucket at this point? A. The net force is the same as the centripetal force. B. The net force is the centripetal force plus the force of gravity since both are acting downward when the bucket is at the top of the circle. C. The net force is the same as the force of gravity. D. The net force is zero because the force of gravity cancels the centripetal force and the shells do not fall out of the bucket.

A. (I Choose B.) The bucket is traveling in a circle, so the net force is the same as the centripetal force and is acting towards the center of the circle. By definition, the centripetal force is the net force acting towards the center of the circle. Both the force of gravity and the normal force from the bottom of the bucket are acting downward, creating the centripetal force, so gravity alone is not the centripetal force. The shells are traveling in a circle so their velocity is changing direction and they have non-zero acceleration, therefore the net force cannot be zero.

A test charge 2 nC and mass 10-8 kg is released from rest at point A which has an electric potential of -100 V and travels to point B which has an electric potential of -500 V. What is the speed of the test charge when it reaches point B? A. 12.6 m/s B. 16 m/s C. 80 m/s D. It cannot be determined from the information given.

A. (I Choose B.) The change in potential energy can be calculated using ΔPE = qV = (2 × 10-9)(-500 - -100) = -8 × 10-7. Since this represents a loss in potential energy, there must be a gain in kinetic energy of the same amount. Both the initial speed and kinetic energy are zero since the charge started at rest, so the entire change in kinetic energy is due to the new speed. Therefore KE = (1/2) mv2 and v2 = 2KE / m = 2(8 × 10-7) / 10-8 = 160 and v = √160 ≈ 13 m/s. Note that the exact square root is not needed since only choice A is close.

Seltzer water is flowing through a pipe of uniform diameter for distribution. The pipe is sloped downward in such a manner that the end for distribution is 10 cm lower than the beginning. What is the water's speed at the end of the pipe if the initial speed is 1 m/s? A. 1 m/s B. 1.73 m/s C. 5 m/s D. 14.1 m/s

A. (I Choose B.) Though this question has several of the hallmarks of a Bernoulli's Law question, such as flow speed and change in height, the key fact is that the pipe does not change diameter. According to the Principle of Continuity, an ideal fluid (which we assume seltzer water to be) will flow with a constant flow rate through any pipe.

A student in physics lab creates a simple particle accelerator using a parallel plate capacitor. The top plate has a positive charge and the bottom plate has a negative charge, the plates are separated by a distance d, and a uniform electric field is created between the plates. The student can adjust the voltage differential V on the plates and is testing particles of different masses m and charges q. Which of the following shows the calculated acceleration of a particle due to the electric field, based on known quantities? A. qV / md B. md / qV C. Vd / mq D. qVd / m

A. (I Choose C.) The change in potential energy can be found using the equation ΔPE = qV where V is the change in potential. In this case, ΔPE = (0.002)(3000 - 1000) = 4 J. Note that the time and distance travelled are not needed.

The pentose phosphate pathway (PPP) generates NADPH to be used as a reducing agent in biosynthetic reactions such as fatty acid synthesis, and generates ribulose-5-phosphate which can either be converted into ribose-5-phosphate or into glycolytic intermediates. Ribose-5-phosphate can also be generated from glycolytic intermediates without the reduction of NADPH. Which of the following would be favored in a rapidly dividing cell? A. The formation of ribose-5-phosphate B. The reduction of NADP+ to NADPH in the oxidative phase of the PPP C. The conversion of ribulose-5-phosphate into glycolytic intermediates D. The oxidation of glucose-6-phosphate to generate NADH

A. (I Choose C.) Cells that are rapidly dividing need to synthesize nucleic acids, thus the formation of ribose-5-phosphate, a precursor to nucleotides, would be favored (choice A is correct). NADPH is not necessary for nucleotide synthesis so the oxidative phase of the PPP would not be favored (choice B is wrong). The conversion of ribulose-5-P into glycolytic intermediates would shuttle the five-carbon sugar back into glycolysis when it would be more needed as a nucleotide precursor (choice C is wrong). NADH is not generated in the pentose phosphate pathway (choice D is wrong).

A wire loop lying on a table carries a counterclockwise current. A bubble machine is poised over the edge of the loop and fires a stream of tiny negatively charged bubbles horizontally across the center of the loop, travelling along a diameter from south to north. What is the direction of the magnetic force from the loop on the bubbles? A. The magnetic force is to the west. B. The magnetic force is to the east. C. The magnetic force is vertically up away from the table. D. The magnetic force is vertically down toward the table.

A. (I Choose C.) Find the direction of the magnetic field from the wire loop using the right hand rule. The field points up out of the table in the middle of the loop. Once the magnetic field is found, find the direction of the magnetic force on the bubbles using the left hand rule (since the bubbles are negatively charged) to determine the direction of the force is to the west (to the left if north faces away from the body).

As the level of cellular specialization increases, what cell cycle activity decreases? A. DNA replication B. Cell growth C. Genome packaging D. Genome transcription

A. (I Choose D.) Cellular specialization typically leads to a decrease in cell division, i.e., highly differentiated cells do not divide. There is no point to replicating DNA (the S phase of the cell cycle) if division is not going to occur (choice A is correct).

Mallory's parents strongly oppose their daughter's sexual orientation. They may see non-heterosexual relationships as threatening important societal: A. mores. B. folkways. C. sanctions. D. formal norms.

A. (I Had NO Idea) Mores can be either formal or informal, but what distinguishes them is that they are seen as highly important for the benefit of society and are strictly enforced. Some examples are penalties for animal abuse or treason, but some members of U.S. society see homosexuality as similarly threatening to the social order (choice A is correct).

In addition to its roles in childbirth and lactation, oxytocin release has been linked to feelings of love and attachment. In which of the following brain areas is oxytocin produced? A. Hypothalamus B. Thalamus C. Anterior pituitary D. Posterior pituitary

A. (I Had NO Idea) While the posterior pituitary does release oxytocin, oxytocin is produced by the hypothalamus (choice A is correct; choice D is wrong). The thalamus is mainly responsible for regulating consciousness and sleep, as well as sensory and motor signals; it does not produce oxytocin (choice B is wrong). There are numerous hormones produced by the anterior pituitary (including ACTH, TSH, FSH, LH, growth hormone, and prolactin), but oxytocin is not one of them (choice C is wrong).

A car of mass m drives around a circular banked track of radius R at constant speed v, and maintains a constant height h. The angle of inclination of the bank is θ, and v is the track's critical speed, meaning that friction is not necessary to keep the car moving in uniform circular motion. What is the relation between the magnitudes of the normal force exerted by the track on the car and the weight of the car? A. FN > mg B. FN = mg C. FN < mg D. Cannot be determined

A. (I choose C.) The car is moving in a circular path of constant radius, this means it is not sliding up or down the bank of the road. For that to be true in the effective absence of friction, the vertical component of the normal force must be balancing out the weight of the car: FN cosθ = mg. Since cosθ < 1, this means that FN > mg. The horizontal component of the normal force, FN sinθ, is what provides the centripetal acceleration toward the center of the curved track.

A geneticist testcrosses a dihybrid (heterozygous for two genes) mouse and notices the double dominant and double recessive phenotypes are present at 8% and 10% frequency, respectively. Which of the following is the best conclusion from these data? A. The dominant allele of one gene is linked to the recessive allele of the other, and the two genes are approximately 20 map units apart. B. The dominant alleles of the two genes are linked and the two genes are 80 map units apart. C. The recessive alleles of the two genes are approximately 20 map units apart and are not linked. D. The two genes are linked and 80 map units apart, but it cannot be determined which alleles are being inherited together.

A. (I had No Idea) Let's assign the dihybrid mouse a genotype of AaBb. The testcross would be AaBb × aabb and the expected ratios of offspring would be 25% AB/ab, 25% Ab/ab, 25% aB/ab and 25% ab/ab (in linkage notation). The question stem says AB/ab is present at only 8% and ab/ab is present at only 10%. These two combinations must represent the recombinant offspring given their low percentages, Ab/ab and aB/ab must be the parental combination of alleles, and the genotype of the dihybrid parent must have been Ab/aB. In other words, the two genes are linked and the dominant allele of one gene is linked to the recessive allele of the other. To determine how far apart the genes are, we can calculate Rf, where Rf = (# recombinants / total) x 100% = [(8% + 10%) / 100%] x 100% = 18% recombination frequency = 18 cM = 18 map units.

After being pushed, a wooden crate slides at a constant speed down a hill with an angle of inclination of θ under the influence of gravity and friction. Which must be true of the coefficient of friction? A. µk = tanθ B. µk = sinθ C. µk < tanθ D. µs > gsinθ

A. (I had no IDEA) The force down the plane due to gravity must equal the force up the plane due to kinetic friction in order for the speed to be constant.

Late for a flight, a man runs through the airport concourse at 6 m/s pulling his rolling 15 kg suitcase with a (nearly) horizontal tension force of 200 N. How much power is the man exerting in pulling the suitcase during this process? A. 1200 W B. 120 W C. 80 W D. 0 W

A. (I had no Idea) For a constant force parallel to velocity, power is given by P = F x v. In this case that yields P = 200 N × 6 m/s = 1200 W.

What is a plaque on a bacterial plate?

An empty space where bacteria has died. It can be caused by addition of a toxin, antibiotic, or virus; each of these can kill bacteria and would generate a clear area

Halothane is an alkyl halide used as an inhalational general anesthetic. Which of the following could be used to reduce an alkyl halide to an alkane? A. LiAlH4 B. Zn, H+ C. Mg in anhydrous ether, then water D. All of the above

Answer (D) is correct because all of these methods could be used to reduce an alkyl halide to its corresponding alkane. In answers (A) and (B), a hydrogen atom replaces the halogen atom, reducing the alkyl halide to an alkane. Choice (C) describes a Grignard reaction with the Mg forming an organometallic with the reactant followed by a reaction with water to form the alkane.

While on the phone, a friend says: "A good friend would let me borrow the bike." This friend is using which impression management strategy? A. Managing appearances B. Alter-casting C. Ingratiation D. Self-disclosure

B Imposing a role on another person (in this case, "good friend") is the hallmark of altercasting. This example is also the opposite of ingratiation, choice (C), because the implication behind the statement is that one is a "bad friend" if he or she does not lend the bike; ingratiation is the use of flattery or conformity to win over someone else.

According to Erikson, a child who is of preschool age and is exploring its surroundings is experiencing which basic conflict? A. Trust vs. mistrust B. Initiative vs. guilt C. Autonomy vs. shame and doubt D. Intimacy vs. isolation

B.

The brain area responsible for arousal and wakefulness is the: A. hippocampus. B. reticular activating system. C. prefrontal cortex. D. cerebellum

B.

Some species of insect, such as the Isabella Tiger Moth, have evolved to resist freezing by removing water from their cells under certain conditions. Which of the following is always true when an object is frozen as a part of an isothermal reaction? A. The pressure of the system is increased. B. The change in enthalpy of the system is negative. C. The temperature of the system is decreased. D. The volume of the system is decreased.

B. Because of an object's heat of fusion, energy is always released when something freezes. When a reaction releases energy, its net change in enthalpy is negative. Choice (B), therefore, is the correct answer. Although the process is usually caused by a change in temperature or pressure, this is not necessary if the object was already at its freezing point before the start of the process.

Two speakers are emitting identical sound waves with frequency 170 Hz (the speed of sound is approximately 340 m/s). If a person stands 3 meters from one speaker and 4 meters from the other speaker, he will experience: A. constructive interference. B. destructive interference. C. beats. D. a Doppler shift.

B. If the path difference is an integer times the wavelength (e.g. λ, 2λ, 3λ, etc.) then there will be constructive interference. If the path difference is an integer-and-a-half times the wavelength (λ / 2, 3λ / 2, 5λ / 2, etc.) then there will be destructive interference. Since the person is 3 meters from one speaker and 4 meters from the other, the path difference is 4 - 3 = 1 meter. To find the wavelength, use the equation v = fλ, where v is the speed of sound and f is the frequency. So, λ = v / f = (340 m/s) / (170 Hz) = 2 m. Since the path difference is one half the wavelength, the waves (and the person) will experience destructive interference.

Proteins are polymers of amino acids that play diverse roles in the body. Which of the following statements about proteins is true? A. Proteins cannot contain more than 1000 amino acids. B. The side chains of individual amino acids can have a significant effect on protein structure. C. Protein synthesis always occurs in the 5' to 3' direction. D. Protein functions include structure, transport, enzymatic catalysis, and emulsification of fats.

B. Not C. Protein synthesis occurs in the N -> C direction; nucleic acid synthesis proceeds 5' to 3

All of the following are true about radio waves EXCEPT: A. they are electromagnetic. B. they are longitudinal. C. they have longer wavelengths than visible light. D. they do not require a medium.

B. Radio Waves = Electromagnetic Waves Therefore, not Longitudinal

For a single pyruvate molecule, first converted to acetyl-CoA, then traveling through the Krebs cycle, how many NADH molecules are produced? A. 3 B. 4 C. 6 D. 8

B. The decarboxylation of pyruvate to acetyl-CoA nets 1 NADH, and as that acetyl-CoA travels through the Krebs cycle, an additional 3 NADH are generated, resulting in a total of 4 NADH per pyruvate

A pipe closed at one end supports a standing wave vibrating in its 3rd harmonic mode. If the closed end is then opened, and a standing wave is created with twice the previous frequency, then what is the pipe's new harmonic mode? A. 1.5 B. 3 C. 6 D. 12

B. The harmonic mode, denoted by n, must be an integer. This eliminates choice A. For a pipe closed at one end, the nth harmonic frequency is given by fn = vn / 4L, where v is the speed of sound and L is the length of the pipe. Since the pipe is playing in its 3rd harmonic mode, f = (3v) / (4L). For a pipe open at both ends, fn = vn / 2L. Doubling the original frequency and plugging into this equation yields (2)(3v) / 4L = vn / 2L. Canceling v and L yields 6/4 = n / 2, so n = 3.

If an object is placed very far away from a concave mirror, where will the image be formed? A. Halfway b/w the focal point and the mirror B. At the focal point C. At the center of curvature D. At infinity

B. Think about 1/f = 1/i + 1/o o -> infinity Therefore f = i

The lytic and productive viral cycles are similar in that they both: A. destroy the host cell to allow viral particle release. B. involve a virus using host cellular machinery to replicate the viral genome and capsid. C. require the viral genome to be integrated into the host genome. D. involve expression of hydrolase to generate dNTP building blocks, and lysozyme to allow viral release.

B. In both cycles, the virus takes over certain parts of the host cell, to allow production of viral proteins and to replicate the viral genome (choice B is correct). At the end of a lytic cycle the host cell lyses and dies to allow release of viral particles, however in the productive cycle, viruses bud out of the host cell; this allows the host to survive, and generates viruses with an outer envelope (choice A is only true of the lytic cycle and can be eliminated). The viral genome integrates into the host genome in the lysogenic cycle (choice C is not true of either the lytic or productive cycles and can be eliminated). Hydrolase is a lytic cycle early gene, and lysozyme is a lytic cycle late gene (choice D is only true of the lytic cycle and can be eliminated).

All of the following are true about waves EXCEPT: A. Electromagnetic waves must be transverse. B. Electromagnetic waves can be either transverse or longitudinal. C. Mechanical waves can be either transverse or longitudinal. D. Mechanical waves require a medium and electromagnetic waves do not.

B. (I Choose A.)

Maple syrup consistently flowing from a tree is not an ideal fluid because: A. the fluid is compressible. B. viscosity is not negligible. C. flow is laminar. D. the fluid is impure.

B. (I Choose A.) While a fluid must be incompressible to be ideal, molasses is not compressible. A is eliminated. Viscosity-friction for fluids-must be negligible for a fluid to be ideal. One of the main properties of molasses is how slowly it flows, indicating that viscosity is not negligible.

Despite recognizing that a fear is unrealistic, an individual suffering from which disorder experiences extreme anxiety when confronted with a feared object or situation? A. Panic disorder B. Specific phobia C. Generalized anxiety disorder D. Obsessive compulsive disorder

B. (I Choose C.) A specific phobia is defined as a disproportionate fear caused by a specific object or situation, such as dogs, snakes, heights, etc. (choice B is correct). Generalized anxiety disorder is a persistently high level of nervousness or anxiety in most situations, and is not limited to specific objects or situations

In 2010, 28.4% of Native Americans living on reservations had incomes below the poverty threshold ($22,113 for a family of four, which is considered the minimum amount of money needed to secure basic life necessities in the US). This statistic represents a measure of: A. social stratification. B. absolute poverty. C. relative poverty. D. social capital.

B. (I Choose C.) Absolute poverty is a measure of the bare minimum for subsistence, and the global level hovers between $1-2/day. However, one disadvantage of this is that poverty thresholds in developed nations tend to be higher than those in developing nations. For this reason, it can help to have nation-specific poverty thresholds, and to define absolute poverty as the minimum amount of money needed to secure basic life necessities. In 2010, this number was $22,113 (choice B is correct). Relative poverty, on the other hand, is a measure of poverty where family income is compared to the incomes of other families in the surrounding area. This measure would not be useful in many areas, particularly on reservations, since neighborhoods tend to be segregated by class (choice C is wrong).

Which of the following is a true statement? A. The best way to increase evolutionary fitness is to have many offspring, regardless of whether they survive to adulthood. B. Natural selection acts on genetic diversity in populations and causes evolution. C. Changes in gene expression are the basis of evolution in populations. D. Divergent selection drives a population closer to the average trait.

B. (I Choose C.) Only choice B is a true statement. Fitness is defined as how well an organism passes its alleles to future generations. If few offspring survive to reproductive age, this does not correspond to increased fitness (choice A is false). Changes in allele frequency—not gene expression patterns—are the basis for evolution in both species and populations (choice C is false).

A basketball (0.6 kg, 12 cm radius) rolls across the court without slipping. If the coefficient of static friction between the ball and the court is 1.0, what is the torque provided by friction that causes the basketball to rotate at its maximum speed? A. 0.6 N·m B. 0.7 N·m C. 6 N·m D. 7 N·m

B. (I Choose C.) The maximum speed the ball can roll without slipping will correspond to the maximum value for the static friction force: 6N. With this we can solve for the torque by multiplying by the radius of the ball, because the friction force is tangent to the ball and the distance to the center of mass and rotation is the radius (radius and tangent are always perpendicular for circles or spheres). τ = rF = (0.12)(6) ≈ 0.7 N·m.

A neighborhood dad who coaches a Little League team registered the team under the name "the Indians" because a beloved local minor league team had the same name and he wanted to give the kids strong adult role models. When other team parents later objected, the dad was surprised; he had assumed that they agreed with him because no one had said anything before registration. What type of assumption did the dad make? A. Optimism bias B. False consensus C. Confirmation bias D. Belief bias

B. (I Choose C.) This dad has come to a false consensus about the name for the Little League team because he assumed that everyone agreed with him (choice B is correct). The optimism bias occurs when one believes that bad things only happen to others, not to themselves; this does not explain the dad's assumption that everyone agreed with him about the team name (choice A is wrong). A confirmation bias is a tendency to only search for information that confirms a previously held belief; again, this does not best explain the scenario because it does not appear the dad is searching for information to confirm his belief (choice C is wrong). A belief bias is a type of bias that interferes with logical argumentation. When one holds a belief bias, one will judge an argument based on whether the conclusions are agreeable, rather than whether the argument itself is logical (choice D is wrong).

Which of the following are the dimensions of a watt? A. [M][L] / [T]2 B. [M][L]2 / [T]3 C. [M]2[L]2 / [T]2 D. [M][L]3 / [T]2

B. (I Choose C.) I had no IDEA A watt is a unit of power. Power is work per unit time. Work is the product of force and displacement. Force is the product of mass and acceleration. So, the overall equation for power would be (mad) / t.

Drawing from the information contained in the passage, what diagnosis was Sam able to reach following her conversation with Mallory and her difficulty walking and intermittent blindness from being rejected by her parents? A. Panic disorder B. Conversion disorder C. Delusional disorder D. Somatization disorder

B. (I Choose D.) A conversion disorder is a type of somatoform disorder that is marked by a change in sensory or motor function that has no identifiable physiological cause, for example trouble walking or seeing without a clear reason why. These disorders are often brought on by trauma, as one might experience following a serious family conflict. Similar to conversion disorder, the symptoms do not have a clear physiological cause, but unlike conversion disorder, somatization disorders do not appear to be caused or exacerbated by trauma or psychological distress (choice D is wrong).

During prophase II of meiosis: A. there are two chromatids per chromosome and the cell is diploid. B. there are two chromatids per chromosome and the cell is haploid. C. there is one chromatid per chromosome and the cell is diploid. D. there is one chromatid per chromosome and the cell is haploid.

B. (I Choose D.) Cells undergoing meiosis are haploid after the first cytokinesis event (choices A and C are wrong). In prophase II, the sister chromatids have not separated yet (choice B is correct and choice D is wrong).

A family pedigree is being constructed for the Laing family. The hairy ear phenotype is consistently passed from fathers to sons. Having dry ear wax has skipped a few generations, but affects Laing males and Laing females at the same frequency. Which of the following is most likely? A. Dry ear wax is an X-linked recessive trait and hairy ears is a mitochondrial trait. B. Dry ear wax is an autosomal recessive trait and hairy ears is Y-linked. C. Dry ear wax is an X-linked dominant trait and hairy ears is Y-linked. D. Dry ear wax is autosomal dominant and hairy ears is X-linked recessive.

B. (I Choose D.) If dry ear wax skips generations, it must be a recessive trait. Classically dominant traits cannot be hidden and then show up in future generations (choices C and D can be eliminated). Furthermore, equal distribution among sexes likely rules out a sex-linked trait; dry ear wax must be an autosomal recessive trait (choice A can be eliminated and choice B is correct). Note that traits that pass from fathers to sons (such as the hairy ear phenotype in this question) are coded by the Y chromosome.

The viral genome integrates into the host genome during the lysogenic cycle. After this: A. the host genome is not expressed, due to virus-encoded repressor proteins. B. the viral genome is silent, but replicated along with the host genome. C. the virus genome excises and activates once the host cell is dead or dying. D. excision of the viral genome is very precise and occurs only when the host cell is under stress.

B. (I Choose D.) In the lysogenic cycle, the viral genome inserts into the host genome. The host genome continues to be transcribed and translated, but the viral genome is silent due to viral-encoded repressor proteins (choice A is wrong). Both the host and viral genomes are copied during DNA replication (choice B is correct). The viral genome is activated and excised when the host cell is stressed, and will enter the lytic or productive cycle. If the virus waits until the host cell is dead, it will certainly not be able to reproduce (choice C is wrong). Finally, excision of the viral genome is relatively imprecise. Some of the host genome can also be excised and packaged into viral particles. This new bit of DNA can be transferred to the next host on subsequent infection (transduction, choice D is wrong).

Although Jake did a thorough physical exam, he presented Mallory's symptoms to Sam as if Mallory were faking her condition. Jake publicly espoused the values of patient care, but privately maligned the patient. This caused a conflict between overt and implicit values in education. The implicit function of education is known as: A. conflict theory. B. the hidden curriculum. C. teacher expectancy theory. D. the manifest curriculum.

B. (I Choose D.) Keyword: Implicit The hidden curriculum comprises the latent values of education; most often the latent values become obvious when they are in conflict with the overt (or manifest) function of education. Here, the lesson from the hidden curriculum is that it is acceptable to be suspicious of patients and to find them bothersome. The lesson from the manifest curriculum is that doctors should always do thorough examinations of their patients (choice B is correct, choice D is wrong).

Which of the following is NOT a symptom of physical drug dependence? A. Tolerance to a drug; the user needs more and more to achieve the same high B. A strong psychological need for the drug because of the enjoyable mental effects associated with drug use C. Withdrawal symptoms upon cessation of drug use D. Alteration in brain neurochemistry after prolonged drug use

B. (I Choose D.) Keyword: Physical

There are many reported long-term effects of child abuse, including greater risk for the personality disorder (PD) in the same cluster as all of the following, EXCEPT: A. antisocial PD. B. dependent PD. C. histrionic PD. D. narcissistic PD.

B. (I Had NO Idea) The final paragraph states that borderline personality disorder is one of the long-term consequences of the sexual abuse of children. Borderline PD is a cluster B disorder. The other disorders in this cluster are antisocial PD, histrionic PD, and narcissistic PD (choices A, C, and D are in the same cluster and can be eliminated). Dependent PD is categorized as a cluster C disorder (choice B is the correct answer).

An object is placed halfway between the focal point and the center of curvature of concave mirror. What is the magnification of the image? A. - 2/5 B. - 2 C. 3/5 D. 3

B. (I Had No IDEA) When an object is placed beyond the focal point of a concave mirror (i.e. o > f, where o is the distance from the object to the mirror and f is the focal length), the image produced will be real. All real images are inverted, which means that the magnification, m, is always negative. This eliminates choices C and D. According the mirror equation, 1 / o + 1 / i = 1 / f, where i is the distance from the image to the mirror. Since the object is halfway between the focal point (f) and the center of curvature (2f), o = 3f / 2. Solving for i yields 1 / i = 1 / f − 1 / o = 1 / f − 1 / (3f / 2) = 1 / f − 2 / (3f) = 1 / (3f). So i = 3f. According to the magnification equation, m = − i / o = − 3f / (3f / 2) = − 2.

In an avalanche, a 2000 kg boulder slides down a straight icy (frictionless) hill 1 km long. The acceleration of the boulder is 4 m/s2. How much work does gravity do on the boulder during this slide? A. 2 × 107 J B. 8 × 106 J C. 2 × 104 J D. 8 × 103 J

B. (I choose A. since used Gravity, not 4 m/s2)

Which of the following is a FALSE statement about (+) RNA viruses and (-) RNA viruses? A. Both types of viral genomes must encode an RNA-dependent polymerase. B. (+) RNA viruses must carry an RNA-dependent RNA polymerase. C. Viral proteins can be directly translated from a (+) RNA genome but not a (-) RNA genome. D. Injection of a (+) RNA genome into a host cell would result in infective activity.

B. (I had No Idea) (+) RNA viral genomes can serve as templates for transcription, but (-) RNA genomes are complementary to a transcript template (choice C is true and can be eliminated). As a consequence, both must encode an RNA-dependent RNA polymerase to replicate the genome (choice A is true of (+) and (-) RNA viruses and can be eliminated), but a (-) RNA virus must also carry a copy of this protein, to generate functional mRNA from the genome (choice B is false and the correct answer choice).

A graduate student in a yeast lab that studies double-strand break (DSB) repair has a mutant strain that is unable to complete repair via nonhomologous end joining. Which of the following is true about this strain? A. It can only repair DSB with minimal specificity. B. It is able to form a joint molecule when repairing DSBs. C. It will accumulate many chromosomal aberrations over time. D. It can specifically repair DSB in a DNA polymerase-independent manner.

B. (I had no Idea) This mutant strain is unable to complete nonhomologous end joining and is thus relying on homologous recombination for DSB. This is a specific repair process (choice A is wrong) that involves formation of a joint molecule (choice B is correct) and uses DNA polymerase (choice D is wrong). A strain that repairs DNA via homologous end joining will be able to repair DSBs reasonably well, and will not accumulate many chromosomal aberrations over time (choice C is wrong).

Cytokinesis occurs during which two phases of mitosis? A. Prophase and metaphase B. Metaphase and anaphase C. Anaphase and telophase D. Telophase and prophase

C.

Which of the following sleep stages is correctly paired with the type of EEG waves characteristic of that stage? A. Stage 1; alpha waves B. Stage 2; beta waves C. Stage 3; delta waves D. REM; delta waves

C.

A ray of green light is passed through glass and hits the boundary that the glass makes with the air at the critical angle. All of the following changes would cause total internal reflection to occur EXCEPT: A. increasing the angle of incidence. B. using blue light instead of green light. C. using red light instead of green light. D. using glass with a higher index of refraction.

C. According to Snell's Law, n1sin θc = n2sin 90°. Since n2 = 1 (air) and sin90° = 1, this means that θc = sin−1(1 / n1). When light is incident at an angle greater than θc, the light will experience total internal reflection.

A high current power line is supported 10 m above ground and carries a current from West to East. A negatively charged balloon is released directly below the power line and begins to float straight up toward it. What is the direction of the magnetic force on the balloon due to the magnetic field surrounding the power line? A. North B. South C. East D. West

C. Current Goes to Positive Direction And Balloon is Negative

The intensity of a spherical sound wave at a distance d from the source is equal to I. At what distance from the source would the intensity be equal to 2I? A. d / 4 B. d / 2 C. d / SQRT(2) D. 2d

C. For a spherical wave, intensity (I) is inversely proportional to the square of the distance (d) from the source to the detector. The intensity is increasing, so the distance must decrease. This eliminates choice D. If I is proportional to 1 / d2, then we can also say that d is proportional to SQRT(2). Since I doubles, then d decreases by a factor of SQRT(2).

What is responsible for Balance and Motor Coordination? A. Forebrain B. Midbrain C. Hindbrain D. Spinal Cord

C. Hindbrain = Balance and Motor Coordination Midbrain = Sensorimotor reflexes and Survival Forebrain = Associated with emotion, memory, and higher-order cognition

Each individual in a group of teenagers is asked to estimate the height of a tree. One individual estimates the height to be 25 feet, but after discussing with the group is convinced that the height is likely closer to 40 feet. Which type of conformity is seen here? A. Obedience B. Identification C. Internalization D. Compliance

C. Internalization refers to the type of conformity in which an individual changes her outward opinion to match the group and also personally agrees with those ideas.

A child has experienced nervous system damage and can no longer coordinate the movements to dribble a basketball, although she can walk. Which region of the central nervous system was most likely affected? A. Forebrain B. Midbrain C. Hindbrain D. Spinal Cord

C. The hindbrain is responsible for balance and motor coordination, which would be necessary for dribbling a basketball. The midbrain, choice (B), manages sensorimotor reflexes that also promote survival. The forebrain, choice (A), is associated with emotion, memory, and higher-order cognition. The spinal cord, choice (D), is likely not damaged as the child can still walk.

As more identical light bulbs are connected in a parallel circuit, the brightness of each bulb: A. Decreases B. Increases C. Remains the Same D. What the Heck?

C. Voltage is constant on Parallel circuits, and each individual light bulb will equal I=V/R.. So I will remain constant and P = I x V will be constant.

A ray of light enters a glass prism from air at an incident angle of 0°, as shown in the figure. What will happen to the ray of light? A. No Bend of Light B. Other Side of Normal Line to show relative positions of Angles C. Greater Angle of Refraction than Angle of Incident D. Less Angle of Refraction than Angle of Incident

C. (A. I Said No Bend) Light travels faster through air (n = 1) than through glass (n > 1), where n is the index of refraction. Snell's law states that n1sin θ1 = n2sin θ2, where θ1 is the Angle of Incidence and θ2 is the Angle of Refraction. When the ray exits the glass and passes into air, n1 (glass) > n2 (air) which means that θ1 must be less than θ2.

An eye that is nearsighted: A. needs a converging lens because the focal length is too short. B. needs a converging lens because the focal length is too long. C. needs a diverging lens because the focal length is too short. D. needs a diverging lens because the focal length is too long.

C. (I Choose A.) If the eye's focal length is too short, it would make sense that it would need a diverging lens to cause the light rays to converge at a distance farther away from the lens of the eye. Similarly, if the eye's focal length is too long, it needs a converging lens to cause the light rays to converge a distance closer to the lens of the eye.

Two cars of equal mass are traveling opposite directions on a highway. If one is moving twice as fast as the other, what is the relationship between their kinetic energies? A. One is a quarter of the value and the opposite sign of the other. B. One is half the value and the opposite sign of the other. C. One is a quarter the value and the same sign as the other. D. One is half the value and the same sign as the other.

C. (I Choose A.) Kinetic energy is always a positive scalar value or zero, so choices A and B are eliminated. It is also proportional to the square of the speed, so if the speed doubles and mass is the same, the kinetic energy will change by a factor of four.

Two copper wires are tested for resistance. The first wire is longer and thinner than the second wire. Which wire has the higher resistivity? A. The first wire, because resistance increases with increased length and decreased area. B. The second wire, because resistance increases with decreased length and increased area. C. Neither wire, because resistivity depends only on the material, and both wires are made of copper. D. It cannot be determined without knowing the voltage and current, because Ohm's law defines resistance as a ratio of voltage over current.

C. (I Choose A.) Resistivity is a measure of a material's intrinsic resistance, and is dependent only on the material itself. Since both wires are made of copper, the resistivity of each wire will be the same. Note that answer choice A would be correct if the question were asking for resistance.

A string attached at each end is vibrating in its 4th harmonic mode. If the distance between each node and its closest antinode is 40 cm, then what is the length of the string? A. 1.6 m B. 2.4 m C. 3.2 m D. 6.4 m

C. (I Choose A.) When a string vibrates in its 4th harmonic mode, it means that there are 4 half-wavelengths (i.e. 2 full wavelengths) along the length of the string. The distance between a node and the closest antinode is one quarter of a wavelength, so λ = 4(40 cm) = 160 cm or 1.6 m. The length of string is therefore 2λ = 3.2 m.

Which of the following is NOT a component of the limbic system? A. Hypothalamus B. Hippocampus C. Pons D. Amygdala

C. (I Choose B.) The limbic system is a collection of brain structures that are primarily responsible for emotional experiences. The main structure involved in emotion in the limbic system is the amygdala, an almond-shaped structure deep within the brain, which serves as the conductor of the orchestra of our emotional experiences (choice D is wrong). The amygdala communicates with the hypothalamus, which controls the physiological aspects of emotion, such as sweating and a racing heart (choice A is wrong). The limbic system also includes the hippocampus, a brain structure that plays a key role in forming memories (choice B is wrong).

Which concept best describes the actions of European settlers towards Native Americans? A. Involuntary migration B. External migration C. Colonization D. Emigration

C. (I Choose D. - Looking at Passage) Colonization is a form of immigration where a group of people arrives in an already settled land and proceeds to dominate and exploit the indigenous peoples (choice C is correct). Involuntary migration is what the Europeans forced some Native American tribes to endure—the Trail of Tears is a prominent example—but it was not as widespread and encompassing as the colonization all tribes endured (choice A is wrong).

A block is oscillating horizontally on an ideal spring. If the amplitude is doubled, what would happen to the maximum speed of the block? A. It would stay the same. B. It would increase by a factor of SQRT(2). C. It would increase by a factor of 2. D. It would increase by a factor of 4.

C. (I Choose D.) To find the maximum speed of a mass on a spring, we use the principle of Conservation of Mechanical Energy with kinetic energy equal to (1/2)mv2 and elastic potential energy equal to (1/2)kx2. Comparing the energy at x = 0 (where the speed is at its maximum) to the energy at x = A (the amplitude, where speed is zero), we get (1/2)mvmax2 = (1/2)kA2 (based on conservation of energy). Solving for vmax, we see that vmax = which is directly proportional to A. This can also be recognized by examining the equation and creating a proportionality out of the non-constant terms: vmax2A2. Therefore, doubling A would also double vmax.

A capacitor is connected in a circuit to a battery and allowed to fully charge. While the capacitor is still connected to the battery, a dielectric is inserted between the plates of the capacitor. If the dielectric constant is K, all of the following are true EXCEPT: A. The charge stored on the capacitor increases by a factor of K. B. The potential energy stored on the capacitor increases by a factor of K. C. The voltage across the capacitor increases by a factor of K. D. The electric field created by the capacitor remains the same.

C. (I Choose D.) When the dielectric is inserted, the capacitance of the capacitor increases by a factor of K. Since the battery is still connected, the capacitor will continue charging until the voltage on the capacitor is the same as the voltage on the battery. Therefore V will remain the same, making choice C false and the correct answer.

A circuit consists of a battery and 3 identical resistors connected in series, where each resistor has a power of 80 W. A second circuit consists of a battery and 3 identical resistors connected in parallel, where each resistor also has a power of 80 W. Which of the following represents the ratio of the power provided by the battery in the first circuit to the power provided by the battery in the second circuit? A. 9 to 1 B. 3 to 1 C. 1 to 1 D. 1 to 3

C. (I Had No Idea) The power provided by the battery is always equal to the power consumed by all elements on the circuit. Since both circuits have 3 elements of 80 W each, both batteries must provide 240 W of power. Note that the types of circuits (series or parallel) were not needed.

Neglect was shown to cause aggression in the famous experiments conducted by: A. Erik Erikson. B. Mary Ainsworth. C. Harry and Margaret Harlow. D. Sigmund Freud.

C. (I Thought B.) Harry and Margaret Harlow conducted a series of experiments that studied attachment, now known as Harlow's monkeys. In this research, infant monkeys were separated from their mothers.

If a Hfr cell mates with an F- bacterium, which of the following is true? A. Both cells will become Hfr strains. B. The Hfr bacterium becomes female (F-), while the female strain becomes Hfr. C. The female bacterium could end up female (F-), male (F+), or Hfr. D. The mating is impossible since only F+ bacteria (male) can perform conjugation with F- (female) cells.

C. (I had No Idea) The Hfr strain has the F factor in the genome, male (F+) bacteria contain the F factor as a plasmid, while the female bacteria (F-) has no F factor. Both male (F+) and Hfr strains can mate with female strains (choice D is wrong). The Hfr cell keeps a copy of its genome (choice B is wrong) and passes a copy to the female cell, through the conjugation bridge (or sex pilus). The female cell can receive a portion of the Hfr chromosome, or a copy of the whole thing (if the cells stay connected for a longer time). The F factor is the final gene transferred during conjugation; if the F factor doesn't make it over to the female cell, she will stay female (but may acquire new genetic traits). If the F factor is transferred, it can end up in a plasmid (the cell would then be male, F+) or the genome (the cell would then be Hfr). While choice A is possible, choice C is more likely.

What is a chemoheterotrophic bacteria that is a leucine auxotroph?

Chemotrophs get their energy from chemicals, not light. Heterotrophs rely on organic molecules made by other organisms; they cannot make them from CO2. A leucine auxotroph cannot synthesize the amino acid leucine; to survive, leucine must be provided for the organism in its medium

How do Chylomicrons and VLDLs differ?

Chylomicrons = Transport Dietary Triacylglycerol and originate in the small intestines VLDLs = transport newly synthesizes triacylglycerols and originate in the liver

An electron with charge -e and mass m moves with velocity v in the positive x direction through an external magnetic field B that points in the negative z direction. Assuming the effects of gravity are negligible, which of the following best describe the the electron's circular path as viewed from the positive z perspective (looking in the negative z direction)? (Clockwise/Counterclockwise) with radius (mv/eB or visa versa).

Clockwise circle with radius mv / eB Since the charge is negative, the left hand rule is used to determine the direction of the magnetic force. The velocity is in the positive x direction and the magnetic field is in the negative z direction, so the initial magnetic force is in the negative y direction. Thus the acceleration on the electron results in the electron moving in a clockwise circle, eliminating choices A and C. Since the magnetic force is providing the centripetal force, the two forces can be set equal to each other, yielding mv2 / r = evB. Solving for r gives mv / eB.

What role does peptidyl transferase play in protein synthesis? A. It transports the initiator aminoacyl-tRNA complex. B. It helps the ribosome to advance three nucleotides along the mRNA in the 5′ to 3′ direction. C. It holds the proteins in its tertiary structure. D. It catalyzes the formation of a peptide bond.

D Peptidyl transferase is an enzyme that catalyzes the formation of a peptide bond between the incoming amino acid in the A site and the growing polypeptide chain in the P site. Initiation and elongation factors help transport charged tRNA molecules into the ribosome and advance the ribosome down the mRNA transcript, as in choices (A) and (B).

Mitochondria share what characteristic with prokaryotic cells? A. Presence of membrane-bound organelles B. Maternal inheritance pattern C. Lack of ribosomes D. Single chromosome

D.

An earthquake generates a longitudinal seismic wave with frequency 15 Hz. The distance from the center of a compression to the center of the closest rarefaction is 0.2 km, how far will the wave travel in 5 seconds? A. 15 m B. 30 m C. 15 km D. 30 km

D. For a longitudinal wave, the distance between a compression and the closest rarefaction is half of a wavelength. Therefore the wavelength, λ, is 2(0.2 km) = 0.4 km or 400 m. The speed, v, of a wave is given by v = fλ, where f is the frequency. So v = (400 m)(15 Hz) = 6000 m/s. The distance traveled by the wave in a time, t, is given by d = vt = (6000 m/s)(5 s) = 30,000 m or 30 km.

After sitting in a lecture, determining that a professor is a bad teacher based on their unprofessional attire and monotone speech is an example of which type of processing? A. Knowledge route processing B. Adaptive route processing C. Central route processing D. Peripheral route processing

D. Peripheral route processing deals with processing information that is not based on content, but instead on superficial parameters such as boring speech patterns or appearance of the speaker. Central route processing, choice (C), is the processing of information through analysis of its content.

All of the following changes would LOWER the frequency played by a plucked string attached at each end EXCEPT: A. decreasing the tension in the string. B. using string with the same length but greater mass. C. using a longer string. D. decreasing the amplitude of oscillation.

D. The speed of waves traveling in a string is given by where T is tension and m / L is the linear mass density of the string. If tension were to decrease, then speed would decrease. Assuming the length of the string is the same, then all harmonic wavelengths will remain the same (since λn = 2L / n). The equation v = fλ tells us that decreasing the speed would therefore decrease the frequency. This eliminates choice A, since this is a true statement. Similarly, increasing the mass would decrease the speed and the frequency, which eliminates choice B. Increasing the length of the string would increase the wavelength, which would decrease the frequency. This eliminates choice C. The amplitude has no effect on frequency at all, meaning that choice D is correct.

When light passes from Medium #1 (index of refraction n1) to Medium #2 (index of refraction n2), the wavelength becomes smaller. Which of the following is true? A. The frequency in Medium #1 is greater than the frequency in Medium #2 B. The frequency in Medium #1 is less than the frequency in Medium #2 C. n1 > n2 D. n1 < n2

D. When a wave passes into a new medium, its frequency stays the same. This eliminates choices A and B. For waves, v = fλ, where v is the speed, f is the frequency and λ is the wavelength. If λ decreases when entering Medium #2, then v should also decrease. The relationship between v and n is given by n = c / v, where c is the speed of light in a vacuum. Therefore, since v1 > v2, this means than n1 < n2.

Which of the following is an INACCURATE statement about bacterial cell structure? A. The peptidoglycan cell wall protects against osmotic pressure gradients. B. The 30S/50S ribosome performs translation in the cytoplasm. C. ATP synthesis occurs across the plasma membrane. D. Cyanobacteria have photosynthetic machinery in the chloroplast and cytoplasm.

D. (I Choose A.) All these statements are true and accurate except choice D. Cyanobacteria perform photosynthesis, but since bacteria contain no membrane-bound organelles (including chloroplasts), the photosynthetic machinery is located in the cell membrane and the cytoplasm (similar to the cell respiration machinery).

A certain simple pendulum oscillating with a small angle has the same period as an ideal mass/spring system. If the length of the pendulum is doubled, its period will remain the same as the mass/spring system if: A. the spring constant is doubled. B. the pendulum mass is doubled. C. the mass on the spring is halved. D. the mass on the spring is doubled.

D. (I Choose A.) If L is doubled for the pendulum, then the periods will remain the same if either m is doubled or k is halved. This leaves choice D. [Look at Formulas]

A test charge q is released from rest at point A and accelerates toward point B. If the charge on q is negative, all of the following are true EXCEPT: A. The potential energy decreases as q moves from point A to point B. B. The kinetic energy increases as q moves from point A to point B. C. The work done by the electric field is positive as q moves from point A to point B. D. The potential at point B is less than the potential at point A.

D. (I Choose A.) Since the change in potential energy is ΔPE = qV and both ΔPE and q are negative, then V must be positive. This means the potential at point B must be greater than the potential at point A, making choice D false and the correct answer.

Which of the following forms of eukaryotic post-transcriptional modification is most critical for ribosome association with an mRNA transcript? A. Substitution of uracil for thymine B. Intron splicing C. Addition of the 3' poly-A tail D. Addition of the 5' cap

D. (I Choose A.) The 5' cap contains the ribosome binding site in eukaryotes and is critical for ribosome association (choice D is correct). Of lesser importance are intron splicing and addition of a 3' poly-A tail (choices B and C are wrong). Note that substitution of uracil for thymine is a characteristic of RNA, not a post-transcriptional modification (choice A is wrong).

A dipole consists of two charges separated by a distance of 2 m. The charge on the left is 2 nC and the charge on the right is -2 nC. What is the value and direction of the electric field at a point halfway between the two charges? A. 0 N/C B. 18 N/C to the right C. 18 N/C to the left D. 36 N/C to the right

D. (I Choose B.) E = k|Q| / r^2 ELeft Q = (9 × 109)(2 × 10-9) / 12, = 18 N/C. ERight Q = (9 × 109)(2 × 10-9) / 12, = 18 N/C The total electric field is then 36 N/C to the right.

Which of the following has a vesicle fuse with the plasma membrane in order to release material from the cell? A. Phagocytosis B. Clathrin-coated pits Your Answer C. Pinocytosis D. Exocytosis Correct Answer

D. (I Choose B.) Exocytosis is the process by which the cell uses vesicles to move material out of the cell (choice D is correct). Clathrin-coated pits are involved in receptor-mediated endocytosis (choice B is wrong).

A student stands 6 m from a speaker emitting a spherical sound wave. The intensity of the sound at the student's position is 2 × 10-10 W/m2. If the student then steps backward an additional 6 m from the speaker, what is the intensity at the new position? A. 4 × 10-10 W/m2 B. 2 × 10-10 W/m2 C. 1 × 10-10 W/m2 D. 5 × 10-11 W/m2

D. (I Choose B.) For a spherical wave, intensity (I) is inversely proportional to the square of the distance (r) from the source to the detector. The student is increasing her distance to the source which would therefore decrease the intensity. This eliminates choices A and B. Specifically, r doubles. So since I is proportional to 1 / r2, doubling r would cause the intensity to decrease by a factor of 4. (1/4)(2 × 10-10 W/m2) = 5 × 10-11 W/m2.

A ray of light traveling through Medium #1 (n1 = 1) strikes the boundary with Medium #2 (n2 = 1.1). If the angle that the reflected ray makes with the boundary is 30°, then what is the angle of incidence? A. 27° B. 30° C. 52° D. 60°

D. (I Choose B.) Keyword is Reflected Ray.. The Reflected Ray is 30 deg with the boundary which makes it 60 deg with the normal.. thus the reflected will be 60 deg.

A person stands at an equal distance between two speakers which produce identical sound waves. If the person moves so that she is 1.5 m closer to one speaker than the other, she is in a "quiet zone" (i.e. the waves experience destructive interference). The wavelength of the sound waves could be all of the following EXCEPT: A. 0.6 m B. 1 m C. 3 m D. 6 m

D. (I Choose B.) Since the waves are experiencing destructive interference, 1.5 = (m + 1/2)λ. So 1.5 could equal λ / 2 or 3λ / 2 or 5λ / 2, etc. Solving for λ, we get that λ = 2(1.5) = 3 or (2/3)(1.5) = 1 or (2/5)(1.5) = 0.6, etc. (all answers in meters). Choice D is the only answer not possible.

Point charge A exerts a force F on point charge B. If the charge on charge B is doubled and the distance between the charges is halved, what is the resulting force exerted by charge A on charge B? A. F B. 2 F C. 4 F D. 8 F

D. (I Choose C.) 2/.5^2 = 8

A diving bird is chasing a fish. If it dives in the ocean from a depth of 10 m to a depth of 30 m, what happens to the total pressure on the bird? A. It decreases by a factor of 3 B. It stays the same C. It increases by a factor of 3 D. It increases, but the exact amount cannot be determined from the information given

D. (I Choose C.) Since the depth triples, the gauge pressure will triple. However, the question is asking about total pressure, which includes the constant atmospheric pressure.

One light source emits bright red light while another source emits dim blue light. According to the photon theory of light: A. each red photon must have more energy than each blue photon. B. the red photons must be traveling slower than the blue photons. C. the red photons must be experiencing less diffraction than the blue photons. D. there must be more red photons being emitted per second than blue photons.

D. (I Choose C.) There is nothing in the question relating to diffraction, so we can eliminate choice C. (Note that even if diffraction were taken into account, red light diffracts more than blue light when passing through a small opening). The answer is D. Brightness corresponds to intensity, which is total energy per time per area. For red light to have higher intensity than blue light, there must be more red photons being emitted per second.

When a sound wave passes from air to water: A. its frequency increases and its wavelength decreases. B. its frequency stays the same and its wavelength decreases. C. its frequency decreases and its wavelength increases. D. its frequency stays the same and its wavelength increases.

D. (I Choose C.) When any wave passes into a new medium, its frequency remains the same. This eliminates choices A and C. Sound travels faster in water than air since it is a more incompressible medium. The relationship between speed (v), frequency (f) and wavelength (λ) for all waves is given by v = fλ. If v increases and f stays the same, then λ must also increase.

A biologist designs a fluorescent form of DNA helicase which emits visible light at the edge of spreading replication forks. She then images an unknown cell and observes several dozen fluorescent puncta. Which of the following best characterizes the cell and why? (Prokaryotic/Eukaryotic): multiple locations of active replication are visible on a (single/multiple) chromosome.

Eukaryotic, Multiple . The researcher observes several dozen fluorescent puncta which would indicate several dozen replication forks. Prokaryotic cells only possess a single origin of replication and would only display two replication forks and therefore two puncta Eukaryotes possess multiple chromosomes with multiple origins of replication on each chromosome; many more replication forks would be observed during replication

T or F: All real images are upright and all virtual images are inverted.

FALSE All real images are inverted and all virtual images are upright.

T or F: The longer the wavelength of light, the slower it travels through glass.

False Longer Wavelength = Faster velocity Remember v = fλ and frequency is constant through different mediums. Therefore v increases,

Compared to visible light, x-rays: Have a (Higher/Lower) Frequency.

Higher Frequency

Two sound waves are generated in air. Which of the following is true? I They have the same speed II They have the same frequency III The faster wave has a larger wavelength

I

When an electron collides with a positron (a particle with identical mass and a positive charge), the two particles are converted completely into energy; this is called an annihilation reaction. Positron Emission Tomography (PET) is an imaging technique that introduces positrons into a patient's body and detects the location of annihilation reactions. Which of the following is true immediately before the annihilation reaction? I. There is no electric field at the point halfway between the positron and the electron. II. The system is an electric dipole. III. The particles move toward each other at a constant acceleration.

II Item II is correct because an electric dipole always exists between two identical charges of opposite magnitude. Item I is incorrect because there is always an electric field at every point in an electric dipole; though the potential may be equal to zero at certain points, the field can always be calculated. Item III is incorrect because the electrostatic force (and, consequently, the acceleration) increases as the distance between the particles decreases. Therefore, choice (B) is the correct answer.

High levels of ATP would: (stimulate/inhibit) phosphofructokinase and (stimulate/inhibit) pyruvate kinase, thus (stimulating/inhibiting) glycolysis.

Inhibit, Inhibit, Inhibiting Phosphofructokinase produces fructose-1,6-bisphosphate, driving the cell toward glycolysis; high ATP levels would inhibit this enzyme to inhibit glycolysis. Pyruvate kinase catalyzes the final step in glycolysis, the conversion of phosphoenolpyruvate to pyruvate. This enzyme must be inhibited by ATP to inhibit glycolysis

What is the Eustachian Tube?

It is the tube in the ear that functions to equalize pressure b/w middle ear and atmosphere, removal cellular/bacterial waste, and drain fluid from the middle ear.

Name the order of the gastrointestinal tract (some used, some not): Using Jejunum, Duodenum, Anus, LArge Intestine, Mouth, Stomach, Ileum, Esophagus, Windpipe, and Trachea

Mouth, Esophagus, Stomach, Duodenum, Jejunum, Ileum, Large Intestine, and Anus Not Windpipe or Trachea used

Metal Oxides vs Non-Metal Oxides. Which is Acidic and which is Basic?

Non-Metal Oxides = Acidic Metal Oxides = Basic

What would have Norephinephrine in its Axon Terminal? (Preganglionic/Postganglionic) Neurons in the (Sympathetic/Parasympathetic) Nervous System.

Postganglionic Neurons, Sympathetic Used to elicit sympathetic responses from target tissues The Parasympathetic Nervous System uses only Acetylcholine

Which travels through glass slower, Blue or Red Light?

ROYGBIV Red = Longer Wavelength, Therefore Faster Velocity Therefore Answer is Blue

The main difference between schizotypal and schizoid personality disorders is that:

Schizotypal personality disorder is characterized by acute discomfort in interpersonal relationships, to the point that people with this disorder rarely have friends outside of immediate family members, and odd eccentric behavior. People diagnosed with schizoid personality disorder are detached from social relationships, though they do not appear to mind their isolation, and exhibit only a limited amount of emotions

What type of hormone is Estrogen? Is Estrogen Nonpolar or Polar Hormones? Where is its receptors located?

Steroid, Nonpolar, Cytoplasmic Receptors

What is the Principle of Superposition?

The principle of superposition states that the net electric force on a charge due to a collection of other charges is equal to the sum of the individual forces that each charge alone exerts. Force is a vector, so the sum must consider the direction of each vector.

A mass oscillating on a spring travels 5 cm from its equilibrium position to its maximum displacement in 0.2 seconds. What is the frequency of oscillation? A. 1.25 Hz B. 2.5 Hz C. 5 Hz D. 25 Hz

Traveling from equilibrium to the maximum displacement represents one-quarter of a cycle (a full cycle would occur when the mass travels from equilibrium to the maximum displacement, back to equilibrium, then to the minimum displacement, then back to equilibrium again). Therefore, T = 4(0.2 s) = 0.8 s. The frequency, f, is given by f = 1 / T = 1 / (0.8 s) = 1.25 Hz.

T or F: For mirrors, virtual images appear on the side opposite the object, whereas for lenses, they appear on the same side as the object.

True

T or F: When light enters a medium with a larger index of refraction (e.g. glass), it will bend toward the normal.

True

T or F: The slower a ray of light travels (#Different Colors), the higher its index of refraction, and thus the more it will bend going into and out of glass

True

T or F: The amplitude in the faster medium is less than or equal to the amplitude in the slower medium.

True When any wave hits the boundary between two media, some of the wave will reflect back into the original medium. The wave that is transmitted into the faster medium will have less energy, and therefore a smaller amplitude, than the original wave.

What is Backcross in terms of Mendelian Genetics?

When an individual is crossed to a previous generation.

Do host cells have RNA-Dependent RNA Polymerase?

host cells don't usually make RNAs from RNAs, so don't have an RNA-Dependent RNA Polymerase. So this means PURIFIED NEGATIVE SENSE RNA is NOT infectious when introduced into cells. HENCE ALL NEGATIVE SENSE RNA viruses MUST CARRY THEIR OWN RDRP in their VIRIONs so they can bring it into host cell during natural infection

Which of the following are enzymes directly activated by G-protein linked receptors? i Adenylate cyclase ii Phospholipase C iii Tyrosine kinase

i and ii Item I is true: adenylate cyclase can be directly activated by stimulatory (Gs) G-protein linked receptors (choice C can be eliminated). Item II is true: phospholipase C is another enzyme that can be directly activated by G-proteins (choice A can be eliminated). Item III is false: some tyrosine kinases are cytoplasmic and can be activated as part of the rise in cAMP due to activation of adenylate cyclase by a G-protein.

Which of the following statements describes how social facilitation affects an individual's performance on a task? I. When an individual is skilled at a task, having an audience will improve performance II. When an individual is skilled at a task, having an audience will diminish performance III. When an individual is not skilled at a task, having an audience will diminish performance

i and iii

Which of the following factors determine the initial kinetic energy of a photoelectron ejected from a metal plate? i The frequency of the ejecting photon ii The potential difference between the metal plate and the detector plate. iii The binding energy of the metal

i and iii The kinetic energy of a photoelectron is given by the difference between the energy imparted by the ejecting photon and the work function of the metal from which the electron is ejected: KE = hf - φ. The photon energy depends upon its frequency, so I is true (which was known already), and the work function of the metal is a measure of its binding energy, so III is true Though the potential difference between the target plate from which photoelectrons are emitted and the detector plate will affect the kinetic energy of the photoelectron after it leaves the plate, it does not influence its initial kinetic energy, so II is false

Which of the following could lead to cancer? i An overexpression of initiator caspases, leading to apoptosis ii A mutation in the tumor suppressor gene p53 that prevents the expression of the p53 protein iii A mutation in the protooncogene Ras that prevents the expression of the Ras protein

ii Item I is false: apoptosis is programmed cell death, triggered when cell damage is critical. Apoptosis is used to destroy potential cancer cells before they become a problem Item II is true: p53 is a tumor suppressor gene, halting cell growth and division when the cell is damaged, or triggering apoptosis if the damage is too severe. Preventing the expression of p53 would prevent these effects and could lead to cancer. Item III is false: protooncogenes are genes that when damaged or mutated, become oncogenes, triggering inappropriate cell division and cancer. If Ras protein expression is prevented, then cancer is less likely

Protein synthesis is primarily regulated at the level of transcription. Which of the following could lead to an increase in protein synthesis in a typical eukaryotic cell? i Substitution of a strong promoter for a weak promoter when more of the protein is required ii Inhibition of repressor binding to a gene regulatory region iii Inhibition of an enhancer in a gene regulatory region

ii Not i: promoters are simply DNA sequences upstream of the transcribed region; they cannot be substituted at will when more of a particular protein is needed