Ecology ch. 53
B
1) Population ecologists are primarily interested in A) studying interactions among populations of organisms that inhabit the same area. B) understanding how biotic and abiotic factors influence the density, distribution, size, and age structure of populations. C) how humans affect the size of wild populations of organisms. D) how populations evolve as natural selection acts on heritable variations among individuals and changes in gene frequency. E) the overall vitality of a population of organisms. Answer: B
d
1) Which of the following statements is consistent with the principle of competitive exclusion? A) Bird species generally do not compete for nesting sites. B) The random distribution of one competing species will have a positive impact on the population growth of the other competing species. C) Two species with the same fundamental niche will exclude other competing species. D) Even a slight reproductive advantage will eventually lead to the elimination of the less well adapted of two competing species. E) Natural selection tends to increase competition between related species.
b
10) Dwarf mistletoes are flowering plants that grow on certain forest trees. They obtain nutrients and water from the vascular tissues of the trees. The trees derive no known benefits from the dwarf mistletoes. Which of the following best describes the interactions between dwarf mistletoes and trees? A) mutualism B) parasitism C) commensalism D) facilitation E) competition
c
10) Long-term studies of Belding's ground squirrels show that immigrants move nearly 2 km from where they are born and become 1%-8% of the males and 0.7%-6% of the females in other populations. On an evolutionary scale, why is this significant? A) These immigrants make up for the deaths of individuals, keeping the other populations' size stable. B) Young reproductive males tend to stay in their home population and are not driven out by other territorial males. C) These immigrants provide a source of genetic diversity for the other populations. D) Those individuals that emigrate to these new populations are looking for less crowded conditions with more resources. E) Gradually, the populations of ground squirrels will move from a clumped to a uniform population pattern of dispersion.
a
11) Evidence shows that some grasses benefit from being grazed. Which of the following terms would best describe this plant-herbivore interaction? A) mutualism B) commensalism C) parasitism D) competition E) predation
a
11) Which of the following sets of measurements is the most useful when studying populations? A) density, dispersion, and demographics of a population B) gene frequency over time and the ratio of reproductive to nonreproductive individuals C) annual precipitation averages and mean annual temperatures D) minimum and maximum amounts of precipitation and annual temperature extremes E) ratio of predators and the number of immigrants and emigrants
b
12) Which of the following scenarios would provide the most legitimate data on population density? A) Count the number of nests of a particular species of songbird and multiply this by a factor that extrapolates these data to actual animals. B) Count the number of pine trees in several randomly selected 10 m x 10 m plots and extrapolate this number to the fraction of the study area these plots represent. C) Use the mark-and-recapture method to estimate the size of the population. D) Calculate the difference between all of the immigrants and emigrants to see if the population is growing or shrinking. E) Add the number of births and subtract the individuals that die to see if the population's density is increasing or decreasing.
e
12) Which of the following would be most significant in understanding the structure of an ecological community? A) determining how many species are present overall B) determining which particular species are present C) determining the kinds of interactions that occur among organisms of different species D) determining the relative abundance of species E) determining how many species are present overall, which particular species are present, the kinds of interactions that occur among organisms of different species, and the relative abundance of species
c
13) Which of the following is the best example of uniform distribution? A) bees collecting pollen in a wildflower meadow B) snails in an intertidal zone at low tide C) territorial songbirds in a mature forest during mating season D) mushrooms growing on the floor of an old growth forest E) a cultivated cornfield in the Midwest
e
13) Which of the following studies would a community ecologist undertake to learn about competitive interactions? A) selectivity of nest sites among cavity-nesting songbirds B) the grass species preferred by grazing pronghorn antelope and bison C) nitrate and phosphate uptake by various hardwood forest tree species D) stomach analysis of brown trout and brook trout in streams where they coexist E) selectivity of nest sites among cavity-nesting songbirds, the grass species preferred by grazing pronghorn antelope and bison, nitrate and phosphate uptake by various hardwood forest tree species, and stomach analysis of brown trout and brook trout in streams where they coexist
e
14) Which of the following choices would most likely promote random distribution? A) territorial species B) species that secrete chemicals to attract or inhibit other individuals C) flocking and schooling behaviors D) spacing during the breeding season E) homogeneous chemical and physical factors in the environment
b
14) White-breasted nuthatches and Downy woodpeckers both eat insects that hide in the furrows of bark in hardwood trees. The Downy woodpecker searches for insects by hunting from the bottom of the tree trunk to the top, whereas the white-breasted nuthatch searches from the top of the trunk down. These hunting behaviors best illustrate which of the following ecological concepts? A) competitive exclusion B) resource partitioning C) character displacement D) keystone species E) bottom-up and top-down hypotheses
c
15) Monarch butterflies are protected from birds and other predators because of cardiac glycosides they incorporate into their tissues from eating milkweed when they were in their caterpillar stage. The wings of a different species of butterfly, the Viceroy, look nearly identical to the Monarch so predators that have learned not to eat the bad-tasting Monarch avoid Viceroys as well. This example best describes A) aposmatic coloration. B) cryptic coloration. C) Batesian mimicry. D) Müllerian mimicry. E) mutualism.
d
15) Which of the following best defines a cohort? A) a group of individuals that inhabits a small isolated region within the range for the species B) all of the individuals that are annually added to a population by birth and immigration C) the reproductive males and females within the population D) a group of the individuals from the same age group, from birth until they are all dead E) the number of individuals that annually die or emigrate out of a population
e
16) Prairie dogs once covered the expanses of the Great Plains. Their grazing made the grass more nutritious for the huge herds of bison, and they were preyed upon by a variety of snakes, raptors, and mammals. In fact, the black-footed ferret (now endangered) specialized in prairie dog predation. Today, increases in housing and agricultural developments have eradicated many prairie dog towns. Which of the following statements about prairie dogs is true? A) Their realized niche has expanded. B) They have a competitive relationship with bison. C) They are probably a poor candidate for keystone species. D) Their fundamental niche has been compromised. E) Their fundamental niche has expanded.
c
16) Why do some invertebrates, such as lobsters, show a "stair-step" survivorship curve? A) Many invertebrates mate and produce offspring on multiyear cycles. B) Within a species of invertebrates, younger individuals have a higher survivorship than older individuals. C) Many invertebrates molt in order to grow, and they are vulnerable to predation during their "soft shell" stage. D) Many invertebrate species have population cycles that go up and down according to the frequency of sunspots. E) The number of fertilized eggs that mature to become females in many species of invertebrates is based on ambient temperature.
e
17) Which of the following is the most important assumption for the capture-recapture method to estimate the size of wildlife populations? A) All females in the population have the same litter size. B) More individuals emigrate from, as opposed to immigrate into, a population. C) Over 50% of the marked individuals need to be trapped during the recapture phase. D) There is a 50:50 ratio of males to females in the population before and after trapping and recapture. E) Marked individuals have the same probability of being recaptured as unmarked individuals during the recapture phase.
c
17) Which statement best describes the evolutionary significance of mutualism? A) Mutualism offers more biodiversity to a community. B) Individuals partaking in a mutualistic relationship are more resistant to parasites. C) Interaction increases the survival and reproductive rates of mutualistic species. D) Mutualistic interaction lessens competition in communities where it is present. E) Mutualistic relationships allow organisms to synthesize and use energy more efficiently.
b
18) A population of ground squirrels has an annual per capita birth rate of 0.06 and an annual per capita death rate of 0.02. Calculate an estimate of the number of individuals added to (or lost from) a population of 1,000 individuals in one year. A) 120 individuals added B) 40 individuals added C) 20 individuals added D) 400 individuals added E) 20 individuals lost
e
18) How might an ecologist test whether a species is occupying its realized or its fundamental niche? A) Study the temperature range and humidity requirements of the species. B) Observe if the niche size changes after the addition of nutritional resources to the habitat. C) Observe if the niche size changes after the introduction of a similar non-native species. D) Measure the change in reproductive success when the species is subjected to environmental stress. E) Remove a competitor species to see if the species expands its range.
b
19) Exponential growth of a population is represented by dN/dt = A) B) rN C) rN (K + N) D) rN E) rN
d
19) What percent of all species on Earth are parasites? A) 1% B) 5% C) 25% D) 33 1/3% E) 50%
C
2) A population is correctly defined as having which of the following characteristics? I. inhabiting the same general area II. belonging to the same species III. possessing a constant and uniform density and dispersion A) I only B) III only C) I and II only D) II and III only E) I, II, and III
b
2) According to the competitive exclusion principle, two species cannot continue to occupy the same A) habitat. B) niche. C) territory. D) range. E) biome.
c
20) Starting from a single individual, what is the size of a population of bacteria that reproduce by binary fission every 20 minutes at the end of a 2-hour time period? (Assume unlimited resources and no mortality.) A) 6 B) 18 C) 64 D) 512 E) 1,024
d
20) Which of the following terms is used by ecologists to describe the community interaction where one organism makes the environment more suitable for another organism? A) parasitism B) mutualism C) inhibition D) facilitation E) commensalism
c
21) How did Eugene Odum describe an ecological niche? A) the "address" of an organism B) an entity that is synonymous with an organism's specific trophic level C) an organism's "profession" in the community D) the organism's role in recycling nutrients in its habitat E) the interactions of the organism with other members of the community
a
21) Which of the following is the equation for zero population growth (ZPG)? A) R = b - m B) dN/dt = rN C) dN/dt =rmax N (K -N)/K D) dN/dt =rmax N E) dN/dt = 1.0N
d
22) Approximately how many kg of carnivore biomass can be supported by a field plot containing 1,000 kg of plant material? A) 10,000 B) 1,000 C) 100 D) 10 E) 1
d
22) In July 2008, the United States had a population of approximately 302,000,000 people. How many Americans were there in July 2009, if the estimated 2008 growth rate was 0.88%? A) 2,700,000 B) 5,500,000 C) 303,000,000 D) 304,000,000 E) 2,710,800,000
c
23) In 2008, the population of New Zealand was approximately 4,275,000 people. If the birth rate was 14 births for every 1,000 people, approximately how many births occurred in New Zealand in 2008? A) 6,000 B) 42,275 C) 60,000 D) 140,000 E) 600,000
b
23) The energetic hypothesis and dynamic stability hypothesis are ideas that attempt to explain A) plant defenses against herbivores. B) the length of food chains. C) the evolution of mutualism. D) resource partitioning. E) competitive exclusion.
c
24) Consider two forests: one is an undisturbed old-growth forest, while the other has recently been logged. In which forest are species likely to experience exponential growth, and why? A) Old growth, because of stable conditions that would favor exponential growth of all species in the forest. B) Old growth, because each of the species is well established and can produce many offspring. C) Logged, because the disturbed forest affords more resources for increased specific populations to grow. D) Logged, because the various populations are stimulated to a higher reproductive potential. E) Exponential growth is equally probable in old-growth and logged forests.
b
24) In a tide pool, 15 species of invertebrates were reduced to eight after one species was removed. The species removed was likely a(n) A) pathogen. B) keystone species. C) herbivore. D) resource partitioner. E) mutualistic organism.
a
25) Elephants are not the most dominant species in African grasslands, yet they influence community structure. The grasslands contain scattered woody plants, but they are kept in check by the uprooting activities of the elephants. Take away the elephants, and the grasslands convert to forests or to shrublands. The newly growing forests support fewer species than the previous grasslands. Which of the following describes why elephants are the keystone species in this scenario? A) Essentially all of the other species depend on the presence of the elephants to maintain the community. B) Grazing animals depend upon the elephants to convert forests to grassland. C) Elephants prevent drought in African grasslands. D) Elephants are the biggest herbivore in this community. E) Elephants help other populations survive by keeping out many of the large African predators.
d
25) Logistic growth of a population is represented by dN/dt = A) B) rN C) rN (K + N) D) rN E) rN
a
26) According to bottom-up and top-down control models of community organization, which of the following expressions would imply that an increase in the size of a carnivore (C) population would negatively impact on its prey (P) population, but not vice versa? A) P ← C B) P → C C) C ↔ P D) P ← C → P E) C ← P →
b
26) As N approaches K for a certain population, which of the following is predicted by the logistic equation? A) The growth rate will not change. B) The growth rate will approach zero. C) The population will show an Allee effect. D) The population will increase exponentially. E) The carrying capacity of the environment will increase.
a
27) In models of logistic population growth, A) the population growth rate slows dramatically as N approaches K. B) new individuals are added to the population most rapidly at the beginning of the population's growth. C) new individuals are added to the population as N approaches K. D) only density-dependent factors affect the rate of population growth. E) carrying capacity is never reached.
b
27) Which of the following is the most accepted hypothesis as to why invasive species take over communities into which they have been introduced? A) Invasive species are more aggressive than native species in competing for the limited resources of the environment. B) Invasive species are not held in check by the predators and agents of disease that have always been in place for the native species. C) Humans carefully select which species will outcompete nuisance native species. D) Invasive species have a higher reproductive potential than native species. E) Invasive species come from geographically isolated regions, so when they are introduced to regions where there is more competition, they thrive.
a
28) Biomanipulation can best be described as A) removing many of the next higher trophic level organisms so that the struggling trophic level below can recover. B) a means of reversing the effects of pollution by applying antidote chemicals that have a neutralizing effect on the community. C) an example of how one would use the bottom-up model for community restoration. D) adjusting the numbers of each of the trophic levels back to the numbers that they were before human disturbance. E) monitoring and adjusting the nutrient and energy flow through a community with new technologies.
a
28) The Allee effect is used to describe a population that A) has become so small that it will have difficulty surviving and reproducing. B) has become so large that it will have difficulty surviving and reproducing. C) is viable and stable at its carrying capacity. D) has exceeded its carrying capacity. E) is in crash decline.
b
29) Carrying capacity is A) seldom reached by marine producers and consumers because of the vast resources of the ocean. B) the maximum population size that a particular environment can support. C) fixed for most species over most of their range most of the time. D) determined by density and dispersion data. E) the term used to describe the stress a population undergoes due to limited resources.
a
29) Imagine five forest communities, each with 100 individuals distributed among four different tree species (W, X, Y, and Z). Which forest community would be most diverse? A) 25W, 25X, 25Y, 25Z B) 40W, 30X, 20Y, 10Z C) 50W, 25X, 15Y, 10Z D) 70W, 10X, 10Y, 10Z E) 100W, 0X, 0Y, 0Z
A
3) An ecologist recorded 12 white-tailed deer, Odocoileus virginianus, per square mile in one woodlot and 20 per square mile in another woodlot. What was the ecologist comparing? A) density B) dispersion C) carrying capacity D) cohorts E) range
b
3) Which of the following best describes resource partitioning? A) competitive exclusion that results in the success of the superior species B) slight variations in niche that allow similar species to coexist C) two species that can coevolve to share identical niches D) differential resource utilization that results in a decrease in community species diversity E) a climax community that is reached when no new niches are available
d
30) Which of the following causes populations to shift most quickly from an exponential to a logistic population growth? A) increased birth rate B) removal of predators C) decreased death rate D) competition for resources E) favorable climatic conditions
c
30) Why are food chains relatively short? A) Top-level feeders tend to be more numerous than lower-trophic-level species. B) Top-level feeders tend to be small but are capable of conserving more energy. C) Longer chains are less stable and energy transfer between levels is inefficient. D) There are only so many organisms that are adapted to feed on other types of organisms. E) Food chain length is ultimately determined by the photosynthetic efficiency of producers.
c
31) Which of the following statements about the evolution of life histories is correct? A) Stable environments with limited resources favor r-selected populations. B) K-selected populations are most often found in environments where density-independent factors are important regulators of population size. C) Most populations have both r- and K-selected characteristics that vary under different environmental conditions. D) The reproductive efforts of r-selected populations are directed at producing just a few offspring with good competitive abilities. E) K-selected populations rarely approach carrying capacity.
a
31) Which term do ecologists use to describe the ability of a community either to resist change or to recover to its original state after change? A) stability B) succession C) partitioning D) productivity E) competitive exclusion
e
32) According to the nonequilibrium model, A) communities will remain in a climax state if there are no human disturbances. B) community structure remains stable in the absence of interspecific competition. C) communities are assemblages of closely linked species that are irreparably changed by disturbance. D) interspecific interactions induce changes in community composition over time. E) communities are constantly changing after being influenced by disturbances.
e
32) Natural selection involves energetic trade-offs between A) choosing how many offspring to produce over the course of a lifetime and how long to live. B) producing large numbers of gametes when employing internal fertilization versus fewer numbers of gametes when employing external fertilization. C) the emigration of individuals when they are no longer reproductively capable or committing suicide. D) increasing the number of individuals produced during each reproductive episode with a corresponding decrease in parental care. E) high survival rates of offspring and the cost of parental care.
d
33) In a particular case of secondary succession, three species of wild grass all invaded a field. By the second season, a single species dominated the field. A possible factor in this secondary succession was A) equilibrium. B) facilitation. C) immigration. D) inhibition. E) parasitism.
c
33) The three basic variables that make up the life history of an organism are A) life expectancy, birth rate, and death rate. B) number of reproductive females in the population, age structure of the population, and life expectancy. C) age when reproduction begins, how often reproduction occurs, and how many offspring are produced per reproductive episode. D) how often reproduction occurs, life expectancy of females in the population, and number of offspring per reproductive episode. E) the number of reproductive females in the population, how often reproduction occurs, and death rate.
c
34) The 1988 Yellowstone National Park lodgepole pine forest fires were likely the result of A) overgrazing by elk. B) infrequent rain episodes. C) years of fire suppression by humans. D) unextinguished campfires. E) geysers.
b
34) Which of the following pairs of reproductive strategies is consistent with energetic trade-off and reproductive success? A) Pioneer species of plants produce many very small, highly airborne seeds, whereas large elephants that are very good parents produce many offspring. B) Female rabbits that suffer high predation rates may produce several litters per breeding season, and coconuts produce few fruits, but most survive when they encounter proper growing conditions. C) Species that have to broadcast to distant habitats tend to produce seeds with heavy protective seed coats, and animals that are caring parents produce fewer offspring with lower infant mortality. D) Free-living insects lay thousands of eggs and provide no parental care, whereas flowers take good care of their seeds until they are ready to germinate. E) Some mammals will not reproduce when environmental resources are low so they can survive until conditions get better, and plants that produce many small seeds are likely found in stable environments.
e
35) Pacific salmon and annual plants are excellent examples of A) cohort disintegration. B) dispersion. C) Allee effect. D) iteroparous reproduction. E) semelparous reproduction.
a
35) Why do moderate levels of disturbance result in an increase in community diversity? A) Habitats are opened up for less competitive species. B) Competitively dominant species infrequently exclude less competitive species after a moderate disturbance. C) The environmental conditions become optimal. D) The resulting uniform habitat supports stability, which in turn supports diversity. E) Less-competitive species evolve strategies to compete with dominant species.
b
36) Species richness increases A) as we increase in altitude in equatorial mountains. B) as we travel southward from the North Pole. C) on islands as distance from the mainland increases. D) as depth increases in aquatic communities. E) as community size decreases.
a
36) Which of the following is characteristic of K-selected populations? A) offspring with good chances of survival B) many offspring per reproductive episode C) small offspring D) a high intrinsic rate of increase E) early parental reproduction
b
37) There are more species in tropical areas than in places more distant from the equator. This is probably a result of A) fewer predators. B) more intense annual solar radiation. C) more frequent ecological disturbances. D) fewer agents of disease. E) fewer predators, more intense annual solar radiation, more frequent ecological disturbances, and fewer agents of disease.
a
37) Which variables define the ecological life history of a species? A) the age at which reproduction begins, frequency of reproduction, and the number of offspring for each reproductive episode B) the ratio of females to males, the length of the breeding season, and the number of offspring for each reproductive episode C) the number of offspring produced over a lifetime by a breeding pair and the survivability of the offspring D) timing breeding sessions with optimal environmental conditions and the number of offspring produced during each breeding session E) the amount of parental care given after birth, the number of reproductive episodes per year, and the number of years females are capable of producing viable offspring
a
38) A community's actual evapotranspiration is a reflection of A) solar radiation, temperature, and water availability. B) the number of plants and how much moisture they lose. C) the depth of the water table. D) wind speed and the frequency of wind gusts. E) plant biomass and plant water content.
b
38) Which pattern of reproduction is correctly paired with a species? A) iteroparityPacific salmon B) iteroparityelephant C) semelparityoak tree D) semelparityrabbit E) semelparity-polar bear
d
39) Often the growth cycle of one population has an effect on the cycle of another. As moose populations increase, for example, wolf populations also increase. Thus, if we are considering the logistic equation for the wolf population, dN/dt = rN , which of the factors accounts for the effect on the moose population? A) r B) N C) rN D) K E) dt
d
39) Why do tropical communities tend to have greater species diversity than temperate or polar communities? A) They are less likely to be affected by human disturbance. B) There are fewer parasites to negatively affect the health of tropical communities. C) Tropical communities are low in altitude, whereas temperate and polar communities are high in altitude. D) Tropical communities are generally older than temperate and polar communities. E) More competitive dominant species have evolved in temperate and polar communities.
e
4) As you study two closely related predatory insect species, the two-spot and the three-spot avenger beetles, you notice that each species seeks prey at dawn in areas without the other species. However, where their ranges overlap, the two-spot avenger beetle hunts at night and the three-spot hunts in the morning. When you bring them into the laboratory and isolate the two different species, you discover that the offspring of both species are found to be nocturnal. You have discovered an example of A) mutualism. B) character displacement. C) Batesian mimicry. D) facultative commensalism. E) resource partitioning.
D
4) During the spring, you are studying the mice that live in a field near your home. The population density is high, but you realize that you rarely observe any reproductive female mice. This most likely indicates A) that there is selective predation on female mice. B) that female mice die before reproducing. C) that this habitat is a good place for mice to reproduce. D) that you are observing immigrant mice. E) that the breeding season is over.
c
40) In which of the following situations would you expect to find the largest number of K-selected individuals? A) a recently abandoned agricultural field in Ohio B) the sand dune communities of south Lake Michigan C) the flora and fauna of a coral reef in the Caribbean D) South Florida after a hurricane E) a newly emergent volcanic island
d
40) Which of the following is a correct statement about the McArthur/Wilson Island Equilibrium Model? A) The more species that inhabit an island, the lower the extinction rate. B) As the number of species on an island increases, the emigration rate decreases. C) Competitive exclusion is less likely on an island that has large numbers of species. D) Small islands receive few new immigrant species. E) Islands closer to the mainland have higher extinction rates.
c
41) Which of the following best describes the consequences of white-band disease in Caribbean coral reefs? A) Staghorn coral has been decimated by the pathogen, and Elkhorn coral has taken its place. B) Key habitat for lobsters, snappers, and other reef fishes has improved. C) Algal species take the place of the dead coral, and the fish community is dominated by herbivores. D) Algal species take over and the overall reef diversity increases due to increases in primary productivity. E) Other coral species take the place of the affected Staghorn and Elkhorn species.
b
41) Which of the following is most likely to contribute to density-dependent regulation of populations? A) the removal of toxic waste by decomposers B) intraspecific competition for nutrients C) earthquakes D) floods E) fires
a
42) Why do populations grow more slowly as they approach their carrying capacity? A) Density-dependent factors lead to fewer births and increased mortality. B) Density-independent factors lead to fewer births and increased mortality. C) Hormonal changes promote higher death rates in crowded populations. D) Individuals voluntarily stop mating so that overcrowding does not occur. E) The incoming energy decreases in populations experiencing a high rate of increase.
b
42) Zoonotic disease A) is caused by suborganismal pathogens such as viruses, viroids, and prions only. B) is caused by pathogens that are transferred from other animals to humans by direct contact or by means of a vector. C) can only be spread from animals to humans through direct contact. D) can only be transferred from animals to humans by means of an intermediate host. E) is too specific to study at the community level, and studies of zoonotic pathogens are relegated to organismal biology.
b
43) A population of white-footed mice becomes severely overpopulated in a habitat that has been disturbed by human activity. Sometimes intrinsic factors cause the population to increase in mortality and lower reproduction rates to occur in reaction to the stress of overpopulation. Which of the following is an example of intrinsic population control? A) Owl populations frequent the area more often because of increased hunting success. B) Females undergo hormonal changes that delay sexual maturation and many individuals suffer depressed immune systems and die due to the stress of overpopulation. C) Clumped dispersion of the population leads to increased spread of disease and parasites, resulting in a population crash. D) All of the resources (food and shelter) are used up by overpopulation and much of the population dies of exposure and/or starvation. E) Because the individuals are vulnerable they are more likely to die off if a drought or flood were to occur.
d
43) Of the following zoonotic diseases, which is most likely to be studied by a community ecologist? A) mad cow disease B) hantavirus C) AIDS D) avian flu E) trichinosis
a
44) Which of the following studies would shed light on the mechanism of spread of H5N1 from Asia? A) Perform cloacal or saliva smears of migrating waterfowl to monitor whether any infected birds show up in Alaska. B) Test fecal samples for H5N1 in Asian waterfowl that live near domestic poultry farms in Asia. C) Test for the presence of H5N1 in poultry used for human consumption worldwide. D) Locate and destroy birds infected with H5N1 in Asian open-air poultry markets. E) Keep domestic and wild fowl from interacting with each other to minimize the probability that wild fowl could get infected and migrate out of Asia.
c
44) Why is territoriality an adaptive behavior for songbirds maintaining populations at or near their carrying capacity? A) Songbirds expend a tremendous amount of energy defending territories so that they spend less time feeding their young and fledgling mortality increases. B) Only the fittest males defend territories and they attract the fittest females so the best genes are conveyed to the next generation. C) Songbird males defend territories commensurate with the size from which they can derive adequate resources for themselves, their mate, and their chicks. D) Many individuals are killed in the agonistic behaviors that go along with territorial defense. E) Adult songbirds make improvements to the territories they inhabit so that they can produce successfully fledged chicks.
b
45) Which of the following could be a density-independent factor limiting human population growth? A) social pressure for birth control B) earthquakes C) plagues D) famines E) pollution
d
45) Why is a pathogen generally more virulent in a new habitat? A) More pathogens tend to immigrate into newer habitats. B) Intermediate host species are more motile and transport pathogens to new areas. C) Pathogens evolve more efficient forms of reproduction in new environments. D) Hosts in new environments have not had a chance to become resistant to the pathogen through natural selection. E) New environments are almost always smaller in area so that transmission of pathogens is easily accomplished between hosts.
a
46) An ecological footprint is a construct that is useful A) for a person living in a developed nation to consider to make better choices when using global food and energy resources. B) for a person living in a developing country to see how much of the world's resources are left for him/her. C) in converting human foods' meat biomass to plant biomass. D) in making predictions about the global carrying capacity of humans. E) in determining which nations produce the least amount of carbon dioxide from the burning of fossil fuels.
c
46) In terms of community ecology, why are pathogens more virulent now than ever before? A) More new pathogens have recently evolved. B) Host organisms have become more susceptible because of weakened immune systems. C) Human activities are transporting pathogens globally at an unprecedented rate. D) Medicines for treating pathogenic disease are in short supply. E) Sequencing of genes in pathogenic organisms is particularly difficult.
b
47) The oak tree pathogen, Phytophthora ramorum, has migrated 650 km in 10 years. West Nile virus spread from New York State to 46 other states in 5 years. The difference in the rate of spread is probably related to A) the lethality of each pathogen. B) the mobility of their hosts. C) the fact that viruses are very small. D) innate resistance. E) dormancy viability.
e
47) Which of the following was the most significant limiting factor in human population growth in the 20th century? A) famine B) non-HIV disease C) HIV D) genocide E) clean water
c
48) During the course of the formation of a parasite/host relationship, a critical first step in this evolution would be A) changing the behavior of the host or intermediate host. B) developing asexual reproduction. C) deriving nourishment without killing the host. D) starting as an ectoparasite and then later becoming an endoparasite. E) utilizing heterotropic nutrition during infection and autotrophic nutrition during dormancy.
c
48) Which of the following is most key to understanding the demographic transition in human population growth? A) education of global famine B) improved worldwide health care C) voluntary reduction of family size D) improved sanitary conditions in the world's hospitals E) reduction of casualties of war
d
49) Which of the following statements is a valid conclusion of this experiment? A) Balanus can only survive in the lower intertidal zone, because it is unable to resist desiccation. B) Balanus is inferior to Chthamalus in competing for space on intertidal zone rocks. C) The two species of barnacles do not compete with each other because they feed at different times of day. D) When Balanus is removed, it can be observed that the realized niche of Chthamalus is smaller than its fundamental niche. E) These two species of barnacle do not show competitive exclusion. F) If Chthamalus were removed, Balanus's fundamental niche would become larger.
b
49) Why does the 2009 U.S. population continue to grow even though the United States has essentially established a ZPG? A) emigration B) immigration C) better sanitation D) baby boomer reproduction E) the 2007-2009 economic recession
b
5) Resource partitioning would be most likely to occur between A) sympatric populations of a predator and its prey. B) sympatric populations of species with similar ecological niches. C) sympatric populations of a flowering plant and its specialized insect pollinator. D) allopatric populations of the same animal species. E) allopatric populations of species with similar ecological niches.
D
5) Uniform spacing patterns in plants such as the creosote bush are most often associated with A) chance. B) patterns of high humidity. C) the random distribution of seeds. D) competitive interaction between individuals of the same population. E) the concentration of nutrients within the population's range.
e
50) Connell conducted this experiment to learn more about A) character displacement in the color of barnacles. B) habitat preference in two different species of barnacles. C) desiccation resistance and barnacle species. D) how sea-level changes affect barnacle distribution. E) competitive exclusion and distribution of barnacle species.
c
50) Which statement is true with regard to human population growth? A) It is at a zero reproduction rate. B) Its rate of increase continues to grow at an exponential rate. C) Its rate of growth is slowing. D) Its rate of growth is increasing. E) There is no scientific prediction that can be made about human population growth.
e
51) According to the Shannon Diversity Index, which block would show the greatest diversity? A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 E) 5
e
51) Which curve best describes survivorship in marine molluscs? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E
a
52) Which curve best describes survivorship in elephants? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E
e
52) Which letter represents an organism that could be a carnivore? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E
d
53) Which curve best describes survivorship in a marine crustacean that molts? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E
b
53) Which letter represents an organism that could be a producer? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E
a
54) Which curve best describes survivorship in humans who live in undeveloped nations? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E
c
54) Which letter represents an organism that could be a primary consumer? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E
a
55) Which island would likely have the greatest species diversity? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E
e
55) Which statement best explains survivorship curve B? A) It is likely a species that provides little postnatal care, but lots of care for offspring during midlife as indicated by increased survivorship. B) This curve is likely of a species that produces lots of offspring, only a few of which are expected to survive. C) It is likely a species where no individuals in the cohort die when they are at 60—70% relative age. D) There was a mass emigration of young to middle-aged individuals in this cohort. E) Survivorship can only decrease; therefore, this curve could not happen in nature.
c
56) Which island would likely exhibit the most impoverished species diversity? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E
c
56) Which of the following graphs illustrates the population growth curve of single bacterium growing in a flask of ideal medium at optimum temperature over a 24-hour period? A) B) C) D) E)
a
57) Which island would likely have the lowest extinction rate? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E
e
57) Which of the following graphs illustrates the growth curve of a small population of rodents that has grown to reach a static carrying capacity? A) B) C) D) E)
c
58) In McDonaldland, which of the following would be an example of an introduced species? A) Big Mac B) Quarter Pounder C) BK Whopper D) Filet-O-Fish E) Double Cheeseburger
d
58) Which of the following is a conclusion that can be drawn from this graph? A) Female survivability is more negatively affected by larger brood size than is male survivability. B) Male survivability decreased by 50% between reduced and enlarged brood treatments. C) Both males and females had increases in daily hunting with the enlarged brood size. D) There appears to be a negative correlation between brood enlargements and parental survival. E) Chicks in reduced brood treatment received more food, weight gain, and reduced mortality.
a
59) Which of the following is a likely graphic outcome of a population of deer introduced to an island with an adequate herbivory and without natural predators, parasites, or disease? A) B) C) D) E)
a
59) Which of the following would be considered a keystone species in McDonaldland? A) Big Mac B) Large French Fries C) Premium Caesar Salad with Crispy Chicken D) Filet-O-Fish E) Chicken McNuggets
A
6) Which of the following groups would be most likely to exhibit uniform dispersion? A) red squirrels, who actively defend territories B) cattails, which grow primarily at edges of lakes and streams C) dwarf mistletoes, which parasitize particular species of forest tree D) moths, in a city at night E) lake trout, which seek out cold, deep water high in dissolved oxygen
e
6) Which of the following is an example of cryptic coloration? A) bands on a coral snake B) brown or gray color of tree bark C) markings of a viceroy butterfly's wings D) colors of an insect-pollinated flower's petals E) a "walking stick" insect that resembles a twig
d
60) Which of the following graphs illustrates the growth over several seasons of a population of snowshoe hares that were introduced to an appropriate habitat also inhabited by predators in northern Canada? A) B) C) D) E)
e
60) Which two "species" are likely to compete for the same ecological niche? A) Big Mac and Quarter Pounder B) French Fries and Hash Browns C) Premium Caesar Salad with Crispy Chicken and Premium Crispy Chicken Classic Sandwich D) Filet-O-Fish and Double Cheeseburger E) No two species can ever occupy the same ecological niche.
b
61) According to the McDonaldland scenario, which of the following would best define an ecological community? A) all of the sandwiches sold at McDonaldland B) the entire menu at McDonaldland C) all of the fast-food restaurants in the United States D) the condiments served at McDonaldland E) the breakfast menu at McDonaldland
b
61) Which population(s) is (are) in the process of decreasing? A) I B) II C) III D) I and II E) II and III
c
62) In a two-week marketing analysis, McDonald's was interested in finding out the popularity of the Big Mac. Using the realized/fundamental niche concept of community ecology, what should the marketing researchers do? A) Study the sales of McDonald's restaurants that are in close proximity to other fast-food restaurants. B) Serve only Big Macs at McDonald's and analyze the sales. C) Remove the Quarter Pounder from the menu and see if Big Mac sales increase. D) Serve Big Macs without the special sauce to see if sales go down. E) Serve Big Macs during breakfast hours.
c
62) Which population(s) appear(s) to be stable? A) I B) II C) III D) I and II E) II and III
a
63) Assuming these age-structure diagrams describe human populations, in which population is unemployment likely to be a societal issue in the future? A) I B) II C) III D) No differences in the magnitude of future unemployment would be expected among these populations. E) It is not possible to infer anything about future social conditions from age-structure diagrams.
a
63) What interactions exist between a "carrier crab" and "sea urchin hitch-hiker"? A) +/+ B) +/o C) +/- D) o/o E) -/-
c
64) Assuming these age-structure diagrams describe human populations, which population(s) is (are) likely to experience zero population growth (ZPG)? A) I B) II C) III D) I and II E) II and III
b
64) What interactions exist between the cattle egret and grazing cattle? A) +/+ B) +/o C) +/- D) o/o E) -/-
e
65) What interactions exist between a lion pride and a hyena pack? A) +/+ B) +/o C) +/- D) o/o E) -/-
c
65) What is a logical conclusion that can be drawn from the graphs above? A) Developed countries have lower infant mortality rates and lower life expectancy than developing countries. B) Developed countries have higher infant mortality rates and lower life expectancy than developing countries. C) Developed countries have lower infant mortality rates and higher life expectancy than developing countries. D) Developed countries have higher infant mortality rates and higher life expectancy than developing countries. E) Developed countries have a life expectancy that is about 42 years more than life expectancy in developing countries.
e
66) In terms of demographics, which country is likely to experience the greatest population growth problem over the next ten years? A) Mexico, because there are fewer pre-reproductive individuals in their population B) China, whose population is more than a billion, but whose expected fertility rate is 1.8 children C) Germany, where the growth rate of the population is 0.1% per year D) United States (2009 population ~ 205,000,000, where 200,000 Americans are added to the population each day) E) Afghanistan, with a 3.85 annual growth rate
a
66) What interactions exist between a bee and a flower? A) +/+ B) +/o C) +/- D) o/o E) -/-
d
67) To measure the population of lake trout in a 250-hectare lake, 400 individual trout were netted and marked with a fin clip, then returned to the lake. The next week, the lake was netted again, and out of the 200 lake trout that were caught, 50 had fin clips. Using the capture-recapture estimate, the lake trout population size could be closest to which of the following? A) 160 B) 200 C) 400 D) 1,600 E) 80,000
c
67) What interactions exist between a tick on a dog and the dog? A) +/+ B) +/o C) +/- D) o/o E) -/-
a
68) What interactions exist between cellulose-digesting organisms in the gut of a termite and the termite? A) +/+ B) +/o C) +/- D) o/o E) -/-
a
68) Your friend comes to you with a problem. It seems his shrimp boats aren't catching nearly as much shrimp as they used to. He can't understand why because he used to catch all the shrimp he could handle. Each year he added a new boat, and for a long time each boat caught tons of shrimp. As he added more boats, there came a time when each boat caught somewhat fewer shrimp, and now, each boat is catching a lot less shrimp. Which of the following topics might help your friend understand the source of his problem? A) density-dependent population regulation and intrinsic characteristics of population growth B) exponential growth curves and unlimited environmental resources C) density-independent population regulation and chance occurrence D) pollution effects of a natural environment and learned shrimp behavior E) a K-selected population switching to an r-selected population
d
69) Imagine that you are managing a large game ranch. You know from historical accounts that a species of deer used to live there, but they have been extirpated. You decide to reintroduce them. After doing some research to determine what might be an appropriately sized founding population, you do so. You then watch the population increase for several generations, and graph the number of individuals (vertical axis) against the number of generations (horizontal axis). The graph will likely appear as A) a diagonal line, getting higher with each generation. B) an "S," increasing with each generation. C) an upside-down "U." D) a "J," increasing with each generation. E) an "S" that ends with a vertical line.
a
69) What interactions exist between mycorrhizae and evergreen tree roots? A) +/+ B) +/o C) +/- D) o/o E) -/-
c
7) To construct a reproductive table for a sexual species, one needs to A) assess sperm viability for the males in the population. B) keep track of all of the offspring of a cohort. C) keep track of the females in a cohort. D) keep track of all of the offspring of the females in a cohort. E) analyze the ratio of deaths to births in a cohort.
a
7) Which of the following is an example of Müllerian mimicry? A) two species of unpalatable butterfly that have the same color pattern B) a day-flying hawkmoth that looks like a wasp C) a chameleon that changes its color to look like a dead leaf D) two species of rattlesnakes that both rattle their tails E) two species of moths with wing spots that look like owl's eyes
b
70) Population ecologists follow the fate of same-age cohorts to A) determine a population's carrying capacity. B) determine the birth rate and death rate of each group in a population. C) determine if a population is regulated by density-dependent processes. D) determine the factors that regulate the size of a population. E) determine if a population's growth is cyclic.
e
70) The feeding relationships among the species in a community determine the community's A) secondary succession. B) ecological niche. C) species richness. D) species-area curve. E) trophic structure.
a
71) A population's carrying capacity A) may change as environmental conditions change. B) can be accurately calculated using the logistic growth model. C) generally remains constant over time. D) increases as the per capita growth rate (r) decreases. E) can never be exceeded.
d
71) The principle of competitive exclusion states that A) two species cannot coexist in the same habitat. B) competition between two species always causes extinction or emigration of one species. C) competition in a population promotes survival of the best-adapted individuals. D) two species that have exactly the same niche cannot coexist in a community. E) two species will stop reproducing until one species leaves the habitat.
c
72) Based on the intermediate disturbance hypothesis, a community's species diversity is increased by A) frequent massive disturbance. B) stable conditions with no disturbance. C) moderate levels of disturbance. D) human intervention to eliminate disturbance. E) intensive disturbance by humans.
c
72) Scientific study of the population cycles of the snowshoe hare and its predator, the lynx, has revealed that A) the prey population is controlled by predators alone. B) hares and lynx are so mutually dependent that each species cannot survive without the other. C) multiple biotic and abiotic factors contribute to the cycling of the hare and lynx populations. D) both hare and lynx populations are regulated mainly by abiotic factors. E) the hare population is r-selected and the lynx population is K-selected.
d
73) Based on current growth rates, Earth's human population in 2012 will be closest to A) 2 million. B) 3 billion. C) 4 billion. D) 7 billion. E) 10 billion.
e
74) A recent study of ecological footprints concluded that A) Earth's carrying capacity for humans is about 10 billion. B) Earth's carrying capacity would increase if per capita meat consumption increased. C) current demand by industrialized countries for resources is much smaller than the ecological footprint of those countries. D) it is not possible for technological improvements to increase Earth's carrying capacity for humans. E) the ecological footprint of the United States is large because per capita resource use is high.
b
74) Keystone predators can maintain species diversity in a community if they A) competitively exclude other predators. B) prey on the community's dominant species. C) allow immigration of other predators. D) reduce the number of disruptions in the community. E) prey only on the least abundant species in the community.
c
75) Food chains are sometimes short because A) only a single species of herbivore feeds on each plant species. B) local extinction of a species causes extinction of the other species in its food chain. C) most of the energy in a trophic level is lost as it passes to the next higher level. D) predator species tend to be less diverse and less abundant than prey species. E) most producers are inedible.
c
75) The observation that members of a population are uniformly distributed suggests that A) the size of the area occupied by the population is increasing. B) resources are distributed unevenly. C) the members of the population are competing for access to a resource. D) the members of the population are neither attracted to nor repelled by one another. E) the density of the population is low.
c
76) According to the logistic growth equation = rmaxN A) the number of individuals added per unit time is greatest when N is close to zero. B) the per capita growth rate (r) increases as N approaches K. C) population growth is zero when N equals K. D) the population grows exponentially when K is small. E) the birth rate (b) approaches zero as N approaches K.
d
76) Which of the following could qualify as a top-down control on a grassland community? A) limitation of plant biomass by rainfall amount B) influence of temperature on competition among plants C) influence of soil nutrients on the abundance of grasses versus wildflowers D) effect of grazing intensity by bison on plant species diversity E) effect of humidity on plant growth rates
b
77) The most plausible hypothesis to explain why species richness is higher in tropical than in temperate regions is that A) tropical communities are younger. B) tropical regions generally have more available water and higher levels of solar radiation. C) higher temperatures cause more rapid speciation. D) diversity increases as evapotranspiration decreases. E) tropical regions have very high rates of immigration and very low rates of extinction.
d
77) Which pair of terms most accurately describes life history traits for a stable population of wolves? A) semelparous; r-selected B) semelparous; K-selected C) iteroparous; r-selected D) iteroparous; K-selected E) iteroparous; N-selected
b
78) During exponential growth, a population always A) grows by thousands of individuals. B) grows at its maximum per capita rate. C) quickly reaches its carrying capacity. D) cycles through time. E) loses some individuals to emigration.
a
79) Which of the following statements about human population in industrialized countries is incorrect? A) Life history is r-selected. B) Average family size is relatively small. C) The population has undergone the demographic transition. D) The survivorship curve is Type I. E) Age distribution is relatively uniform.
e
8) Which of the following examples would most accurately measure the density of the population being studied? A) counting the number of prairie dog burrows per hectare B) counting the number of times a 1 kilometer transect is intersected by tracks of red squirrels after a snowfall C) counting the number of coyote droppings per hectare D) multiplying the number of moss plants counted in 10 quadrats of 1m2 each by 100 to determine the density per kilometer2. E) counting the number of zebras from airplane census observations.
c
8) Which of the following is an example of Batesian mimicry? A) an insect that resembles a twig B) a butterfly that resembles a leaf C) a nonvenomous snake that looks like a venomous snake D) a fawn with fur coloring that camouflages it in the forest environment E) a snapping turtle that uses its tongue to mimic a worm, thus attracting fish
e
9) Which of the following assumptions have to be made regarding the capture-recapture estimate of population size? I. Marked and unmarked individuals have the same probability of being trapped. II. The marked individuals have thoroughly mixed with the population after being marked. III. No individuals have entered or left the population by immigration or emigration, and no individuals have been added by birth or eliminated by death during the course of the estimate. A) I only B) II only C) I and II only D) II and III only E) I, II, and III
a
9) Which of the following is an example of aposematic coloration? A) stripes of a skunk B) eye color in humans C) green color of a plant D) colors of an insect-pollinated flower E) a katydid whose wings look like a dead leaf
a
According to the equilibrium model of island biogeography, species richness would be greatest on an island that is A) large and close to a mainland. B) large and remote. C) small and remote. D) small and close to a mainland. E) environmentally homogeneous.