Elsevier NCLEX Renal/Musculoskeletal

A client is being discharged to home after application of a plaster leg cast. Which statement indicates that the client understands proper care of the cast? 1. "I need to avoid getting the cast wet." 2. "I need to cover the casted leg with warm blankets." 3. "I need to use my fingertips to lift and move my leg." 4. "I need to use something like a padded coat hanger end to scratch under the cast if it itches."

"I need to avoid getting the cast wet." A plaster cast must remain dry to keep its strength. The cast should be handled with the palms of the hands, not the fingertips, until fully dry; using the fingertips results in indentations in the cast and skin pressure under the cast. Air should circulate freely around the cast to help it dry; the cast also gives off heat as it dries. The client should never scratch under the cast because of the risk of altered skin integrity; the client may use a hair dryer on the cool setting to relieve an itch.

A client has chronic kidney disease (CKD) that does yet not require dialysis. Which client statement indicates the need for further teaching? 1. "I will reduce the sodium in my diet, and I can use salt substitutes to spice my food." 2. "The amount of fluid I can have every day depends on the amount of urine I put out." 3. "I will weigh myself on my bathroom scale every morning right after I have urinated." 4. "I should report a gain in weight, trouble with my breathing, or increased leg swelling."

"I will reduce the sodium in my diet, and I can use salt substitutes to spice my food." CKD is a condition in which the kidneys have progressive problems in their ability to clear nitrogenous waste products and control fluid and electrolyte balance within the body. Conservative treatment of CKD slows progression of the disease and includes reducing the protein, sodium, potassium, and phosphorus in the diet and controlling the blood pressure. It is important to reduce the sodium in the diet. Salt substitutes usually are potassium-based and should not be used by a client with CKD because of the risk of hyperkalemia. The client should alter the fluid intake in relation to urine output. Obtaining a daily weight is an important measurement that indicates fluid volume. The client should also monitor for signs and symptoms of fluid overload, which could include an increase in weight, edema, and fluid collection in the lungs.

The nurse is giving general instructions to a client receiving hemodialysis. Which statement would be most appropriate for the nurse to include? 1. "It is acceptable to eat whatever you want on the day before hemodialysis." 2. "It is acceptable to exceed the fluid restriction on the day before hemodialysis." 3. "Medications should be double-dosed on the morning of hemodialysis because of potential loss." 4. "Several types of medications should be withheld on the day of dialysis until after the procedure."

"Several types of medications should be withheld on the day of dialysis until after the procedure." Many medications are dialyzable, which means that they are extracted from the bloodstream during dialysis. Therefore, many medications may be withheld on the day of dialysis until after the procedure. It is not typical for medications to be double-dosed because there is no way to be certain how much of each medication is cleared by dialysis. Clients receiving hemodialysis are not routinely taught that it is acceptable to disregard dietary and fluid restrictions.

A client diagnosed with chronic kidney disease (CKD) is scheduled to begin hemodialysis. The nurse determines that which neurological and psychosocial manifestations, if exhibited by this client, are related to the CKD? Select all that apply. 1. Agitation 2. Euphoria 3. Depression 4. Withdrawal 5. Labile emotions

1. Agitation 3. Depression 4. Withdrawal 5. Labile emotions The client with CKD often experiences a variety of psychosocial changes. These changes are related to uremia and to the stress associated with living with a chronic disease that is life threatening. Euphoria is not part of the clinical picture for the client in renal failure. Clients with CKD may have labile emotions or personality changes and may exhibit withdrawal, depression, or agitation. Delusions and psychosis also can occur.

The nurse monitoring a client receiving peritoneal dialysis notes that the client's outflow is less than the inflow. Which actions should the nurse take? Select all that apply. 1. Check the level of the drainage bag. 2. Reposition the client to his or her side. 3. Contact the health care provider (HCP). 4. Place the client in good body alignment. 5. Check the peritoneal dialysis system for kinks. 6. Increase the flow rate of the peritoneal dialysis solution.

1. Check the level of the drainage bag. 2. Reposition the client to his or her side. 4. Place the client in good body alignment. 5. Check the peritoneal dialysis system for kinks. If outflow drainage is inadequate, the nurse attempts to stimulate outflow by changing the client's position. Turning the client to the side or making sure that the client is in good body alignment may assist with outflow drainage. The drainage bag needs to be lower than the client's abdomen to enhance gravity drainage. The connecting tubing and peritoneal dialysis system are also checked for kinks or twisting and the clamps on the system are checked to ensure that they are open. There is no reason to contact the HCP. Increasing the flow rate should not be done and also is not associated with the amount of outflow solution.

The nurse has a prescription to obtain a urinalysis specimen from a client with an indwelling urinary catheter. Which actions should the nurse include in performing this procedure? Select all that apply. 1. Explaining the procedure to the client 2. Clamping the tubing of the drainage bag 3. Aspirating a sample from the port on the drainage tubing 4. Obtaining the specimen from the urinary drainage bag 5. Wiping the port with an alcohol swab before inserting the syringe

1. Explaining the procedure to the client 2. Clamping the tubing of the drainage bag 3. Aspirating a sample from the port on the drainage tubing 5. Wiping the port with an alcohol swab before inserting the syringe A urine specimen is not taken from the urinary drainage bag. Urine undergoes chemical changes while sitting in the bag, so its properties do not necessarily reflect current client status. In addition, it may become contaminated with bacteria from opening the system. The remaining options are correct interventions for obtaining the specimen.

The nurse is gathering subjective and objective data from a client with a diagnosis of suspected rheumatoid arthritis (RA). The nurse would expect to note which early signs and symptoms of RA? Select all that apply. 1. Fatigue 2. Weight gain 3. Restlessness 4. Morning stiffness 5. Pain with movement only

1. Fatigue 4. Morning stiffness Early signs and symptoms of RA include fatigue, weight loss, fever, malaise, morning stiffness, pain at rest and with movement, and complaints of night pain. The involved joints appear edematous.

The nurse has taught the client with polycystic kidney disease about management of the disorder and prevention and recognition of complications. The nurse should determine that the client understands the instructions if the client states that which should be reported to the health care provider (HCP)? Select all that apply. 1. Frequent urination 2. Burning on urination 3. A temperature of 100.6°F (38.1°C) 4. New-onset shortness of breath 5. A blood pressure of 105/68 mm Hg

1. Frequent urination 2. Burning on urination 3. A temperature of 100.6°F (38.1°C) 4. New-onset shortness of breath The client with polycystic kidney disease should report any signs and symptoms of urinary tract infection, such as frequent urination, burning on urination, and elevated temperature so that treatment may begin promptly. Lowered blood pressure is not a complication of polycystic kidney disease, and it is an expected effect of antihypertensive therapy. The client would be concerned about increases in blood pressure because control of hypertension is essential. The client may experience heart failure as a result of hypertension, and thus any symptoms of heart failure, such as shortness of breath, are also a concern.

The nurse is conducting an interview of an older client and is concerned about the possibility of benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH). Which are characteristics of this disorder? Select all that apply. 1. Nocturia 2. Incontinence 3. Enlarged prostate 4. Nocturnal emissions 5. Decreased desire for sexual intercourse

1. Nocturia 2. Incontinence 3. Enlarged prostate Nocturia, incontinence, and an enlarged prostate are characteristics of BPH and need to be assessed for in all male clients over 50 years of age. Nocturnal emissions are commonly associated with prepubescent males. Low testosterone levels (not BPH) may be associated with a decreased desire for sexual intercourse.

A client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) is being managed by continuous ambulatory peritoneal dialysis (CAPD). During outflow, the nurse notes that only half of the 2-L dialysate has returned and the flow has stopped. Which interventions should the nurse take to enhance the outflow? Select all that apply. 1. Reposition the client. 2. Encourage a low-fiber diet. 3. Make sure the peritoneal catheter is not kinked. 4. Slide the peritoneal catheter farther into the abdomen. 5. Check that the drainage bag is lower than the client's abdomen. 6. Assess the stool history, and institute elimination measures if the client is constipated.

1. Reposition the client. 3. Make sure the peritoneal catheter is not kinked. 5. Check that the drainage bag is lower than the client's abdomen. 6. Assess the stool history, and institute elimination measures if the client is constipated.

The nurse is providing dietary instructions to a client with osteoporosis and is discussing appropriate food items to include in the diet. Which food items should the nurse recommend as being high in calcium? Select all that apply. 1. Tofu 2. Salmon 3. Peaches 4. Spinach 5. Sardines

1. Tofu 2. Salmon 4. Spinach 5. Sardines Foods high in calcium include milk and milk products, dark green leafy vegetables, tofu and other soy products, sardines, salmon with bones, and hard water. Options 1, 2, 4, and 5 are all foods that are high in calcium. Peaches are high in vitamins A and C.

The nurse in the hospital emergency department is caring for a client with a fractured arm and is preparing the client for a reduction of the fracture that will be done in the casting room in the emergency department. The nurse should take which actions? Select all that apply. 1. Obtain an anesthesia consent. 2. Administer a prescribed analgesic. 3. Explain the procedure to the client. 4. Obtain informed consent for the procedure. 5. Inform the anesthesiologist of the time of the procedure.

2. Administer a prescribed analgesic. 3. Explain the procedure to the client; 4. Obtain informed consent for the procedure. Before a fracture is reduced, the client is informed about the procedure, and an informed consent is obtained. An analgesic is given as prescribed because the procedure is painful. Closed reductions may be done in the emergency department without anesthesia. Therefore, an anesthesia consent and anesthesiologist are not needed. If anesthesia is used, the procedure is done in the operating room, not in the emergency department.

A client is admitted to the nursing unit after a left below-the-knee amputation after a crush injury to the foot and lower leg. The client tells the nurse, "I think I'm going crazy. I can feel my left foot itching." How should the nurse interpret this client statement? 1. A normal response that indicates the presence of phantom limb pain 2. A normal response that indicates the presence of phantom limb sensation 3. An abnormal response that indicates that the client is in denial about the limb loss 4. An abnormal response that indicates that the client needs more psychological support

A normal response that indicates the presence of phantom limb sensation Phantom limb sensations are felt in the area of the amputated limb. These sensations can include itching, warmth, and cold. The sensations are caused by intact peripheral nerves in the area of the amputation. Whenever possible, the client should be prepared for these sensations. The client also may feel painful sensations in the amputated limb, called phantom limb pain. The origin of the pain is less well understood, but the client should be prepared for this, too, whenever possible.

The nurse is repositioning a client who has been returned to the nursing unit after internal fixation of a fractured right hip with a femoral head replacement. The nurse should use which method to reposition the client? 1. A trochanter roll to prevent abduction during turning 2. A pillow to keep the right leg abducted during turning 3. A pillow to keep the right leg adducted during turning 4. A trochanter roll to prevent external rotation during turning

A pillow to keep the right leg abducted during turning After femoral head replacement for a fractured hip with an intracapsular fracture, the client is turned to the affected side or the unaffected side as prescribed by the surgeon. Before moving the client, the nurse places a pillow between the client's legs to keep the affected leg in abduction. The nurse then repositions the client while maintaining proper alignment and abduction. A trochanter roll is useful in preventing external rotation, but it is used after the client has been repositioned. A trochanter roll is not used while the client is being turned.

The nurse is talking to a client who had a below-the-knee amputation 2 days earlier. The client states, "I hate looking at this; I feel that I'm not even myself anymore." What client problem should the nurse incorporate in the plan of care based on the statement by this client? 1. Altered body image 2. Inability to care for self 3. Disruption in coping ability 4. Difficulty maintaining health

Altered body image Altered body image is characterized by negative verbalizations or feelings about a body part. This is a common response after amputation. The nurse supports the client and assists the client to work through these feelings. The client also may have the other problems as listed in the remaining options, but altered body image is the client problem that correlates best with the client's statement.

The nurse is working with a client newly diagnosed with chronic kidney disease (CKD) to set up a schedule for hemodialysis. The client states, "This is impossible! How can I even think about leading a normal life again if this is what I'm going to have to do?" The nurse determines that the client is exhibiting which problem? 1. Anger 2. Projection 3. Depression 4. Withdrawal

Anger Psychosocial reactions to CKD and hemodialysis are varied and may include anger. Other reactions include personality changes, emotional lability, withdrawal, and depression. The individual client's response may vary depending on the client's personality and support systems. The client in this question is exhibiting anger. The client's behavior is not indicative of projection; in addition, the client's statement does not reflect withdrawal or depression.

A client is complaining of low back pain that radiates down the left posterior thigh. The nurse should ask the client if the pain is worsened or aggravated by which factor? 1. Bed rest 2. Ibuprofen 3. Bending or lifting 4. Application of heat

Bending or lifting Low back pain that radiates into 1 leg (sciatica) is consistent with herniated lumbar disk. The nurse assesses the client to see whether the pain is aggravated by events that increase intraspinal pressure, such as bending, lifting, sneezing, and coughing, or by lifting the leg straight up while supine (straight leg-raising test). Bed rest, heat (or sometimes ice), and nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) usually relieve back pain.

The nurse is performing an assessment on a client with suspected Paget's disease. On assessment the nurse would expect the client to report which as the most common symptom of this disease? 1. Tinnitus 2. Fatigue 3. Bone pain 4. Difficulty with ambulating

Bone pain Paget's disease is a chronic metabolic disorder in which bone is excessively broken down and reformed. The result is bone that is structurally disorganized, causing bone to be weak with increased risk for bowing of long bones and fractures. Bone pain is the most common symptom of Paget's disease and may manifest in areas close to a joint. The pain is related to progressive enlargement and deformity of the bone. Hearing loss, numbness of the face, or (more rarely) blindness can occur when the thickened bone of Paget's disease compresses vital nerves in the skull. Fatigue or difficulty with ambulation may occur but would not be the most common symptom

The nurse is caring for a client diagnosed with osteitis deformans (Paget's disease). Which does the nurse identify as the cause of the client's stooped posture and bowing of lower extremities? 1. Muscle metabolism and growth 2. Bone resorption and regeneration 3. Nervous system impulse transmission 4. Joint integrity and synovial fluid production

Bone resorption and regeneration Paget's disease is characterized by skeletal deformities resulting from abnormal bone resorption followed by abnormal regeneration. It is not caused by problems with muscle, nervous system, or joint functioning.

The nurse is caring for the client who has skeletal traction applied to the left leg. The client complains of severe left leg pain. The nurse checks the client's alignment in bed and notes that proper alignment is maintained. Which is the priority nursing action? 1. Provide pin care. 2. Medicate the client. 3. Call the health care provider. 4. Remove 2 pounds (0.9 kg) of weight from the traction system.

Call the health care provider. Severe pain in a client in skeletal traction may indicate a need for realignment, or the traction weights applied to the limb may be too heavy. The nurse realigns the client. If this measure is ineffective, the nurse then calls the health care provider. Severe leg pain once traction has been established indicates a problem. Providing pin care is unrelated to the problem as described. Medicating the client should be done after trying to determine and treat the cause. The nurse should never remove the weights from the traction system without a specific prescription to do so.

A client has been diagnosed with gout, and the nurse provides dietary instructions. The nurse determines that the client needs additional teaching if the client states that it is acceptable to eat which food? 1. Carrots 2. Tapioca 3. Chocolate 4. Chicken liver

Chicken liver Liver and other organ meats should be omitted from the diet of a client who has gout because of their high purine content. Purines are a form of protein. The food items identified in the other options contain negligible amounts of purines and may be consumed freely by the client with gout.

The nurse is reviewing a client's record and notes that the health care provider has documented that the client has chronic renal disease. On review of the laboratory results, the nurse most likely would expect to note which finding? 1. Elevated creatinine level 2. Decreased hemoglobin level 3. Decreased red blood cell count 4. Increased number of white blood cells in the urine

Elevated creatinine level The creatinine level is the most specific laboratory test to determine renal function. The creatinine level increases when at least 50% of renal function is lost. A decreased hemoglobin level and red blood cell count are associated with anemia or blood loss and not specifically with decreased renal function. Increased white blood cells in the urine are noted with urinary tract infection.

A client with an external arteriovenous shunt in place for hemodialysis is at risk for bleeding. Which is the priority nursing intervention? 1. Check the shunt for the presence of bruit and thrill. 2. Observe the site once during the shift as time permits. 3. Check the results of the prothrombin time as they are determined. 4. Ensure that small clamps are attached to the arteriovenous shunt dressing.

Ensure that small clamps are attached to the arteriovenous shunt dressing. An external arteriovenous shunt is a less common form of access site but carries a risk for bleeding when it is used because 2 ends of an external cannula are tunneled subcutaneously into an artery and a vein, and the ends of the cannula are joined. If accidental disconnection occurs, the client could lose blood rapidly. For this reason, small clamps are attached to the dressing that covers the insertion site for use if needed. The shunt site also should be assessed at least every 4 hours. Checking the shunt for the presence of bruit and thrill relates to patency of the shunt. Although checking the results of the prothrombin time is important, it is not the priority nursing action.

A client with a bladder injury has had surgical repair of the injured area with placement of a suprapubic catheter. Which is the most appropriate nursing action to prevent complications of this procedure? 1. Monitor urine output once per shift. 2. Measure specific gravity once per shift. 3. Encourage an excessive intake of oral fluids. 4. Ensure that the catheter tubing is not kinked.

Ensure that the catheter tubing is not kinked. A complication after surgical repair of the bladder is disruption of sutures, caused by tension on them from urine buildup. The nurse prevents this from happening by ensuring that the catheter is able to drain freely. This involves basic catheter care, including keeping the tubing free from kinks, maintaining the tubing at a level below the bladder, and monitoring the flow of urine frequently. Monitoring of urine output every shift is insufficient to detect decreased flow from catheter kinking. Measurement of urine specific gravity and an excessive intake of oral fluids do not prevent complications of bladder surgery.

The nurse is providing instructions to a client who is scheduled for cystoscopy and possible biopsy under general anesthesia. Which information should the nurse include? 1. The procedure will take about 4 hours. 2. Intravenous fluids may be started on the day of the procedure. 3. Preprocedure sedatives are never administered with general anesthesia. 4. Only a full liquid breakfast may be allowed on the day of the procedure.

Intravenous fluids may be started on the day of the procedure. Client preparation for cystoscopy and possible biopsy includes informing the client that intravenous fluids will be started the day of the procedure to ensure adequate hydration and flow of urine. The procedure will take approximately 30 minutes to 1 hour. An informed consent is obtained from the client, and preprocedure sedatives are administered as prescribed. If a general anesthetic is to be used, the client is told that fasting is necessary after midnight before the procedure.

A client has been diagnosed with subluxation of the shoulder. The nurse explains to the client that which injury has occurred to the joint? 1. It is strained. 2. It is contused. 3. It has completely dislocated. 4. It has incompletely dislocated.

It has incompletely dislocated. A dislocation is the disruption of a joint to the extent that the articulating surfaces are no longer in contact. A subluxation is an incomplete dislocation of the joint surfaces. Because the disruption is less severe, healing time is less prolonged. A strain occurs when a muscle or ligament is used beyond the limit of its functional ability. It is characterized by overstretching of the muscle or ligament and also could involve tearing if the strain is more severe (i.e., second- or third-degree strain versus first-degree strain). A contusion is a soft tissue injury that results in hemorrhage into the involved tissue.

A client who suffered a contusion after being hit on the thigh with a racquetball has been told that it is acceptable to apply heat to the area 72 hours after the injury. The nurse explains the rationale for this treatment to the client, stating that which is the physiological benefit of heat in this case? 1. It induces muscle relaxation. 2. It prevents abscess formation. 3. It reduces the likelihood of strain as a complication. 4. It promotes reabsorption of blood from the injured tissue.

It promotes reabsorption of blood from the injured tissue. The primary benefit from applying heat to a contusion is to speed up the rate of absorption of blood that has hemorrhaged into the affected soft tissue. Although heat also promotes muscle relaxation, this is not the intended benefit of this therapy in treating a contusion. Heat is not applied to reduce abscess formation or prevent muscle strain.

The nurse is preparing to care for a client receiving peritoneal dialysis. Which should be included in the nursing plan of care to prevent the major complication associated with peritoneal dialysis? 1. Maintain strict aseptic technique. 2. Add heparin to the dialysate solution. 3. Change the catheter site dressing daily. 4. Monitor the client's level of consciousness.

Maintain strict aseptic technique. The major complication of peritoneal dialysis is peritonitis. Strict aseptic technique is required in caring for the client receiving this treatment. Although changing the catheter site dressing daily may assist in preventing infection, this option relates to an external site. Adding heparin to the dialysate solution and monitoring the client's level of consciousness are unrelated to the major complication of peritoneal dialysis.

The nurse is performing an assessment on a client who has returned from the dialysis unit following hemodialysis. The client is complaining of headache and nausea and is extremely restless. Which is the priority nursing action? 1. Monitor the client. 2. Elevate the head of the bed. 3. Assess the fistula site and dressing. 4. Notify the health care provider (HCP).

Notify the health care provider (HCP). Disequilibrium syndrome may be caused by rapid removal of solutes from the body during hemodialysis. These changes can cause cerebral edema that leads to increased intracranial pressure. The client is exhibiting early signs and symptoms of disequilibrium syndrome and appropriate treatments with anticonvulsive medications and barbiturates may be necessary to prevent a life-threatening situation. The HCP must be notified. Monitoring the client, elevating the head of the bed, and assessing the fistula site are correct actions, but the priority action is to notify the HCP.

A client who had a body cast applied 2 days earlier begins to complain of anorexia, nausea, and abdominal discomfort. The nurse should take which immediate action? 1. Test the client's stool for guaiac. 2. Notify the health care provider. 3. Administer the prescribed as-needed antacid. 4. Administer the prescribed as-needed antiemetic.

Notify the health care provider. The client who has been placed in a body cast is at risk for the development of cast syndrome. This results from pressure on the mesenteric artery and can lead to intestinal obstruction. The immediate action is to report the client's complaints to the health care provider (HCP). Cast syndrome usually is treated with nasogastric decompression, intravenous therapy for hydration, and possibly application of a new cast. Testing the stool and administering an antacid or antiemetic delay necessary interventions.

The nurse is monitoring the urine output of a client with low serum protein level and urinary output less than 30 mL in the last hour. Based on these data, the nurse understands that low urinary output is caused by which force within the kidneys? 1. Oncotic pressure 2. Osmotic pressure 3. Filtration pressure 4. Hydrostatic pressure

Oncotic pressure The pulling pressure within the capillaries that is exerted by the plasma proteins is referred to as the oncotic pressure. Osmotic pressure is the movement of water along a pressure gradient. Filtration pressure is the pressure that is exerted with ultrafiltration, in which the pressure within the capillaries is greater than the pressure outside them; this results in fluids being pushed across the membrane into Bowman's capsule. Hydrostatic pressure in the capillaries allows fluid to be filtered out of the blood in the glomerulus.

A client with renal cell carcinoma of the left kidney is scheduled for nephrectomy. The right kidney appears normal at this time. The client is anxious about whether dialysis will ultimately be needed. The nurse should plan to use which information in discussions with the client to alleviate anxiety? 1. There is a strong likelihood that the client will need dialysis within 5 to 10 years. 2. There is absolutely no chance of needing dialysis because of the nature of the surgery. 3. One kidney is adequate to meet the needs of the body as long as it has normal function. 4. Dialysis could become likely, but it depends on how well the client complies with fluid restriction after surgery.

One kidney is adequate to meet the needs of the body as long as it has normal function. Fears about having only 1 functioning kidney are common in clients who must undergo nephrectomy for renal cancer. These clients need emotional support and reassurance that the remaining kidney should be able to fully meet the body's metabolic needs, as long as it has normal function. Therefore, the remaining options are incorrect.

A client undergoing hemodialysis is at risk for bleeding from the heparin used during the hemodialysis treatment. The nurse assesses for this occurrence by periodically checking the results of which laboratory test? 1. Bleeding time 2. Thrombin time 3. Prothrombin time (PT) 4. Partial thromboplastin time (PTT)

Partial thromboplastin time (PTT) Heparin is the anticoagulant used most often during hemodialysis. The hemodialysis nurse monitors the extent of anticoagulation by checking the PTT, which is the appropriate measure of heparin effect. Thrombin and bleeding times are not used to measure the effect of heparin therapy, although they are useful in the diagnosis of other clotting abnormalities. The PT is a test used to monitor the effect of warfarin therapy.

The nurse is caring for an older adult who has been placed in Buck's extension traction after a hip fracture. On assessment of the client, the nurse notes that the client is disoriented. What is the best nursing action based on this information? 1. Apply restraints to the client. 2. Ask the family to stay with the client. 3. Place a clock and calendar in the client's room. 4. Ask the laboratory to perform electrolyte studies.

Place a clock and calendar in the client's room. An inactive older adult may become disoriented because of lack of sensory stimulation. The most appropriate nursing intervention would be to reorient the client frequently and to place objects such as a clock and a calendar in the client's room to maintain orientation. Restraints may cause further disorientation and should not be applied unless specifically prescribed; agency policies and procedures should be followed before the application of restraints. The family can assist with orientation of the client, but it is inappropriate to ask the family to stay with the client. It is not within the scope of nursing practice to prescribe laboratory studies.

A client who has experienced nonunion of a fracture is scheduled for bone grafting using cadaver bone. The client appears restless and anxious about the procedure. After determining that the client understands the surgical procedure, the nurse should explore which item next? 1. Concern about the level of postoperative pain 2. The availability of assistance for the client after discharge 3. Whether the client needs a PRN prescription for an antianxiety agent 4. Potential worry about contracting hepatitis or possibly human immunodeficiency virus infection

Potential worry about contracting hepatitis or possibly human immunodeficiency virus infection Clients who receive cadaver bone may worry about contracting human immunodeficiency virus or hepatitis or another infection from the cadaver bone. To ease their fear clients need reassurance and information about the donor screening that is done. The level of pain that will be experienced in the postoperative period and the availability of assistance for the client after discharge should be included as part of the basic preparation of the client for surgery. Administering antianxiety medication is used as a last measure if other reassuring measures are not effective.

A client who has been taking high doses of acetylsalicylic acid to relieve pain from osteoarthritis now has more generalized joint pain and an elevated temperature. The nurse should assess for which complication to determine whether the client has other signs of aspirin toxicity? 1. Diarrhea 2. Constipation 3. Double vision 4. Ringing in the ears

Ringing in the ears Mild intoxication with acetylsalicylic acid, called salicylism, commonly occurs when the daily dosage is more than 4 g. Tinnitus (ringing in the ears) is the most frequent effect noted with intoxication. Hyperventilation also may occur because a salicylate stimulates the respiratory center. Fever may result because a salicylate interferes with the metabolic pathways coupling oxygen consumption and heat production. The remaining options are not signs of aspirin toxicity.

A client has been placed in Buck's extension traction. The nurse can provide for countertraction to reduce shear and friction by performing which action? 1. Using a footboard 2. Providing an overhead trapeze 3. Slightly elevating the foot of the bed 4. Slightly elevating the head of the bed

Slightly elevating the foot of the bed The part of the bed under an area in traction usually is elevated to aid in countertraction. For the client in Buck's extension traction (which is applied to a leg), the foot of the bed is elevated. The remaining options are incorrect.

A client experiencing end-stage kidney disease has an arteriovenous (AV) fistula placed surgically for hemodialysis. Which action is most appropriate for the nurse to document in the plan for care of the AV fistula? 1. Palpate the bruit of the AV fistula weekly to assess for thrombosis. 2. Use the AV fistula site for blood draws to prevent increased pain of multiple blood draws. 3. Take the blood pressure readings in the extremity with the AV fistula to get a more accurate reading. 4. Teach the client to avoid carrying heavy objects that would compress the AV fistula and cause thrombosis.

Teach the client to avoid carrying heavy objects that would compress the AV fistula and cause thrombosis. An AV fistula is a vascular access system that is required for hemodialysis. It is a device established for clients who need long-term hemodialysis. It is created by connecting an artery to a vein inside the body to create a vessel that can handle the amount of blood flow necessary for effective dialysis. Bleeding, clotting, and infection are risks with all vascular devices. It also is very important to avoid any activity that would promote the status of blood or increase the risk for infection. Taking the blood pressure in the affected arm, carrying heavy objects in the arm, and lying on the arm at night could increase the risk for clotting in the fistula. To check circulation of the fistula, the nurse should palpate or feel for the thrill or auscultate (listen with a stethoscope) for the bruit. It is important to do this at least daily to ascertain the patency of the fistula. To avoid infection, that extremity is never used for peripheral intravenous access (placement of an intravenous line) or for blood draws. Strict aseptic technique is used in accessing the fistula for dialysis.

A client is scheduled for surgical creation of an internal arteriovenous (AV) fistula on the following day. The client says to the nurse, "I'll be so happy when the fistula is made tomorrow. This means I can have that other hemodialysis catheter pulled right out." Which interpretation should the nurse make based on the client's statement? 1. The client has an accurate understanding of the procedure and aftercare. 2. The client does not realize how painful removal of the dialysis catheter will be. 3. The client does not understand that the site needs to mature or develop for 1 to 2 weeks before use. 4. The client is not aware that the alternative access site is left in place prophylactically for 2 months.

The client does not understand that the site needs to mature or develop for 1 to 2 weeks before use. An AV fistula is the internal creation of an arterial-to-venous anastomosis. This causes engorgement of the vein, allowing both the artery and the vein to be easily cannulated for hemodialysis. Fistulas take 1 to 2 weeks to mature (engorgement) or develop before they can be used for dialysis, so the current method of access must remain in place to be used during that period. Options 1, 2, and 4 are incorrect interpretations of the client's statement.

A client with an arteriovenous fistula in the left arm who is undergoing hemodialysis is at risk for infection. Which should the nurse formulate as the best outcome goal for this client problem? 1. The client washes hands at least once per day. 2. The client's temperature remains lower than 101°F (38.3°C). 3. The client avoids blood pressure (BP) measurement in the left arm. 4. The client's white blood cell (WBC) count remains within normal limits.

The client's white blood cell (WBC) count remains within normal limits. General indicators that the client is not experiencing infection include a temperature and WBC count within normal limits. The client also should use proper hand-washing technique as a general preventive measure. Hand washing once per day is insufficient. It is true that the client should avoid BP measurement in the affected arm; however, this would relate more closely to the problem of risk for injury.

A female client who has been receiving radiation therapy for bladder cancer tells the nurse that it feels as if she is voiding through the vagina. The nurse interprets that the client may be experiencing which problem? 1. Rupture of the bladder 2. The development of a vesicovaginal fistula 3. Extreme stress because of the diagnosis of cancer 4. Altered perineal sensation as a side effect of radiation therapy

The development of a vesicovaginal fistula A complication of radiation therapy for bladder cancer is fistula formation. In women, this frequently is manifested as a vesicovaginal fistula, which is an opening between the bladder and the vagina. With this complication the client senses that urine is flowing out of the vagina. In men, a colovesical fistula may develop, which is an opening between the bladder and the colon. This is manifested as voiding urine that contains fecal material. The remaining options are incorrect interpretations.

The nurse is caring for a client with a long bone fracture at risk for fat embolism. The nurse specifically monitors for the earliest signs of this complication by performing an assessment of which item(s)? 1. The client's mobility status 2. The renal and endocrine systems 3. The cardiovascular and renal systems 4. The neurological and respiratory systems

The neurological and respiratory systems The early signs of the complication of fat embolism include changes in the client's mental status and signs of impaired respiratory function as a result of impaired perfusion distal to the site of the embolus. Cardiovascular and renal impairments are likely to be secondary to impaired respiratory function. Effects on the endocrine system usually are not seen. The client's mobility status is unrelated to the signs of fat embolism.

The nurse has given activity guidelines to a client with chronic low back pain. The nurse determines that the client understands the instructions if the client states to do which activities? Select all that apply. 1. Lying prone 2. Sitting using a lumbar roll or pillow 3. Standing with one foot on a step or stool 4. Lying on the side, with knees and hips straight 5. Lift objects that need to be carried above elbow level. 6. Lean forward to reach objects, keeping the legs and knees straight.

2. Sitting using a lumbar roll or pillow 3. Standing with one foot on a step or stool The client should avoid positions or activities that place strain on the lower back. The client should not sleep on the abdomen (prone) or on the side if the hips and knees are straight. It may be helpful for the client to stand with a foot elevated on a stool or to sit using a form of lumbar support. The client should not lean forward without bending the knees, stand in one position for long periods, or lift anything above elbow level.

The nurse is caring for a client with osteoarthritis. The nurse performs an assessment knowing that which clinical manifestations are associated with the disorder? Select all that apply. 1. Elevated white blood cell count 2. A decreased sedimentation rate 3. Joint pain that diminishes after rest 4. Elevated antinuclear antibody levels 5. Joint pain that intensifies with activity

3. Joint pain that diminishes after rest 5. Joint pain that intensifies with activity The stiffness and joint pain that occur in osteoarthritis diminish after rest and intensify with activity. No specific laboratory findings are useful in diagnosing osteoarthritis. The client may have a normal or slightly elevated sedimentation rate. Morning stiffness lasting longer than 30 minutes occurs in rheumatoid arthritis. Elevated white blood cell counts, platelet counts, and antinuclear antibody levels occur in rheumatoid arthritis.

A client has slight weakness in the right leg. On the basis of this assessment finding, the nurse determines that the client would benefit most from the use of which item? 1. A walker 2. A wooden crutch 3. A straight leg cane 4. A Lofstrand crutch

A straight leg cane A straight leg cane is useful for the client with slight weakness in one leg. A walker is beneficial to the client with greater or bilateral weakness or one who is at risk for falls. Wooden crutches often are used by clients with a leg cast. Lofstrand crutches aid clients who need crutches but have limited arm strength.

Which client is most at risk for developing a Candida urinary tract infection (UTI)? 1. An obese woman 2. A man with diabetes insipidus 3. A young woman on antibiotic therapy 4. A male paraplegic on intermittent catheterization

A young woman on antibiotic therapy Candida infections, which are fungal infections, develop in persons who are on long-term antibiotic therapy because an alteration of normal flora occurs. These infections also are commonly seen in clients with blood dyscrasias, diabetes mellitus, cancer, or immunosuppression and in those with a drug addiction.

A client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) has been on dialysis for 3 years. The client is receiving the usual combination of medications for the disease, including aluminum hydroxide as a phosphate-binding agent. The client now presents with mental cloudiness, dementia, and complaints of bone pain. The nurse determines that these assessment data are compatible with which condition? 1. Advancing uremia 2. Phosphate overdose 3. Folic acid deficiency 4. Aluminum intoxication

Aluminum intoxication Aluminum hydroxide may be prescribed as a phosphate-binding agent. Aluminum intoxication can occur when there is an accumulation of aluminum, an ingredient in many phosphate-binding antacids. It results in mental cloudiness, dementia, and bone pain from infiltration of the bone with aluminum. It can be treated with aluminum-chelating agents, which make aluminum available to be dialyzed from the body. It can be prevented by avoiding or limiting the use of phosphate-binding agents that contain aluminum. The data in the question are not specifically associated with the other conditions noted in the options.

A client passes a urinary stone, and laboratory analysis of the stone indicates that it is composed of calcium oxalate. On the basis of these data, which should the nurse specifically include in the dietary instructions? 1. Increase intake of dairy products. 2. Avoid citrus fruits and citrus juices. 3. Avoid green, leafy vegetables such as spinach. 4. Increase intake of meat, fish, plums, and cranberries.

Avoid green, leafy vegetables such as spinach. Oxalate is found in dark green foods such as spinach. Other foods that raise urinary oxalate are rhubarb, strawberries, chocolate, wheat bran, nuts, beets, and tea. The food items in options 1, 2, and 4 are acceptable to consume.

A client who is undergoing peritoneal dialysis calls the nurse at the renal unit and reports the presence of severe abdominal pain and diarrhea. The client also informs the nurse that the peritoneal dialysis returns are brown-tinged in color. Which would the nurse suspect? 1. Infection 2. An intact catheter 3. Bowel perforation 4. Bladder perforation

Bowel perforation Complications of a peritoneal catheter include infection, perforation of the bowel or bladder, and bleeding. Brown-tinged returns suggest bowel perforation, which usually is accompanied by severe abdominal pain and diarrhea. Cloudy or opaque returns suggest possible infection. Urine-colored returns suggest possible bladder perforation. An intact catheter is unrelated to the information provided in the question.

A client with benign prostatic hyperplasia undergoes a transurethral resection of the prostate. Postoperatively the client is receiving continuous bladder irrigations. The nurse assesses the client for manifestations of transurethral resection syndrome. Which assessment data would indicate the onset of this syndrome? 1. Tachycardia and diarrhea 2. Bradycardia and confusion 3. Increased urinary output and anemia 4. Decreased urinary output and bladder spasms

Bradycardia and confusion Transurethral resection syndrome is caused by increased absorption of nonelectrolyte irrigating fluid used during surgery. The client may show signs of cerebral edema and increased intracranial pressure, such as increased blood pressure, bradycardia, confusion, disorientation, muscle twitching, visual disturbances, and nausea and vomiting

The nurse is preparing a plan of care for a client who is scheduled to return from the recovery room after a left total knee arthroplasty. The nurse includes in the plan of care to assess the client's neurovascular status the monitoring of which parameter? 1. The pain level of the client 2. Blood pressure and respiratory rate 3. Capillary refill, sensation, color, and pulse of the left foot 4. The range of motion of the left knee when a continuous passive motion machine is used

Capillary refill, sensation, color, and pulse of the left foot The nurse would check capillary refill, sensation, color, and pulse of the affected extremity in a neurovascular assessment. Monitoring the pain level may be a component of the assessment but is not specifically related to neurovascular status. Blood pressure and respiratory rate may also be components of the nursing assessment but are not specific to neurovascular status. Range of motion is related to musculoskeletal status, not neurovascular status.

The nurse is caring for a client with a fractured tibia and fibula. Eight hours after a long leg cast is applied, the client reports a significant increase in pain level even after administration of the prescribed dose of opioid analgesic. What is the initial nursing action? 1. Elevate the casted leg. 2. Contact the health care provider. 3. Administer another dose of pain medication. 4. Check the neurovascular status of the toes on the casted leg.

Check the neurovascular status of the toes on the casted leg. An increase in pain level in an extremity at risk for neurovascular compromise (compartment syndrome) often is the first sign of increasing pressure within a tissue compartment. The nurse needs to obtain additional assessment data to determine if the health care provider needs to be notified immediately or whether other interventions are appropriate. Options 1, 2, and 3 are inappropriate and would delay necessary treatment.

The home health nurse is planning to make a home visit to a client who has undergone surgical creation of an ileal conduit. The nurse should include which information on ostomy care in discussion with the client? 1. Plan to do appliance changes in the late evening hours. 2. Cut an opening that is slightly smaller than the stoma in the face plate of the appliance. 3. Appliance odor from urine breakdown to ammonia can be minimized by limiting fluids. 4. Cleanse the skin around the stoma, using gentle soap and water, and then rinse and dry well.

Cleanse the skin around the stoma, using gentle soap and water, and then rinse and dry well. The skin around the stoma is cleansed at each appliance change using a gentle, nonresidue soap and water. The skin is rinsed and then dried thoroughly. The appliance should be changed early in the morning because urine production is slowest from no fluid intake during sleep. The appliance is cut so that the opening is not more than 3 mm larger than the stoma. An opening smaller than the stoma will prevent application of the appliance. Generous fluid intake is encouraged to dilute the urine, decreasing the intensity of odor.

The nurse is caring for a client with a radius fractured across the shaft and bone splintered into fragments. Information about which type of fracture should be included by the nurse in the client's education? 1. Simple fracture 2. Greenstick fracture 3. Compound fracture 4. Comminuted fracture

Comminuted fracture A comminuted fracture is a complete fracture across the shaft of a bone, with splintering of the bone into fragments. A simple fracture is a fracture of the bone across its entire shaft with some possible displacement but without breaking the skin. A greenstick fracture is an incomplete fracture, which occurs through part of the cross section of a bone: one side of the bone is fractured, and the other side is bent. A compound fracture, also called an open or complex fracture, is one in which the skin or mucous membrane has been broken and the resulting wound extends to the depth of the fractured bone.

In performing a physical assessment of a client with chronic kidney disease (CKD), which finding should the nurse anticipate? 1. Glycosuria 2. Polyphagia 3. Crackles auscultated in the lungs 4. Blood pressure of 98/58 mm Hg

Crackles auscultated in the lungs CKD is a condition in which the kidneys have progressive problems in clearing nitrogenous waste products and controlling fluid and electrolyte balance within the body. Cardiovascular symptoms of heart failure and hypertension are caused by the fluid volume overload resulting from the kidneys' inability to excrete water. Signs and symptoms of heart failure include jugular venous distention, S3 heart sound, pedal edema, increased weight, shortness of breath, and crackles auscultated in the lungs. The typical signs and symptoms of CKD include proteinuria or hematuria, not glycosuria. The nurse would observe anorexia and nausea in this client, not polyphagia.

A client has been diagnosed with osteomalacia, or adult rickets. The nurse should anticipate that the health care provider will include a new prescription for which vitamin supplement? 1. A 2. D 3. E 4. K

D Osteomalacia technically refers to bone softening that results from demineralization of bone matrix and failure to calcify. A common cause is vitamin D deficiency in the diet. Other causes are inadequate exposure to sunlight (to synthesize vitamin D) and disorders that interfere with absorption and metabolism of vitamin D. Deficiencies of the vitamins noted in the remaining options are not associated with osteomalacia.

A client with uric acid calculi is placed on a low-purine diet. The nurse instructs the client to restrict the intake of which food? 1. Fish 2. Plum juice 3. Fruit juice 4. Cranberries

Fish Clients who form uric acid calculi should be placed on a low-purine diet. Their intake of fish and meats (especially organ meats) should be restricted. Dietary modifications also may help adjust urinary pH so that stone formation is inhibited. Depending on health care provider prescription, the urine may be alkalinized by increasing the intake of bicarbonates or acidified by drinking cranberry, plum, or prune juice.

The nurse has completed teaching with the hemodialysis client about self-monitoring between hemodialysis treatments. The nurse should determine that education was effective if the client states to record which parameters daily? 1. Pulse and respiratory rate 2. Amount of activity and sleep 3. Intake and output (I&O) and weight 4. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine levels

Intake and output (I&O) and weight The client on hemodialysis should monitor fluid status between hemodialysis treatments by recording I&O and measuring weight daily. Ideally, the hemodialysis client should not gain more than 0.5 kg of weight per day. It is not necessary to record the pulse and respiratory rate or the amount of activity and sleep; these parameters are not specifically related to hemodialysis. BUN and creatinine levels are not measured on a daily basis.

The nurse checks the serum myoglobin level for a client with a crush injury to the right lower leg because the client is at risk for developing which type of acute kidney injury? 1. Prerenal 2. Intrarenal 3. Postrenal 4. Extrarenal

Intrarenal Serum myoglobin levels increase in crush injuries when large amounts of myoglobin and hemoglobin are released from damaged muscle and blood cells. The accumulation may cause acute tubular necrosis, an intrarenal cause of renal failure. Prerenal causes are conditions that interfere with the perfusion of blood to the kidney. Postrenal causes include conditions that cause urinary obstruction distal to the kidney. The cause and the type of renal failure may determine the interventions used in treatment.

A client is being discharged to home after spinal fusion with insertion of instrumentation (rod). The unit nurse should consult with the continuing care nurse regarding the need for modification of the home environment if the client makes which statement? 1. "The bathroom has hand railings in the shower." 2. "There are three steps to get up to the front door." 3. "My family has rented a commode for me to use." 4. "My bedroom and bathroom are on the second floor of my home."

"My bedroom and bathroom are on the second floor of my home." Stair climbing may be restricted or limited for several weeks after spinal fusion with instrumentation. If stairs need to be climbed to reach a bathroom, hand rails should be installed and the area kept free of clutter. The nurse ensures that resources are in place before discharge so that the client may sleep and perform all activities of daily living on a single living level. From the options provided, options 1, 2, and 3 do not indicate a need for modification of the environment.

A client has undergone fasciotomy to treat compartment syndrome of the leg. The nurse should anticipate that which type of wound care to the fasciotomy site will be prescribed? 1. Dry sterile dressings 2. Hydrocolloid dressings 3. Moist sterile saline dressings 4. One-half strength povidone-iodine dressings

Moist sterile saline dressings The fasciotomy site is not sutured but is left open to relieve pressure and edema. The site is covered with moist sterile saline dressings. After 3 to 5 days, when perfusion is adequate and edema subsides, the wound is debrided and closed. Because this is an open wound, dry dressings should not be used. A hydrocolloid dressing is not indicated for use with clean, open incisions. The incision is clean, not dirty, so povidone-iodine should not be required. Also, this agent is irritating to tissues.

The home health nurse is planning to teach a client with osteoporosis about home modifications to reduce the risk of falls. Which recommendations would be necessary to include in the teaching plan? Select all that apply. 1. Use night lights. 2. Remove scatter rugs. 3. Use staircase railings. 4. Remove wall-to-wall carpeting. 5. Place hand rails in the bathroom.

1. Use night lights. 2. Remove scatter rugs. 3. Use staircase railings. 5. Place hand rails in the bathroom. Home modifications to reduce the risk for falls include using railings on all staircases, providing ample lighting, removing scatter rugs, and placing hand rails in the bathroom. Removing wall-to-wall carpeting is not necessary as long as it is in good condition.

The nursing student is assigned to care for a client with a diagnosis of acute kidney injury (AKI), diuretic phase. The nursing instructor asks the student about the primary goal of the treatment plan for this client. Which goal, if stated by the nursing student, indicates an adequate understanding of the treatment plan for this client? 1. Prevent fluid overload. 2. Prevent loss of electrolytes. 3. Promote the excretion of wastes. 4. Reduce the urine specific gravity.

Prevent loss of electrolytes. In the diuretic phase, fluids and electrolytes are lost in the urine. As a result, the plan of care focuses on fluid and electrolyte replacement and monitoring. Options 1, 3, and 4 are not the primary concerns in this phase of AKI.

The nurse is caring for a client immediately after nephrectomy and renal transplantation. What is the most appropriate datum to use in planning administration of intravenous fluids to this client? 1. A strict hourly rate of 100 mL 2. A strict hourly rate of 150 mL 3. One half of the previous hour's urine output 4. The number of milliliters in the previous hour's urine output

The number of milliliters in the previous hour's urine output Intravenous fluids are managed very carefully after nephrectomy and renal transplantation. Fluids are usually given according to a formula that takes into account the previous hour's urine output. The desired urine output is generally high; therefore, options 1, 2, and 3 are incorrect.

The nurse has performed a nutritional assessment on a client with cystitis. The nurse should tell the client to consume which beverage to minimize recurrence of cystitis? 1. Tea 2. Water 3. Coffee 4. White wine

Water Water helps flush bacteria out of the bladder, and an intake of 6 to 8 glasses per day is encouraged. Caffeine and alcohol can irritate the bladder. Therefore, alcohol- and caffeine-containing beverages such as coffee, tea, and wine are avoided to minimize risk.

The nurse is planning discharge teaching for a client diagnosed and treated for compartment syndrome. Which information should the nurse include in the teaching? 1. "A bone fragment has injured the nerve supply in the area." 2. "An injured artery caused impaired arterial perfusion through the compartment." 3. "Bleeding and swelling caused increased pressure in an area that couldn't expand." 4. "The fascia expanded with injury, causing pressure on underlying nerves and muscles."

"Bleeding and swelling caused increased pressure in an area that couldn't expand." Compartment syndrome is caused by bleeding and swelling within a tissue compartment that is lined by fascia, which does not expand. The bleeding and swelling put pressure on the nerves, muscles, and blood vessels in the compartment, triggering the symptoms. The remaining options are inaccurate descriptions of compartment syndrome.

A client who is performing peritoneal dialysis at home calls the clinic and reports that the outflow from the dialysis catheter seems to be decreasing in amount. The clinic nurse should ask which question first? 1. "Have you had any diarrhea?" 2. "Have you been constipated recently?" 3. "Have you had any abdominal discomfort?" 4. "Have you had an increased amount of flatulence?"

"Have you been constipated recently?" Reduced outflow from the dialysis catheter may be caused by the catheter position, infection, or constipation. Constipation may contribute to a reduced outflow because peristalsis seems to aid in drainage. Options 1, 3, and 4 are unrelated to the causes of reduced outflow from the dialysis catheter.

The nurse teaches a client who is going to have a plaster cast applied about the procedure. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching? 1. "The cast will give off heat as it dries." 2. "I can bear weight on the cast in one-half hour." 3. "The cast edges may be trimmed with a cast knife." 4. "A stockinette will be placed over the leg area to be casted."

"I can bear weight on the cast in one-half hour." A plaster cast can tolerate weight bearing once it is dry, which takes from 24 to 72 hours, depending on the nature and thickness of the cast. A plaster cast gives off heat as it dries. The procedure for casting involves washing and drying the skin and placing a stockinette material over the area to be casted. A roll of padding is then applied smoothly and evenly. The plaster is rolled onto the padding, and the edges are trimmed or smoothed as needed.

A client with a short-leg plaster cast complains of an intense itching under the cast. The nurse provides instructions to the client regarding relief measures for the itching. Which client statement indicates an understanding of appropriate measures to relieve the itching? 1. "I can use the blunt part of a ruler to scratch the area." 2. "I can trickle small amounts of water down inside the cast." 3. "I need to obtain assistance when placing an object into the cast for the itching." 4. "I can use a hair dryer on the low setting and allow the cool air to blow into the cast."

"I can use a hair dryer on the low setting and allow the cool air to blow into the cast." Itching is a common complaint of clients with casts. Objects should not be put inside a cast because of the risk of scratching the skin, thereby providing a point of entry for bacteria. A plaster cast can break down when wet. Therefore, the best way to relieve itching is with a forceful injection of air inside the cast.

The nurse has provided instructions regarding home care measures for a client with acute pyelonephritis. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching? 1. "I should try to maintain an acid ash diet." 2. "I should increase my fluid intake to 3 L per day." 3. "I should take my daily dose of vitamin C to acidify the urine." 4. "I need to avoid alcohol and highly spiced foods but may continue to drink my coffee every day."

"I need to avoid alcohol and highly spiced foods but may continue to drink my coffee every day." Clients with acute pyelonephritis should be instructed to try to maintain an acid ash diet, which may be of some benefit. Also, they should increase fluid intake to 3 L per day; this helps relieve dysuria and flushes bacteria out of the bladder. However, for clients with chronic pyelonephritis and renal dysfunction, an increase in fluid intake may be contraindicated. Medications such as vitamin C help acidify the urine. Juices such as cranberry, plum, and prune juice will leave an acid ash in the urine. Caffeine, alcohol, chocolate, and highly spiced foods are avoided to prevent potential bladder irritation.

A client has had a bone scan done. The nurse determines that the client demonstrates understanding of postprocedure care when the client makes which statement? 1. "Flushing indicates a complication." 2. "I should stay on liquids for a couple of days." 3. "I need to ambulate every couple of hours faithfully for a few days." 4. "I need to drink plenty of water for 1 to 2 days after the procedure."

"I need to drink plenty of water for 1 to 2 days after the procedure." No special restrictions are necessary after a bone scan. The client is encouraged to drink large amounts of water for 24 to 48 hours to flush the radioisotope from the system. The very small amount of radioactivity from the isotope presents no hazard to the client or staff. The remaining options are unrelated to postprocedure care.

The nurse provides home care instructions to a client undergoing hemodialysis with regard to care of a newly created arteriovenous (AV) fistula. Which client statement indicates that teaching was effective? 1. "I should check the fistula every day by feeling it for a vibration." 2. "I am glad that the laboratory will be able to draw my blood from the fistula." 3. "I should wear a shirt with tight arms to provide some compression on the fistula." 4. "I should check my blood pressure in the arm where I have my fistula every week."

"I should check the fistula every day by feeling it for a vibration." An AV fistula provides access to the client's bloodstream for the dialysis procedure. The client is instructed to monitor fistula patency daily by palpating for a thrill (vibration feeling). The client is instructed to avoid compressing the fistula with tight clothing or when sleeping and that blood pressure measurements and blood draws should not be performed on the arm with the fistula. The client also is instructed to assess the fistula for signs and symptoms of infection, including pain, redness, swelling, and excessive warmth.

A client with prostatitis following kidney infection has received instructions on management of the condition at home and prevention of recurrence. The nurse determines that education was effective if the client makes which statement? 1. "I will stop antibiotic therapy when pain subsides." 2. "I will exercise as much as possible to stimulate circulation." 3. "I should use warm tub baths and analgesics to increase comfort." 4. "I will keep fluid intake to a minimum to decrease the need to void."

"I should use warm tub baths and analgesics to increase comfort." Treatment of prostatitis includes medication with antibiotics, analgesics, and stool softeners. The nurse also teaches the client to rest, increase fluid intake, and use sitz baths or warm tub baths for comfort. Antimicrobial therapy is always continued until the prescription is finished.

The ambulatory care nurse is providing instructions to a client after a cystoscopy. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching? 1. "I should increase my fluid intake." 2. "I can apply heat to my lower abdomen." 3. "I may have some burning on urination for the next few days." 4. "If I notice any pink-tinged urine, I should contact the health care provider."

"If I notice any pink-tinged urine, I should contact the health care provider." The client is instructed that pink-tinged urine and burning on urination are expected for 1 to 2 days after the procedure. Increased fluid intake is encouraged. Application of heat to the lower abdomen, administration of mild analgesics, and the use of sitz baths may relieve discomfort. The client also is advised to avoid alcoholic beverages for 2 days after the test.

The graduate nurse is caring for a client with decreased renal perfusion. The registered nurse determines that the graduate nurse demonstrates understanding of why this is occurring if which statement is made? 1. "It can be due to an increase in serotonin levels." 2. "It may be due to overhydration with intravenous fluids." 3. "It may be due to the client's hemoglobin of 13.2 g/dL (132 mmol/L)." 4. "It may be a consequence of decreased dopaminergic receptor stimulation."

"It may be a consequence of decreased dopaminergic receptor stimulation." Dopaminergic receptors are found in the renal blood vessels and in the nerves. When stimulated, they dilate renal arteries and help modulate release of the neurotransmitter dopamine. Renal artery dilation helps improve urine output by increasing blood flow through the kidneys. Serotonin is a local hormone that is released from platelets after an injury; it constricts arterioles but dilates capillaries. Dehydration, not overhydration, would decrease renal perfusion. A hemoglobin of 13.2 g/dL (132 mmol/L) is a normal value.

The nurse instructs a client about continuous ambulatory peritoneal dialysis (CAPD). Which statement by the client indicates an accurate understanding of CAPD? 1. "No machinery is involved, and I can pursue my usual activities." 2. "A cycling machine is used, so the risk for infection is minimized." 3. "The drainage system can be used once during the day and a cycling machine for 3 cycles at night." 4. "A portable hemodialysis machine is used so that I will be able to ambulate during the treatment."

"No machinery is involved, and I can pursue my usual activities." CAPD closely approximates normal renal function, and the client will need to infuse and drain the dialysis solution several times a day. No machinery is used, and CAPD is a manual procedure.

The nurse has given the client instructions about crutch safety. Which statement indicates that the client understands the instructions? Select all that apply. 1. "I should not use someone else's crutches." 2. "I need to remove any scatter rugs at home." 3. "I can use crutch tips even when they are wet." 4. "I need to have spare crutches and tips available." 5. "When I'm using the crutches, my arms need to be completely straight."

1. "I should not use someone else's crutches." 2. "I need to remove any scatter rugs at home." 4. "I need to have spare crutches and tips available." The client should use only crutches measured for the client. When assessing for home safety, the nurse ensures that the client knows to remove any scatter rugs and does not walk on highly waxed floors. The tips should be inspected for wear, and spare crutches and tips should be available if needed. Crutch tips should remain dry. If crutch tips get wet, the client should dry them with a cloth or paper towel. When walking with crutches, both elbows need to be flexed not more than 30 degrees when the palms are on the handle.

A client with end-stage renal disease (ESRD) has the problem of ineffective coping. Which nursing interventions are appropriate in working with this client? Select all that apply. 1. Acknowledge the client's feelings. 2. Assess the client and family's coping patterns. 3. Explore the meaning of the illness with the client. 4. Set limits on mood swings and expressions of hostility. 5. Give the client information when the client is ready to listen.

1. Acknowledge the client's feelings. 2. Assess the client and family's coping patterns. 3. Explore the meaning of the illness with the client. 5. Give the client information when the client is ready to listen. Clients with ESRD are likely to experience mood swings or express hostility, anger, and depression, among other responses. The nurse should acknowledge the client's feelings, allow the client to express those feelings, and be supportive. Options 1, 2, 3, and 5 are helpful and appropriate interventions for the client. Setting limits for this client is not client focused, does not allow the client to express concerns, and is nontherapeutic in this situation.

The nurse is caring for a client just after ureterolithotomy and is monitoring the drainage from the ureteral catheter hourly. Suddenly, the catheter stops draining. The nurse assesses the client and determines that which could be the cause of the problem? Select all that apply. 1. Blood clots 2. Mucous shreds 3. Ureteral edema 4. Chemical sediment 5. Catheter displacement

1. Blood clots 2. Mucous shreds 4. Chemical sediment 5. Catheter displacement After ureterolithotomy, a ureteral catheter is put in place. Urine flows freely through it for the first 2 to 3 days. As ureteral edema diminishes, urine leaks around the ureteral catheter and drains directly into the bladder. At this point, drainage through the ureteral catheter diminishes. Immediately after surgery, absence of drainage usually is caused by blockage from blood clots, mucous shreds, chemical sediment, or catheter displacement.

The nurse discusses plans for future treatment options with a client with symptomatic polycystic kidney disease. Which treatment should be included in this discussion? Select all that apply. 1. Hemodialysis 2. Peritoneal dialysis 3. Kidney transplant 4. Bilateral nephrectomy 5. Intense immunosuppression therapy

1. Hemodialysis 3. Kidney transplant 4. Bilateral nephrectomy Polycystic kidney disease is a genetic familial disease in which the kidneys enlarge with cysts that rupture and scar the kidney, eventually resulting in end-stage renal disease. Treatment options include hemodialysis or kidney transplant. Clients usually undergo bilateral nephrectomy to remove the large, painful, cyst-filled kidneys. Peritoneal dialysis is not a treatment option due to the infected cysts. The condition does not respond to immunosuppression.

The nurse is participating in a prostate screening clinic for men. Which complaints by a client are associated with prostatism? Select all that apply. 1. Inability to stop urinating 2. Postvoid dribbling of urine 3. Increased episodes of nocturia 4. Unusual force in urinary stream 5. Hesitancy on initiating the urinary stream

1. Inability to stop urinating 2. Postvoid dribbling of urine 3. Increased episodes of nocturia 5. Hesitancy on initiating the urinary stream Signs and symptoms of prostatism include reduced force and size of urinary stream, intermittent stream, hesitancy in beginning the flow of urine, inability to stop urinating, a sensation of incomplete bladder emptying after voiding, postvoid dribbling of urine, and an increase in episodes of nocturia. These signs and symptoms are the result of pressure of the enlarging prostate on the client's urethra.

The nurse is performing assessment on a client with acute kidney injury who is in the oliguric phase. Which should the nurse expect to note? Select all that apply. 1. Increased serum creatinine level 2. A low and fixed specific gravity 3. Increased blood urea nitrogen (BUN) level 4. A urine output of 600 to 800 mL in a 24-hour period 5. Urine osmolarity of approximately 300 mOsm/kg (300 mmol/kg)

1. Increased serum creatinine level 2. A low and fixed specific gravity 3. Increased blood urea nitrogen (BUN) level 5. Urine osmolarity of approximately 300 mOsm/kg (300 mmol/kg) During the oliguric phase of acute kidney injury, serum creatinine levels increase by approximately 1 mg/dL (88 mcmol/L) per day, and the BUN level increases by approximately 20 mg/dL (7.1 mmol/L) per day. The specific gravity of the urine is low and fixed, and the urine osmolarity approaches that of the client's serum level, or about 300 mOsm/kg (300 mmol/kg). Urine output is less than 100 mL in a 24-hour period.

A client is complaining of knee pain. The knee is swollen, reddened, and warm to the touch. The nurse interprets that the client's signs and symptoms are compatible with which conditions? Select all that apply. 1. Infection 2. Recent injury 3. Inflammation 4. Degenerative disease 5. Developmental retardation

1. Infection 2. Recent injury 3. Inflammation Redness and heat are associated with musculoskeletal inflammation, infection, or a recent injury. Degenerative disease is accompanied by pain, but there is no redness. Swelling may or may not occur. These symptoms are not specifically associated with developmental retardation.

Which cast care instructions should the nurse provide to a client who just had a plaster cast applied to the right forearm? Select all that apply. 1. Keep the cast clean and dry. 2. Allow the cast 24 to 72 hours to dry. 3. Keep the cast and extremity elevated. 4. Expect tingling and numbness in the extremity. 5. Use a hair dryer set on a warm to hot setting to dry the cast. 6. Use a soft, padded object that will fit under the cast to scratch the skin under the cast.

1. Keep the cast clean and dry. 2. Allow the cast 24 to 72 hours to dry. 3. Keep the cast and extremity elevated. A plaster cast takes 24 to 72 hours to dry (synthetic casts dry in 20 minutes). The cast and extremity should be elevated to reduce edema if prescribed. A wet cast is handled with the palms of the hand until it is dry, and the extremity is turned (unless contraindicated) so that all sides of the wet cast will dry. A cool setting on the hair dryer can be used to dry a plaster cast (heat cannot be used on a plaster cast because the cast heats up and burns the skin). The cast needs to be kept clean and dry, and the client is instructed not to stick anything under the cast because of the risk of breaking skin integrity. The client is instructed to monitor the extremity for circulatory impairment, such as pain, swelling, discoloration, tingling, numbness, coolness, or diminished pulse. The health care provider is notified immediately if circulatory impairment occurs.

The nurse is reviewing the urinalysis results for a client with glomerulonephritis. Which findings should the nurse expect to note? Select all that apply. 1. Proteinuria 2. Hematuria 3. Positive ketones 4. A low specific gravity 5. A dark and smoky appearance of the urine

1. Proteinuria 2. Hematuria 5. A dark and smoky appearance of the urine In the client with glomerulonephritis, characteristic findings in the urinalysis report are gross proteinuria and hematuria. The specific gravity is elevated, and the urine may appear dark and smoky. Positive ketones are not associated with this condition but may indicate a secondary problem.

The nurse is caring for a client diagnosed with osteomyelitis. Which data noted in the client's record are supportive of this diagnosis? Select all that apply. 1. Pyrexia 2. Elevated potassium level 3. Elevated white blood cell count 4. Elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate 5. Bone scan impression indicative of infection

1. Pyrexia 3. Elevated white blood cell count 4. Elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate 5. Bone scan impression indicative of infection Osteomyelitis is an infection of the bone, bone marrow, and surrounding tissue. Clinical data indicative of osteomyelitis include pyrexia, elevated white blood cell count, elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate, and a bone scan, computed tomography scan, or magnetic resonance imaging scan indicative of infection. Elevated potassium level is not specifically associated with osteomyelitis.

The nurse has delegated the ambulation of a client to the unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP). Which actions by the UAP support a clear understanding of the appropriate steps to carry out this task safely? Select all that apply. 1. Remove clutter that may interfere with ambulation. 2. Assist client in applying nonskid shoes before ambulation. 3. Instruct client to sit up on the bedside and dangle before ambulation. 4. Observe the client for dizziness during ambulation and report immediately. 5. Understand that the client may experience nausea as a normal expectation during ambulation.

1. Remove clutter that may interfere with ambulation. 2. Assist client in applying nonskid shoes before ambulation. 3. Instruct client to sit up on the bedside and dangle before ambulation. 4. Observe the client for dizziness during ambulation and report immediately. When delegating the task of ambulation to a UAP, the nurse should ensure that the UAP understands instructions before ambulation, including making sure that clutter is removed in the area of ambulation; assisting the client in applying nonskid socks before ambulation; instructing the client to sit up on the bedside and dangle before ambulation; and observing the client for dizziness and reporting this finding immediately. The client should not experience nausea, dizziness, or diaphoresis or become pale during ambulation under normal conditions.

The nurse is collecting data related to a client's risk factors associated with osteoporosis. Which data should the nurse include? Select all that apply. 1. Thin body build 2. Smoking history 3. Postmenopausal age 4. Chronic corticosteroid use 5. High intake of dairy products 6. Family history of osteoporosis

1. Thin body build 2. Smoking history 3. Postmenopausal age 4. Chronic corticosteroid use 6. Family history of osteoporosis A high intake of dairy products is not associated with osteoporosis because dairy products are high in calcium. Other than low calcium intake, other risk factors for osteoporosis include a thin body frame, sedentary lifestyle, cigarette smoking, excessive alcohol intake, chronic illness, long-term use of corticosteroids, postmenopausal age, and a family history of osteoporosis.

The nurse is caring for a client with acute back pain. Which are the most likely causes of this problem? Select all that apply. 1. Twisting of the spine 2. Curvature of the spine 3. Hyperflexion of the spine 4. Sciatic nerve inflammation 5. Degeneration of the facet joints 6. Herniation of an intervertebral disk

1. Twisting of the spine 3. Hyperflexion of the spine 6. Herniation of an intervertebral disk Acute back pain is sudden in onset and is usually precipitated by injury to the lower back, such as with hyperflexion, twisting, or disk herniation. Scoliosis (curvature), sciatica, and degenerative vertebral changes are more likely to cause chronic back pain, which can be more insidious in onset and may also be accompanied by degeneration of the intervertebral disk.

The nurse measures the cardiac output of a client and finds it to be 6 L/min. Which amount of kidney perfusion should the nurse anticipate? 1. 100 to 300 mL/min 2. 500 to 1000 mL/min 3. 1200 to 1500 mL/min 4. 2000 to 2500 mL/min

1200 to 1500 mL/min The kidneys normally receive about 20% to 25% of the cardiac output when the client is at rest. If the cardiac output is 6 L/min, the kidneys receive 1.2 to 1.5 L/min, which is equal to 1200 to 1500 mL/min.

A client is about to begin hemodialysis. Which measures should the nurse employ in the care of the client? Select all that apply. 1. Using sterile technique for needle insertion 2. Using standard precautions in the care of the client 3. Giving the client a mask to wear during connection to the machine 4. Wearing full protective clothing such as goggles, mask, gloves, and apron 5. Covering the connection site with a bath blanket to enhance extremity warmth

1. Using sterile technique for needle insertion 2. Using standard precautions in the care of the client 3. Giving the client a mask to wear during connection to the machine 4. Wearing full protective clothing such as goggles, mask, gloves, and apron Infection is a major concern with hemodialysis. For that reason, the use of sterile technique and the application of a face mask for both nurse and client are extremely important. It also is imperative that standard precautions be followed, which includes the use of goggles, mask, gloves, and apron. The connection site should not be covered; it should be visible so that the nurse can assess for bleeding, ischemia, and infection at the site during the hemodialysis procedure.

The nurse is planning a teaching session with a client who has chronic kidney disease (CKD) about managing the condition between dialysis treatments. The nurse should plan to include the instruction that weight gain between dialysis treatments should be ideally what value? 1. 11 to 13 lbs (5 to 6 kg) 2. 4.5 to 9 lbs (2 to 4 kg) 3. 2 to 3 lbs (1 to 1.5 kg) 4. 1 to 2 lbs (0.5 to 1.0 kg)

2 to 3 lbs (1 to 1.5 kg) Limiting weight gain to 2 to 3 lbs (1 to 1.5 kg) between dialysis treatments helps prevent the hypotension that occurs with the removal of large volumes of fluid during dialysis. The nurse instructs the client in how to manage daily fluid allotment to assist the client in staying within a low fluid intake range to prevent excess weight gain. Options 1, 2, and 4 are incorrect.

A client with a 4-day-old lumbar vertebral fracture is experiencing muscle spasms. Which are interventions to aid the client in relieving the spasm? Select all that apply. 1. Ice 2. Heat 3. Analgesics 4. Muscle relaxers 5. Intermittent traction

2. Heat 3. Analgesics 4. Muscle relaxers 5. Intermittent traction Heat, analgesics, muscle relaxers, and traction all may be used to relieve the pain of muscle spasm in the client with a vertebral fracture. Ice is applied to a painful site only for the first 48 to 72 hours (depending on the health care provider's preference) after an injury. Application of ice to the spine of a client could be uncomfortable and could result in feelings of being chilled.

A client has just undergone spinal fusion after experiencing herniation of a lumbar disk. The nurse should include which interventions to maintain client safety after this procedure? Select all that apply. 1. Use the overhead trapeze. 2. Keep the head of the bed flat. 3. Place pillows under the length of the legs. 4. Use logrolling technique for repositioning. 5. Assist the client with eating meals and drinking fluids.

2. Keep the head of the bed flat. 3. Place pillows under the length of the legs. 4. Use logrolling technique for repositioning. 5. Assist the client with eating meals and drinking fluids. After a client has spinal fusion, the head of bed generally is kept flat. Because the client is in the flat position, the nurse should assist the client with eating meals and drinking fluids. The client is logrolled from side to side as prescribed. Pillows may be placed under the entire length of the legs, in accordance with surgeon preference, to relieve tension on the lower back. The use of an overhead trapeze may decrease control of spinal movement and is contraindicated because its use could promote twisting of the spine after surgery.

The nurse has provided instructions to a client with a urinary tract infection regarding foods and fluids to consume that will acidify the urine. Which fluids should the nurse include in the client's teaching plan that will aid in acidifying the urine? Select all that apply. 1. Milk 2. Prune juice 3. Apricot juice 4. Cranberry juice 5. Carbonated drinks

2. Prune juice 3. Apricot juice 4. Cranberry juice Acidification of the urine inhibits multiplication of bacteria. Fluids that acidify the urine include prune, apricot, cranberry, and plum juice. Carbonated drinks should be avoided because they increase urine alkalinity. Two glasses of milk a day can make the urine more alkaline, which could aid in the development of kidney stones.

Which tests can be used to diagnose gout? Select all that apply. 1. Renal ultrasound 2. Serum uric acid level 3. Bone marrow biopsy 4. Urinalysis with culture 5. Synovial fluid aspiration 6. 24-hour urine uric acid level

2. Serum uric acid level 5. Synovial fluid aspiration 6. 24-hour urine uric acid level Diagnostic tests for gout include serum uric acid level and 24-hour urine uric acid level, as well as synovial fluid aspiration and x-ray of the affected areas. Renal ultrasound, bone marrow biopsy, and urinalysis with culture are not specifically associated with gout; they test for a variety of other conditions.

The nurse is preparing to perform a discharge teaching with a client who is started on hemodialysis. Which information should the nurse provide regarding the hemodialysis schedule? 1. 5 hours of treatment 2 days per week 2. 2 hours of treatment 6 days per week 3. 3 to 4 hours of treatment 3 days per week 4. 2 to 3 hours of treatment 5 days per week

3 to 4 hours of treatment 3 days per week The typical schedule for hemodialysis is 3 to 4 hours of treatment 3 days per week. Individual adjustments are made according to variables such as the size of the client, type of dialyzer, rate of blood flow, personal client preferences, and other factors.

The nurse is caring for a client after the application of a plaster cast for a fractured left radius. The nurse should suspect impairment with the neurovascular status of the client's casted extremity if which findings are noted? Select all that apply. 1. Capillary refill is less than 3 seconds 2. Pulses present and with swollen, pink fingers 3. Client report of severe, deep, unrelenting pain 4. Client report of pain as nurse assesses finger movement 5. Client report of numbness and tingling sensation in the fingers

3. Client report of severe, deep, unrelenting pain 4. Client report of pain as nurse assesses finger movement 5. Client report of numbness and tingling sensation in the fingers The pressure in compartment syndrome, if unrelieved, will cause permanent damage to nerve and muscle tissue distal to the pressure. Circulatory damage may result in necrosis. Nerve and muscle damage may result in permanent contractures, deformity of the extremity, and functional impairment. Normal capillary refill time is 3 seconds or less. Pink appearance and a pulse indicate adequate blood flow; swelling is expected after a fracture. Client report of severe, deep, unrelenting pain; client report of numbness and tingling sensation; and client report of pain as the nurse assesses finger movement are indicative of development of compartment syndrome.

The nurse is working on a medical-surgical nursing unit and is caring for several clients with chronic kidney disease. The nurse interprets that which client is best suited for peritoneal dialysis as a treatment option? 1. A client with severe heart failure 2. A client with a history of ruptured diverticula 3. A client with a history of herniated lumbar disk 4. A client with a history of 3 previous abdominal surgeries

A client with severe heart failure Peritoneal dialysis may be the treatment option of choice for clients with severe cardiovascular disease. Severe cardiac disease can be worsened by the rapid shifts in fluid, electrolytes, urea, and glucose that occur with hemodialysis. For the same reason, peritoneal dialysis may be indicated for the client with diabetes mellitus. Contraindications to peritoneal dialysis include diseases of the abdomen such as ruptured diverticula or malignancies; extensive abdominal surgeries; history of peritonitis; obesity; and a history of back problems, which could be aggravated by the fluid weight of the dialysate. Severe disease of the vascular system also may be a relative contraindication.

The nurse is conducting health screening for osteoporosis. Which client is at greatest risk of developing this disorder? 1. A 25-year-old woman who runs 2. A 36-year-old man who has asthma 3. A 70-year-old man who consumes excess alcohol 4. A sedentary 65-year-old woman who smokes cigarettes

A sedentary 65-year-old woman who smokes cigarettes Risk factors for osteoporosis include female gender, being postmenopausal, advanced age, a low-calcium diet, excessive alcohol intake, being sedentary, and smoking cigarettes. Long-term use of corticosteroids, anticonvulsants, and/or furosemide also increases the risk.

A client who has had spinal fusion and insertion of hardware is extremely concerned with the perceived lengthy rehabilitation period. The client expresses concerns about finances and the ability to return to prior employment. The nurse understands that the client's needs could best be addressed by referral to which member of the health care team? 1. The surgeon 2. A social worker 3. The physical therapist 4. The clinical nurse specialist

A social worker After spinal surgery, concerns about finances and employment are best handled by referral to a social worker. This professional can provide the most helpful information about resources available to the client. The clinical nurse specialist and the surgeon do not have information related to financial resources. The physical therapist has the best knowledge of techniques for increasing mobility and endurance.

A client who has had a total knee arthroplasty tells the nurse that there is pain with extension of the knee. The nurse should perform which action? 1. Administer an analgesic. 2. Notify the health care provider. 3. Immobilize the knee temporarily. 4. Put the client's knee through full passive range of motion.

Administer an analgesic. Pain with knee extension is a common complaint of clients after knee arthroplasty; therefore, administering an analgesic would be the appropriate action. Immobilizing the knee will not help. The pain may be the result of a flexion contracture that developed preoperatively as the client tried to reduce the pain by keeping the knee partially flexed much of the time. The nurse should encourage the client to keep the knee extended and administer analgesics as needed. Pain is expected postoperatively, so there is no need to notify the health care provider based on the symptom described. Full passive range of motion can be harmful to the knee replacement.

The nurse is giving a client with a left leg cast crutch-walking instructions using the three-point gait. The client is allowed touch-down of the affected leg. The nurse should tell the client to perform which action? 1. Advance the crutches along with both legs simultaneously. 2. Advance the crutches along with the right leg, and then advance the left leg. 3. Advance the crutches along with the left leg, and then advance the right leg. 4. Advance the left leg along with right crutch, and then the right leg and left crutch.

Advance the crutches along with the left leg, and then advance the right leg. A three-point gait requires good balance and arm strength. The crutches are advanced with the affected leg, and then the unaffected leg is moved forward. Option 1 describes a swing-through gait. Option 2 describes a three-point gait used for a right leg problem. Option 4 describes a two-point gait.

The nurse is preparing to teach ostomy care to a client who has just had a urinary diversion; the client expresses concern about body appearance. Which client action indicates that the best initial positive adaptation is being made? 1. Agrees to look at the ostomy 2. Asks to defer ostomy care to the spouse 3. Asks to wait 1 more day before beginning to learn ostomy care 4. States that ostomy care is the nurse's job while the client is in the hospital

Agrees to look at the ostomy The best initial positive step in learning to care for an ostomy and to accept it as a part of the self is to be able to look at the ostomy. Once the client is able to look at the ostomy and touch it, the client can proceed more successfully to learn about ostomy care. The other options all indicate a deferral or refusal on the part of the client, which makes them less than optimal choices.

Diagnostic studies are prescribed for a client with suspected Paget's disease. In reviewing the client's record, the nurse would expect to note that the health care provider has prescribed which laboratory study? 1. Platelet count 2. Alkaline phosphatase 3. White blood cell count 4. Complete blood cell count

Alkaline phosphatase Paget's disease is a chronic metabolic disorder in which bone is excessively broken down and reformed. The result is bone that is structurally disorganized, causing bone to be weak with increased risk for bowing of long bones and fractures. Diagnostic laboratory findings for Paget's disease include an elevated serum alkaline phosphatase level and elevated urinary hydroxyproline excretion. The remaining options are unrelated to diagnostic evaluation of this disease.

A client is treated in a health care provider's office for a sprained ankle after a fall. Radiographic examination has ruled out a fracture. Before sending the client home, the nurse plans to teach the client to avoid which activity in the next 24 hours? 1. Resting the foot 2. Applying a heating pad 3. Applying an elastic compression bandage 4. Elevating the ankle on a pillow while sitting or lying down

Applying a heating pad Soft tissue injuries such as sprains are treated by RICE (rest, ice, compression, and elevation) for the first 24 hours after the injury. Ice is applied intermittently for 20 to 30 minutes at a time. Heat is not used in the first 24 hours because it could increase venous congestion, which would increase edema and pain.

A client has several fractures of the lower leg, which has been placed in an external fixation device. The client is upset about the appearance of the leg, which is edematous. The nurse documents which client problem in the plan of care? 1. Feeling isolated 2. Body image alteration 3. Inability to perform activities 4. Inability to engage in physical mobility

Body image alteration The client experiences an altered image of the body related to a change in the structure and function of the affected leg. No data in the question support a client's problem of feeling isolated or unable to perform activities or engage in physical mobility.

The nurse is evaluating goal achievement for a client in traction with impaired physical mobility. The nurse determines that the plan of care needs to be revised if which outcome is noted? 1. Intact skin surfaces 2. Bowel movement every 4 days 3. Active range of motion of uninvolved joints 4. Absence of redness and swelling in the affected extremity

Bowel movement every 4 days A bowel movement every 4 days is insufficient. The client should be having a bowel movement a minimum of every other day. Expected outcomes for impaired physical mobility for the client in traction include absence of thrombophlebitis (redness and swelling in the affected extremity), active range of motion to uninvolved joints, clear lung sounds, intact skin, and bowel movement every other day.

A client is admitted to the emergency department with an open fracture of the right tibia. What intervention is most appropriate for this client? 1. Remove the client's shoes. 2. Place the client in a semi Fowler's position. 3. Check the neurovascular status of the area distal to the extremity. 4. Apply a tourniquet above the area of bleeding and loosen it every 15 minutes.

Check the neurovascular status of the area distal to the extremity. To prevent further damage, the neurovascular status must be assessed for temperature, color, sensation, movement, and capillary refill. Tourniquets are not used to control hemorrhage in extremities because of the risk of tissue ischemia. Direct pressure is applied at the site and over the proximal artery nearest the fracture if bleeding occurs. Clients need to be kept in a supine position to help prevent hypotension and shock. Shoes are not removed because this action may cause increased trauma.

Which finding noted in the client on continuous ambulatory peritoneal dialysis (CAPD) should be reported to the health care provider (HCP)? 1. Cloudy yellow dialysate output 2. Client refusal to take the stool softener 3. Previous evening's dwell time of 8 hours 4. Peritoneal catheter site is not red, and the skin has grown around the cuff

Cloudy yellow dialysate output CAPD is a form of peritoneal dialysis in which exchanges are completed 4 or 5 times daily. Peritonitis is a major complication of this type of dialysis. Peritonitis can be recognized by cloudy dialysate outflow, fever, abdominal guarding (board-like abdomen), abdominal pain, pain on inflow, malaise, nausea, and vomiting. The client has the right to refuse medications, but it also is important for the nurse to explain the importance of medications to the client. Typically the dwell time during the night is for the entire time that the client sleeps, which could be around 7 to 9 hours. The peritoneal site should have intact skin. The skin grows around the peritoneal catheter cuff, and this prevents tunnel (around catheter) infections.

A client has urinary calculi composed of uric acid. The nurse is teaching the client dietary measures to prevent further development of uric acid calculi. The nurse should inform the client that it is acceptable to consume which item? 1. Steak 2. Shrimp 3. Chicken liver 4. Cottage cheese

Cottage cheese With a uric acid stone, the client should limit intake of foods high in purines. Organ meats, sardines, herring, and other high-purine foods are eliminated from the diet. Intake of foods with moderate levels of purines, such as red and white meats and some seafood, also is limited. Avoiding the consumption of milk and dairy products is a recommended dietary change for calculi composed of calcium stones but is acceptable for the client with a uric acid stone.

The home care nurse is providing instructions to a client regarding the use of crutches. The client asks the nurse to demonstrate the method for going down the stairs with the crutches. How should the nurse accurately demonstrate this technique? 1. Crutches and the affected leg down, followed by the unaffected leg 2. Crutches and the unaffected leg down, followed by the affected leg 3. Unaffected leg down first, followed by the crutches and the affected leg 4. Affected leg down first, followed by the crutches and the unaffected leg

Crutches and the affected leg down, followed by the unaffected leg When going down the stairs with crutches, the client should be instructed to move the crutches and the affected leg down and then to move the unaffected leg down. To go up the stairs, the client should first move up the unaffected leg and then move up the affected leg and crutches.

The nurse is collecting data from a client. Which symptom described by the client is characteristic of an early symptom of benign prostatic hyperplasia? 1. Nocturia 2. Scrotal edema 3. Occasional constipation 4. Decreased force in the stream of urine

Decreased force in the stream of urine Decreased force in the stream of urine is an early symptom of benign prostatic hyperplasia. The stream later becomes weak and dribbling. The client then may develop hematuria, frequency, urgency, urge incontinence, and nocturia. If untreated, complete obstruction and urinary retention can occur. Constipation or scrotal edema is not associated with benign prostatic hyperplasia.

The nurse is reviewing the assessment findings for a client with a diagnosis of nephrotic syndrome. Which should the nurse expect to note in this client? 1. Decreased serum lipids 2. Signs of fluid volume deficit 3. Decreased protein in the urine 4. Decreased serum albumin levels

Decreased serum albumin levels Nephrotic syndrome describes a variety of signs and symptoms that accompany any condition that markedly impairs filtration by glomerular capillary membranes and results in increased permeability to protein. Hallmark signs and symptoms of this syndrome include increased serum lipids, edema, increased excretion of protein in the urine, and decreased serum albumin levels.

The nurse is caring for a client diagnosed with osteomyelitis. Which mechanism of the disease process can result in necrosis of the bone? 1. Devascularization 2. Infection of the bone 3. Decreased bone mass 4. Decreased bone density

Devascularization Osteomyelitis is an infectious process affecting the bone, bone marrow, and surrounding soft tissue. A microorganism gains entry into the blood and grows, causing increased pressure on the bone, leading to ischemia and ultimately necrosis as a result of devascularization. Infection of the bone occurs but is not specifically related to necrosis of the bone. Decreased bone mass and decreased bone density are also not related to necrosis of the bone.

The nurse is preparing to perform pin site care for a client in skeletal traction. On assessment of the pin site, the nurse notes the presence of serous drainage. Which nursing action would be appropriate? 1. Document the findings. 2. Notify the health care provider (HCP). 3. Remove 2 pounds (0.9 kg) of weight from the traction. 4. Lift the weights and place them on the bed so that the HCP can assess the client.

Document the findings. A small amount of serous oozing is expected at the pin insertion site. The nurse would document the findings. It is not necessary to notify the HCP. The nurse would not add or remove any weight from the client's traction setup because this would disrupt the alignment of the fracture.

The nurse is caring for a client who was just admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of a fractured right hip sustained from a fall 5 hours earlier. The nurse creates a plan of care for the client and includes interventions related to monitoring for signs of fat embolism. Which findings should be listed in the care plan as a sign/symptom of fat embolism? 1. Fever and chills 2. Dyspnea and chest pain 3. External rotation of the right leg 4. Pallor, paresthesia, and pulselessness of the right lower leg

Dyspnea and chest pain The signs of fat embolism are associated with alterations in respiratory status or neurological status. Dyspnea, petechiae, and chest pain are signs of fat embolism. External rotation of the leg is indicative of the hip fracture itself. Fever and chills indicate signs of infection, and pallor, paresthesia, and pulselessness indicate signs of severe circulatory impairment.

A male client has a tentative diagnosis of urethritis. The nurse should assess the client for which manifestation of the disorder? 1. Hematuria and pyuria 2. Dysuria and proteinuria 3. Hematuria and urgency 4. Dysuria and penile discharge

Dysuria and penile discharge Urethritis in the male client often results from chlamydial infection and is characterized by dysuria, which is accompanied by a clear to mucopurulent discharge. Because this disorder often coexists with gonorrhea, diagnostic tests are done for both and include culture and rapid assays. Hematuria is not associated with urethritis. Proteinuria is associated with kidney dysfunction.

The nurse is receiving a client from the postanesthesia care unit following left above-knee amputation. Which is the priority nursing action at this time? 1. Elevate the foot of the bed. 2. Position the residual limb flat on the bed. 3. Put the bed in a reverse Trendelenburg's position. 4. Keep the residual limb flat, with the client lying on his or her operative side.

Elevate the foot of the bed. Edema of the residual limb is controlled by elevating the foot of the bed for the first 24 hours after surgery. After the first 24 hours, the residual limb is placed flat on the bed to reduce hip contracture. Edema is also controlled by residual limb wrapping techniques.

The nurse is providing instructions regarding the complications of peritoneal dialysis. The nurse emphasizes that onset of peritonitis, a serious complication, is most likely to be associated with which clinical manifestation? 1. Fever 2. Fatigue 3. Clear dialysate output 4. Leaking around the catheter site

Fever The signs of peritonitis include fever, nausea, malaise, rebound abdominal tenderness, and cloudy dialysate output. Fatigue may be associated with peritonitis, but fever is the most likely sign. Leaking around the catheter site is not an indication of peritonitis.

The nurse is assessing a client with epididymitis. The nurse anticipates which findings on physical examination? 1. Fever, diarrhea, groin pain, and ecchymosis 2. Nausea, painful scrotal edema, and ecchymosis 3. Fever, nausea, vomiting, and painful scrotal edema 4. Diarrhea, groin pain, testicular torsion, and scrotal edema

Fever, nausea, vomiting, and painful scrotal edema Typical signs and symptoms of epididymitis include scrotal pain and edema, which often are accompanied by fever, nausea and vomiting, and chills. Epididymitis most often is caused by infection, although sometimes it can be caused by trauma. The remaining options do not present all of the accurate manifestations.

A client seeks treatment in the hospital emergency department for a lower leg injury. Deformity of the lower portion of the leg is evident, and the injured leg appears shorter than the other. The area is painful, swollen, and beginning to become ecchymotic. The nurse interprets that this client has experienced which injury? 1. Strain 2. Sprain 3. Fracture 4. Contusion

Fracture Typical signs and symptoms of fracture include pain, loss of function in the area, deformity, shortening of the extremity, crepitus, swelling, and ecchymosis. Not all fractures lead to the development of every sign or symptom. A strain results from a pulling force on the muscle, resulting in soreness and pain with muscle use. A sprain is an injury to a ligament caused by a wrenching or twisting motion and is manifested by pain, swelling, and inability to use the joint or bear weight normally. A contusion results from a blow to soft tissue and causes pain, swelling, and ecchymosis.

The nurse is assessing a client with a shortened, adducted, and externally rotated left leg. On the basis of this finding, which condition should the nurse anticipate? 1. Fractured knee 2. Dislocated knee 3. Fracture of the femoral neck 4. Fracture of the midshaft of the femur

Fracture of the femoral neck Typical signs after femoral neck fracture include shortening of the affected leg, adduction, and external rotation. The client may report slight groin pain or pain in the medial side of the knee. Moving the fractured extremity increases the pain significantly. The signs noted in the question are not associated with a fractured or dislocated knee or a fractured femur.

The nurse is performing an assessment on a client after a cystoscopy. Which assessment finding indicates a need to notify the health care provider (HCP)? 1. A temperature of 99.4°F (37.4°C) 2. Grossly bloody urine with clots 3. A bluish or green tinge to the urine 4. A blood pressure of 120/82 mm Hg

Grossly bloody urine with clots Grossly bloody urine with clots following cystoscopy is always an abnormal finding and should be reported to the HCP immediately. The client may have clear or blood-tinged urine after cystoscopy. If a contrast agent such as methylene blue is used, the urine may have an unusual bluish or green tinge. A blood pressure of 120/82 mm Hg and a temperature of 99.4°F (37.4°C) are not abnormal findings at this time.

The nursing student is caring for a client with benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH). The nursing instructor asks the student to identify the clinical manifestations associated with this condition. The student needs further teaching if the student states that which finding is an early symptom of BPH? 1. Nocturia 2. Hematuria 3. Decreased force of urine stream 4. Difficulty initiating urine stream

Hematuria Hematuria is not an early sign of BPH. Nocturia, decreased force of urine stream, and difficulty initiating urine stream are all early signs of BPH.

The nurse is instructing a client with diabetes mellitus about peritoneal dialysis. The nurse tells the client that it is important to maintain the prescribed dwell time for the dialysis because of the risk of which complication? 1. Peritonitis 2. Hyperglycemia 3. Hyperphosphatemia 4. Disequilibrium syndrome

Hyperglycemia An extended dwell time increases the risk of hyperglycemia in the client with diabetes mellitus as a result of absorption of glucose from the dialysate and electrolyte changes. Diabetic clients may require extra insulin when receiving peritoneal dialysis. Peritonitis is a risk associated with breaks in aseptic technique. Hyperphosphatemia is an electrolyte imbalance that occurs with renal dysfunction. Disequilibrium syndrome is a complication associated with hemodialysis.

A client with glomerulonephritis has developed acute kidney injury (AKI) as a complication. The nurse should expect to note which abnormal finding documented on the client's medical record? 1. Bradycardia 2. Hypertension 3. Decreased cardiac output 4. Decreased central venous pressure

Hypertension AKI caused by glomerulonephritis is classified as an intrinsic or intrarenal cause of renal failure. It is commonly manifested by hypertension, tachycardia, oliguria, lethargy, edema, and other signs of fluid overload. AKI from a prerenal cause is characterized by decreased blood pressure, tachycardia, decreased cardiac output, and decreased central venous pressure. Bradycardia is not part of the clinical picture for any form of kidney failure.

A client has developed acute kidney injury (AKI) as a complication of glomerulonephritis. Which should the nurse expect to observe in the client? 1. Bradycardia 2. Hypertension 3. Decreased cardiac output 4. Decreased central venous pressure

Hypertension AKI caused by glomerulonephritis is classified as intrinsic or intrarenal failure. This form of AKI commonly manifests with hypertension, tachycardia, oliguria, lethargy, edema, and other signs of fluid overload. AKI from prerenal causes is characterized by decreased blood pressure or a recent history of the same, tachycardia, and decreased cardiac output and central venous pressure. Bradycardia is not part of the clinical picture for any form of renal failure.

Which teaching point is the priority when the nurse is teaching the client about caring for a plaster cast? 1. The cast gives off heat as it dries. 2. The client can bear weight on the cast in 1 hour. 3. A stockinette and soft padding are put over the leg area before casting. 4. Immediately report any increase in drainage or interruption in cast integrity.

Immediately report any increase in drainage or interruption in cast integrity. Increases in drainage or interruption in cast integrity will affect healing and could lead to osteomyelitis. To apply a cast, the skin is washed and dried well. A stockinette is placed smoothly and evenly over the area to be casted, followed by a roll of padding. The plaster is then rolled onto the padding, and the edges are trimmed or smoothed if needed. A plaster cast gives off heat as it dries. A plaster cast can tolerate weight-bearing once it is dry, which varies from 24 to 72 hours, depending on the nature and thickness of the cast.

The nurse witnesses a client sustain a fall and suspects that the right leg may be broken. The nurse should take which priority action? 1. Take a set of vital signs. 2. Call the radiology department. 3. Reassure the client that everything will be fine. 4. Immobilize the right leg before moving the client.

Immobilize the right leg before moving the client. When a fracture is suspected, it is imperative that the area be splinted before the client is moved. Emergency help should be called for if the client is not hospitalized, and a health care provider is called for the hospitalized client. The nurse should remain with the client and provide realistic reassurance. The nurse does not prescribe radiographs. Telling the client that everything will be fine is nontherapeutic. Although vital signs will be taken, the priority is to immobilize the leg.

The nurse is performing a neurovascular assessment on a client with a cast on the left lower leg. The nurse notes the presence of edema in the foot below the cast. The nurse should make which interpretation about this finding? 1. Arterial insufficiency 2. Impaired venous return 3. Impaired arterial circulation 4. The presence of an infection

Impaired venous return Edema in the extremity indicates impaired venous return. Signs of impaired arterial circulation in the limb include coolness and pallor of the skin and a diminished arterial pulse. Signs of infection under a cast area would include odor or purulent drainage from the cast and the presence of "hot spots," which are areas of the cast that feel warmer to the touch than the rest of the cast.

A client immobilized in skeletal leg traction complains of being bored and restless. Based on these complaints, the nurse identifies which client problem as the priority? 1. Lack of control 2. Lack of physical mobility 3. Inability to entertain self 4. Inability to maintain health

Inability to entertain self A manifestation of the inability to entertain self is expression of boredom by the client. The question does not identify difficulties with coordination, range of motion, or muscle strength, which would indicate lack of physical mobility. The question also does not relate to client feelings of inability to take responsibility for meeting basic health practices (inability to maintain health) or to lack of control.

The nurse is planning discharge teaching for a client admitted with a fracture of the leg that does not extend all the way through the bone. The nurse should include information about which types of fractures? 1. Open 2. Displaced 3. Complete 4. Incomplete

Incomplete An incomplete fracture is one that extends through only part of the thickness of the bone. These fractures usually are nondisplaced, meaning that the bone remains in the normal position. An open (or compound) fracture is one in which the fractured bone protrudes through the skin, disrupting soft tissue. A complete fracture is one that extends through the full thickness of bone and often is displaced, meaning that the bone moves out of normal position.

The nurse provides discharge instructions to a client after prostatectomy. What is the priority discharge instruction for this client? 1. Avoid driving a car for at least 1 week. 2. Increase fluid intake to at least 2.5 L/day. 3. Avoid lifting any objects greater than 30 pounds (13.6 kg). 4. Contact the health care provider (HCP) if small clots are noticed in the urine.

Increase fluid intake to at least 2.5 L/day. A daily intake of 2.5 L of fluid should be maintained to limit clot formation and prevent infection. Driving a car and sitting for long periods are restricted for at least 3 weeks. The client should be instructed to avoid lifting objects heavier than 20 pounds (9 kg) for at least 6 weeks. Passing small pieces of tissue or blood clots in the urine for up to 2 weeks after surgery is expected and does not necessitate contacting the HCP.

The nurse is caring for a client at risk for fat embolism because of a fracture of the left femur and pelvis sustained in a fall. The client also sustained a head injury, is comatose, and is unable to communicate verbally. Which assessment findings should the nurse identify as early signs of possible fat embolism? 1. Decreased heart rate and increased restlessness 2. Decreased heart rate and decreased respiratory rate 3. Increased heart rate and adventitious breath sounds 4. Increased heart rate and increased oxygen saturation

Increased heart rate and adventitious breath sounds Fat embolism commonly causes signs and symptoms related to respiratory or neurological impairment. Because the client is unable to speak, it may be difficult to immediately assess early changes in neurological status. However, adventitious breath sounds and an increased heart rate may be easily and quickly observed, even before the client demonstrates labored breathing. The remaining options are incorrect.

A week after kidney transplantation, a client develops a temperature of 101°F (38.3°C), the blood pressure is elevated, and there is tenderness over the transplanted kidney. The serum creatinine is rising and urine output is decreased. The x-ray indicates that the transplanted kidney is enlarged. Based on these assessment findings, the nurse anticipates which treatment? 1. Antibiotic therapy 2. Peritoneal dialysis 3. Removal of the transplanted kidney 4. Increased immunosuppression therapy

Increased immunosuppression therapy Acute rejection most often occurs within 1 week after transplantation but can occur any time posttransplantation. Clinical manifestations include fever, malaise, elevated white blood cell count, acute hypertension, graft tenderness, and manifestations of deteriorating renal function. Treatment consists of increasing immunosuppressive therapy. Antibiotics are used to treat infection. Peritoneal dialysis cannot be used with a newly transplanted kidney due to the recent surgery. Removal of the transplanted kidney is indicated with hyperacute rejection, which occurs within 48 hours of the transplant surgery.

The nurse is reviewing the list of components contained in the peritoneal dialysis solution with the client. The client asks the nurse about the purpose of the glucose contained in the solution. The nurse should base the response on knowing that which is the action of the glucose in the solution? 1. Decreases the risk of peritonitis 2. Prevents disequilibrium syndrome 3. Increases osmotic pressure to produce ultrafiltration 4. Prevents excess glucose from being removed from the client

Increases osmotic pressure to produce ultrafiltration Increasing the glucose concentration makes the solution more hypertonic. The more hypertonic the solution, the higher the osmotic pressure for ultrafiltration and thus the greater the amount of fluid removed from the client during an exchange. The remaining options do not identify the purpose of the glucose.

A client being measured for crutches asks the nurse why the crutches cannot rest up underneath the arm for extra support. The nurse responds knowing that which would most likely result from this improper crutch measurement? 1. A fall and further injury 2. Injury to the brachial plexus nerves 3. Skin breakdown in the area of the axilla 4. Impaired range of motion while the client ambulates

Injury to the brachial plexus nerves Crutches are measured so that the tops are 2 to 3 fingerwidths from the axillae. This ensures that the client's axillae are not resting on the crutch or bearing the weight of the crutch, which could result in injury to the nerves of the brachial plexus. Although the conditions in options 1, 3, and 4 can occur, they are not the most likely result from resting the axilla directly on the crutches.

The nurse is caring for a client with a hip fracture who has just been placed in Buck's traction. What intervention is most important for the nurse to perform? 1. Ensure that the weight used as a pulling force is at least 20 lb (9 kg). 2. Ensure that the weights rest on the floor and are not freely hanging. 3. Inspect the skin at least every 8 hours for signs of irritation or inflammation. 4. Remove the weights for at least 5 minutes every hour to give the client a rest

Inspect the skin at least every 8 hours for signs of irritation or inflammation. It is important for the skin to be assessed at least every 8 hours. Weights should be no more than 5 to 10 lb (2.3 to 4.5 kg) to prevent injury to the skin and should always be freely hanging. Additionally, the amount of weight is prescribed by the health care provider. Once traction is applied, a correct balance is maintained at all times. Weights are not removed on a scheduled basis and are never removed without a prescription to do so.

The nurse is caring for a client with acute kidney injury (AKI). The nurse should test the client's urine for proteinuria to determine which type of AKI? 1. Prerenal 2. Intrinsic 3. Atypical 4. Postrenal

Intrinsic In intrinsic failure, there is a fixed specific gravity and the urine tests positive for proteinuria. In prerenal failure, the specific gravity is high, and there is very little or no proteinuria. In postrenal failure, there is a fixed specific gravity and little or no proteinuria. There is no disorder known as atypical renal failure.

A client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) is prescribed aluminum hydroxide. Which information should the nurse include while instructing the client regarding the action of this medication? 1. It prevents ulcers. 2. It prevents constipation. 3. It promotes the elimination of potassium from the body. 4. It combines with phosphorus and helps eliminate phosphates from the body.

It combines with phosphorus and helps eliminate phosphates from the body. Aluminum hydroxide may be prescribed for a client with CKD. It binds with phosphate in the intestines for excretion in the feces, thus lowering phosphorus levels. It can cause constipation, and it does not promote the elimination of potassium. It may be used in the treatment of hyperacidity associated with gastric ulcers, but this is not the purpose of its use in the client with renal failure.

The nurse is preparing a client for an arthroscopy of the knee. When providing teaching, which information is essential for the nurse to include? 1. It will drain fluid that has accumulated below the knee. 2. It is used to obtain a muscle biopsy for pathology studies. 3. It will determine the degree of range of motion of the joint. 4. It will identify if there is joint injury and provide a route for surgical repair if indicated.

It will identify if there is joint injury and provide a route for surgical repair if indicated. Arthroscopy is used to diagnose acute and chronic conditions of the joint. In addition, surgical repairs can be done during this procedure. This procedure does not quantitate the degree of range of motion of the joint. Obtaining a muscle biopsy is not performed through an arthroscope, nor is this invasive procedure necessary to remove fluid from below the knee.

The nurse is planning teaching for a female client diagnosed with urethritis caused by chlamydial infection. Which information should the nurse plan to include in the teaching session? 1. Alter the perineal pH by using a spermicide with a condom. 2. Keep follow-up appointments for repeat cultures in 4 to 7 days. 3. Discontinue antibiotics after 3 weeks of uninterrupted administration. 4. Identify sexual partners for the past 12 months so they can be treated.

Keep follow-up appointments for repeat cultures in 4 to 7 days Follow-up cultures are typically done in 4 to 7 days to evaluate the effectiveness of the medication. Using a spermicide does not change the perineal pH. The infection can be prevented by the use of latex condoms. Chlamydial infection is treated with antibiotics, which are not discontinued until the prescribed course is completed. All sexual partners during the 30 days before diagnosis should be notified, examined, and treated as necessary

The nurse is caring for a client with acute kidney injury (AKI) experiencing metabolic acidosis. When performing an assessment, the nurse should expect to note which breathing pattern? 1. Apnea 2. Kussmaul respirations 3. Decreased respirations 4. Cheyne-Stokes respirations

Kussmaul respirations Clinical manifestations associated with AKI occur as a result of metabolic acidosis. The nurse would expect to note Kussmaul respirations as a result of the metabolic acidosis because the bodily response is to exhale excess carbon dioxide. The breathing patterns noted in options 1, 3, and 4 are not characteristic of AKI.

A client has skeletal traction applied to the right leg and has an overhead trapeze available for use. The nurse should assess which area as high risk for pressure and breakdown? 1. Left heel 2. Scapulae 3. Right heel 4. Back of the head

Left heel Common areas that are under pressure and are at risk for breakdown include the elbows (if they are used for repositioning instead of a trapeze) and the heel of the good leg (which is used as a brace when pushing up in bed). Other pressure points caused by the traction include the ischial tuberosity, popliteal space, and Achilles tendon. Scapulae and the back of the head are not common areas for pressure ulcers for this client. The right heel is elevated because of traction.

The nurse is teaching a client with a right arm cast how to prevent stiff or frozen shoulder. What should the nurse instruct the client to do? 1. Wear the sling at nighttime. 2. Keep a sling on the arm at all times. 3. Avoid range-of-motion exercises to the affected arm. 4. Lift the shoulder of the casted arm over the head periodically throughout the day.

Lift the shoulder of the casted arm over the head periodically throughout the day. A stiff or frozen shoulder can develop as a complication of a cast on an upper extremity. The client should be instructed to lift the shoulder of the casted arm over the head periodically throughout the day to prevent this complication. The client should not keep a sling on the arm at all times or wear the sling at nighttime. Range-of-motion exercises to the casted extremity would assist in preventing this complication.

The nurse is creating a plan of care for a client with chronic kidney disease and uremia. The nurse is developing interventions to assist in promoting an increased dietary intake while at the same time maintaining necessary dietary restrictions. Which action should the nurse include in the plan of care? 1. Increase the amount of protein in the diet. 2. Increase the amount of potassium in the daily diet. 3. Maintain a diet high in calories with frequent snacks. 4. Encourage the client to eat a large breakfast and smaller meals later in the day.

Maintain a diet high in calories with frequent snacks. Uremia usually is accompanied by nausea, anorexia, and an unpleasant taste in the mouth. Most clients experience more nausea and vomiting in the morning. Therefore, to maintain optimal nutrition, it is best for these clients to eat a diet that is high in calories with frequent snacks and a light breakfast in the morning and larger meals later in the day. Dietary management usually is aimed at restricting protein, sodium, and potassium.

The nurse is evaluating a client's use of a cane for left-sided weakness. The nurse should intervene and correct the client if the nurse observed that the client performs which action? 1. Holds the cane on the right side 2. Moves the cane when the right leg is moved 3. Leans on the cane when the right leg swings through 4. Keeps the cane 6 inches (15 cm) out to the side of the right foot

Moves the cane when the right leg is moved The cane is held on the stronger side to minimize stress on the affected extremity and to provide a wide base of support. The cane is held 4 to 6 inches (10 to 15 cm) lateral to the fifth toe. The cane is moved forward with the affected leg. The client leans on the cane for added support while the leg on the stronger side swings through.

The nurse is caring for a client admitted for a herniated intervertebral lumbar disk who is complaining about stabbing pain radiating to the lower back and the right buttock. The nurse determines that the client's signs/symptoms are most likely due to which condition? 1. Pressure on the spinal cord 2. Pressure on the spinal nerve root 3. Muscle spasm in the area of the herniated disk 4. Excess cerebrospinal fluid production in the area

Muscle spasm in the area of the herniated disk Compression of a nerve results in inflammation, which then irritates adjacent muscles, putting them into spasm. The pain of muscle spasm is continuous, knife-like, and localized in the affected area. Pressure on the spinal cord itself could result in a variety of manifestations, depending on the area involved. Pressure on a spinal nerve root causes the symptoms of sciatica.

The nurse is admitting a client from the postanesthesia care unit who has had percutaneous nephrolithotomy for calculi in the renal pelvis. The nurse anticipates that the client's care will most likely involve monitoring which device? 1. Ureteral stent 2. Suprapubic tube 3. Nephrostomy tube 4. Jackson-Pratt drain

Nephrostomy tube A nephrostomy tube is put in place after percutaneous nephrolithotomy for calculi in the renal pelvis. The client also may have a Foley catheter to drain urine produced by the other kidney. The nurse monitors the drainage from each of these tubes and strains the urine to detect elimination of the calculous fragments. Options 1, 2, and 4 are incorrect.

The nurse caring for a client immediately after transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP) notices that the client has suddenly become confused and disoriented. Which is the priority nursing action for this client? 1. Reorient the client. 2. Notify the health care provider (HCP). 3. Ensure that a clock and calendar are in the room. 4. Increase the flow rate of the intravenous infusion.

Notify the health care provider (HCP). The client who suddenly becomes disoriented and confused after TURP could be experiencing early signs of hyponatremia. This may occur because the flushing solution used during the operative procedure is hypotonic. If the solution is absorbed through the prostate veins during surgery, the client experiences increased circulating volume and dilutional hyponatremia. The nurse should notify the HCP of these symptoms. Reorienting the client and ensuring that a clock and calendar are visible may be helpful but do not correct the problem. The nurse does not increase the flow rate of an intravenous infusion without a prescription from the HCP. In addition, speeding up the flow rate could potentially worsen the problem, depending on the solution that is infusing.

A client with chronic kidney disease who is scheduled for hemodialysis this morning is due to receive a daily dose of enalapril. When should the nurse plan to administer this medication? 1. During dialysis 2. Just before dialysis 3. The day after dialysis 4. On return from dialysis

On return from dialysis Antihypertensive medications such as enalapril are given to the client following hemodialysis. This prevents the client from becoming hypotensive during dialysis and from having the medication removed from the bloodstream by dialysis. No rationale exists for waiting an entire day to resume the medication. This would lead to ineffective control of the blood pressure.

A hospitalized client has been diagnosed with osteomyelitis of the left tibia. The nurse determines that this condition is most likely a result of which event in the client's recent history? 1. Sprained left ankle 2. Decreased calcium intake 3. Open trauma to the left leg 4. Starting to smoke cigarettes

Open trauma to the left leg Osteomyelitis is a bone infection and may be caused by direct contamination of bone through an open wound. Bacteria invade the bone tissue and produce inflammation. Ischemia and necrosis of the bone tissue may follow if not treated. The remaining options are unrelated to the cause of osteomyelitis.

The nurse is assessing a client who has returned from the postanesthesia care unit after transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP). The nurse should assess for which color in the urinary drainage tubing that indicates proper irrigation and adequate functioning of the device? 1. Pale pink 2. Dark pink 3. Bright red 4. Red with clots

Pale pink If the bladder irrigation solution is infusing at a sufficient rate, the urinary drainage will be pale pink. A dark pink color (sometimes referred to as punch-colored) indicates that the speed of the irrigation should be increased. Bright red bleeding and red urine with clots should be reported to the surgeon because either finding could indicate complications.

A client with a fractured femur experiences sudden dyspnea, tachypnea, and tachycardia. A set of arterial blood gas tests reveals the following: pH, 7.35 (7.35); Paco2, 43 mm Hg (43 mm Hg); Pao2, 58 mm Hg (58 mm Hg); HCO3, 23 mEq/L (23 mmol/L). The nurse interprets that the client probably has experienced fat embolus because of the result of which parameter? 1. pH 2. Pao2 3. HCO3 4. Paco2

Pao2 A significant feature of fat embolism is a significant degree of hypoxemia, with a Pao2 often less than 60 mm Hg (60 mm Hg). The data in the question indicate that the items in the remaining options are normal blood gas results.

The nurse is caring for a client who sustained an open fracture and is diagnosed with acute osteomyelitis of the right lower extremity. Which intervention should the nurse plan to perform? 1. Apply ice to the affected area. 2. Perform sterile dressing changes. 3. Instruct the client on leg exercises. 4. Measure the leg circumference daily.

Perform sterile dressing changes. Osteomyelitis is a severe infection of the bone, bone marrow, and surrounding soft tissue. Clinical manifestations include constant bone pain unrelieved by rest that worsens with activity; swelling, tenderness, and warmth at the infection site; restricted movement of the affected part; fever, night sweats, chills, restlessness, nausea, and malaise. Option 2 is the correct option, as treatment of osteomyelitis often includes surgical debridement and requires sterile dressing changes. Option 1 is incorrect, as osteomyelitis is an infection and applying ice to the area will not help any swelling and may cause vasoconstriction. Option 3 is incorrect, as movement worsens the pain and some immobilization of the affected limb (e.g., splint, traction) is usually indicated. Option 4, measuring leg circumference daily, is not necessary.

The nurse has suggested specific leg exercises for a client immobilized in right skeletal lower leg traction. The nurse determines that the client needs further instruction if the nurse observes the client performing which action? 1. Pulling up using the trapeze 2. Flexing and extending the feet 3. Doing quadriceps-setting and gluteal-setting exercises 4. Performing active range of motion to the right ankle and knee

Performing active range of motion to the right ankle and knee Active range of motion to the right ankle and knee would disrupt skeletal traction of the right lower leg. The client may pull up using the trapeze, perform active range of motion with uninvolved joints, and do isometric muscle-setting exercises (such as quadriceps- and gluteal-setting exercises). The client also may flex and extend the feet. These exercises are within therapeutic limits for the client in skeletal traction to maintain muscle strength and range of motion.

The client is complaining of skin irritation from the edges of a cast applied the previous day. Which action should the nurse take? 1. Massage the skin at the rim of the cast. 2. Petal the cast edges with adhesive tape. 3. Use a rough file to smooth the cast edges. 4. Apply lotion to the skin at the rim of the cast.

Petal the cast edges with adhesive tape. The nurse petals the edges of the cast with tape to minimize skin irritation. If a client has a cast applied and returns home, the client can be taught to do the same. Massaging the skin and applying lotion will not alleviate irritation. Using a rough file could cause increased irritation.

The home care nurse visits a client who has a cast applied to the left lower leg. On assessment of the client, the nurse notes the presence of skin irritation from the edges of the cast. Which nursing intervention is most appropriate? 1. Contact the health care provider. 2. Massage the skin at the edges of the cast. 3. Petal the cast edges with appropriate material. 4. Place a small facecloth in the cast around the edges of the cast.

Petal the cast edges with appropriate material. If a client with a cast has skin irritation from the edges of the cast, the nurse would petal the edges of the cast with tape to minimize the irritation. It is not necessary to contact the health care provider unless skin breakdown is noted. Massaging the skin will not eliminate the problem. Placing a small facecloth in the cast around the edges of the cast is not appropriate.

The nurse is caring for a client in skeletal leg traction with an overbed frame. Which nursing intervention will best assist the client with self-positioning in bed? 1. Use the assistance of four nurses to reposition the client. 2. Place a draw sheet on the mattress for pulling the client up in bed. 3. Place a trapeze on the bed frame to provide a means for the client to lift the hips off the bed. 4. Encourage the client to push with the unaffected leg on the bed mattress to help with repositioning.

Place a trapeze on the bed frame to provide a means for the client to lift the hips off the bed. The nurse can best assist the client in skeletal traction with repositioning by providing a trapeze on the bed frame for the client's use. Although a draw sheet is helpful and client movement may be more easily facilitated with four nurses, these actions will not promote repositioning by the client. Encouraging the client to push with the unaffected leg on the bed mattress for repositioning may cause skin breakdown on the unaffected heel area.

A client is being discharged to home while recovering from acute kidney injury (AKI). Reduced dietary intake of which substance indicates to the nurse that the client understands the dietary teaching? 1. Fats 2. Vitamins 3. Potassium 4. Carbohydrates

Potassium The excretion of potassium and maintenance of potassium balance are normal functions of the kidneys. In the client with AKI or chronic kidney disease, potassium intake must be restricted as much as possible (to 60 to 70 mEq/day). The primary mechanism of potassium removal during AKI is dialysis. Vitamins, carbohydrates, and fats are not normally restricted in the client with AKI unless a secondary health problem warrants the need to do so. The amount of fluid permitted is generally calculated to be equal to the urine volume plus the insensible loss volume of 500 mL.

The nurse is assessing the casted extremity of a client. Which sign is indicative of infection? 1. Dependent edema 2. Diminished distal pulse 3. Presence of a "hot spot" on the cast 4. Coolness and pallor of the extremity

Presence of a "hot spot" on the cast Signs of infection under a casted area include odor or purulent drainage from the cast or the presence of "hot spots," which are areas of the cast that are warmer than others. The health care provider should be notified if any of these occur. Signs of impaired circulation in the distal limb include coolness and pallor of the skin, diminished distal pulse, and edema.

The nurse is planning discharge teaching for a client newly diagnosed with chronic kidney disease (CKD). Which factor will enhance the educational process? 1. Anxiety 2. Memory deficits 3. Presence of family 4. Short attention span

Presence of family The client with CKD may have several barriers to learning. The presence of family members is helpful because they need to understand the disease and treatment and may help reinforce information with the client after the formal teaching session is over. Anxiety about the disease and its ramifications frequently interferes with learning. Physiological effects of the disease process also impair the client's mental functioning. Specifically, the client may exhibit a short attention span and have memory deficits. Mental functioning usually improves once hemodialysis has begun.

A client with a hip fracture asks the nurse about Buck's (extension) traction that is being applied before surgery and what is involved. The nurse should provide which information to the client? 1. Allows bony healing to begin before surgery and involves pins and screws 2. Provides rigid immobilization of the fracture site and involves pulleys and wheels 3. Lengthens the fractured leg to prevent severing of blood vessels and involves pins and screws 4. Provides comfort by reducing muscle spasms, provides fracture immobilization, and involves pulleys and wheels

Provides comfort by reducing muscle spasms, provides fracture immobilization, and involves pulleys and wheels Buck's (extension) traction is a type of skin traction often applied after hip fracture before the fracture is reduced in surgery. Traction reduces muscle spasms and helps to immobilize the fracture. Traction does not allow for bony healing to begin or provide rigid immobilization. Traction does not lengthen the leg for the purpose of preventing blood vessel severance. This type of traction involves pulleys and wheels, not pins and screws.

A client who has experienced a stroke has partial hemiplegia of the left leg. The nurse interprets that the client could benefit from the support and stability provided by which item? 1. Quad cane 2. Wheelchair 3. Lofstrand crutch 4. Aluminum crutch

Quad cane A quad cane may be used by the client requiring greater support and stability than is provided by a straight leg cane. The quad cane provides a four-point base of support and is indicated for use by clients with partial or complete hemiplegia. Neither crutches nor a wheelchair is indicated for use with a client such as the one described in the question.

The nurse is analyzing the posthemodialysis laboratory test results for a client with chronic kidney disease. The nurse interprets that the dialysis is having an expected but nontherapeutic effect if which value is decreased? 1. Potassium 2. Creatinine 3. Phosphorus 4. Red blood cell (RBC) count

Red blood cell (RBC) count Hemodialysis typically lowers the amounts of fluid, sodium, potassium, urea nitrogen, creatinine, uric acid, magnesium, and phosphate levels in the blood. Hemodialysis also worsens anemia because RBCs are lost during dialysis from blood sampling and anticoagulation and from residual blood left in the dialyzer. Although all of these results are expected, only the lowered RBC count is nontherapeutic and worsens the anemia already caused by the disease process.

The home health nurse visits a client who is having an acute attack of gout. The nurse determines that the client needs further instruction regarding the treatment of gout if the client states to take which action? 1. Restricting fluids 2. Maintaining bed rest 3. Eating a low-purine diet 4. Taking nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs

Restricting fluids Ample fluid intake is encouraged to promote the excretion of uric acid. The client is placed on bed rest during an acute attack until the pain subsides. A diet low in purine normally is prescribed. Nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) are used to reduce pain and inflammation. Colchicine, which also may be prescribed, reduces the migration of leukocytes to the synovial fluid.

A client with diabetes mellitus has had a right below-knee amputation. Given the client's history of diabetes mellitus, which complication is the client at most risk for after surgery? 1. Hemorrhage 2. Edema of the residual limb 3. Slight redness of the incision 4. Separation of the wound edges

Separation of the wound edges Clients with diabetes mellitus are more prone to wound infection and delayed wound healing because of the disease. Postoperative hemorrhage and edema of the residual limb are complications in the immediate postoperative period that apply to any client with an amputation. Slight redness of the incision is considered normal, as long as the incision is dry and intact.

Before providing care for a client in the late stages of chronic kidney disease (CKD), the nurse should review the results of which most relevant laboratory studies? 1. Serum potassium, serum calcium 2. Urinalysis, hematocrit, hemoglobin 3. Culture and sensitivity testing, serum sodium 4. Urine specific gravity, intravenous pyelogram

Serum potassium, serum calcium Because of the potentially life-threatening outcomes associated with hyperkalemia and hypocalcemia, they are the most relevant to nursing management of the client with CKD. The diagnostic tests in the remaining options may be helpful in diagnosing CKD or in monitoring treatment but are not the most relevant. Additionally, decreased hematocrit and hemoglobin occur in CKD because of the decreased level of erythropoietin. However, a decrease in hematocrit and hemoglobin may be reflective of various health alterations.

The nurse is caring for a client admitted for a fractured hip status post fall at home. On assessment of the client's affected lower extremity, which signs/symptoms would most likely be noted? 1. Shortening and abduction 2. Abduction and internal rotation 3. Shortening and internal rotation 4. Shortening and external rotation

Shortening and external rotation Signs of a hip fracture include shortening and deformity. The affected leg externally rotates as a result of discontinuation of the femur and loss of alignment and muscle control. The remaining options are not findings associated with a fractured hip.

A client is fearful about having an arm cast removed. Which action by the nurse would be the most helpful? 1. Telling the client that the saw makes a frightening noise 2. Reassuring the client that no one has had an arm lacerated yet 3. Stating that the hot cutting blades cause burns only very rarely 4. Showing the client the cast cutter and explaining how it works

Showing the client the cast cutter and explaining how it works Individuals may be fearful of having a cast removed because of misconceptions about the cast-cutting blade. The nurse should show the cast cutter to the client before it is used and explain that he or she may feel heat, vibration, and pressure. The cast cutter resembles a small electric saw with a circular blade. The nurse should reassure the client that the blade does not cut like a saw but instead cuts the cast by vibrating side to side. The remaining options will increase the client's fear about the procedure.

The nurse is creating a plan of care for a client in skin traction. Which frequent assessment should the nurse include in the plan as a priority intervention? 1. Urinary incontinence 2. Signs of skin breakdown 3. The presence of bowel sounds 4. Signs of infection around the pin sites

Signs of skin breakdown Skin traction is achieved by Ace wraps, boots, and slings that apply a direct force on the client's skin. Skin traction is usually removed and reapplied once a day. Traction is maintained with 5 to 8 lb (2.3 to 3.6 kg) of weight, and this type of traction can cause skin breakdown. Urinary incontinence is not related to the use of skin traction. Although constipation can result from immobility, and although monitoring bowel sounds may be a component of the assessment, this intervention is not the priority assessment. There are no pin sites with skin traction.

The nurse is creating a plan of care for a client in skin traction. The nurse should monitor for which priority finding in this client? 1. Urinary incontinence 2. Signs of skin breakdown 3. The presence of bowel sounds 4. Signs of infection around the pin sites

Signs of skin breakdown Skin traction is achieved by Ace wraps, boots, or slings that apply a direct force on the client's skin. Traction is maintained with 5 to 8 lb (2.3 to 3.6 kg) of weight, and this type of traction can cause skin breakdown. Urinary incontinence is not related to the use of skin traction. Although constipation can occur as a result of immobility and monitoring bowel sounds may be a component of the assessment, this intervention is not the priority assessment. There are no pin sites with skin traction.

A client diagnosed with polycystic kidney disease has been taught about the treatment plan for this disease. The nurse should determine that the client needs further teaching if the client states that which is included in the treatment plan? 1. Genetic counseling 2. Sodium restriction 3. Increased water intake 4. Antihypertensive medications

Sodium restriction Individuals with polycystic kidney disease seem to waste rather than retain sodium. Unless the client has problems with uncontrolled hypertension, increased sodium and water intake is needed. Antihypertensive medications are prescribed to control hypertension. Genetic counseling is advisable because of the hereditary nature of the disease.

The nurse witnessed a vehicle hit a pedestrian. The victim is dazed and tries to get up. A leg appears fractured. Which intervention should the nurse take? 1. Try to reduce the fracture manually. 2. Assist the victim to get up and walk to the sidewalk. 3. Leave the victim for a few moments to call an ambulance. 4. Stay with the victim and encourage him or her to remain still.

Stay with the victim and encourage him or her to remain still. With a suspected fracture, the victim is not moved unless it is dangerous to remain in that spot. The nurse should remain with the victim and have someone else call for emergency help. A fracture is not reduced at the scene. Before the victim is moved, the site of fracture is immobilized to prevent further injury.

A client has just been admitted to the hospital with a fractured femur and pelvic fractures. The nurse should plan to carefully monitor the client for which signs/symptoms? 1. Fever and bradycardia 2. Fever and hypertension 3. Tachycardia and hypotension 4. Bradycardia and hypertension

Tachycardia and hypotension Clients who experience fractures of the femur, pelvis, thorax, and spine are at risk for hypovolemic shock. Bone fragments can damage blood vessels, leading to hemorrhage into the abdominal cavity and the thigh. This can occur with closed fractures as well as open fractures. Signs of hypovolemic shock include tachycardia and hypotension.

A client was admitted to the hospital 2 hours ago following multiple fractures to the pelvis and soft tissue injury to the abdomen. Diagnostic studies have ruled out perforation of abdominal organs. The nurse places highest priority on monitoring this client for which changes in vital signs? 1. Fever, bradycardia 2. Fever, hypertension 3. Tachycardia, hypotension 4. Bradycardia, hypertension

Tachycardia, hypotension Clients who experience fractures of the femur, pelvis, thorax, and spine are at risk for hypovolemic shock. Bone fragments can damage blood vessels, leading to hemorrhage into the abdominal cavity and, in the case of a fractured femur, into the thigh. This can occur with closed fractures as well as open fractures. Signs of hypovolemic shock include tachycardia and hypotension.

A client with chlamydial infection has received instructions on self-care and prevention of further infection. The nurse determines that the client needs further teaching if the client states that he or she will take which action? 1. Use latex condoms to prevent disease transmission. 2. Return to the clinic as requested for follow-up culture in 1 week. 3. Reduce the chance of reinfection by limiting the number of sexual partners. 4. Take an antibiotic so as to prophylactically prevent symptoms of Chlamydia.

Take an antibiotic so as to prophylactically prevent symptoms of Chlamydia. Antibiotics are not taken prophylactically to prevent acquisition of chlamydial infection. The risk of reinfection can be reduced by limiting the number of sexual partners and by the use of condoms. In some cases, follow-up culture is requested in 4 to 7 days to confirm a cure. The remaining options are correct measures.

A cystectomy is performed for a client with a diagnosis of bladder cancer, and a Kock pouch is created for urinary diversion. In creating a discharge teaching plan for the client, the nurse should include which instruction in the plan? 1. Dietary restrictions 2. Technique of catheterization 3. External pouch and application care 4. Proper administration of prophylactic antibiotics

Technique of catheterization A Kock pouch is a continent internal ileal reservoir. The nurse instructs the client about the technique of catheterization. Dietary restrictions are not required. There is no external pouch. Antibiotics are not required unless an infection is present; also, antibiotics are prescribed by the health care provider.

The nurse is caring for a client who has had spinal fusion, with insertion of hardware. The nurse would be most concerned with which assessment finding? 1. Temperature of 101.6°F (38.7°C) orally 2. Complaints of discomfort during repositioning 3. Old bloody drainage outlined on the surgical dressing 4. Discomfort during coughing and deep-breathing exercises

Temperature of 101.6°F (38.7°C) orally The nursing assessment conducted after spinal surgery is similar to that done after other surgical procedures. For this specific type of surgery, the nurse assesses the neurovascular status of the lower extremities, watches for signs and symptoms of infection, and inspects the surgical site for evidence of cerebrospinal fluid leakage (drainage is clear and tests positive for glucose). A mild temperature is expected after insertion of hardware, but a temperature of 101.6°F (38.7°C) should be reported.

A client complains of fever, perineal pain, and urinary urgency, frequency, and dysuria. To assess whether the client's problem is related to bacterial prostatitis, the nurse reviews the results of the prostate examination for which characteristic of this disorder? 1. Soft and swollen prostate gland 2. Swollen, and boggy prostate gland 3. Tender and edematous prostate gland 4. Tender, indurated prostate gland that is warm to the touch

Tender, indurated prostate gland that is warm to the touch The client with bacterial prostatitis has a swollen and tender prostate gland that is also warm to the touch, firm, and indurated. Systemic symptoms include fever with chills, perineal and low back pain, and signs of urinary tract infection, which often accompany the disorder.

The nurse in the hospital emergency department is assessing a client with an open leg fracture. The nurse should inquire about the last time the client had which done? 1. Tuberculin test 2. Tetanus vaccine 3. Chest radiograph 4. Physical examination

Tetanus vaccine With an open fracture, the client is at risk for the development of osteomyelitis, gas gangrene, and tetanus. The nurse assesses for the date of the last tetanus immunization to ensure that the client has tetanus prophylaxis. The remaining options are unrelated to the current situation identified in the question.

The nurse has developed a plan of care for a client in traction and documents a problem of inability to perform self-care independently. The nurse evaluates the plan of care and determines that which observation indicates a successful outcome? 1. The client refuses care. 2. The client allows the family to assist in the care. 3. The client assists in self-care as much as possible. 4. The client allows the nurse to complete the care on a daily basis.

The client assists in self-care as much as possible. A successful outcome for the problem of self-care is for the client to do as much of the self-care as possible. The nurse should promote independence in the client and allow the client to perform as much self-care as is optimal, considering the client's condition. The nurse would determine that the outcome is unsuccessful if the client refused care or allowed others to do the care.

The nurse provides instructions to a client about newly prescribed furosemide. Which information should the nurse use to provide instructions in this teaching session? 1. The medication acts on the distal tubule of the nephron. 2. The medication acts on the loop of Henle in the nephron. 3. The collecting duct of the nephron will be affected by this medication. 4. The site of action for furosemide is the proximal tubule of the nephron.

The medication acts on the loop of Henle in the nephron. Furosemide works by acting to excrete sodium, potassium, and chloride in the ascending limb of the loop of Henle; therefore, options 1, 3, and 4 are incorrect.

The nurse is preparing to teach a client how to safely use crutches. Before initiating the teaching, the nurse performs an assessment on the client. The priority nursing assessment should include which information? 1. The client's fear related to the use of crutches 2. The client's feelings about the restricted mobility 3. The client's understanding of the need for increased mobility 4. The client's vital signs, muscle strength, and previous activity level

The client's vital signs, muscle strength, and previous activity level Vital signs provide a baseline to determine how well the client will tolerate activity. Assessing muscle strength will help determine if the client has enough strength for crutch walking and if muscle-strengthening exercises are necessary. Previous activity level will provide information related to the tolerance of activity. The remaining options also are components of the assessment, but physiological needs take precedence over psychosocial needs.

The nurse is caring for a client admitted for a torn meniscus. What is the focus of the nurse's immediate assessment? 1. The hip 2. The knee 3. The ankle 4. The great toe

The knee A meniscus is an interarticular fibrocartilage that partially or completely separates the components of a joint. The knee is a common area for meniscal tears because it is frequently injured as a result of falls and sports injuries; therefore, options 1, 3, and 4 are incorrect.

The home care nurse is visiting a client who is in a body cast. While performing an assessment, the nurse plans to evaluate the psychosocial adjustment of the client to the cast. What is the most appropriate assessment for this client? 1. The need for sensory stimulation 2. The amount of home care support available 3. The ability to perform activities of daily living 4. The type of transportation available for follow-up care

The need for sensory stimulation A psychosocial assessment of a client who is immobilized would most appropriately include the need for sensory stimulation. This assessment should also include such factors as body image, past and present coping skills, and coping methods used during the period of immobilization. Although home care support, the ability to perform activities of daily living, and transportation are components of an assessment, they are not as specifically related to psychosocial adjustment as is the need for sensory stimulation.

A client is having a plaster cast placed on the lower extremity that will extend from mid-thigh to the center of the foot. Which instruction should be given to the client before hospital discharge? 1. How to petal the edges of the cast to prevent crumbling of these edges 2. The need to notify the nurse if the plaster cast becomes warm during the first 24 hours 3. The correct method of using a thin object when the client needs to scratch the area beneath the cast 4. The need to notify the health care provider immediately if the client notices numbness or swelling or if the foot becomes cold and pale

The need to notify the health care provider immediately if the client notices numbness or swelling or if the foot becomes cold and pale Numbness, swelling, and cool, pale skin are findings that indicate a state of neurovascular compromise. This can lead to significant problems and potential loss of the limb. Although teaching the client how to petal the edge of a cast is commonly done to keep the edges from crumbling, this is not the priority at this time. Chemical reaction occurs while a plaster cast dries, causing the cast to be warm. This effect can last from 24 to 48 hours, depending on how long it takes for the cast to dry. It is inappropriate to place any objects under the edge of the cast because such maneuvers can result in tissue injury and consequent infection.

The nurse is caring for a client who has just returned from having a cystoscopy. The nurse should recognize which as an abnormal assessment finding for this client? 1. The nurse notes bright red urine output. 2. The nurse notes pink-tinged urine output. 3. The client reports having urinary frequency. 4. The client complains of burning when urinating.

The nurse notes bright red urine output. The main purpose of a cystoscopy is to inspect the interior of the bladder with a tubular lighted scope (cystoscope). Pink-tinged urine is a normal finding after this procedure, but bright red urine indicates hemorrhaging and is not a normal finding. The remaining options are normal findings following this procedure.

The nurse is planning to teach the client with below-the-knee amputation about care to prevent skin breakdown. Which point should the nurse include in developing the teaching plan? 1. The residual limb is washed gently and dried every other day. 2. The socket of the prosthesis must be dried carefully before it is used. 3. A residual limb sock must be worn at all times and changed twice a week. 4. The socket of the prosthesis is washed with a harsh bactericidal agent daily.

The socket of the prosthesis must be dried carefully before it is used. A residual limb sock must be worn at all times to absorb perspiration and is changed daily. The residual limb is washed, dried, and inspected for breakdown twice each day. The socket of the prosthesis is cleansed with a mild detergent and rinsed and dried carefully each day. A harsh bactericidal agent would not be used.

The nurse is providing care for a client admitted 3 days ago with a severe left ankle contusion. The nurse determines that heat application to the area has been effective if which has occurred? 1. Signs of infection are absent. 2. The muscles are beginning to relax. 3. Abscess formation has not occurred. 4. There is reabsorption of blood noted at the injured site.

There is reabsorption of blood noted at the injured site. The primary benefit from applying heat to a contusion is to speed up the rate of absorption of blood that has hemorrhaged into the affected soft tissue. Although heat also promotes muscle relaxation, this is not the intended benefit of this therapy in treating a contusion. Heat is not applied to prevent infection or abscess formation.

A client is complaining of pain underneath a cast in the area of a bony prominence. The nurse interprets that this client may need which intervention? 1. To have the cast bivalved 2. To have a window cut in the cast 3. To have the cast replaced with an air splint 4. To have extra padding put over this area of the cast

To have a window cut in the cast A window may be cut in a dried cast to relieve pressure in an area of a bony prominence, to assess pulses, to relieve discomfort, or to remove drains. Bivalving the cast involves splitting the cast along both sides to allow space for swelling, to facilitate taking radiographs, or to make a half-cast for use as an intermittent splint. The use of an air splint is not indicated. Padding is not placed on top of a cast.

The nurse determines that a client's skeletal traction needs correction if which observation is made? 1. Weights are not touching the floor. 2. Weights are hanging free of the bed. 3. Traction ropes rest against the footboard. 4. Traction ropes are aligned in each pulley.

Traction ropes rest against the footboard. Traction ropes must hang free of the bed. The remaining options are observations that indicate correct use of the traction setup.

A client arrives at the emergency department with complaints of low abdominal pain and hematuria. The client is afebrile. The nurse next assesses the client to determine a history of which condition? 1. Pyelonephritis 2. Glomerulonephritis 3. Trauma to the bladder or abdomen 4. Renal cancer in the client's family

Trauma to the bladder or abdomen Bladder trauma or injury should be considered or suspected in the client with low abdominal pain and hematuria. Glomerulonephritis and pyelonephritis would be accompanied by fever and are thus not applicable to the client described in this question. Renal cancer would not cause pain that is felt in the low abdomen; rather, the pain would be in the flank area.

The nurse is caring for a client with a bladder infection. The nurse plans care understanding that the primary risk factor for spread of infection in this client is dysfunction of which structure? 1. Urethra 2. Nephron 3. Glomerulus 4. Ureterovesical junction

Ureterovesical junction The ureterovesical junction is the point at which the ureters enter the bladder. At this juncture, the ureter runs obliquely for 1.5 to 2 cm through the bladder wall before opening into the bladder. This anatomical pathway prevents reflux of urine back into the ureter and, in essence, acts as a valve to prevent urine from traveling back into the ureter and up to the kidney.

The nurse is caring for a client with a diagnosis of gout. Which laboratory value would the nurse expect to note in the client? 1. Calcium level of 9.0 mg/dL (2.25 mmol/L) 2. Uric acid level of 9.0 mg/dL (0.54 mmol/L) 3. Potassium level of 4.1 mEq/L (4.1 mmol/L) 4. Phosphorus level of 3.1 mg/dL (1.0 mmol/L)

Uric acid level of 9.0 mg/dL (0.54 mmol/L) In addition to the presence of clinical manifestations, gout is diagnosed by the presence of persistent hyperuricemia, with a uric acid level higher than 8 mg/dL (0.48 mmol/L); a normal value for a male ranges from 4.0 to 8.5 mg/dL (0.24 to 0.51 mmol/L) and for a female, from 2.7 to 7.3 mg/dL (0.16 to 0.43 mmol/L). Options 1, 3, and 4 indicate normal laboratory values. In addition, the presence of uric acid in an aspirated sample of synovial fluid confirms the diagnosis.

The nurse has administered a dose of meperidine hydrochloride to a client with renal colic as treatment for pain. The nurse carefully monitors this client for which side and adverse effect of this medication? 1. Bradycardia 2. Hypertension 3. Urinary retention 4. Increased respirations

Urinary retention Meperidine hydrochloride is an opioid analgesic. Side effects of meperidine hydrochloride include respiratory depression, orthostatic hypotension, tachycardia, drowsiness and mental clouding, constipation, and urinary retention.

The nurse develops a plan of care for a client with a spica cast that covers a lower extremity and documents that the client is at risk for constipation. When planning for bowel elimination needs, the nurse should include which in the plan of care? 1. Administer an enema daily. 2. Use a fracture pan for bowel elimination. 3. Use a bedside commode for all elimination needs. 4. Use a regular bedpan to prevent spilling of contents in the bed.

Use a fracture pan for bowel elimination. A fracture pan is designed to be used for clients with body or leg casts. A client with a spica cast (body cast) involving a lower extremity cannot bend at the hips to sit up; therefore, a regular bedpan and a commode would be inappropriate. Daily enemas are not a part of routine care.

A client with chronic kidney disease has completed a hemodialysis treatment. The nurse should use which standard indicators to evaluate the client's status after dialysis? 1. Vital signs and weight 2. Potassium level and weight 3. Vital signs and blood urea nitrogen level 4. Blood urea nitrogen and creatinine levels

Vital signs and weight Following dialysis the client's vital signs are monitored to determine whether the client is remaining hemodynamically stable. Weight is measured and compared with the client's predialysis weight to determine effectiveness of fluid extraction. Laboratory studies are done as per protocol but are not necessarily done after the hemodialysis treatment has ended.

The nurse is developing a plan of care for a client in Buck's traction. The plan of care should include assessing the client for which finding indicating a complication associated with the use of this type of traction? 1. Hypotension 2. Weak pedal pulses 3. Redness at the pin sites 4. Drainage at the pin sites

Weak pedal pulses Weak pedal pulses are a sign of vascular compromise, which can be caused by pressure on the tissues of the leg by the elastic bandage used to secure the traction system. This type of traction does not use pins; rather, elastic bandages or a prefabricated boot is worn by the client. Therefore, redness and/or drainage at the pin sites are incorrect. Hypotension is not directly associated with the use of this type of traction.

The nurse is providing instructions to a client regarding ambulation after the application of a fiberglass cast to the lower leg. The nurse determines that the client understands the instructions if the client states that weight bearing on the casted leg can begin at which time period? 1. In 48 hours 2. In 24 hours 3. In approximately 8 hours 4. Within 20 to 30 minutes of application

Within 20 to 30 minutes of application A fiberglass cast is made of water-activated polyurethane material that is dry to the touch within minutes and reaches full rigid strength in about 20 minutes. Accordingly, the client can bear weight on the cast within 20 to 30 minutes. The remaining options are incorrect.

The community health nurse is providing an educational session for community members regarding dietary measures that will assist in reducing the risk of osteoporosis. The nurse should instruct the community members to increase dietary intake of which food known to be helpful in minimizing this risk? 1. Yogurt 2. Turkey 3. Shellfish 4. Spaghetti

Yogurt The major dietary source of calcium is from dairy products including milk, yogurt, and a variety of cheeses. Calcium also can be added to certain products such as orange juice, which are then advertised as being fortified with calcium. Calcium supplements also are available and recommended for persons with typically low calcium intake. Turkey, shellfish, and spaghetti are not high-calcium products.

The nurse has completed giving discharge instructions to a client who has had a total joint replacement (TJR) of the knee with a metal prosthetic system. The nurse determines that the client understands the instructions if the client makes which statement? 1. "Changes in the shape of the knee are expected." 2. "Fever, redness, and increased pain are expected." 3. "All caregivers should be told about the metal implant." 4. "Bleeding gums or black stools may occur, but this is normal."

"All caregivers should be told about the metal implant. A TJR is also known as a total joint arthroplasty (TJA). The client must inform other caregivers of the presence of the metal implant because certain tests and procedures will need to be avoided. After total knee replacement, the client should report signs and symptoms of infection and any changes in the shape of the knee. These could indicate developing complications. With a metal implant, the client may be on anticoagulant therapy and should report adverse effects of this therapy, including bleeding from a variety of sources, and the client will need antibiotic prophylaxis for invasive procedures.

The nurse is preparing instructions for a client who is diagnosed with osteomalacia. Which information should the nurse include in the teaching? 1. "Avoid exposure to sunlight." 2. "Avoid weight-bearing exercise." 3. "Ensure adequate intake of vitamin D fortified foods." 4. "Osteomalacia and osteoporosis are interchangeable terms."

"Ensure adequate intake of vitamin D fortified foods." A common cause of osteomalacia is vitamin D deficiency, so the client should include adequate dietary intake of vitamin D-fortified foods. Other causes include inadequate exposure to sunlight (to synthesize vitamin D) and disorders that interfere with the absorption and metabolism of vitamin D. Osteomalacia technically refers to bone softening, which results from demineralization of bone matrix and its failure to calcify. This is different from osteoporosis, which is a metabolic bone disease characterized by low bone mass and structural deterioration of bone tissue, leading to increased bone fragility and pathologic fractures. Weight-bearing exercises are appropriate.

A client with renal cancer is being treated preoperatively with radiation therapy. What statement by the client demonstrates understanding of proper care of the skin over the treatment field? 1. "I need to avoid skin exposure to direct sunlight and chlorinated water." 2. "I need to use lanolin-based cream on the affected skin on a daily basis." 3. "I need to use the hottest water possible to wash the treatment site twice daily." 4. "I need to remove the lines or ink marks using a gentle soap after each treatment."

"I need to avoid skin exposure to direct sunlight and chlorinated water." The client undergoing radiation therapy should avoid washing the site until instructed to do so. The client should then wash, using mild soap and warm or cool water, and pat the area dry. No lotions, creams, alcohol, or deodorants should be placed on the skin over the treatment site. Lines or ink marks that are placed on the skin to guide the radiation therapy should be left in place. The affected skin should be protected from temperature extremes, direct sunlight, and chlorinated water (as from swimming pools).

The nurse has given instructions to a client returning home after knee arthroscopy. Which statement by the client indicates that the instructions are understood? 1. "I can resume regular exercise tomorrow." 2. "I can't eat food for the remainder of the day." 3. "I need to stay off the leg entirely for the rest of the day." 4. "I need to report a fever or swelling to my health care provider."

"I need to report a fever or swelling to my health care provider." After arthroscopy, the client usually can walk carefully on the leg once sensation has returned. The client is instructed to avoid strenuous exercise for at least a few days. The client may resume the usual diet. Signs and symptoms of infection should be reported to the health care provider.

A client has just had a cast removed, and the underlying skin is yellow-brown and crusted. The nurse gives the client instructions for skin care. The nurse determines that the client needs further teaching of the directions if he or she makes which statement? 1. "I need to soak the skin and wash it gently." 2. "I need to scrub the skin vigorously with soap and water." 3. "I need to apply an emollient lotion to enhance softening." 4. "I need to use a sunscreen on the skin if exposed to the sun for a period of time."

"I need to scrub the skin vigorously with soap and water." The skin under a casted area may be discolored and crusted with dead skin layers. The client should gently soak and wash the skin for the first few days. The skin should be patted dry, and a lubricating lotion should be applied. People often want to scrub the dead skin away, but scrubbing irritates the skin and should not be done. The client should avoid overexposing the skin to the sunlight.

The nurse has given instructions about Kegel exercises to a female client with a cystocele. The nurse determines that the client needs further instruction if she makes which statement? 1. "I should stop and start my stream of urine during a voiding." 2. "I should tighten my perineal muscles for up to 10 seconds several times a day." 3. "I should tighten my perineal muscles for up to 5 minutes 3 or 4 times a day." 4. "I should begin voiding and then stop the stream, holding residual urine for an hour."

"I should begin voiding and then stop the stream, holding residual urine for an hour." Kegel muscles strengthen the perineal floor and are useful in the prevention and management of cystocele, rectocele, and enterocele. Several ways to perform Kegel exercises are acceptable. One method entails starting and stopping the flow of urine during a single voiding for about 5 seconds. Also, these exercises may be done by holding perineal muscles taut for up to 10 seconds several times a day or for 5 minutes 3 or 4 times a day. Residual urine should not be held in the bladder for long periods because this could promote urinary tract infection.

A male client arrives in the hospital emergency department and tells the nurse that he twisted his ankle while jogging. The client is seen by the health care provider and is diagnosed with a sprained ankle. The nurse provides instructions to the client regarding home care for the injury. Which statement, if made by the client, would indicate an understanding of appropriate care measures for the next 24 hours? 1. "I should place hot packs on my ankle." 2. "I should wrap my ankle with blankets." 3. "I should elevate my foot above the level of the heart." 4. "I should try to ambulate at least 10 minutes out of every hour."

"I should elevate my foot above the level of the heart." Soft tissue injuries such as sprains are treated with RICE (rest, ice, compression, and elevation) for the first 24 to 48 hours after the injury, depending on health care provider prescription. Ice is applied intermittently for 20 to 30 minutes at a time. Heat is not used for the first 24 hours because this could cause venous congestion, thereby increasing edema and pain. Blankets would produce heat to the affected area. The client should rest and not walk around, and the foot should be elevated and not placed in a dependent position.

The nurse has provided discharge instructions to a client after a total hip replacement. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further instruction? 1. "I should sit in my recliner when I get home." 2. "I need to keep my legs apart while sitting or lying." 3. "I should try to obtain an elevated toilet seat for use at home." 4. "I should contact the health care provider if the incision becomes red or irritated or if I note any drainage."

"I should sit in my recliner when I get home." After total hip replacement, the client should be instructed to sit on a high, firm chair. The client should be instructed to keep the legs apart while sitting or lying to prevent disruption of the hip replacement; this may be accomplished by placing a blanket or a pillow between the legs. The use of an elevated toilet seat will prevent discomfort and pressure at the operative site. The health care provider should be notified if the client notes the development of any redness, irritation, or drainage at the incision site.

A client has been experiencing muscle weakness over a period of several months. The health care provider suspects polymyositis. Which client statement correctly identifies a confirmation of test results and this diagnosis? 1. "If I have polymyositis, there will be a decrease in elastic tissue." 2. "I will know I have polymyositis if the muscle fibers are inflamed." 3. "The health care provider said there would be more fibers and tissue with polymyositis." 4. "The health care provider said if the muscle fibers were thickened, I would have polymyositis."

"I will know I have polymyositis if the muscle fibers are inflamed." In polymyositis, necrosis and inflammation are seen in muscle fibers and myocardial fibers. Option 1 refers to the decreased elastic tissue in the aorta seen in Marfan syndrome. Option 3 refers to increased fibrous tissue seen in ankylosis. Option 4 is the opposite of what is noted in this disorder.

A client who is learning to use a cane is afraid it will slip with ambulation, causing a fall. The nurse provides the client with the most reassurance by making which statement? 1. "Canes prevent falls; they do not cause them." 2. "The cane would help to break a fall, even if you do slip." 3. "The cane has a flared tip with concentric rings to give stability." 4. "The physical therapist will determine if the cane is inadequate."

"The cane has a flared tip with concentric rings to give stability." A cane should have a slightly flared tip with flexible concentric rings. This tip acts as a shock absorber and provides optimal stability. The remaining options are unrelated to the subject of providing reassurance regarding safety and do not provide the client with reassurance about his or her concern.

The nurse instructor is evaluating a nursing student for knowledge regarding care of a client with acute kidney injury. Which statement by the student demonstrates the need for further teaching about the diuretic phase of acute kidney injury? 1. "The increase in urine output indicates the return of some renal function." 2. "The diuretic phase develops about 14 days after the initial insult and lasts about 10 days." 3. "The diuretic phase is characterized by an increase in urine output of about 500 mL in a 24-hour period." 4. "The blood urea nitrogen and creatinine levels will continue to rise during the first few days of diuresis."

"The diuretic phase is characterized by an increase in urine output of about 500 mL in a 24-hour period." The diuretic phase of acute kidney injury is characterized by an increase in urine output of more than 1000 mL in a 24-hour period. This increase in urine output indicates the return of some renal function; however, blood urea nitrogen and creatinine levels continue to rise during the first few days of diuresis. The diuretic phase develops about 14 days after the initial insult and lasts about 10 days.

The nurse is teaching a client with renal cancer who is scheduled for a renal artery embolization about the procedure. Which statement by the client indicates that the educational session was effective? 1. "This will reduce the time needed for surgery by at least half because it provides hemostasis." 2. "This will cause the tumor to become tougher and easier to resect in surgery with the scalpel." 3. "This will prevent the risk of pulmonary embolism by occluding the renal artery and its branches." 4. "This will decrease the size of the tumor because its blood supply will be removed after placement of an absorbable gelatin sponge.

"This will decrease the size of the tumor because its blood supply will be removed after placement of an absorbable gelatin sponge." Renal artery embolization may be done instead of radiation therapy to shrink the kidney tumor by cutting off its blood supply and impairing its overall vascularity. A secondary benefit is that it reduces the risk of hemorrhage during surgery. This procedure can be accomplished in a number of ways, including placement of an absorbable gelatin sponge, a balloon, a metal coil, or any of various other substances.

A client who sustained a severe sprain of the ankle is told by the health care provider that the pain experienced is caused by muscle spasm and swelling in the area of the injury. Which interventions should the nurse anticipate will be included in the client's initial plan of care? Select all that apply. 1. Ice bags 2. Elevation 3. Heating pad 4. Compression bandage 5. Range-of-motion exercises

1. Ice bags 2. Elevation 3. Heating pad 4. Compression bandage Reflex spasm of local muscles and swelling caused by rupture of local capillary beds can best be treated initially by remembering the acronym RICE, which stands for rest, ice, compression, and elevation. Heat and range-of-motion exercises are contraindicated because they would increase swelling.

The nurse is creating a plan of care for a client scheduled for a left total hip arthroplasty. Which interventions should the nurse include in the plan to prevent complications of the surgery? Select all that apply. 1. Keep the leg slightly abducted. 2. Teach leg exercises to the client. 3. Use aseptic technique for wound care. 4. Prevent hip flexion beyond 90 degrees. 5. Keep the client's knees flexed whenever the client is in bed. 6. Massage the legs daily to increase circulation and venous return

1. Keep the leg slightly abducted. 2. Teach leg exercises to the client. 3. Use aseptic technique for wound care. 4. Prevent hip flexion beyond 90 degrees. A total hip arthroplasty (THA) is also known as a total hip replacement (THR). Postoperative complications can include dislocation, infection, venous thromboembolism, hypotension, bleeding, and infection. To prevent dislocation, the nurse needs to position the client correctly with the leg slightly abducted and prevent hip flexion beyond 90 degrees. Signs of dislocation such as acute pain, rotation, and extremity shortening needs to be reported immediately to the surgeon. To prevent infection the nurse needs to perform thorough handwashing and use aseptic technique for wound care and emptying of drains. To prevent venous thromboembolism, the client would wear elastic stockings and/or a sequential compression device per agency policy and surgeon prescription. The nurse would encourage fluid intake and teach the client leg exercises to promote circulation. Legs are not massaged; in addition, knee flexion is avoided for a prolonged period of time because these actions promote venous stasis and thromboembolism. The nurse would monitor vital signs at least every 4 hours and observe the client for bleeding. Any signs of complications are reported immediately to the surgeon.

The nurse is creating a plan of care for a client with a diagnosis of nephrotic syndrome whose glomerular filtration rate (GFR) is normal. Which interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care? Select all that apply. 1. Monitor daily weight. 2. Maintain sodium restrictions. 3. Maintain a diet low in protein. 4. Monitor intake and output (I&O). 5. Maintain bed rest when edema is severe.

1. Monitor daily weight. 2. Maintain sodium restrictions. 4. Monitor intake and output (I&O). 5. Maintain bed rest when edema is severe. Controlling edema is a critical aspect of therapeutic management of nephrotic syndrome. If the GFR is normal, dietary intake of proteins is needed to restore normal plasma oncotic pressure and thereby decrease edema. Daily measurement of weight and abdominal girth, and careful monitoring of I&O will determine whether weight loss is caused by diuresis or protein loss. Dietary modifications may include salt restriction and fluid restriction and are based on the client's symptoms. Bed rest is prescribed to promote diuresis when edema is severe.

The nurse is caring for a client who is an athlete and has sustained an injury to the anterior cruciate ligament. The nurse is providing education to the client regarding the potential treatment measures for this injury. What should the nurse include in the teaching? Select all that apply. 1. Physical therapy 2. Knee immobilizer 3. Aspiration of joint fluid 4. Ambulation with a walker 5. Antiinflammatory medications

1. Physical therapy 2. Knee immobilizer 3. Aspiration of joint fluid 5. Antiinflammatory medications The anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) runs diagonally in the middle of the knee. Injury to the ACL can result in a partial tear, a complete tear, and an avulsion. Treatment measures for this injury include physical therapy, use of a knee immobilizer or hinge brace, aspiration of joint fluid if an effusion occurs, ambulation with crutches, antiinflammatory medications, rest, ice, and possibly reconstructive surgery.

A client with acute kidney injury has a serum potassium level of 7.0 mEq/L (7.0 mmol/L). The nurse should plan which actions as a priority? Select all that apply. 1. Place the client on a cardiac monitor. 2. Notify the health care provider (HCP). 3. Put the client on NPO (nothing by mouth) status except for ice chips. 4. Review the client's medications to determine if any contain or retain potassium]' 5. Allow an extra 500 mL of intravenous fluid intake to dilute the electrolyte concentration.

1. Place the client on a cardiac monitor. 2. Notify the health care provider (HCP). 4. Review the client's medications to determine if any contain or retain potassium. The normal potassium level is 3.5-5.0 mEq/L (3.5-5.0 mmol/L). A potassium level of 7.0 is elevated. The client with hyperkalemia is at risk of developing cardiac dysrhythmias and cardiac arrest. Because of this, the client should be placed on a cardiac monitor. The nurse should notify the HCP and also review medications to determine if any contain potassium or are potassium retaining. The client does not need to be put on NPO status. Fluid intake is not increased because it contributes to fluid overload and would not affect the serum potassium level significantly.

A client is diagnosed with epididymitis. The nurse checks the health care provider's prescriptions and expects that which measures will be prescribed? Select all that apply. 1. Sitz bath 2. Antibiotics 3. Scrotal elevation 4. Use of a heating pad 5. Bed rest with bathroom privileges

1. Sitz bath 2. Antibiotics 3. Scrotal elevation 5. Bed rest with bathroom privileges Common interventions used in the treatment of epididymitis include bed rest with bathroom privileges, elevation of the scrotum, ice packs, sitz baths, analgesics, and antibiotics. A heating pad would not be used because direct application of heat would enhance blood flow to the area, thereby increasing the swelling.

The nurse has provided dietary instructions to a client with renal calculi who must learn about the foods that yield an alkaline residue in the urine. The nurse determines that education was effective if the client chooses which selections from a diet menu? 1. Spinach salad, milk, and a banana 2. Chicken, potatoes, and cranberries 3. Peanut butter sandwich, milk, and prunes 4. Linguini with shrimp, tossed salad, and a plum

1. Spinach salad, milk, and a banana In some client situations, the health care provider may prescribe a diet that consists of foods that yield either an alkaline or an acid residue in the urine. In an alkaline residue diet, all fruits are allowed except cranberries, blueberries, prunes, and plums. Options, 2, 3 and 4 represent an acid residue diet.

The nurse is obtaining a health history from a client and is assessing for risk factors associated with osteoporosis. The nurse would be most concerned if which data were obtained? Select all that apply. 1. The client reports that she doesn't exercise much at all. 2. The client reports that she smokes a few cigarettes a day. 3. The client reports that she is taking phenytoin to treat a seizure disorder. 4. The client reports that she consumes calcium and vitamin foods and supplements daily. 5. The client reports that she takes a daily low dose of prednisone to treat a chronic respiratory condition.

1. The client reports that she doesn't exercise much at all. 2. The client reports that she smokes a few cigarettes a day. 3. The client reports that she is taking phenytoin to treat a seizure disorder. 5. The client reports that she takes a daily low dose of prednisone to treat a chronic respiratory condition. Risk factors associated with osteoporosis include a sedentary lifestyle, cigarette smoking, excessive alcohol consumption, chronic illness, and long-term use of anticonvulsants and furosemide. Another risk factor associated with osteoporosis includes a diet that is deficient in calcium. Options 1, 2, 3, and 5 are risk factors associated with osteoporosis.

The registered nurse is instructing a new nursing graduate about hemodialysis. Which statement made by the new nursing graduate indicates an understanding of the procedure for hemodialysis? Select all that apply. 1. "Sterile dialysate must be used." 2. "Dialysate contains metabolic waste products." 3. "Heparin sodium is administered during dialysis." 4. "Dialysis cleanses the blood of accumulated waste products." 5. "Warming the dialysate increases the efficiency of diffusion."

3. "Heparin sodium is administered during dialysis." 4. "Dialysis cleanses the blood of accumulated waste products." 5. "Warming the dialysate increases the efficiency of diffusion." Heparin sodium is used during dialysis, and it inhibits the tendency of blood to clot when it comes in contact with foreign substances. Option 4 is the purpose of dialysis. The dialysate is warmed to approximately 100°F to increase the efficiency of diffusion and to prevent a decrease in the client's blood temperature. Dialysate is made from clear water and chemicals and is free from any metabolic waste products or medications. Bacteria and other microorganisms are too large to pass through the membrane; therefore, the dialysate does not need to be sterile.

The nurse is caring for a client whose urine output was 25 mL per hour for 2 consecutive hours. The nurse reviews the health care provider's prescriptions and plans care, knowing that which client-related factor would increase the amount of blood flow to the kidneys? 1. Physiological stress 2. Release of norepinephrine 3. Release of low levels of dopamine 4. Sympathetic nervous system stimulation

3. Release of low levels of dopamine The release of low levels of dopamine exerts a vasodilating effect on the renal arteries, increasing urinary output. The other options cause renal vasoconstriction.

A client with severe back pain and hematuria is found to have hydronephrosis due to urolithiasis. The nurse anticipates which treatment will be done to relieve the obstruction? Select all that apply. 1. Peritoneal dialysis 2. Analysis of the urinary stone 3. Intravenous opioid analgesics 4. Insertion of a nephrostomy tube 5. Placement of a ureteral stent with ureteroscopy

4. Insertion of a nephrostomy tube 5. Placement of a ureteral stent with ureteroscopy Urolithiasis is the condition that occurs when a stone forms in the urinary system. Hydronephrosis develops when the stone has blocked the ureter and urine backs up and dilates and damages the kidney. Priority treatment is to allow the urine to drain and relieve the obstruction in the ureter. This is accomplished by placement of a percutaneous nephrostomy tube to drain urine from the kidney and placement of a ureteral stent to keep the ureter open. Peritoneal dialysis is not needed since the kidney is functioning. Stone analysis will be done later when the stone has been retrieved and analyzed. Opioid analgesics are necessary for pain relief but do not treat the obstruction.

The nurse is planning to teach a client how to stand on crutches. The nurse will incorporate into written instructions that the client should be told to place the crutches in what manner? 1. 3 inches (8 cm) to the front and side of the toes 2. 6 inches (15 cm) to the front and side of the toes 3. 15 inches (38 cm) to the front and side of the toes 4. 20 inches (51 cm) to the front and side of the toes

6 inches (15 cm) to the front and side of the toes The classic tripod position is taught to the client before instructions on gait are given. The crutches are placed 6 inches (15 cm) in front and to the side of the client. This placement provides an adequate base of support to the client and improves balance.

The community health nurse is providing a teaching session on osteoporosis to women living in the community. The nurse informs these community residents that which is a risk factor for this disorder? 1. A large skeletal frame 2. A diet low in vitamin D 3. Low thyroid hormone levels 4. A high dietary intake of calcium

A diet low in vitamin D Some of the risk factors related to osteoporosis in females are a small skeletal frame and elevated thyroid hormone. Low dietary intake of calcium and vitamin D also constitutes a risk factor for osteoporosis.

A client is being transferred to the nursing unit from the postanesthesia care unit after spinal fusion with rod insertion. The nurse should prepare to transfer the client from the stretcher to the bed by using which best method? 1. A bath blanket and the assistance of four people 2. A bath blanket and the assistance of three people 3. A transfer (slider) board and the assistance of two people 4. A transfer (slider) board and the assistance of three people

A transfer (slider) board and the assistance of three people After spinal fusion, with or without instrumentation, the client is transferred from the stretcher to the bed using a transfer (slider) board and the assistance of three people with one at the head to protect or support the client's head and neck. This strategy permits optimal stabilization and support of the spine while allowing the client to be moved smoothly and gently.

A client has had surgery to repair a fractured left hip. When repositioning the client from side to side in the bed, what should the nurse plan to use as the most important item for this maneuver? 1. Bed pillow 2. Abductor splint 3. Adductor splint 4. Overhead trapeze

Abductor splint After surgery to repair a fractured hip, an abductor splint is used to maintain the affected extremity in good alignment. A bed pillow and an overhead trapeze also are used, but neither is the priority item to be used in repositioning the client from side to side.

The nurse is teaching a client with nephrotic syndrome about managing the disorder. What should the nurse instruct the client to adjust according to the amount of edema present? 1. Salt intake 2. Water intake 3. Activity level 4. Use of diuretics

Activity level The client is taught to adjust the activity level according to the amount of edema. As edema decreases, activity can increase. Correspondingly, as edema increases, the client should increase rest periods and limit activity. Bed rest is recommended during periods of severe edema. The client with nephrotic syndrome usually has a standard limit set on sodium intake. Fluids are not restricted unless the client also is hyponatremic. Diuretics are prescribed on a specific schedule, and doses are not titrated according to the level of edema.

The client with a crush injury to the leg has a highly positive urine myoglobin level. The nurse should assess this client carefully for signs and symptoms of which problem? 1. Brain attack 2. Respiratory failure 3. Myocardial infarction 4. Acute tubular necrosis

Acute tubular necrosis The normal urine myoglobin level is negative. After extensive muscle destruction or damage, myoglobin is released into the bloodstream, where it is cleared from the body by the kidneys. When a large amount of myoglobin is being cleared from the body, there is a risk of the renal tubules being clogged with myoglobin, causing acute tubular necrosis. This is one form of acute kidney injury. The remaining options are unrelated to a positive myoglobin level.

The nurse is performing an assessment on a client after a closed reduction of a fractured right humerus and application of a plaster cast. To assess for signs of compartment syndrome, the nurse should perform which action? 1. Assess the client's cognitive level. 2. Assess the temperature of the cast. 3. Monitor for the presence of drainage or odors on or beneath the cast. 4. Assess capillary refill, temperature, color, and amount of pain in the right hand.

Assess capillary refill, temperature, color, and amount of pain in the right hand. The major signs and symptoms of compartment syndrome include pallor or cyanosis; pain, even following the administration of opioid analgesics; vascular compromise demonstrated by weakened or absent pulses and poor capillary refill; and edema of the extremity distal to the area of the fracture. Cognitive level, temperature of the cast, and the presence of drainage or odors on or beneath the cast are not assessments related to compartment syndrome.

A client is having difficulty coughing and deep-breathing because of pain after a nephrectomy. Which action by the nurse is helpful in promoting optimal respiratory function? 1. Administering pain medication just before ambulation 2. Administering pain medication when the client asks for it 3. Encouraging the use of the incentive spirometer every 8 hours 4. Assisting the client to splint the incision during respiratory exercise

Assisting the client to splint the incision during respiratory exercise The client who has had a nephrectomy may have pain with coughing and deep breathing and other respiratory exercises because the location of the incision is so close to the diaphragm. The nurse assists the client by offering opioid analgesics when due, encouraging incentive spirometer use hourly, and assisting the client to splint the incision during coughing. If the client takes pain medication only before ambulation, control of pain may be insufficient, which will not promote optimal respiratory function (pain medication should be offered 30 to 45 minutes before the client ambulates). Laparoscopic nephrectomy can also be performed. Compared to conventional nephrectomy, the laparoscopic approach is less painful and requires no sutures or staples, involves a shorter hospital stay, and has a much faster recovery.

A client is being evaluated as a potential kidney donor for a family member. The client asks the nurse why separate teams are evaluating donor and recipient. What is the most appropriate response by the nurse? 1. Helps reduce the cost of the preoperative workup 2. Saves the client and the recipient valuable preoperative time 3. Avoids a conflict of interest between the team evaluating the recipient and the team evaluating the donor 4. Provides for a sufficient number of persons reviewing the case so that no information is overlooked

Avoids a conflict of interest between the team evaluating the recipient and the team evaluating the donor Both the kidney donor and the kidney recipient need thorough medical and psychological evaluation before transplant surgery. Separate teams evaluate the donor and the recipient to avoid a conflict of interest in providing care for the 2 clients. Options 1, 2, and 4 are not related to the purpose of this approach.

A client who has had a prostatectomy has been instructed in perineal exercises to gain control of the urinary sphincter. The nurse determines that the client demonstrates a need for further teaching when he states that he will perform which movement as part of these exercises? 1. Bearing down as if having a bowel movement 2. Tightening the muscles as if trying to prevent urination 3. Contracting the abdominal, gluteal, and perineal muscles 4. Tightening the rectal sphincter while relaxing abdominal muscles

Bearing down as if having a bowel movement The Valsalva maneuver (bearing down) is avoided after prostatectomy because it increases the risk of bleeding in the postoperative period. An acceptable exercise is to tighten the abdominal, gluteal, and perineal muscles as if trying to prevent urination. Another acceptable exercise is to tighten the rectal sphincter while relaxing the abdominal muscles; this prevents the Valsalva maneuver from occurring

The nurse is assessing the renal function of a client at risk for acute kidney injury. After noting the amount of urine output and urine characteristics, the nurse proceeds to assess which as the best indirect indicator of renal status? 1. Blood pressure 2. Apical heart rate 3. Jugular vein distention 4. Level of consciousness

Blood pressure The kidneys normally receive 20% to 25% of the cardiac output, even under conditions of rest. For kidney function to be optimal, adequate renal perfusion is necessary. Perfusion can best be estimated by the blood pressure, which is an indirect reflection of the adequacy of cardiac output. The heart rate affects the cardiac output but can be altered by factors unrelated to kidney function. Jugular vein distention and level of consciousness are unrelated items.

A client is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of benign prostatic hyperplasia, and a transurethral resection of the prostate is performed. Four hours after surgery, the nurse takes the client's vital signs and empties the urinary drainage bag. Which assessment finding indicates the need to notify the health care provider (HCP)? 1. Red, bloody urine 2. Pain rated as 2 on a 0-10 pain scale 3. Urinary output of 200 mL higher than intake 4. Blood pressure, 100/50 mm Hg; pulse, 130 beats/minute

Blood pressure, 100/50 mm Hg; pulse, 130 beats/minute

The nurse is performing a musculoskeletal assessment of an immobile client for disuse osteoporosis. Which should the nurse assess to obtain the best information about the bone remodeling process? 1. Vitamin C 2. Vitamin A 3. Calcitonin 4. Thyroid hormone

Calcitonin Bone remodeling is the result of osteoblastic and osteoclastic activities, which are influenced by the degree of stress that is placed on the bone. The three substances that play an important role in this process are parathyroid hormone (which regulates calcium levels and bone resorption), vitamin D (which is active in bone formation and calcium resorption from bone), and calcitonin (which antagonizes parathyroid hormone and inhibits bone resorption). The other substances listed do not play a role in this process.

The client with chronic kidney disease has an indwelling abdominal catheter for peritoneal dialysis. The client spills water on the catheter dressing while bathing. Which action should the nurse immediately take? 1. Change the dressing. 2. Reinforce the dressing. 3. Flush the peritoneal dialysis catheter. 4. Scrub the catheter with povidone-iodine.

Change the dressing. Clients with peritoneal dialysis catheters are at high risk for infection. A wet dressing is a conduit for bacteria to reach the catheter insertion site. The nurse ensures that the dressing is kept dry at all times. Reinforcing the dressing is not a safe practice to prevent infection in this circumstance. Flushing the catheter is not indicated. Scrubbing the catheter with povidone-iodine is done at the time of connection or disconnection of peritoneal dialysis.

The nurse is assigned to care for a client in traction. The nurse creates a plan of care for the client and should include which action in the plan 1. Ensure that the knots are at the pulleys. 2. Check the weights to ensure that they are off of the floor. 3. Ensure that the head of the bed is kept at a 45- to 90-degree angle. 4. Monitor the weights to ensure that they are resting on a firm surface.

Check the weights to ensure that they are off of the floor. To achieve proper traction, weights need to be free-hanging, with knots kept away from the pulleys. Weights should not be kept resting on a firm surface. The head of the bed is usually kept low to provide countertraction.

The nurse is providing dietary instructions to a client with an oxalate kidney stone. The nurse should instruct the client to avoid which food? 1. Breads 2. Poultry 3. Chocolate 4. Prune juice

Chocolate Clients with oxalate stones should avoid foods high in oxalate, such as tea, instant coffee, cola drinks, beer, rhubarb, beans, asparagus, spinach, cabbage, chocolate, citrus fruits, apples, grapes, cranberries, and peanuts and peanut butter. Large doses of vitamin C may help increase oxalate excretion in the urine.

The nurse is caring for a client being treated for fat embolus after multiple fractures. Which data would the nurse evaluate as the most favorable indication of resolution of the fat embolus? 1. Clear mentation 2. Minimal dyspnea 3. Oxygen saturation of 85% 4. Arterial oxygen level of 78 mm Hg (10.3 kPa)

Clear mentation An altered mental state is an early indication of fat emboli; therefore, clear mentation is a good indicator that a fat embolus is resolving. Eupnea, not minimal dyspnea, is a normal sign. Arterial oxygen levels should be 80-100 mm Hg (10.6-13.33 kPa). Oxygen saturation should be higher than 95%.

A client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) has been taking aluminum hydroxide gel. On the basis of this information, the nurse determines that the client is most at risk for which problem? 1. Constipation 2. Dehydration 3. Inability to tolerate activity 4. Impaired physical mobility

Constipation The client with CKD is almost certain to have a problem with constipation as a result of factors such as fluid restriction, fatigue that limits exercise, and dietary restrictions. In addition, phosphate-binding antacids such as aluminum hydroxide gel cause constipation as a side effect. The other problems listed are unrelated to the information in the question.

The nurse is caring for a client who had surgery to repair a fractured left-sided hip using a posterior approach. In implementing hip precautions, which action should the nurse teach the client to avoid? 1. Crossing legs at the ankle 2. Using an elevated toilet seat 3. Placing a pillow between the legs 4. Keeping the legs abducted from the midline

Crossing legs at the ankle Following surgery to repair a fractured hip using a posterior approach, client education should include the following: avoiding crossing the legs at the ankle or the knee, using an elevated toilet seat, placing a pillow between the legs while lying down for the first 6 weeks, keeping the legs abducted from the midline, and keeping the hip in a neutral position at all times.

The nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client with a diagnosis of pyelonephritis. Which disorder, if noted on the client's record, should the nurse identify as a risk factor for this disorder? 1. Hypoglycemia 2. Diabetes mellitus 3. Coronary artery disease 4. Orthostatic hypotension

Diabetes mellitus Risk factors associated with pyelonephritis include diabetes mellitus, hypertension, chronic renal calculi, chronic cystitis, structural abnormalities of the urinary tract, presence of urinary stones, and presence of an indwelling urinary catheter or frequent catheterization. The conditions noted in the remaining options are not associated risk factors.

The nurse is caring for a client who has just had a plaster leg cast applied. The nurse should plan to prevent the development of compartment syndrome by performing which action? 1. Elevate the limb slightly. 2. Elevate the limb above heart level. 3. Keep the leg horizontal and cover the limb with bath blankets. 4. Place the leg in a slightly dependent position, and apply ice to the affected leg.

Elevate the limb slightly. Compartment syndrome is prevented by controlling edema. Elevation of the extremity may lower venous pressure and slow arterial perfusion; thus, the extremity should not be elevated above the heart. Similarly, the application of cold compresses may result in vasoconstriction and exacerbate compartment syndrome. It may also be necessary to bivalve or split the cast in half if compartment syndrome is suspected. Covering the limb with bath blankets, and keeping the leg horizontal or in a dependent position would not be beneficial in controlling edema.

The client newly diagnosed with chronic kidney disease recently has begun hemodialysis. Knowing that the client is at risk for disequilibrium syndrome, the nurse should assess the client during dialysis for which associated manifestations? 1. Hypertension, tachycardia, and fever 2. Hypotension, bradycardia, and hypothermia 3. Restlessness, irritability, and generalized weakness 4. Headache, deteriorating level of consciousness, and twitching

Headache, deteriorating level of consciousness, and twitching Disequilibrium syndrome is characterized by headache, mental confusion, decreasing level of consciousness, nausea, vomiting, twitching, and possible seizure activity. Disequilibrium syndrome is caused by rapid removal of solutes from the body during hemodialysis. At the same time, the blood-brain barrier interferes with the efficient removal of wastes from brain tissue. As a result, water goes into cerebral cells because of the osmotic gradient, causing increased intracranial pressure and onset of symptoms. The syndrome most often occurs in clients who are new to dialysis and is prevented by dialyzing for shorter times or at reduced blood flow rates. Tachycardia and fever are associated with infection. Generalized weakness is associated with low blood pressure and anemia. Restlessness and irritability are not associated with disequilibrium syndrome.

The nurse has a prescription to place a client with a herniated lumbar intervertebral disk on bed rest in Williams' position to minimize the pain. The nurse should put the bed in what position? 1. Flat with the knees raised 2. In high Fowler's position, with the foot of the bed flat 3. In semi Fowler's position, with the foot of the bed flat 4. In semi Fowler's position, with the knees slightly flexed

In semi Fowler's position, with the knees slightly flexed Clients with low back pain often are more comfortable when placed in Williams' position. The bed is placed in semi Fowler's position with the knee gatch raised sufficiently to flex the knees. This relaxes the muscles of the lower back and relieves pressure on the spinal nerve root. The remaining positions will not minimize the pain and may make the pain worse.

A client has Buck's extension traction applied to the right leg. Which intervention should the nurse plan to prevent complications of the device? 1. Give pin care once a shift. 2. Inspect the skin on the right leg. 3. Massage the skin of the right leg with lotion. 4. Release the weights on the right leg for daily range-of-motion exercises.

Inspect the skin on the right leg. Buck's extension traction is a type of skin traction. The nurse inspects the skin of the limb in traction at least once every 8 hours for irritation or inflammation. There are no pins to care for with skin traction. Massaging the skin with lotion is not indicated. The nurse never releases the weights of traction unless specifically prescribed by the health care provider.

The nurse is monitoring the fluid balance of an assigned client. The nurse determines that the client has proper fluid balance if which 24-hour intake and output totals are noted? 1. Intake 1500 mL, output 800 mL 2. Intake 3000 mL, output 2000 mL 3. Intake 2400 mL, output 2900 mL 4. Intake 1800 mL, output 1750 mL

Intake 1800 mL, output 1750 mL For the client on a normal diet, the normal fluid intake is approximately 1200 to 1800 mL of measurable fluids per day. The client's output in the same period should be about the same and does not include insensible losses, which are extra. Insensible losses are offset by the fluid in solid foods, which also is not measured.

The nurse is lecturing to a group of women who are at high risk for osteoporosis. The nurse should inform the women about which most important measure? 1. Limit caffeine intake. 2. Limit intake of vitamin D. 3. Limit participation in activities such as walking and swimming. 4. Limit protein in the diet because it contributes to the incidence of bone demineralization.

Limit caffeine intake. Excessive caffeine intake can increase calcium loss in the urine. Protein deficiency may contribute to the incidence of bone demineralization. Activities such as walking and swimming may be beneficial and are appropriate to reduce the risk of fracture. Adequate vitamin D intake is necessary for the metabolism of calcium.

A client being discharged home after renal transplantation has a risk for infection related to immunosuppressive medication therapy. The nurse determines that the client needs further teaching on measures to prevent and control infection if the client states that it is necessary to take which action? 1. Take an oral temperature daily. 2. Use good hand-washing technique. 3. Take all scheduled medications exactly as prescribed. 4. Monitor urine character and output at least 1 day each week.

Monitor urine character and output at least 1 day each week. The client receiving immunosuppressive medication therapy must learn and use infection control methods for use at home. The client self-monitors urine output and its characteristics on a daily basis. The client must learn proper hand-washing technique and should take the temperature daily to detect early infection. This is especially important because the client also takes corticosteroids, which mask signs and symptoms of infection. All medications should be taken exactly as prescribed.

A client is admitted to the emergency department following a fall from a horse and the health care provider (HCP) prescribes insertion of a urinary catheter. While preparing for the procedure, the nurse notes blood at the urinary meatus. The nurse should take which action? 1. Notify the HCP before performing the catheterization. 2. Use a small-sized catheter and an anesthetic gel as a lubricant. 3. Administer parenteral pain medication before inserting the catheter. 4. Clean the meatus with soap and water before opening the catheterization kit.

Notify the HCP before performing the catheterization. The presence of blood at the urinary meatus may indicate urethral trauma or disruption. The nurse notifies the HCP, knowing that the client should not be catheterized until the cause of the bleeding is determined by diagnostic testing. The other options include performing the catheterization procedure and therefore are incorrect.

A client with chronic kidney disease returns to the nursing unit following a hemodialysis treatment. On assessment, the nurse notes that the client's temperature is 38.5°C (101.2°F). Which nursing action is most appropriate? 1. Encourage fluid intake. 2. Notify the health care provider. 3. Continue to monitor vital signs. 4. Monitor the site of the shunt for infection.

Notify the health care provider. A temperature of 101.2°F (38.5°C) is significantly elevated and may indicate infection. The nurse should notify the health care provider (HCP). Dialysis clients cannot have fluid intake encouraged. Vital signs and the shunt site should be monitored, but the HCP should be notified first.

The nurse has conducted teaching with a client in an arm cast about the signs and symptoms of compartment syndrome. The nurse determines that the client understands the information if the client states that he or she should report which early symptom of compartment syndrome? 1. Cold, bluish-colored fingers 2. Numbness and tingling in the fingers 3. Pain that increases when the arm is dependent 4. Pain that is out of proportion to the severity of the fracture

Numbness and tingling in the fingers The earliest symptom of compartment syndrome is paresthesia (numbness and tingling in the fingers). Other symptoms include pain unrelieved by opioids, pain that increases with limb elevation, and pallor and coolness to the distal limb. Cyanosis is a late sign. Pain that is out of proportion to the severity of the fracture, along with other symptoms associated with the pain, is not an early manifestation.

The nurse is monitoring a client who has just returned from surgery after a transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP). The client has a 3-way Foley catheter in place for ongoing bladder irrigation. The nurse is observing the color of the client's urine and should expect which urine color during the immediate postoperative period? 1. Pale pink urine 2. Dark pink urine 3. Tea-colored urine 4. Bright red blood with small clots in the urine

Pale pink urine If the bladder irrigation is infusing at a sufficient rate, the urinary drainage through the Foley tubing should be pale pink. Dark pink urine indicates that the rate of the irrigation solution should be increased. Tea-colored urine is not seen after TURP but may be noted in a client with other renal disorders such as renal failure. Bright red bleeding and clots could indicate a complication, and if this is noted, it should be reported to the health care provider.

A hemodialysis client with a left arm fistula is at risk for arterial steal syndrome. The nurse should assess for which manifestations of this complication? 1. Warmth, redness, and pain in the left hand 2. Ecchymosis and audible bruit over the fistula 3. Edema and reddish discoloration of the left arm 4. Pallor, diminished pulse, and pain in the left hand

Pallor, diminished pulse, and pain in the left hand Steal syndrome results from vascular insufficiency after creation of a fistula. The client exhibits pallor and a diminished pulse distal to the fistula. The client also complains of pain distal to the fistula, caused by tissue ischemia. Warmth and redness probably would characterize a problem with infection. Ecchymosis and a bruit are normal findings for a fistula.

The nurse is admitting a client who has an arteriovenous (AV) fistula in the right arm for hemodialysis. Which nursing intervention is the best way to prevent injury to the AV site? 1. Putting a large note about the access site on the front of the medical record 2. Applying an allergy bracelet to the right arm, indicating the presence of the fistula 3. Telling the client to inform all caregivers who enter the room about the presence of the access site 4. Placing a sign at the bedside that reads "No blood pressure measurements or venipunctures in the right arm"

Placing a sign at the bedside that reads "No blood pressure measurements or venipunctures in the right arm" No venipunctures or blood pressure measurements should be performed in a limb with a hemodialysis access device. This commonly is communicated to all caregivers by placing a sign at the client's bedside. Placing a note on the front of the medical record does not ensure that everyone caring for the client is aware of the access device. An allergy bracelet is placed on the client with an allergy. The client should not be assigned the responsibility for informing caregivers. Some agencies use special bracelets for clients with an AV fistula to alert health care providers. Agency guidelines should always be followed in the care of the client.

The health care provider writes prescriptions for a client with chronic kidney disease (CKD). Which prescription should the nurse question? 1. Insert a saline lock. 2. Obtain a daily weight. 3. Provide a high-protein diet. 4. Administer a calcium supplement with each meal.

Provide a high-protein diet. When a client experiences CKD, the blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and serum creatinine levels rise. The client also experiences increased potassium, increased phosphates, and decreased calcium. BUN and creatinine are the byproducts of protein metabolism, so monitoring protein intake is important, with care taken to include proteins of high biological value. Clients with CKD will have protein restricted early in the disease to preserve kidney function. In end-stage disease, protein is restricted according to the client's weight, the type of dialysis, and protein loss. With CKD, the nurse is concerned about fluid volume overload and accumulation of waste products. Because of the kidneys' inability to excrete fluid, it is important for the nurse to prevent as well as assess for early signs of fluid volume excess. Infusing an intravenous (IV) solution into a client with CKD significantly increases the risk for overload. If an IV access is needed, it usually involves only a saline lock. Obtaining the client's daily weight is one of the most important assessment tools for evaluating changes in fluid volume. The kidneys also are responsible for removing waste products. The client also receives phosphate binders, calcium supplements, and vitamin D to prevent bone demineralization (osteodystrophy) from chronically elevated phosphate levels.

The clinic nurse is performing an assessment on a client with a diagnosis of rheumatoid arthritis (RA). The nurse checks for which assessment finding that is associated with RA? 1. Age of onset is generally 65 years of age or older 2. Complaints of pain that is more severe after activity 3. Systemic symptoms such as fatigue, anorexia, and weight loss 4. Joint pain is asymmetrical and associated with past injuries to the joint

Systemic symptoms such as fatigue, anorexia, and weight loss In clients diagnosed with RA, systemic symptoms such as fatigue, anorexia, weight loss, and nonspecific aching and stiffness may appear before joint manifestations. RA is characterized by chronic joint pain of variable intensity, which is more severe on rising in the morning. The age of onset for RA is most commonly between 30 and 50 years of age. Complaints of pain that is more severe after activity and asymmetrical joint pain associated with past injuries to the joint are more commonly seen in osteoarthritis.

The home care nurse has instructed a client how to perform the three-point gait with the use of crutches. The nurse observes the client using this gait to ensure correct performance of the maneuvers. Which observation, if made by the nurse, would indicate that the client understands how to perform this type of gait? 1. The client moves both crutches forward and then swings both feet forward to the crutches. 2. The client moves both crutches forward, along with the affected leg, and then moves the unaffected leg forward. 3. The client moves the right crutch forward, along with the left foot, and then brings the right foot and the left crutch forward. 4. The client moves the left crutch forward, along with the right foot, and then brings the left foot and the right crutch forward.

The client moves both crutches forward, along with the affected leg, and then moves the unaffected leg forward. In a three-point gait the client is instructed to simultaneously move both crutches and the affected leg forward and then to move the unaffected leg forward. Option 1 identifies a swing-through gait. Options 3 and 4 identify a four-point gait.

The nurse is planning to teach proper use of a thoracolumbosacral orthosis to a client who has had spinal fusion with instrumentation. The nurse should include which teaching point in the discussion with the client? 1. The brace should be applied directly next to the skin. 2. The device is applied before getting out of bed in the morning. 3. The self-adhering closures should be fairly loose to avoid constriction. 4. Areas of skin redness at the edges of the brace indicate a good, snug fit.

The device is applied before getting out of bed in the morning. After spinal surgery, a brace or corset may be required temporarily to support the spine. Clients who have lumbar or thoracic spinal fusions wear a fiberglass brace, which resembles a shell. Initially, back braces or corsets may be worn constantly, whether the client is in or out of bed. If not required constantly, the brace is applied in the morning before getting out of bed. As the client's muscles strengthen, the use of braces or corsets is usually decreased. A back brace or thoracolumbosacral orthosis is individually fitted to the client. A layer of clothing is worn between the orthosis and the skin. The closures should be secure but not overly loose or tight. The brace should not irritate the skin with proper fitting. Always follow the health care provider's activity prescriptions.

A client is experiencing the syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (ADH) secretion. When explaining this disorder to the client and family, the nurse recalls that ADH works to reabsorb water in which parts of the nephron? 1. The glomerulus and the calices 2. The loop of Henle and the distal tubule 3. The distal tubule and the collecting duct 4. The proximal tubule and the loop of Henle

The distal tubule and the collecting duct The distal tubule and the collecting duct of the nephron require the presence of ADH for water reabsorption. The hormone increases the permeability of the membranes to allow water to flow more easily along the concentration gradient. The glomerulus filters but does not reabsorb. The calices are responsible for collecting the urine. The proximal tubule and the loop of Henle reabsorb water without the assistance of ADH.

The spouse of a client with acute kidney injury secondary to heart failure asks the nurse how a heart problem can affect the kidneys. The nurse should formulate a response using what fact about the kidneys? 1. The kidneys get fatigued from having to filter too much fluid. 2. The kidneys can react adversely to moderate doses of furosemide. 3. The kidneys will shut down easily if serum levels of digoxin are high. 4. The kidneys generally require and receive about 20% to 25% of the resting cardiac output.

The kidneys generally require and receive about 20% to 25% of the resting cardiac output. Heart failure is referred to as a prerenal cause of acute kidney injury because heart failure results in decreased blood flow to the kidneys. The kidneys normally receive about 20% to 25% of the cardiac output and require adequate perfusion to function properly. With a significant or prolonged decrease in blood supply, the kidneys can fail. Options 1 and 3 are incorrect. As for option 2, large doses of furosemide resulting in severe dehydration may lead to decreased kidney perfusion, but moderate doses of furosemide do not cause prerenal acute kidney injury, and furosemide may be used to treat acute kidney injury.

A client tells the nurse about a pattern of a strong urge to void, followed by incontinence before the client can get to the bathroom. Based on the data provided, which condition should the nurse suspect? 1. Urge incontinence 2. Total incontinence 3. Stress incontinence 4. Reflex incontinence

Urge incontinence Urge incontinence occurs when the client experiences involuntary loss of urine soon after experiencing urgency. Total incontinence occurs when loss of urine is unpredictable and continuous. Stress incontinence occurs when the client voids in increments of less than 50 mL under conditions of increased abdominal pressure. Reflex incontinence occurs at rather predictable times that correspond to when a certain bladder volume is attained.

The nurse has taught a client with a below-the-knee amputation about prosthesis and residual limb care. The nurse determines that the client has understood the instructions if the client makes which statement? 1. Wear a clean nylon residual limb sock daily. 2. Use a mirror to inspect all areas of the residual limb each day. 3. Toughen the skin of the residual limb by rubbing it with alcohol. 4. Prevent cracking of the skin of the residual limb by applying lotion daily.

Use a mirror to inspect all areas of the residual limb each day. Following amputation, the client should inspect all surfaces of the residual limb daily for irritation, blisters, or breakdown. The other options are incorrect. The client should wear a clean woolen residual limb sock each day. Nylon is a synthetic material that does not allow the best air circulation and holds in moisture. The stump is cleansed daily with a gentle soap and water and is dried carefully. Alcohol is avoided because it could cause drying or cracking of the skin. Oils, creams, and lotions also are avoided because they are too softening to the skin for safe prosthesis use.

The nurse is preparing to care for a client after a renal scan. Which intervention should the nurse include in the postprocedure plan of care? 1. Limit contact with the client to 20 minutes per hour. 2. Place the client on radiation precautions for 18 hours. 3. Save all urine in a radiation-safe container for 18 hours. 4. Wear gloves if contact with the client's urine will occur.

Wear gloves if contact with the client's urine will occur. No specific precautions are necessary after a renal scan. Urination into a commode is acceptable without risk from the small amount of radioactive material to be excreted. The nurse wears gloves to maintain body secretion precautions. Options 1, 2, and 3 are unnecessary.

The nurse has completed giving discharge instructions to a client after total knee arthroplasty and replacement with a prosthetic system. The nurse teaches the client about weight-bearing status. What information should the nurse include? 1. "You will use full weight bearing by discharge." 2. "You will use partial weight bearing by discharge." 3. "You will use toe-touch weight bearing by discharge." 4. "You will need to remain on bed rest even after discharge."

You will use full weight bearing by discharge." After total knee arthroplasty, there is an emphasis on physical therapy as part of the plan of care. By discharge, the client should be using full weight bearing after working with therapy. The other options are incorrect.

A client is seen in the health care provider's office for complaints of wrist pain. A diagnosis of carpal tunnel syndrome is made. In explaining this disorder to the client, the nurse states that it is caused by compression of which nerve? 1. Median 2. Peroneal 3. Trigeminal 4. Spinal accessory

Median Carpal tunnel syndrome is caused by excessive pressure on the median nerve as a result of injury, overuse, or disease. The peroneal nerve is in the leg. Trigeminal neuropathy results in facial pain, also known as tic douloureux. The spinal accessory nerve is a motor nerve impacting shoulder function.

The nurse assessing the ureterostomy of a postoperative client interprets that the stoma has normal characteristics if which is observed? 1. Dry 2. Pale 3. Dark-colored 4. Red and moist

Red and moist Following ureterostomy, the stoma should be red and moist. A dry stoma may indicate fluid volume deficit. A pale stoma may indicate an inadequate vascular supply. Any darkness or duskiness of the stoma may mean loss of vascular supply and must be corrected immediately to prevent necrosis.

A client who is to have a cystectomy with creation of an ileal conduit asks the nurse why the bowel needs to be cleansed before surgery if the bladder is being removed. Which response by the nurse is the most appropriate? 1. "All clients undergo bowel preparation with major surgery." 2. "This will decrease the chance of postoperative paralytic ileus." 3. "A portion of the bowel will be used to create the conduit for urinary diversion." 4. "This will reduce the chance that the surgeon will nick the bowel during surgery."

"A portion of the bowel will be used to create the conduit for urinary diversion." The client scheduled for surgical creation of either an ileal conduit or a reservoir undergoes bowel preparation the night before the procedure. Preparation can include intake of copious clear liquids, laxatives, enemas, and antibiotics, depending on health care provider preference. This is done primarily to prevent infection because a loop of bowel will be used to create the urinary diversion.

The nurse has provided instructions to a client with a diagnosis of rheumatoid arthritis about measures to protect the joints. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further instruction? 1. "I should slide objects rather than lifting them." 2. "I should try not to remain in the same position for a long period of time." 3. "I should use large joints instead of small joints when performing activities." 4. "Pain or fatigue is expected, and I should try to continue with the activity if this occurs."

"Pain or fatigue is expected, and I should try to continue with the activity if this occurs." The client should be instructed to use pain or fatigue as an indicator and guide to increase, maintain, or decrease an activity level. If pain or fatigue is experienced, the client should rest. The client should learn to slide objects rather than lifting them and not remain in the same position for a long time. Whenever possible, the client should use large joints instead of small joints for activities and should use the joints in their most natural position.

The nurse is reviewing the postprocedure plan of care formulated by a nursing student for a client scheduled for a bone biopsy. The nurse determines that the student needs additional information about postprocedure care if which inaccurate intervention is documented? 1. Elevating the limb 2. Monitoring vital signs every 4 hours 3. Administering opioid analgesics intramuscularly 4. Monitoring the biopsy site for swelling, bleeding, or hematoma

Administering opioid analgesics intramuscularly Nursing care after bone biopsy includes monitoring the site for swelling, bleeding, and hematoma formation. The biopsy site is elevated for 24 hours or as prescribed to reduce edema. The vital signs are monitored every 4 hours for 24 hours for signs of complications such as infection and bleeding. The client usually requires mild analgesics. More severe pain usually indicates that complications are arising.

A client with epididymitis is upset about the extent of scrotal edema. Attempts to reassure the client that this condition is temporary have not been effective. The nurse should plan to address which client problem? 1. Pain related to fluid accumulation in the scrotum 2. Uneasiness related to inability to reduce scrotal swelling 3. Guilt related to the possibility of sterility secondary to scrotal swelling 4. Altered body appearance related to change in the appearance of the scrotum

Altered body appearance related to change in the appearance of the scrotum Altered body appearance is a problem when the client has either a verbal or a nonverbal response to a change in the structure or the function of a body part. Pain may apply but does not correlate with the information in the question. There are no data in the question that uneasiness, inability to reduce scrotal swelling, or sterility is a client concern.

The nurse provides instructions to a client with bilateral deformities of the joints of the fingers due to rheumatoid arthritis. When providing teaching about the disease process, the nurse should inform the client that the changes are most likely due to what type of response? 1. Allergic 2. Metabolic 3. Endocrine 4. Autoimmune

Autoimmune The most likely cause for rheumatoid arthritis is activation of an autoimmune response. This is thought to trigger antigen-antibody responses and release of lysosomes from phagocytic cells, which ultimately attack the cartilage and synovia, with resultant synovitis. Other theories related to the cause of rheumatoid arthritis have been proposed, but the most likely cause is an autoimmune reaction.

A home care nurse is making home visits to an older client with urinary incontinence who is very concerned about the incontinent episodes. Which finding by the nurse indicates that the client has an environmental barrier to normal voiding? 1. Presence of hand railings in the bathroom 2. Having 1 bathroom on each floor of the home 3. Bathroom located on the second floor, bedroom on the first floor 4. Night light present in the hall between the bedroom and bathroom

Bathroom located on the second floor, bedroom on the first floor Having the bathroom on the second floor and the bedroom on the first floor may pose a problem for the older client with incontinence. The need to negotiate the stairs and the distance both may interfere with reaching the bathroom in a timely fashion. It is more helpful to the incontinent client to have a bathroom on the same floor as the bedroom or to have a commode rented for use. Hand railings and night lights are helpful to the client in reaching the bathroom quickly and safely.

The nurse is teaching a client who had a lumbar laminectomy how to perform activities of daily living without causing strain on the back. Which action performed by the client indicates a need for further instruction? 1. Bends over to tie shoes 2. Sits in a recliner with feet elevated 3. Squats to pick up an item from the floor 4. Sleeps in a side-lying position with knees and hips bent

Bends over to tie shoes To prevent strain on the lower back, it is important to use proper body mechanics. This includes bending at the knees, and not at the waist, when picking up things or lifting. Options 2, 3, and 4 are all appropriate ways to avoid lower back strain.

A client undergoing hemodialysis begins to experience muscle cramping. What is the best action by the hemodialysis nurse in this situation? 1. Administer hypotonic saline. 2. Increase the ultrafiltration rate. 3. Decrease the ultrafiltration rate. 4. Administer magnesium sulfate.

Decrease the ultrafiltration rate. Muscle cramps during hemodialysis result from either too rapid removal of water and sodium or neuromuscular hypersensitivity. The nurse corrects this situation by either slowing down the ultrafiltration rate on the hemodialyzer or administering hypertonic or isotonic normal saline. Magnesium sulfate is not prescribed to correct this occurrence.

A client has been diagnosed with pyelonephritis. The nurse interprets that which health problem has placed the client at risk for this disorder? 1. Diabetes mellitus 2. Orthostatic hypotension 3. Coronary artery disease 4. Intravenous (IV) contrast medium

Diabetes mellitus Pyelonephritis is most commonly caused by entry of bacteria, obstruction, or reflux. Risk factors associated with pyelonephritis include diabetes mellitus, hypertension, chronic renal calculi, chronic cystitis, overuse of analgesics, structural abnormalities of the urinary tract, presence of urinary stones, and indwelling or frequent urinary catheterization.

The nurse is admitting a client with multiple trauma injuries to the nursing unit. The client has a leg fracture and had a plaster cast applied. Which position would be best for the casted leg? 1. Elevated for 3 hours, then flat for 1 hour 2. Flat for 3 hours, then elevated for 1 hour 3. Flat for 12 hours, then elevated for 12 hours 4. Elevated on pillows continuously for 24 to 48 hours

Elevated on pillows continuously for 24 to 48 hours A casted extremity is elevated continuously for the first 24 to 48 hours to minimize swelling and promote venous drainage. Options 1, 2, and 3 are incorrect.

A client has been diagnosed with polycystic kidney disease. On assessment of the client, the nurse should observe for which most common manifestation of this disorder? 1. Headache 2. Hypotension 3. Flank pain and hematuria 4. Complaints of low pelvic pain

Flank pain and hematuria The most common findings with polycystic kidney disease are hematuria and flank or lumbar pain that is either colicky in nature or dull and aching. Other common findings include proteinuria, calculi, uremia, and palpable kidney masses. Hypertension is another common finding and may be associated with cardiomegaly and heart failure. The client may complain of a headache, but this is not a specific assessment finding in polycystic kidney disease.

The nurse provides instructions to a client diagnosed with osteoporosis. Education about prevention of which complication is the most important? 1. Fractures 2. Weight loss 3. Hypocalcemia 4. Muscle atrophy

Fractures Osteoporosis is a chronic, progressive metabolic bone disease characterized by low bone mass and structural deterioration of bone tissue, leading to increased bone fragility. The woman is most likely to suffer fractures as a result of this disorder. The remaining options are not directly related to this disorder.

An older client is diagnosed with osteoporosis. The nurse teaches the client about self-care measures, knowing that the client is most at risk for which problem as a result of this disorder of the bones? 1. Anemia 2. Fractures 3. Infection 4. Muscle sprains

Fractures The client is most at risk for fractures as a result of osteoporosis. Although other complications can occur, fracture is the greatest concern. Anemia and infection can occur with bone marrow disorders, and muscle sprains are unrelated to osteoporosis.

The client diagnosed with benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) is scheduled for a transrectal ultrasound examination and a test to measure the level of prostate-specific antigen (PSA). The client says to the nurse, "I can't remember . . . can you tell me again why I need these tests to be done?" The nurse responds, knowing that these tests are done for which purpose? 1. Specifically to predict the course of BPH 2. Help to rule out the possibility of cancer 3. Pinpoint the likelihood of developing urinary obstruction 4. Give an indication of whether intermittent self-catheterization is needed

Help to rule out the possibility of cancer A transrectal ultrasound examination and PSA level determination help to rule out the possibility of prostate cancer. They do not specifically predict the course of BPH or the development of complications such as urinary obstruction. These tests have nothing to do with determining need for self-catheterization.

A client has sustained a closed fracture and has just had a cast applied to the affected arm. The client is complaining of intense pain. The nurse elevates the limb, applies an ice bag, and administers an analgesic, with little relief. Which problem may be causing this pain? 1. Infection under the cast 2. The anxiety of the client 3. Impaired tissue perfusion 4. The recent occurrence of the fracture

Impaired tissue perfusion Most pain associated with fractures can be minimized with rest, elevation, application of cold, and administration of analgesics. Pain that is not relieved by these measures should be reported to the health care provider because pain unrelieved by medications and other measures may indicate neurovascular compromise. Because this is a new closed fracture and cast, infection would not have had time to set in. Intense pain after casting is normally not associated with anxiety or the recent occurrence of the injury. Treatment following the fracture should assist in relieving the pain associated with the injury.

The nurse is assigned to care for a client who is in Buck's traction. The nurse prepares a plan of care for the client and includes which nursing action in the plan? 1. Make sure that the knots are at the pulleys. 2. Inspect the skin under the boot at least every 8 hours. 3. Make sure the head of the bed is kept at a 45- to 90-degree angle. 4. Monitor the weights to be sure that they are resting on a firm surface.

Inspect the skin under the boot at least every 8 hours. When possible, remove the belt or boot that is used for skin traction every 8 hours to inspect under the device for skin irritation and breakdown. To achieve proper traction, weights need to be free-hanging, with knots kept away from the pulleys. Weights are not to be kept resting on a firm surface. The head of the bed is usually kept low to provide countertraction.

A client has just had a Foley catheter removed and is to be started on a bladder retraining program. Which intervention will provide the most useful information about the client's ability to empty the bladder? 1. Calculating total fluid intake for the shift 2. Recording the amount of the client's voidings 3. Assisting the client to the bathroom every 2 hours 4. Measuring postvoid residual using a bladder scan

Measuring postvoid residual using a bladder scan Measuring postvoid residual gives specific information about the ability of the bladder to empty completely. Recording intake and output and assisting the client to the bathroom are general interventions but do not provide information about the client's ability to empty the bladder.

The nurse is caring for a client who was prescribed furosemide. The nurse should monitor the client for damage of which kidney structure? 1. Pelvis 2. Calyx 3. Nephron 4. Renal artery

Nephron The nephron is the functional unit of the kidney that is responsible for clearance of excess fluid and waste products of metabolism. The renal pelvis and calices collect urine to send to the ureter. The renal artery brings blood to the kidney for filtering by the nephron.

The nurse is caring for a client in skeletal traction. On assessing the pin sites, the nurse notes the presence of purulent drainage. Which nursing action is most appropriate? 1. Document the findings. 2. Notify the health care provider. 3. Apply antibiotic ointment to the pin sites. 4. Clean the pin sites more frequently than prescribed.

Notify the health care provider. A small amount of clear fluid drainage is expected at pin insertion sites. Signs of infection such as inflammation, purulent drainage, and pain at the pin sites are not expected findings and should be reported to the health care provider. Options 1, 3, and 4 are inappropriate nursing actions for this client before cleaning a newly assessed potentially infected pin site; the site would be cultured before either cleaning it or putting medication on it.

The nurse is planning measures to increase bed mobility for a client in skeletal leg traction. Which item should the nurse consider to be most helpful for this client? 1. Television 2. Fracture bedpan 3. Overhead trapeze 4. Reading materials

Overhead trapeze The use of an overhead trapeze is extremely helpful for a client to move about in bed and to get on and off the bedpan. This device has the greatest value in increasing overall bed mobility. Television and reading materials, although helpful in reducing boredom and providing distraction, do not increase bed mobility. A fracture bedpan is useful in reducing discomfort with elimination.

The nurse is urging a client to cough and deep breathe after nephrectomy. The client tells the nurse, "That's easy for you to say! You don't have to do this." The nurse interprets that the client's statement is most likely to be a result of which factor? 1. A stress response to the ordeal of surgery 2. A latent fear of needing dialysis if the surgery is unsuccessful 3. Pain that is intensified because of the location of the incision near the diaphragm 4. Effects of circulating metabolites that have not been excreted by the remaining kidney

Pain that is intensified because of the location of the incision near the diaphragm After nephrectomy, the client may be in considerable pain. This is because of the size of the incision and its location near the diaphragm, which make coughing and deep breathing very uncomfortable. For this reason, opioids are used liberally and may be most effective when provided as patient-controlled analgesia or through epidural analgesia. The items in the other options are not likely factors for the client's statement.

The nurse is assessing the patency of a client's left arm arteriovenous fistula prior to initiating hemodialysis. Which finding indicates that the fistula is patent? 1. Palpation of a thrill over the fistula 2. Presence of a radial pulse in the left wrist 3. Visualization of enlarged blood vessels at the fistula site 4. Capillary refill less than 3 seconds in the nail beds of the fingers on the left hand

Palpation of a thrill over the fistula The nurse assesses the patency of the fistula by palpating for the presence of a thrill or auscultating for a bruit. The presence of a thrill and bruit indicate patency of the fistula. Enlarged visible blood vessels at the fistula site are a normal observation but are not indicative of fistula patency. Although the presence of a radial pulse in the left wrist and capillary refill less than 3 seconds in the nail beds of the fingers on the left hand indicate adequate circulation to the hand, they do not assess fistula patency.

The nurse is assisting in performing a physical assessment of a right-handed client's musculoskeletal system. Which would be an abnormal finding? 1. Presence of fasciculations 2. Muscle strength of normal power 3. Symmetrical movements bilaterally 4. Hypertrophy of right upper arm of 1 cm

Presence of fasciculations Fasciculations are fine-muscle twitches that are not normally present. Hypertrophy, or increased muscle size, on the client's dominant side of up to 1 cm is considered normal. Muscle strength is graded from (paralysis) to (normal power). Symmetrical muscle movement is a normal finding.

The nurse is caring for a client who had an above-knee amputation 2 days ago. The residual limb was wrapped with an elastic compression bandage, which has come off. Which immediate action should the nurse take? 1. Apply ice to the site. 2. Call the health care provider (HCP). 3. Rewrap the residual limb with an elastic compression bandage. 4. Apply a dry, sterile dressing and elevate the residual limb on 1 pillow.

Rewrap the residual limb with an elastic compression bandage. If the client with an amputation has a cast or elastic compression bandage that slips off, the nurse must wrap the residual limb immediately with another elastic compression bandage. Otherwise, excessive edema will form rapidly, which could cause a significant delay in rehabilitation. If the client had a cast that slipped off, the nurse would have to call the HCP so that a new one could be applied. Elevation on 1 pillow is not going to impede the development of edema greatly once compression is released. Ice would be of limited value in controlling edema from this cause. If the HCP were called, the prescription likely would be to reapply the compression dressing anyway

The nurse is caring for a client with a swollen left ankle who has difficulty bearing weight on this leg and states that he twisted his ankle. Based on these findings, which condition does the nurse determine the client has most likely experienced? 1. Strain 2. Sprain 3. Fracture 4. Contusion

Sprain A sprain is an injury to a ligament caused by a wrenching or twisting motion. Signs and symptoms include pain, swelling, and inability to use the joint or bear weight normally. A strain results from a pulling force on a muscle. Manifestations include soreness and pain with muscle use. Typical signs and symptoms of fracture are variable but include pain, loss of function in the affected area, deformity, shortening of the extremity, crepitus, swelling, and ecchymosis. A contusion results from a blow to soft tissue and causes pain, swelling, and ecchymosis.

The nurse is caring for a client diagnosed with the rotator cuff lesion. The nurse assesses the client knowing that the client most likely has which structure affected? 1. Nerve 2. Tendon 3. Ligament 4. Synovial fluid

Tendon Lesions of the rotator cuff often involve the supraspinatus tendon of the shoulder. Although the entire joint is painful, the etiology does not involve nerves, ligaments, or synovial fluid. Usually the problem involves one or more of the tendons and muscles in the musculotendinous cuff. It most often is the result of minor repeated traumas or degenerative changes in the older client or the result of severe trauma in the younger client.

The nurse is caring for an older client. Which finding should the nurse expect to note in this client while evaluating renal function? 1. Tubular reabsorption increases 2. Urine-concentrating ability increases 3. Medications are metabolized in larger amounts 4. The glomerular filtration rate (GFR) diminishes

The glomerular filtration rate (GFR) diminishes As part of the normal aging process, the GFR decreases, along with each of the other functional abilities of the kidney. Tubular reabsorption and urine-concentrating ability also decrease. The kidneys have decreased ability to metabolize medications.

The nurse is evaluating a client in skeletal traction. When evaluating the pin sites, the nurse would be most concerned with which finding? 1. Redness around the pin sites 2. Pain on palpation at the pin sites 3. Thick, yellow drainage from the pin sites 4. Clear, watery drainage from the pin sites

Thick, yellow drainage from the pin sites The nurse should monitor for signs of infection such as inflammation, purulent drainage, and pain at the pin site. However, some degree of inflammation, pain at the pin site, and serous drainage would be expected; the nurse should correlate assessment findings with other clinical findings, such as fever, elevated white blood cell count, and changes in vital signs. Additionally, the nurse should compare any findings to baseline findings to determine if there were any changes.

The nurse has reviewed activity restrictions with a client who is being discharged after insertion of a femoral head prosthetic system. What statement by the client will help the nurse determine that the client understands the material presented? 1. Use a raised toilet seat. 2. Bend carefully to put on socks and shoes. 3. Sit in chairs without arms for better mobility. 4. Exercise the leg past the point of 90-degree flexion.

Use a raised toilet seat. The client who has had an insertion of a femoral head prosthesis should use a raised toilet seat. The client should avoid putting on his or her own socks and shoes for 8 weeks after surgery because it would force the leg into acute flexion. The client should sit in chairs that have arms to provide assistance in rising from the sitting position. The client also should maintain the leg in a neutral, straight position when lying, sitting, or walking. The leg should not be adducted, internally rotated, or flexed more than 90 degrees.

A client with urolithiasis (struvite stones) has a history of chronic urinary tract infections. What should the nurse plan to teach the client to avoid? 1. Antibiotics 2. Foods that make the urine more acidic 3. Wearing synthetic underwear and pantyhose 4. Fruits such as currants, blueberries, and cranberries

Wearing synthetic underwear and pantyhose Urolithiasis (struvite stones) can result from chronic infections. They form in urine that is alkaline and rich in ammonia, such as with a urinary tract infection. Teaching should focus on preventing infections and ingesting foods to make the urine more acidic. Foods such as currants, blueberries, and cranberries are acidic. The client should wear cotton, not synthetic, underclothing to prevent the accumulation of moisture and to prevent irritation of the perineal area, which can lead to infection. Antibiotics are not associated with chronic urinary tract infections.

A nursing student is providing health maintenance education to a client with osteitis deformans (Paget's disease). Which statement by the client indicates a need for further education? 1. "When I have pain, I will take ibuprofen." 2. "I should perform low-impact exercises regularly." 3. "Because I have no symptoms, my disease is not progressing." 4. "I must notify my health care provider if I experience any hearing loss."

"Because I have no symptoms, my disease is not progressing." Paget's disease is characterized by skeletal deformities caused by abnormal bone resorption followed by abnormal regeneration. It is a chronic disease, and most persons who are affected by it are asymptomatic. Even though there may be no symptoms, excessive bone loss may have occurred. Over-the-counter nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs may be used for pain, and low-impact exercises may reduce pain and increase mobility. Bones in the ear may be affected, and pressure from an enlarged temporal bone may cause hearing loss. If hearing loss occurs, the health care provider is notified.

A client with nephrolithiasis arrives at the clinic for a follow-up visit. Laboratory analysis of the stone that the client passed 1 week earlier indicates that the stone is composed of calcium oxalate. Based on these data, what food item does the nurse instruct the client to avoid? 1. Pasta 2. Lentils 3. Lettuce 4. Spinach

Spinach Many kidney stones are composed of calcium oxalate. Foods that raise urinary oxalate excretion include spinach, rhubarb, strawberries, chocolate, wheat bran, nuts, beets, and tea. Pasta, lentils, and lettuce are acceptable to consume.