Elsevier Pharm. Tech Exams 1/10, Chapter 10
What is the maximum number of refills allowed on Accutane prescriptions? A. 0 B. 1 C. 6 D. 12
A. 0 Rationale: Prescriptions for Accutane (isotretinoin) may not have refills. The patient must return to see the physician on a monthly basis and be provided with a new written prescription.
Which of the following is the proper size of a sterilizing filter? A. 0.2 microns B. 0.45 microns C. 1.2 microns D. 5.0 microns
A. 0.2 microns Rationale: A sterilizing filter's pores cannot be any larger than 0.2 microns in size.
What is the concentration of ½ NS? A. 0.45% B. 0.5% C. 0.9% D. 1%
A. 0.45% Rationale: 1/2 normal saline (NS) has a concentration of 0.45%, and NS has a concentration of 0.9%.
A pharmacy technician is preparing heparin 25,000 units in 500 mL of D5W. What concentration should be on the label? A. 50 units/mL B. 75 units/mL C. 100 units/mL D. 125 units/mL
A. 50 units/mL Rationale: Set up the following proportion: 25,000 units/500 mL = X units/1 mL, where X = 50 units.
Which drug classification should not be taken with potassium-sparing diuretics? A. ACE inhibitors B. Beta-blockers C. Calcium channel blockers D. Nitrates
A. ACE inhibitors Rationale: ACE inhibitors have a potassium-sparing effect, which, if taken with potassium-sparing diuretics, may result in hyperkalemia.
Which drug classification ends in -pril? A. ACE inhibitors B. Benzodiazepines C. Corticosteroids D. H2 antagonists
A. ACE inhibitors Rationale: The suffix -pril designates the medication is an ACE inhibitor used in the treatment of cardiovascular disease.
Which of the following is not an advantage of health information technology? A. Alert fatigue occurs when excessive drug safety alerts occur B. Improved communication and health care delivery C. Improvement in reimbursement processes D. Ability to track the effectiveness of treatment options and quality of care
A. Alert fatigue occurs when excessive drug safety alerts occur Rationale: Answers b, c, and d are all advantages of health information technology. Alert fatigue occurs when the user is continually receiving alerts regarding medication interactions, which results in the user ignoring the alerts.
Which of the following products is not used to treat hyperlipidemia? A. Aspirin B. Fibric acid derivatives C. HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors D. Metamucil
A. Aspirin Rationale: Aspirin does not have the ability to reduce the level of cholesterol in the body. Fibric acid derivatives and HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors are used to treat hyperlipidemia. Metamucil has been shown to lower cholesterol in the body.
Which of the following would not be a correct auxiliary label for a patient taking doxycycline? A. Avoid dairy products B. Avoid sunlight C. Not to be taken by pregnant women or children younger than age 9 D. Take on an empty stomach
A. Avoid dairy products Rationale: Doxycycline is the only tetracycline that can be taken with dairy products.
Which of the following drugs is not an MAO inhibitor? A. Bupropion B. Phenylzine C. Selegiline D. Tranylcypromine
A. Bupropion Rationale: Bupropion (Wellbutrin or Zyban) is not an MAO inhibitor. MAO inhibitors include phenelzine (Nardil), selegiline (Eldepryl), and tranylcypromine (Parnate).
Which of the following is true regarding the storage of CII medications in a pharmacy? A. CII medications must always be stored in a locked safe or cabinet. B. CII medications must be stored separately from CIII, CIV, and CV medications. C. CII medications may be dispersed on the shelves with CIII, CIV, and CV medications D. All of the above
A. CII medications must always be stored in a locked safe or cabinet. Rationale: CII medications must be stored either in a locked safe or cabinet to reduce theft.
Which of the following is the part of the computer that does all of the computing? A. Central processing unit (CPU) B. Hardware C. Random access memory (RAM) D. Software
A. Central processing unit (CPU) Rationale: The CPU performs all calculations, the hardware is the part of the computer you can touch, RAM is storage memory, and software provides electronic communication to the system.
What type of balance is used to weigh quantities less than 120 mg? A. Class A balance B. Class B balance C. Counterbalance D. Triple-beam balance
A. Class A balance Rationale: A class A (class III) balance is used to weigh quantities less than 120 mg. Counterbalances can weigh quantities up to 5 kg.
What type of drug requires a DEA number? A. Controlled substance B. Investigational drug C. Legend drug D. OTC
A. Controlled substance Rationale: The Controlled Substances Act requires that all prescriptions for controlled substances have the physician's DEA number on them.
How many 500-mg doses can be prepared from a 10-g vial of cefazolin? A. 15 B. 20 C. 25 D. 50
B. 20 Rationale: Convert 10 g to milligrams: 10 g × 1000 mg/g = 10,000 mg. Divide the total weight by the weight per dose: 10,000 mg/500 mg per dose = 20 doses.
How many inches inside a laminar airflow hood should one prepare a sterile product? A. 4 B. 6 C. 10 D. 12
B. 6 Rationale: One must be at least 6 inches inside of the laminar airflow hood to use proper aseptic technique.
Which of the following is a federal program for patients older than 65 years of age or with certain diseases? A. ADC B. Medicaid C. Medicare D. Worker's compensation
C. Medicare Rationale: Medicare is a federal program for individuals older than age 65 years. Medicaid is a federal program administered by the state for individuals (families) who meet specific income guidelines. Workers' compensation is for individuals who are injured while working.
Which of the following medications is not a bronchodilator? A. Albuterol B. Ipratropium C. Montelukast D. Salmeterol
C. Montelukast Rationale: Montelukast (Singulair) is a leukotriene inhibitor.
Which of the following is required for a pharmacy to participate in a third-party reimbursement program? A. DEA number B. NABP number C. NPI number D. All of the above
C. NPI number Rationale: HIPAA mandates that all health care providers possess a National Provider Identifier (NPI) number.
Which of the following is not a required text in a pharmacy? A. A copy of the Controlled Substances Act B. Orange Book C. PDR D. USP-NF
C. PDR Rationale: The PDR is not a required reference in a pharmacy. All pharmacies must maintain a library for reference.
Which of the following has been identified by MEDMARX as the leading cause of medication errors? A. Illegible handwriting B. Knowledge deficit C. Performance deficit D. Transcription inaccuracy
C. Performance deficit Rationale: MEDMARX has identified performance deficit as the largest cause of errors.
What type of inventory identifies the actual quantity of a specific medication on hand at a particular time? A. Biennial inventory B. Initial inventory C. Perpetual inventory D. Physical inventory
C. Perpetual inventory Rationale: A perpetual inventory is an ongoing inventory that identifies the quantity of a specific medication at a particular point in time.
Which of the following is not required on a prescription label? A. Expiration date of prescription B. Patient's name C. Physician's DEA number D. Physician's name
C. Physician's DEA number Rationale: A physician's DEA number is required only on the hard copy of a prescription or controlled substance; the DEA number is not required on the prescription label of control substances.
For which of the following drugs is it mandatory that a customer receive a PPI? A. Amoxicillin B. Lithonate C. Premarin D. Synthroid
C. Premarin Rationale: All prescriptions containing estrogens require the pharmacy to provide the patient with a patient product insert (PPI).
Which of the following medications does not need to be in a child-resistant container? A. Ciprofloxacin B. Levothyroxine C. Pro-Air HFA D. Warfarin
C. Pro-Air HFA Rationale: Pro-Air HFA is an example of a metered-dose inhaler and does not need to be packaged in a child-resistant container.
Which of the following drugs would be administered to a patient if he or she had received an overdose of heparin? A. Aspirin B. Phytonadione C. Protamine sulfate D. Warfarin
C. Protamine sulfate Rationale: 1 mg of protamine sulfate will neutralize 90 to 120 units of heparin.
Under which controlled drug schedule is zolpidem classified? A. Schedule II B. Schedule III C. Schedule IV D. Schedule V
C. Schedule IV Rationale: Zolpidem (Ambien) is a Schedule IV drug under the Controlled Substances Act of 1970.
Who determines the eligibility requirements for the federally funded Medicaid program? A. Federal government B. Health and Human Services C. State government D. The Joint Commission
C. State government Rationale: Medicaid is a federally funded program that is administered by the states. Each state determines the eligibility requirements for participation.
Which of the following types of containers is a single-unit container intended for administration other than parenteral? A. Hermetic container B. Single-unit container C. Unit-dose container D. Unit-of-use container
C. Unit-dose container Rationale: The USP defines a unit-dose container as a single-unit container intended for administration other than parenteral. A hermetic container is impervious to air or gas. A single-unit container is designed to hold a quantity of drug product intended for administration as a single dose. A unit-of-use container contains a specific quantity of a drug product that is intended to be dispensed as such without further modification except for appropriate labeling.
What is the gross profit for 30 tablets of carisoprodol 350 mg with an acquisition cost of $7.85/100 tablets, AWP = $9.93/100 tablets, and a retail price of $15.99/30 tablets? A. $6.06 B. $8.14 C. $13.01 D. $13.63
D. $13.63 Rationale: Gross profit is equal to the selling price minus the price paid for the product. The acquisition price is the price paid for the product. The acquisition cost is based on 100 tablets and must be prorated for 30 tablets ($7.85 × 30/100 = $2.36). SP ($15.99) - AC ($2.36) = $13.63.
How many grams of 20% zinc oxide ointment would contain 10 g of zinc oxide? A. 5 g B. 10 g C. 20 g D. 50 g
D. 50 g Rationale: Use the formula: Final weight × percent (expressed as a decimal) = Amount of active ingredient Both the percent (20%) and the amount of active ingredient (10 g) are provided in the problem. Placing this information in the equation, one finds: Final weight = Amount of active ingredient/percent (as a decimal) Final weight = 10 g/0.2 or 50 g
How many grams of boric acid are required to make 4 fl oz of the following boric acid solution? Boric acid 50 g Purified water qs to make 1000 mL A. 0.006 g B. 0.06 g C. 0.6 g D. 6 g
D. 6 g Rationale: Using a proportion, calculate the amount found in 4 fl oz (120 mL): 50 g/1000 mL = X g/120 mL, where X = 6 g.
The following prescription is presented to the pharmacy: Hctz 50 mg #30 i tab po qod c OJ How many days will the prescription last the patient? A. 15 B. 30 C. 45 D. 60
D. 60 Rationale: 30 tablets are dispensed, but 1 tablet is being taken every other day; therefore, it will last 60 days.
Which of the following percents is considered a wrong dose error? A. 1% B. 3% C. 5% D. 8%
D. 8% Rationale: A wrong dose error occurs when a dose is above or below the intended dose by more than 5%.
Which of the following workplace issues has been identified as a cause of medication errors by MEDMARX? A. Multitasking B. Similar medication labels C. Stress D. All of the above
D. All of the above Rationale: Common workplace issues include noise, stress, multitasking, similar medication labels (font size and color of font), and medication labels that are difficult to read.
A pharmacy contracts to buy the majority of its formulary from a particular wholesaler. What type of agreement is this? A. Preferred agreement B. Preferred vendor contract C. Preferential agreement D. Prime vendor agreement
D. Prime vendor agreement Rationale: A prime vendor agreement is one in which a pharmacy agrees to purchase almost exclusively from a specific vendor. The vendor in turn provides the pharmacy with discounted pricing.
Which of the following is not found in a total nutrient admixture? A. Amino acid B. Dextrose C. Lipids D. Protein
D. Protein Rationale: Amino acids, dextrose, and lipids are use in preparing a total nutrient admixture, which is a parenteral form of nutrition for patients with specific conditions. Proteins are not used in this preparation.
A patient applied a heating pad to an area where he had applied a fentanyl transdermal patch to his skin, causing the skin to release all of the medication at once, causing an overdose. What type of error occurred? A. Human error B. Product defect error C. Physician prescribing error D. Technical failure from improper application
D. Technical failure from improper application Rationale: A technical error occurs as a result of applying the medication improperly.
Which of the following products is not available as a transdermal patch? A. Catapres B. Duragesic C. Nitroglycerin D. Tegretol
D. Tegretol Rationale: Tegretol is available as a chewable tablet, an oral tablet, and a suspension. As a transdermal dosage form, Catapres is known as Catapres TTS and needs to be changed weekly; Duragesic is a Schedule II medication, which provides fentanyl as a narcotic analgesic and lasts for 3 days; and nitroglycerin is known as Nitro-dur or Nitro-disc.
Which of the following terms refers to an insurance company's use of three different copays? A. Donut hole B. Dual copay C. Online adjudication D. Tiered copay
D. Tiered copay Rationale: A tiered copay system develops a copay for generic drugs, brand name drugs, and medications that may not be part of the formulary or considered a lifestyle drug.
Which of the following drugs is not available as an OTC product? A. Ibuprofen B. Naproxen sodium C. Ranitidine D. Tramadol
D. Tramadol Rationale: Ibuprofen is available OTC as Motrin and Nuprin, naproxen sodium is Aleve, and ranitidine is Zantac. Tramadol is the prescription product known as Ultram.
How many prescription errors occur each year? A. 100,000 B. 500,000 C. 1,000,000 D. Unknown
D. Unknown Rationale: There is no accurate number of the number of prescription errors that occur each year because many errors are not discovered or reported.
What is the brand name for sertraline? A. Celexa B. Paxil C. Prozac D. Zoloft
D. Zoloft Rationale: Sertraline is the generic name for Zoloft. The generic names for the other branded medications are as follows: Celexa—citalopram, Paxil—paroxetine, and Prozac—fluoxetine.
Which answer best describes the information required during the sale of an "exempt narcotic"? A. Dispensing date, printed name, signature and address of the buyer, name and quantity of the product sold, and the pharmacist's signature B. Dispensing date, signature and phone number of the buyer, product name, and product company with lot number C. Dispensing date, signature of the buyer, name and quantity of the product sold, price of the product sold, and lot number of the product sold D. Dispensing date, buyer signature, pharmacist signature, product name and amount, and expiration date of the product
A. Dispensing date, printed name, signature and address of the buyer, name and quantity of the product sold, and the pharmacist's signature Rationale: The sale of an "exempt narcotic" requires that an individual be at least 18 years of age and a resident of the community and that only one 4-oz bottle be sold in the original manufacturer's bottle every 48 hours. The patient must complete the exempt narcotic log (record), which includes the date of the purchase and the patient's name and address. The pharmacist must make sure that the name, quantity of the product, and selling price of the product is entered in the "exempt narcotic book." The pharmacist must sign his or her name in the book as the seller of the "exempt narcotic."
Which reference book contains the USP and NF drug standards and dispensing requirements? A. Drug Topics Orange Book B. Drug Topics Red Book C. USP DI, volume I D. USP DI, volume III
A. Drug Topics Orange Book Rationale: The Drug Topics Orange Book provides USP and NF drug standards and dispensing requirements.
Which of the following pieces of legislation is known as the "prescription drug amendment"? A. Durham-Humphrey Amendment B. Hatch-Waxman Amendment C. Kefauver-Harris Amendment D. Mail Order Pharmacy Amendment
A. Durham-Humphrey Amendment Rationale: The Durham-Humphrey Amendment clearly defined prescriptions and over-the counter medications. A prescription medication is required to bear the federal legend on the container. Over-the-counter medications are considered safe to use without a physician's supervision.
Which of the following is not a side effect of glucocorticoids? A. Hypotension B. Hypokalemia C. Impaired wound healing D. Peptic ulcer disease
A. Hypotension Rationale: Glucocorticoids may cause hypertension from sodium retention, not hypotension.
Where would you prepare hazardous drugs in a pharmacy? A. In a biological safety hood B. In a horizontal laminar airflow hood C. In a vertical laminar airflow hood D. On an ointment slab
A. In a biological safety hood Rationale: Hazardous drugs are prepared in a biological safety hood, IVs in a horizontal flow hood, antineoplastics in a vertical flow hood, and various extemporaneous products using an ointment slab.
What is the purpose of a group purchasing organization (GPO)? A. Negotiates prices for hospital pharmacies B. Purchases medications for hospital pharmacies C. Purchases medications for community pharmacies D. Purchases medications for managed care pharmacies
A. Negotiates prices for hospital pharmacies Rationale: Group purchasing organizations (GPOs) negotiate prices for hospitals. They do not make the actual purchase of medications for hospitals.
Which of the following is the primary reason employees do not report prescription errors when they are discovered? A. They fear being punished. B. It did not hurt the patient. C. The institution does not have a procedure to report prescription errors. D. They do not know who they should tell about the error.
A. They fear being punished. Rationale: The fear of punishment (probation, suspension, or termination) prevents many individuals from reporting prescription errors.
How many 150-mg clindamycin capsules are required to compound a prescription reading: "Clindamycin 2%, propylene glycol 5%, isopropyl alcohol qs ad 480 mL"? A. 10 B. 64 C. 96 D. 112
B. 64 Rationale: Calculate the amount of active ingredient by multiplying the final volume by the percent of clindamycin expressed as a decimal (480 mL × 0.02 = 9.6 g). Convert 9.6 g to milligrams by multiplying 9.6 g × 1000 mg/g = 9600 mg. Divide the total weight of clindamycin by the weight of each capsule (9600 mg/150 mg per capsule = 64 capsules).
How many days does a pharmacy have to fill a prescription of Accutane (isotretinoin)? A. 1 day B. 7 days C. 30 days D. 180 days
B. 7 days Rationale: All Accutane (isotretinoin) prescriptions must be handwritten by the prescriber and filled within 7 days of being written with the approved yellow seal attached and having no refills authorized.
If a patient is experiencing a dry, nonproductive cough, what classification of drug should the patient take? A. Antihistamine B. Antitussive C. Decongestant D. Expectorant
B. Antitussive Rationale: Whereas antitussives are used in the treatment of a dry, nonproductive cough, expectorants are used if a patient has mucus or phlegm.
Which of the following would be a correct DEA number for Dr. A. Shedlock? A. AB135426 B. BS2456879 C. FS1578926 D. MS2254235
B. BS2456879 Rationale: The first letter may be either an A or B. The second letter is the first letter of the prescriber's last name. Next, add the numbers in the first, third, and fifth position. Then add the numbers in the second, fourth, and sixth positions; multiply this sum by two. Add both sums together, and the correct number should be the last number.
The abbreviation "ou" is found on a prescription. What does it mean? A. Both ears B. Both eyes C. Both feet D. Both hands
B. Both eyes Rationale: "ou" means both eyes.
The abbreviation "ou" is found on a prescription. What does it mean? A. Both ears B. Both eyes C. Both feet D. Both hands
B. Both eyes Rationale: "ou" means both eyes.
Which of the following medications is not an angiotensin II antagonist? A. Avapro B. Capoten C. Cozaar D. Diovan
B. Capoten Rationale: Capoten is a beta-blocker; Avapro, Cozaar, and Diovan are angiotensin II antagonists.
Which of the following medications needs to be packaged in a child-resistant container unless requested by a patient? A. Albuterol inhaler B. Cephalexin 500-mg capsules C. Ortho Novum 7-7-7 D. Nitroglycerin
B. Cephalexin 500-mg capsules Rationale: Cephalexin capsules must be dispensed in a child-resistant container unless the physician or patient requests it or the patient is institutionalized and the medication is being administered to the patient. Oral inhalers, oral contraceptives, and nitroglycerin are a few of the medications that do not need to be placed in a child-resistant container.
What is the meaning of CSAR? A. Controlled Studies Are Reviewed B. Controlled Substance Administration Record C. Controlled Substance Audit and Review D. Cost, sales, allocation, and resources
B. Controlled Substance Administration Record Rationale: CSAR means Controlled Substance Administration Record. CSARs are used in hospitals and other institutional facilities to acknowledge the administration of a controlled substance to a patient. The administrator must sign his or her name and the time of administration.
What do the three sets of numbers in an NDC number reflect? A. Drug manufacturer, drug product, and the year an NDA was filed B. Drug manufacturer, drug product, and package size C. Drug manufacturer, drug name, and drug strength D. None of the above
B. Drug manufacturer, drug product, and package size Rationale: The Drug Listing Act of 1972 provided a unique numbering system for each product. This 11-digit number identifies the drug manufacturer, the drug product, and the package size.
Which law is being violated if a prescription is dispensed without a valid prescription? A. Controlled Substances Act of 1970 B. Durham-Humphrey Amendment C. FDCA 1938 D. OBRA 90
B. Durham-Humphrey Amendment Rationale: If a prescription is dispensed without a valid prescription, the Durham-Humphrey Amendment is being violated.
What does the abbreviation FDA refer to? A. Food and drug abuse B. Food and Drug Administration C. Food and Drug Association D. Free Drug Assistance
B. Food and Drug Administration Rationale: FDA stands for Food and Drug Administration.
What is the established (official) United States adopted name of a drug called? A. Brand name B. Generic name C. Proprietary name D. Trade name
B. Generic name Rationale: The generic or nonproprietary name is the official name for a medication. Brand, proprietary, and trade name are synonymous. They are protected by patents.
Which of the following terms refers to the part of the computer that you can actually touch? A. Data B. Hardware C. Software D. User
B. Hardware Rationale: Hardware refers to the physical components of the computer system. Data are the facts the computer uses, software provides the instructions to the computer to perform an application, and a user is an individual using a computer.
What is the meaning of HSA? A. Health Safety Administration B. Health savings account C. Health Savings Administration D. Health spending account
B. Health savings account Rationale: A health savings account (HSA) combines the benefits of both traditional and Roth 401(k)s and IRAs for medical expenses. Taxpayers receive a 100% income tax deduction on annual contributions. They may withdraw HSA funds tax free to reimburse themselves for qualified medical expenses, and they may defer taking such reimbursements indefinitely without penalties.
Which organ can be affected by a condition of flutter? A. Esophagus B. Heart C. Intestine D. Kidneys
B. Heart Rationale: A flutter is a type of arrhythmia in which the patient's heart is beating at 200 to 350 beats/min.
What is the generic name for Prevacid? A. Esomeprazole B. Lansoprazole C. Omeprazole D. Pantoprazole
B. Lansoprazole Rationale: Brand names and their generics are as follows: Prevacid—lansoprazole, Nexium—esomeprazole, Prilosec—omeprazole, and Protonix—pantoprazole.
A drug is available in the following strengths and dosage forms: 125-mg tablets, 250-mg capsules, and 125-mg/5 mL liquid. A child weighs 55 lb, and the recommended dose is 10 mg/kg/24 hr, which is to be given in either 6- or 12-hr intervals. Which of the following would not be an appropriate regimen? A. One 125 mg tablet every 12 hr B. One 250 mg capsule every 12 hr C. One teaspoon of 125 mg/5 mL liquid every 12 hr D. ½ of a 125 mg tablet every 6 hr
B. One 250 mg capsule every 12 hr Rationale: The patient would be receiving 500 mg/day instead of 250 mg/day, which is twice the amount prescribed by the physician
What is the meaning of PDA? A. Personal digital aid B. Personal digital assistant C. Physician digital assistant D. Pharmaceutical data assistant
B. Personal digital assistant Rationale: PDA is an acronym for personal digital assistant.
What does "K" represent on a patient's medical chart? A. Calcium B. Potassium C. Phosphate D. Sodium
B. Potassium Rationale: K is potassium. Ca is calcium, Na is sodium, and PO4 is phosphate.
What is the route of administration for a prescription with the following directions: "i supp pr q 6 hr prn"? A. Orally B. Rectally C. Urethrally D. Vaginall
B. Rectally Rationale: "pr" means per rectum.
What does the term "od" mean? A. Right ear B. Right eye C. Left ear D. Left eye
B. Right eye Rationale: "od" is derived from the Latin term "oculo dextro," which is translated to right eye.
Which of the following is not required on a prescription label? A. The name and address of the pharmacy B. The physician's DEA number for controlled substances C. The patient's name D. The expiration date of the medication
B. The physician's DEA number for controlled substances Rationale: A physician's DEA number is required on all prescriptions for a controlled substance, not all prescriptions.
A pharmacy is provided with a 5% discount if it purchases $1,000,000 in medications during the calendar year. How much will the pharmacy actually pay for the $1,000,000 in inventory? A. $50,000 B. $95,000 C. $950,000 D. $1,000,000
C. $950,000 Rationale: Multiply the cost of the purchases by the discount percent ($1,000,000 × 0.05 = $50,000) to obtain the amount of the discount. Subtract the amount of the discount from the total purchase ($1,000,000 - $50,000 = $95,000), which is the actual amount paid for the inventory.
Which DAW code should be used if a physician authorizes the use of a generic drug but the patient requests a brand name drug? A. 0 B. 1 C. 2 D. 3
C. 2
How long is a DEA Form 222 valid after it has been written? A. 72 hours B. 30 days C. 60 days D. 180 days
C. 60 days Rationale: A DEA Form 222 is valid for 60 days after being written by the pharmacist in charge at a pharmacy.
A pharmacist asks you to prepare 250 mL of a 25% acetic acid solution. How much acetic acid would you need to make this preparation? A. 62.5 mg B. 6250 mg C. 62.5 g D. 6250 g
C. 62.5 g Rationale: Solve using the following formula: Final volume × % Strength (expressed as a decimal) will yield the amount of active ingredient in grams: 250 mL × 0.25 = 62.5 g.
How many tablets need to be dispensed to a patient if the directions are "i tab po tid for one month"? A. 3 B. 30 C. 90 D. 100
C. 90 Rationale: "tid" means three times a day, and a month is equal to 30 days. 3 tablets/day × 30 days/month = 90 tablets.
What does AWP represent? A. Actual warehouse price B. Actual wholesale price C. Average wholesale price D. Average wholesale promotion
C. Average wholesale price Rationale: AWP stands for average wholesale price and is a term used in determining costs and calculating the profitability of a product.
What is the meaning of DX on a patient's chart? A. Date of birth B. Diabetes C. Diagnosis D. Dispense
C. Diagnosis Rationale: DX means diagnosis.
Why are medications stored in opaque bottles? A. Drugs are sensitive to heat. B. Drugs are sensitive to humidity. C. Drugs are sensitive to light. D. All of the above
C. Drugs are sensitive to light. Rationale: Many medications are sensitive to light, so their composition may begin to disintegrate. The amber or opaque bottle prevents the light from causing the medication to decompose.
How often should a patient change his or her Duragesic patch? A. Every 24 hours B. Every 48 hours C. Every 72 hours D. Once a week
C. Every 72 hours Rationale: Duragesic patches should be changed every 72 hours (3 days).
Which of the following drugs does not need to be packaged in a child-resistant package? A. Digoxin B. Ibuprofen C. Fluoride tablets D. Simvastatin
C. Fluoride tablets Rationale: The Poison Prevention Act of 1970 permits certain medications (e.g., nitroglycerin, fluoride tablets, and mebendazole) to be dispensed in packages that are not child resistant.
What standards must be followed during extemporaneous compounding? A. DEA B. FDA C. GMP D. OBRA '90
C. GMP Rationale: GMP stands for good manufacturing practices and is adhered to for compounding prescriptions. The DEA is responsible for the Controlled Substances Act. The FDA ensures food and medications are pure, safe, and effective. OBRA '90 discusses drug utilization review and counseling patients.
Which of the following can a pharmacy technician do to reduce medication errors? A. Document all clarification on prescription orders. B. Initial all prescriptions. C. Keep work area clutter free. D. Visually check the medication in the bottle.
C. Keep work area clutter free. Rationale: A clutter-free work area reduces the possibility of a medication being placed in the wrong bottle or the wrong label being applied to the prescription bottle. It is the responsibility of pharmacists to document issues raised during the prescription filling process, to initial all filled p rescriptions for which they were responsible, and to check the final product.
What is a drug monograph? A. A picture of the drug from the manufacturer B. A price list for the drug from the manufacturer C. Literature on the drug D. Literature on the drug manufacturer
C. Literature on the drug Rationale: A monograph is literature on a specific drug by the drug manufacturer that may include a description, indications, contraindications, adverse effects, and warnings. The PDR is an example of a collection of drug monographs.
Which of the following sources of information is useful to verify that the correct medication has been selected from the shelf to fill the prescription? A. Check the name of the medication on the prescription with the name on the medication bottle. B. Check the NDC number on the prescription label and the medication bottle. C. Check the original prescription for the strength of the medication and make sure it is the same as the strength on the bottle. D. All of the above
D. All of the above Rationale: Medication errors can occur because of look-alike medication names and similar labeling. Checking all of the information mentioned may reduce prescription errors.
Which of the following is an NCPDP Standard for electronic prescribing processes? A. Billing Unit Standard B. Medicaid Subrogation C. Universal Claim Form D. All of the above
D. All of the above Rationale: NCPDP standards include the following: Batch Transaction Standard, Billing Unit Standard, Financial Information Reporting Standard, Formulary and Benefit Standard, Medicaid Subrogation, Member Enrollment Standard, Payment Reconciliation Payment Tape Format, Pharmacy Identification Cards, Post-adjudication Standard, Prescription Transfer Standard, Telecommunication Standard, Universal Claim Form, and Medication History Standard.
Which of the following methods may a pharmacy use to address medication errors? A. Conduct educational programs. B. Discuss medication errors as part of regular meetings. C. Publish summaries of errors that have occurred in staff newsletters. D. All of the above
D. All of the above Rationale: Preventing medication errors can be facilitated through educational means. Providing this information to the staff draws attention to the seriousness of the problem and ways to prevent these errors from occurring in the future.
Which of the following items should be reviewed when receiving a new prescription from a patient? A. The date of the prescription is valid. B. The name, strength, and medication dosage are appropriate for the patient. C. The prescriber's information is valid. D. All of the above
D. All of the above Rationale: Reviewing the prescription upon receipt is the first step in eliminating prescription errors.
Which of the following must appear on a unit-dose product label? A. Dose strength of the medication B. Expiration date of the medication C. Medication name D. All of the above
D. All of the above Rationale: Unit-dose labels require the name and strength of the medication, expiration date of the medication, manufacturer's name, and lot number.
Which of the following is a goal of technology used in pharmacies? A. Improve the quality of prescription filling processes. B. Process prescriptions faster. C. Reduce errors in cost-effective ways. D. All of the above
D. All of the above Rationale: Work that was previously performed in a pharmacy by pharmacists and pharmacy technicians is being performed through technology and automation, allowing both pharmacists and pharmacy technicians to focus on other patient-related areas.
Which of the following can be used to treat asthma? A. β2 agonists B. Cromolyn C. Corticosteroids D. All of the above
D. All of the above Rationale: β2 agonists, cromolyn, and corticosteroids are all treatments for asthma.
Which of the following drug classifications will not interact with oral contraceptives? A. Antibiotics B. Anticonvulsant agents C. Antifungal agents D. Beta-blockers
D. Beta-blockers Rationale: Beta-blockers do not have a drug interaction with oral contraceptives. Antibiotics, anticonvulsants, and antifungal agents may decrease the effectiveness of oral contraceptives.
Which of the following automated systems is commonly used to manage controlled substances? A. Baker cells B. Bar coding C. Pyxis machine D. Both b and c
D. Both b and c Rationale: Bar coding is used to identify the name, strength, dosage form, lot number, and expiration date of a medication and is one of the more common methods to manage controlled substance levels. Pyxis systems are used in decentralized systems to solve medication management issues that include narcotic diversion and poor record keeping.
How often must an inventory of control substances be taken? A. Weekly B. Monthly C. Yearly D. Every 2 years
D. Every 2 years Rationale: The Controlled Substances Act requires that a pharmacy perform a biennial inventory of all controlled substances stocked in a pharmacy. An exact count must be performed on Schedule II medications, and an estimated count must be done on Schedules III to V. An institution may perform an inventory more frequently if required by either state law or organizational policy.
Which of the following interpretations of the signa "ii gtt bid os" is correct? A. Instill 2 drops in right ear twice per day. B. Instill 2 drops in left ear twice per day. C. Instill 2 drops in right eye twice per day. D. Instill 2 drops in left eye twice per day.
D. Instill 2 drops in left eye twice per day. Rationale: "os" means left eye, which is the only difference among all of the interpretations.
Which of the following is considered a "high-alert" medication? A. Amoxicillin B. Atorvastatin C. Fluoxetine D. Levothyroxine
D. Levothyroxine Rationale: The Institute of Safe Medication Practices (ISMP) has identified levothyroxine as being involved in a very large number of prescription errors.
Which of the following forms of Medicare provides for prescription medications, biologicals, insulin, vaccines, and select medical supplies? A. Medicare Part A B. Medicare Part B C. Medicare Part C D. Medicare Part D
D. Medicare Part D Rationale: Medicare Part D provides for prescription medications, biologicals, insulin, vaccines, and select medical supplies. All medications are not covered under Medicare Part D. Medicare Part A covers inpatient hospital care, skilled nursing facilities, hospice, and home health care. Medicare Part B provides for physician services, outpatient care, and some physical and occupational therapy. Medicare Advantage (Part C) allows participants in Medicare Part A and B to obtain coverage through an HMO or PPO that provides additional services at a higher cost.
What does a red C indicate on a prescription? A. Prescription has been canceled by the physician B. Prescription has been copied and transferred to another pharmacy C. Prescription has been processed by the pharmacy and has been picked up by the patient D. Prescription is a controlled substance
D. Prescription is a controlled substance Rationale: A red C stamped on a prescription indicates that the medication is a controlled substance. All filled controlled substance prescriptions must be stamped with a 1-inch red C.
