EMT Chapter 38

Studies have shown that drivers of other vehicles do not usually see or hear ambulances or other emergency vehicles until they are within​ ________ feet of it. A. 100 B. 200 C. 150 D. 250

A. 100

Which of the following is NOT one of the actions necessary to ready an ambulance for its​ engine-on inspection? A. Check the level of the fluids. B. Pull the ambulance from​ quarters, if engine exhaust fumes will be a problem. C. Set the parking​ brake, and put the transmission in park. D. Have your partner chock the wheels.

A. Check the level of the fluids.

Which of the following must be done during patient​ transport? A. Continuous monitoring of the patient B. Completion of the patient care report C. Confirmation of your field impression D. Communication with medical direction

A. Continuous monitoring of the patient

Which of the following cleaning products or procedures would be appropriate for cleaning and killing germs on ambulance floors and​ walls? A. EPA-approved germicide B. Soap and water C. Alcohol-based hand sanitizer D. Sterilization

A. EPA-approved germicide

The medical acronym EMD stands for which of the​ following? A. Emergency Medical Dispatcher B. Emergency Medical Director C. Emergency Medical Driver D. Emergency Medical Doctor

A. Emergency Medical Dispatcher

Which of the following is true regarding helicopter transport and​ safety? A. Helicopter crew should direct the loading of the patient. B. Always walk around the back of the helicopter near the tail rotor. C. Keep traffic and vehicles at least 30 feet from the helicopter. D. Approach a parked helicopter from the uphill side when the aircraft is on a hill.

A. Helicopter crew should direct the loading of the patient.

How will a patient with difficulty breathing but no possibility of a spinal injury likely prefer to be​ transported? A. In a seated position B. Supine C. In a lateral recumbent position D. In Trendelenburg position

A. In a seated position

At the landing zone for a medical​ helicopter, which of the following actions is​ appropriate? A. Only approach when escorted by the flight personnel. B. Approach as soon as the helicopter skids touch the ground. C. If the landing zone is not​ flat, approach from the uphill side. D. Approach fully erect from the direction of the tail rotor.

A. Only approach when escorted by the flight personnel.

Which of the following is an appropriate infection control measure to be taken at the completion of a​ call? A. Placing soiled linens in an approved dirty linen bag or hamper B. Using sterilization processes for all ambulances surfaces C. Placing​ blood-saturated dressings and disposable items in regular hospital waste containers D. Using gel hand sanitizer to clean your hands

A. Placing soiled linens in an approved dirty linen bag or hamper

Which phase of an ambulance call is characterized by receiving a report from the​ off-going shift and checking the functionality of​ equipment? A. Preparing for the ambulance call B. Receiving and responding to a call C. Terminating the call D. Transferring the patient to the ambulance

A. Preparing for the ambulance call

To which of the following guidelines should you adhere when setting up a landing zone for a​ helicopter? A. Select an area that is a flat square with​ 100-foot-long sides. B. Choose ground with a slope of greater than 8 degrees. C. Shine a light into the cockpit as the helicopter​ approaches, to signal where you are. D. Mark each corner of the landing zone with flares and place a fifth warning device on the downwind side of the landing zone.

A. Select an area that is a flat square with​ 100-foot-long sides.

What information should be given to the hospital staff first in providing a transfer of care​ report? A. The most important information should be provided​ first, such as any changes in the​ patient's condition. B. The​ patient's insurance and primary physician should be provided first. C. Always start with the​ patient's age,​ sex, and chief complaint. D. Start by asking the hospital staff what they want to know.

A. The most important information should be provided​ first, such as any changes in the​ patient's condition.

Which of the following statements about passing other vehicles in a​ no-passing zone on an emergency call is​ true? A. The way must be clear. B. Ignore precautions against danger to property. C. Never pass a school bus under any circumstances. D. Signaling is unnecessary.

A. The way must be clear.

The U.S. Department of Transportation has issued specifications for all of the following types of ambulances except​: A. Type IV. B. Type II. C. Type III. D. Type I.

A. Type IV.

After you clean up​ blood, vomitus, and other body fluids that have soiled the floor of your​ ambulance, you wipe down any equipment that has been splashed. Place disposable towels you used to clean up blood or body fluids directly​ in: A. a red biohazard bag. B. a nearby wastebasket. C. any biohazard container nearby. D. a clear plastic bag marked​ "disposables."

A. a red biohazard bag.

You are delivering a stable patient to the emergency department. Hospital personnel are​ busy, and you have a call holding. You transfer the patient to a hospital bed and hand the patient a copy of the patient care report. This is an example​ of: A. abandonment. B. transfer of care. C. patient advocacy. D. providing a written report.

A. abandonment.

Before removing any pressure​ caps, you​ should: A. allow the engine to cool. B. turn on the engine. C. chock the wheels. D. pull the ambulance from quarters.

A. allow the engine to cool.

Lock a wheeled stretcher to prevent movement in the​ ambulance: A. at both ends. B. at the head. C. only in an emergency. D. at the foot.

A. at both ends.

According to the National Highway Traffic Safety​ Administration, many ground ambulance collisions​ occur: A. at intersections. B. on wet roads. C. at night. D. during inclement weather.

A. at intersections.

Police escorts of ambulances driving at emergency status are typically discouraged​ because: A. drivers who pull over for the police officer often pull back in front of the ambulance. B. ambulances do not move as fast as police cruisers. C. there is no guarantee that the police officer knows where the call is located. D. police officers are not accustomed to driving an ambulance.

A. drivers who pull over for the police officer often pull back in front of the ambulance.

Tests have shown that​ ________ ambulance operators tend to speed up by 10 to 15 miles per hour when the siren is sounding. A. inexperienced B. privately employed C. experienced D. all

A. inexperienced

​Two-way communications equipment is required on basic life support ambulances for communication between the EMS​ provider, the​ dispatcher, and: A. medical direction. B. other units. C. police and fire department personnel. D. the​ patient's physician.

A. medical direction.

You are at the scene of a vehicle collision and have found that there is one patient who is in stable condition. At this​ point, the call can be categorized​ as: A. no longer a true emergency. B. a​ non-incident. C. triaged. D. an unfounded call.

A. no longer a true emergency.

The process of combining the patient and​ patient-carrying device into a unit ready for moving and transporting the patient is​ called: A. packaging. B. wrapping. C. immobilizing. D. loading.

A. packaging.

When deciding whether or not to drive to the hospital with lights and siren activated for any​ patient, the driver should​ consider: A. potential risks of making the​ patient's condition worse. B. the​ patient's preference for lights and siren. C. how many calls are waiting for an available ambulance. D. the​ patient's past medical history.

A. potential risks of making the​ patient's condition worse.

Obtaining your release from the​ hospital: A. simply requires asking the emergency department nurse or physician if you are still needed. B. is implicit upon completion of patient​ transfer, without your needing to speak to anyone. C. typically happens only when the chief of emergency medicine authorizes you to go. D. is a formal process involving the completion and approval of a written form.

A. simply requires asking the emergency department nurse or physician if you are still needed.

Drivers expect a vehicle operating​ four-way flashers to​ be: A. traveling at a very slow speed. B. about to make a turn. C. responding to an emergency. D. easier to pass quickly.

A. traveling at a very slow speed.

If you are the first unit on the scene of an accident on the​ highway, you​ should: A. use your vehicle to protect the scene. B. wait in your vehicle for additional units. C. set up a safe area to stage behind the incident. D. set up your staging area on a crossover.

A. use your vehicle to protect the scene.

When answering a call for​ help, an Emergency Medical Dispatcher will ask all of the following questions except which​ one? A. "What is your​ call-back number?" B. "What is your insurance​ provider?" C. "What is your​ location?" D. "What's the​ problem?"

B. "What is your insurance​ provider?"

A​ patient-carrying device should have at least​ ________ straps to hold the patient securely. A. 2 B. 3 C. 1 D. 5

B. 3

Regarding the use of emergency​ sirens, which of the following is false​? A. The sound of the siren may increase the​ patient's anxiety. B. Ambulance operators are not affected by siren noise. C. EMTs should assume that other drivers cannot hear the siren. D. Dense shrubbery may block the sound of the siren.

B. Ambulance operators are not affected by siren noise.

At which point should you complete your prehospital care report​ (PCR)? A. At the end of your shift B. As soon as you are free from patient duties C. As soon as you arrive at the hospital D. En route to the hospital

B. As soon as you are free from patient duties

While staffing an emergency services dispatch​ center, an Emergency Medical Dispatcher​ (EMD) receives a call from someone who is very upset and screaming that her friend was just shot. Which of the following does the EMD need to do in this​ situation? A. Provide the caller with information about local hospitals. B. Ask the caller for her phone number. C. Determine the location of the shooter. D. Notify the​ victim's family of the incident.

B. Ask the caller for her phone number.

Which of the following should be checked with the vehicle engine turned​ off? A. Windshield wiper operation B. Battery C. Dash-mounted gauges D. Warning lights

B. Battery

Full immobilization of a trauma​ patient, including placing a cervical collar and securing the patient to a​ backboard, should take place at which of the following points in​ time? A. After checking for cervical range of motion B. Before moving the patient to the ambulance C. En route to the hospital D. Before the primary assessment

B. Before moving the patient to the ambulance

Which of the following is allowed for EMTs driving an emergency ambulance in most​ states? A. Driving without due regard if the patient is critical B. Exceeding the posted speed limit C. Speeding through school zones D. Proceeding through a red light without slowing

B. Exceeding the posted speed limit

Which of the following fluids is not checked by an​ EMT? A. Transmission B. Hydraulic C. Coolant D. Oil

B. Hydraulic

Which of the following is optional​ equipment? A. Flashlights B. Infant oxygen masks C. Disinfectant solution D. Lubricating jelly

B. Infant oxygen masks

Which of the following is a type of ambulance identified by the U.S. Department of​ Transportation? A. BLS B. Medium duty C. Type A D. ALS

B. Medium duty

When heading back to​ quarters, on what should you place your​ emphasis? A. Documenting the call B. Returning safely C. Refueling the ambulance for the next call D. Reorganizing the ambulance

B. Returning safely

Which of the following is the correct order of operations when transferring a stable patient from his or her house to the​ ambulance? A. Package the patient for​ transport, select the proper​ patient-carrying device, move the patient to the​ ambulance, and load the patient into the ambulance. B. Select the proper​ patient-carrying device, package the patient for​ transport, move the patient to the​ ambulance, and load the patient into the ambulance. C. Package the patient for​ transport, move the patient to the​ ambulance, select the proper​ patient-carrying device, and load the patient into the ambulance. D. Select the proper​ patient-carrying device, move the patient to the​ ambulance, package the patient for​ transport, and load the patient into the ambulance.

B. Select the proper​ patient-carrying device, package the patient for​ transport, move the patient to the​ ambulance, and load the patient into the ambulance.

Which of the following operational reasons warrant the use of helicopter transport from the scene to a medical​ facility? A. The patient may go into shock shortly. B. The patient is located in a remote area. C. The patient is in cardiac arrest. D. The distance to the medical facility is 15 minutes away.

B. The patient is located in a remote area.

Which of the following statements about crossovers on highways is​ true? A. Ambulances are not permitted to use them. B. They can be dangerous. C. They require a police escort. D. They are the safest way to turn around.

B. They can be dangerous.

Which of the following is a purpose for carrying an aluminum foil roll on an​ ambulance? A. To care for amputated parts B. To keep a newborn warm C. To control major arterial bleeding D. None of the above

B. To keep a newborn warm

Which of the following is the most common device used for loading the patient into the​ ambulance? A. Scoop stretcher B. Wheeled ambulance stretcher C. Stokes basket D. Folding backboard

B. Wheeled ambulance stretcher

You have transported a stable patient with complaints of abdominal pain for the last three weeks to the hospital. On​ arrival, you notice the emergency department is very busy and there are no empty beds to be found. You have attempted to get the attention of a hospital staff member to transfer the​ patient, but all are currently helping other patients. Your partner tells you to take the patient to the waiting room and leave him because the dispatcher of your service is holding several serious calls. What could possibly happen to you if you leave the patient in this​ fashion? A. Nothing, provided that your supervisor authorizes this action. B. You could possibly be charged with abandonment. C. You could possibly be charged with false imprisonment. D. Nothing; there are other people who are in need of an ambulance.

B. You could possibly be charged with abandonment.

When transferring a patient to the​ ambulance, you​ must: A. place the patient in the position of comfort. B. appropriately package the patient. C. protect the​ patient's cervical spine. D. use at least three rescuers.

B. appropriately package the patient.

If you are not the primary or​ first-arriving unit to the scene of a highway​ collision, then: A. size up the incident from a distance. B. park or stage your unit near the​ on-ramp. C. park next to the primary unit for staging. D. determine the resources needed when the primary unit has sized up the scene.

B. park or stage your unit near the​ on-ramp.

Covering a patient in the ambulance does all of the following​ except: A. prevent exposure to the elements. B. prevent infection. C. ensure privacy. D. maintain body temperature.

B. prevent infection.

To make up an ambulance​ cot, you would​ first: A. clean the mattress surface. B. raise the cot to a​ high-level position. C. remove all soiled linen. D. remove all unsoiled blankets and pillows.

B. raise the cot to a​ high-level position.

An obstetrical kit should be kept on board all basic life support ambulances that​ is: A. fixed and rigid. B. separate and sterile. C. included with other sterile items in a case. D. sufficient to provide ALS services to patients in labor.

B. separate and sterile.

When using a​ siren, remember​ that: A. if any driver does not​ yield, you are required by law to report that​ motorist's license number. B. the continuous sound of the siren tends to have an effect on the ambulance operators themselves. C. all motorists except those with hearing impairments will hear the siren and respond appropriately. D. some drivers will not get out of the way even if they hear the​ siren, and must be intimidated to allow passage.

B. the continuous sound of the siren tends to have an effect on the ambulance operators themselves.

It is not necessary for an Emergency Medical Dispatcher to ask for a​ call-back number​ if: A. the chief complaint​ doesn't seem​ life-threatening. B. the system is an enhanced 911 system. C. the patient is a minor. D. the chief complaint​ doesn't seem urgent.

B. the system is an enhanced 911 system.

Operators of emergency vehicles must drive with the safety of others in mind. This is known as​ driving: A. with emergency privilege. B. with due regard. C. defensively. D. as a public servant.

B. with due regard.

What is an​ appropriate-sized landing zone for a​ helicopter? A. 25 feet by 25 feet B. 50 feet by 50 feet C. 100 feet by 100 feet D. 75 feet by 75 feet

C. 100 feet by 100 feet

You have transported a patient to the emergency department and are in the process of cleaning the ambulance while your partner is completing all required paperwork. At what point is the final phase of an ambulance call​ complete? A. As soon as you put the stretcher back in the ambulance with a clean sheet and you notify your dispatch center you are available B. As soon as your partner completes the patient care report and you are restocking the supplies used during the call C. After all required paperwork is complete and the ambulance has been completely cleaned and restocked D. As soon as you get back to the station and notify your dispatch center you are in quarters

C. After all required paperwork is complete and the ambulance has been completely cleaned and restocked

How many straps should a​ patient-carrying device​ have? A. At least four B. At least one C. At least three D. At least two

C. At least three

At what point for most services should your daily vehicle inspection checklist be​ performed? A. When you arrive at the scene of the first call of your shift B. On returning to service after the first call of the shift C. At the beginning of your​ shift, before your first call D. On being dispatched for your first call of the shift

C. At the beginning of your​ shift, before your first call

Which of the following is not essential equipment on an​ ambulance? A. Portable oxygen tanks B. Pediatric oxygen administration devices C. Automatic transport ventilator D. Portable suction unit

C. Automatic transport ventilator

Most state statutes allow an emergency vehicle operator to do which of the following on emergency​ calls? A. Pass a stopped school bus with its red flashers on. B. Drive around lowered​ cross-arms at a railroad crossing. C. Exceed posted speed limits if life and property are not endangered. D. Be exempt from liability in the event of a collision.

C. Exceed posted speed limits if life and property are not endangered.

Which of the following ambulance types is built for rugged durability and large​ storage? A. Type I B. Type III C. Medium duty D. Light duty

C. Medium duty

Which of the following patients is NOT a candidate for medical helicopter transportation from a crash scene to a trauma​ center? A. Penetrating injury to the chest B. Abdominal trauma with signs of shock C. Nonhypothermic cardiac arrest D. Head injury with altered mental status

C. Nonhypothermic cardiac arrest

Which of the following contributes most significantly to the occurrence of ambulance​ crashes? A. Time of day B. Weather conditions C. Speed of the vehicle D. Size of the vehicle

C. Speed of the vehicle

Regarding ambulance warning​ devices, which of the following statements is not​ true? A. Four-way flashers should not be used as emergency lights. B. It is a good idea for the light package of the ambulance to combine several types of lights. C. The large lights on the outermost corners of the ambulance box should blink alternately. D. In most states it is illegal to drive at night with only one headlight.

C. The large lights on the outermost corners of the ambulance box should blink alternately.

Your ambulance is the first emergency vehicle to arrive at the scene of a motor vehicle collision. How should you position your​ ambulance? A. Ahead of the collision​ site, to avoid blocking traffic B. In the median or off to the side of the road C. To create a physical barrier between traffic and the scene D. Immediately behind the vehicle where your patients​ are, to block the view of people driving by

C. To create a physical barrier between traffic and the scene

Which of the following is a type of ambulance identified by the U.S. Department of​ Transportation? A. Modu-van B. Type A C. Type I D. Rescue squad

C. Type I

Disregarding certain traffic laws while responding to an emergency​ is: A. against the law. B. permitted only when a critical patient is on board. C. a privilege granted under law. D. legal only for municipal employees.

C. a privilege granted under law.

Failure to formally transfer the patient to medical staff in the emergency department could place the EMT in danger of being held liable​ for: A. unlawful consent. B. patient endangerment. C. abandonment. D. false imprisonment.

C. abandonment.

The​ K-Specs standards deal​ with: A. training and education of field personnel. B. minimum standard medical protocols. C. ambulance design. D. air evacuation of trauma victims.

C. ambulance design.

Because of the extra equipment now placed on ambulances for specialty​ rescue, advanced life​ support, and hazardous materials​ operations, their gross vehicle weight has been easily exceeded in some communities. This has necessitated introduction of a​ ________ truck chassis built for rugged durability and large storage and work areas. A. specialty weight B. lightweight C. medium-duty D. heavy-duty

C. medium-duty

Emergency Medical Dispatchers are trained​ to: A. review EMS encounter forms. B. provide medical direction. C. provide prearrival medical instructions. D. administer advanced life support.

C. provide prearrival medical instructions.

Among the miscellaneous equipment typically required on a basic life support ambulance is​ a: A. pediatric stethoscope. B. infant oxygen mask. C. sphygmomanometer. D. mobile phone.

C. sphygmomanometer.

For​ location, an Emergency Medical Dispatcher does NOT​ need: A. the street​ name, with the direction designator. B. the name of the development or subdivision. C. the exact route to the location from currently available responders. D. the nearest cross street

C. the exact route to the location from currently available responders.

A true emergency requiring the emergency mode of ambulance operation is typically defined​ as: A. respiratory distress. B. any traumatic injury requiring an EMS call. C. the possibility of loss of life or limb. D. any medical condition requiring an EMS call.

C. the possibility of loss of life or limb.

You respond to a major automobile collision involving multiple patients. Which of the following patients would receive Priority 1​ transport? A. 68-year-old with mild respiratory distress and seat belt burns B. 45-year-old with no vital signs C. 6-year-old with lower leg fracture and normal vital signs D. 25-year-old with abdominal bruising and signs of shock

D. 25-year-old with abdominal bruising and signs of shock

For which of the following purposes would​ low-level disinfection be​ appropriate? A. Cleaning your bandage shears B. Cleaning your stethoscope C. Cleaning a disposable rigid suction catheter D. Cleaning the cot mattress surface

D. Cleaning the cot mattress surface

Which of the following is required to be a part of the​ on-board, permanently mounted equipment in a basic life support​ ambulance? A. AED B. Backboard C. Sterile burn sheets D. Fixed suction unit

D. Fixed suction unit

Which of these statements about the general nature of state laws that govern emergency ambulance operations is​ true? A. In an​ emergency, saving the​ patient's life overrides all other considerations. B. You must use red lights and siren any time you are responding to a call. C. Most states allow an exemption for reckless driving performed while responding to an emergency. D. If you do not exercise due regard for the safety of​ others, you are liable for the consequences.

D. If you do not exercise due regard for the safety of​ others, you are liable for the consequences.

Which of the following is NOT a basic guideline for safe​ driving? A. Come to a complete stop at intersections. B. Wear your seat belts. C. Minimize​ lights-and-siren "hot" responses. D. Ignore GPS and other distractions.

D. Ignore GPS and other distractions.

Which of the following actions is part of the​ engine-off ambulance inspection and can be performed in​ quarters? A. Test the parking brake. B. Check​ dash-mounted gauges for proper operation. C. Check the headlights. D. Inspect the body of the vehicle.

D. Inspect the body of the vehicle.

Which of the following represents best practice when responding to a highway​ incident? A. Using the crossover on a​ limited-access highway during peak traffic hours B. Using emergency lighting rather than cones or flares to warn traffic of the incident C. Parking immediately behind the first unit on scene when you are a secondary unit D. Keeping the ambulance on the same side of the road as the incident

D. Keeping the ambulance on the same side of the road as the incident

Which of the following is not a responsibility of the Emergency Medical​ Dispatcher? A. Providing emergency instructions to the caller B. Prioritizing calls that come in C. Coordinating with other public safety agencies D. Providing medical direction to the responding units

D. Providing medical direction to the responding units

Which of the following is most clearly a legitimate reason for requesting air medical transport of a critical​ patient? A. The receiving hospital is in the response area. B. Extrication of a​ high-priority patient can be completed quickly. C. The weather is​ stormy, and visibility is low for ground transportation. D. The facility that is capable of caring for the patient is 45 minutes away by ground.

D. The facility that is capable of caring for the patient is 45 minutes away by ground.

An ambulance is typically classified according​ to: A. durability. B. speed. C. weight. D. U.S. DOT specifications.

D. U.S. DOT specifications.

If resuscitation is​ required, a patient with a suspected spinal​ injury: A. can be propped on the right​ side, for drainage of fluids from the mouth. B. can be propped on the left​ side, for drainage of fluids from the mouth. C. can be transported in a sitting​ position, for comfort. D. must remain​ supine, with constant monitoring of the airway and suctioning equipment ready.

D. must remain​ supine, with constant monitoring of the airway and suctioning equipment ready.

After responding to the scene of a patient complaining of difficulty​ breathing, you and your partner determine that the​ patient's condition is not life threatening based on a thorough assessment. You should transport the patient to an appropriate medical facility​ with: A. the emergency lights​ on, but without activating the siren. B. the emergency lights​ off, but activating the siren when traffic builds. C. both lights and siren activated. D. neither lights nor siren activated.

D. neither lights nor siren activated.

Inexperienced ambulance drivers tend to​ ________ while driving with the siren operating. A. pull to the left B. stop C. pull to the right D. speed up

D. speed up

When engaged in a nonemergency transport in an authorized vehicle while functioning as an EMT for an authorized emergency​ service, the actions you take while driving​ are: A. covered by your​ service's insurance carrier. B. allowable, provided you do not exceed 15 mph above the posted speed limit. C. not likely to result in an investigation in the event of a collision. D. subject to laws that govern all drivers.

D. subject to laws that govern all drivers.

When arriving as the first unit at the location of a motor vehicle collision on an interstate​ highway, you should position the ambulance so​ that: A. it is between the damaged vehicles. B. it is at the bottom of the nearest​ on-ramp. C. you are nearest to the command post for easy communications with the incident commander. D. the crash is blocked by traffic with your vehicle as a barrier.

D. the crash is blocked by traffic with your vehicle as a barrier.