EPPP Sample Questions - I/O Psychology

D. A mixed standard scale tries to overcome halo, leniency, and similar rater biases by arranging, in a non-hierarchal manner, items that describe performance as either good, average, or poor and then the rater rates whether the individual performs better, equal to, or worse (+, 0, -) than the behavior described in the item. Items are arranged in a way, which supposedly helps reduce rater biases

A "mixed standard scale" helps reduce rater biases by: A. using a forced-choice format that matches items with a comparable level of social desirability. B. using a specific description of work-related behavior to anchor each point on the rating scale. C. comparing two or more employees on each job behavior. D. obscuring order-of-merit when describing work-related behaviors.

A. Fiedler's Contingency Theory proposed that in terms of a leader's style and the favorableness of a situation, the latter was determined by the degree to which the leader could control and influence their subordinate. Fiedler described a leader's style by his or her scores on his Least Preferred Coworker Scale. A high LPC leader describes their least preferred coworker in positive terms and these leaders are primarily relationship oriented. Note that the question talks about how a leader "treats" their worker rather than how they "describe" the worker.. While these are not exactly the same concepts, the EPPP will take these type of liberties so this is an example of choosing an answer that is in the "ballpark"

A high LPC leader: A. Treats his least favorite worker well B. Treats his least favorite worker poorly C. Treats his favorite worker like his least favorite worker D. Has an ambivalent style toward his workers .

B. According to Herzberg's two-factor theory, need satisfiers can be divided into two types: hygiene factors and motivators. The absence of hygiene factors (e.g., money, security) results in dissatisfaction; however, their presence does not lead to satisfaction. By contrast, the presence of motivators (e.g., responsibility, power, self-esteem) results in satisfaction; however, their absence does not lead to dissatisfaction. Therefore, to increase a worker's motivation, one would have to add factors such as responsibility to his or her job. Increased money or security will reduce any dissatisfaction, but will not increase motivation or satisfaction

A man reports that he is dissatisfied with his low-level job on an assembly line. He says that money is the only reason he is doing his work. According to Herzberg, what would be the best way to increase this person's job motivation? A. give him a greater number of jobs to do B. give him more responsibility C. give him more money D. give him a longer lunch break

B. McGregor's (1960) Theory X and Theory Y management theories reflect the key differences between the scientific management and human relations administrative models. Managers adopting a scientific management model assume that workers are motivated primarily by financial self-interest (i.e., pay is the most effective motivator); that job demands must match workers' skills; and that workers need detailed guidelines and constant supervision because they are incapable of regulating themselves or assuming responsibility on their own. Theory X is similar to scientific management: Theory X managers believe that workers dislike work and avoid it whenever possible; therefore, workers must be directed and controlled

A manager assumes that his employees need constant supervision and detailed guidelines in order to perform their jobs well. What management style does this reflect? A. Theory Y B. Theory X C. laissez-faire D. management by objectives

B. The rational-economic model assumes that decision-making involves a rational process in which all alternatives are considered and the best possible decision is eventually made. The model requires that decision-makers obtain information about and consider all possible alternatives before making a decision. This requirement places an inordinate demand on the people involved. Thus, in the real world, decisions are usually made based on the information that is available given restraints of resources such as time, money, and personnel

A reason why the rational-economic model of decision-making usually does not prove viable in an organization is that: A. it allows for the consideration of a limited number of options. B. it places too many demands on the individual and the organization. C. it arouses resentment in organization members who are excluded from the decision-making process. D. humans are irrational and emotional by their nature.

C. One of the most stable findings in job satisfaction research is that age is positively correlated with satisfaction. The older the employee, the higher the level of satisfaction he or she tends to report.

A researcher studying the relationship between age and job satisfaction collects data for a group of young, middle-aged, and older workers. The researcher can expect to find that: A. the young people are most satisfied with their jobs. B. the middle-aged people are most satisfied with their jobs. C. the older people are most satisfied with their jobs. D. there is no difference between the three groups in terms of their job satisfaction.

D. Information on a test's incremental validity for differing combinations of base rates, selection ratios, and validity coefficients is provided by the Taylor-Russell tables. Decision-making accuracy can improve on a test with a low or moderate validity coefficient when the selection ratio is low (e.g., .05) and the base rate is moderate (near .50).

A selection test that has a validity coefficient of .50 will have the greatest incremental validity when: A. the selection ratio is .95 and the base rate is .20 B. the selection ratio is .95 and the base rate is .50 C. the selection ratio is .05 and the base rate is .20 D. the selection ratio is .05 and the base rate is .50

D. The different leadership styles defined by Hersey and Blanchard involve different combinations of task and relationship orientation. A high task, low relationship orientation defines the telling leadership style. Answer A is a delegating leader; B is a participating leader, and C is a selling leader

According to Hersey and Blanchard (1974), a "telling" leader is most effective when employees are low in both ability and willingness to assume responsibility. A telling leadership style is characterized by a: A. low task and low relationship orientation. B. low task and high relationship orientation. C. high task and high relationship orientation. D. high task and low relationship orientation.

A. According to Bandura's social learning theory (or theory of observational learning), it is possible to learn a given behavior merely by watching a model perform it. Behavioral practice and reinforcement, though they influence the probability that a behavior will be learned, are not absolutely necessary for the behavior to be imitated. Therefore, Choices C and D, which involve reinforcement procedures, can be eliminated. Vestibule training (B) involves a simulation of work conditions, although it does not necessarily involve modeling

According to social learning theory, job training would be most effective when using: A. behavioral modeling B. vestibule training C. reinforcement on a variable interval schedule D. reinforcers tailored to each employee's needs

A. Rater biases include the strictness, leniency, central tendency, and halo biases. The other phenomenon listed in the responses are problems in other areas than performance ratings

Common biases that reduce rater accuracy when assessing job performance include: A. the leniency and strictness biases. B. the constant and contrast biases. C. the Rosenthal and Hawthorne biases. D. the reactivity and expectancy biases.

C. Distributive justice refers to the perceived fairness of outcomes. The outcome in organizations is typically considered to be a decision made regarding the employee such as hiring, performance appraisals, raise requests, or layoff decisions. Procedural justice (a.) refers to the perceived fairness of the process by which outcomes were allocated. Interactional justice (b.) refers to the exchange between an individual and supervisor or third party. Recent research suggests interactional justice consists of two distinct justice dimensions, informational and interpersonal. Informational justice (d.) refers to the amount of information or the appropriateness of the explanations provided about why procedures were used or outcomes were distributed in a certain way. Interpersonal justice refers to how an individual is treated by a supervisor or third party involved in executing procedures or determining outcomes.

Equity Theory focuses on: A. procedural justice. B. interactional justice. C. distributive justice. D. informational justice.

D. Equity theory holds that, in any work situation we assess both our input (how much effort we are contributing to a work situation) and our output (how much we get out of it). We then compare our input/output ratio to what we perceive are the ratios of our co-workers. A state of balance exists when we perceive that our input/output ratios are equal to those of our co-workers. An unbalanced situation is one in which these ratios are not perceived as equal. For instance, underpayment is an unbalanced situation in which outcomes are perceived to be less than contributions, and overpayment occurs when we perceive that our outcomes exceed contributions. Equity theory holds that motivation is affected by these perceived input/output ratios. For instance, if you perceive that you are contributing more to a company than a co-worker who is getting paid the same amount, you would take action to correct this inequity, whether it be by working less, asking for a raise, leaving the job, re-evaluating the value of your contributions, etc. Similarly, if you are getting paid more than a co-worker whom you perceive as just as valuable as yourself, you may work more, do better quality work, decide that you are more important than the co-worker, etc. The point is that the theory suggests that the relationship between pay and motivation is complex and will be mediated by one's perceived input, the perceived input/output ratio of co-workers, and the strategy chosen to achieve a state of balance or equity.

Equity theory suggests that the relationship between pay and motivation: A. is positive; the more one is paid, the more motivated one is likely to be. B. is negative; the more one is paid, the less motivated one is likely to be. C. is negligible; pay has little or nothing to do with motivation. D. is complex; the relationship between pay and motivation is mediated by a variety of other factors.

B. Holland's six occupational themes represent both personality and environment types. According to Holland, job satisfaction, productivity, and other behaviors are affected by the congruence or fit between a person's personality and the nature of the work environment

Holland's approach to vocational guidance is based on the assumption that: A. interests motivate occupational choice B. behavior is a function of personality-environment congruence C. job satisfaction and performance are related to a match between aptitude and job requirements D. interests change in a predictable way over the course of the lifespan

D. The relationship between age and satisfaction actually depends on what aspect of satisfaction you're measuring. However, the question refers to global satisfaction, and the research has found that higher levels of global job satisfaction are associated with older age and vice versa

If you administer a measure of global job satisfaction to employees at the Acme Corporation, you would expect to find the highest levels of satisfaction among workers aged: A. 20 to 25. B. 30 to 35. C. 40 to 45. D. 50 to 55.

A. Job enrichment is a motivational technique that involves giving employees increased responsibility, decision-making authority, and autonomy. Job enrichment is designed to reduce boredom, and increase workers' feelings of meaningfulness, responsibility, and competence. It is based on Herzberg's two-factor theory of motivation, which classifies factors that affect job satisfaction into two categories: motivators, which increase satisfaction, and hygiene factors, which prevent dissatisfaction. Motivators are related to intrinsic conditions of the job itself, such as the autonomy and the opportunity for personal growth. In the question, the manager is increasing the responsibility and autonomy of the mechanics, so job enrichment is the best answer.

In the auto service department at a car dealership, managers talk to customers, diagnose problems with the cars, and assign repair tasks to mechanics. A new manager takes over so that mechanics interact directly with customers and decide on their own what work needs to be done. The new manager is using which of the following motivational techniques? A. job enrichment. B. job enlargement. C. quality circle. D. assessment center.

C. The term "job evaluation" refers to procedures used within a workplace to establish the relative worth of particular jobs and tasks within the organization. If a job evaluation were biased against work typically performed by women, this would mean that the value of such work to the organization would be unfairly set too low. The term "comparable worth" refers to the standard that wages for jobs with different titles and/or duties should be based on their actual worth to the organization rather then the gender makeup of the workers in those jobs. In other words, a gender biased job evaluation would contradict the standard of comparable worth. Regarding the other choices, employment equity refers to multidimensional efforts to promote fair representation of minority groups in the workplace--not only through hiring practices but also through retention, promotion, and training efforts. Procedural justice refers to perceptions of fairness in the processes that resolve disputes and allocate resources. It is not as good an answer as comparable worth because it usually refers to perceptions rather than actual practice and because comparable worth refers specifically to the undervaluation of tasks that women typically perform. A bias in a job evaluation method relates more to distributive justice, or fairness in outcomes, because a job evaluation is typically used to establish salary. And "job fairness" is a broad term that generally means that distribution of workplace rewards, such as salaries and selection for jobs, is based on merit rather than some form of bias.

Job evaluation methods have been criticized for containing biases against work typically performed by women. This criticism most directly pertains to the standard of: A. employment equity. B. procedural justice. C. comparable worth. D. job fairness.

C. Kurt Lewin's process of organizational change involves three stages: unfreezing, changing, and refreezing. In 1980, Huse added several steps to Lewin's model, with entry and planning (d.) being added to the unfreezing stage and action was added as the primary step in the changing stage. Collecting data, providing feedback, and implementing or developing action plans are the three steps of survey feedback.

Lewin's (1951) model of organizational change includes the following three stages: A. data collection, feedback and action planning. B. planning, action, and evaluation. C. unfreezing, changing and refreezing. D. entry, planning and action.

D. In 1951, Kurt Lewin and his colleagues conducted a study assessing the effectiveness of three different leadership styles: authoritarian, where the leader remains aloof and uses orders to direct the group's behavior; democratic, where the leader actively encourages group members and participates in their activities; and laissez-faire, where the leader provides knowledge but does not direct or participate in activities. The subjects were 10-year-old boys participating in an arts and crafts club. A key finding was that the laissez-faire style was the least successful, resulting in significantly lower quality and quantity of work as compared to the other two styles. Other findings were that groups with democratic leaders produced the highest quality of work and its members were the most satisfied, and that autocratically led groups produced the highest quantity of work. Some children did prefer the autocratic style, so choice 3 would have been a better answer if laissez-faire was not included--laissez-faire style is not successful regardless of the personality of the group members

Lewin's classic study on leadership styles produced which of the following findings? A. Democratic groups produce a higher quantity of work than either autocratic or laissez-faire groups. B. In autocratic groups, the leader's absence does not affect the quality or quantity of work. C. The success of all three leadership styles studied--democratic, autocratic, and laissez-faire--depended on the personality of group members. D. Laissez-faire was the least successful leadership style in terms of both quantity and quality of work output.

C. Eagly and colleagues conducted a series of meta-analyses on the effects of gender on leadership. They found that overall, male and female leaders are equally effective. However, certain gender differences in leadership were found to exist. For example, female leaders were more effective when the leadership role was defined as "feminine" and males were more effective when the role was defined as "masculine." Contrary to D, males were found to be more effective in first-level management positions and females were more effective in middle management positions. One interpretation of this finding is that lower-level management requires more technical skills, whereas middle-level management requires more human relations skills

Meta-analyses on gender differences in leadership have found that female leaders are: A. more effective than male leaders overall B. less effective than male leaders overall C. equally effective as male leaders overall D. more effective than male leaders in first-level management positions, but males are more effective in middle management positions

D. The question describes Krumboltz's Social Learning Theory of Career Decision Making (SLTCDM) which includes four major factors of influence on career decisions: genetic characteristics and special abilities; environmental conditions and events; learning experiences; and task approach skills, including performance expectations, values, work habits, and emotional responses. The social learning influences can be positive or negative factors. Holland (a.) and Roe (c.) both emphasized the importance of matching the individual's personality to the characteristics of the job although Roe also focused on needs. Herzberg's (b.) two-factor theory addresses worker motivation and satisfaction, not making a career choice.

Of the following, which proposed a social learning theory of career development in which career path is influence by the factors: genetic endowment; environmental conditions and events; learning experiences; and performance standards and values? A. Holland B. Herzberg C. Roe D. Krumboltz

B. Landy's (1978) Opponent Process Theory of job satisfaction hypothesizes that job attitudes emanate from a person's physiological state. Opponent process theory assumes that when a person experiences an extreme emotional state, his or her central nervous system mechanisms attempt to bring him or her back to a state of emotional equilibrium or neutrality. In returning to neutrality, the emotional state may even surpass equilibrium and progress to the opposite emotional state. In this case, Patrick initially felt elated when informed of the praise then when the positive emotional state waned over time it continued to the opposite emotional state of anger. (See: Landy, F. J. (1978). An opponent process theory of job satisfaction. Journal of Applied Psychology, 63, 533-547.) Lawler's (1973) Model of Facet Satisfaction (a.) posits that job satisfaction is conceived in terms of different facets of an individual's job; a compilation of feelings of satisfaction on an array of situational, biological, social and educational factors. Lawler's model specifies that workers compare what their jobs should provide in terms of job facets to what they currently receive from their jobs. Examples of facets include: gender, age, race, work load, job security, working conditions, workplace location, supervisor-subordinate relations, status and prestige of job, compensation, etc. (See: Lawler, E.E. (1973), Motivation in Work Organizations, Brooks/Cole, Monterey CA.). Warr's (1987) Vitamin Model (c.) of work and mental health suggests that certain features in the workplace act in much the same way as vitamins. The level and combination of stressors have an effect on well-being and as with vitamins, some of the features start to have a negative effect if they increase beyond a recommended daily dose. The nine proposed stressors include: opportunity for control, opportunity for skill use, externally generated goals, variety, environmental clarity, availability of money, physical security (freedom from physical threat or danger), opportunity for interpersonal contact and valued social position . There is substantial empirical support for the particular stressors identified by Warr as he developed the stressor content of his model by reviewing the empirical literature on workplace stressors. (See: Warr, P. (1987). Work, Unemployment, and Mental Health, Clarendon Press, Oxford.). The job satisfaction/job dissatisfaction (d.) theory is the basis of Herzberg's concept of job satisfaction which distinguishes two separate groups of factors influencing individual job satisfaction and dissatisfaction. The first group, called "motivators," leads to job satisfaction; the second group, called "hygienes," leads to job dissatisfaction. Motivator or "intrinsic" factors of job satisfaction include achievement, recognition, the work itself, and the intrinsic interest of the job. Hygiene or "extrinsic" factors of the job include pay, job security, working conditions, policy and administration, and relationships with peers and supervisors.

Patrick was elated, in a meeting with senior management, when he was told that the company president was impressed with his recent contributions. After he left the meeting and was alone in his office, however, Patrick started to experience feelings of anger. Which of the following best explains Patrick's circumstances? A. Model of Facet Satisfaction B. Opponent Process Theory C. The Vitamin Model D. Job Dissatisfaction Theory

D. A topic of recent interest in the I/O literature is the difference between leaders and managers. Characteristics that are considered particularly important for leaders include: visionary, creative, flexible, inspiring, courageous, and independent.

Recent literature comparing leadership and management has identified several similarities and differences. Which of the following set of characteristics is more critical for today's leaders than for managers? A. rational, persistent, and tough-minded B. problem-solving, persistent, and independent C. visionary, authoritative, and tough-minded D. independent, innovative, and flexible

D. Two models of decision making are the rational-economic (or classical) and the administrative (or behavioral) model. The rational-economic model deals with how decisions should be made. It assumes the decision-maker is completely rational, has access to and seeks all information relevant to the decision, considers all possible alternatives, and makes the best possible choice. The administrative model deals with how decisions are actually made. It assumes that, due to limited cognitive and external resources, decision-makers simplify problems, work with a limited range of options and alternatives, and employ "satisficing", or seeking the solution that meets minimally acceptable criteria, as opposed to an optimal solution

The administrative model of decision making, as compared to the rational-economic model emphasizes: A. obtaining all available information before making a decision. B. ensuring that the decision-making process is not biased. C. ensuring that decision-making process is not overly simplified. D. a satisficing approach.

C. Acceptance of goals is paramount importance goal-setting theory. Acceptance is the critical factor: A person must consciously accept the goals and intend to achieve them. Participation in goals (d.) may increase one's acceptance and intentions, but it is not considered required. Self-efficacy beliefs (b.) and consistency with one's self-concept are not goal-setting theory principles. © Academic Review

The fundamental principle underlying goal-setting theory is: A. self-efficacy beliefs are related to an individual's commitment to organizational goals. B. organizational goals are only achieved when they are consistent with a person's self-concept. C. behavior is regulated by a person's conscious goals and intentions. D. participation is necessary to ensure commitment to goals.

D. Organizational transformation is a term for an intervention that is one of the strategies in organizational development. Organizational development (OD) refers to a planned, organization-wide effort designed to improve the organization's effectiveness and targets the organization as a whole rather than an individual unit such as an employee or job. Organizational transformation is a relatively newer method of OD that was developed in response to challenges such as layoffs, mergers, and rapidly changing markets in the corporate world. In organizational transformation, the target of change is the entire organization's vision of its beliefs, purpose, or mission. It attempts to alter the viewpoints of the organization's members. For example, it may involve mission statement changes, consciousness raising, and training exercises designed to help employees shift to an entirely new way of doing business, such as a change to a pay-for-performance pay scale or a new emphasis on vertical rather than horizontal markets

The intervention known as organizational transformation typically focuses on: A. identifying and implementing specific target areas for change. B. increasing cohesiveness of the organization's members. C. group processes and dynamics within the organization. D. the entire organization's vision.

B. According to Locke's 1970 goal-setting theory, goals serve two purposes-they are a basis for motivation and they direct behavior. Goal attainment is maximized when goals are specific and moderately difficult and when frequent feedback about progress toward goal achievement is provided. Goal-setting theory proposes that, when people accept goals, they intend to achieve them and, therefore, are willing to put forth the effort to do so. Response choices "A" and "D" are too vague and choice "C" is excessively difficult.

The most effective approach to encourage students to learn new vocabulary words in a foreign language would be to instruct them to: A. learn as many words as possible. B. take their time and plan to learn 5 words a day. C. apply pressure on themselves to learn 20 words a day. D. take it easy and not worry about specific number of words.

B. The ERG theory of motivation proposes three categories of needs: existence, relatedness, and growth needs. Existence needs are material and are met by environmental factors such as (in the workplace) pay and benefits. Relatedness needs are met by relationships with superiors, co-workers, and subordinates. Growth needs are met by opportunities for personal development such as the chance to develop abilities that are important to the person. These three categories exist on a continuum from concrete to abstract; existence needs are the most concrete and relatedness needs are the most abstract. The theory is similar to Maslow's Need Hierarchy Theory in that it proposes a continuum of needs, but differs in a number of ways as well. For instance, in ERG theory, a person can move back and forth on the needs continuum. Specifically, according to ERG theory, difficulties in satisfying the more abstract needs causes frustration regression, or a greater focus on fulfilling needs on the next level below.

The motivation theory that proposes a continuum of needs that is comparable to Maslow's Need Hierarchy Theory but attempts to overcome shortcomings of Maslow's theory is: A. Equity theory. B. ERG theory. C. Expectancy theory. D. Goal-Setting Theory.

D. The concepts of business necessity and job relatedness represent conditions that may allow the use of a selection procedure that has an adverse impact for members of a protected group. According to the Americans with Disabilities Act and the Federal Uniform Guidelines on Employee Selection Procedures, if an employer can show that a selection measure, or other employment procedure, that is having an adverse impact is job related and a business necessity, then the employer may be able to continue using the procedure

The terms "business necessity" and "job relatedness" are associated with: A. utility analysis B. comparable worth C. critical incidents D. adverse impact

A. Gottfredson's (1981; 1996; 2002) theory of circumscription and compromise addresses about how gender and prestige influence and limit career choice. The theory proposes four stages of cognitive development including: orientation to size and power; orientation to sex roles; influence of social class; introspection and perceptiveness and that the expression of occupational aspirations emerges as a process of elimination or is the outcome of the competing processes of circumscription and compromise. Circumscription refers to the progressive elimination of least preferred options or alternatives that occurs as children become increasingly aware of occupational differences in gender or sex-type, prestige, and then field of work. Compromise refers to the expansion of preferences in recognition of and accommodation to external constraints (e.g., level of effort required, accessibility, cost) encountered in implementing preferences. (See: Gottfredson, L. S. (1981). Circumscription and compromise: a developmental theory of occupational aspirations. Journal of Counseling Psychology Monograph, 28(No. 6, November), 545-579.) Gottfredson, L. S. (2002). Gottfredson's theory of circumscription, compromise, and self creation. In D. Brown (Ed.), Career Choice and Development (4th ed., pp. 85-148). San Francisco: Jossey-Bass.) Super's (b.) theory proposed a five stage model of career development wherein people achieve job satisfaction when they are able to express themselves and develop their self-concept through their work roles. Krumboltz's (c.) Social Learning Theory of Career Decision Making (SLTCDM) includes four types of influences on making career decisions: genetic characteristics and special abilities; environmental conditions and events; learning experiences; performance standards and values. Social learning influences can be positive or negative factors. Meichenbaum (d.) is associated with cognitive-behavioral therap

The terms "circumscription" and "compromise" are associated with: A. Gottfredson B. Super C. Krumboltz D. Meichenbaum

C. Fiedler's Contingency Model states leaders have a dominant leadership style that is resistant to change and distinguishes between two types of leaders - high LPC leaders (person-oriented, more focused on maintaining good interpersonal relationships) and low LPC leaders (task-oriented, more focused on successful task performance). Changes in the structure of the situation can improve the chances of success as the leader's success is contingent on the situation, task to be completed, leader's style or personality, and the maturity of the group. Fielder proposes task-oriented (low-LPC) leaders are most effective when the leader has either low or high situational control and person-oriented (high-LPC leaders) are most effective when situational control is moderate. According to Fielder, situational control is determined by: leader-member relations, task-structure, and leader position power.

The three dimensions of situational control identified by Fiedler include all of the following except: A. leader-employee relations B. position or legitimate power C. role expectations D. task structure

D. Knowing that Tiedeman and O'Hara based their model on Erikson's psychosocial theory of identity would have helped you select the correct answer. They proposed that a person develops a vocational identity through a process of differentiation (realizing that a career does not fit with one's personality) and integration (identifying with a career)

Tiedeman and O'Hara emphasize which of the following in the process of career development? A. innate drives B. interests C. aptitude D. identity

C. Transactional leadership, in its simplest form, is leadership by contingent reinforcement. The leaders' rewards, promises and/or threats of disciplinary actions or punishments motivate the followers. In constructive transactions, the leader may participate in discussing what is to be done in exchange for implicit or explicit rewards and the allocation of desired resources, or they give out assignments, negotiate or contract with followers. The actions of the leader are contingent on whether the followers do what they have been "contracted" to do. Leaders that take corrective action with negative feedback or reprimand only after followers' mistakes have been called to their attention are engaging in passive management-by-exception. In corrective transactions (a.) or contingent rewarding (b.), leaders engage in active management-by-exception (d.) which means they monitor followers' performance and correct their mistakes if and when they occur.

Transactional leaders who wait for mistakes to be brought to their attention before taking corrective action are engaging in: A. corrective transactions B. contingent rewarding C. passive management-by-exception D. active management-by-exception

A. When using the paired comparison technique, a rater compares each person with every other person. It's specific but time-consuming, as you can see. The order of merit comparisons has the rater rank order the people in terms of some criterion, such as overall job performance. You can see that it wouldn't take as long as paired comparisons, but wouldn't be as precise either

When several individuals are to be compared by a supervisor in a work setting, paired comparisons, as compared to order of merit comparisons, are: A. more precise but more difficult. B. less precise but easier. C. more precise and easier. D. less precise and more difficult.

B. Organ defined organizational citizenship behavior as discretionary, voluntary behaviors that are not part of an employee's specified role requirements nor formally rewarded by the organization and in aggregate, contribute to organizational effectiveness by enhancing the "social and psychological context that supports task performance" (Organ 1997: 91). Smith, Organ, and Near (1983) initially identified two distinct OCB dimensions: altruism (b.), defined as behaviors directed toward a specific person such as helping co-workers with work-related tasks and generalized compliance (d.), defined as behaviors representative of what a "good worker" should do, such as arriving on time and not wasting time while at work. Organ (1988) later proposed a five-factor model of OCB which included altruism as previously defined; (2) conscientiousness, previously referred to as generalized compliance by Smith et al. (1983) and representing behaviors that go above and beyond minimal expectations of good workers in areas such as attendance, timeliness, and conservation of resources; (3) sportsmanship, referring to behaviors such as tolerating trivial or minor inconveniences without complaining or initiating a grievance; (4) courtesy, involving anticipatory acts that help someone else prevent a problem such as consulting with others when making decisions that may affect them or providing relevant information in advance; and (5) civic virtue, referring to constructive involvement or participation in the overall organization and may include attending meetings regarding the organization. A number of other OCB dimensions have since been proposed and examined, with estimates ranging from one to seven, however most of the OCB literature relies either on the initial two factors or the five dimensions of Organ's (1988) taxonomy (LePine et al, 2002). Contextual performance (a.) is work behavior that affects organizational performance less directly than the task-related behavior typically construed as "performance" and is often used synonymously with OCB in recent studies

Which aspect is not associated with organizational citizenship behavior? A. contextual performance B. responsibility C. altruism D. generalized compliance

D. All of the Big Five traits are relatively stable throughout adulthood. However, several studies have concluded that extraversion is the most stable trait, while neuroticism is the least stable over time. In a meta-analysis of 152 longitudinal studies, researchers obtained the following stability coefficients: Extraversion (.55), followed by Agreeableness (.52), Openness (.51), Conscientiousness (.49), and Neuroticism (.46)

Which of the Big Five personality traits is least stable over time? A. Conscientiousness B. Extraversion C. Agreeableness D. Neuroticism

D. Donald Kirkpatrick's (1959, 1998) model for evaluating training and learning programs includes four levels: reaction, learning, behavior and result. Each level of evaluation is used to assess the effectiveness of training programs and the effects of the training on the employees. Level 1 (b.) evaluations focus on the individual's response to the training or intervention. Level 2 (a.) measures what has been learned, often using pre/post-tests or end-of-course tests. Level 3 evaluations assess the impact of the intervention on the individual's behavior or performance in the workplace and level 4 (c.) measure the impact of training on the organization's results. (See: Kirkpatrick, D.L. (1998). Evaluating Training Programs: The Four Levels (3rd ed.). San Francisco, California: Berrett-Koehler.) Return on investment (ROI), is a "level 5" evaluation, proposed by Jack Phillips, used to calculate the return on investment of an intervention or training. Phillips' Five Level ROI is an expansion of Kirkpatrick's model and encourages ROI evaluations for each of the first four levels

Which of the following is NOT one of the levels of Kirkpatrick's training evaluation model? A. learning B. reaction C. results D. return on investment

D. Work samples provide standardized, job-like conditions to measure work behavior. They are used as a selection technique, as an indicator of individuals likely to benefit from training, and as a means of reducing turnover through a job preview. Research indicates that work samples are generally good predictors of job performance; however, work samples of motor skills have more validity than work samples of verbal skills. Additionally, work samples are less likely to discriminate against individuals from different groups and are acceptable to applicants

Which of the following is not true about work samples as a selection technique? A. less likely to discriminate against members of minority groups B. good predictor of job performance C. work samples of motor skills have more validity than work samples of verbal skills D. work samples of verbal skills have more validity than work samples of motor skills

D. Tiedeman and O'Hara based their career development model on Erikson's psychosocial theory of ego identity development. They proposed that a person develops a vocational identity through a process of many differentiations and reintegrations throughout one's lifespan. Differentiation comes from the realization that a particular career does not "fit" with one's personality. Integration involves identification with a career.

Which of the following theorists related career development to ego identity development? A. Anna Freud B. Super C. Holland D. Tiedeman and O'Hara

B. Dawis and Lofquist's (1964) model of career development, Theory of Work Adjustment (TWA), centers on the connection between a worker and his/her job and work environment. A key element of the theory is that an individual is best suited for positions that have matching demands and rewards to his/her individual characteristics. According to the TWA, satisfaction and satisfactoriness are factors related to job tenure. Satisfaction, in this theory, refers to a worker's satisfaction with the job. This is established by the degree to which the worker's needs are satisfied by the provided rewards of the job. Satisfactoriness, on the other hand, refers to the organization or employer's satisfaction with the worker. For example, how well the worker's skills fulfill the requirements of the job and is able to perform the job

Within the context of Theory of Work Adjustment (TWA), job tenure is related to an employee's: A. organizational commitment. B. satisfaction and satisfactoriness. C. career concept. D. motivation and ability.

B. This question refers to a framework that identifies three general strategies to bring about change in an organization: empirical-rational, power-coercive, and normative-reeducative. Empirical-rational strategies are based on the assumption that people are basically rational and, if they have all relevant information about a situation, will act in accord with their self-interest. Thus, a proposed change will be adopted if the proposer can rationally justify the change and show that it will benefit the members of the organization. The consultant in this question is explaining how the proposed changes will advance the self-interest of the employees; thus, he is adopting an empirical-rational approach

You are hired as a consultant by a large corporation. You evaluate the company and come up with a list of interventions that you believe would increase the company's profitability. To encourage employees to accept these changes, you assemble them in a large meeting hall and give a speech explaining how your proposed changes will benefit the company and, by extension, the employees. Which of the following strategies for increasing acceptance to change are you using? A. normative-reeducative B. empirical-rational C. power-coercive D. advocacy consultation

B. According to the Americans with Disabilities Act and the Federal Uniform Guidelines on Employee Selection Procedures, business necessity and job relatedness are conditions that may permit the use of a selection or other employment procedure that results in an adverse impact. If an employer can demonstrate that it is job related and a business necessity, despite having adverse impact, the employer may be able to continue using the procedure

"Business necessity" and "job relatedness" are related to: A. personnel training B. adverse impact C. comparable worth D. truth in testing

B. A distinction is made between formative and summative evaluation in the literature on evaluation. Formative evaluations are conducted during the delivery of the intervention to identify ways to improve it. Summative evaluations (a.) are conducted at the end of the intervention to evaluate its effectiveness and participants' reactions to it. A needs analysis (d.) is the first step in developing a training program. It is conducted prior to developing an intervention to determine what the intervention should include. Whereas the utility analysis (c.) summarizes and identifies key variables that describe the consequences of HR programs

A __________________ is performed during the development or delivery of an intervention to determine if it needs to be modified in order to meet its goals. A. summative evaluation B. formative evaluation C. utility analysis D. needs analysis

A. In a forced distribution, or forced ranking, system of personnel evaluation, employees are basically ranked against each other. The method requires managers to distribute ratings into pre-specified performance distributions or rankings (e.g., 1 out of 100, top 10%), etc. Regarding the other choices, the forced choice methodology basically involves using a multiple choice scale to evaluate employees on a variety of dimensions; the rater must select one statement from a set (two or more) of statements that best describes the employee. BARS stands for Behaviorally Anchored Rating Scales. These are constructed by doing a job analysis to identify critical incidents, or specific behaviors that are associated with good or poor performance. Using such as scale, a rater would choose the behavior most characteristic of the employee being evaluated. Finally, the method the question describes is not illegal as long it is applied fairly, and in fact describes the method of employee evaluation that Jack Welch implemented at GE in the 1980s and has been adopted by many other firms.

A company that creates an overall ranking of its employees based on a variety of performance outcome measures and fires the employees in the bottom 10 percent of these rankings is using a(n) ______________ method of employee evaluation. A. forced distribution B. forced choice C. BARS D. illegal

D. The "telling style" according to Hersey and Blanchard's (1974) description, is more effective when an employee's ability and willingness to accept responsibility are low. This leadership style involves high task orientation and low relationship orientation. With A, the leader should adopt the "selling" style-high task orientation and high relationship orientation. With B, the leader should adopt a "participatory" style-low task orientation and high relationship orientation. With C the leader can use a "delegating style"; both low task and low relationship orientation.

A leader should adopt a "telling" style if: A. The employee has low ability but high willingness to accept responsibility B. The employee has high ability but low willingness to accept responsibility C. The employee's ability to and willingness to accept responsibility are both high D. The employee's ability and willingness to accept responsibility are both low

D. A needs assessment involves identifying the needs of the organization. A needs assessment is often conducted to determine which employees need training and what should be included in that training. Choice B describes the purpose of a job analysis, which is to describe the requirements of a job. And choice C describes the purpose of a job evaluation, which is to determine the salary levels of jobs.

A needs assessment is usually conducted to: A. acertain a job applicant's skills B. describe the requirements of a job C. determine the relative worth of a job D. identify the needs of an organization

A. In the terminology of program evaluation, a common distinction is between summative and formative evaluation. Summative evaluations deal with whether a program has achieved its intended objectives. They are typically used to address "bottom line" issues, such as if a program should continue existing, or if more or fewer resources should be allocated to it. By contrast, a formative evaluation addresses issues related to the implementation of a program. The main focus of a formative evaluation is how a program can be improved. In practice, most program evaluations contain elements of both formative and summative evaluation

A summative evaluation of a mental health program primarily deals with which of the following questions? A. "Did the program meet its goals?" B. "How can the program be improved in the future?" C. "How can the strengths and weaknesses of the program be summarized?" D. "What is preventing the program from operating more effectively right now?"

B. Parallel process is a phenomenon in clinical supervision where the therapist in training behaves toward the supervising therapist in ways that mirror how the client is behaving toward the therapist in training

A supervisee begins to unconsciously act toward her supervisor in similar ways as her own client acts towards her. This is an example of: A. Projective identification B. Parallel process C. Transference D. Identification.

C. Under the Cleary model, a test is considered unfair if the slope and/or the y-intercept of the regression line is different for one subgroup than for another. The effect of these statistical phenomena is that differences between subgroups on predictor scores would not be reflective of differences between the groups on the criterion. For instance, low scorers in one subgroup might do just as well on the criterion as high scorers in the other subgroup

According to Anne Cleary's model of test fairness, a job selection test would be considered unfair if: A. Based on the use of the test, a higher proportion of Caucasians than African-Americans are chosen for the job. B. the test has a higher validity coefficient for Caucasians than for African-Americans. C. the slope of the test's regression line is different for African-Americans than for Caucasians. D. the content of the test is culturally biased.

D. Bass (1985) suggested that transformational leadership contains the interrelated components of idealized or charisma influence (attributed or behavioral), inspirational motivation, intellectual stimulation, and individualized consideration. In truly transformational leadership, high morals and ethical standards characterize charismatic or idealized influence. In research by Podsakoff, MacKenzie, Moorman and Fetter (1990), trust was found to be the single most important variable moderating the effects of transformational leadership on the performance, attitudes, and satisfaction of the followers. Inspirational motivation (b.) provides followers with meaning and challenges for engaging in undertakings and shared goals. Intellectual stimulation (a.) helps followers to question assumptions and to generate more creative solutions to problems. Individual consideration (c.) treats each follower as an individual and provides coaching, mentoring and growth opportunities.

According to Bass, transformational leadership contains four interrelated components. Which of the following is characterized by high moral and ethical standards? A. intellectual stimulation B. inspirational motivation C. individualized consideration D. idealized influence

B. A person's career anchor is his or her self-concept consisting of self-perceived talents and abilities, basic values, motives, and needs as they pertain to the career. Schein says that people are primarily motivated by one of eight anchors — priorities that define how they see themselves and how they see their work. The eight anchors include: technical/functional competence - a desire to excel in a chosen line of work; general managerial competence - closely allied with the traditional career path of the corporation; autonomy/independence - individuals just want to be alone; security/stability - value predictable environment in which tasks and policies are clearly codified and defined; entrepreneurial creativity - desire to create something of own and run it; service/dedication to a cause - the need to focus work around a specific set of values; pure challenge - seek to solve or master challenges; and lifestyle - organized around an individual's private life.

According to Edgar Schein, the concept of career anchor refers to: A. the tendency to stay in a financially secure position regardless of personal interest B. the motivation of priorities that define how people see themselves and their work C. the motivation of advancement opportunities to stay with an organization D. the tendency to stay in a position regardless of advancement opportunities

B. Herbert Simon earned a Nobel Prize in economics, but was also known for his theories in psychology, computer science (artificial intelligence), and administration. The one thread through all of his work was his interest in decision-making and problem solving. His "administrative" model maintains that decision-makers cannot always afford to be rational, instead, they must choose the first solution that is minimally acceptable or "satisficing." This is in contrast to another decision making theory, the "rational-economic model" in which decision-makers attempt to find the optimal solution to a problem

According to Herbert Simon's administrative model, decision-makers in organizational settings typically chose the: A. least expensive choice B. most "satisficing" choice C. best choice after weighing all the alternatives D. worst choice after weighing all the alternatives

D. Hershey and Blanchard's Situational Leadership Theory holds that there are four leadership styles, and leaders should be flexible enough to adopt the one that applies best to the situation, based on the developmental or maturity level of the followers. At the lowest maturity levels, where followers cannot do the job and are unwilling or afraid to try, the leader should adopt a highly directive style called Telling / Directing. At the next lowest level, followers have variable competence, and are willing to do the job; the appropriate leadership style in this case is Selling / Coaching. Workers at the second highest developmental level can do the job but are uncommitted or unmotivated; here, a Participating / Supporting style is recommended. Finally, the least directive style of leadership, Delegating / Observing, is recommended for workers at the highest maturity levels--those who are competent and motivated to perform.©

According to Hershey and Blanchard's Situational Leadership Theory, the element of the situation that is most relevant to the ideal leadership style is: A. task type B. task difficulty C. leader personality D. follower developmental level

B. Hershey and Blanchard's Situational Leadership Theory holds that there is no one correct leadership style across situations; depending on the situation, the leader must respond with the correct task and relationship behavior or orientation. Leadership behaviors are classified as either high or low in task orientation or relationship orientation, resulting in four possible leadership styles. The correct style depends on the maturity level of subordinates. At the lowest maturity levels, where followers cannot do the job and are unwilling or afraid to try, the leader should adopt a high task/low relationship style called Telling / Directing. At the next lowest level, followers have variable competence, and are willing to do the job; the appropriate leadership orientation in this case is high task/high relationship, or Selling / Coaching. Workers at the second highest developmental level can do the job but are uncommitted or unmotivated; here, a low task/high relationship style, Participating / Supporting, is recommended. Finally, the least directive style of leadership, the low task/low relationship oriented style called Delegating / Observing, is recommended for workers at the highest maturity levels - those who are competent and motivated to perform.

According to Hershey and Blanchard's theory of situational leadership, a leader must respond to a particular work situation with the appropriate A. task and subordinate orientation. B. task and relationship orientation. C. subordinate and relationship orientation. D. task and temporal orientation.

A. Herzberg's two-factor theory divides job elements into two types: hygiene factors and motivators. Hygiene factors result in job dissatisfaction when absent, but do not lead to job satisfaction when present. Motivators result in job satisfaction when present, but do not lead to dissatisfaction when absent. Of the choices listed, only job content is a motivator. According to the theory, motivators are intrinsic to the work (i.e., they have to do with the job itself), while hygiene factors are extrinsic to the work. The other three choices are not directly related to the job itself and are classified by Herzberg as hygiene factors

According to Herzberg's two-factor theory, an employee who is happy with which of the following job elements will most likely be satisfied with her job? A. job content B. relationships with coworkers C. pay D. job security

C. Although Holland is probably most associated with interests, his theory proposes that interests are actually determined by personality. In addition, it proposes that workers will be happy and most productive when their personality matches the characteristics of the work environment.

According to Holland, career choice is optimal when there is a good "fit" between: A. interests and job demands. B. self-concept and the job requirements. C. personality type and the job environment. D. values and the intrinsic meaning of the job.

C. As its name implies, path-goal theory predicts that leaders will be most successful when they show followers the path for achieving goals. Path-goal theory is also a contingency theory, which means that it proposes that the best leadership style depends on certain characteristics of the situation.

According to House's path-goal theory, the optimal leader style: A. is a democratic one that allows workers to participate in setting goals and identifying ways for achieving them. B. is the one that emphasizes a task-oriented (versus person-oriented) approach that focuses on ways to achieve goals. C. varies depending on the situation but always involves helping workers achieve their goals. D. varies depending on the leader's experience and personality but always focuses on ensuring that goals are consistent with workers' skills and knowledge.

A. According to the EEOC's Uniform Guidelines on Employee Selection Criteria, disparate impact (also known as adverse impact) occurs if members of a protected class are selected at a rate less than 4/5ths, or 80% of the selection rate of another group. For example, if 2 out of every 10, or 20%, of African American applicants are hired, and 3 out of 10, or 30%, whites are hired, the ratio of the selection rates for the two groups would be 20/30, or 66%. This would indicate adverse impact against African-Americans in the hiring practice. Note that since this guideline was published, legal standards such as the Civil Rights Act of 1991 have held that failure to adhere to the 80% rule is not, by itself, sufficient to provide the basis for an adverse impact claim. Usually, additional proof, such as statistically significant differences between the hiring rates of two groups is required.

According to the EEOC's 80% rule for determining disparate impact of hiring practices on a minority group, disparate impact occurs when: A. the hiring rate of a protected group is less that 80% of the hiring rate of another group. B. 80% or more of applicants in a protected group are not hired. C. less than 20% of applicants for the job are members of any protected group. D. the number of people who would have been hired based on a random selection process is more than 80% greater than the number of protected group applicants hired.

A. Using a style approach, the Ohio State leadership studies identified two behavioral dimensions of leaders: initiating structure and consideration. These dimensions were treated as independent of each other in contrast to previous studies of leader behavior which placed related dimensions along a single continuum of leadership ranging from employee to production-centered (response "B"). In different models of leadership, the dimension of initiating structure is sometimes referred to as task-orientation and concern for production. The dimension of consideration has also been labeled employee orientation, relations-oriented and concern for people

According to the Ohio State University studies from the 1950s, what are the two dimensions of leadership? A. consideration and initiating structure B. employee-centered and production-centered C. autocratic and democratic D. authoritarian and laissez-faire

D. Subjective rating scale accuracy is influenced by the suspectibility to rater biases. A contrast effect (a.) occurs when a rater's ratings of a ratee are impacted by the ratings given to another. Severity error (b.), or strictness bias, refers to the tendency to use the low end of a rating scale to rate all ratees, whereas the central tendency bias (c.) is the tendency to use the middle of a scale in rating. A floor effect is not a rater bias. It refers to a measuring instrument's inability to distinguish between individuals who have low scores on whatever is being measured

All of following are rater biases EXCEPT: A. contrast effect B. severity error C. central tendency bias D. floor effect

B. Rater biases impacts the accuracy of subjective rating scales. When a rater rates all individuals using the middle of a rating scale, he/she is exhibiting the central tendency bias (a.). When ratings of one individual are affected by ratings given to another then the rater is exhibiting a contrast effect (c.). Severity error (d.), also known as strictness error or bias, refers to the rater tendency to rate all individuals using the low end of the rating scale. A ceiling effect is not a rater bias, it refers to the measurement instrument's inability to distinguish between individuals who have high levels of what is being assessed by the instrument.

All of the following are examples of a rater bias except: A. central tendency bias B. ceiling effect C. contrast effect D. severity error

D. Engineering psychology is concerned with fitting aspects of the job to the worker. The focus is on the total environmental system, including procedures, work environments, and the design and functioning of equipment. Thus, in this situation, an engineering psychologist would most likely focus on the safety of the work environment.

An engineering psychologist hired by a company to decrease accidents and improve safety in the organization would most likely focus on: A. working with employees to ensure that they understand and accept the company's safety policies B. ensuring that enough information about ways to increase safety is available to employees C. working with managers to increase their commitment to safety D. identifying aspects of the work environment that could be modified in order to improve safety

B. Multiple hurdles approach requires applicants to score above a specific level or pass several measures one at a time. The usefulness of the multiple hurdles technique is maximized by administering the predictors in a logical order (e.g., from least to most difficult or least to most expensive).

An important decision when utilizing the multiple hurdles approach in personnel selection is: A. how to weigh each predictor. B. which order to administer the predictors. C. if the same person should administer the criterion and evaluate predictor performance. D. which statistical test to use to assess if the results are significant.

D. D. Summarizing the predictive validity of interviews and other selection techniques in a meta-analysis of the research, Schmidt and Hunter (1998) report measures of general mental ability are the most valid predictors across different jobs (a.). For structured and unstructured interviews, they note corrected validity coefficients of .51 and .38, respectively (b.). When an interview is combined with another selection procedure, especially a general mental ability test, the predictive validity of interviews is increased

An organization is considering different selection techniques and comparing the respective predictive validity of each. The validity of structured interviews as predictors of performance: A. are the most valid across different jobs B. are no more valid than unstructured interviews when used alone C. is increased when the interview includes both structured and unstructured items D is increased when the interview is used in combination with a measure of general mental ability

A. A needs assessment, or analysis, is carried out to identify training needs and includes other analyses such as task analysis and person analysis. Determining training objectives (b.) is an outcome of a needs analysis and a personnel audit (c.) is part of an organizational assessment which is also a part of a needs analysis. Job evaluations (d.) are used to set wages and salaries

An organization is updating its telecommunication and information technology systems and its employees will need to be retrained on the changes. The most likely initial step for establishing training needs would be to: A. perform a needs analysis. B. pinpoint training objectives. C. complete a personnel audit. D. execute a job evaluation.

C. French and Raven identified six categories of power, which reflect the sources of influence upon which the power holder relies. Even if you were familiar with these categories, this question may have been difficult to answer, because all four of the choices could have been operating here. The way to choose the best answer is to work with the information you have at hand and not to add your own inferences to the question. Legitimate power refers to formal authority delegated to the individual in the form of rank, title, decree, etc. This question indicates that the requester is a high-ranking executive; i.e., he has a title and the formal authority and right to exercise power within the organization. Therefore, based on the available information, legitimate power is the best answer. Coercive power stems from the ability of the power-holder to punish others. Reward power arises from the ability to reward others. Referent power is based on personal qualities, and operates to the degree others identify with the power holder. As noted, all three of these power bases could have been at work here: the employee may have feared that the executive would fire him or otherwise punish him if he didn't work overtime; he may have thought the executive would give him a raise or reward him some other way if he did work overtime; or he may have accepted the request out of admiration for or loyalty to the executive. However, the question does not explicitly refer to any of these scenarios. The only source of power that is obvious--due to the wording that the request comes from a "high ranking executive"--is legitimate power. The other two sources of power are expert power, which stems from a belief that the power holder has specialized knowledge or expertise, and informational power, which stems from the ability to control the availability of information

An organization's employee agrees to a high-ranking executive's request for the employee to work overtime. The previous week, the same employee turned down a similar request from a peer. From the perspective of French and Raven's analysis of the bases of power, the employee accepted the executive's request due to the latter's _________ power. A. coercive B. reward C. legitimate D. referent

A. The engineering psychologist tends to examine the factors making up the job and how these impact the worker. The job elements, from such things as the illumination in the plant to the work rate, are manipulated to maximize the productive work of the employee. Fitting the worker to the job (e.g., hiring better people) is a function of personnel psychology. By contrast, the engineering psychologist works with the job elements and designs the most productive environment for the worker hired

As opposed to industrial psychology, the approach of engineering psychology is to fit the: A. job to the worker. B. worker to the job. C. job to the organization. D. worker to the organization.

B. Research investigating the impact of personal and contextual characteristics on the creativity of employees indicates increasing the physical distance between workers (a.), providing supportive supervision (d.), and being informed evaluations will be developmental rather than judgmental has a positive effect on employee creativity. The expectation that one's work will be critically evaluated tends to diminish creativity. Of the five personality factors, openness to experience (c.) has been most strongly related to creativity

Employee creativity is impacted by personal and contextual characteristics. Creativity is diminished by: A. reduced density of work environment B. expecting a critical evaluation of work C. scoring high on a measure of openness to experience D. supportive supervision

C. Criterion contamination occurs when a rater knows how a ratee did on a predictor test, and this knowledge affects the rating. For example, if an employee obtained a very high score on the post-training test and the supervisor knows this, the supervisor's ratings of the employee's on-the-job performance might be biased upward. To prevent criterion contamination, the rater should have no knowledge of the ratees' predictor scores. Contrast effect (A) refers to the tendency to give ratings on the basis of comparisons to other ratees. There is no indication that there is a restricted range of scores (B), and if there was, that would reduce the correlation between the predictor and criterion scores. Demand characteristics (D) are cues in the environment that inform research participants what behaviors are expected of them.

Employees are provided with a training program designed to improve the quality of their work. At the conclusion of the training program a supervisor administers a test to the employees. Three months later the same supervisor evaluates the employees on their job performance and correlates the two scores. The correlation between the scores is 0.70. The results are most likely biased due to: A. a contrast effect B. a restricted range of scores C. criterion contamination D. demand characteristics

A. In any system, feedback is useful to make corrections. Even our nervous system makes use of this phenomenon: as your body temperature rises on a cold morning, you stop shivering. Likewise with institutions and organizations. This question asks about positive feedback, which, in systems terminology, refers to information that encourages disruption from the status quo. In organizational consulting and family therapy, positive feedback is used to correct or change a pattern; in response to positive feedback the system deviates from homeostasis, or the status quo. This question is not about reinforcing other patterns or extinguishing maladaptive patterns, as two of the choices indicate. These terms are related to behavioral learning theory, not systems theory.

From an organizational systems approach, positive feedback is most useful as an intervention in order to: A. provide information which helps plan for corrective actions. B. reinforce adaptive responses. C. extinguish maladaptive organizational interactions. D. establish productive work groups.

A. The technique of goal setting involves allowing workers to set their own performance goals, or setting performance goals for them that they accept. Research on goal-setting theory indicates that the technique is most effective when goals are at least moderately difficult and specific feedback regarding progress toward the goal is provided.©

Goal setting as a motivational technique is most effective when: A. performance goals are difficult and specific feedback is provided regarding progress toward the goal B. performance goals are difficult and general feedback is provided regarding progress toward the goal C. performance goals are easy and specific feedback is provided regarding progress toward the goal D. performance goals are easy and general feedback is provided regarding progress toward the goal

C. Holland's theory categorizes individuals based on their resemblance to six personality types: realistic, investigative, artistic, social, enterprising, and conventional (you can remember the sequence as "RIASEC"). The personality types reflect a person's primary interest, or an environment's primary characteristic; for example, the investigative type enjoys working alone and solving complex problems; likes dealing with ideas more than people or things and has math or scientific abilities. There is overlap between the types, with some overlapping more than others. For example, the investigative type is more similar to the realistic and artistic (a.), and less similar to the enterprising, conventional (b.) and social (d.) types.

Holland's investigative type is least similar to which other one of his types? A. artistic B. conventional C. enterprising D. social

D. Any limiting criterion is acceptable in a job selection procedure as long as the criterion is shown to be job-related. For instance, you could exclude people with very poor eyesight as air traffic controllers, you could exclude people with very little stamina and strength as firefighters, and so forth. Thus, if an employer can empirically demonstrate that being a certain age is a bona-fide occupational requirement, it could be used as a job criterion. Let's say you were hiring painters to work on the Golden Gate Bridge. You might very well find that people over age 60 couldn't do the job safely and well. If you could prove this finding empirically, you could use age as a criterion. Note, however, that if an employer is challenged on the use of a discriminatory exclusionary criterion, the employer bears the legal burden of demonstrating that it is job relevant

In a job selection decision, age can be used as an exclusionary criterion: A. never. B. if there is a ruling from the appropriate federal agency allowing it. C. if there is a significant difference in mean ages of incumbents and applicants. D. if age is directly related to job performance.

C. The results of Stajkovic and Luthans' meta-analysis found self-efficacy positively related to work-related performance and that the relationship is moderated by task complexity and situational factors present in work environments. The two moderators appear to weaken the relationship between self-efficacy and work-related performance, with the relationship weakest for the higher levels of task complexity and field settings. Situational factors and organizational practices identified as influences on the relationship between self-efficacy and performance include: accuracy of task descriptions, definitions and circumstances of the tasks; instruction on necessary technical means and how to use them for successful task performance; physical distractions in the work environment; training programs that enhance employees self-efficacy beliefs of what they can do with the skills they already possess; developing effective behavioral and cognitive coping strategies, becoming more task-diagnostic, conceptualizing ability as an incremental skill; timing of program implementation; clarity and objectivity of performance standards; and personal consequences contingent on performance.

In a meta-analysis of the relationship between self-efficacy beliefs and achievement outcomes, Stajkovic and Luthans (1998) found self-efficacy was positively and strongly related to work-related performance and: A. the relationship between self-efficacy and work-related performance is moderated by task complexity B. the relationship between self-efficacy and work-related performance is moderated by locus of performance C. the relationship between self-efficacy and work-related performance is moderated by task complexity and locus of performance D. the relationship between self-efficacy and work-related performance is not influenced by task complexity or locus of performance

C. If a person's pay is based on output, his or her output is likely to increase, but the quality of work will not necessarily increase. This makes sense -- if you are working so fast in order to produce more so that you can get paid more, the quality of your work is likely to suffer. In addition, increased pay is likely to decrease job dissatisfaction, as predicted by Herzberg's two-factor theory.

In an attempt to increase motivation among employees, a company begins to pay employees based on their output. This will most likely result in: A. increased job satisfaction and increased quality of work B. decreased job dissatisfaction and increased quality of work C. decreased job dissatisfaction and increased quantity of work D. increased job satisfaction and no change in quantity of work

C. The paired comparison technique involves comparing each person to every other person in the organization in reference to one or more variables such as productivity. It is a time-consuming and expensive process but results in highly precise and differentiated evaluations of each person in the group evaluated.

In any organized setting of more than a few people, paired-comparisons is the preferred rating system when the goal is to: A. establish a standard performance criterion for the average productivity rate in that organization. B. rank-order the people in the organization in the most cost-effective manner. C. maximally differentiate among the people in the organization. D. set the most attainable and acceptable production goals for each person in that organization

D. Maslow's theory, as it applies to workplace settings, has not been supported by research. For instance, the notion that lower level needs, such as pay and job security, cease to be important once they are satisfied has not been shown to be true

In applied industrial settings, Maslow's theory has been shown to be: A. applicable for lower-level employees only. B. appropriate for supervisors but not managers. C. applicable across the board. D. not applicable.

A. Job enrichment is a motivational technique that involves giving employees increased responsibility, decision-making authority, and autonomy. It is based on Herzberg's two-factor theory of motivation, which classifies factors that affect job satisfaction into two categories: motivators, which increase satisfaction, and hygiene factors, which prevent dissatisfaction. Motivators are related to intrinsic conditions of the job itself, such as the autonomy and the opportunity for personal growth. Job enrichment attempts to provide motivators in order to increase satisfaction and ultimately performance. Job enlargement is also an attempt to increase an employee's satisfaction and motivation. It involves increasing the number of tasks an employee performs. The idea is to reduce the level of monotony and boredom; however, research suggests that job enrichment is the more effective technique.

In contrast to job enlargement, job enrichment involves: A. increasing an employee's decision-making authority. B. increasing the number of tasks done by an employee. C. an attempt to increase the employee's motivation. D. increasing external rewards for the employees such as pay and benefits.

C. According to equity theory, individuals compare the ratio of inputs they bring to a job (e.g., amount and quality of work) and the outcomes they receive (e.g., pay, praise) and attempt to keep that ratio equitable to their perceived input/outcomes of others. For example, if a person felt that he was doing more work than a colleague but both were getting the same pay, the person would perceive an underpayment inequity. The theory states that workers seek to restore equity if they perceive either an underpayment or an overpayment inequity. They may, for example, attempt to increase or decrease their inputs, seek more compensation or other positive outcomes, or change their perceptions of the value of the inputs or outcomes involved.

In equity theory, the key factor influencing motivation is: A. the desirability of rewards for tasks and the expectancy that tasks will be successfully accomplished. B. the degree to which job tasks satisfy higher-order needs. C. perceived self and other input/outcome ratios. D. the degree to which workers believe that their input into the chosen goals of the organization is valued.

D. Job enrichment involves redesigning a job in order to enable workers to have more challenge, responsibility, decision-making authority, and opportunities for advancement. Although the research findings are mixed, they generally have found that job enrichment leads to increased job satisfaction, decreased tardiness, absenteeism and turnover, and in some cases, increased job performance in terms of quality rather than quantity. The benefits of job enrichment are greatest among younger, well-educated, employees who have a high need for achievement

In general, research has found that job enrichment: A. has no significant effects on job satisfaction or performance. B. increases job satisfaction but has no effect on job performance. C. increases job performance and, to a lesser degree, job satisfaction for most workers. D. has positive effects on job satisfaction and, for some workers, job performance.

B. A trainability test is designed to determine whether or not potential employees are suitable for training. It is not designed to be directly predictive of how well the person will do on the job itself. Instead, it would more directly indicate how well the person would do on a job sample, which is likely to be a part of the training sessions. In fact, trainability tests typically include job samples and are described as a type of job sample

In industrial settings, administration of a trainability test would be done for the purposes of determining whether: A. the examinee is likely to do well on the job. B. the examinee is likely to do well on a job sample. C. the examinee will be satisfied on the job. D. the examinee is suited to train others.

A. Cognitive tests are the most valid predictors of job performance across jobs and settings-and job performance would include job continuity. However, biodata is particularily useful for predicting turnover. In the specific area of predicting turnover, biodata has been found to have validity coefficients of .77 and .79 for predicting the turnover of whites and African-Americans respectively (Cascio 1976). Hunter and Hunter (1984) report an average validity coefficient of .53 when cognitive tests are used to predict performance ratings and .75 when they are used to predict performance on a work sample

In order to decrease job turnover, an interviewer should: A. Rely on biodata B. Rely on cognitive testing C. Hire only older people D. Rely on an interest inventory

D. In a structured interview, a series of job-related questions with predetermined "correct" answers are used consistently with all interviewees for a particular job. An advantage of this technique is the provision of individual item scores and a total score that are derived from prespecified criteria. To predict job performance, the interview score can then be combined with scores on other selection procedures in a multiple regression equation or similar technique. Another advantage of the structured interview is that it reduces the impact of interviewer subjectivity (a.). A utility analysis (b.) considers the procedure's validity coefficient, employee job performance variability (typically in dollar value of output or mean output), and the selection ratio to evaluate the practical value of a selection procedure. Subject matter experts (c.) are one of several methods for determining scores to responses to a structured interview.

In structured interviews, interviewees responses are appraised by: A. interviewer subjectivity. B. utility analysis. C. subject matter experts' consensus. D. pre-specified criteria.

B. There is some evidence that interviewers place less importance on interview information when biodata is not very favorable and more importance when it is supportive of a hiring decision. Apparently, a good interview cannot make up for a bad history, but a good history can be supported or canceled out by the results of the interview

In terms of interviews as selection techniques, which of the following is most consistent with the research? A. Panel interviews generally have the highest levels of validity, and they are especially valid when an average (versus consensus) rating is derived. B. When interviewers are given biodata information about an interviewee prior to the interview, interviewers give less credence to interview information when the biodata is not supportive of a decision to hire than when the biodata is very supportive of a decision to hire. C. Although the research is inconsistent, the best conclusion about interviews is that future- oriented (situational) interviews are more valid than past-oriented (behavior description) interviews regardless of whether the interview is structured or unstructured. D. One of the difficulties with interviews, even when they are structured, is that they are highly susceptible to gender biases, especially when the interviewee and the interviewer are of different genders.

B. Pooled interdependence occurs when individuals have a shared source of resources but little else in common; sequential involves a series or chain of one-way interactions in which individuals rely on those who precede them in the chain; reciprocal is described in the question and comprehensive is the most complex form as everyone involved is reciprocally interdependent on one another. While a greater potential for conflict and the loss of individuals due to turnover becomes more important as the intensity and complexity of interdependence increases from pooled to comprehensive, comprehensive interdependence can stimulate greater flexibility and enable groups to adapt more quickly to environmental changes

Interdependence in the workplace usually takes one of four forms. A network of two-way relationships that tie a collection of people together describes which type of organizational interdependence? A. comprehensive B. reciprocal C. pooled D. sequential

B. Validity generalization, or generalized evidence of validity, is evidence of validity that generalizes to setting(s) other than the setting(s) in which the original validation evidence was documented and is accumulated through strategies such as synthetic validity/job component validity (a.), transportability (c.) and meta-analysis (d.). Synthetic validity/job component validity is based on previous demonstration of the validity of inferences from scores on the selection procedure or battery with respect to one or more domains of work (job components). Transportability refers to a strategy for generalizing evidence of validity in which demonstration of important similarities between different work settings is used to infer that validation evidence for a selection procedure accumulated in one work setting generalizes to another work setting

Justification for the use of a selection procedure or battery in a new setting without conducting a local validation research study is referred to as: A. synthetic validity. B. validity generalization. C. transportability. D. meta-analysis.

A. Social loafing or Latane's "social disease" is the discovery that in regard to work, individual output declines when people are working together as a group. However, social loafing does not occur under all conditions. It is reduced or eliminated when participants believe that their individual contributions are identifiable or uniquely necessary for the group to succeed. (B) "groupthink" is the tendency for a group to make an irrational or impulsive decision in order to reach consensus. (C) "Group polarization" refers to the tendency of individuals who start with a similar view to end with a more extreme position after group discussion.©

Latane called this a social disease. It occurred when high-level employees were assessed on a combined effort. It turned out they produced less than when they were working individually. It's called: A. Social loafing B. Group think C. Social polarization D. Social facilitation

A. Leader member exchange theory (LMX) emphasizes that the nature of the relationship between a leader and member is the determining factor as to whether a member belongs to the "in-group" or the "out-group" and that not all members of the organization achieve the same quality relationship. Improved organizational effectiveness and achieving leader/employee needs satisfaction is the general objective. LMX theory suggests a developing leader-member relationship that moves through three phases: stranger, acquaintance, and partner. The relationship between the leader and members of the "out-group" is marked by a lower quality with both parties only completing their formal role obligations. Whereas, the relationship with the "in-group" members moves from low quality, one way, self-oriented and scripted to high quality, reciprocal, group oriented and negotiated exchanges. Given their status with the leader, in-group members have more decision-making influence, access to resources and responsibility than those in the out-group. The leader, in exchange for the additional effort of these members, provides more support, trust and initiative beyond the obligations of the job. Research indicates LMX theory is positively related to "higher job satisfaction, stronger organizational commitment, and better subordinate performance" (Yukl, 1998). LMX theory has been criticized as being discriminatory (i.e., increased opportunity for one group and formal expectations for another) and counter to principles of fairness among subordinates. The theory does not propose inequitable treatment of members rather it explains how relationships with various members can develop. LMX research suggests that leaders become cognizant of their attitudes toward all members and create methods for all employees to freely enter the in-group.

Leader-Member Exchange Theory (LMX) emphasizes: A. the relationships a leader has with members can be divided into two groups referred to as the "in-group" and the "out-group." B. adhering to formal organizational expectations yields increased access and opportunity C. principles of fairness in members achieving a quality relationship with a leader D. leaders and members use exchanges to achieve mutually beneficial outcomes

D. According to Fiedler's 1971 contingency theory, a leader's effectiveness is determined by a combination of the leader's style and the characteristics of the situation. Low LPC leaders are task and achievement oriented. Answers A and B could describe High LPC leaders who are primarily relationship oriented. Answer C could describe a transformational leader which Bass (1990) (see I/O section) described as change focused.

Low LPC leaders would be most likely to say: A. More beautiful paint colors in this office make us all feel better B. Flexitime was a brillant invention C. It's time for a change around here D. The first one to hand in this budget report wins the office lottery pool

A. Rater biases include the strictness, leniency, central tendency, and halo biases. The central tendency bias is the tendency to use the middle of a scale in rating all ratees. The halo effect (b.) occurs when evaluations of one aspect of a person's behavior influence evaluations of other aspects. The halo effect can be positive or negative; i.e., it can result in a bias in favor of or against a person. You may have considered the leniency bias (c.) as the correct response. This type of rater bias involves giving ratees high ratings on each dimension of performance regardless of their actual performance. However, the question does not indicate that all the ratings are high, only that Margaret is reluctant to give low scores for poor performance. Severity error (d.), or strictness bias, refers to the tendency to use the low end of a rating scale to rate all ratees

Margaret is reluctant to give poor ratings to her subordinates for fear of "ruffling feathers." Consequently, she tends to be unusually easy in her ratings. Margaret is committing what type of error? A. central tendency B. halo C. leniency D. severity

A. Group cohesiveness has been associated with less absenteeism and turnover and, in some situations, greater productivity. You should have been able to eliminate "C" (better decision-making) if you recalled the research on groupthink, which is characterized, in part, by high group cohesiveness, and is associated with poorer quality decisions.

Members of a cohesive group, as compared to members of a non-cohesive group, are more likely to have: A. lower absenteeism B. lower productivity C. better decision-making D. higher turnover

D. As you can imagine, what people do (or don't do) is the leading cause of industrial accidents. Not paying attention, daydreaming, not fixing the machine correctly, not training properly, etc., all can lead to accidents. It follows that to correct this problem one would want people trained better and one would want an environment in which attention is paid to possible accident-causing conditions.

Most studies of correlates of industrial accidents indicate that the strongest association is with: A. machine malfunction. B. organizational ambiance. C. supervisory attitude. D. human error.

A. While group differences exist between African-Americans and Caucasians on test performance (that is, while mean scores differ on these various standardized tests), it has not been shown conclusively that the predictive validity coefficients of the tests are differentially moderated by ethnic group membership. In other words, a test is likely to have the same validity coefficient for all subgroups of the same population -- even though those subgroups may score differently, on the average, from each other.

Most well-controlled studies of the effect of cultural moderators on the validities of job selection tests indicate that there are: A. no significant differences in validities between majority and minority groups. B. significant differences in validities between majority and minority groups. C. significant differences in validities between majority and minority groups on general aptitude tests but not on assessments of motor skills. D. significant differences in validities between majority and minority groups on assessments of motor skills but not on tests of general aptitude.

A. Research on the validity of selection measures generally finds the cognitive ability tests and biodata are 1-2 in terms of predictive validity. Although validity coefficients will vary from study to study, the most widely accepted conclusion is that general ability tests are the best overall predictors

Of the following, the best predictor of job success would likely be a: A. general cognitive ability test. B. personality test. C. structured interview. D. vocational interest inventory.

A. While there is no current consensus over the dimensions of justice in the organizational justice literature, two meta-analyses that used three and four-construct concepts found overlapping results on justice dimensions that predicted different outcomes. Cohen-Charash & Spector (2001) used a three-construct concept (distributive, procedural, and interactional) of justice to investigate the role of justice in organization outcomes. (See: Cohen-Charash, Y. & Spector, P.E. (2001). The Role of Justice in Organizations: A Meta-Analysis. Organizational Behavior and Human Decision Processes, Vol 86; 2, November, 278-321.) Whereas Colquitt et al.'s (2001) meta-analysis reviewed 25 years of organizational justice research focusing on the operationalizations of justice using the dimensions of distributive, procedural, informational, and interpersonal justice. Despite the differences, results from both indicated procedural justice is the best predictor of work performance and counterproductive work behavior. Organizational citizenship behaviors were found to be related to all dimensions of justice in both studies and noted in Colquitt et al as support for interactional justice to be distinguished as two specific types of interpersonal treatment: interpersonal and informal justice.

Organizational justice research indicates: A. procedural justice is the best predictor of work performance and of counterproductive work behavior, but all justice forms are related to organizational citizenship behaviors. B. distributive justice is the best predictor of work performance and counterproductive work behavior, but all justice forms are related to organizational citizenship behaviors. C. procedural and distributive justice are the best predictors of work performance and counterproductive work behavior, but interactional justice is the best predictor of organizational citizenship behaviors. D. procedural and distributive justice are the best predictors of work performance, counterproductive work behavior, and organizational citizenship behaviors.

A. Utility analysis is a procedure used to translate the cost and benefits of different business alternatives into dollars and cents. In this case, an I/O psychologist would use utility analysis to compare how much money the company currently makes without using the psychological tests and how much money the company would be expected to make if a testing program were implemented. A job analysis (c.) is a detailed analysis and description of a job that specifically states what needs to be done (job-related tasks), the nature of the work (work environment), and the type of individual who can perform the work successfully (knowledge, skills, and abilities). Job evaluation (d.) is the process used to determine how much to pay each employee. A typical job evaluation process involves assessing the value of each job-related task to the business and then adding up the value of all tasks listed in the job description to determine the overall value of the job.

Organizational psychologists would most likely use which of the following when talking to business leaders about implementing the use of psychological tests in selecting employees? A. utility analysis B. utility evaluation C. job analysis D. job evaluation

C. Ouchi's Theory Z is an organizational management philosophy that incorporates aspects from traditional American (Theory A) and Japanese (Theory J) management philosophies. The theory represents a middle ground, for example, emphasizing long-term employment versus short-term or lifelong and a moderately specialized career path instead of specialized or nonspecialized.

Organizations that advocate individual responsibility, consensual-decision making, slow promotion, and holistic knowledge of the organization are using which of the following management philosophies: A. Theory J B. Theory A C. Theory Z D. TQM

B. Research on the effects of the CWW is mixed. A meta-analysis by Baltes and colleagues (1999) found the CWW to have positive effects on supervisor ratings of employee performance and employee overall job satisfaction.

Research about job experience with the four day workweek suggests that it is correlated with: A. supervisor ratings of employee performance only B. supervisor ratings of employee performance and employee overall job satisfaction C. job performance only D. job performance and absenteeism

D. Summarizing the predictive validity of interviews and other selection techniques in a meta-analysis of the research, Schmidt and Hunter (1998) report measures of general mental ability are the most valid predictors across different jobs (a.). For structured and unstructured interviews, they note corrected validity coefficients of .51 and .38, respectively (b.). When an interview is combined with another selection procedure, especially a general mental ability test, the predictive validity of interviews is increased

Research indicates the validity of structured interviews as predictors of performance: A. are the most valid across different jobs. B. is increased when the interview includes both structured and unstructured items. C. are no more valid than unstructured interviews when used alone. D. is increased when the interview is used in combination with a measure of general mental ability.

A. A predictor test has differential validity when it is a valid predictor of outcome for one subgroup of examinees, but invalid or significantly less valid for another group. For example, if a test designed to predict college success predicted the success of whites fairly accurately, but provided little or no predictive information for African-American examinees, the test would have differential validity. Validity generalization studies have suggested that differential validity rarely occurs. Differential validity is not the same as differential prediction, which is a greater concern these days than differential validity. In technical terms, differential prediction means that the regression line (either is slope or its y-intercept) is different for different subgroups. In less technical terms, it means that given scores on a predictor test are associated with different outcomes for different subgroups. In differential prediction, a test can be equally valid for two subgroups, but the actual outcome or criterion scores are different for a given result on the predictor. Research on differential prediction also suggests that it is rare, though not as rare as differential validity, and some research shows that when it does occur, it tends to favor minority groups over majority groups.

Research on differential validity of predictor tests has suggested that it: A. is rare. B. when present, tends to favor minority groups over majority groups. C. is a common cause of test bias and unfairness that negatively impact minority groups. D. only affects the construct validity of tests.

B. A current emphasis in the I/O literature is on team work, and the increased reliance on teams in organizations is supported by research showing that teams are more productive than individuals. Note that, in some situations, group performance is not as good as individual performance (e.g., in certain types of decision-making). However, this question is asking specifically about research related to goal-setting theory, so this is the best response.

Studies examining the predictions of goal-setting theory for work groups suggests that: A. having employees work as a team with team goals results in lower productivity than having employees work as individuals with individual goals. B. having employees work as a team with team goals results in higher productivity than having employees work as individuals with individual goals. C. having employees work as a team with team goals results in similar levels of productivity as having employees work as individuals with individual goals, as long as the goals have been consciously accepted by the employees. D. having employees work as a team with team goals results in similar levels of productivity as having employees work as individuals with individual goals, as long as the goals have been determined by the employees.

B. Super's (1990) life-span, life-space approach to career development uses the life-career rainbow and the archway model to communicate the personal (e.g., values, needs, and interests) and situational (e.g., community, school, and social policies) determinants that influence when and how people play particular life roles and the degree of importance any life role holds. The rainbow is a longitudinal two-dimensional graphic depicting nine life roles that are played in four theaters as one progresses through five developmental stages. Super (1980) identified the nine primary life roles as: child, student, worker, partner, parent, citizen, homemaker, leisurite, and pensioner; the four theaters as: home, school, community, and workplace; and the five life stages as: growth, exploration, establishment, maintenance, and decline. The conceptual model emphasizes that individuals are involved in several roles simultaneously and that roles affect each other. Super (1990) later created the Archway model (1990) to clarify the influence of biographical-geographical, psychological, and socioeconomic components on career development.

Super's conceptual model of the life rainbow depicts: A. life stages. B. life roles. C. self-concept growth. D. occupational interests.

C. Dawis and Lofquist's (1964) Theory of Work Adjustment defines satisfaction as an individual's satisfaction with a job based on how well it meets the individual employee's needs. Satisfactoriness refers to the degree to which the employee's skills meet the requirements of the job and to which the employee successfully performs the job. According to TWA, both are influences of employment tenure.

The Theory of Work Adjustment (TWA) is a person-environment fit theory of career development that indicates employment tenure is tied to: A. organizational culture B. organizational justice C. satisfaction and satisfactoriness D. satisfaction and ability

B. McGregor's (1960) Theory X and Theory Y management theories reflect the key differences between the scientific management and human relations administrative models. The scientific management model assumes workers are primarily motivated by financial self-interest or pay; job demands must match workers' skills; and workers need constant supervision and detailed guidelines as they are incapable of self-regulating or assuming personal responsibility. Theory X is similar to scientific management in that Theory X managers believe that workers dislike work and avoid it whenever possible, thus workers must be directed and controlled. Theory X advises managers to be very strict, closely monitor employee performance, diligently enforce policies and procedures, and carefully match employees to jobs. A military drill sergeant would be an example of this approach to management. In contrast, Theory Y's (c.) management approach is based on the assumptions that workers are not naturally passive or lazy, they enjoy autonomy, and are willing to accept responsibility. Theory Y advises managers to smile, to treat workers with respect, to bend some of the rules to get the job done, and to be easy-going in their management styles. While Theory X and Y talk about workers from the perspective of how to manage them, Theory Z (d.) examines how workers contribute and proposes that workers naturally wish to cooperate and are loyal to the organization. McClelland's three needs, or Learned, theory (a.) proposes individuals learn needs from their culture and when one of these needs is strong in an individual, then it has the potential to motivate behavior that leads to its satisfaction. The theory's three primary needs are: the need for affiliation (n Aff), which is a desire to establish social relationships with others; the need for power (n Pow), or a desire to control one's environment and influence others; and the need for achievement (n Ach) or a desire to take responsibility, set challenging goals, and obtain performance feedback.

The belief that workers have just enough self motivation to show up at work, punch the time clock, and do only the minimum necessary to get the job done best exemplifies which theory? A. Three-needs theory B. Theory X C. Theory Y D. Theory Z

B. Research on speed and accuracy in learning complex motor skills suggests the best approach is to emphasize speed of performance initially although, to a certain degree, the optimal approach depends on the specific skill.

The best initial strategy for teaching complex motor skills that require speed and accuracy to be successfully performed is to: A. emphasize accuracy over speed B. emphasize speed over accuracy C. emphasize accuracy and speed equally D. emphasize an alternation between speed and accuracy

C. Work samples are good predictors of job success, assuming of course that there is a way to devise an accurate work sample. While interviews and reference letters are the most widely used selection devices, they are not valid predictors by themselves. The popularity of personality tests (particularly personality inventories) has declined, partly due to the non-standardized way they are employed in private industry. They are also not good predictors of job success

The best predictor of job success among the following are: A. reference letters. B. in-depth interviews. C. work samples. D. personality tests.

A. A. Research suggests that high levels of work-family conflict are related to negative outcomes for the individual (life dissatisfaction, anxiety, poor health), for relationships (increased interpersonal conflict, divorce), and for the organization (absenteeism, tardiness, loss of talented employees). Work-family conflict can be time-based, strain-based, or behavior-based. Time-based conflict, which occurs when role pressures stemming from the two different domains compete for the individual's time, is the most common type of work-family conflict. It is based on the scarcity hypothesis, that the sum of a person's energy is fixed; therefore multiple roles inevitably reduces the time and energy available to meet all role demands, resulting in strain and work-family conflict. Much of the research on work-family conflict has been based on this premise proposed by role theory and role scarcity. Work-family conflict is bi-directional; work can interfere with family and family can interfere with work. These are referred to as work-to-family conflict and family-to-work conflict. Recent research, based on the enhancement theory, suggests quality multiple roles provide additional sources of social support, increased skills, and heightened self-esteem and well being. Evidence of positive spillover, both from work to home and from home to work, continues to be found. Strain-based (b.) conflict occurs when the strain experienced in one role domain interferes with effective performance of role behaviors in the other domain. Behavior-based (c.) conflict is described as conflict stemming from incompatible behaviors demanded by competing roles. Recent research, using a systems perspective, demonstrates that one member of a dyad can impact the other's experience of work-family conflict. The effects of this work and family stress and strain are referred to as "crossover effects."

The most common type of work-family conflict is: A. time-based B. strain-based C. behaviorally-based D. systemically-based

B. Of the theories listed in the responses, only one -- equity theory -- predicts that worker motivation is related to the comparisons we make between our own situation and that of others

The notion of social comparison is central to which of the following theories? A. expectancy theory B. equity theory C. path-goal theory D. ERG theory

A. Procedural justice is commonly defined by way of a distinction from distributive justice. Judgments of distributive justice are based on comparisons between one's own outcomes to those of others; fairness is perceived when those outcomes are perceived as equal. By contrast, judgments of procedural justice depend on perceptions of fairness in the processes that lead to outcomes. The question describes a situation in which outcomes are equal but the processes that led to them were different. If the person had been focused on distributive justice, she would have been equally upset about losing money in either circumstance, in the trial or to the thief. However, if she is less upset losing the money in a civil judgment, her judgment of fairness may be related to the process by which the money was lost; for example, she may have perceived the trial as reasonably fair. Therefore, procedural justice is the best answer of the choices listed.

The notion that a person would not mind losing money in a civil judgment following a trial as much as she would mind losing it to a thief is related to the concept of: A. procedural justice. B. distributive justice. C. social exchange theory. D. cognitive dissonance.

C. The term "organizational development" (OD) refers to a planned, organization-wide effort, managed from the top-down, designed to improve organizational health and effectiveness by applying behavioral science knowledge. It is distinct from other industrial-organizational interventions in that the target of intervention is an entire organization (or entire work group within an organization), as opposed to an individual unit such as an employee or job. There are a number of intervention strategies associated with OD, including team building, process consultation, and survey feedback. Team building is designed to improve the problem-solving abilities of goal-oriented work groups. It can involve a variety of exercises, activities, and games. The specific goals of the technique include increasing motivation, increasing team cohesiveness, reducing interpersonal conflict and, clarifying team members' roles. Thus, of the choices listed, only the third identifies a specific goal of team building. You may have thought the first choice was a good answer, and team building exercises do often have a positive effect on morale. However, increasing morale is usually not identified as a specific goal of team building

The organizational developmental intervention called team building is most appropriate for addressing which of the following issues? A. increasing the morale of an entire organization. B. diagnosing group interactional issues that interfere with group effectiveness. C. reducing role ambiguity or role confusion in work groups. D. providing feedback to group members about group norms of which they are unaware.

C. The term "positive" refers to individuals selected or hired and "negative" to those who are not. "True" refers to a correct decision and "false" refers to an incorrect decision. When a predictor cutoff is lowered, more people are selected overall, or there are more positives. Since the predictor criterion is lower there are more true and false positives. Therefore, the probability that those hired will be successful (true positives) decreases and the probability of unsuccessful hiring (false positives) increases

The predictor cut-off score of a selection test is lowered. How will this impact successful hiring? A. increase the probability of false negatives B. decrease the probability of false positives C. decrease the probability of true positives D. increase the probability of true positives

A. Organization development (OD) is a process used to facilitate organizational change. The phases of OD have been described by Burke as: entry, contracting, diagnosis, feedback, planning change, intervention, and evaluation. The purpose of the feedback phase is to help clients understand the information that the consultant has gathered and diagnosed so the clients can decide what actions to take

The primary purpose of feedback in the context of organizational development is to: A. help clients understand the diagnostic information that has been collected B. provide clients with information on the effectiveness of an OD intervention C. provide employees with information about their individual performance D. provide managers with information on the employee's concerns

C. In a structured interview, a series of job-related questions with predetermined "correct" answers are used consistently with all interviewees for a particular job. An advantage of this technique is the provision of individual item scores and a total score that are derived from prespecified criteria. To predict job performance, the interview score can then be combined with scores on other selection procedures in a multiple regression equation or similar technique. Another advantage of the structured interview is that it reduces the impact of interviewer subjectivity (a.). A utility analysis (b.) considers the procedure's validity coefficient, employee job performance variability (typically in dollar value of output or mean output), and the selection ratio to evaluate the practical value of a selection procedure. Subject matter experts (d.) are one of several methods for determining scores to responses to a structured interview.

The responses of interviewees, when using a structured interview, are evaluated by: A. interviewer subjectivity B. "utility analysis" C. pre-specified criteria D. "subject matter experts" consensus

C. Organizational commitment is related to an employee's willingness to exert extra effort on behalf of the organization and, like job satisfaction, appears to have the highest correlation with job turnover.

The term organizational commitment refers to the degree of an employee's involvement and identification with the organization. An employee's level of organizational commitment is most predictive of: A. job satisfaction. B. work-family life satisfaction. C. job turnover. D. quality and quantity of work.

D. Justice Perceptions are employee judgments about whether their work situation is fair and have been found to be related to: job satisfaction, performance, withdrawal and counterproductive behaviors and organizational commitment. Interactional justice focuses on the interpersonal treatment of individuals when procedures are implemented and consists of two components: interpersonal justice, which refers to the degree to which individuals affected by decisions are treated with dignity, respect and politeness by third parties or authorities involved in executing procedures or determining outcomes, and informational justice, which refers to the explanations provided to individuals conveying information about why procedures were used in a certain way or why outcomes were distributed in a particular manner.

The two aspects of interactional justice are: A. environmental and social justice B. interpersonal and environmental justice C. informational and comparative justice D. interpersonal and informational justice

C. In a job selection test, usefulness refers to the degree to which the test helps you hire successful candidates. Job selection tests are useful to the degree that the correlation between test scores and job performance is high, the base rate is moderate, and the selection ratio is low. The base rate refers to the percentage of people in the population who are able to perform the job successfully. To understand why you'd want a moderate base rate, think about the extreme cases: a base rate of 100% or 0%. A 100% base rate means that everyone can do the job successfully; a 0% base rate mean that no one can. In both cases, a job selection test is useless because you don't need it to distinguish between good and bad candidates. A base rate of 50% means that half of the population can do the job successfully and a selection test therefore becomes more useful in distinguishing between acceptable and unacceptable applicants. The selection ratio refers to the proportion of available jobs relative to applicants. For example, if 100 people apply for 10 openings, the selection ratio would be 10%. With a small selection ratio, you are only selecting the very top scorers on the test, and assuming the test has a reasonable correlation with job performance, these top scorers are more likely to succeed on the job. Note that the smaller the selection ratio, the higher the number of false negatives, which are people who fail the test but would have succeeded on the job. But this is more of a problem for candidates than it is for businesses that use the test; the latter will still end up with more successful candidates the lower the selection ratio.

The usefulness of a job selection test is increased to the degree that: A. the base rate is low and the selection ratio is high. B. the base rate is high and the selection ratio is low. C. the base rate is moderate and the selection ratio is low. D. the base rate is moderate and the selection ratio is high.

C. Based on the principle that a higher score must correlate with better performance on the job, top-down ranking (a.) occurs when an employer selects candidates in the strict highest/lowest order of their test scores. Decisions based on rank ordering when there is no correlation between a higher score and better performance on the job results in adverse impact. Proposed alternatives to reduce adverse impact are using a cut-off score (b.), reflecting the minimal qualifications for the job rather than an unreasonably stringent requirement, and banding. Banding (c.) is based on the assumption that different scores should be viewed as equivalent unless they are statistically significantly different (determined by the standard error of the difference (SED) between scores) and refers to a range of scores being considered as equivalent for selection purposes. Adverse impact is reduced due to lower-scoring applicants being included within the band and banding provides flexibility to select from candidates based on other factors such as ethnicity, gender, work experience, seniority and other job-related factors. Multiple hurdles (d.) approach requires applicants to score above a specific level or pass several measures such as a weighted application, drug test, interview, and skill tests.

Two applicants score 42 and 45 on an assessment test and the standard error of the difference is 3.5 points. The scores are treated as equivalent allowing the applicant with the score of 42 to be selected on the basis of some other job-related characteristic. This approach is an example of __________________ in selection decision making. A. top-down B. cut-off C. banding D. multiple hurdles-required to score above on specific level on several measures

C. Expectancy theory is based on the premise that motivation is a cognitive process involving a combination of three variables: valence, instrumentality and expectancy. The theory is also referred to as Valence-Instrumentality-Expectancy Theory or VIE Theory. Expectancy (a.) refers to the belief that effort will lead to successful performance. Instrumentality (b.) refers to the beliefs that successful performance will result in certain outcomes; the value placed on the outcomes (d.) of performance is referred to as valence. The need to attribute cause describes Attribution Theory

We create expectations about future events as we are constantly predicting likely futures. This statement is associated with Expectancy Theory. Which of the following is not? A. The belief that if I complete certain actions then I will achieve the outcome. B. The belief that I am able to complete the necessary actions. C. The need to explain the world, to myself and others, ascribing cause to the events around me. D. The value of the perceived outcome or "What's in it for me?"

C. TQM is an organizational philosophy that focuses on maximizing customer service and satisfaction. An important characteristic of TQM is its involvement of employees in all aspects of decision-making, and failures are often due to management's unwillingness to do this.

When Total Quality Management (TQM) fails, it is often because: A. there are too few managers. B. there is too much attention to customer demands. C. the employees are not given sufficient responsibility. D. the rewards are not distributed fairly.

C. The Big Five personality traits: Openness, Conscientiousness, Extroversion, Agreeableness, and Neuroticism ("OCEAN") have been matched with several of the personality disorders. Antisocial Personality Disorder was found to be associated with low scores in Agreeableness and Conscientiousness and generally higher scores in Neuroticism and Extroversion. Note that "neuroticism" is sometimes referred to as its opposite: "emotional stability

Which of the "Big Five" personality traits is most associated with Antisocial Personality Disorder? A. low on neuroticism, low on agreeableness, and low on conscientiousness B. low on neuroticism, low on openness, low on extroversion C. high on neuroticism, low on agreeableness, and low on conscientiousness D. high on neuroticism, low on openness, low on agreeableness

C. Factor analysis has shown that job commitment has three forms. Affective commitment (a.) refers to the employee's psychological attitudes toward the organization; continuance commitment (b.) refers to the costs of leaving the company and normative commitment (d.) is the employee's perceived obligation to stay with the company. Continuance commitment is least related to job satisfaction and other job-related attitudes and more to practical considerations

Which of the following is not one of the three forms of job commitment? affective commitment continuance commitment instrumental commitment normative commitment

C. Flextime allows for flexibility in scheduling work hours, as long as the required number of hours are worked and the employee is present for the pre-defined "core" hours" (e.g., 10 a.m. to 2 p.m.). Research indicates flextime is associated with improved employee absenteeism, productivity, job satisfaction, satisfaction with work schedule, and less worker stress. The greatest impact was on absenteeism, followed by productivity, satisfaction with schedule, and job satisfaction. Self-rated performance has not been found to be significantly related to flextime.

Which of the following is not significantly associated with flextime? A. productivity B. absenteeism C. self-rated performance D. job satisfaction

C. Transformational leaders are change-oriented. They encourage and inspire subordinate acceptance and support for organizational change that is in the best interests of the organization. In contrast, transactional leaders motivate through appealing to the followers' self-interests and focus more on stability than change.

Which of the following is true of transformational leaders? A. the goals of the organization are redefined to reflect the self-interest of followers B. believe that subordinates are persuaded when the organization's goals are compatible with their self-interests C. motivate by encouraging subordinates to transcend self-interest for the greater good of the organization D. assent to the self-interest of their followers

C. You may have been able to answer this one through the process of elimination if you knew that the models described by Fiedler, Hersey and Blanchard, and House don't include a decision-tree, which is provided by the Vroom and Yetton model

Which of the following models of leadership provides a "decision tree" to help a leader determine whether an autocratic, consultative, or consensual decision-making approach is best given the nature of the work situation? A. Fiedler's contingency model B. Hersey and Blanchard's situational model C. Vroom and Yetton's normative model D. House's path-goal model

B. Based on the logic that decision making will be improved by using a decision-support framework that explicitly considers the costs and benefits of human resources (HR) decisions, a utility analysis summarizes and identifies key variables that describe the consequences of HR programs. Utility analysis has most frequently been studied as applied to selection procedures although other cost/benefit analyses have been applied to HR interventions such as recruitment, training, performance feedback, promotion, turnover/layoff management and more recently, new policy implementation. Studies have purported to identify, with a high degree of precision, the financial payback to be realized through investments designed to improve employee productivity. Advances in utility analysis application and related research have been limited due to an inability to develop an agreed-upon method to estimate the dollar value of job performance and its standard deviation (SDy). The challenge arises in uniformly evaluating human inputs, actions, and/or the outcomes of those actions as well as the uncertainty of task characteristics, relationships, and levels of task independence across positions and organizations. Utilization Review (a.) is a cost containment procedure involving an evaluation of patients' use of services to identify any unnecessary or inappropriate use of health care resources. Concurrent review (c.) describes the utilization review conducted during the course of treatment. Quality management (d.) is another name for quality assurance

Which of the following procedures summarizes and identifies key variables that describe the consequences of HR programs to improve decision making? A. utilization review B. utility analysis C. concurrent review D. quality management

A. Polls in different countries at different times have indicated that both males and females are more likely to prefer a male boss to a female boss. For example, one recent study in the U.S. found that 45% and 50% of males and females respectively prefer a male boss, as compared to 19% of men and 26% of women who prefer a female boss; the rest of the respondents expressed no preference. The preference for male bosses over female bosses has been on the decline over the years, but contrary to choice 4, it is not non-existent.

Which of the following statements regarding employee preference for male and females boss' is most supported by survey research? A. A greater proportion of both male and female employees prefer a male boss to a female boss. B. A greater proportion of both male and female employees prefer a female boss to a male boss. C. Males prefer a male boss to a female boss, and females prefer a female boss to a male boss. D. In the past, there was a greater preference of a male bass over a female boss in both genders, but that difference is now non-existent.

D. Personality tests have not been shown to have very good validity in predicting performance on almost all types of jobs. Reported validity coefficients between scores on these tests and measures of performance are typically less than .15. Reported validity coefficients for biographical data or job interviews are typically in the moderate range; structured interviews as opposed to the informal interviews that are most commonly used, often have higher validity. Assessment centers, which involve structured, group activities designed to assess how well prospective executives function in simulated situations requiring leadership, have been found to be relatively highly correlated with measures of job performance

Which of the following types of assessment has the lowest validity in terms for predicting performance in an industrial setting? A. assessment center B. biographical data C. personal interview D. personality inventory

D. Management development is a growing field in organizational psychology. A number of techniques are used to train (develop) managers including job rotation, coaching, mentoring, and even Outward Bound, which fosters trust and cooperation. Vestibule training involves the use of procedures or an environment similar to the actual job and is used for such jobs as bank tellers, clerks, and typists

Which of the following would be least useful as a method for management development? A. Outward Bound programs B. job rotation C. coaching or mentoring D. vestibule training

B. Schmuck & Schmuck (2000) define group cohesion as "the relation of individual group members to the group as a whole." Whether or not high levels of group cohesiveness manifests in improved productivity depends in part on how the group is managed. Management supportiveness is one of several variables that moderates the relationship between group cohesiveness and group productivity, with high levels of support being associated with higher levels of productivity and management hostility or indifference being associated with lower productivity

While both positive and negative effects are associated with high levels of group cohesiveness, with respect to productivity, high group cohesiveness is: A. associated with higher productivity when management is indifferent to the group. B. associated with higher productivity when management is supportive of the group. C. consistently associated with lower group productivity. D. consistently associated with higher group productivity.

C. High group cohesiveness has positive and negative consequences. In terms of productivity, the relationship between group cohesiveness and group productivity is affected by several moderator variables. One of which is management supportiveness. High management support is associated with high levels of productivity for cohesive groups, while management hostility is associated with low productivity for cohesive groups.

With respect to productivity, cohesive groups are associated with: A. low levels of productivity for the group B. high levels of productivity for the group C. higher levels of productivity for the group only when management is supportive D. higher levels of productivity for the group only when management is hostile or indifferent

D. A process consultant, rather than merely correcting problems for his or her client, focuses on an organization's underlying processes, with the goal of making changes in processes so that individuals within the organization can solve their own problems. Thus, choice D is the best answer, as it is the only one which offers a way in which the nurses and administrators can work together to solve the problem of dissatisfaction with work conditions. By comparison, choices A and B would have the consultant diagnose and "fix" the problem; these interventions would be consistent with the medical rather than the process model of consultation.

You are an organizational process consultant hired by a hospital. Several nurses tell you they feel they're being overworked and underpaid. In this case, your most likely intervention would be to: A. explain the nurses' concerns to the hospital administrators. B. conduct a job analysis to determine how much the nurses deserve to be paid and present your results to the hospital administrators. C. act with the best interests of the hospital's patients in mind. D. help the nurses organize regular meetings with the physicians and administrators to discuss their concerns.

B. The situation described in this question is referred to as differential validity, which can be a cause of adverse impact. (Unfairness is another cause of adverse impact but is different from differential validity.)

You are concerned that the validity coefficient of a new selection test might be significantly lower for females than for males. Specifically, your concern is that use of the test might lead to: A. unfairness. B. adverse impact. C. statistical regression. D. criterion contamination.