Everything Gi Related

What does the nurse teach the client with esophageal diverticula about dietary needs? a. "Eat soft foods and smaller meals." b. "Only eat puréed foods." c. "Avoid drinking liquids with meals." d. "Avoid dairy products."

ANS: A Soft foods and smaller meals assist in reducing the symptoms of pressure and reflux that accompany diverticula. The client does not have to avoid liquids or dairy products because these do not cause symptoms. The client does not have to eat puréed foods because he or she does not have difficulty swallowing or chewing foods.

A nurse is preparing to administer pantoprazole (Protonix) intravenously. What actions by the nurse are most appropriate? (Select all that apply.) a. Administer the drug through a separate IV line. b. Infuse pantoprazole using an IV pump. c. Keep the drug in its original brown bag. d. Take vital signs frequently during infusion. e. Use an in-line IV filter when infusing.

ANS: A, B, E When infusing pantoprazole, use a separate IV line, a pump, and an in-line filter. A brown wrapper and frequent vital signs are not needed.

The nurse is obtaining the history of a client with a sliding hernia. Which symptoms does the nurse expect to see in this client? (Select all that apply.) a. Reflux b. Bleeding c. Dysphagia d. Belching e. Breathlessness f. Vomiting

ANS: A, C, D Clients with sliding hernias often experience symptoms of reflux, pain, dysphagia, and belching. Some clients may experience breathlessness or a feeling of suffocation. Breathlessness after eating is a symptom of paraesophageal hernias. Bleeding should not be seen.

The nurse conducts a physical assessment for a client with abdominal pain. Which finding leads the nurse to suspect appendicitis? a. Severe, steady right lower quadrant (RLQ) pain b. Abdominal pain that started a day after vomiting began c. Abdominal pain that increases with knee flexion d. Marked peristalsis and hyperactive bowel sounds

A Right lower quadrant pain, specifically at McBurney's point, is characteristic of appendicitis. Usually if nausea and vomiting begin first, the client has a gastroenteritis. Abdominal pain due to appendicitis decreases with knee flexion. Marked peristalsis and hyperactive bowel sounds are not indicative of appendicitis.

A client has gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD). The provider prescribes a proton pump inhibitor. About what medication should the nurse anticipate teaching the client? a. Famotidine b. Magnesium hydroxide c. Omeprazole d. Ranitidine

ANS: C Omeprazole is a proton pump inhibitor used in the treatment of GERD. Famotidine and ranitidine are histamine blockers. Maalox is an antacid.

51. Which menu choice by the patient with diverticulosis is best for preventing diverticulitis? a. Navy bean soup and vegetable salad b. Whole grain pasta with tomato sauce c. Baked potato with low-fat sour cream d. Roast beef sandwich on whole wheat bread

ANS: A A diet high in fiber and low in fats and red meat is recommended to prevent diverticulitis. Although all of the choices have some fiber, the bean soup and salad will be the highest in fiber and the lowest in fat.

The nurse is caring for a client who is to receive 5-fluorouracil (5-FU) chemotherapy IV for the treatment of colon cancer. Which assessment finding leads the nurse to contact the health care provider? a. White blood cell (WBC) count of 1500/mm3 b. Presence of fatigue with a headache c. Presence of slight nausea and no appetite d. Two diarrhea stools yesterday

A Common side effects of 5-FU include fatigue, leukopenia, diarrhea, mucositis and mouth ulcers, and peripheral neuropathy. However, the client's WBC count is very low (normal range, 5000 to 10,000/mm3), so the provider should be notified. He or she may want to delay chemotherapy by a day or two. Certainly the client is at high risk for infection. The other assessment findings are consistent with common side effects of 5-FU that would not need to be reported immediately.

A client with Crohn's disease has a draining fistula. Which finding leads the nurse to intervene most rapidly? a. Serum potassium of 2.6 mEq/L b. The client not wanting to eat anything c. White blood cell count of 8200/mm3 d. The client losing 3 pounds in a week

A Fistulas place the client with Crohn's disease at risk for hypokalemia, which can lead to serious dysrhythmias. This potassium level is low and should cause the nurse to intervene. The white blood cell count is normal. The other two findings are abnormal and also warrant intervention, but the potassium takes priority.

The nurse is caring for a client with Giardia lamblia infection. Which medication does the nurse anticipate teaching the client about? a. Metronidazole (Flagyl) b. Ciprofloxacin (Cipro) c. Sulfasalazine (Azulfidine) d. Ceftriaxone (Rocephin)

A Flagyl is the drug of choice for Giardia lamblia infection. Cipro and Rocephin are antibiotics used for bacterial infections. Azulfidine is used for ulcerative colitis and Crohn's disease.

The nurse notes a bulge in a client's groin that is present when the client stands and disappears when the client lies down. Which conclusion does the nurse draw from these assessment findings? a. Reducible inguinal hernia b. Indirect umbilical hernia c. Strangulated ventral hernia d. Incarcerated femoral hernia

A In a reducible hernia, the contents of the hernial sac can be replaced into the abdominal cavity by gentle pressure or by lying flat. The contents of irreducible, strangulated, or incarcerated hernias may not be replaced into the abdomen when the client lies down.

The nurse reviews a health teaching for a client with Crohn's disease. Which instruction does the nurse provide for the client? a. "You should have a colonoscopy every few years." b. "You should eat a diet that is high in protein and fiber." c. "You should avoid heavy lifting and tight-fitting clothes." d. "You should take the Asacol whenever you have loose stools."

A Long-term inflammatory bowel disease increases the risk of colon cancer, so regular colonoscopies are recommended. A high-fiber diet is not recommended for clients with Crohn's disease because fiber can further irritate the inner lining of the bowel. Asacol (mesalamine [5-aminosalicylic acid]) should be taken daily, not as needed. Avoiding heavy lifting and tight-fitting clothes is not necessary.

The nurse is caring for a client who has undergone removal of a benign colonic polyp. The client asks the nurse why a follow-up colonoscopy is necessary. Which is the nurse's best response? a. "You are at risk for developing more polyps in the future." b. "You may have other cancerous lesions that could not be seen right now." c. "The doctor can remove only a few of the polyps during each colonoscopy." d. "This test will ensure that you have healed where the polyp was removed."

A Once a person has developed a polyp, risk for occurrence of multiple polyps is present. The physician usually can remove all visible polyps during the colonoscopy procedure. Follow-up colonoscopy is not done to ensure that healing occurred where a polyp was removed, or to check for cancerous lesions that were not visible during the first procedure.

The nurse is caring for a client with a parasitic gastrointestinal infection. What statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching? a. "I will have my housekeeper keep my toilet very clean." b. "I need to shower or bathe every day." c. "I need to have my well water tested." d. "My sexual partner needs to have a stool test."

A Parasitic infections can be transmitted to other people. The client himself or herself should keep the toilet area clean instead of possibly exposing another person to the disease. The other statements are accurate

The nurse is caring for a client who has been diagnosed with a bowel obstruction. Which assessment finding leads the nurse to conclude that the obstruction is in the small bowel? a. Potassium of 2.8 mEq/L, with a sodium value of 121 mEq/L b. Losing 15 pounds over the last month without dieting c. Reports of crampy abdominal pain across the lower quadrants d. High-pitched, hyperactive bowel sounds in all quadrants

A Small bowel obstructions often lead to severe fluid and electrolyte imbalances. The client is hypokalemic (normal range, 3.5 to 5.0 mEq/L) and hyponatremic (normal range, 136 to 145 mEq/L). Dramatic weight loss without dieting followed by bowel obstruction leads to the probable development of colon cancer. High-pitched, hyperactive bowel sounds may be noted with large and small bowel obstructions. Crampy abdominal pain across the lower quadrants is associated with large bowel obstruction.

The nurse is teaching a client how to use a truss for a femoral hernia. Which statement by the client indicates the need for further teaching? a. "I will put on the truss before I go to bed each night." b. "I will put some powder under the truss to avoid skin irritation." c. "The truss will help my hernia because I can't have surgery." d. "If I have abdominal pain, I will let my health care provider know right away."

A The client is instructed to apply the truss before arising, not before going to bed at night. The other statements show accurate knowledge in using a truss.

The nurse is caring for a client who has acute viral gastroenteritis. Which dietary instruction does the nurse provide to the client? a. "Drink plenty of fluids to prevent dehydration." b. "You can have only clear liquids to drink." c. "Milk products will give you extra protein." d. "You can have sips of cola or tea to relieve nausea."

A The client should drink plenty of fluids to prevent dehydration. Clients are not necessarily restricted to clear liquids. Milk products may not be tolerated. Caffeinated beverages increase intestinal motility and should be avoided.

The nurse is caring for a client with an umbilical hernia who reports increased abdominal pain, nausea, and vomiting. The nurse notes high-pitched bowel sounds. Which conclusion does the nurse draw from these assessment findings? a. Bowel obstruction; client should be placed on NPO status. b. Perforation of the bowel; client needs emergency surgery. c. Adhesions in the hernia; client needs elective surgery. d. Hernia is dangerously enlarged; client needs a nasogastric (NG) tube.

A The client with a hernia presenting with abdominal pain, fever, tachycardia, nausea and vomiting, and hypoactive bowel sounds should be suspected of having developed strangulation. Strangulation poses a risk of intestinal obstruction. The client should be placed on NPO status, and the health care provider should be notified. The symptoms are not suggestive of enlargement of the hernia, adhesion formation, or bowel perforation.

A client tells the nurse that her husband is repulsed by her colostomy and refuses to be intimate with her after surgery. Which is the nurse's best response? a. "Let's talk to the ostomy nurse to help you and your husband work through this." b. "You could try to wear longer lingerie that will better hide the ostomy appliance." c. "You should empty the pouch first so it will be less noticeable for your husband." d. "If you are not careful, you can hurt the stoma if you engage in sexual activity."

A The nurse should collaborate with the ostomy nurse to help the client and her husband work through intimacy issues. The nurse should not minimize the client's concern about her husband with ways to hide the ostomy. The client will not hurt the stoma by becoming intimate with her husband.

The nurse is caring for a client with Crohn's disease and colonic strictures. Which assessment finding requires the nurse to consult the health care provider immediately? a. Distended abdomen b. Temperature of 100.0° F (37.8° C) c. Traces of blood in the stool d. Crampy lower abdominal pain

A The presence of strictures predisposes the client to intestinal obstruction. Abdominal distention may indicate that the client has developed an obstruction of the large bowel, and the client's provider should be notified right away. Low-grade fever, bloody diarrhea, and crampy abdominal pain are common symptoms of Crohn's disease.

A client has an anorectal abscess. Which teaching topic does the nurse address as the priority? a. Perineal hygiene b. Comfort measures c. Nutrition therapy d. Antibiotic use

A The priority intervention for a client with an anorectal abscess focuses on maintaining meticulous perineal hygiene to prevent infection. Comfort measures are also important, but are not as high a priority. Nutrition management and antibiotic teaching may or may not be needed.

A client who has had a colostomy placed in the ascending colon expresses concern that the effluent collected in the colostomy pouch has remained liquid for 2 weeks after surgery. Which is the nurse's best response? a. "This is normal for your type of colostomy." b. "I will let the health care provider know, so that it can be assessed." c. "You should add extra fiber to your diet to stop the diarrhea." d. "Your stool will become firmer over the next few weeks."

A The stool from an ascending colostomy can be expected to remain liquid because little large bowel is available to reabsorb the liquid from the stool. The provider may be notified, but this is not the best response from the nurse. Liquid stool from an ascending colostomy will not become firmer with the addition of fiber to the client's diet or with the passage of time.

The nurse is performing a physical examination on a client. Which assessment finding leads the nurse to check the client's abdomen for the presence of an acquired umbilical hernia? a. Body mass index (BMI) of 41.9 b. Cholecystectomy last year c. History of irritable bowel syndrome d. Daily dose of lansoprazole (Prevacid) 30 mg orally

A This type of hernia is associated with obesity. The other assessment findings do not place the client at increased risk for an acquired umbilical hernia.

A nurse is teaching a community group about food poisoning and gastroenteritis. Which statements by the nurse are accurate? (Select all that apply.) a. Rotavirus is more common among infants and younger children. b. Escherichia coli diarrhea is transmitted by contact with infected animals. c. Don't drink water when swimming to prevent E. coli infection. d. All clients with botulism require hospitalization. e. Parasitic diseases may not show up for 1 to 2 weeks after infection.

A, C, D, E Rotavirus is more common among the youngest of clients, not drinking water while swimming can help prevent E. coli infection, people with botulism need to be hospitalized to monitor for respiratory failure and paralysis, and parasitic diseases may take up to 2 weeks to become symptomatic. The other statements are not accurate.

The client asks the nurse how to avoid becoming ill with Salmonella infection again. Which are appropriate responses from the nurse? (Select all that apply.) a. "Wash leafy vegetables carefully before eating or cooking them." b. "Do not ingest water from the garden hose or the pool." c. "Wash your hands before and after using the bathroom." d. "Be sure meat is cooked to the proper temperature." e. "Avoid eating eggs that are sunny side up or undercooked." f. "When eating outdoors, be sure to keep flies off your food."

A, C, D, E, F Salmonella is usually contracted via contaminated eggs, beef, poultry, and green leafy vegetables. It is not transmitted through water in garden hoses or pools. Clients should wash leafy vegetables well, wash hands before and after using the restroom, make sure eggs and meat are cooked properly, and, because it can be transmitted by flies, keep flies off of food.

A nurse is teaching a community group ways to prevent Escherichia coli infection. Which statements made by the nurse are accurate? (Select all that apply.) a. "Wash your hands after any contact with animals." b. "It is not necessary to buy a meat thermometer." c. "Stay away from people who are ill with diarrhea." d. "Use separate cutting boards for meat and vegetables." e. "Avoid swimming in backyard pools and using hot tubs."

A, D Washing hands after contact with animals and using separate cutting boards for meat and other foods will help prevent E. coli infection. The other statements are not related to preventing E. coli infection.

The nurse is helping a student prepare to insert a nasogastric tube for an adult client with a bowel obstruction. Which actions by the student indicate to the nurse that a review of the procedure is needed? (Select all that apply.) a. Gathering supplies, including an 8 Fr Levin tube, sterile gloves, tape, and water-soluble lubricant b. Performing hand hygiene and positioning the client in high Fowler's position, with pillows behind the head and shoulders c. Attaching a 60-mL irrigation syringe to the end of the nasogastric tube before inserting it into the nose d. Instructing the client to extend the neck against the pillow once the nasogastric tube has reached the oropharynx e. Checking for correct placement by checking the pH of the fluid aspirated from the tube f. Securing the nasogastric tube by taping it to the client's nose and pinning the end to the pillowcase g. Connecting the nasogastric tube to intermittent medium suction with an anti-reflux valve on the air vent

A, D, F An 8 Fr nasogastric tube is too small for drainage of thick stomach contents. Sterile gloves are not needed for the procedure. The tube should be secured to the clients gown, not to the pillowcase, because it could become dislodged easily. The clients head should be flexed forward once the tube has reached the oropharynx. All the other actions are appropriate. A 60-mL irrigation syringe should be attached to the end of the tube before insertion so that gastric fluid does not erupt from the tube when it enters the stomach.

An older client is 1 day post-esophagectomy. The nurse finds the client short of breath with a heart rate of 120 beats/min. Which action by the nurse takes priority? a. Assess the client's lungs and oxygen saturation. b. Ask the client to rate pain, and treat if needed. c. Help the client change to a side-lying position. d. Increase the client's supplemental oxygen.

ANS: A Clients can have many complications from this operation, and older clients are especially vulnerable to fluid overload. The nurse should first assess lung sounds and oxygen saturation. Although pain can cause tachycardia, it usually does not cause shortness of breath. If the client has pain, it should be treated, but it is not the priority. The nurse needs to know the client's oxygen saturation before turning up the oxygen. Changing the client's position will not help.

A client is admitted with progressive dysphagia. What intervention by the nurse takes priority? a. Weigh the client daily. b. Instruct the client on a high-protein diet. c. Assess and treat the client's pain. d. Administer antitussive medications.

ANS: A Clients with progressive dysphagia can lose weight as a result of their inability to take adequate nutrition. Weighing the client daily is an important intervention to gauge the effectiveness of interventions designed to meet nutritional needs. Increased protein in the diet is important, but if the client has trouble swallowing, this is not the best option. The other two interventions do not relate to dysphagia.

A nurse cares for a client with ulcerative colitis. The client states, "I feel like I am tied to the toilet. This disease is controlling my life." How should the nurse respond? a. "Let's discuss potential factors that increase your symptoms." b. "If you take the prescribed medications, you will no longer have diarrhea." c. "To decrease distress, do not eat anything before you go out." d. "You must retake control of your life. I will consult a therapist to help."

ANS: A Clients with ulcerative colitis often express that the disorder is disruptive to their lives. Stress factors can increase symptoms. These factors should be identified so that the client will have more control over his or her condition. Prescription medications and anorexia will not eliminate exacerbations. Although a therapist may assist the client, this is not an appropriate response.

A nurse reviews the chart of a client who has Crohn's disease and a draining fistula. Which documentation should alert the nurse to urgently contact the provider for additional prescriptions? a. Serum potassium of 2.6 mEq/L b. Client ate 20% of breakfast meal c. White blood cell count of 8200/mm3 d. Client's weight decreased by 3 pounds

ANS: A Fistulas place the client with Crohn's disease at risk for hypokalemia which can lead to serious dysrhythmias. This potassium level is low and should cause the nurse to intervene. The white blood cell count is normal. The other two findings are abnormal and also warrant intervention, but the potassium level takes priority.

A client is admitted with a chemical injury to the esophagus after ingestion of an alkaline substance. The client states, "I am having trouble breathing because of these air bubbles in my neck." Which action by the nurse is most appropriate? a. Continue assessing the client while another nurse calls the health care provider. b. Ask the client to rate the pain and prepare to administer pain medication. c. Have the client cough and deep breathe, then assess his or her lung sounds. d. Give the client small sips of water to see whether he or she has dysphagia.

ANS: A Ingestion of alkaline substances is dangerous because of their potential to fully penetrate the esophagus, leading to perforation. "Air bubbles" in the neck (subcutaneous emphysema) would lead the nurse to suspect this complication. The nurse needs to continue assessing the client and must stay with him or her, but because this is an emergency, someone else must notify the provider immediately. The nurse should not administer pain medication at this time. Coughing and deep-breathing exercises will not be beneficial to the client. If the client's esophagus has perforated, having the client drink can cause more problems.

A nurse assesses a client who is prescribed alosetron (Lotronex). Which assessment question should the nurse ask this client? a. "Have you been experiencing any constipation?" b. "Are you eating a diet high in fiber and fluids?" c. "Do you have a history of high blood pressure?" d. "What vitamins and supplements are you taking?"

ANS: A Ischemic colitis is a life-threatening complication of alosetron. The nurse should assess the client for constipation. The other questions do not identify complications related to alosetron.

A nurse cares for a client who has a Giardia infection. Which medication should the nurse anticipate being prescribed for this client? a. Metronidazole (Flagyl) b. Ciprofloxacin (Cipro) c. Sulfasalazine (Azulfidine) d. Ceftriaxone (Rocephin)

ANS: A Metronidazole is the drug of choice for a Giardia infection. Ciprofloxacin and ceftriaxone are antibiotics used for bacterial infections. Sulfasalazine is used for ulcerative colitis and Crohn's disease.

A client has been diagnosed with early esophageal cancer. The nurse plans care by implementing measures designed to address which priority concern? a. Nutritional support b. Pulmonary toileting c. Fluid and electrolyte balance d. Educational needs

ANS: A The major concern for a client with esophageal cancer is weight loss secondary to dysphasia. Therefore, nutritional support is required, with intake monitored and weight maintained. The other concerns are important, but they are not the priority.

A nurse assesses a client who is recovering from an ileostomy placement. Which clinical manifestation should alert the nurse to urgently contact the health care provider? a. Pale and bluish stoma b. Liquid stool c. Ostomy pouch intact d. Blood-smeared output

ANS: A The nurse should assess the stoma for color and contact the health care provider if the stoma is pale, bluish, or dark. The nurse should expect the client to have an intact ostomy pouch with dark green liquid stool that may contain some blood.

A nurse cares for a client who states, "My husband is repulsed by my colostomy and refuses to be intimate with me." How should the nurse respond? a. "Let's talk to the ostomy nurse to help you and your husband work through this." b. "You could try to wear longer lingerie that will better hide the ostomy appliance." c. "You should empty the pouch first so it will be less noticeable for your husband." d. "If you are not careful, you can hurt the stoma if you engage in sexual activity."

ANS: A The nurse should collaborate with the ostomy nurse to help the client and her husband work through intimacy issues. The nurse should not minimize the client's concern about her husband with ways to hide the ostomy. The client will not hurt the stoma by engaging in sexual activity.

A nurse cares for a client who has a new colostomy. Which action should the nurse take? a. Empty the pouch frequently to remove excess gas collection. b. Change the ostomy pouch and wafer every morning. c. Allow the pouch to completely fill with stool prior to emptying it. d. Use surgical tape to secure the pouch and prevent leakage.

ANS: A The nurse should empty the new ostomy pouch frequently because of excess gas collection, and empty the pouch when it is one-third to one-half full of stool. The ostomy pouch does not need to be changed every morning. Ostomy wafers with paste should be used to secure and seal the ostomy appliance; surgical tape should not be used.

A nurse assesses a client with Crohn's disease and colonic strictures. Which clinical manifestation should alert the nurse to urgently contact the health care provider? a. Distended abdomen b. Temperature of 100.0° F (37.8° C) c. Loose and bloody stool d. Lower abdominal cramps

ANS: A The presence of strictures predisposes the client to intestinal obstruction. Abdominal distention may indicate that the client has developed an obstruction of the large bowel, and the client's provider should be notified right away. Low-grade fever, bloody diarrhea, and abdominal cramps are common symptoms of Crohn's disease.

A nurse cares for a client who had a colostomy placed in the ascending colon 2 weeks ago. The client states, "The stool in my pouch is still liquid." How should the nurse respond? a. "The stool will always be liquid with this type of colostomy." b. "Eating additional fiber will bulk up your stool and decrease diarrhea." c. "Your stool will become firmer over the next couple of weeks." d. "This is abnormal. I will contact your health care provider."

ANS: A The stool from an ascending colostomy can be expected to remain liquid because little large bowel is available to reabsorb the liquid from the stool. This finding is not abnormal. Liquid stool from an ascending colostomy will not become firmer with the addition of fiber to the client's diet or with the passage of time.

The nurse has taught a client about lifestyle modifications for gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD). What statements by the client indicate good understanding of the teaching? (Select all that apply.) a. "I just joined a gym, so I hope that helps me lose weight." b. "I sure hate to give up my coffee, but I guess I have to." c. "I will eat three small meals and three small snacks a day." d. "Sitting upright and not lying down after meals will help." e. "Smoking a pipe is not a problem and I don't have to stop."

ANS: A, B, C, D Lifestyle modifications can help control GERD and include losing weight if needed; avoiding chocolate, caffeine, and carbonated beverages; eating frequent small meals or snacks; and remaining upright after meals. Tobacco is a risk factor for GERD and should be avoided in all forms.

The nurse is aware that which factors are related to the development of gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD)? (Select all that apply.) a. Delayed gastric emptying b. Eating large meals c. Hiatal hernia d. Obesity e. Viral infections

ANS: A, B, C, D Many factors predispose a person to GERD, including delayed gastric emptying, eating large meals, hiatal hernia, and obesity. Viral infections are not implicated in the development of GERD, although infection with Helicobacter pylori is.

A nurse assesses a client with ulcerative colitis. Which complications are paired correctly with their physiologic processes? (Select all that apply.) a. Lower gastrointestinal bleeding - Erosion of the bowel wall b. Abscess formation - Localized pockets of infection develop in the ulcerated bowel lining c. Toxic megacolon - Transmural inflammation resulting in pyuria and fecaluria d. Nonmechanical bowel obstruction - Paralysis of colon resulting from colorectal cancer e. Fistula - Dilation and colonic ileus caused by paralysis of the colon

ANS: A, B, D Lower GI bleeding can lead to erosion of the bowel wall. Abscesses are localized pockets of infection that develop in the ulcerated bowel lining. Nonmechanical bowel obstruction is paralysis of the colon that results from colorectal cancer. When the inflammation is transmural, fistulas can occur between the bowel and bladder resulting in pyuria and fecaluria. Paralysis of the colon causing dilation and subsequent colonic ileus is known as a toxic megacolon.

Which interventions can the nurse delegate to unlicensed personnel when caring for a client with esophageal cancer? (Select all that apply.) a. Maintaining intake and output b. Maintaining calorie count c. Administering tube feeding d. Obtaining vital signs e. Teaching changes in daily activities f. Changing the incision dressing

ANS: A, B, D Unlicensed personnel can be responsible for charting fluid intake and output and food intake, keeping the calorie count, and taking/recording vital signs. They are not trained or allowed by law to assess, teach, or provide treatments.

A client has a gastrointestinal hemorrhage and is prescribed two units of packed red blood cells. What actions should the nurse perform prior to hanging the blood? (Select all that apply.) a. Ask a second nurse to double-check the blood. b. Prime the IV tubing with normal saline. c. Prime the IV tubing with dextrose in water. d. Take and record a set of vital signs. e. Teach the client about reaction manifestations.

ANS: A, B, D, E Prior to starting a blood transfusion, the nurse asks another nurse to double-check the blood (and client identity), primes the IV tubing with normal saline, takes and records a baseline set of vital signs, and teaches the client about manifestations to report. The IV tubing is not primed with dextrose in water.

A nurse assesses a client with peritonitis. Which clinical manifestations should the nurse expect to find? (Select all that apply.) a. Distended abdomen b. Inability to pass flatus c. Bradycardia d. Hyperactive bowel sounds e. Decreased urine output

ANS: A, B, E A client with peritonitis may present with a distended abdomen, diminished bowel sounds, inability to pass flatus or feces, tachycardia, and decreased urine output secondary to dehydration. Bradycardia and hyperactive bowel sounds are not associated with peritonitis.

A nurse is teaching clients with gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) about foods to avoid. Which foods should the nurse include in the teaching? (Select all that apply.) a. Chocolate b. Decaffeinated coffee c. Citrus fruits d. Peppermint e. Tomato sauce

ANS: A, C, D, E Chocolate, citrus fruits such as oranges and grapefruit, peppermint and spearmint, and tomato-based products all contribute to the reflux associated with GERD. Caffeinated teas, coffee, and sodas should be avoided.

A client has been taught about alginic acid and sodium bicarbonate (Gaviscon). What statement by the client indicates that teaching has been effective? a. "I can only take this medicine at night." b. "I should take this on a full stomach." c. "This drug decreases stomach acid." d. "This should be taken 1 hour before meals."

ANS: B Gaviscon should be taken with food in the stomach. It can be taken with meals at any time. Its mechanism of action is not to decrease stomach acid.

After teaching a client who is prescribed adalimumab for severe ulcerative colitis, the nurse assesses the client's understanding. Which statement made by the client indicates a need for additional teaching? a. "I will avoid large crowds and people who are sick." b. "I will take this medication with my breakfast each morning." c. "Nausea and vomiting are common side effects of this drug." d. "I must wash my hands after I play with my dog."

ANS: B Adalimumab is an immune modulator that must be given via subcutaneous injection. It does not need to be given with food or milk. Nausea and vomiting are two common side effects. Adalimumab can cause immune suppression, so clients receiving the medication should avoid large crowds and people who are sick, and should practice good handwashing.

A client had an upper gastrointestinal hemorrhage and now has a nasogastric (NG) tube. What comfort measure may the nurse delegate to the unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP)? a. Lavaging the tube with ice water b. Performing frequent oral care c. Re-positioning the tube every 4 hours d. Taking and recording vital signs

ANS: B Clients with NG tubes need frequent oral care both for comfort and to prevent infection. Lavaging the tube is done by the nurse. Re-positioning the tube, if needed, is also done by the nurse. The UAP can take vital signs, but this is not a comfort measure.

A client with esophageal cancer is receiving radiation therapy. Which finding alerts the nurse to a possible complication in this client? a. Redness of the skin at the site of radiation b. Worsening of dysphagia or odynophagia c. Development of nausea or vomiting d. A profound feeling of tiredness

ANS: B Esophageal stricture is a complication of radiation therapy to the esophagus. This would manifest with worsening dysphagia or odynophagia. Redness is an expected result. Nausea and vomiting are common side effects, as is profound fatigue.

A client had an open fundoplication 2 days ago. Which assessment by the nurse indicates that an important National Patient Safety Goal is being met for this client? a. The client uses the spirometer during the shift. b. The client's pain is monitored and treated. c. The client has vital signs taken routinely. d. The client verbalizes understanding of the discharge teaching.

ANS: B Pain must be monitored and aggressively treated after an open fundoplication because the high incision makes breathing very painful. If the client does not participate in deep-breathing exercises and will not use the spirometer, the chance of respiratory complications is quite high. National Patient Safety Goals include goals selected to reduce/prevent health care-related infection. Using the spirometer will help prevent pneumonia and atelectasis, but the client must use it hourly. Taking vital signs may help the nurse notice an infection but will not prevent the infection. Understanding discharge teaching is important, but preventing respiratory complications takes priority.

A nurse plans care for a client with Crohn's disease who has a heavily draining fistula. Which intervention should the nurse indicate as the priority action in this client's plan of care? a. Low-fiber diet b. Skin protection c. Antibiotic administration d. Intravenous glucocorticoids

ANS: B Protecting the client's skin is the priority action for a client who has a heavily draining fistula. Intestinal fluid enzymes are caustic and can cause skin breakdown or fungal infections if the skin is not protected. The plan of care for a client who has Crohn's disease includes adequate nutrition focused on high-calorie, high-protein, high-vitamin, and low-fiber meals, antibiotic administration, and glucocorticoids.

A nurse cares for a client with a new ileostomy. The client states, "I don't think my friends will accept me with this ostomy." How should the nurse respond? a. "Your friends will be happy that you are alive." b. "Tell me more about your concerns." c. "A therapist can help you resolve your concerns." d. "With time you will accept your new body."

ANS: B Social anxiety and apprehension are common in clients with a new ileostomy. The nurse should encourage the client to discuss concerns. The nurse should not minimize the client's concerns or provide false reassurance.

After teaching a client who has a new colostomy, the nurse provides feedback based on the client's ability to complete self-care activities. Which statement should the nurse include in this feedback? a. "I realize that you had a tough time today, but it will get easier with practice." b. "You cleaned the stoma well. Now you need to practice putting on the appliance." c. "You seem to understand what I taught you today. What else can I help you with?" d. "You seem uncomfortable. Do you want your daughter to care for your ostomy?"

ANS: B The nurse should provide both approval and room for improvement in feedback after a teaching session. Feedback should be objective and constructive, and not evaluative. Reassuring the client that things will improve does not offer anything concrete for the client to work on, nor does it let him or her know what was done well. The nurse should not make the client convey learning needs because the client may not know what else he or she needs to understand. The client needs to become the expert in self-management of the ostomy, and the nurse should not offer to teach the daughter instead of the client.

Which referrals does the nurse make for an older adult client who is being discharged with esophageal cancer? (Select all that apply.) a. IV infusionist b. Home health aide c. Medicare or Medicaid d. Meals on Wheels e. Housecleaning service f. Transportation to and from treatment

ANS: B, D, F The outcome is to keep the client as independent as possible. Providing a home health aide will help the client with normal self-care activities, shopping, and light housework, so the client can reserve energy for essential activities. Meals on Wheels will provide nutritious meals within the client's dietary restrictions. It is essential for the client to maintain adequate intake despite dysphagia. Transportation to treatments and the physician's office is essential for maintaining the client's health. The client may or may not need home infusion therapy or full housekeeping services. The client may or may not be eligible for Medicare or Medicaid.

A client with a bleeding gastric ulcer is having a nuclear medicine scan. What action by the nurse is most appropriate? a. Assess the client for iodine or shellfish allergies. b. Educate the client on the side effects of sedation. c. Inform the client a second scan may be needed. d. Teach the client about bowel preparation for the scan.

ANS: C A second scan may be performed in 1 to 2 days to see if interventions have worked. The nuclear medicine scan does not use iodine-containing contrast dye or sedation. There is no required bowel preparation.

A nurse answers a client's call light and finds the client in the bathroom, vomiting large amounts of bright red blood. Which action should the nurse take first? a. Assist the client back to bed. b. Notify the provider immediately. c. Put on a pair of gloves. d. Take a set of vital signs.

ANS: C All of the actions are appropriate; however, the nurse should put on a pair of gloves first to avoid contamination with blood or body fluids.

A client has esophageal cancer. Which intervention by the nurse takes priority? a. Maintaining nutritional intake b. Allowing grieving c. Preventing aspiration d. Managing pain relief

ANS: C Although nutrition and pain are both high on the list of priorities, prevention of aspiration is the highest. When a client aspirates, his or her respiratory system is compromised, thereby causing further deterioration, which increases nutritional needs. Grieving, although also important, does not take priority over physical needs and safety.

A nurse assesses a client who has ulcerative colitis and severe diarrhea. Which assessment should the nurse complete first? a. Inspection of oral mucosa b. Recent dietary intake c. Heart rate and rhythm d. Percussion of abdomen

ANS: C Although the client with severe diarrhea may experience skin irritation and hypovolemia, the client is most at risk for cardiac dysrhythmias secondary to potassium and magnesium loss from severe diarrhea. The client should have her or his electrolyte levels monitored, and electrolyte replacement may be necessary. Oral mucosa inspection, recent dietary intake, and abdominal percussion are important parts of physical assessment but are lower priority for this client than heart rate and rhythm.

A nurse cares for a client who is prescribed mesalamine (Asacol) for ulcerative colitis. The client states, "I am having trouble swallowing this pill." Which action should the nurse take? a. Contact the clinical pharmacist and request the medication in suspension form. b. Empty the contents of the capsule into applesauce or pudding for administration. c. Ask the health care provider to prescribe the medication as an enema instead. d. Crush the pill carefully and administer it in applesauce or pudding.

ANS: C Asacol is the oral formula for mesalamine and is produced as an enteric-coated pill that should not be crushed, chewed, or broken. Asacol is not available as a suspension or elixir. If the client is unable to swallow the Asacol pill, a mesalamine enema (Rowasa) may be administered instead, with a provider's order.

Which factor places a client at risk for esophageal cancer? a. High-stress occupation b. Preference for high-fat foods c. 20-pack-year smoking history d. History of myocardial infarction

ANS: C In the United States, the two most important factors for the development of esophageal cancer are tobacco use and alcohol ingestion. The other factors do not increase the risk for developing esophageal cancer.

A nurse is teaching a client about magnesium hydroxide with aluminum hydroxide (Maalox). What instruction is most appropriate? a. "Aspirin must be avoided." b. "Do not worry about black stools." c. "Report diarrhea to your provider." d. "Take 1 hour before meals."

ANS: C Maalox can cause hypermagnesemia, which causes diarrhea, so the client should be taught to report this to the provider. Aspirin is avoided with bismuth sulfate (Pepto-Bismol). Black stools can be caused by Pepto-Bismol. Maalox should be taken after meals.

For which client would the nurse suggest the provider not prescribe misoprostol (Cytotec)? a. Client taking antacids b. Client taking antibiotics c. Client who is pregnant d. Client over 65 years of age

ANS: C Misoprostol can cause abortion, so pregnant women should not take this drug. The other clients have no contraindications to taking misoprostol.

The nurse caring for clients with gastrointestinal disorders should understand that which category best describes the mechanism of action of sucralfate (Carafate)? a. Gastric acid inhibitor b. Histamine receptor blocker c. Mucosal barrier fortifier d. Proton pump inhibitor

ANS: C Sucralfate is a mucosal barrier fortifier (protector). It is not a gastric acid inhibitor, a histamine receptor blocker, or a proton pump inhibitor.

A client who has undergone an open fundoplication hernia repair is preparing for discharge. Which information is most important for the nurse to include in discharge instructions? a. "You can take laxatives for constipation." b. "Eat three normal-sized meals daily." c. "Notify your health care provider if you get a cough." d. "You can go back to work in about a week."

ANS: C The client is instructed to report cold or flu-like symptoms because persistent coughing associated with these conditions can cause dehiscence of the incision in the early postoperative stage. Constipation can be caused by narcotic medications, but the client should be instructed to use fiber, water, and stool softeners first before using laxatives. The client must continue eating six small meals a day. After the open procedure, activity restrictions continue for up to 6 weeks.

A nurse assesses a client who is hospitalized with an exacerbation of Crohn's disease. Which clinical manifestation should the nurse expect to find? a. Positive Murphy's sign with rebound tenderness to palpitation b. Dull, hypoactive bowel sounds in the lower abdominal quadrants c. High-pitched, rushing bowel sounds in the right lower quadrant d. Reports of abdominal cramping that is worse at night

ANS: C The nurse expects high-pitched, rushing bowel sounds due to narrowing of the bowel lumen in Crohn's disease. A positive Murphy's sign is indicative of gallbladder disease, and rebound tenderness often indicates peritonitis. Dullness in the lower abdominal quadrants and hypoactive bowel sounds are not commonly found with Crohn's disease. Nightly worsening of abdominal cramping is not consistent with Crohn's disease.

nurse cares for a teenage girl with a new ileostomy. The client states, "I cannot go to prom with an ostomy." How should the nurse respond? a. "Sure you can. Purchase a prom dress one size larger to hide the ostomy appliance." b. "The pouch won't be as noticeable if you avoid broccoli and carbonated drinks prior to the prom." c. "Let's talk to the enterostomal therapist about options for ostomy supplies and dress styles." d. "You can remove the pouch from your ostomy appliance when you are at the prom so that it is less noticeable."

ANS: C The ostomy nurse is a valuable resource for clients, providing suggestions for supplies and methods to manage the ostomy. A larger dress size will not necessarily help hide the ostomy appliance. Avoiding broccoli and carbonated drinks does not offer reassurance for the client. Ileostomies have an almost constant liquid effluent, so pouch removal during the prom is not feasible.

A client has returned to the nursing unit after an open Nissen fundoplication. The client has an indwelling urinary catheter, a nasogastric (NG) tube to low continuous suction, and two IVs. The nurse notes bright red blood in the NG tube. What action should the nurse take first? a. Document the findings in the chart. b. Notify the surgeon immediately. c. Reassess the drainage in 1 hour. d. Take a full set of vital signs.

ANS: D The drainage in the NG tube should initially be brown with old blood. The presence of bright red blood indicates bleeding. The nurse should take a set of vital signs to assess for shock and then notify the surgeon. Documentation should occur but is not the first thing the nurse should do. The nurse should not wait an additional hour to reassess.

The nurse is performing an assessment of a client with suspected esophageal cancer. Which statement made by the client does the nurse correlate with advanced disease? a. "I have difficulty swallowing solids." b. "I usually have a sticking feeling in my throat." c. "I have difficulty swallowing soft foods." d. "I have difficulty swallowing liquids."

ANS: D Dysphagia is a common sign of esophageal cancer, but it often does not present until late in the disease. Clients first notice swallowing problems with solid foods, then liquids; they can even choke on saliva. Sometimes they have the feeling of food sticking in their throats.

A client 2 hours post-esophageal dilation develops increasing pain in the throat. Which is the best action of the nurse? a. Administer an analgesic. b. Document the finding. c. Reposition the client. d. Assess the client for perforation.

ANS: D Pain may be indicative of perforation, which is a known complication of dilation and requires immediate intervention. An analgesic should not be administered until the problem is diagnosed. Repositioning will not help the nurse determine what is wrong. Documentation should be done after the nurse finishes assessing the client.

A client has undergone an esophagogastrostomy for cancer of the esophagus. How will the nurse best support the client's respiratory status? a. Assessing the client's breath sounds every 4 hours b. Performing chest physiotherapy every 6 hours c. Maintaining the client in a supine position d. Administering analgesia regularly

ANS: D Respiratory care is the highest postoperative priority. Incisional support and adequate analgesia are crucial for effective coughing and deep breathing. As long as vital signs are stable, the nurse administers analgesia regularly to assist the client in performing deep breathing, turning, and coughing routines. Assessing breath sounds is a vital nursing assessment but will not help support respiratory function. The client may or may not need chest physiotherapy. The client should not be kept in a supine position, but rather sit up in the chair and ambulate as much as possible.

A client with esophageal cancer and dysphagia states that it has become more difficult to swallow, and the client has experienced several choking episodes during meals. Which strategy would the nurse recommend to assist this client in obtaining adequate nutrition? a. Monitor caloric intake and weigh the client daily. b. Instruct the client to drink only clear liquids. c. Tell the client that artificial feeding will now be required. d. Encourage the client to eat semisoft foods and thickened liquids.

ANS: D The client with dysphagia usually is able to tolerate swallowing semisoft foods and/or thickened liquids to obtain adequate intake. Monitoring caloric intake and weighing the client are good for monitoring response to therapy but will not help the client obtain nutrition. Clear liquids alone may not provide enough calories or nutrients. Efforts are made to preserve swallowing ability as long as possible, although in the case of complete obstruction, a feeding tube may be necessary.

The nurse notes frank red blood in the drainage container from the nasogastric (NG) tube of a client who is 2 days post-esophagogastrostomy. Which is the nurse's priority intervention? a. Irrigate the NG tube with cold saline. b. Document the drainage in the chart. c. Reposition the tube in the opposite nostril. d. Assess the client's vital signs and abdomen.

ANS: D The initial nasogastric drainage appears bloody but should turn yellow-green by the end of the first postoperative day. If the bloody color continues, this may indicate bleeding at the suture line. The nurse should assess the client further, then should notify the provider. If the tube is draining, it is not necessary to irrigate it. Repositioning the tube will not change the drainage. In addition, repositioning the tube might cause more damage to the suture line.

A nurse is caring for a client hospitalized with botulism. The nurse obtains the following vital signs: temperature—99.8° F (37.6° C), pulse—100, respiratory rate—10 and shallow, and blood pressure—100/62 mm Hg. What action by the nurse is most appropriate? a. Allow the client rest periods without interruption. b. Stay with the client while another nurse calls the physician. c. Check the client's IV rate and document all findings. d. Help the client order appropriate food items from the menu.

B A client with botulism is at risk for respiratory failure. This client's respiratory rate is slow and shallow, which could indicate impending respiratory distress or failure. The nurse should remain with the client while another nurse notifies the provider. Nothing is allowed by mouth until all respiratory function and swallowing are normal. The nurse should monitor and document the IV infusion per protocol, but this does not take priority. Allowing the client to rest and ordering food items are not appropriate actions.

The nurse is caring for a client with severe ulcerative colitis who has been prescribed adalimumab (Humira). Which client statement indicates that additional teaching about the medication is needed? a. "I will avoid large crowds and people who are sick." b. "I will take this medication with food or milk." c. "Nausea and vomiting are common side effects." d. "I will wash my hands after I play with my dog."

B Adalimumab (Humira) is an immune modulator that must be given via subcutaneous injection. It does not need to be given with food or milk. Nausea and vomiting are two common side effects. Adalimumab can cause immune suppression, so clients receiving the medication should avoid large crowds and people who are sick, and should practice good handwashing.

The nurse is performing a physical assessment for a client who underwent a hemorrhoidectomy the previous day. The nurse notes that the client has lower abdominal distention accompanied by dullness to percussion over the distended area. Which is the nurse's priority action? a. Assess the client's vital signs. b. Determine the last time the client voided. c. Insert a rectal tube to facilitate passage of flatus. d. Document the findings in the client's chart.

B Assessment findings indicate that the client may have an overfull bladder. In the immediate postoperative period, the client may experience difficulty voiding owing to urinary retention. A rectal tube should not be inserted for a client who had a hemorrhoidectomy the previous day. The client's vital signs may be checked after the nurse determines the client's last void. The nurse should document all findings and actions in the client's medical record.

The nurse is caring for a client who is having approximately 20 foul-smelling stools each day. Laboratory Gram stain testing indicates the presence of white blood cells (WBCs) and red blood cells (RBCs) in the stool. Which organism does the nurse expect to see in the culture report? a. Helicobacter pylori b. Campylobacter jejuni c. Clostridium botulinum d. Norwalk virus

B Campylobacter gastroenteritis causes foul-smelling diarrhea with up to 20 to 30 stools per day for 7 days. Both RBCs and WBCs are present in a Gram stain of the stools. Infection with Clostridium causes not diarrhea, but constipation, paralysis, and respiratory failure. H. pylori is a common cause of gastric ulcers, not gastroenteritis. Norwalk virus produces milder illness with diarrhea and vomiting.

The nurse provides discharge teaching for a client who was hospitalized for Salmonella food poisoning. Which client statement indicates that additional teaching is needed? a. "I will let my husband do the cooking for my family." b. "I will take the ciprofloxacin (Cipro) until the diarrhea has resolved." c. "I will wash my hands with antibacterial soap before and after each meal." d. "I will make sure that my dishes go straight into the dishwasher after each meal."

B Cipro should be taken for 10 to 14 days to treat Salmonella infection, and should not be stopped once the diarrhea has cleared. Clients should be advised to take the entire course of medication. People with Salmonella should not prepare foods for others because the infection may be spread in this way. Dishes and eating utensils should not be shared and should be cleaned thoroughly. Hands should be washed with antibacterial soap before and after eating to prevent spread of the bacteria. Clients can be carriers for up to 1 year.

A client has irritable bowel syndrome. Which menu selections by this client indicate good understanding of dietary teaching? a. Tuna salad on white bread, cup of applesauce, glass of diet cola b. Broiled chicken with brown rice, steamed green beans, glass of apple juice c. Grilled cheese sandwich, small ripe banana, cup of hot tea with lemon d. Grilled steak, green beans, dinner roll with butter, cup of coffee with cream

B Clients with irritable bowel syndrome are advised to eat a high-fiber diet (30 to 40 grams a day), with 8 to 10 cups of liquid daily. This selection has the highest fiber content. They should avoid alcohol, caffeine, and other gastric irritants.

The nurse is caring for an older client with Salmonella food poisoning. Which is the priority action of the nurse? a. Monitor vital signs. b. Maintain IV fluids. c. Provide perineal care. d. Initiate Isolation Precautions.

B Dehydration can occur quickly in older clients with Salmonella food poisoning caused by diarrhea, so maintenance of fluid balance is a high priority. Monitoring vital signs and providing perineal care are important nursing actions, but are of lower priority than fluid replacement. Contact Isolation is not regularly instituted for Salmonella infection. Standard Precautions are usually sufficient.

The nurse is caring for a client who had ileostomy surgery 10 days ago. The client verbalizes concerns that the effluent has not become formed and is still liquid green. Which is the nurse's best response? a. "I will call your health care provider right away because the stool should be semi-solid by now." b. "Your stools will firm up in a few weeks as your body gets used to the ileostomy." c. "You should eat a high-fiber diet to help make the stool bulkier and more solid." d. "You can add buttermilk or yogurt to your diet and avoid carbonated soft drinks."

B Effluent from an ileostomy will become less liquid (but not solid) over time as the body adapts to loss of the large bowel. This process takes time and the client should be reassured of this. Clients with a new ileostomy should avoid high-fiber diets for the first few weeks because blockage of the bowel may occur. Buttermilk, yogurt, and carbonated drinks will not affect this process.

A client underwent the first stage of a restorative proctocolectomy with ileo-anal anastomosis (RPC-IPAA). What topic is a high priority for the nurse to teach? a. Perineal care b. Ostomy care c. Nutrition therapy d. Relaxation techniques

B In the first stage of the RPC-IPAA procedure, the temporary ileostomy is created. Because the effluent is caustic, severe skin irritation can occur. The client needs good instruction on ostomy care and comfort measures. Perineal care is not needed because stool drains through the ostomy. Nutrition therapy and relaxation techniques are not as high a priority as preventing skin damage.

A middle-aged male client has irritable bowel syndrome that has not responded well to diet changes and bulk-forming laxatives. He asks the nurse about the new drug lubiprostone (Amitiza). What information does the nurse provide him? a. "This drug is investigational right now for irritable bowel syndrome." b. "Unfortunately, this drug is approved only for use in women." c. "Lubiprostone works well only in a small fraction of irritable bowel cases." d. "Let's talk to your health care provider about getting you a trial prescription."

B Lubiprostone (Amitiza) is approved only for use in women. The other statements are not accurate.

The nurse is caring for a client with colon cancer and a new colostomy. The client wishes to talk with someone who had a similar experience. Which is the nurse's best response? a. "Most people who have had a colostomy are reluctant to talk about it." b. "I will make a referral to the United Ostomy Associations of America." c. "You can get all the information you need from the enterostomal therapist." d. "I do not think that we have any other clients with colostomies on the unit right now."

B Nurses need to become familiar with community-based resources to assist clients better. The local chapter of the United Ostomy Associations of America has resources for clients and their families, including Ostomates (specially trained visitors who also have ostomies). Although the enterostomal therapist is an expert in ostomy care, talking with him or her is not the same as talking with someone who actually has had a colostomy. Many people are willing to share their ostomy experience in the hope of helping others. The nurse should not brush aside the client's request by saying that no colostomy clients are present on the unit at the time.

The nurse is caring for a client who is brought to the emergency department following a motor vehicle crash. The nurse notes that the client has ecchymotic areas across the lower abdomen. Which is the priority action of the nurse? a. Measure the client's abdominal girth. b. Assess for abdominal guarding or rigidity. c. Check the client's hemoglobin and hematocrit. d. Ask whether the client was riding in the front or back seat of the car.

B On noticing the ecchymotic areas, the nurse should check to see if abdominal guarding or rigidity is present; this could indicate major organ injury. The nurse should then notify the provider. Measuring abdominal girth or asking about seating in the car is not appropriate at this time. Laboratory test results can be checked after assessment for abdominal guarding or rigidity.

The nurse has taught self-care measures to a client with an anal fissure. Which action by the client requires the nurse to do additional teaching? a. Taking warm sitz baths several times daily b. Administering daily enemas to prevent constipation c. Using bulk-producing agents to aid elimination d. Self-administering anti-inflammatory suppositories

B The client should not use enemas to promote elimination, but rather should rely on bulk-producing agents such as psyllium hydrophilic mucilloid (Metamucil). The other actions are appropriate.

The nurse is providing preoperative teaching for a client who will undergo herniorrhaphy surgery. Which instruction does the nurse give to the client? a. "Eat a low-residue diet for the first week after surgery." b. "Change the dressing every day until the staples are removed." c. "Take acetaminophen (Tylenol) 1000 mg every 4 hours for pain." d. "Cough and deep breathe every 2 hours for the first week after surgery."

B The dressing should be changed every day until the staples are removed, so the client can check the incision for signs of infection. Constipation is common following hernia surgery, so clients should include adequate amounts of fiber in the diet. The maximum daily dosage of Tylenol is 4000 mg. Taking 1000 mg of Tylenol every 4 hours means that intake is 6000 mg/day, which could cause toxicity and liver damage. The client should change positions and take deep breaths to facilitate lung expansion but should avoid coughing, which can place stress on the incision line.

A client post-hemorrhoidectomy feels the need to have a bowel movement. Which action by the nurse is best? a. Have the client use the bedside commode. b. Stay with the client, providing privacy. c. Make sure toilet paper and the call light are in reach. d. Plan to send a stool sample to the laboratory.

B The first bowel movement after hemorrhoidectomy can be painful enough to induce syncope. The nurse should stay with the client. The nurse should instruct clients who are discharged the same day to have someone nearby when they have their first postoperative bowel movement. Making sure needed items are within reach is an important nursing action too, but it does not take priority over client safety. The other two actions are not needed in this situation.

The nurse has completed the teaching session for a client with a new colostomy. Which feedback statement by the nurse is the most appropriate? a. "I realize that you had a tough time today, but it will get easier with practice." b. "You cleaned the stoma well. Now you need to practice putting on the appliance." c. "You seem to understand what I taught you today. What else can I help you with?" d. "You seem uncomfortable. Do you want your daughter to care for your ostomy?"

B The nurse should provide both approval and room for improvement in feedback after a teaching session. Feedback should be objective and constructive, and not evaluative. Reassuring the client that things will improve does not offer anything concrete for the client to work on, nor does it let him or her know what was done well. The nurse should not make the client convey learning needs because the client may not know what else he or she needs to understand. The client needs to become the expert in self-management of the ostomy, and the nurse should not offer to teach the daughter instead of the client.

The nurse conducts a physical assessment for a client with severe right lower quadrant (RLQ) abdominal pain. The nurse notes that the abdomen is rigid and the client's temperature is 101.1° F (38.4° C). Which laboratory value does the nurse bring to the attention of the health care provider as a priority? a. A "left shift" in the white blood cell count b. White blood cell count, 22,000/mm3 c. Serum sodium, 149 mEq/L d. Serum creatinine, 0.7 mg/dL

B This client may have appendicitis based on RLQ pain. A white blood cell count of 22,000/mm3 is severely elevated and could indicate a perforated appendix, as could the fever. The nurse should bring these findings to the provider's attention as soon as possible. A left shift would be expected in uncomplicated appendicitis. The sodium reading is only slightly high; this could be due to hemoconcentration from vomiting or from decreased intake. The creatinine level is normal.

The nurse is caring for a client with perineal excoriation caused by diarrhea from acute gastroenteritis. Which client statement indicates that additional teaching about perineal care is needed? a. "I will rinse my rectal area with warm water after each stool and then apply zinc oxide ointment." b. "I will clean my rectal area thoroughly with toilet paper after each stool and then apply aloe vera gel." c. "I will take a sitz bath three times a day and then pat my rectal area gently but thoroughly to make sure I am dry." d. "I will clean my rectal area with a soft cotton washcloth and then apply vitamin A and D ointment."

B Toilet paper can irritate the sensitive perineal skin, so warm water rinses or soft cotton washcloths should be used instead. Although aloe vera may facilitate healing of superficial abrasions, it is not an effective skin barrier for diarrhea. Skin barriers such as zinc oxide and vitamin A and D ointment help protect the rectal area from the excoriating effects of liquid stools. Patting the skin is recommended instead of rubbing the skin dry.

The nurse is providing discharge teaching for a client who has undergone colon resection surgery with a colostomy. Which statements by the client indicate that the instruction was understood? (Select all that apply.) a. "I will change the ostomy appliance daily and as needed." b. "I will use warm water and a soft washcloth to clean around the stoma." c. "I will start bicycling and swimming again once my incision has healed." d. "I will notify the doctor right away if any bleeding from the stoma occurs." e. "I will check the stoma regularly to make sure that it stays a deep red color." f. "I will avoid dairy products to reduce gas and odor in the pouch." g. "I will cut the flange so it fits snugly around the stoma to avoid skin breakdown."

B, C, G The client should avoid using soap to clean around the stoma because it might prevent effective adhesive of the ostomy appliance. The client should use warm water and a soft washcloth instead. The stoma should remain a soft pink color. A deep red or purple hue indicates ischemia and should be reported to the surgeon right away. The tissue of the stoma is very fragile, and scant bleeding may occur when the stoma is cleaned. Yogurt and buttermilk can help reduce gas in the pouch, so the client need not avoid dairy products. Exercise (other than some contact sports) is important for clients with an ostomy.

A client who has had fecal occult blood testing tells the nurse that the test was negative for colon cancer and wishes to cancel a colonoscopy scheduled for the next day. Which is the nurse's best response? a. "I will call and cancel the test for tomorrow." b. "You need two negative fecal occult blood tests." c. "This does not rule out the possibility of colon cancer." d. "You should wait at least a week to have the colonoscopy."

C A negative result does not completely rule out the possibility of colon cancer. To determine whether the client has colon cancer, a colonoscopy should be performed, so the entire colon can be visualized and a tissue sample taken for biopsy. The client need not wait a week before the colonoscopy. Two negative fecal occult blood tests do not rule out the presence of colorectal cancer (CRC).

The nurse is caring for a client with ulcerative colitis and severe diarrhea. Which nursing assessment is the highest priority? a. Skin integrity b. Blood pressure c. Heart rate and rhythm d. Abdominal percussion

C Although the client with severe diarrhea may experience skin irritation and hypovolemia, the client is most at risk for cardiac dysrhythmias secondary to potassium and magnesium loss from severe diarrhea. The client should have her or his electrolyte levels monitored, and electrolyte replacement may be necessary. Abdominal percussion is an important part of physical assessment but has lower priority for this client than heart rate and rhythm.

The nurse is caring for a client who just had colon resection surgery with a new colostomy. Which teaching objective does the nurse include in the client's plan of care? a. Understanding colostomy care and lifestyle implications b. Learning how to change the appliance independently c. Demonstrating the correct way to change the appliance by discharge d. Not being afraid to handle the ostomy appliance tomorrow

C Client learning goals must be measurable and objective with a time frame, so the nurse can determine whether they have been met. When the goal is to have the client demonstrate a particular skill, the nurse can easily determine whether the goal was met. The specific time frame of "by discharge" is easily measurable also. The other goals are all subjective and cannot be measured objectively. The first two options do not have time frames. "Tomorrow" is a vague time frame.

The nurse is preparing a client with diverticulitis for discharge from the hospital. Which statement by the client indicates that additional teaching is needed? a. "I will ride my bike or take a long walk at least three times a week." b. "I will try to include at least 25 g of fiber in my diet every day." c. "I will take a senna laxative at bedtime to avoid becoming constipated." d. "I will use my legs rather than my back muscles when I lift heavy objects."

C Laxatives are not recommended for clients with diverticulitis because they can increase pressure in the bowel, causing additional outpouching of the lumen. Exercise and a high-fiber diet are recommended for clients with diverticulitis because they promote regular bowel function. Using the leg muscles rather than the back for lifting prevents abdominal straining.

The nurse is caring for an older client with gastroenteritis. Which order does the nurse consult with the health care provider about? a. IV 0.45% NS at 50 mL/hr b. Clear liquids as tolerated c. Diphenoxylate hydrochloride/atropine sulfate (Lomotil) orally, after each loose stool d. Acetaminophen (Tylenol), 325-650 mg orally every 4 hr PRN pain

C Lomotil can cause drowsiness and can increase the older client's risk for falls. The nurse should consult with the provider to see if this medication is really necessary and, if an antidiarrheal medication is warranted, what other options might be available. The other orders are appropriate, although the nurse would have to monitor the client's total 24-hour Tylenol dosage to ensure that the client did not receive more than 4000 mg/24 hr.

A client is brought to the emergency department with an abrupt onset of vomiting, abdominal cramping, and diarrhea 2 hours after eating food at a picnic. Which infectious microorganism does the nurse suspect as the probable cause? a. Salmonella b. Giardia lamblia c. Staphylococcus aureus d. Clostridium botulinum

C Staphylococcus can be found in meat and dairy products and can be transmitted to people. Food poisoning occurs, especially if foods are left unrefrigerated over a period of time. Symptoms of Staphylococcus food poisoning include sudden onset of vomiting, abdominal cramping, and diarrhea within 2 to 4 hours. The client's symptoms are not consistent with infection by the other microorganisms.

The nurse is caring for a client who is scheduled to have fecal occult blood testing. Which instructions does the nurse give to the client? a. "You must fast for 12 hours before the test." b. "You will be given a cleansing enema the morning of the test." c. "You must avoid eating meat for 48 hours before the test." d. "You will be sedated and will require someone to accompany you home."

C The client is instructed to avoid meat, aspirin, vitamin C, and anti-inflammatory drugs for 48 hours before the test. The other directions are not accurate for this test.

The nurse is caring for a client who is hospitalized with exacerbation of Crohn's disease. What does the nurse expect to find during the physical assessment? a. Positive Murphy's sign with rebound tenderness b. Dullness in the lower abdominal quadrants c. High-pitched, rushing bowel sounds in the right lower quadrant d. Abdominal cramping that the client says is worse at night

C The nurse expects high-pitched, rushing bowel sounds due to narrowing of the bowel lumen in Crohn's disease. Dullness in the lower abdominal quadrants and hypoactive bowel sounds are not commonly found with Crohn's disease. Nightly worsening of abdominal cramping is not consistent with Crohn's disease. A positive Murphy's sign is indicative of gallbladder disease, and rebound tenderness often indicates peritonitis.

The nurse is caring for a client who has been newly diagnosed with colon cancer. The client has become withdrawn from family members. Which strategy does the nurse use to assist the client at this time? a. Ask the health care provider for a psychiatric consult for the client. b. Explain the improved prognosis for colon cancer with new treatment. c. Encourage the client to verbalize feelings about the diagnosis. d. Allow the client to remain withdrawn as long as he or she wishes.

C The nurse recognizes that the client may be expressing feelings of grief. The nurse should encourage the client to verbalize feelings and identify fears to move the client through the phases of the grief process. A psychiatric consult is not appropriate for the client. The nurse should not brush aside the client's feelings with a generalization about cancer prognosis and treatment. The nurse should not ignore the client's withdrawal behavior.

The nurse is preparing to begin teaching the client about how to care for a new ileostomy. Which consideration is the highest priority for the nurse when planning teaching for this client? a. Informing the client about what to expect with basic ostomy care b. Starting the teaching after the client has received pain medication c. Starting the teaching when the client is ready to look at the stoma d. Making sure that all needed supplies are ready at the client's bedside

C The nurse should wait until the client is ready to look at the ostomy and stoma before initiating teaching about ostomy care. The nurse should monitor clues from the client and encourage him or her to start taking an active role in management. Effective learning will occur only when the learner is ready. The other considerations are of lower priority for the client and nurse.

The nurse is caring for a teenage girl with a new ileostomy. She tells the nurse tearfully that she cannot go to the prom with an ostomy. Which is the nurse's best response? a. "You should get your prom dress one size larger to hide the ostomy appliance." b. "You should avoid broccoli and carbonated drinks so that the pouch won't fill with air under your dress." c. "Let's talk to the enterostomal therapist (ET) about options for ostomy supplies and dress styles so that you can look beautiful for the prom." d. "You can remove the pouch from your ostomy appliance when you are at the prom so that it is less noticeable."

C The ostomy nurse is a valuable resource for clients, providing suggestions for supplies and methods to manage the ostomy. A larger dress size will not necessarily help hide the ostomy appliance. Avoiding broccoli and carbonated drinks does not offer reassurance for the client. Ileostomies have an almost constant liquid effluent, so pouch removal during the prom is not feasible.

The nurse is performing a physical assessment of a client with a new diagnosis of colorectal cancer. The nurse notes the presence of visible peristaltic waves and, on auscultation, hears high-pitched bowel sounds. Which conclusion does the nurse draw from these findings? a. The tumor has metastasized to the liver and biliary tract. b. The tumor has caused an intussusception of the intestine. c. The growing tumor has caused a partial bowel obstruction. d. The client has developed toxic megacolon from the growing tumor.

C The presence of visible peristaltic waves, accompanied by high-pitched or tingling bowel sounds, is indicative of partial obstruction caused by the tumor. Assessment findings do not indicate metastasis to the liver, intussusception of the intestine, or toxic megacolon.

A client with a mechanical bowel obstruction reports that abdominal pain, which was previously intermittent and colicky, is now more constant. Which is the priority action of the nurse? a. Measure the abdominal girth. b. Place the client in a knee-chest position. c. Medicate the client with an opioid analgesic. d. Assess for bowel sounds and rebound tenderness.

D A change in the nature and timing of abdominal pain in a client with a bowel obstruction can signal peritonitis or perforation. The nurse should immediately check for rebound tenderness and the absence of bowel sounds. The nurse need not measure abdominal girth. The nurse may help the client to the knee-chest position for comfort, but this is not the priority action. The nurse should not medicate the client until the physician has been notified of the change in his or her condition.

The nurse is teaching a client how to care for a new ileostomy. Which client statement indicates that additional teaching is needed? a. "I will consult the pharmacist before filling any new prescriptions." b. "I will empty the ostomy pouch when it is half-filled with stool or gas." c. "I will wash my hands with antibacterial soap before and after ostomy care." d. "I will call my health care provider if I have not had ostomy drainage for 3 hours."

D A client with an ileostomy should call the provider if no drainage has come from the ostomy in 6 to 12 hours. The other statements indicate good understanding of self-management.

A client is brought to the emergency department after being shot in the abdomen and is hemorrhaging heavily. Which action by the nurse is the priority? a. Draw blood for type and crossmatch. b. Start two large IVs for fluid resuscitation. c. Obtain vital signs and assess skin perfusion. d. Assess and maintain a patent airway.

D All options are important nursing actions in the care of a trauma client. However, airway always comes first. The client must have a patent airway, or other interventions will not be helpful.

The nurse is caring for a client who is taking mesalamine (5-aminosalicylic acid) (Asacol, Rowasa) for ulcerative colitis. The client has trouble swallowing the pill. Which action by the nurse is most appropriate? a. Crush the pill carefully and administer it to the client in applesauce or pudding. b. Empty the contents of the capsule into applesauce or pudding for administration. c. Contact the client's health care provider to request an order for Asacol suspension. d. Contact the client's health care provider to request an order for Rowasa enemas instead.

D Asacol is enteric coated and should not be crushed, chewed, or broken. If the client is unable to swallow the Asacol pill, Rowasa enemas may be administered instead, with a provider's order. Asacol is not available as a suspension or elixir.

The nurse is screening clients at a community health fair. Which client is at highest risk for development of colorectal cancer? a. Young adult who drinks eight cups of coffee every day b. Middle-aged client with a history of irritable bowel syndrome c. Older client with a BMI of 19.2 who works 65 hours per week d. Older client who travels extensively and eats fast food frequently

D Colon cancer is rare before the age of 40, but its incidence increases rapidly with advancing age. Fast food tends to be high in fat and low in fiber, increasing the risk for colon cancer. Irritable bowel syndrome, a heavy workload, and coffee intake do not increase the risk for colon cancer. A BMI of 19.2 is within normal limits.

The nurse is caring for a client who has food poisoning that may be the result of Clostridium botulinum infection. Which is the priority nursing assessment for this client? a. Heart rate and rhythm b. Bowel sounds and heart tones c. Fluid balance and urine output d. Oxygen saturation and respiratory rate

D Severe infection with Clostridium botulinum can lead to respiratory failure, so assessments of oxygen saturation and respiratory rate are of high priority for clients with suspected Clostridium botulinum infection. The other assessments may be completed after the respiratory system has been assessed.

The nurse is teaching self-care measures for a client who has hemorrhoids. Which nursing intervention does the nurse include in the plan of care for the client? a. Instruct the client to use dibucaine (Nupercainal) ointment whenever needed. b. Teach the client to choose low-fiber foods to make bowels move more easily. c. Tell the client to take his or her time on the toilet when needing to defecate. d. Encourage the client to dab with moist wipes instead of wiping with toilet paper.

D The client should be instructed to use wet wipes and dab the anal area after defecating to avoid further irritation. Dibucaine can be used only for short periods of time because long-term use can mask worsening symptoms. Clients with hemorrhoids require high-fiber foods. The client should not be encouraged to strain at stool or to spend long periods of time on the toilet, because this increases pressure in the rectal area, which can make hemorrhoids worse.

The nurse is caring for a client with Crohn's disease who has developed a fistula. Which nursing intervention is the highest priority? a. Monitor the client's hematocrit and hemoglobin. b. Position the client to allow gravity drainage of the fistula. c. Check and record blood glucose levels every 6 hours. d. Encourage the client to consume a diet high in protein and calories.

D The client with Crohn's disease is already at risk for malabsorption and malnutrition. Malnutrition impairs healing of the fistula and immune responses. Therefore, maintaining adequate nutrition is a priority for this client. The client will require 3000 calories per day to promote healing of the fistula. Monitoring the client's blood sugar and hemoglobin levels is important, but less so than encouraging nutritional intake. The client need not be positioned to facilitate gravity drainage of the fistula, because fistulas often are found in the abdominal cavity.

A female client is admitted with an exacerbation of ulcerative colitis. Which laboratory value does the nurse correlate with this condition? a. Potassium, 5.5 mEq/L b. Hemoglobin, 14.2 g/dL c. Sodium, 144 mEq/L d. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR), 55 mm/hr

D The erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) is an indicator of inflammation, which is elevated during an exacerbation of ulcerative colitis. The normal range for the ESR is 0 to 33 mm/hr. Diarrhea caused by ulcerative colitis will result in loss of potassium and hypokalemia with levels lower than 3.5 mEq/L. Bloody diarrhea will lead to anemia, with hemoglobin levels lower than 12 g/dL in females. The sodium level is normal.

The nurse is caring for a client who has suffered abdominal trauma in a motor vehicle crash. Which laboratory finding indicates that the client's liver was injured? a. Serum lipase, 49 U/L b. Serum amylase, 68 IU/L c. Serum creatinine, 0.8 mg/dL d. Serum transaminase, 129 IU/L

D The level of serum transaminase, a liver enzyme, is elevated with liver trauma. The other laboratory values are within normal limits and are not specific for the liver.

The nurse helps a client with diverticular disease choose appropriate dinner options. Which menu selections are most appropriate? a. Roasted chicken, rice pilaf, cup of coffee with cream b. Spaghetti with meat sauce, fresh fruit cup, hot tea with lemon c. Chicken Caesar salad, cup of bean soup, glass of low-fat milk d. Baked fish with steamed asparagus, dinner roll with butter, glass of apple juice

D Whole grains (rice pilaf), uncooked fruits and vegetables (salad, fresh fruit cup), and high-fiber foods (cup of bean soup) should be avoided with a low-residue diet. Canned or cooked vegetables are appropriate. Apple juice does not contain fiber and is acceptable for a low-residue diet.

A 50-year-old patient who underwent a gastroduodenostomy (Billroth I) earlier today complains of increasing abdominal pain. The patient has no bowel sounds and 200 mL of bright red nasogastric (NG) drainage in the last hour. The highest priority action by the nurse is to a. contact the surgeon. b. irrigate the NG tube. c. monitor the NG drainage. d. administer the prescribed morphine.

A. contact the surgeon Increased pain and 200 mL of bright red NG drainage 12 hours after surgery indicate possible postoperative hemorrhage, and immediate actions such as blood transfusion and/or return to surgery are needed. Because the NG is draining, there is no indication that irrigation is needed. Continuing to monitor the NG drainage is not an adequate response. The patient may need morphine, but this is not the highest priority action.

The nurse will anticipate preparing a 71-year-old female patient who is vomiting "coffee-ground" emesis for a. endoscopy. b. angiography. c. barium studies. d. gastric analysis.

A. endoscopy Endoscopy is the primary tool for visualization and diagnosis of upper gastrointestinal (GI) bleeding. Angiography is used only when endoscopy cannot be done because it is more invasive and has more possible complications. Barium studies are helpful in determining the presence of gastric lesions, but not whether the lesions are actively bleeding. Gastric analysis testing may help with determining the cause of gastric irritation, but it is not used for acute GI bleeding.

30. The nurse is providing care for a patient whose inflammatory bowel disease has necessitated hospital treatment. Which of the following would most likely be included in the patient's medication regimen? A) Anticholinergic medications 30 minutes before a meal B) Antiemetics on a PRN basis C) Vitamin B12 injections to prevent pernicious anemia D) Beta adrenergic blockers to reduce bowel motility

ANS: A Feedback: The nurse administers anticholinergic medications 30 minutes before a meal as prescribed to decrease intestinal motility and administers analgesics as prescribed for pain. Antiemetics, vitamin B12 injections and beta blockers do not address the signs, symptoms, or etiology of inflammatory bowel disease.

2. A nurse is preparing to provide care for a patient whose exacerbation of ulcerative colitis has required hospital admission. During an exacerbation of this health problem, the nurse would anticipate that the patient's stools will have what characteristics? A) Watery with blood and mucus B) Hard and black or tarry C) Dry and streaked with blood D) Loose with visible fatty streaks

ANS: A Feedback: The predominant symptoms of ulcerative colitis are diarrhea and abdominal pain. Stools may be bloody and contain mucus. Stools are not hard, dry, tarry, black or fatty in patients who have ulcerative colitis.

26. The nurse admitting a patient with acute diverticulitis explains that the initial plan of care is to a. administer IV fluids. b. give stool softeners and enemas. c. order a diet high in fiber and fluids. d. prepare the patient for colonoscopy.

ANS: A A patient with acute diverticulitis will be NPO and given parenteral fluids. A diet high in fiber and fluids will be implemented before discharge. Bulk-forming laxatives, rather than stool softeners, are usually given, and these will be implemented later in the hospitalization. The patient with acute diverticulitis will not have enemas or a colonoscopy because of the risk for perforation and peritonitis.

30. A 50-year-old female patient calls the clinic to report a new onset of severe diarrhea. The nurse anticipates that the patient will need to a. collect a stool specimen. b. prepare for colonoscopy. c. schedule a barium enema. d. have blood cultures drawn.

ANS: A Acute diarrhea is usually caused by an infectious process, and stool specimens are obtained for culture and examined for parasites or white blood cells. There is no indication that the patient needs a colonoscopy, blood cultures, or a barium enema.

25. A 34-year-old female patient with a new ileostomy asks how much drainage to expect. The nurse explains that after the bowel adjusts to the ileostomy, the usual drainage will be about _____ cups. a. 2 b. 3 c. 4 d. 5

ANS: A After the proximal small bowel adapts to reabsorb more fluid, the average amount of ileostomy drainage is about 500 mL daily. One cup is about 240 mL.

5. A patient complains of gas pains and abdominal distention two days after a small bowel resection. Which nursing action is best to take? a. Encourage the patient to ambulate. b. Instill a mineral oil retention enema. c. Administer the ordered IV morphine sulfate. d. Offer the ordered promethazine (Phenergan) suppository.

ANS: A Ambulation will improve peristalsis and help the patient eliminate flatus and reduce gas pain. A mineral oil retention enema is helpful for constipation with hard stool. A return-flow enema might be used to relieve persistent gas pains. Morphine will further reduce peristalsis. Promethazine (Phenergan) is used as an antiemetic rather than to decrease gas pains or distention.

8. Which nursing action will be included in the plan of care for a 27-year-old male patient with bowel irregularity and a new diagnosis of irritable bowel syndrome (IBS)? a. Encourage the patient to express concerns and ask questions about IBS. b. Suggest that the patient increase the intake of milk and other dairy products. c. Educate the patient about the use of alosetron (Lotronex) to reduce symptoms. d. Teach the patient to avoid using nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs (NSAIDs).

ANS: A Because psychologic and emotional factors can affect the symptoms for IBS, encouraging the patient to discuss emotions and ask questions is an important intervention. Alosetron has serious side effects, and is used only for female patients who have not responded to other therapies. Although yogurt may be beneficial, milk is avoided because lactose intolerance can contribute to symptoms in some patients. NSAIDs can be used by patients with IBS.

15. A 51-year-old male patient has a new diagnosis of Crohn's disease after having frequent diarrhea and a weight loss of 10 pounds (4.5 kg) over 2 months. The nurse will plan to teach about a. medication use. b. fluid restriction. c. enteral nutrition. d. activity restrictions.

ANS: A Medications are used to induce and maintain remission in patients with inflammatory bowel disease (IBD). Decreased activity level is indicated only if the patient has severe fatigue and weakness. Fluids are needed to prevent dehydration. There is no advantage to enteral feedings.

45. A 51-year-old woman with Crohn's disease who is taking infliximab (Remicade) calls the nurse in the outpatient clinic about new symptoms. Which symptom is most important to communicate to the health care provider? a. Fever b. Nausea c. Joint pain d. Headache

ANS: A Since infliximab suppresses the immune response, rapid treatment of infection is essential. The other patient complaints are common side effects of the medication, but they do not indicate any potentially life-threatening complications.

The nurse is teaching a client about self-management of gastroesophageal reflux. Which statement by the nurse is most appropriate? a. "Eat four to six small meals each day." b. "Eat a small evening snack 1 to 2 hours before bed." c. "No specific foods or spices need to be cut from your diet." d. "You may include orange or tomato juice with your breakfast."

ANS: A The client is instructed to eat four to six small meals daily rather than three larger meals to avoid pressure in the stomach and delayed gastric emptying, which can increase reflux. Evening snacks and acidic foods also should be avoided. The client should keep a diary to assess for foods or spices that increase symptoms, and those items need to be avoided.

A client just experienced an episode of reflux with regurgitation. What assessment by the nurse is the priority? a. Auscultate the lungs for crackles. b. Inspect the oral cavity. c. Check the oxygen saturation. d. Teach the client to sleep sitting up.

ANS: A The client with regurgitation is at risk for aspiration, pneumonia, and bronchitis. The nurse should auscultate the lungs for crackles—an indication of aspiration. If abnormalities are found, the nurse can then check the oxygen saturation. The nurse should teach the client to sleep with the head of the bed elevated, however; this is not a priority action. Inspecting the oral cavity probably is not needed.

48. A female patient is awaiting surgery for acute peritonitis. Which action will the nurse include in the plan of care? a. Position patient with the knees flexed. b. Avoid use of opioids or sedative drugs. c. Offer frequent small sips of clear liquids. d. Assist patient to breathe deeply and cough.

ANS: A There is less peritoneal irritation with the knees flexed, which will help decrease pain. Opioids and sedatives are typically given to control pain and anxiety. Preoperative patients with peritonitis are given IV fluids for hydration. Deep breathing and coughing will increase the patient's discomfort.

1. Which information will the nurse include when teaching a patient how to avoid chronic constipation (select all that apply)? a. Many over-the-counter (OTC) medications can cause constipation. b. Stimulant and saline laxatives can be used regularly. c. Bulk-forming laxatives are an excellent source of fiber. d. Walking or cycling frequently will help bowel motility. e. A good time for a bowel movement may be after breakfast.

ANS: A, C, D, E Stimulant and saline laxatives should be used infrequently. Use of bulk-forming laxatives, regular early morning timing of defecation, regular exercise, and avoiding many OTC medications will help the patient avoid constipation.

20. A nurse caring for a patient with a newly created ileostomy assesses the patient and notes that the patient has had not ostomy output for the past 12 hours. The patient also complains of worsening nausea. What is the nurse's priority action? A) Facilitate a referral to the wound-ostomy-continence (WOC) nurse. B) Report signs and symptoms of obstruction to the physician. C) Encourage the patient to mobilize in order to enhance motility. D) Contact the physician and obtain a swab of the stoma for culture.

ANS: B Feedback: It is important to report nausea and abdominal distention, which may indicate intestinal obstruction. This requires prompt medical intervention. Referral to the WOC nurse is not an appropriate short-term response, since medical treatment is necessary. Physical mobility will not normally resolve an obstruction. There is no need to collect a culture from the stoma, because infection is unrelated to this problem.

28. A nurse is providing care for a patient whose recent colostomy has contributed to a nursing diagnosis of Disturbed Body Image Related to Colostomy. What intervention best addresses this diagnosis? A) Encourage the patient to conduct online research into colostomies. B) Engage the patient in the care of the ostomy to the extent that the patient is willing. C) Emphasize the fact that the colostomy was needed to alleviate a much more serious health problem. D) Emphasize the fact that the colostomy is temporary measure and is not permanent.

ANS: B Feedback: For some patients, becoming involved in the care of the ostomy helps to normalize it and enhance familiarity. Emphasizing the benefits of the intervention is unlikely to improve the patient's body image, since the benefits are likely already known. Online research is not likely to enhance the patient's body image and some ostomies are permanent.

46. A 33-year-old male patient with a gunshot wound to the abdomen undergoes surgery, and a colostomy is formed as shown in the accompanying figure. Which information will be included in patient teaching? a. Stool will be expelled from both stomas. b. This type of colostomy is usually temporary. c. Soft, formed stool can be expected as drainage. d. Irrigations can regulate drainage from the stomas.

ANS: B A loop, or double-barrel stoma, is usually temporary. Stool will be expelled from the proximal stoma only. The stool from the transverse colon will be liquid and regulation through irrigations will not be possible.

A client who has undergone a fundoplication wrap for hernia repair has returned from the postanesthesia care unit with a nasogastric tube draining dark brown fluid. Which is the nurse's priority action? a. Assess the placement of the tube. b. Document the finding and continue to monitor. c. Clamp the nasogastric tube for 30 minutes. d. Irrigate the nasogastric tube with normal saline.

ANS: B After fundoplication, drainage from the nasogastric tube is initially dark brown with old blood. This finding is expected and requires only documentation. The drainage should become yellow-green within 8 hours after surgery.

53. The nurse is admitting a 67-year-old patient with new-onset steatorrhea. Which question is most important for the nurse to ask? a. "How much milk do you usually drink?" b. "Have you noticed a recent weight loss?" c. "What time of day do your bowels move?" d. "Do you eat meat or other animal products?"

ANS: B Although all of the questions provide useful information, it is most important to determine if the patient has an imbalance in nutrition because of the steatorrhea.

9. A patient being admitted with an acute exacerbation of ulcerative colitis reports crampy abdominal pain and passing 15 or more bloody stools a day. The nurse will plan to a. administer IV metoclopramide (Reglan). b. discontinue the patient's oral food intake. c. administer cobalamin (vitamin B12) injections. d. teach the patient about total colectomy surgery.

ANS: B An initial therapy for an acute exacerbation of inflammatory bowel disease (IBD) is to rest the bowel by making the patient NPO. Metoclopramide increases peristalsis and will worsen symptoms. Cobalamin (vitamin B12) is absorbed in the ileum, which is not affected by ulcerative colitis. Although total colectomy is needed for some patients, there is no indication that this patient is a candidate.

10. Which nursing action will the nurse include in the plan of care for a 35-year-old male patient admitted with an exacerbation of inflammatory bowel disease (IBD)? a. Restrict oral fluid intake. b. Monitor stools for blood. c. Ambulate four times daily. d. Increase dietary fiber intake.

ANS: B Because anemia or hemorrhage may occur with IBD, stools should be assessed for the presence of blood. The other actions would not be appropriate for the patient with IBD. Because dietary fiber may increase gastrointestinal (GI) motility and exacerbate the diarrhea, severe fatigue is common with IBD exacerbations, and dehydration may occur.

35. A patient in the emergency department has just been diagnosed with peritonitis caused by a ruptured diverticulum. Which prescribed intervention will the nurse implement first? a. Insert a urinary catheter to drainage. b. Infuse metronidazole (Flagyl) 500 mg IV. c. Send the patient for a computerized tomography scan. d. Place a nasogastric (NG) tube to intermittent low suction.

ANS: B Because peritonitis can be fatal if treatment is delayed, the initial action should be to start antibiotic therapy (after any ordered cultures are obtained). The other actions can be done after antibiotic therapy is initiated.

Which statement indicates that the client understands the management of his or her sliding hiatal hernia? a. "I will lie flat for 30 minutes after each meal." b. "I will remain upright for several hours after each meal." c. "I will have my blood count done in 2 weeks to check for anemia." d. "I will sleep at night while lying on my left side to prevent reflux."

ANS: B Clients with hiatal hernia experience gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD). Positioning is an important intervention. The client should be taught to sleep with the head of the bed elevated, to remain upright after meals for 2 to 3 hours, and to avoid straining or restrictive clothing. The other actions are not consistent with managing a sliding hiatal hernia.

32. The nurse is assessing a 31-year-old female patient with abdominal pain. Th nurse,who notes that there is ecchymosis around the area of umbilicus, will document this finding as a. Cullen sign. b. Rovsing sign. c. McBurney sign. d. Grey-Turner's signt.

ANS: B Cullen sign is ecchymosis around the umbilicus. Rovsing sign occurs when palpation of the left lower quadrant causes pain in the right lower quadrant. Deep tenderness at McBurney's point (halfway between the umbilicus and the right iliac crest), known as McBurney's sign, is a sign of acute appendicitis.

14. After a total proctocolectomy and permanent ileostomy, the patient tells the nurse, "I cannot manage all these changes. I don't want to look at the stoma." What is the best action by the nurse? a. Reassure the patient that ileostomy care will become easier. b. Ask the patient about the concerns with stoma management. c. Develop a detailed written list of ostomy care tasks for the patient. d. Postpone any teaching until the patient adjusts to the ileostomy.

ANS: B Encouraging the patient to share concerns assists in helping the patient adjust to the body changes. Acknowledgment of the patient's feelings and concerns is important rather than offering false reassurance. Because the patient indicates that the feelings about the ostomy are the reason for the difficulty with the many changes, development of a detailed ostomy care plan will not improve the patient's ability to manage the ostomy. Although detailed ostomy teaching may be postponed, the nurse should offer teaching about some aspects of living with an ostomy.

An obese client has reflux and asks how being overweight could cause this condition. Which response by the nurse is best? a. "You eat more food, more often, than nonobese people do." b. "The weight adds extra pressure, which helps push stomach contents up." c. "Obese people tend to eat more high-fat food, which presents a risk." d. "Obesity is not related to reflux, but losing weight would be healthy."

ANS: B Esophageal reflux can occur when intra-abdominal pressure is elevated, or when the sphincter tone of the lower esophageal sphincter (LES) is decreased. Obesity can increase intra-abdominal pressure. The other statements are not accurate explanations of the connection between obesity and reflux.

33. A 54-year-old critically ill patient with sepsis is frequently incontinent of watery stools. What action by the nurse will prevent complications associated with ongoing incontinence? a. Apply incontinence briefs. b. Use a fecal management system c. Insert a rectal tube with a drainage bag. d. Assist the patient to a commode frequently.

ANS: B Fecal management systems are designed to contain loose stools and can be in place for as long as 4 weeks without causing damage to the rectum or anal sphincters. Although incontinence briefs may be helpful, unless they are changed frequently, they are likely to increase the risk for skin breakdown. Rectal tubes are avoided because of possible damage to the anal sphincter and ulceration of the rectal mucosa. A critically ill patient will not be able to tolerate getting up frequently to use the commode or bathroom.

16. A 24-year-old woman with Crohn's disease develops a fever and symptoms of a urinary tract infection (UTI) with tan, fecal-smelling urine. What information will the nurse add to a general teaching plan about UTIs in order to individualize the teaching for this patient? a. Bacteria in the perianal area can enter the urethra. b. Fistulas can form between the bowel and bladder. c. Drink adequate fluids to maintain normal hydration. d. Empty the bladder before and after sexual intercourse.

ANS: B Fistulas between the bowel and bladder occur in Crohn's disease and can lead to UTI. Teaching for UTI prevention in general includes good hygiene, adequate fluid intake, and voiding before and after intercourse.

23. Which information will the nurse include in teaching a patient who had a proctocolectomy and ileostomy for ulcerative colitis? a. Restrict fluid intake to prevent constant liquid drainage from the stoma. b. Use care when eating high-fiber foods to avoid obstruction of the ileum. c. Irrigate the ileostomy daily to avoid having to wear a drainage appliance. d. Change the pouch every day to prevent leakage of contents onto the skin.

ANS: B High-fiber foods are introduced gradually and should be well chewed to avoid obstruction of the ileostomy. Patients with ileostomies lose the absorption of water in the colon and need to take in increased amounts of fluid. The pouch should be drained frequently but is changed every 5 to 7 days. The drainage from an ileostomy is liquid and continuous, so control by irrigation is not possible.

A client has Barrett's esophagus. Which client assessment by the nurse requires consultation with the health care provider? a. Sleeping with the head of the bed elevated b. Coughing when eating or drinking c. Wanting to eat several small meals during the day d. Chewing antacid tablets frequently during the day

ANS: B In Barrett's esophagus (a complication of gastroesophageal reflux disease [GERD]), fibrosis and scarring that accompany the healing process can cause esophageal stricture, leading to difficulty in swallowing. This can be manifested by coughing when the client eats or drinks and requires consultation with the health care team. The other assessments are typical of clients trying to control their GERD.

54. Which information will the nurse teach a 23-year-old patient with lactose intolerance? a. Ice cream is relatively low in lactose. b. Live-culture yogurt is usually tolerated. c. Heating milk will break down the lactose. d. Nonfat milk is a better choice than whole milk.

ANS: B Lactose-intolerant individuals can usually eat yogurt without experiencing discomfort. Ice cream, nonfat milk, and milk that has been heated are all high in lactose.

A client with severe gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) is still having symptoms of reflux despite taking omeprazole, (Prilosec) 20 mg daily. What does the nurse do next? a. Document the finding in the client's chart. b. Obtain an order for omeprazole twice daily. c. Instruct the client to double the daily dose. d. Tell the client to take antacids with omeprazole.

ANS: B Omeprazole is a proton pump inhibitor that acts to reduce gastric acid secretion. If once-daily dosing fails to control the client's symptoms, the nurse should obtain an order for the client to take omeprazole twice daily for better symptom control. This finding should be documented, but the nurse should do more than merely record the client's symptoms. Doubling the daily dose and adding antacids will not be as effective as obtaining an order for twice-a-day dosing.

52. After change-of-shift report, which patient should the nurse assess first? a. 40-year-old male with celiac disease who has frequent frothy diarrhea b. 30-year-old female with a femoral hernia who has abdominal pain and vomiting c. 30-year-old male with ulcerative colitis who has severe perianal skin breakdown d. 40-year-old female with a colostomy bag that is pulling away from the adhesive wafer

ANS: B Pain and vomiting with a femoral hernia suggest possible strangulation, which will necessitate emergency surgery. The other patients have less urgent problems.

55. Which prescribed intervention for a 61-year-old female patient with chronic short bowel syndrome will the nurse question? a. Ferrous sulfate (Feosol) 325 mg daily b. Senna (Senokot) 1 tablet every day c. Psyllium (Metamucil) 2.1 grams 3 times daily d. Diphenoxylate with atropine (Lomotil) prn loose stools

ANS: B Patients with short bowel syndrome have diarrhea because of decreased nutrient and fluid absorption and would not need stimulant laxatives. Iron supplements are used to prevent iron-deficiency anemia, bulk-forming laxatives help make stools less watery, and opioid antidiarrheal drugs are helpful in slowing intestinal transit time.

A client has returned to the nursing unit after a sliding hernia repair. Which action by the nurse is most important in preventing complications? a. Range of motion to the lower extremities b. Elevating the head of the bed to 30 degrees c. Monitoring input and output d. Assessing for bowel sounds

ANS: B Prevention of respiratory complications is the primary focus of postoperative care. The high incision makes taking deep breaths extremely painful for this client. By elevating the head of the bed to at least 30 degrees, the nurse promotes lung expansion in the client. The other activities are important too but do not take priority over preventing respiratory complications.

6. A 58-year-old man with blunt abdominal trauma from a motor vehicle crash undergoes peritoneal lavage. If the lavage returns brown fecal drainage, which action will the nurse plan to take next? a. Auscultate the bowel sounds. b. Prepare the patient for surgery. c. Check the patient's oral temperature. d. Obtain information about the accident.

ANS: B Return of brown drainage and fecal material suggests perforation of the bowel and the need for immediate surgery. Auscultation of bowel sounds, checking the temperature, and obtaining information about the accident are appropriate actions, but the priority is to prepare to send the patient for emergency surgery.

11. Which patient statement indicates that the nurse's teaching about sulfasalazine (Azulfidine) for ulcerative colitis has been effective? a. "The medication will be tapered if I need surgery." b. "I will need to use a sunscreen when I am outdoors." c. "I will need to avoid contact with people who are sick." d. "The medication will prevent infections that cause the diarrhea."

ANS: B Sulfasalazine may cause photosensitivity in some patients. It is not used to treat infections. Sulfasalazine does not reduce immune function. Unlike corticosteroids, tapering of sulfasalazine is not needed.

The nurse is in the room of a client who is sleeping in bed. The client experiences an episode of reflux with regurgitation. Which action does the nurse take first? a. Have the client roll to the side. b. Raise the head of the client's bed. c. Auscultate the client's lung sounds. d. Call the Rapid Response Team.

ANS: B The immediate danger for this client is aspiration. The nurse first should raise the head of the bed to reduce this risk. Asking the client to roll to the side will take too much time. The nurse can auscultate the client's lungs after raising the head of the bed. Calling the Rapid Response Team may or may not be necessary but would be done after the client is in a safer position.

36. A 25-year-old male patient calls the clinic complaining of diarrhea for 24 hours. Which action should the nurse take first? a. Inform the patient that laboratory testing of blood and stools will be necessary. b. Ask the patient to describe the character of the stools and any associated symptoms. c. Suggest that the patient drink clear liquid fluids with electrolytes, such as Gatorade or Pedialyte. d. Advise the patient to use over-the-counter loperamide (Imodium) to slow gastrointestinal (GI) motility.

ANS: B The initial response by the nurse should be further assessment of the patient. The other responses may be appropriate, depending on what is learned in the assessment.

24. The nurse will determine that teaching a 67-year-old man to irrigate his new colostomy has been effective if the patient a. inserts the irrigation tubing 4 to 6 inches into the stoma. b. hangs the irrigating container 18 inches above the stoma. c. stops the irrigation and removes the irrigating cone if cramping occurs. d. fills the irrigating container with 1000 to 2000 mL of lukewarm tap water.

ANS: B The irrigating container should be hung 18 to 24 inches above the stoma. If cramping occurs, the irrigation should be temporarily stopped and the cone left in place. Five hundred to 1000 mL of water should be used for irrigation. An irrigation cone, rather than tubing, should be inserted into the stoma; 4 to 6 inches would be too far for safe insertion.

47. A 76-year-old patient with obstipation has a fecal impaction and is incontinent of liquid stool. Which action should the nurse take first? a. Administer bulk-forming laxatives. b. Assist the patient to sit on the toilet. c. Manually remove the impacted stool. d. Increase the patient's oral fluid intake.

ANS: C The initial action with a fecal impaction is manual disimpaction. The other actions will be used to prevent future constipation and impactions.

33. A nurse is assessing a patient's stoma on postoperative day 3. The nurse notes that the stoma has a shiny appearance and a bright red color. How should the nurse best respond to this assessment finding? A) Irrigate the ostomy to clear a possible obstruction. B) Contact the primary care provider to report this finding. C) Document that the stoma appears healthy and well perfused. D) Document a nursing diagnosis of Impaired Skin Integrity.

ANS: C Feedback: A healthy, viable stoma should be shiny and pink to bright red. This finding does not indicate that the stoma is blocked or that skin integrity is compromised.

26. A patient's health history is suggestive of inflammatory bowel disease. Which of the following would suggest Crohn's disease, rather that ulcerative colitis, as the cause of the patient's signs and symptoms? A) A pattern of distinct exacerbations and remissions B) Severe diarrhea C) An absence of blood in stool D) Involvement of the rectal mucosa

ANS: C Feedback: Bloody stool is far more common in cases of UC than in Crohn's. Rectal involvement is nearly 100% in cases of UC (versus 20% in Crohn's) and patients with UC typically experience severe diarrhea. UC is also characterized by a pattern of remissions and exacerbations, while Crohn's often has a more prolonged and variable course.

11. A nurse is planning discharge teaching for a 21-year-old patient with a new diagnosis of ulcerative colitis. When planning family assessment, the nurse should recognize that which of the following factors will likely have the greatest impact on the patient's coping after discharge? A) The family's ability to take care of the patient's special diet needs B) The family's ability to monitor the patient's changing health status C) The family's ability to provide emotional support D) The family's ability to manage the patient's medication regimen

ANS: C Feedback: Emotional support from the family is key to the patient's coping after discharge. A 21-year-old would be expected to self-manage the prescribed medication regimen and the family would not be primarily responsible for monitoring the patient's health status. It is highly beneficial if the family is willing and able to accommodate the patient's dietary needs, but emotional support is paramount and cannot be solely provided by the patient alone.

21. A nurse is working with a patient who is learning to care for a continent ileostomy (Kock pouch). Following the initial period of healing, the nurse is teaching the patient how to independently empty the ileostomy. The nurse should teach the patient to do which of the following actions? A) Aim to eventually empty the pouch every 90 minutes. B) Avoid emptying the pouch until it is visibly full. C) Insert the catheter approximately 5 cm into the pouch. D) Aspirate the contents of the pouch using a 60 mL piston syringe.

ANS: C Feedback: To empty a Kock pouch, the catheter is gently inserted approximately 5 cm to the point of the valve or nipple. The length of time between drainage periods is gradually increased until the reservoir needs to be drained only every 4 to 6 hours and irrigated once each day. It is not appropriate to wait until the pouch is full, and this would not be visible. The contents of the pouch are not aspirated.

19. The nurse is providing preoperative teaching for a 61-year-old man scheduled for an abdominal-perineal resection. Which information will the nurse include? a. Another surgery in 8 to 12 weeks will be used to create an ileal-anal reservoir. b. The patient will begin sitting in a chair at the bedside on the first postoperative day. c. The patient will drink polyethylene glycol lavage solution (GoLYTELY) preoperatively. d. IV antibiotics will be started at least 24 hours before surgery to reduce the bowel bacteria.

ANS: C A bowel-cleansing agent is used to empty the bowel before surgery to reduce the risk for infection. A permanent colostomy is created with this surgery. Sitting is contraindicated after an abdominal-perineal resection. Oral antibiotics (rather than IV antibiotics) are given to reduce colonic and rectal bacteria.

4. A 26-year-old woman is being evaluated for vomiting and abdominal pain. Which question from the nurse will be most useful in determining the cause of the patient's symptoms? a. "What type of foods do you eat?" b. "Is it possible that you are pregnant?" c. "Can you tell me more about the pain?" d. "What is your usual elimination pattern?"

ANS: C A complete description of the pain provides clues about the cause of the problem. Although the nurse should ask whether the patient is pregnant to determine whether the patient might have an ectopic pregnancy and before any radiology studies are done, this information is not the most useful in determining the cause of the pain. The usual diet and elimination patterns are less helpful in determining the reason for the patient's symptoms.

Which symptom indicates a need for immediate intervention in a client with a rolling hernia? a. Reflux b. Crackles in the lungs c. Distended and firm abdomen d. Two episodes of diarrhea

ANS: C A rolling hernia causes the fundus and portions of the stomach's greater curvature to roll into the thorax next to the esophagus, predisposing the client to volvulus, obstruction, and strangulation. A firm, distended abdomen may indicate a bowel obstruction. This is a serious situation and the provider must be notified immediately. Crackles and diarrhea also warrant intervention, but not as a priority. Reports of reflux would be the lowest-level priority.

29. A 62-year-old patient has had a hemorrhoidectomy at an outpatient surgical center. Which instructions will the nurse include in discharge teaching? a. Maintain a low-residue diet until the surgical area is healed. b. Use ice packs on the perianal area to relieve pain and swelling. c. Take prescribed pain medications before a bowel movement is expected. d. Delay having a bowel movement for several days until healing has occurred.

ANS: C Bowel movements may be very painful, and patients may avoid defecation unless pain medication is taken before the bowel movement. A high-residue diet will increase stool bulk and prevent constipation. Delay of bowel movements is likely to lead to constipation. Warm sitz baths rather than ice packs are used to relieve pain and keep the surgical area clean.

40. Which activity in the care of a 48-year-old female patient with a new colostomy could the nurse delegate to unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP)? a. Document the appearance of the stoma. b. Place a pouching system over the ostomy. c. Drain and measure the output from the ostomy. d. Check the skin around the stoma for breakdown.

ANS: C Draining and measuring the output from the ostomy is included in UAP education and scope of practice. The other actions should be implemented by LPNs or RNs.

13. Which diet choice by the patient with an acute exacerbation of inflammatory bowel disease (IBD) indicates a need for more teaching? a. Scrambled eggs b. White toast and jam c. Oatmeal with cream d. Pancakes with syrup

ANS: C During acute exacerbations of IBD, the patient should avoid high-fiber foods such as whole grains. High-fat foods also may cause diarrhea in some patients. The other choices are low residue and would be appropriate for this patient.

A client is admitted to the cardiac monitoring unit for a suspected myocardial infarction. The client reports long-standing nighttime reflux, and the health care provider orders nizatidine (Axid) 150 mg twice a day. Which action by the nurse is most appropriate? a. Consult with the health care provider because the dose is too high. b. Check the client's kidney function tests before administering the drug. c. Ask the pharmacist to recommend another histamine receptor agonist. d. Give the medication as ordered and monitor for effectiveness.

ANS: C Nizatidine, a histamine receptor agonist, can cause dysrhythmias. Because the client has a heart condition that may cause rhythm problems, the nurse should consult with the pharmacist for another drug in the same class to recommend to the provider. The dose is appropriate. Kidney function does not need to be monitored while on this drug. The nurse should monitor all drugs given for effectiveness, but this drug should not be given as prescribed.

A client with esophageal reflux who experiences regurgitation while lying flat is at risk for which complication? a. Erosion b. Bleeding c. Aspiration d. Odynophagia

ANS: C Regurgitation of stomach contents while the client is recumbent poses a risk of aspiration for the client.

38. Four hours after a bowel resection, a 74-year-old male patient with a nasogastric tube to suction complains of nausea and abdominal distention. The first action by the nurse should be to a. auscultate for hypotonic bowel sounds. b. notify the patient's health care provider. c. reposition the tube and check for placement. d. remove the tube and replace it with a new one.

ANS: C Repositioning the tube will frequently facilitate drainage. Because this is a common occurrence, it is not appropriate to notify the health care provider unless other interventions do not resolve the problem. Information about the presence or absence of bowel sounds will not be helpful in improving drainage. Removing the tube and replacing it are unnecessarily traumatic to the patient, so that would only be done if the tube was completely occluded.

39. A 19-year-old female is brought to the emergency department with a knife handle protruding from the abdomen. During the initial assessment of the patient, the nurse should a. remove the knife and assess the wound. b. determine the presence of Rovsing sign. c. check for circulation and tissue perfusion. d. insert a urinary catheter and assess for hematuria.

ANS: C The initial assessment is focused on determining whether the patient has hypovolemic shock. The knife should not be removed until the patient is in surgery, where bleeding can be controlled. Rovsing sign is assessed in the patient with suspected appendicitis. A patient with a knife in place will be taken to surgery and assessed for bladder trauma there.

A client is undergoing diagnostic testing for gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD). Which test does the nurse tell the client is best for diagnosing this condition? a. Endoscopy b. Schilling test c. 24-Hour ambulatory pH monitoring d. Stool testing for occult blood

ANS: C The most accurate method of diagnosing gastroesophageal reflux disease is 24-hour ambulatory pH monitoring.

49. A 72-year-old male patient with dehydration caused by an exacerbation of ulcerative colitis is receiving 5% dextrose in normal saline at 125 mL/hour. Which assessment finding by the nurse is most important to report to the health care provider? a. Patient has not voided for the last 4 hours. b. Skin is dry with poor turgor on all extremities. c. Crackles are heard halfway up the posterior chest. d. Patient has had 5 loose stools over the last 6 hours.

ANS: C The presence of crackles in an older patient receiving IV fluids at a high rate suggests volume overload and a need to reduce the rate of the IV infusion. The other data will also be reported, but are consistent with the patient's age and diagnosis and do not require a change in the prescribed treatment.

12. A 22-year-old female patient with an exacerbation of ulcerative colitis is having 15 to 20 stools daily and has excoriated perianal skin. Which patient behavior indicates that teaching regarding maintenance of skin integrity has been effective? a. The patient uses incontinence briefs to contain loose stools. b. The patient asks for antidiarrheal medication after each stool. c. The patient uses witch hazel compresses to decrease irritation. d. The patient cleans the perianal area with soap after each stool.

ANS: C Witch hazel compresses are suggested to reduce anal irritation and discomfort. Incontinence briefs may trap diarrhea and increase the incidence of skin breakdown. Antidiarrheal medications are not given 15 to 20 times a day. The perianal area should be washed with plain water after each stool.

31. The nurse will plan to teach a patient with Crohn's disease who has megaloblastic anemia about the need for a. oral ferrous sulfate tablets. b. regular blood transfusions. c. iron dextran (Imferon) infusions. d. cobalamin (B12) spray or injections.

ANS: D Crohn's disease frequently affects the ileum, where absorption of cobalamin occurs. Cobalamin must be administered regularly by nasal spray or IM to correct the anemia. Iron deficiency does not cause megaloblastic anemia. The patient may need occasional transfusions but not regularly scheduled transfusions.

A 49-year-old man has been admitted with hypotension and dehydration after 3 days of nausea and vomiting. Which order from the health care provider will the nurse implement first? a. Insert a nasogastric (NG) tube. b. Infuse normal saline at 250 mL/hr. c. Administer IV ondansetron (Zofran). d. Provide oral care with moistened swabs.

B. Infuse normal saline at 250 mL/hr Because the patient has severe dehydration, rehydration with IV fluids is the priority. The other orders should be accomplished as quickly as possible after the IV fluids are initiated.

A client who has undergone Nissen fundoplication for gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) is ready for discharge home. Which statement made by the client indicates understanding of the disease? a. "I will no longer need any medication for my GERD." b. "I will avoid spicy foods because they can irritate the suture line." c. "I should take anti-reflux medications when I eat a large meal." d. "I will need to continue to watch my diet and may still need medication."

ANS: D A high percentage of recurrence of reflux has been noted after this type of surgery, so clients are encouraged to continue anti-reflux regimens of medication and diet control. These include taking medications, eating small meals, and avoiding spicy or acidic foods.

Which client does the nurse assess most carefully for the development of gastroesophageal reflux disease? a. Client with atrial fibrillation who drinks decaffeinated coffee b. Client who has lost 20 pounds through diet and exercise c. Diabetic client taking oral hypoglycemic agents d. Postoperative client who has a nasogastric (NG) tube

ANS: D A nasogastric tube keeps the cardiac sphincter open, allowing acidic contents from the stomach to enter the esophagus. The other clients do not have increased risk for gastroesophageal reflux.

27. A 42-year-old male patient has had a herniorrhaphy to repair an incarcerated inguinal hernia. Which patient teaching will the nurse provide before discharge? a. Soak in sitz baths several times each day. b. Cough 5 times each hour for the next 48 hours. c. Avoid use of acetaminophen (Tylenol) for pain. d. Apply a scrotal support and ice to reduce swelling.

ANS: D A scrotal support and ice are used to reduce edema and pain. Coughing will increase pressure on the incision. Sitz baths will not relieve pain and would not be of use after this surgery. Acetaminophen can be used for postoperative pain.

17. A 73-year-old patient with diverticulosis has a large bowel obstruction. The nurse will monitor for a. referred back pain. b. metabolic alkalosis. c. projectile vomiting. d. abdominal distention.

ANS: D Abdominal distention is seen in lower intestinal obstruction. Referred back pain is not a common clinical manifestation of intestinal obstruction. Metabolic alkalosis is common in high intestinal obstruction because of the loss of HCl acid from vomiting. Projectile vomiting is associated with higher intestinal obstruction.

28. Which breakfast choice indicates a patient's good understanding of information about a diet for celiac disease? a. Oatmeal with nonfat milk b. Whole wheat toast with butter c. Bagel with low-fat cream cheese d. Corn tortilla with scrambled eggs

ANS: D Avoidance of gluten-containing foods is the only treatment for celiac disease. Corn does not contain gluten, while oatmeal and wheat do.

34. Which question from the nurse would help determine if a patient's abdominal pain might indicate irritable bowel syndrome? a. "Have you been passing a lot of gas?" b. "What foods affect your bowel patterns?" c. "Do you have any abdominal distention?" d. "How long have you had abdominal pain?"

ANS: D One criterion for the diagnosis of irritable bowel syndrome (IBS) is the presence of abdominal discomfort or pain for at least 3 months. Abdominal distention, flatulence, and food intolerance are also associated with IBS, but are not diagnostic criteria.

The health care provider is prescribing medication to treat a client's severe gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD). Which medication does the nurse anticipate teaching the client about? a. Magnesium hydroxide (Gaviscon) b. Ranitidine (Zantac) c. Nizatidine (Axid) d. Omeprazole (Prilosec)

ANS: D Proton pump inhibitors such as omeprazole are the main treatment for more severe cases of GERD. Gaviscon, Axid, and Zantac can be used to treat less severe cases.

What is the pH range of the distal esophagus? a. 1.5 to 2.0 b. 3.0 to 4.5 c. 4.5 to 6.0 d. 6.0 to 7.0

ANS: D The pH of the lower esophagus is neutral (normal).

44. Which patient should the nurse assess first after receiving change-of-shift report? a. 60-year-old patient whose new ileostomy has drained 800 mL over the previous 8 hours b. 50-year-old patient with familial adenomatous polyposis who has occult blood in the stool c. 40-year-old patient with ulcerative colitis who has had six liquid stools in the previous 4 hours d. 30-year-old patient who has abdominal distention and an apical heart rate of 136 beats/minute

ANS: D The patient's abdominal distention and tachycardia suggest hypovolemic shock caused by problems such as peritonitis or intestinal obstruction, which will require rapid intervention. The other patients should also be assessed as quickly as possible, but the data do not indicate any life-threatening complications associated with their diagnoses.

7. A 27-year-old female patient is admitted to the hospital for evaluation of right lower quadrant abdominal pain with nausea and vomiting. Which action should the nurse take? a. Encourage the patient to sip clear liquids. b. Assess the abdomen for rebound tenderness. c. Assist the patient to cough and deep breathe. d. Apply an ice pack to the right lower quadrant.

ANS: D The patient's clinical manifestations are consistent with appendicitis, and application of an ice pack will decrease inflammation at the area. Checking for rebound tenderness frequently is unnecessary and uncomfortable for the patient. The patient should be NPO in case immediate surgery is needed. The patient will need to know how to cough and deep breathe postoperatively, but coughing will increase pain at this time.

37. A 45-year-old patient is admitted to the emergency department with severe abdominal pain and rebound tenderness. Vital signs include temperature 102° F (38.3° C), pulse 120, respirations 32, and blood pressure (BP) 82/54. Which prescribed intervention should the nurse implement first? a. Administer IV ketorolac (Toradol) 15 mg. b. Draw blood for a complete blood count (CBC). c. Obtain a computed tomography (CT) scan of the abdomen. d. Infuse 1 liter of lactated Ringer's solution over 30 minutes.

ANS: D The priority for this patient is to treat the patient's hypovolemic shock with fluid infusion. The other actions should be implemented after starting the fluid infusion.

22. A 47-year-old female patient is transferred from the recovery room to a surgical unit after a transverse colostomy. The nurse observes the stoma to be deep pink with edema and a small amount of sanguineous drainage. The nurse should a. place ice packs around the stoma. b. notify the surgeon about the stoma. c. monitor the stoma every 30 minutes. d. document stoma assessment findings.

ANS: D The stoma appearance indicates good circulation to the stoma. There is no indication that surgical intervention is needed or that frequent stoma monitoring is required. Swelling of the stoma is normal for 2 to 3 weeks after surgery, and an ice pack is not needed.

Which information will the nurse include for a patient with newly diagnosed gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD)? a. "Peppermint tea may reduce your symptoms." b. "Keep the head of your bed elevated on blocks." c. "You should avoid eating between meals to reduce acid secretion." d. "Vigorous physical activities may increase the incidence of reflux."

B. "Keep the head of your bed elevated on blocks" Elevating the head of the bed will reduce the incidence of reflux while the patient is sleeping. Peppermint will decrease lower esophageal sphincter (LES) pressure and increase the chance for reflux. Small, frequent meals are recommended to avoid abdominal distention. There is no need to make changes in physical activities because of GERD.

Which item should the nurse offer to the patient who is to restart oral intake after being NPO due to nausea and vomiting? a. Glass of orange juice b. Dish of lemon gelatin c. Cup of coffee with cream d. Bowl of hot chicken broth

B. dish of lemon gelatin Clear cool liquids are usually the first foods started after a patient has been nauseated. Acidic foods such as orange juice, very hot foods, and coffee are poorly tolerated when patients have been nauseated.

Which nursing action should be included in the postoperative plan of care for a patient after a laparoscopic esophagectomy? a. Notify the doctor about bloody nasogastric (NG) drainage. b. Elevate the head of the bed to at least 30 degrees. c. Reposition the NG tube if drainage stops. d. Start oral fluids when the patient has active bowel sounds.

B. elevate the bed to at least 30 degrees Elevation of the head of the bed decreases the risk for reflux and aspiration of gastric secretions. The NG tube should not be repositioned without consulting with the health care provider. Bloody NG drainage is expected for the first 8 to 12 hours. A swallowing study is needed before oral fluids are started.

A 68-year-old patient with a bleeding duodenal ulcer has a nasogastric (NG) tube in place, and the health care provider orders 30 mL of aluminum hydroxide/magnesium hydroxide (Maalox) to be instilled through the tube every hour. To evaluate the effectiveness of this treatment, the nurse a. monitors arterial blood gas values daily. b. periodically aspirates and tests gastric pH. c. checks each stool for the presence of occult blood. d. measures the volume of residual stomach contents.

B. periodically aspirates and tests gastric pH The purpose for antacids is to increase gastric pH. Checking gastric pH is the most direct way of evaluating the effectiveness of the medication. Arterial blood gases may change slightly, but this does not directly reflect the effect of antacids on gastric pH. Because the patient has upper gastrointestinal (GI) bleeding, occult blood in the stools will appear even after the acute bleeding has stopped. The amount of residual stomach contents is not a reflection of resolution of bleeding or of gastric pH.

A 26-year-old patient with a family history of stomach cancer asks the nurse about ways to decrease the risk for developing stomach cancer. The nurse will teach the patient to avoid a. emotionally stressful situations. b. smoked foods such as ham and bacon. c. foods that cause distention or bloating. d. chronic use of H2 blocking medications.

B. smoked foods such as ham and bacon Smoked foods such as bacon, ham, and smoked sausage increase the risk for stomach cancer. Stressful situations, abdominal distention, and use of H2 blockers are not associated with an increased incidence of stomach cancer.

The nurse is administering IV fluid boluses and nasogastric irrigation to a patient with acute gastrointestinal (GI) bleeding. Which assessment finding is most important for the nurse to communicate to the health care provider? a. The bowel sounds are hyperactive in all four quadrants. b. The patient's lungs have crackles audible to the midchest. c. The nasogastric (NG) suction is returning coffee-ground material. d. The patient's blood pressure (BP) has increased to 142/84 mm Hg.

B. the patient's lungs have crackles audible to the mid chest The patient's lung sounds indicate that pulmonary edema may be developing as a result of the rapid infusion of IV fluid and that the fluid infusion rate should be slowed. The return of coffee-ground material in an NG tube is expected for a patient with upper GI bleeding. The BP is slightly elevated but would not be an indication to contact the health care provider immediately. Hyperactive bowel sounds are common when a patient has GI bleeding.

A 46-year-old female with gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) is experiencing increasing discomfort. Which patient statement indicates that additional teaching about GERD is needed? a. "I take antacids between meals and at bedtime each night." b. "I sleep with the head of the bed elevated on 4-inch blocks." c. "I eat small meals during the day and have a bedtime snack." d. "I quit smoking several years ago, but I still chew a lot of gum."

C. "I eat small meals during the day and have a bedtime snack" GERD is exacerbated by eating late at night, and the nurse should plan to teach the patient to avoid eating at bedtime. The other patient actions are appropriate to control symptoms of GERD.

Which patient should the nurse assess first after receiving change-of-shift report? a. A patient with nausea who has a dose of metoclopramide (Reglan) due b. A patient who is crying after receiving a diagnosis of esophageal cancer c. A patient with esophageal varices who has a blood pressure of 92/58 mm Hg d. A patient admitted yesterday with gastrointestinal (GI) bleeding who has melena

C. A patient with esophageal varices who has a blood pressure of 92/58 mm Hg. The patient's history and blood pressure indicate possible hemodynamic instability caused by GI bleeding. The data about the other patients do not indicate acutely life-threatening complications.

A 58-year-old patient has just been admitted to the emergency department with nausea and vomiting. Which information requires the most rapid intervention by the nurse? a. The patient has been vomiting for 4 days. b. The patient takes antacids 8 to 10 times a day. c. The patient is lethargic and difficult to arouse. d. The patient has undergone a small intestinal resection.

C. The patient is lethargic and difficult to arouse A lethargic patient is at risk for aspiration, and the nurse will need to position the patient to decrease aspiration risk. The other information is also important to collect, but it does not require as quick action as the risk for aspiration.

A 53-year-old male patient with deep partial-thickness burns from a chemical spill in the workplace experiences severe pain followed by nausea during dressing changes. Which action will be most useful in decreasing the patient's nausea? a. Keep the patient NPO for 2 hours before and after dressing changes. b. Avoid performing dressing changes close to the patient's mealtimes. c. Administer the prescribed morphine sulfate before dressing changes. d. Give the ordered prochlorperazine (Compazine) before dressing changes.

C. Administer the prescribed morphine sulfate before dressing changes Because the patient's nausea is associated with severe pain, it is likely that it is precipitated by stress and pain. The best treatment will be to provide adequate pain medication before dressing changes. The nurse should avoid doing painful procedures close to mealtimes, but nausea/vomiting that occur at other times also should be addressed. Keeping the patient NPO does not address the reason for the nausea and vomiting and will have an adverse effect on the patient's nutrition. Administration of antiemetics is not the best choice for a patient with nausea caused by pain.

The nurse is assessing a patient who had a total gastrectomy 8 hours ago. What information is most important to report to the health care provider? a. Absent bowel sounds b. Complaints of incisional pain c. Temperature 102.1° F (38.9° C) d. Scant nasogastric (NG) tube drainage

C. Temperature 102.1° F (38.9° C) An elevation in temperature may indicate leakage at the anastomosis, which may require return to surgery or keeping the patient NPO. The other findings are expected in the immediate postoperative period for patients who have this surgery.

Which order from the health care provider will the nurse implement first for a patient who has vomited 1200 mL of blood? a. Give an IV H2 receptor antagonist. b. Draw blood for typing and crossmatching. c. Administer 1000 mL of lactated Ringer's solution. d. Insert a nasogastric (NG) tube and connect to suction.

C. administer 1000 mL of lactated Ringers solution Because the patient has vomited a large amount of blood, correction of hypovolemia and prevention of hypovolemic shock are the priorities. The other actions also are important to implement quickly but are not the highest priorities.

A 38-year old woman receiving chemotherapy for breast cancer develops a Candida albicans oral infection. The nurse will anticipate the need for a. hydrogen peroxide rinses. b. the use of antiviral agents. c. administration of nystatin (Mycostatin) tablets. d. referral to a dentist for professional tooth cleaning.

C. administration of nystatin (Mycostatin) tablets Candida albicans is treated with an antifungal such as nystatin. Oral saltwater rinses may be used but will not cure the infection. Antiviral agents are used for viral infections such as herpes simplex. Referral to a dentist is indicated for gingivitis but not for Candida infection.

A 26-year-old woman has been admitted to the emergency department with nausea and vomiting. Which action could the RN delegate to unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP)? a. Auscultate the bowel sounds. b. Assess for signs of dehydration. c. Assist the patient with oral care. d. Ask the patient about the nausea.

C. assist the patient with oral care Oral care is included in UAP education and scope of practice. The other actions are all assessments that require more education and a higher scope of nursing practice.

A 68-year-old male patient with a stroke is unconscious and unresponsive to stimuli. After learning that the patient has a history of gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD), the nurse will plan to do frequent assessments of the patient's a. apical pulse. b. bowel sounds. c. breath sounds. d. abdominal girth.

C. breath sounds Because GERD may cause aspiration, the unconscious patient is at risk for developing aspiration pneumonia. Bowel sounds, abdominal girth, and apical pulse will not be affected by the patient's stroke or GERD and do not require more frequent monitoring than the routine.

Which patient choice for a snack 2 hours before bedtime indicates that the nurse's teaching about gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) has been effective? a. Chocolate pudding b. Glass of low-fat milk c. Cherry gelatin with fruit d. Peanut butter and jelly sandwich

C. cherry gelatin with fruit Gelatin and fruit are low fat and will not decrease lower esophageal sphincter (LES) pressure. Foods such as chocolate are avoided because they lower LES pressure. Milk products increase gastric acid secretion. High-fat foods such as peanut butter decrease both gastric emptying and LES pressure.

At his first postoperative checkup appointment after a gastrojejunostomy (Billroth II), a patient reports that dizziness, weakness, and palpitations occur about 20 minutes after each meal. The nurse will teach the patient to a. increase the amount of fluid with meals. b. eat foods that are higher in carbohydrates. c. lie down for about 30 minutes after eating. d. drink sugared fluids or eat candy after meals.

C. lie down for about 30 minutes after eating The patient is experiencing symptoms of dumping syndrome, which may be reduced by lying down after eating. Increasing fluid intake and choosing high carbohydrate foods will increase the risk for dumping syndrome. Having a sweet drink or hard candy will correct the hypoglycemia that is associated with dumping syndrome but will not prevent dumping syndrome.

After the nurse has completed teaching a patient with newly diagnosed eosinophilic esophagitis about the management of the disease, which patient action indicates that the teaching has been effective? a. Patient orders nonfat milk for each meal. b. Patient uses the prescribed corticosteroid inhaler. c. Patient schedules an appointment for allergy testing. d. Patient takes ibuprofen (Advil) to control throat pain.

C. patient schedules an appointment for allergy testing Eosinophilic esophagitis is frequently associated with environmental allergens, so allergy testing is used to determine possible triggers. Corticosteroid therapy may be prescribed, but the medication will be swallowed, not inhaled. Milk is a frequent trigger for attacks. NSAIDs are not used for eosinophilic esophagitis.

A patient returned from a laparoscopic Nissen fundoplication for hiatal hernia 4 hours ago. Which assessment finding is most important for the nurse to address immediately? a. The patient is experiencing intermittent waves of nausea. b. The patient complains of 7/10 (0 to 10 scale) abdominal pain. c. The patient has absent breath sounds in the left anterior chest. d. The patient has hypoactive bowel sounds in all four quadrants.

C. the patient has absent breath sounds in the left anterior chest Decreased breath sounds on one side may indicate a pneumothorax, which requires rapid diagnosis and treatment. The nausea and abdominal pain should also be addressed but they are not as high priority as the patient's respiratory status. The patient's decreased bowel sounds are expected after surgery and require ongoing monitoring but no other action.

In which order will the nurse take the following actions when caring for a patient who develops watery diarrhea and a fever after prolonged omeprazole (Prilosec) therapy? (Put a comma and a space between each answer choice [A, B, C, D].) a. Contact the health care provider. b. Assess blood pressure and heart rate. c. Give the PRN acetaminophen (Tylenol). d. Place the patient on contact precautions.

D B A C D. place the patient on contact precautions B. assess blood pressure and heart rate A. contact the health care provider C. give the PRN acetaminophen (Tylenol) Proton pump inhibitors including omeprazole (Prilosec) may increase the risk of Clostridium difficile-associated colitis. Because the patient's history and symptoms are consistent with C. difficile infection, the initial action should be initiation of infection control measures to protect other patients. Assessment of blood pressure and pulse is needed to determine whether the patient has symptoms of hypovolemia and/or shock. The health care provider should be notified so that actions such as obtaining stool specimens and antibiotic therapy can be started. Tylenol may be administered, but is the lowest priority of the actions.

A 62-year-old man patient who requires daily use of a nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drug (NSAID) for the management of severe rheumatoid arthritis has recently developed melena. The nurse will anticipate teaching the patient about a. substitution of acetaminophen (Tylenol) for the NSAID. b. use of enteric-coated NSAIDs to reduce gastric irritation. c. reasons for using corticosteroids to treat the rheumatoid arthritis. d. misoprostol (Cytotec) to protect the gastrointestinal (GI) mucosa.

D. misoprostol (Cytotec) to protect the gastrointestinal (GI) mucosa Misoprostol, a prostaglandin analog, reduces acid secretion and the incidence of upper GI bleeding associated with NSAID use. Enteric coating of NSAIDs does not reduce the risk for GI bleeding. Corticosteroids increase the risk for ulcer development, and will not be substituted for NSAIDs for this patient. Acetaminophen will not be effective in treating the patient's rheumatoid arthritis.

A 73-year-old patient is diagnosed with stomach cancer after an unintended 20-pound weight loss. Which nursing action will be included in the plan of care? a. Refer the patient for hospice services. b. Infuse IV fluids through a central line. c. Teach the patient about antiemetic therapy. d. Offer supplemental feedings between meals.

D. offer supplemental feedings between meals The patient data indicate a poor nutritional state and improvement in nutrition will be helpful in improving the response to therapies such as surgery, chemotherapy, or radiation. Nausea and vomiting are not common clinical manifestations of stomach cancer. There is no indication that the patient requires hospice or IV fluid infusions.

The nurse will anticipate teaching a patient experiencing frequent heartburn about a. a barium swallow. b. radionuclide tests. c. endoscopy procedures. d. proton pump inhibitors.

D. proton pump inhibitors Because diagnostic testing for heartburn that is probably caused by gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) is expensive and uncomfortable, proton pump inhibitors are frequently used for a short period as the first step in the diagnosis of GERD. The other tests may be used but are not usually the first step in diagnosis.

Which assessment should the nurse perform first for a patient who just vomited bright red blood? a. Measuring the quantity of emesis b. Palpating the abdomen for distention c. Auscultating the chest for breath sounds d. Taking the blood pressure (BP) and pulse

D. taking the blood pressure (BP) and pulse The nurse is concerned about blood loss and possible hypovolemic shock in a patient with acute gastrointestinal (GI) bleeding. BP and pulse are the best indicators of these complications. The other information is important to obtain, but BP and pulse rate are the best indicators for assessing intravascular volume.

When a 72-year-old patient is diagnosed with achalasia, the nurse will teach the patient that a. lying down after meals is recommended. b. a liquid or blenderized diet will be necessary. c. drinking fluids with meals should be avoided. d. treatment may include endoscopic procedures.

D. treatment may include endoscopic procedures Endoscopic and laparoscopic procedures are the most effective therapy for improving symptoms caused by achalasia. Keeping the head elevated after eating will improve esophageal emptying. A semisoft diet is recommended to improve esophageal emptying. Patients are advised to drink fluid with meals.

The nurse explaining esomeprazole (Nexium) to a patient with recurring heartburn describes that the medication a. reduces gastroesophageal reflux by increasing the rate of gastric emptying. b. neutralizes stomach acid and provides relief of symptoms in a few minutes. c. coats and protects the lining of the stomach and esophagus from gastric acid. d. treats gastroesophageal reflux disease by decreasing stomach acid production.

D. treats gastoresophageal reflux disease by decreasing stomach acid production The proton pump inhibitors decrease the rate of gastric acid secretion. Promotility drugs such as metoclopramide (Reglan) increase the rate of gastric emptying. Cryoprotective medications such as sucralfate (Carafate) protect the stomach. Antacids neutralize stomach acid and work rapidly.