Exam 1: CH 13, 44, 33, 34

A patient comes to the clinic complaining of fatigue and the health interview is suggestive of pica. Laboratory findings reveal a low serum iron level and a low ferritin level. With what would the nurse suspect that the patient will be diagnosed? A) Iron deficiency anemia B) Pernicious anemia C) Sickle cell anemia D) Hemolytic anemia

A A low serum iron level, a low ferritin level, and symptoms of pica are associated with iron deficiency anemia. TIBC may also be elevated. None of the other anemias are associated with pica.

A nurse is admitting a patient to the postsurgical unit following a gastrostomy. When planning assessments, the nurse should be aware of what potential postoperative complication of a gastrostomy? A) Premature removal of the G tube B) Bowel perforation C) Constipation D) Development of peptic ulcer disease (PUD)

A A significant postoperative complication of a gastrostomy is premature removal of the G tube. Constipation is a less immediate threat and bowel perforation and PUD are not noted to be likely complications.

A nurse is caring for a patient who has an order to discontinue the administration of parenteral nutrition. What should the nurse do to prevent the occurrence of rebound hypoglycemia in the patient? A) Administer an isotonic dextrose solution for 1 to 2 hours after discontinuing the PN. B) Administer a hypertonic dextrose solution for 1 to 2 hours after discontinuing the PN. C) Administer 3 ampules of dextrose 50% immediately prior to discontinuing the PN. D) Administer 3 ampules of dextrose 50% 1 hour after discontinuing the PN.

A After administration of the PN solution is gradually discontinued, an isotonic dextrose solution is administered for 1 to 2 hours to protect against rebound hypoglycemia. The other listed actions would likely cause hyperglycemia.

A nurse is caring for a patient with severe anemia. The patient is tachycardic and complains of dizziness and exertional dyspnea. The nurse knows that in an effort to deliver more blood to hypoxic tissue, the workload on the heart is increased. What signs and symptoms might develop if this patient goes into heart failure? A) Peripheral edema B) Nausea and vomiting C) Migraine D) Fever

A Cardiac status should be carefully assessed in patients with anemia. When the hemoglobin level is low, the heart attempts to compensate by pumping faster and harder in an effort to deliver more blood to hypoxic tissue. This increased cardiac workload can result in such symptoms as tachycardia, palpitations, dyspnea, dizziness, orthopnea, and exertional dyspnea. Heart failure may eventually develop, as evidenced by an enlarged heart (cardiomegaly) and liver (hepatomegaly), and by peripheral edema. Nausea, migraine, and fever are not associated with heart failure.

A patient with a recent diagnosis of ITP has asked the nurse why the care team has not chosen to administer platelets, stating, I have low platelets, so why not give me a transfusion of exactly what Im missing? How should the nurse best respond? A) Transfused platelets usually arent beneficial because theyre rapidly destroyed in the body. B) A platelet transfusion often blunts your bodys own production of platelets even further. C) Finding a matching donor for a platelet transfusion is exceedingly difficult. D) A very small percentage of the platelets in a transfusion are actually functional.

A Despite extremely low platelet counts, platelet transfusions are usually avoided. Transfusions tend to be ineffective not because the platelets are nonfunctional but because the patients antiplatelet antibodies bind with the transfused platelets, causing them to be destroyed. Matching the patients blood type is not usually necessary for a platelet transfusion. Platelet transfusions do not exacerbate low platelet production.

The nurse is providing care for a patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. When describing the process of respiration the nurse explains how oxygen and carbon dioxide are exchanged between the pulmonary capillaries and the alveoli. The nurse is describing what process? A) Diffusion B) Osmosis C) Active transport D) Filtration

A Diffusion is the natural tendency of a substance to move from an area of higher concentration to one of lower concentration. It occurs through the random movement of ions and molecules. Examples of diffusion are the exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide between the pulmonary capillaries and alveoli and the tendency of sodium to move from the ECF compartment, where the sodium concentration is high, to the ICF, where its concentration is low. Osmosis occurs when two different solutions are separated by a membrane that is impermeable to the dissolved substances; fluid shifts through the membrane from the region of low solute concentration to the region of high solute concentration until the solutions are of equal concentration. Active transport implies that energy must be expended for the movement to occur against a concentration gradient. Movement of water and solutes occurring from an area of high hydrostatic pressure to an area of low hydrostatic pressure is filtration.

A patients new onset of dysphagia has required insertion of an NG tube for feeding; the nurse has modified the patients care plan accordingly. What intervention should the nurse include in the patients plan of care? A) Confirm placement of the tube prior to each medication administration. B) Have the patient sip cool water to stimulate saliva production. C) Keep the patient in a low Fowlers position when at rest. D) Connect the tube to continuous wall suction when not in use.

A Each time liquids or medications are administered, and once a shift for continuous feedings, the tube must be checked to ensure that it remains properly placed. If the NG tube is used for decompression, it is attached to intermittent low suction. During the placement of a nasogastric tube the patient should be positioned in a Fowlers position. Oral fluid administration is contraindicated by the patients dysphagia.

A patients health decline necessitates the use of total parenteral nutrition. The patient has questioned the need for insertion of a central venous catheter, expressing a preference for a normal IV. The nurse should know that peripheral administration of high-concentration PN formulas is contraindicated because of the risk for what complication? A) Chemical phlebitis B) Hyperglycemia C) Dumping syndrome D) Line sepsis

A Formulations with dextrose concentrations of more than 10% should not be administered through peripheral veins because they irritate the intima (innermost walls) of small veins, causing chemical phlebitis. Hyperglycemia and line sepsis are risks with both peripheral and central administration of PN. PN is not associated with dumping syndrome.

The ICU nurse is caring for a patient who experienced trauma in a workplace accident. The patient is complaining of having trouble breathing with abdominal pain. An ABG reveals the following results: pH 7.28, PaCO2 50 mm Hg, HCO3 23 mEq/L. The nurse should recognize the likelihood of what acidbase disorder? A) Respiratory acidosis B) Metabolic alkalosis C) Respiratory alkalosis D) Mixed acidbase disorder

A Galen values: pH: 7.35 - 7.45 PaCO2: 35 - 45 HCO3: 22 - 28 therefore this patient would be experiencing respiratory acidosis with no compensatory mechanism.

The nurse is caring for a patient in metabolic alkalosis. The patient has an NG tube to low intermittent suction for a diagnosis of bowel obstruction. What drug would the nurse expect to find on the medication orders? A) Cimetidine B) Maalox C) Potassium chloride elixir D) Furosemide

A H2 receptor antagonists, such as cimetidine (Tagamet), reduce the production of gastric HCl, thereby decreasing the metabolic alkalosis associated with gastric suction. Maalox is an oral simethicone used to break up gas in the GI system and would be of no benefit in treating a patient in metabolic alkalosis. KCl would only be given if the patient were hypokalemic, which is not stated in the scenario. Furosemide (Lasix) would only be given if the patient were fluid overloaded, which is not stated in the scenario.

A patient has questioned the nurses administration of IV normal saline, asking whether sterile water would be a more appropriate choice than saltwater. Under what circumstances would the nurse administer electrolyte-free water intravenously? A) Never, because it rapidly enters red blood cells, causing them to rupture. B) When the patient is severely dehydrated resulting in neurologic signs and symptoms C) When the patient is in excess of calcium and/or magnesium ions D) When a patients fluid volume deficit is due to acute or chronic renal failure

A IV solutions contain dextrose or electrolytes mixed in various proportions with water. Pure, electrolyte- free water can never be administered by IV because it rapidly enters red blood cells and causes them to rupture.

You are the nurse evaluating a newly admitted patients laboratory results, which include several values that are outside of reference ranges. Which of the following would cause the release of antidiuretic hormone (ADH)? A) Increased serum sodium B) Decreased serum potassium C) Decreased hemoglobin D) Increased platelets

A Increased serum sodium causes increased thirst and the release of ADH by the posterior pituitary gland. When serum osmolality decreases and thirst and ADH secretions are suppressed, the kidney excretes more water to restore normal osmolality. Levels of potassium, hemoglobin, and platelets do not directly affect ADH release.

A nurse is preparing to administer a patients intravenous fat emulsion simultaneously with parenteral nutrition (PN). Which of the following principles should guide the nurses action? A) Intravenous fat emulsions may be infused simultaneously with PN through a Y-connector close to the infusion site and should not be filtered. B) The nurse should prepare for placement of another intravenous line, as intravenous fat emulsions may not be infused simultaneously through the line used for PN. C) Intravenous fat emulsions may be infused simultaneously with PN through a Y-connector close to the infusion site after running the emulsion through a filter. D) The intravenous fat emulsions can be piggy-backed into any existing IV solution that is infusing.

A Intravenous fat emulsions may be infused simultaneously with PN through a Y-connector close to the infusion site and should not be filtered. The patient does not need another intravenous line for the fat emulsion. The IVFE cannot be piggy-backed into any existing IV solution that is infusing

You are the nurse caring for a patient who is to receive IV daunorubicin, a chemotherapeutic agent. You start the infusion and check the insertion site as per protocol. During your most recent check, you note that the IV has infiltrated so you stop the infusion. What is your main concern with this infiltration? A) Extravasation of the medication B) Discomfort to the patient C) Blanching at the site D) Hypersensitivity reaction to the medication

A Irritating medications, such as chemotherapeutic agents, can cause pain, burning, and redness at the site. Blistering, inflammation, and necrosis of tissues can occur. The extent of tissue damage is determined by the medication concentration, the quantity that extravasated, infusion site location, the tissue response, and the extravasation duration. Extravasation is the priority over the other listed consequences.

You are the nurse caring for a 77-year-old male patient who has been involved in a motor vehicle accident. You and your colleague note that the patients labs indicate minimally elevated serum creatinine levels, which your colleague dismisses. What can this increase in creatinine indicate in older adults? A) Substantially reduced renal function B) Acute kidney injury C) Decreased cardiac output D) Alterations in ratio of body fluids to muscle mass

A Normal physiologic changes of aging, including reduced cardiac, renal, and respiratory function, and reserve and alterations in the ratio of body fluids to muscle mass, may alter the responses of elderly people to fluid and electrolyte changes and acidbase disturbances. Renal function declines with age, as do muscle mass and daily exogenous creatinine production. Therefore, high-normal and minimally elevated serum creatinine values may indicate substantially reduced renal function in older adults. Acute kidney injury is likely to cause a more significant increase in serum creatinine.

A patient with a history of cirrhosis is admitted to the ICU with a diagnosis of bleeding esophageal varices; an attempt to stop the bleeding has been only partially successful. What would the critical care nurse expect the care team to order for this patient? A) Packed red blood cells (PRBCs) B) Vitamin K C) Oral anticoagulants D) Heparin infusion

A Patients with liver dysfunction may have life-threatening hemorrhage from peptic ulcers or esophageal varices. In these cases, replacement with fresh frozen plasma, PRBCs, and platelets is usually required. Vitamin K may be ordered once the bleeding is stopped, but that is not what is needed to stop the bleeding of the varices. Anticoagulants would exacerbate the patients bleeding.

A patients absolute neutrophil count (ANC) is 440/mm3. But the nurses assessment reveals no apparent signs or symptoms of infection. What action should the nurse prioritize when providing care for this patient? A) Meticulous hand hygiene B) Timely administration of antibiotics C) Provision of a nutrient-dense diet D) Maintaining a sterile care environment

A Providing care for a patient with neutropenia requires that the nurse adhere closely to standard precautions and infection control procedures. Hand hygiene is central to such efforts. Prophylactic antibiotics are rarely used and it is not possible to provide a sterile environment for care. Nutrition is highly beneficial, but hand hygiene is the central aspect of care.

A patient who is being treated for pneumonia starts complaining of sudden shortness of breath. An arterial blood gas (ABG) is drawn. The ABG has the following values: pH 7.21, PaCO2 64 mm Hg, HCO3 = 24 mm Hg. What does the ABG reflect? A) Respiratory acidosis B) Metabolic alkalosis C) Respiratory alkalosis D) Metabolic acidosis

A The pH is below 7.40, PaCO2 is greater than 40, and the HCO3 is normal; therefore, it is a respiratory acidosis, and compensation by the kidneys has not begun, which indicates this was probably an acute event. The HCO3 of 24 is within the normal range so it is not metabolic alkalosis. The pH of 7.21 indicates an acidosis, not alkalosis. The pH of 7.21 indicates it is an acidosis but the HCO3 of 24 is within the normal range, ruling out metabolic acidosis.

The nurse is administering total parenteral nutrition (TPN) to a client who underwent surgery for gastric cancer. Which of the nurses assessments most directly addresses a major complication of TPN? A) Checking the patients capillary blood glucose levels regularly B) Having the patient frequently rate his or her hunger on a 10-point scale C) Measuring the patients heart rhythm at least every 6 hours D) Monitoring the patients level of consciousness each shift

A The solution, used as a base for most TPN, consists of a high dextrose concentration and may raise blood glucose levels significantly, resulting in hyperglycemia. This is a more salient threat than hunger, though this should be addressed. Dysrhythmias and decreased LOC are not among the most common complications.

A patient has a gastrostomy tube that has been placed to drain stomach contents by low intermittent suction. What is the nurses priority during this aspect of the patients care? A) Measure and record drainage. B) Monitor drainage for change in color. C) Titrate the suction every hour. D) Feed the patient via the G tube as ordered.

A This drainage should be measured and recorded because it is a significant indicator of GI function. The nurse should indeed monitor the color of the output, but fluid balance is normally the priority. Frequent titration of the suction should not be necessary and feeding is contraindicated if the G tube is in place for drainage.

You are caring for a patient admitted with a diagnosis of acute kidney injury. When you review your patients most recent laboratory reports, you note that the patients magnesium levels are high. You should prioritize assessment for which of the following health problems? A) Diminished deep tendon reflexes B) Tachycardia C) Cool, clammy skin D) Acute flank pain

A To gauge a patients magnesium status, the nurse should check deep tendon reflexes. If the reflex is absent, this may indicate high serum magnesium. Tachycardia, flank pain, and cool, clammy skin are not typically associated with hypermagnesemia.

A nurse is preparing to place a patients ordered nasogastric tube. How should the nurse best determine the correct length of the nasogastric tube? A) Place distal tip to nose, then ear tip and end of xiphoid process. B) Instruct the patient to lie prone and measure tip of nose to umbilical area. C) Insert the tube into the patients nose until secretions can be aspirated. D) Obtain an order from the physician for the length of tube to insert.

A Tube length is traditionally determined by (1) measuring the distance from the tip of the nose to the earlobe and from the earlobe to the xiphoid process, and (2) adding up to 6 inches for NG placement or at least 8 to 10 inches or more for intestinal placement, although studies do not necessarily confirm that this is a reliable technique. The physician would not prescribe a specific length and the umbilicus is not a landmark for this process. Length is not determined by aspirating from the tube.

A patients low prothrombin time (PT) was attributed to a vitamin K deficiency and the patients PT normalized after administration of vitamin K. When performing discharge education in an effort to prevent recurrence, what should the nurse emphasize? A) The need for adequate nutrition B) The need to avoid NSAIDs C) The need for constant access to factor concentrate D) The need for meticulous hygiene

A Vitamin K deficiency is often the result of a nutritional deficit. NSAIDs do not influence vitamin K synthesis and clotting factors are not necessary to treat or prevent a vitamin K deficiency. Hygiene is not related to the onset or prevention of vitamin K deficiency.

A nurse is preparing to discharge a patient home on parenteral nutrition. What should an effective home care teaching program address? Select all that apply. A) Preparing the patient to troubleshoot for problems B) Teaching the patient and family strict aseptic technique C) Teaching the patient and family how to set up the infusion D) Teaching the patient to flush the line with sterile water E) Teaching the patient when it is safe to leave the access site open to air

A, B, C An effective home care teaching program prepares the patient to store solutions, set up the infusion, flush the line with heparin, change the dressings, and troubleshoot for problems. The most common complication is sepsis. Strict aseptic technique is taught for hand hygiene, handling equipment, changing the dressing, and preparing the solution. Sterile water is never used for flushes and the access site must never be left open to air.

A patient has been discharged home on parenteral nutrition (PN). Much of the nurses discharge education focused on coping. What must a patient on PN likely learn to cope with? Select all that apply. A) Changes in lifestyle B) Loss of eating as a social behavior C) Chronic bowel incontinence from GI changes D) Sleep disturbances related to frequent urination during nighttime infusions E) Stress of choosing the correct PN formulation

A, B, D Patients must cope with the loss of eating as a social behavior and with changes in lifestyle brought on by sleep disturbances related to frequent urination during night time infusions. PN is not associated with bowel incontinence and the patient does not select or adjust the formulation of PN.

The results of a patients most recent blood work and physical assessment are suggestive of immune thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP). This patient should undergo testing for which of the following potential causes? Select all that apply. A) Hepatitis B) Acute renal failure C) HIV D) Malignant melanoma E) Cholecystitis

A, C Viral illnesses have the potential to cause ITP. Renal failure, malignancies, and gall bladder inflammation are not typical causes of ITP.

A nurse is caring for a patient who has a gastrointestinal tube in place. Which of the following are indications for gastrointestinal intubation? Select all that apply. A) To remove gas from the stomach B) To administer clotting factors to treat a GI bleed C) To remove toxins from the stomach D) To open sphincters that are closed E) To diagnose GI motility disorders

A, C, E GI intubation may be performed to decompress the stomach and remove gas and fluid, lavage (flush with water or other fluids) the stomach and remove ingested toxins or other harmful materials, diagnose disorders of GI motility and other disorders, administer medications and feedings, compress a bleeding site, and aspirate gastric contents for analysis. GI intubation is not used for opening sphincters that are not functional or for administering clotting factors.

You are doing discharge teaching with a patient who has hypophosphatemia during his time in hospital. The patient has a diet ordered that is high in phosphate. What foods would you teach this patient to include in his diet? Select all that apply. A) Milk B) Beef C) Poultry D) Green vegetables E) Liver

A, C, E If the patient experiences mild hypophosphatemia, foods such as milk and milk products, organ meats, nuts, fish, poultry, and whole grains should be encouraged.

A gerontologic nurse is teaching students about the high incidence and prevalence of dehydration in older adults. What factors contribute to this phenomenon? Select all that apply. A) Decreased kidney mass B) Increased conservation of sodium C) Increased total body water D) Decreased renal blood flow E) Decreased excretion of potassium

A, D, E Dehydration in the elderly is common as a result of decreased kidney mass, decreased glomerular filtration rate, decreased renal blood flow, decreased ability to concentrate urine, inability to conserve sodium, decreased excretion of potassium, and a decrease of total body water.

A patients electronic health record notes that he has previously undergone treatment for secondary polycythemia. How should this aspect of the patients history guide the nurses subsequent assessment? A) The nurse should assess for recent blood donation. B) The nurse should assess for evidence of lung disease. C) The nurse should assess for a history of venous thromboembolism. D) The nurse should assess the patient for impaired renal function.

B Any reduction in oxygenation, such as lung disease, can cause secondary polycythemia. Blood donation does not precipitate this problem and impaired renal function typically causes anemia, not polycythemia. A history of VTE is not a likely contributor.

A patient with a documented history of glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency has presented to the emergency department with signs and symptoms including pallor, jaundice, and malaise. Which of the nurses assessment questions relates most directly to this patients hematologic disorder? A) When did you last have a blood transfusion? B) What medications have taken recently? C) Have you been under significant stress lately? D) Have you suffered any recent injuries?

B Exacerbations of glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency are nearly always precipitated by medications. Blood transfusions, stress, and injury are less common triggers.

The physician has ordered a peripheral IV to be inserted before the patient goes for computed tomography. What should the nurse do when selecting a site on the hand or arm for insertion of an IV catheter? A) Choose a hairless site if available. B) Consider potential effects on the patients mobility when selecting a site. C) Have the patient briefly hold his arm over his head before insertion. D) Leave the tourniquet on for at least 3 minutes.

B Ideally, both arms and hands are carefully inspected before choosing a specific venipuncture site that does not interfere with mobility. Instruct the patient to hold his arm in a dependent position to increase blood flow. Never leave a tourniquet in place longer than 2 minutes. The site does not necessarily need to be devoid of hair.

The community health nurse is performing a home visit to an 84-year-old woman recovering from hip surgery. The nurse notes that the woman seems uncharacteristically confused and has dry mucous membranes. When asked about her fluid intake, the patient states, I stop drinking water early in the day because it is just too difficult to get up during the night to go to the bathroom. What would be the nurses best response? A) I will need to have your medications adjusted so you will need to be readmitted to the hospital for a complete workup. B) Limiting your fluids can create imbalances in your body that can result in confusion. Maybe we need to adjust the timing of your fluids. C) It is normal to be a little confused following surgery, and it is safe not to urinate at night. D) If you build up too much urine in your bladder, it can cause you to get confused, especially when your body is under stress.

B In elderly patients, the clinical manifestations of fluid and electrolyte disturbances may be subtle or atypical. For example, fluid deficit may cause confusion or cognitive impairment in the elderly person. There is no mention of medications in the stem of the question or any specific evidence given for the need for readmission to the hospital. Confusion is never normal, common, or expected in the elderly. Urinary retention does normally cause confusion.

The nurse is preparing to insert a patients ordered NG tube. What factor should the nurse recognize as a risk for incorrect placement? A) The patient is obese and has a short neck. B) The patient is agitated. C) The patient has a history of gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD). D) The patient is being treated for pneumonia.

B Inappropriate placement may occur in patients with decreased levels of consciousness, confused mental states, poor or absent cough and gag reflexes, or agitation during insertion. A short neck, GERD, and pneumonia are not linked to incorrect placement.

A patient is postoperative day 1 following gastrostomy. The nurse is planning interventions to address the nursing diagnosis of Risk for Infection Related to Presence of Wound and Tube. What intervention is most appropriate? A) Administer antibiotics via the tube as ordered. B) Wash the area around the tube with soap and water daily. C) Cleanse the skin within 2 cm of the insertion site with hydrogen peroxide once per shift. D) Irrigate the skin surrounding the insertion site with normal saline before each use.

B Infection can be prevented by keeping the skin near the insertion site clean using soap and water. Hydrogen peroxide is not used, due to associated skin irritation. The skin around th

A night nurse is reviewing the next days medication administration record (MAR) of a patient who has hemophilia. The nurse notes that the MAR specifies both oral and subcutaneous options for the administration of a PRN antiemetic. What is the nurses best action? A) Ensure that the day nurse knows not to give the antiemetic. B) Contact the prescriber to have the subcutaneous option discontinued. C) Reassess the patients need for antiemetics. D) Remove the subcutaneous route from the patients MAR.

B Injections must be avoided in patients with hemophilia. Consequently, the nurse should ensure that the prescriber makes the necessary change. The nurse cannot independently make a change to a patients MAR in most cases. Facilitating the necessary change is preferable to deferring to the day nurse.

The nurse caring for a patient post colon resection is assessing the patient on the second postoperative day. The nasogastric tube (NG) remains patent and continues at low intermittent wall suction. The IV is patent and infusing at 125 mL/hr. The patient reports pain at the incision site rated at a 3 on a 0-to-10 rating scale. During your initial shift assessment, the patient complains of cramps in her legs and a tingling sensation in her feet. Your assessment indicates decreased deep tendon reflexes (DTRs) and you suspect the patient has hypokalemia. What other sign or symptom would you expect this patient to exhibit? A) Diarrhea B) Dilute urine C) Increased muscle tone D) Joint pain

B Manifestations of hypokalemia include fatigue, anorexia, nausea, vomiting, muscle weakness, leg cramps, decreased bowel motility, paresthesias (numbness and tingling), and dysrhythmias. If prolonged, hypokalemia can lead to an inability of the kidneys to concentrate urine, causing dilute urine (resulting in polyuria, nocturia) and excessive thirst. Potassium depletion suppresses the release of insulin and results in glucose intolerance. Decreased muscle strength and DTRs can be found on physical assessment. You would expect decreased, not increased, muscle strength with hypokalemia. The patient would not have diarrhea following bowel surgery, and increased bowel motility is inconsistent with hypokalemia.

A nurse is writing a care plan for a patient with a nasogastric tube in place for gastric decompression. What risk nursing diagnosis is the most appropriate component of the care plan? A)Risk for Excess Fluid Volume Related to Enteral Feedings B) Risk for Impaired Skin Integrity Related to the Presence of NG Tube C) Risk for Unstable Blood Glucose Related to Enteral Feedings D) Risk for Impaired Verbal Communication Related to Presence of NG Tube

B NG tubes can easily damage the delicate mucosa of the nose, sinuses, and upper airway. An NG tube does not preclude verbal communication. This patients NG tube is in place for decompression, so complications of enteral feeding do not apply.

A patients physician has determined that for the next 3 to 4 weeks the patient will require parenteral nutrition (PN). The nurse should anticipate the placement of what type of venous access device? A) Peripheral catheter B) Nontunneled central catheter C) Implantable port D) Tunneled central catheter

B Nontunneled central catheters are used for short-term (less than 6 weeks) IV therapy. A peripheral catheter can be used for the administration of peripheral parenteral nutrition for 5 to 7 days. Implantable ports and tunneled central catheters are for long-term use and may remain in place for many years. Peripherally inserted central catheters (PICCs) are another potential option.

A nurse in the neurologic ICU has orders to infuse a hypertonic solution into a patient with increased intracranial pressure. This solution will increase the number of dissolved particles in the patients blood, creating pressure for fluids in the tissues to shift into the capillaries and increase the blood volume. This process is best described as which of the following? A) Hydrostatic pressure B) Osmosis and osmolality C) Diffusion D) Active transport

B Osmosis is the movement of fluid from a region of low solute concentration to a region of high solute concentration across a semipermeable membrane. Hydrostatic pressure refers to changes in water or volume related to water pressure. Diffusion is the movement of solutes from an area of greater concentration to lesser concentration; the solutes in an intact vascular system are unable to move so diffusion normally should not be taking place. Active transport is the movement of molecules against the concentration gradient and requires adenosine triphosphate (ATP) as an energy source; this process typically takes place at the cellular level and is not involved in vascular volume changes.

A nurse is initiating parenteral nutrition (PN) to a postoperative patient who has developed complications. The nurse should initiate therapy by performing which of the following actions? A) Starting with a rapid infusion rate to meet the patients nutritional needs as quickly as possible B) Initiating the infusion slowly and monitoring the patients fluid and glucose tolerance C) Changing the rate of administration every 2 hours based on serum electrolyte values D) Increasing the rate of infusion at mealtimes to mimic the circadian rhythm of the body

B PN solutions are initiated slowly and advanced gradually each day to the desired rate as the patients fluid and glucose tolerance permits. The formulation of the PN solutions is calculated carefully each day to meet the complete nutritional needs of the individual patient based on clinical findings and laboratory data. It is not infused more quickly at mealtimes.

A nurse is providing discharge education to a patient who has recently been diagnosed with a bleeding disorder. What topic should the nurse prioritize when teaching this patient? A) Avoiding buses, subways, and other crowded, public sites B) Avoiding activities that carry a risk for injury C) Keeping immunizations current D) Avoiding foods high in vitamin K

B Patients with bleeding disorders need to understand the importance of avoiding activities that increase the risk of bleeding, such as contact sports. Immunizations involve injections and may be contraindicated for some patients. Patients with bleeding disorders do not need to normally avoid crowds. Foods high in vitamin K may beneficial, not detrimental.

A patient is admitted to the hospital with pernicious anemia. The nurse should prepare to administer which of the following medications? A) Folic acid B) Vitamin B12 C) Lactulose D) Magnesium sulfate

B Pernicious anemia is characterized by vitamin B12 deficiency. Magnesium sulfate, lactulose, and folic acid do not address the pathology of this type of anemia.

A nursing educator is reviewing the care of patients with feeding tubes and endotracheal tubes (ET). The educator has emphasized the need to check for tube placement in the stomach as well as residual volume. What is the main purpose of this nursing action? A) Prevent gastric ulcers B) Prevent aspiration C) Prevent abdominal distention D) Prevent diarrhea

B Protecting the client from aspirating is essential because aspiration can cause pneumonia, a potentially life-threatening disorder. Gastric ulcers are not a common complication of tube feeding in clients with ET tubes. Abdominal distention and diarrhea can both be associated with tube feeding, but prevention of these problems is not the primary rationale for confirming placement.

You are the surgical nurse caring for a 65-year-old female patient who is postoperative day 1 following a thyroidectomy. During your shift assessment, the patient complains of tingling in her lips and fingers. She tells you that she has an intermittent spasm in her wrist and hand and she exhibits increased muscle tone. What electrolyte imbalance should you first suspect? A) Hypophosphatemia B) Hypocalcemia C) Hypermagnesemia D) Hyperkalemia

B Tetany is the most characteristic manifestation of hypocalcemia and hypomagnesemia. Sensations of tingling may occur in the tips of the fingers, around the mouth, and, less commonly, in the feet. Hypophosphatemia creates central nervous dysfunction, resulting in seizures and coma. Hypermagnesemia creates hypoactive reflexes and somnolence. Signs of hyperkalemia include paresthesias and anxiety.

A nurse is aware of the high incidence of catheter-related bloodstream infections in patients receiving parenteral nutrition. What nursing action has the greatest potential to reduce catheter-related bloodstream infections? A) Use clean technique and wear a mask during dressing changes. B) Change the dressing no more than weekly. C) Apply antibiotic ointment around the site with each dressing change. D) Irrigate the insertion site with sterile water during each dressing change.

B The CDC (2011) recommends changing CVAD dressings not more than every 7 days unless the dressing is damp, bloody, loose, or soiled. Sterile technique (not clean technique) is used. Irrigation and antibiotic ointments are not used.

A patient with poorly controlled diabetes has developed end-stage renal failure and consequent anemia. When reviewing this patients treatment plan, the nurse should anticipate the use of what drug? A) Magnesium sulfate B) Epoetin alfa C) Low-molecular weight heparin D) Vitamin K

B The availability of recombinant erythropoietin (epoetin alfa [Epogen, Procrit], darbepoetin alfa [Aranesp]) has dramatically altered the management of anemia in end-stage renal disease. Heparin, vitamin K, and magnesium are not indicated in the treatment of renal failure or the consequent anemia.

A patient is concerned about leakage of gastric contents out of the gastric sump tube the nurse has just inserted. What would the nurse do to prevent reflux gastric contents from coming through the blue vent of a gastric sump tube? A) Prime the tubing with 20 mL of normal saline. B) Keep the vent lumen above the patients waist. C) Maintain the patient in a high Fowlers position. D) Have the patient pin the tube to the thigh.

B The blue vent lumen should be kept above the patients waist to prevent reflux of gastric contents through it; otherwise it acts as a siphon. A one-way anti-reflux valve seated in the blue pigtail can prevent the reflux of gastric contents out the vent lumen. To prevent reflux, the nurse does not prime the tubing, maintain the patient in a high Fowlers position, or have the patient pin the tube to the thigh.

A patient with renal failure has decreased erythropoietin production. Upon analysis of the patients complete blood count, the nurse will expect which of the following results? A) An increased hemoglobin and decreased hematocrit B) A decreased hemoglobin and hematocrit C) A decreased mean corpuscular volume (MCV) and red cell distribution width (RDW) D) An increased MCV and RDW

B The decreased production of erythropoietin will result in a decreased hemoglobin and hematocrit. The patient will have normal MCV and RDW because the erythrocytes are normal in appearance.

A nurse is caring for a patient with a subclavian central line who is receiving parenteral nutrition (PN). In preparing a care plan for this patient, what nursing diagnosis should the nurse prioritize? A) Risk for Activity Intolerance Related to the Presence of a Subclavian Catheter B) Risk for Infection Related to the Presence of a Subclavian Catheter C) Risk for Functional Urinary Incontinence Related to the Presence of a Subclavian Catheter D) Risk for Sleep Deprivation Related to the presence of a Subclavian Catheter

B The high glucose content of PN solutions makes the solutions an idea culture media for bacterial and fungal growth, and the central venous access devices provide a port of entry. Prevention of infection is consequently a high priority. The patient will experience some inconveniences with regard to toileting, activity, and sleep, but the infection risk is a priority over each of these.

A group of nurses are learning about the high incidence and prevalence of anemia among different populations. Which of the following individuals is most likely to have anemia? A) A 50-year-old African-American woman who is going through menopause B) An 81-year-old woman who has chronic heart failure C) A 48-year-old man who travels extensively and has a high-stress job D) A 13-year-old girl who has just experienced menarche

B The incidence and prevalence of anemia are exceptionally high among older adults, and the risk of anemia is compounded by the presence of heart disease. None of the other listed individuals exhibits high-risk factors for anemia, though exceptionally heavy menstrual flow can result in anemia.

A medical nurse educator is reviewing a patients recent episode of metabolic acidosis with members of the nursing staff. What should the educator describe about the role of the kidneys in metabolic acidosis? A) The kidneys retain hydrogen ions and excrete bicarbonate ions to help restore balance. B) The kidneys excrete hydrogen ions and conserve bicarbonate ions to help restore balance. C) The kidneys react rapidly to compensate for imbalances in the body. D) The kidneys regulate the bicarbonate level in the intracellular fluid.

B The kidneys regulate the bicarbonate level in the ECF; they can regenerate bicarbonate ions as well as reabsorb them from the renal tubular cells. In respiratory acidosis and most cases of metabolic acidosis, the kidneys excrete hydrogen ions and conserve bicarbonate ions to help restore balance. In respiratory and metabolic alkalosis, the kidneys retain hydrogen ions and excrete bicarbonate ions to help restore balance. The kidneys obviously cannot compensate for the metabolic acidosis created by renal failure. Renal compensation for imbalances is relatively slow (a matter of hours or days).

A nurse is caring for a patient who is receiving parenteral nutrition. When writing this patients plan of care, which of the following nursing diagnoses should be included? A) Risk for Peripheral Neurovascular Dysfunction Related to Catheter Placement B) Ineffective Role Performance Related to Parenteral Nutrition C) Bowel Incontinence Related to Parenteral Nutrition D) Chronic Pain Related to Catheter Placement

B The limitations associated with PN can make it difficult for patients to maintain their usual roles. PN does not normally cause bowel incontinence and catheters are not associated with chronic pain or neurovascular dysfunction.

A patient with a longstanding diagnosis of generalized anxiety disorder presents to the emergency room. The triage nurse notes upon assessment that the patient is hyperventilating. The triage nurse is aware that hyperventilation is the most common cause of which acidbase imbalance? A) Respiratory acidosis B) Respiratory alkalosis C) Increased PaCO2 D) CNS disturbances

B The most common cause of acute respiratory alkalosis is hyperventilation. Extreme anxiety can lead to hyperventilation. Acute respiratory acidosis occurs in emergency situations, such as pulmonary edema, and is exhibited by hypoventilation and decreased PaCO2. CNS disturbances are found in extreme hyponatremia and fluid overload.

You are caring for a patient with a diagnosis of pancreatitis. The patient was admitted from a homeless shelter and is a vague historian. The patient appears malnourished and on day 3 of the patients admission total parenteral nutrition (TPN) has been started. Why would you know to start the infusion of TPN slowly? A) Patients receiving TPN are at risk for hypercalcemia if calories are started too rapidly. B) Malnourished patients receiving parenteral nutrition are at risk for hypophosphatemia if calories are started too aggressively. C) Malnourished patients who receive fluids too rapidly are at risk for hypernatremia. D) Patients receiving TPN need a slow initiation of treatment in order to allow digestive enzymes to accumulate

B The nurse identifies patients who are at risk for hypophosphatemia and monitors them. Because malnourished patients receiving parenteral nutrition are at risk when calories are introduced too aggressively, preventive measures involve gradually introducing the solution to avoid rapid shifts of phosphorus into the cells. Patients receiving TPN are not at risk for hypercalcemia or hypernatremia if calories or fluids are started to rapidly. Digestive enzymes are not a relevant consideration.

A nurse is caring for a patient who has sickle cell anemia and the nurses assessment reveals the possibility of substance abuse. What is the nurses most appropriate action? A) Encourage the patient to rely on complementary and alternative therapies. B) Encourage the patient to seek care from a single provider for pain relief. C) Teach the patient to accept chronic pain as an inevitable aspect of the disease. D) Limit the reporting of emergency department visits to the primary health care provider.

B The patient should be encouraged to use a single primary health care provider to address health care concerns. Emergency department visits should be reported to the primary health care provider to achieve optimal management of the disease. It would inappropriate to teach the patient to simply accept his or her pain. Complementary therapies are usually insufficient to fully address pain in sickle cell disease.

A patient newly diagnosed with thrombocytopenia is admitted to the medical unit. After the admission assessment, the patient asks the nurse to explain the disease. What should the nurse explain to this patient? A) There could be an attack on the platelets by antibodies. B) There could be decreased production of platelets. C) There could be impaired communication between platelets. D) There could be an autoimmune process causing platelet malfunction.

B Thrombocytopenia can result from a decreased platelet production, increased platelet destruction, or increased consumption of platelets. Impaired platelet communication, antibodies, and autoimmune processes are not typical pathologies.

A patients enteral feedings have been determined to be too concentrated based on the patients development of dumping syndrome. What physiologic phenomenon caused this patients complication of enteral feeding? A) Increased gastric secretion of HCl and gastrin because of high osmolality of feeds B) Entry of large amounts of water into the small intestine because of osmotic pressure C) Mucosal irritation of the stomach and small intestine by the high concentration of the feed D) Acidbase imbalance resulting from the high volume of solutes in the feed

B When a concentrated solution of high osmolality entering the intestines is taken in quickly or in large amounts, water moves rapidly into the intestinal lumen from fluid surrounding the organs and the vascular compartment. This results in dumping syndrome. Dumping syndrome is not the result of changes in HCl or gastrin levels. It is not caused by an acidbase imbalance or direct irritation of the GI mucosa.

A patients NG tube has become clogged after the nurse instilled a medication that was insufficiently crushed. The nurse has attempted to aspirate with a large-bore syringe, with no success. What should the nurse do next? A) Withdraw the NG tube 3 to 5 cm and reattempt aspiration. B) Attach a syringe filled with warm water and attempt an in-and-out motion of instilling and aspirating. C) Withdraw the NG tube slightly and attempt to dislodge by flicking the tube with the fingers. D) Remove the NG tube promptly and obtain an order for reinsertion from the primary care provider.

B When a tube is first noted to be clogged, a 30- to 60-mL syringe should be attached to the end of the tube and any contents aspirated and discarded. Then the syringe should be filled with warm water, attached to the tube again, and a back-and-forth motion initiated to help loosen the clog. Removal is not warranted at this early stage and a flicking motion is not recommended. The tube should not be withdrawn, even a few centimeters.

A patients blood work reveals a platelet level of 17,000/mm3. When inspecting the patients integumentary system, what finding would be most consistent with this platelet level? A) Dermatitis B) Petechiae C) Urticaria D) Alopecia

B When the platelet count drops to less than 20,000/mm , petechiae can appear. Low platelet levels do not normally result in dermatitis, urticaria (hives), or alopecia (hair loss).

A nurse is creating a care plan for a patient who is receiving parenteral nutrition. The patients care plan should include nursing actions relevant to what potential complications? Select all that apply. A) Dumping syndrome B) Clotted or displaced catheter C) Pneumothorax D) Hyperglycemia E) Line sepsis

B, C, D, E Common complications of PN include a clotted or displaced catheter, pneumothorax, hyperglycemia, and infection from the venous access device (line sepsis). Dumping syndrome applies to enteral nutrition, not PN.

The nurse is assessing a new patient with complaints of overwhelming fatigue and a sore tongue that is visibly smooth and beefy red. This patient is demonstrating signs and symptoms associated with what form of what hematologic disorder? A) Sickle cell anemia B) Hemophilia C) Megaloblastic anemia D) Thrombocytopenia

C A red, smooth, sore tongue is a symptom associated with megaloblastic anemia. Sickle cell disease, hemophilia, and thrombocytopenia do not have symptoms involving the tongue.

You are caring for a patient who was admitted to have a low-profile gastrostomy device (LPGD) placed. How soon after the original gastrostomy tube placement can an LPGD be placed? A) 2 weeks B) 4 to 6 weeks C) 2 to 3 months D) 4 to 6 months

C An alternative to the PEG device is a low-profile gastrostomy device (LPGD). LPGDs may be inserted 2 to 3 months after initial gastrostomy tube placement.

A nurse is providing care for a patient with a diagnosis of late-stage Alzheimers disease. The patient has just returned to the medical unit to begin supplemental feedings through an NG tube. Which of the nurses assessments addresses this patients most significant potential complication of feeding? A) Frequent assessment of the patients abdominal girth B) Assessment for hemorrhage from the nasal insertion site C) Frequent lung auscultation D) Vigilant monitoring of the frequency and character of bowel movements

C Aspiration is a risk associated with tube feeding; this risk may be exacerbated by the patients cognitive deficits. Consequently, the nurse should auscultate the patients lungs and monitor oxygen saturation closely. Bowel function is important, but the risk for aspiration is a priority. Hemorrhage is highly unlikely and the patients abdominal girth is not a main focus of assessment.

A client with several chronic health problems has been newly diagnosed with a qualitative platelet defect. What component of the patients previous medication regimen may have contributed to the development of this disorder? A) Calcium carbonate B) Vitamin B12 C) Aspirin D) Vitamin D

C Aspirin may induce a platelet disorder. Even small amounts of aspirin reduce normal platelet aggregation, and the prolonged bleeding time lasts for several days after aspirin ingestion. Calcium, vitamin D, and vitamin B12 do not have the potential to induce a platelet defect.

The nurse is preparing to insert a peripheral IV catheter into a patient who will require fluids and IV antibiotics. How should the nurse always start the process of insertion? A) Leave one hand ungloved to assess the site. B) Cleanse the skin with normal saline. C) Ask the patient about allergies to latex or iodine. D) Remove excessive hair from the selected site.

C Before preparing the skin, the nurse should ask the patient if he or she is allergic to latex or iodine, which are products commonly used in preparing for IV therapy. A local reaction could result in irritation to the IV site, or, in the extreme, it could result in anaphylaxis, which can be life threatening. Both hands should always be gloved when preparing for IV insertion, and latex-free gloves must be used or the patient must report not having latex allergies. The skin is not usually cleansed with normal saline prior to insertion. Removing excessive hair at the selected site is always secondary to allergy inquiry.

A patient receiving tube feedings is experiencing diarrhea. The nurse and the physician suspect that the patient is experiencing dumping syndrome. What intervention is most appropriate? A) Stop the tube feed and aspirate stomach contents. B) Increase the hourly feed rate so it finishes earlier. C) Dilute the concentration of the feeding solution. D) Administer fluid replacement by IV.

C Dumping syndrome can generally be alleviated by starting with a dilute solution and then increasing the concentration of the solution over several days. Fluid replacement may be necessary but does not prevent or treat dumping syndrome. There is no need to aspirate stomach contents. Increasing the rate will exacerbate the problem.

A woman who is in her third trimester of pregnancy has been experiencing an exacerbation of iron- deficiency anemia in recent weeks. When providing the patient with nutritional guidelines and meal suggestions, what foods would be most likely to increase the womans iron stores? A) Salmon accompanied by whole milk B) Mixed vegetables and brown rice C) Beef liver accompanied by orange juice D) Yogurt, almonds, and whole grain oats

C Food sources high in iron include organ meats, other meats, beans (e.g., black, pinto, and garbanzo), leafy green vegetables, raisins, and molasses. Taking iron-rich foods with a source of vitamin C (e.g., orange juice) enhances the absorption of iron. All of the listed foods are nutritious, but liver and orange juice are most likely to be of benefit.

The management of the patients gastrostomy is an assessment priority for the home care nurse. What statement would indicate that the patient is managing the tube correctly? A) I clean my stoma twice a day with alcohol. B) The only time I flush my tube is when Im putting in medications. C) I flush my tube with water before and after each of my medications. D) I try to stay still most of the time to avoid dislodging my tube.

C Frequent flushing is needed to prevent occlusion, and should not just be limited to times of medication administration. Alcohol will irritate skin surrounding the insertion site and activity should be maintained as much as possible.

A patient who suffered a stroke had an NG tube inserted to facilitate feeding shortly after admission. The patient has since become comatose and the patients family asks the nurse why the physician is recommending the removal of the patients NG tube and the insertion of a gastrostomy tube. What is the nurses best response? A) It eliminates the risk for infection. B) Feeds can be infused at a faster rate. C) Regurgitation and aspiration are less likely. D) It allows caregivers to provide personal hygiene more easily.

C Gastrostomy is preferred over NG feedings in the patient who is comatose because the gastroesophageal sphincter remains intact, making regurgitation and aspiration less likely than with NG feedings. Both tubes carry a risk for infection; this change in care is not motivated by the possibility of faster infusion or easier personal care.

A nurse educator is reviewing peripheral IV insertion with a group of novice nurses. How should these nurses be encouraged to deal with excess hair at the intended site? A) Leave the hair intact. B) Shave the area. C) Clip the hair in the area. D) Remove the hair with a depilatory

C Hair can be a source of infection and should be removed by clipping; it should not be left at the site. Shaving the area can cause skin abrasions, and depilatories can irritate the skin.

One day after a patient is admitted to the medical unit, you note that the patient is oliguric. You notify the acute-care nurse practitioner who orders a fluid challenge of 200 mL of normal saline solution over 15 minutes. This intervention will achieve which of the following? A) Help distinguish hyponatremia from hypernatremia B) Help evaluate pituitary gland function C) Help distinguish reduced renal blood flow from decreased renal function D) Help provide an effective treatment for hypertension-induced oliguria

C If a patient is not excreting enough urine, the health care provider needs to determine whether the depressed renal function is the result of reduced renal blood flow, which is a fluid volume deficit (FVD or prerenal azotemia), or acute tubular necrosis that results in necrosis or cellular death from prolonged FVD. A typical example of a fluid challenge involves administering 100 to 200 mL of normal saline solution over 15 minutes. The response by a patient with FVD but with normal renal function is increased urine output and an increase in blood pressure. Laboratory examinations are needed to distinguish hyponatremia from hypernatremia. A fluid challenge is not used to evaluate pituitary gland function. A fluid challenge may provide information regarding hypertension-induced oliguria, but it is not an effective treatment.

You are performing an admission assessment on an older adult patient newly admitted for end-stage liver disease. What principle should guide your assessment of the patients skin turgor? A) Overhydration is common among healthy older adults. B) Dehydration causes the skin to appear spongy. C) Inelastic skin turgor is a normal part of aging. D) Skin turgor cannot be assessed in patients over 70.

C Inelastic skin is a normal change of aging. However, this does not mean that skin turgor cannot be assessed in older patients. Dehydration, not overhydration, causes inelastic skin with tenting. Overhydration, not dehydration, causes the skin to appear edematous and spongy.

You are making initial shift assessments on your patients. While assessing one patients peripheral IV site, you note edema around the insertion site. How should you document this complication related to IV therapy? A) Air emboli B) Phlebitis C) Infiltration D) Fluid Overload

C Infiltration is the administration of nonvesicant solution or medication into the surrounding tissue. This can occur when the IV cannula dislodges or perforates the wall of the vein. Infiltration is characterized by edema around the insertion site, leakage of IV fluid from the insertion site, discomfort and coolness in the area of infiltration, and a significant decrease in the flow rate. Air emboli, phlebitis, and fluid overload are not indications of infiltration.

A young man with a diagnosis of hemophilia A has been brought to emergency department after suffering a workplace accident resulting in bleeding. Rapid assessment has revealed the source of the patients bleeding and established that his vital signs are stable. What should be the nurses next action? A) Position the patient in a prone position to minimize bleeding. B) Establish IV access for the administration of vitamin K. C) Prepare for the administration of factor VIII. D) Administer a normal saline bolus to increase circulatory volume.

C Injuries in patients with hemophilia necessitate prompt administration of clotting factors. Vitamin K is not a treatment modality and a prone position will not be appropriate for all types and locations of wounds. A normal saline bolus is not indicated.

The nurse on the pediatric unit is caring for a 10-year-old boy with a diagnosis of hemophilia. The nurse knows that a priority nursing diagnosis for a patient with hemophilia is what? A) Hypothermia B) Diarrhea C) Ineffective coping D) Imbalanced nutrition: Less than body requirements

C Most patients with hemophilia are diagnosed as children. They often require assistance in coping with the condition because it is chronic, places restrictions on their lives, and is an inherited disorder that can be passed to future generations. Children with hemophilia are not at risk of hypothermia, diarrhea, or imbalanced nutrition.

You are caring for a 65-year-old male patient admitted to your medical unit 72 hours ago with pyloric stenosis. A nasogastric tube placed upon admission has been on low intermittent suction ever since. Upon review of the mornings blood work, you notice that the patients potassium is below reference range. You should recognize that the patient may be at risk for what imbalance? A) Hypercalcemia B) Metabolic acidosis C) Metabolic alkalosis D) Respiratory acidosis

C Probably the most common cause of metabolic alkalosis is vomiting or gastric suction with loss of hydrogen and chloride ions. The disorder also occurs in pyloric stenosis in which only gastric fluid is lost. Vomiting, gastric suction, and pyloric stenosis all remove potassium and can cause hypokalemia. This patient would not be at risk for hypercalcemia; hyperparathyroidism and cancer account for almost all cases of hypercalcemia. The nasogastric tube is removing stomach acid and will likely raise pH. Respiratory acidosis is unlikely since no change was reported in the patients respiratory status.

The nurse in the medical ICU is caring for a patient who is in respiratory acidosis due to inadequate ventilation. What diagnosis could the patient have that could cause inadequate ventilation? A) Endocarditis B) Multiple myeloma C) Guillain-Barr syndrome D) Overdose of amphetamines

C Respiratory acidosis is always due to inadequate excretion of CO2 with inadequate ventilation, resulting in elevated plasma CO2 concentrations and, consequently, increased levels of carbonic acid. Acute respiratory acidosis occurs in emergency situations, such as acute pulmonary edema, aspiration of a foreign object, atelectasis, pneumothorax, overdose of sedatives, sleep apnea, administration of oxygen to a patient with chronic hypercapnia (excessive CO2 in the blood), severe pneumonia, and acute respiratory distress syndrome. Respiratory acidosis can also occur in diseases that impair respiratory muscles, such as muscular dystrophy, myasthenia gravis, and Guillain-Barr syndrome. The other listed diagnoses are not associated with respiratory acidosis.

A nurse is participating in a patients care conference and the team is deciding between parenteral nutrition (PN) and a total nutritional admixture (TNA). What advantages are associated with providing TNA rather than PN? A) TNA can be mixed by a certified registered nurse. B) TNA can be administered over 8 hours, while PN requires 24-hour administration. C) TNA is less costly than PN. D) TNA does not require the use of a micron filter.

C TNA is mixed in one container and administered to the patient over a 24-hour period. A 1.5-micron filter is used with the TNA solution. Advantages of the TNA over PN include cost savings. Pharmacy staff must prepare both solutions.

A critical care nurse is caring for a patient diagnosed with acute pancreatitis. The nurse knows that the indications for starting parenteral nutrition (PN) for this patient are what? A) 5% deficit in body weight compared to preillness weight and increased caloric need B) Calorie deficit and muscle wasting combined with low electrolyte levels C) Inability to take in adequate oral food or fluids within 7 days D) Significant risk of aspiration coupled with decreased level of consciousness

C The indications for PN include an inability to ingest adequate oral food or fluids within 7 days. Weight loss, muscle wasting combined with electrolyte imbalances, and aspiration indicate a need for nutritional support, but this does not necessary have to be parenteral.

A nurse is planning care for a nephrology patient with a new nursing graduate. The nurse states, A patient in renal failure partially loses the ability to regulate changes in pH. What is the cause of this partial inability? A) The kidneys regulate and reabsorb carbonic acid to change and maintain pH. B) The kidneys buffer acids through electrolyte changes. C) The kidneys regenerate and reabsorb bicarbonate to maintain a stable pH. D) The kidneys combine carbonic acid and bicarbonate to maintain a stable pH.

C The kidneys regulate the bicarbonate level in the ECF; they can regenerate bicarbonate ions as well as reabsorb them from the renal tubular cells. In respiratory acidosis and most cases of metabolic acidosis, the kidneys excrete hydrogen ions and conserve bicarbonate ions to help restore balance. The lungs regulate and reabsorb carbonic acid to change and maintain pH. The kidneys do not buffer acids through electrolyte changes; buffering occurs in reaction to changes in pH. Carbonic acid works as the chemical medium to exchange O2 and CO2 in the lungs to maintain a stable pH whereas the kidneys use bicarbonate as the chemical medium to maintain a stable pH by moving and eliminating H+.

Prior to a patients scheduled jejunostomy, the nurse is performing the preoperative assessment. What goal should the nurse prioritize during the preoperative assessment? A) Determining the patients nutritional needs B) Determining that the patient fully understands the postoperative care required C) Determining the patients ability to understand and cooperate with the procedure D) Determining the patients ability to cope with an altered body image

C The major focus of the preoperative assessment is to determine the patients ability both to understand and cooperate with the procedure. Body image, nutritional needs, and postoperative care are all important variables, but they are not the main focuses of assessment during the immediate preoperative period.

The nurse is caring for a patient who is postoperative from having a gastrostomy tube placed. What should the nurse do on a daily basis to prevent skin breakdown? A) Verify tube placement. B) Loop adhesive tape around the tube and connect it securely to the abdomen. C) Gently rotate the tube. D) Change the wet-to-dry dressing.

C The nurse verifies the tubes placement and gently rotates the tube once daily to prevent skin breakdown. Verifying tube placement and taping the tube to the abdomen do not prevent skin breakdown. A gastrostomy wound does not have a wet-to-dry dressing.

A nurse is providing education to a patient with iron deficiency anemia who has been prescribed iron supplements. What should the nurse include in health education? A) Take the iron with dairy products to enhance absorption. B) Increase the intake of vitamin E to enhance absorption. C) Iron will cause the stools to darken in color. D) Limit foods high in fiber due to the risk for diarrhea.

C The nurse will inform the patient that iron will cause the stools to become dark in color. Iron should be taken on an empty stomach, as its absorption is affected by food, especially dairy products. Patients should be instructed to increase their intake of vitamin C to enhance iron absorption. Foods high in fiber should be consumed to minimize problems with constipation, a common side effect associated with iron therapy.

The nurse is assessing placement of a nasogastric tube that the patient has had in place for 2 days. The tube is draining green aspirate. What is the nurses most appropriate action? A) Inform the physician that the tube may be in the patients pleural space. B) Withdraw the tube 2 to 4 cm. C) Leave the tube in its present position. D) Advance the tube up to 8 cm.

C The patients aspirate is from the gastric area when the nurse observes that the color of the aspirate is green. Further confirmation of placement is necessary, but there is likely no need for repositioning. Pleural secretions are pale yellow.

You are called to your patients room by a family member who voices concern about the patients status. On assessment, you find the patient tachypnic, lethargic, weak, and exhibiting a diminished cognitive ability. You also find 3+ pitting edema. What electrolyte imbalance is the most plausible cause of this patients signs and symptoms? A) Hypocalcemia B) Hyponatremia C) Hyperchloremia D) Hypophosphatemia

C The signs and symptoms of hyperchloremia are the same as those of metabolic acidosis: hypervolemia and hypernatremia. Tachypnea; weakness; lethargy; deep, rapid respirations; diminished cognitive ability; and hypertension occur. If untreated, hyperchloremia can lead to a decrease in cardiac output, dysrhythmias, and coma. A high chloride level is accompanied by a high sodium level and fluid retention. With hypocalcemia, you would expect tetany. There would not be edema with hyponatremia. Signs or symptoms of hypophosphatemia are mainly neurologic.

A nurse is planning the care of a patient with a diagnosis of sickle cell disease who has been admitted for the treatment of an acute vaso-occlusive crisis. What nursing diagnosis should the nurse prioritize in the patients plan of care? A) Risk for disuse syndrome related to ineffective peripheral circulation B) Functional urinary incontinence related to urethral occlusion C) Ineffective tissue perfusion related to thrombosis D) Ineffective thermoregulation related to hypothalamic dysfunction

C There are multiple potential complications of sickle cell disease and sickle cell crises. Central among these, however, is the risk of thrombosis and consequent lack of tissue perfusion. Sickle cell crises are not normally accompanied by impaired thermoregulation or genitourinary complications. Risk for disuse syndrome is not associated with the effects of acute vaso-occlusive crisis.

A nurse is a long-term care facility is admitting a new resident who has a bleeding disorder. When planning this residents care, the nurse should include which of the following? A) Housing the resident in a private room B) Implementing a passive ROM program to compensate for activity limitation C) Implementing of a plan for fall prevention D) Providing the patient with a high-fiber diet

C To prevent bleeding episodes, the nurse should ensure that an older adult with a bleeding disorder does not suffer a fall. Activity limitation is not necessarily required, however. A private room is not necessary and there is no reason to increase fiber intake.

A patient with a history of atrial fibrillation has contacted the clinic saying that she has accidentally overdosed on her prescribed warfarin (Coumadin). The nurse should recognize the possible need for what antidote? A) IVIG B) Factor X C) Vitamin K D) Factor VIII

C Vitamin K is administered as an antidote for warfarin toxicity.

The nurse is assessing the patient for the presence of a Chvosteks sign. What electrolyte imbalance would a positive Chvosteks sign indicate? A) Hypermagnesemia B) Hyponatremia C) Hypocalcemia D) Hyperkalemia

C You can induce Chvosteks sign by tapping the patients facial nerve adjacent to the ear. A brief contraction of the upper lip, nose, or side of the face indicates Chvosteks sign. Both hypomagnesemia and hypocalcemia may be tested using the Chvosteks sign.

A nurse is admitting a patient with immune thrombocytopenic purpura to the unit. In completing the admission assessment, the nurse must be alert for what medications that potentially alter platelet function? Select all that apply. A) Antihypertensives B) Penicillins C) Sulfa-containing medications D) Aspirin-based drugs E) NSAIDs

C, D, E The nurse must be alert for sulfa-containing medications and others that alter platelet function (e.g., aspirin-based or other NSAIDs). Antihypertensive drugs and the penicillins do not alter platelet function.

A patient with dysphagia is scheduled for PEG tube insertion and asks the nurse how the tube will stay in place. What is the nurses best response? A) Adhesive holds a flange in place against the abdominal skin. B) A stitch holds the tube in place externally. C) The tube is stitched to the abdominal skin externally and the stomach wall internally. D) An internal retention disc secures the tube against the stomach wall.

D A PEG tube is held in place by an internal retention disc (flange) that holds it against the stomach wall. It is not held in place by stitches or adhesives.

A patient with Von Willebrand disease (vWD) has experienced recent changes in bowel function that suggest the need for a screening colonoscopy. What intervention should be performed in anticipation of this procedure? A) The patient should not undergo the normal bowel cleansing protocol prior to the procedure. B) The patient should receive a unit of fresh-frozen plasma 48 hours before the procedure. C) The patient should be admitted to the surgical unit on the day before the procedure. D) The patient should be given necessary clotting factors before the procedure.

D A goal of treating vWD is to replace the deficient protein (e.g., vWF or factor VIII) prior to an invasive procedure to prevent subsequent bleeding. Bowel cleansing is not contraindicated and FFP does not reduce the patients risk of bleeding. There may or may not be a need for preprocedure hospital admission.

You are an emergency-room nurse caring for a trauma patient. Your patient has the following arterial blood gas results: pH 7.26, PaCO2 28, HCO3 11 mEq/L. How would you interpret these results? A) Respiratory acidosis with no compensation B) Metabolic alkalosis with a compensatory alkalosis C) Metabolic acidosis with no compensation D) Metabolic acidosis with a compensatory respiratory alkalosis

D A low pH indicates acidosis (normal pH is 7.35 to 7.45). The PaCO3 is also low, which causes alkalosis. The bicarbonate is low, which causes acidosis. The pH bicarbonate more closely corresponds with a decrease in pH, making the metabolic component the primary problem.

A patient has been living with a diagnosis of anemia for several years and has experienced recent declines in her hemoglobin levels despite active treatment. What assessment finding would signal complications of anemia? A) Venous ulcers and visual disturbances B) Fever and signs of hyperkalemia C) Epistaxis and gastroesophageal reflux D) Ascites and peripheral edema

D A significant complication of anemia is heart failure from chronic diminished blood volume and the hearts compensatory effort to increase cardiac output. Patients with anemia should be assessed for signs and symptoms of heart failure, including ascites and peripheral edema. None of the other listed signs and symptoms is characteristic of heart failure.

You are caring for a patient who has a diagnosis of syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion (SIADH). Your patients plan of care includes assessment of specific gravity every 4 hours. The results of this test will allow the nurse to assess what aspect of the patients health? A) Nutritional status B) Potassium balance C) Calcium balance D) Fluid volume status

D A specific gravity will detect if the patient has a fluid volume deficit or fluid volume excess. Nutrition, potassium, and calcium levels are not directly indicated.

A critical care nurse is caring for a patient with autoimmune hemolytic anemia. The patient is not responding to conservative treatments, and his condition is now becoming life threatening. The nurse is aware that a treatment option in this case may include what? A) Hepatectomy B) Vitamin K administration C) Platelet transfusion D) Splenectomy

D A splenectomy may be the course of treatment if autoimmune hemolytic anemia does not respond to conservative treatment. Vitamin K administration is treatment for vitamin K deficiency and does not resolve anemia. Platelet transfusion may be the course of treatment for some bleeding disorders. Hepatectomy would not help the patient.

When planning the care of a patient with a fluid imbalance, the nurse understands that in the human body, water and electrolytes move from the arterial capillary bed to the interstitial fluid. What causes this to occur? A) Active transport of hydrogen ions across the capillary walls B) Pressure of the blood in the renal capillaries C) Action of the dissolved particles contained in a unit of blood D) Hydrostatic pressure resulting from the pumping action of the heart

D An example of filtration is the passage of water and electrolytes from the arterial capillary bed to the interstitial fluid; in this instance, the hydrostatic pressure results from the pumping action of the heart. Active transport does not move water and electrolytes from the arterial capillary bed to the interstitial fluid, filtration does. The number of dissolved particles in a unit of blood is concerned with osmolality. The pressure in the renal capillaries causes renal filtration.

A patient has been brought to the emergency department by EMS after telling a family member that he deliberately took an overdose of NSAIDs a few minutes earlier. If lavage is ordered, the nurse should prepare to assist with the insertion of what type of tube? A) Nasogastric tube B) Levin tube C) Gastric sump D) Orogastric tube

D An orogastric tube is a large-bore tube inserted through the mouth with a wide outlet for removal of gastric contents; it is used primarily in the emergency department or an intensive care setting. Nasogastric, Levin, and gastric sump tubes are not used for this specific purpose.

A patients most recent laboratory results show a slight decrease in potassium. The physician has opted to forego drug therapy but has suggested increasing the patients dietary intake of potassium. Which of the following would be a good source of potassium? A) Apples B) Asparagus C) Carrots D) Bananas

D Bananas are high in potassium. Apples, carrots, and asparagus are not high in potassium.

A clinic patient is being treated for polycythemia vera and the nurse is providing health education. What practice should the nurse recommend in order to prevent the complications of this health problem? A) Avoiding natural sources of vitamin K B) Avoiding altitudes of 1500 feet (457 meters) C) Performing active range of motion exercises daily D) Avoiding tight and restrictive clothing on the legs

D Because of the risk of DVT, patients with polycythemia vera should avoid tight and restrictive clothing. There is no need to avoid foods with vitamin K or to avoid higher altitudes. Activity levels should be maintained, but there is no specific need for ROM exercises.

A nurse is preparing to administer a patients scheduled parenteral nutrition (PN). Upon inspecting the bag, the nurse notices that the presence of small amounts of white precipitate are present in the bag. What is the nurses best action? A) Recognize this as an expected finding. B) Place the bag in a warm environment for 30 minutes. C) Shake the bag vigorously for 10 to 20 seconds. D) Contact the pharmacy to obtain a new bag of PN.

D Before PN infusion is administered, the solution must be inspected for separation, oily appearance (also known as a cracked solution), or any precipitate (which appears as white crystals). If any of these are present, it is not used. Warming or shaking the bag is inappropriate and unsafe.

17. An adult patient has been diagnosed with iron-deficiency anemia. What nursing diagnosis is most likely to apply to this patients health status? A) Risk for deficient fluid volume related to impaired erythropoiesis B) Risk for infection related to tissue hypoxia C) Acute pain related to uncontrolled hemolysis D) Fatigue related to decreased oxygen-carrying capacity

D Fatigue is the major assessment finding common to all forms of anemia. Anemia does not normally result in acute pain or fluid deficit. The patient may have an increased risk of infection due to impaired immune function, but fatigue is more likely.

You are caring for a patient with a secondary diagnosis of hypermagnesemia. What assessment finding would be most consistent with this diagnosis? A) Hypertension B) Kussmaul respirations C) Increased DTRs D) Shallow respirations

D If hypermagnesemia is suspected, the nurse monitors the vital signs, noting hypotension and shallow respirations. The nurse also observes for decreased DTRs and changes in the level of consciousness. Kussmaul breathing is a deep and labored breathing pattern associated with severe metabolic acidosis, particularly diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA), but also renal failure. This type of patient is associated with decreased DTRs, not increased DTRs.

A nurse has obtained an order to remove a patients NG tube and has prepared the patient accordingly. After flushing the tube and removing the nasal tape, the nurse attempts removal but is met with resistance. Because the nurse is unable to overcome this resistance, what is the most appropriate action? A) Gently twist the tube before pulling. B) Instill a digestive enzyme solution and reattempt removal in 10 to 15 minutes. C) Flush the tube with hot tap water and reattempt removal. D) Report this finding to the patients primary care provider.

D If the tube does not come out easily, force should not be used, and the problem should be reported to the primary provider. Enzymes are used to resolve obstructions, not to aid removal. For safety reasons, hot water is never instilled into a tube. Twisting could cause damage to the mucosa.

A patient comes into the clinic complaining of fatigue. Blood work shows an increased bilirubin concentration and an increased reticulocyte count. What would the nurse suspect the patient has? A) A hypoproliferative anemia B) A leukemia C) Thrombocytopenia D) A hemolytic anemia

D In hemolytic anemias, premature destruction of erythrocytes results in the liberation of hemoglobin from the erythrocytes into the plasma; the released hemoglobin is converted in large part to bilirubin, and therefore the bilirubin concentration rises. The increased erythrocyte destruction leads to tissue hypoxia, which in turn stimulates erythropoietin production. This increased production is reflected in an increased reticulocyte count as the bone marrow responds to the loss of erythrocytes. Hypoproliferative anemias, leukemia, and thrombocytopenia lack this pathology and presentation.

The medical nurse is aware that patients with sickle cell anemia benefit from understanding what situations can precipitate a sickle cell crisis. When teaching a patient with sickle cell anemia about strategies to prevent crises, what measures should the nurse recommend? A) Using prophylactic antibiotics and performing meticulous hygiene B) Maximizing physical activity and taking OTC iron supplements C) Limiting psychosocial stress and eating a high-protein diet D) Avoiding cold temperatures and ensuring sufficient hydration

D Keeping warm and providing adequate hydration can be effective in diminishing the occurrence and severity of attacks. Hygiene, antibiotics, and high protein intake do not prevent crises. Maximizing activity may exacerbate pain and be unrealistic.

A nurse is planning the care of a patient who has a diagnosis of hemophilia A. When addressing the nursing diagnosis of Acute Pain Related to Joint Hemorrhage, what principle should guide the nurses choice of interventions? A) Gabapentin (Neurontin) is effective because of the neuropathic nature of the patients pain. B) Opioids partially inhibit the patients synthesis of clotting factors. C) Opioids may cause vasodilation and exacerbate bleeding. D) NSAIDs are contraindicated due to the risk for bleeding.

D NSAIDs may be contraindicated in patients with hemophilia due to the associated risk of bleeding. Opioids do not have a similar effect and they do not inhibit platelet synthesis. The pain associated with hemophilia is not neuropathic.

Diagnostic testing has been ordered to differentiate between normal anion gap acidosis and high anion gap acidosis in an acutely ill patient. What health problem typically precedes normal anion gap acidosis? A) Metastases B) Excessive potassium intake C) Water intoxication D) Excessive administration of chloride

D Normal anion gap acidosis results from the direct loss of bicarbonate, as in diarrhea, lower intestinal fistulas, ureterostomies, and use of diuretics; early renal insufficiency; excessive administration of chloride; and the administration of parenteral nutrition without bicarbonate or bicarbonate-producing solutes (e.g., lactate). Based on these facts, the other listed options are incorrect.

A patient is being treated on the medical unit for a sickle cell crisis. The nurses most recent assessment reveals an oral temperature of 100.5F and a new onset of fine crackles on lung auscultation. What is the nurses most appropriate action? A) Apply supplementary oxygen by nasal cannula. B) Administer bronchodilators by nebulizer. C) Liaise with the respiratory therapist and consider high-flow oxygen. D) Inform the primary care provider that the patient may have an infection.

D Patients with sickle cell disease are highly susceptible to infection,thus any early signs of infection should be reported promptly. There is no evidence of respiratory distress, so oxygen therapy and bronchodilators are not indicated.

A patient, 25 years of age, comes to the emergency department complaining of excessive bleeding from a cut sustained when cleaning a knife. Blood work shows a prolonged PT but a vitamin K deficiency is ruled out. When assessing the patient, areas of ecchymosis are noted on other areas of the body. Which of the following is the most plausible cause of the patients signs and symptoms? A) Lymphoma B) Leukemia C) Hemophilia D) Hepatic dysfunction

D Prolongation of the PT, unless it is caused by vitamin K deficiency, may indicate severe hepatic dysfunction. The majority of hemophiliacs are diagnosed as children. The scenario does not describe signs or symptoms of lymphoma or leukemia.

A 73-year-old man comes into the emergency department (ED) by ambulance after slipping on a small carpet in his home. The patient fell on his hip with a resultant fracture. He is alert and oriented; his pupils are equal and reactive to light and accommodation. His heart rate is elevated, he is anxious and thirsty, a Foley catheter is placed, and 40 mL of urine is present. What is the nurses most likely explanation for the low urine output? A) The man urinated prior to his arrival to the ED and will probably not need to have the Foley catheter kept in place. B) The man likely has a traumatic brain injury, lacks antidiuretic hormone (ADH), and needs vasopressin. C) The man is experiencing symptoms of heart failure and is releasing atrial natriuretic peptide that results in decreased urine output. D) The man is having a sympathetic reaction, which has stimulated the reninangiotensinaldosterone system that results in diminished urine output.

D Renin is released by the juxtaglomerular cells of the kidneys in response to decreased renal perfusion. Angiotensin-converting enzyme converts angiotensin I to angiotensin II. Angiotensin II, with its vasoconstrictor properties, increases arterial perfusion pressure and stimulates thirst. As the sympathetic nervous system is stimulated, aldosterone is released in response to an increased release of renin, which decreases urine production. Based on the nursing assessment and mechanism of injury, this is the most likely causing the lower urine output. The man urinating prior to his arrival to the ED is unlikely; the fall and hip injury would make his ability to urinate difficult. No assessment information indicates he has a head injury or heart failure.

An intensive care nurse is aware of the need to identify patients who may be at risk of developing disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC). Which of the following ICU patients most likely faces the highest risk of DIC? A) A patient with extensive burns B) A patient who has a diagnosis of acute respiratory distress syndrome C) A patient who suffered multiple trauma in a workplace accident D) A patient who is being treated for septic shock

D Sepsis is a common cause of DIC. A wide variety of acute illnesses can precipitate DIC, but sepsis is specifically identified as a cause.

The baroreceptors, located in the left atrium and in the carotid and aortic arches, respond to changes in the circulating blood volume and regulate sympathetic and parasympathetic neural activity as well as endocrine activities. Sympathetic stimulation constricts renal arterioles, causing what effect? A) Decrease in the release of aldosterone B) Increase of filtration in the Loop of Henle C) Decrease in the reabsorption of sodium D) Decrease in glomerular filtration

D Sympathetic stimulation constricts renal arterioles; this decreases glomerular filtration, increases the release of aldosterone, and increases sodium and water reabsorption. None of the other listed options occurs with increased sympathetic stimulation.

A clinic nurse is working with a patient who has a long-standing diagnosis of polycythemia vera. How can the nurse best gauge the course of the patients disease? A) Document the color of the patients palms and face during each visit. B) Follow the patients erythrocyte sedimentation rate over time. C) Document the patients response to erythropoietin injections. D) Follow the trends of the patients hematocrit.

D The course of polycythemia vera can be best ascertained by monitoring the patients hematocrit, which should remain below 45%. Erythropoietin injections would exacerbate the condition. Skin tone should be observed, but is a subjective assessment finding. The patients ESR is not relevant to the course of the disease.

You are caring for a patient who is being treated on the oncology unit with a diagnosis of lung cancer with bone metastases. During your assessment, you note the patient complains of a new onset of weakness with abdominal pain. Further assessment suggests that the patient likely has a fluid volume deficit. You should recognize that this patient may be experiencing what electrolyte imbalance? A) Hypernatremia B) Hypomagnesemia C) Hypophosphatemia D) Hypercalcemia

D The most common causes of hypercalcemia are malignancies and hyperparathyroidism. Anorexia, nausea, vomiting, and constipation are common symptoms of hypercalcemia. Dehydration occurs with nausea, vomiting, anorexia, and calcium reabsorption at the proximal renal tubule. Abdominal and bone pain may also be present. Primary manifestations of hypernatremia are neurologic and would not include abdominal pain and dehydration. Tetany is the most characteristic manifestation of hypomagnesemia, and this scenario does not mention tetany. The patients presentation is inconsistent with hypophosphatemia.

A nurse is caring for a patient with a nasogastric tube for feeding. During shift assessment, the nurse auscultates a new onset of bilateral lung crackles and notes a respiratory rate of 30 breaths per minute. The patients oxygen saturation is 89% by pulse oximetry. After ensuring the patients immediate safety, what is the nurses most appropriate action? A) Perform chest physiotherapy. B) Reduce the height of the patients bed and remove the NG tube. C) Liaise with the dietitian to obtain a feeding solution with lower osmolarity. D) Report possible signs of aspiration pneumonia to the primary care provider

D The patient should be assessed for further signs of aspiration pneumonia. It is unnecessary to remove the NG tube and chest physiotherapy is not indicated. A different feeding solution will not resolve this complication.

A patient is being treated for DIC and the nurse has prioritized the nursing diagnosis of Risk for Deficient Fluid Volume Related to Bleeding. How can the nurse best determine if goals of care relating to this diagnosis are being met? A) Assess for edema. B) Assess skin integrity frequently. C) Assess the patients level of consciousness frequently. D) Closely monitor intake and output.

D The patient with DIC is at a high risk of deficient fluid volume. The nurse can best gauge the effectiveness of care by closely monitoring the patients intake and output. Each of the other assessments is a necessary element of care, but none addresses fluid balance as directly as close monitoring of intake and output.

A patient with a pulmonary embolism is being treated with a heparin infusion. What diagnostic finding suggests to the nurse that treatment is effective? A) The patients PT is within reference ranges. B) Arterial blood sampling tests positive for the presence of factor XIII. C) 3 The patients platelet level is below 100,000/mm . D) The patients activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is 1.5 to 2.5 times the control value.

D The therapeutic effect of heparin is monitored by serial measurements of the aPTT; the dose is adjusted to maintain the range at 1.5 to 2.5 times the laboratory control. Heparin dosing is not determined on the basis of platelet levels, the presence or absence of clotting factors, or PT levels.

A nurse is creating a care plan for a patient with a nasogastric tube. How should the nurse direct other members of the care team to check correct placement of the tube? A) Auscultate the patients abdomen after injecting air through the tube. B) Assess the color and pH of aspirate. C) Locate the marking made after the initial x-ray confirming placement. D) Use a combination of at least two accepted methods for confirming placement.

D There are a variety of methods to check tube placement. The safest way to confirm placement is to utilize a combination of assessment methods.

You are working on a burns unit and one of your acutely ill patients is exhibiting signs and symptoms of third spacing. Based on this change in status, you should expect the patient to exhibit signs and symptoms of what imbalance? A) Metabolic alkalosis B) Hypermagnesemia C) Hypercalcemia D) Hypovolemia

D Third-spacing fluid shift, which occurs when fluid moves out of the intravascular space but not into the intracellular space, can cause hypovolemia. Increased calcium and magnesium levels are not indicators of third-spacing fluid shift. Burns typically cause acidosis, not alkalosis.

A newly graduated nurse is admitting a patient with a long history of emphysema. The new nurses preceptor is going over the patients past lab reports with the new nurse. The nurse takes note that the patients PaCO2 has been between 56 and 64 mm Hg for several months. The preceptor asks the new nurse why they will be cautious administering oxygen. What is the new nurses best response? A) The patients calcium will rise dramatically due to pituitary stimulation. B) Oxygen will increase the patients intracranial pressure and create confusion. C) Oxygen may cause the patient to hyperventilate and become acidotic. D) Using oxygen may result in the patient developing carbon dioxide narcosis and hypoxemia.

D When PaCO2 chronically exceeds 50 mm Hg, it creates insensitivity to CO2 in the respiratory medulla, and the use of oxygen may result in the patient developing carbon dioxide narcosis and hypoxemia. No information indicates the patients calcium will rise dramatically due to pituitary stimulation. No feedback system that oxygen stimulates would create an increase in the patients intracranial pressure and create confusion. Increasing the oxygen would not stimulate the patient to hyperventilate and become acidotic; rather, it would cause hypoventilation and acidosis.