Exam 1 review (All the Mastering A&P homeworks)

A lab technician is ordered to take a sample of your blood. As she inserts the needle, she says, "My, you have tough skin!" What would be an equivalent translation of this statement?

"My, your stratified squamous epithelium is difficult to penetrate!"

When phagocytes recognize a pathogen, two events are triggered: What are they?

- Ingestion of the pathogen - Release of chemical alarm signals that mobilize other cells of innate and adaptive immunity.

What are some functions of the spleen?

- Removes pathogens, aged erythrocytes, and platelets from the blood. - Stores platelets and breakdown products of erythrocytes. - Provides a site for the interaction of lymphocytes with antigens.

There are 5 lines of internal defense, what are they?

1. Phagocytic cells - neutrophils and macrophages 2. Natural killer (NK) cels - kill body cells that have become virus-infected or cancerous 3. Antimicrobial proteins - complement and interferons 4. Inflammation 5. Fever

Place the following steps of phagocytosis in the order that they occur: 1. Endosome fuses with lysozome 2. Dendritic cells engulfs Rhinovirus 3. Epitopes are attached to MHC-II 4. Digestion of the Rhinovirus 5. MHC-II plus the attached epitope move to the outside of the dendritic cell

2,1,4,3,5

Correctly order the steps involved cellular immunity: 1. The Tc recognizes the infected host cell 2. The Tc interacts with epitope presented by MHC-I on the dendritic cell 3. The Tc secretes perforin and granzyme, causing apoptosis 4. The helper T cell activates the Tc cell

2,4,1,3

Antidiuretic hormone (ADH)

A hormone from the anterior pituitary that increases cAMP concentrations within a cell.

Oxytocin

A hormone from the posterior pituitary that uses calcium as the second messenger.

Cyclic AMP

A second messenger that is a derivative of ATP.

Which of the following is NOT a step that ultimately leads to antibody production?

Activation of cytotoxic T cells by helper T cells - The activation of cytotoxic T cells leads down the path of cell-mediated immunity.

Which of the following statements is true?

Adaptive defenses include both humoral and cellular immunity. - Adaptive defenses are operating optimally when both humoral and cellular immunity are working together in response to a pathogen.

Anne Marie has a condition called Ehlers-Danlos syndrome that affects the connective tissue found in her joints and skin. What are the characteristics of connective tissue?

All types of connective tissue have specialized cells embedded in a matrix composed of extracellular fibers and ground substance. - Connective tissue varies widely in appearance, but all types share these characteristics.

What is meant by the clonal expansion of a B cell?

An activated B cell divides into cells that give rise to memory B cells and plasma cells. - The activated B cell divides until there are many clones. Some differentiate into memory cells, other become plasma cells that produce and secrete antibodies.

How is Ca2+ used as a second messenger?

An activated G protein opens Ca2+ channels, allowing Ca2+ to enter the cell and bind to calmodulin, causing enzyme activation. Ca2+ second messenger pathways require activated G proteins to open Ca2+ channels. When Ca2+ enters the cell, its interaction with calmodulin increases cellular metabolism by activation enzymes inside the cell.

G-protein

An enzyme complex that serves as a link between the first and second messenger.

________ is a condition in which the oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood is reduced.

Anemia

Which of the following are primary lymphoid organs? A.spleen and thymus B.bone marrow and thymus C.lymph nodes and tonsils D. appendix and spleen

B.bone marrow and thymus

Which pair of molecules do NOT directly interact with one another?

BCR and TCR - Both of these molecules interact with epitopes. BCRs interact with epitopes on the whole pathogen. TRCs interact with processed epitopes when presented on MHC-II.

Mrs. Higgins needs to have major surgery. Two weeks before the surgery, her doctor prescribes EPO. Which of the following statements best explains his reason for doing this?

By prescribing EPO, the doctor can stimulate Mrs. Higgins's body to produce an overabundance of RBCs, which can be harvested and saved for her surgery.

Class I MHC proteins are recognized by which of the following cell types (that are destined to become T cells)?

CD8 - class I MHC proteins are recognized by CD8 cells.

Which major class of lymphocytes become cytotoxic T cells?

CD8 cells - CD8 cells become cytotoxic T cells.

A person who has AIDS contracts rare and often life-threatening infections because their helper T cell count is so low. Which of the following components of the immune response still respond to antigen despite the low helper T cell count?

Clonal selection of B cells - B cells can still bind to antigen, which is the process of clonal selection. However, without a helper T cell, clonal expansion and antibody production will not occur.

How would removal of calcium ions from a blood sample affect coagulation?

Coagulation would be prevented.

What type of cytokine stimulates blood cell production?

Colony-stimulating factors - Colony-stimulating factors are produced by active T cells, cells of the monocyte-macrophage system, endothelial cells, and fibroblasts. They target the red bone marrow and lymphoid tissues and organs as well as stimulate blood cell production.

What are the different types of connective tissue?

Connective tissue can be divided into three main types: connective tissue proper, fluid connective tissue, and supporting connective tissue. - Connective tissue proper includes tendons and adipose, fluid connective tissue consists of blood and lymph, and the supporting connective tissues are cartilage and bone.

Cancer cells would be attacked by which of the following cells?

Cytotoxic T cells - cytotoxic T cells attack cancer cells, since they are part of cell-mediated immunity.

Which of the following areas in a secondary lymphoid organ allows intimate contact between blood and the lymphocytes? A. red pulp of the spleen B. germinal centers of the lymph nodes C. Hassall's corpuscles of the thymus D. white pulp of the spleen

D. white pulp of the spleen

Where in the lymph node do the T cells first encounter antigens presented by dendritic cells?

Deep in the cortex, the T cells encounter antigens presented by dendritic cells in the deeper part of the cortex. The cortex is the outer area of the lymph node.

__________ provide strength in many directions.

Dense irregular connective tissues

Which of the following statements is true about hemoglobin?

Each hemoglobin molecule can carry four oxygen atoms.

Which of the following is considered a first messenger? cAMP> Ca2+? Epinephrine? ATP?

Epinephrine!

First messenger

Examples include calcitonin, follicle-stimulating hormone, and luteinizing hormone.

Because connective tissue is found throughout the body, more than just Anne Marie's joints and skin could be affected by Ehlers-Danlos syndrome. What is fascia and where is it found?

Fasciae are layers of connective tissue that surround and support organs. - There are three kinds of fasciae: superficial, deep, and subserous.

Which one of Ruthie's symptoms is an example of an innate defense mechanism? A. blister B. loss of appetite C. fever D. lethargy

Fever- A fever can be beneficial. High body temperatures may inhibit some viruses and bacteria, and a fever elevates metabolic rate, allowing tissue defenses to be mobilized more rapidly, speeding up the repair process.

Insulin-like growth factors (IGFs) are intermediary hormones stimulated by which of the following hormones?

GH (growth hormone) - GH stimulates IGFs from the liver. IGFs are required for the growth effect of GH on bone and skin.

What is the role of helper T cells in the adaptive immune response?

Helper T cells activate B cells and cytotoxic T lymphocytes to kill infected host cells. - Helper T cells activate B cells that are displaying antigen, causing clonal expansion. Helper T cells also activate cytotoxic T cells, which will search for and destroy infected host cells.

Which second messenger causes the release of calcium from the endoplasmic reticulum?

IP3; inositol trisphosphate releases calcium from intracellular storage sites.

Both ways of inducing active immunity (vaccines and direct environmental exposure to an antigen) will ultimately result in the production of antibodies. Which class of the five classes of antibodies is the first to be secreted during the primary response after the initial exposure to the antigen?

IgM - IgM is the first class of antibody secreted during the primary response to an antigen being encountered. IgM concentration declines as IgG production accelerates.

Hormones such as calcitonin, parathyroid hormone, and the pituitary hormones are protein-based and water-soluble. How does a hormone that cannot penetrate the lipid membrane effect change in the cell?

In this second messenger pathway, ATP is converted into cAMP, which causes the intracellular reactions. In order to activate the cAMP, the hormone, or first messenger, binds to the protein receptor. The receptor activates the G protein, which starts the conversion of ATP into cAMP.

What is the role of transferrin ?

It transports iron ions in the plasma.

Once platelets arrive at the site of injury, they secrete chemicals to promote the clotting process. Hemophiliacs lack clotting factor VIII or IX. Which of the following would be the most likely hypothesis to best describe the underlying problem with their condition?

Lack of clotting factors VIII or IX results in a deficiency in factor X production. Thus, this deficit in the intrinsic pathway leads to compromised blood clotting.

The student who caught the cold caused by this specific Rhinovirus was exposed to the exact same Rhinovirus 18 months later. What component of the immune system will protect her from getting the same cold again?

Memory B cells - Memory cells to that specific virus are stored in the lymph nodes for many years. When the student comes into contact with this specific Rhinovirus, these memory cells quickly divide and differentiate into antibody-producing plasma cells. The antibodies will prevent the virus from reaching an infectious titer (number that causes infection).

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of Natural Killer (NK) cells?

NK cells recognize abnormal or cancer cells by a specific antigen on their cell membrane. NK cells do not recognize abnormal or cancer cells by a specific antigen on their cell membrane. NK cells to do not have specific antigen receptors - like T cells do. NK cells look for the absence of normally occurring "self" proteins on infected or cancerous cells.

Interleukins are a diverse group of chemical messengers with multiple functions in the immune system. Which of the following is NOT a likely function of interleukins?

Participating in the immune response as phagocytes - Interleukins play an important role in the immune system by regulating the activity of other cells. For example, interleukins stimulate the production of antibodies from plasma cells.

Which of these signs is often seen in patients suffering from hyperthyroid disease? -elevated body temperature -elevated heart rate -elevated oxygen utilization - Patients with hyperthyroid disease often exhibit all of these signs.

Patients with hyperthyroid disease often exhibit all of these signs

Collections of lymphoid tissues, called MALT, are strategically placed throughout the respiratory, digestive, and genitourinary systems. Which one of these is located at the end of the small intestine?

Peyer's patches

Which of the following is NOT a step used by cytotoxic T cells to kill infected host cells?

Recognition of infected host cell using its CD4 glycoprotein - The cytotoxic T cell uses its CD8 glycoprotein to bind to the MHC-I of an infected host cell.

Ehlers-Danlos syndrome specifically affects collagen fibers. What other types of fibers in addition to collagen are found in connective tissue?

Reticular and elastic fibers are also found in connective tissues. - Fibroblasts secrete all three types of fibers: collagen, reticular, and elastic.

Second messenger

Signaling molecules inside a cell that start intracellular changes.

__________ muscle tissue lack(s) microscopic striations.

Smooth

How do phagocytes recognize foreign cells or bacteria?

The phagocytes recognize molecules on pathogens not normally found on body cells. - they use mannose and Toll-like receptors to bind to the molecules found on pathogens.

There is a decrease in our ability to fight infection as we age. Which lymphoid organ may have a role in this decline?

The thymus, the relative size of the thymus as well as its function decreases with age. Thymic atrophy may be one reason the elderly are more susceptible to infection.

What do the interferons alpha, beta, and gamma have in common?

They all impart viral resistance to cells - While the functions of the three types of interferons mentioned in the text book are numerous, they all share an antiviral function.

Which of the following is NOT a property of neuroglia?

They conduct electrical impulses.

What are the following functions of the lymph nodes? (2 things)

To filter the lymph by removing antigens and other debris and second provide sites for the activation of B and T cells by antigens. These interactions generate immune response

Suzie was sewing when she accidently punctured her finger with the needle. Several days later, it is filled with pus. Which statement provides an explanation of how the WBCs were able to populate that wound?

WBCs can migrate out of the blood stream, WBCs are positively attracted to specific chemical stimuli and WBCs move through tissues using amoeboid movement. This results in allowing them to locate and move into the wound.

Which is the correct order of events for hormones activating Gs proteins?

activation of G protein, binding of GTP, activation of adenylate cyclase, conversion of ATP to cAMP - Gs proteins are stimulatory proteins that activate cAMP.

What is the mechanism of action of lipid-soluble hormones?

activation of genes, which increases protein synthesis in the cell. Lipid-soluble hormones diffuse into the nucleus or they diffuse into the cytoplasm and then move into the nucleus, where they affect transcription and translation.

After a lipid-soluble hormone is bound to its intracellular receptor, what does the hormone complex do?

acts as a transcription factor and binds to DNA, activating a gene. Then mRNA is synthesized.

What is the function of the ventral hypothalamic neurons?

adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) - ACTH stimulates the adrenal cortex to produce cortisol. Stress and ACTH are the main stimuli for cortisol.

What tropic hormone stimulates cortisol from the adrenal gland?

adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) - ACTH stimulates the adrenal cortex to produce cortisol. Stress and ACTH are the main stimuli for cortisol.

Which of the following types of cells display protein fragments produced by the cancer within them?

all nucleated cells - nucleated body cells bring pieces of endogenous proteins to the surface to display on the MHC protein.

What is the name of the unique area (specific region) that a lymphocyte recognizes and binds to?

an antigenic determinant - also called an epitope, the antigenic determinant is the specific part of an antigen that the antibody or lymphocyte antigenic determinant receptor binds to.

Which of the following can act as opsonins on bacteria, thus enhancing phagocytosis?

antibodies and complement proteins - both antibodies and complement proteins can act as opsonins on bacteria.

Class II MHC proteins are found on which of the following cell types?

antigen-presenting cells - class II MHC proteins are found only on antigen-presenting cells.

Jane has been taking the antibiotic chloramphenicol for a few weeks as treatment for a serious bacterial infection. There is a possibility that a future side effect of long-term antibiotic therapy could cause her to develop problems in blood cell counts. The result is ________________

aplastic anemia.

Immunizations against infectious diseases are one of the most successful medical advancements in the history of public health. A vaccine, containing weakened or dead forms of the antigen, is administered orally, intranasally, subcutaneously, or intramuscularly. The antigens are not virulent enough to cause the disease, but they provoke the adaptive immune response in the body. A vaccine is an example of which type of adaptive immunity?

artificially induced active immunity - The administration of the vaccine is considered artificial inducement of active immunity.

Which of these carries information from the neural cell body to the next cell?

axons

In _____________________________, glucose levels remain higher than normal.

both type 1 and type 2 diabetes

Which muscle cell type has visible striations but is not under voluntary control?

cardiac - cardiac cells, like skeletal cells, have visible striations but are not under voluntary control.

The recirculation of fluids in the body is essential to homeostasis, eliminating local variations in the fluids, maintaining blood volume, and alerting the immune system to infection. Which of the following correctly describes the recirculation of fluids in the body?

cardiovascular system, interstitial fluid, lymph, cardiovascular system

To celebrate her 50th birthday, Anna got her ear pierced in the elastic cartilage portion (pinna). The piercing specialist informed her that it will take at least 6 weeks to heal. This is because __________.

cartilage is avascular, so healing takes longer

If a virus attacks a cell, which type of immunity would be activated?

cell-mediated immunity (cellular immunity) - cell-mediated immunity involves an intracellular pathogen such as a virus.

What keeps intracellular receptors from binding to DNA before a hormone binds to the receptor?

chaperone proteins (chaperonins) - each receptor has two binding sites. The chaperone protein blocks the DNA binding site until a hormone binds at the hormone binding site.

Histamine increases blood flow and vascular permeability. This would account for all of the following changes that occur during inflammation, except A) redness of the inflamed tissue. B) chemotaxis of phagocytes. C) heat of the inflamed tissue. D) movement of defense proteins and cells into the interstitial space. E) swelling of the inflamed tissue.

chemotaxis of phagocytes.

Which class of MHC proteins presents exogenous antigens?

class II MHC proteins - class II MHC proteins present antigens that originated from outside the cell (phagocytized extracellular pathogens).

Which of the innate defense mechanisms can lyse bacteria and mark cells for phagocytosis?

complement proteins - the complement proteins can lyse microorganisms using the MAC (membrane attack complex) system to form pores, mark cells for phagocytosis (opsonization), and promote inflammation.

Which of the following hormones has intracellular receptors?

cortisol - is one of the lipid-soluble steroid hormones. Thyroid hormones are also lipid soluble.

Primary endocrine disorders may be due to damage to the hormone-producing organ. Karen's thyroid gland suffered damage from repeated exposure to radiation because of a neck injury. Which of the following is least likely to be part of a primary endocrine disorder for Karen?

decreased osteoblast sensitivity to calcitonin

Which structure typically receives information from other neurons?

dendrite

Plasma expanders are used to temporarily increase the volume of blood in a patient. Oftentimes these expanders are components that are naturally found within plasma. Which of the following substances would NOT likely be used as a plasma expander?

erythrocytes

Chondrocytes are to the epiglottis as osteocytes are to the __________.

femur

Cushing's disease results from an excess of?

glucocorticoids

In secondary hypothyroidism, thyroid hormone release from the thyroid is impaired because of a lack in TRH or TSH. Considering the information above, secondary hypogonadism could result from a lack in which of the following hormones?

gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH)

The waste product bilirubin is produced from

heme molecules lacking iron.

You have spent 24 hours traveling from the U.S to New Zealand, on quite a few airplanes with many stops. Because of the stress, changes in time zones, and short blocks of time between planes, you find yourself tired with a headache when you arrive. You are severely dehydrated. A hematocrit value of your blood would be ________ than normal because ________.

higher; you have less blood plasma volume

What type of immunity can be transferred by bodily fluids from one person to another, thus conferring immunity to the recipient?

humoral immunity - humoral immunity involves antibodies that can be transferred from one person to another.

Where is antidiuretic hormone (ADH), also known as vasopressin, synthesized?

hypothalamus - ADH is synthesized mainly in the supraoptic nucleus of the hypothalamus. It is stored in the posterior pituitary in axon terminals.

Pernicious anemia caused by a lack of intrinsic factor is specifically treated by _______________.

injections of vitamin B12.

Tears and mucus membranes would be a part of which defense system?

innate external defenses - innate external defenses (surface barriers) are the first line of defense and include tears, mucus membranes, and the skin.

Phagocytotic cells such as macrophages identify a variety of enemies by recognizing markers unique to pathogens. They would be classified as which type of defense system?

innate internal defenses - the macrophage recognizes many molecules found on pathogens that are not present on normal body cells.

Which of the following innate internal defenses work by interfering with viral replication?

interferons - interferons are antimicrobial proteins that interfere with viral replication. They are produced by a virus-infected cell. Although the infected cell will die, it sends out interferons that protect the neighboring cells from the virus.

Eileen is a strict vegan and therefore eats no animal products. She develops an anemia that her doctor thinks is caused by a nutritional deficiency. Which of the following is the likeliest candidate?

iron-deficiency anemia

Simple squamous epithelium is found __________.

lining blood vessels

The combination of fibers and ground substance in supporting connective tissues is known as

matrix

Epithelial cells with important transport functions such as absorption and secretion often bear __________ on their free surfaces.

microvilli

What is the most important regulatory factor controlling the circulating levels of thyroid hormone?

negative feedback - controls the levels of circulating thyroid hormone. If levels are high, negative feedback will decrease thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) (and thyrotropin-releasing hormone (TRH) to some degree), thus decreasing the thyroid hormones.

An antigen-antibody complex can cause the elimination of an antigen by __________.

opsonization

What binds to this structure on the hemoglobin molecule?

oxygen

Which of the following hormones is regulated by a neuroendocrine ("letdown") reflex?

oxytocin - suckling of the infant (or stretching of the uterus) increases release of oxytocin, which causes the milk let-down effect (or increased uterine contractions).

Which intracellular substance degrades cAMP, thus inactivating the response to a hormone?

phosphodiesterase - is an intracellular enzyme that degrades cAMP.

What cells make antibodies?

plasma B cells - the plasma B cells make antibodies in response to specific antigens.

Diabetes insipidus occurs when the __________ lobe of the pituitary gland no longer releases __________.

posterior; ADH

A marked loss in strength and elasticity of connective tissue characterizes Marfan's syndrome. Which connective tissue component imparts strength and elasticity?

proteinaceous connective tissue fibers

Many types of epithelial cells perform the function of __________.

secretion

The proximal tubule of the nephron (kidney tubule) in the kidney is composed of which type of epithelium?

simple cuboidal epithelium - the simple cuboidal cells line the kidney tubules (nephrons) so that secretion and absorption can take place.

The wall of the alveolus (air sac) in the lung is composed of which type of epithelium?

simple squamous epithelium - this single layer of squamous cells is ideal for the diffusion of gases in the lungs.

Myosatellite cells are found within __________ muscle.

skeletal

The type of muscle tissue that does not contain gap junctions is __________.

skeletal

Which type of muscle tissue is under your conscious control?

skeletal

Which of the three muscle cell types has multiple nuclei?

skeletal - skeletal muscle cells are elongated and many can be quite long; therefore, they have multiple nuclei.

Which part of the neuron (a specialized nerve cell) receives signals from other cells and is also the main metabolic region of the neuron?

soma - the soma or cell body receives inputs (signals) from other cells and sends the information to the axon. But unlike a dendrite, it also is the main metabolic and nutritional center of the cell.

The epithelium of the esophagus is composed of which type of epithelial tissue?

stratified squamous epithelium - this epithelium protects underlying tissues from the wear and tear of constant swallowing in the esophagus.

Now that Ruthie has been infected with the chickenpox virus, what is the first step in the immune response that helps her fight off the virus?

the display of antigenic fragments in Class I and II MHC proteins in the plasma membranes of antigen-presenting cells - Cells that are actually infected with the virus will produce Class I MHC proteins to display on their plasma membranes as a signal they are infected. Phagocytic cells that directly attack the virus or infected cells will display fragments of the antigen in Class II MHC proteins on their plasma membranes.

What is the cause of the striated appearance of skeletal and cardiac muscle?

the repeating arrangement of the contractile proteins, actin and myosin

Which hormone's receptor is always bound to DNA, even when the receptor is empty?

thyroid hormone(s) - are lipid soluble and their receptors are bound to the response elements of the DNA.

The __________ stops materials from moving between cells across an epithelium.

tight junctions

What type of epithelial tissue is specialized to stretch repeatedly without damage?

transitional epithelium

The classic pathway of complement activation begins when the protein C1 binds to.........

two antibodies attached to an antigen.

In________________, no insulin is produced.

type 1 diabetes

In___________________, target cells do not respond normally to insulin.

type 2 diabetes

Growth factor hormones, such as insulin, bind to which type of receptor?

tyrosine kinase receptors; insulin binds to tyrosine kinase receptors and works without a second messenger.

What type of hormones bind to receptors located on the cell membrane?

water-soluble hormones, such as insulin and epinephrine; peptides and catecholamines are water-soluble hormones that cannot diffuse through the plasma membrane as well.

All of the following are true of the secondary response of humoral immunity except that it.....

weakens quickly because memory B cells only survive for a year or two.

Which of the following adrenergic receptors increase cAMP levels?

β receptors; these receptors are coupled to adenylate cyclase by Gs receptors that increase cAMP.