Exam 1 review
Place these methods of measuring height in order of accuracy. Arm span Recumbent Standing height Knee height Ulna height
1- standing height 2- recumbent 3- arm span 4- knee height 5- ulna height
DRIs have _____ age groupings. 10 5 8 16
10
Which of the following is an open-ended question for a patient interview? A) "Why have you come to see me today?" B) "Do you have any nausea or vomiting?" C) "Don't you agree that you need to eat a healthier diet?" D) "Can I speak with you for a few minutes?"
A) "Why have you come to see me today?"
In order to estimate height, half arm span length is multiplied by what number? A) 2 B) 2.3 C) 2.8 D) 3
A) 2
A food diary or record is usually kept for a minimum of how many days? A) 2-3 B) 4-5 C) 7-10 D) 1
A) 2-3
You're measuring a child's length and measure at 41.39 cm. How should you record this information? A) 41.4 cm B) 42 cm C) 41 cm
A) 41.4 cm
The "bod pod" uses which method to determine body composition? A) Air displacement plethysmography B) Bioelectrical impedance analysis C) Hydrodensitometry D) Dual-energy X-ray absorptiometry
A) Air displacement plethysmography
Per the guidance from AND on MNT documentation, which of these are good practice in documentation? List all that apply. A) Document what you report to other healthcare professionals. B) Chart a symptom without charting what you did about it. C) Chart a verbal order before you have received the order. D) Chart before you have interviewed the patient. E) If charting another person's observations, quote and attribute the source. F) Document circumstances and handling of errors. G) Chart all referrals and supportive efforts.
A) Document what you report to other healthcare professionals. E) If charting another person's observations, quote and attribute the source. F) Document circumstances and handling of errors. G) Chart all referrals and supportive efforts.
What is the gold standard method for estimating body composition? A) Dual-energy X-ray absorptiometry (DXA) B) Bioelectrical impedance analysis (BIA) C) Skinfold method D) Hydrodensitometry
A) Dual-energy X-ray absorptiometry (DXA)
Which of the following does NOT increase the thermic effect of food (TEF)? A) Fat B) Protein C) Caffeine D) Spicy foods
A) Fat explanation: Although dietary fat provides the highest concentration of energy, metabolism of fat is highly efficient, with only 4% of calories wasted. This partly explains the obesogenic aspect of dietary fat. The TEF after intake of carbohydrates and proteins tends to be higher than after fat intake. Following a regular eating schedule results in a higher TEF than irregular eating. The use of spice and mustard increases metabolism more than unspiced meals.
Which method of dietary assessment places the greatest burden on the patient? A) Food diary or record B) Food frequency questionnaire C) Calorie count D) 24-hour dietary recall
A) Food diary or record
How does an elevation in body temperature with fever affect the metabolic rate? A) It increases the metabolic rate by 7% per degree Fahrenheit above normal. B) It decreases the metabolic rate by 7% per degree Fahrenheit above normal. C) It does not change the metabolic rate. D) It increases the metabolic rate by 14% per degree Fahrenheit above normal.
A) It increases the metabolic rate by 7% per degree Fahrenheit above normal. explanation: Fever causes an increase in body temperature. For every degree Fahrenheit above the normal 98.6° F, the BMR increases by 7%.
Per the position statement from the Academy of Nutrition and Dietetics on malnutrition screening tools, what tool is recommended for screening for malnutrition in adults, regardless of their age, medical history, or setting? A) Malnutrition Screening Tool (MST) B) Malnutrition Universal Screening Tool (MUST) C) Subjective Global Assessment (SGA) D) Mini Nutritional Assessment (MNA)
A) Malnutrition Screening Tool (MST)
Which National Dysphagia Diet is the LEAST similar to normal food? A) NDD level 1 B) NDD level 2 C) NDD level 3 D) NDD level 4
A) NDD level 1
According to the chapters from "Interviewing the Difficult Patient," when there is a discrepancy between nonverbal and verbal messages, the patient will believe which one? A) Nonverbal B) Verbal
A) Nonverbal
The USDA 5-step multiple pass method begins with which of the following steps? A) Quick list B) Time and eating occasion C) Detailed description, amount and additions D) Probe for forgotten foods
A) Quick list
Indirect calorimetry is designed to measure: A) Resting energy expenditure B) Total energy expenditure C) Thermic effect of food D) Calories used in physical activity
A) Resting energy expenditure
There was a major change in the 1990s in the primary focus of the DRI values. What was that change? A) The DRIs now also intend to help individuals optimize their health, prevent disease, and avoid consuming too much of a nutrient. B) The DRIs now include a target audience of people with a variety of diseases. C) The DRIs now include gender and age categories; previous DRIs did not. D) The DRIs now focus solely on preventing the diseases associated with nutrient deficiency.
A) The DRIs now also intend to help individuals optimize their health, prevent disease, and avoid consuming too much of a nutrient.
Studies have shown that which factor(s) is (are) the primary determinant of an individual's resting energy expenditure (RMR)? A) The amount of lean body mass B) The amount of adipose tissue C) A person's age, gender, and health status D) The individual's body weight
A) The amount of lean body mass explanation: The lean body mass, or fat-free mass, accounts for about 80% of the variance in RMR. Although the body weight and composition are affected by a person's age, gender, and health status, the amount of metabolically active tissue that exists within the overall lean body mass contributes to the overall metabolic rate.
Per the Research text, what type of bias is most common in dietary assessment? A) Underreporting B) Overreporting
A) Underreporting
Which of the following is a component of the Nutrition Care Process that is new in the past 10 years to dietetics and nutrition professionals? A) Using dietetics specific terminology B) Implementing nutrition interventions C) Monitoring and evaluation D) Conducting nutrition assessments
A) Using dietetics specific terminology
Indirect calorimetry uses a respiratory quotient to estimate calorie needs. What is the respiratory quotient? A) Volume of CO2 produced / Volume of O2 consumed B) Volume of O2 consumed / Volume of CO2 produced C) Volume of O2 produced / Volume of CO2 consumed D) Volume of CO2 consumed / Volume of O2 produced
A) Volume of CO2 produced / Volume of O2 consumed
Which of the following strategies more effectively assesses trends over time versus accurate cross-sectional estimates? A) Bioelectrical impedance analysis (BIA) B) Hydrodensitometry C) Skinfold method D) Dual-energy X-ray absorptiometry (DXA)
A) bioelectrical impedance analysis (BIA)
BMI for age is plotted on growth charts instead of weight for height after a child reaches a specific: A) Height B) Weight C) BMI D) Head circumference
A) height
Nutrition risk screening using the EHR is best done by: A) the admitting health professional. B) an RDN. C) the patient. D) a physician.
A) the admitting health professional. explanation: Nutrition risk screening is a very simple and efficient way to ensure that appropriate patients are seen by a dietitian. Upon admission very simple yes/no questions about weight prior to admission and gastrointestinal problems prior to admission are used to generate the consult for the RDN.
The estimation of an individual's body composition is a part of nutrition assessment but can be incorporated through all subsequent steps of the Nutrition Care Process. A) True B) False
A) true
Per TJC requirements for documentation, which of these numbers is charted correctly? A) 0.30 mg vitamin C B) 0.3 mg vitamin C C) 3.0 mg vitamin C D) .3 mg vitamin C
B) 0.3 mg vitamin C
You're working in an outpatient clinic. During your interview of your patient, they tell you that they've been eating very differently lately than normal. Which dietary assessment tool is most appropriate to use right now? A) Calorie count B) 24-hour dietary recall C) Food diary or food record D) Food frequency questionnaire
B) 24-hour dietary recall
Which documentation style has been proposed to reflect the nutrition care process? A) PES B) ADIME C) SOAPIER D) Focus charting
B) ADIME explanation: The nutrition care process includes four components: nutrition assessment (A), nutrition diagnosis (D), nutrition intervention (I), and nutrition monitoring and evaluation (ME). PES is another term for the nutrition diagnosis statement and refers to problem, etiology, and signs and symptoms. Focus charting is a documentation style based on the identification of, and then charting in response to, problem occurrence. SOAPIER is an extension of SOAP that includes intervention (I), evaluation (E), and revision (R).
A 4-year-old patient has a Z-score of 0.25. This indicates she is ___ the 50th percentile. A) At B) Above C) Below
B) Above
The Malnutrition Universal Screening Tool (MUST) relies on what factors for the determination of nutritional risk in adults? A) Body mass index, medical diagnosis, blood albumin level B) Body mass index, weight loss, acute disease effect on intake C) Body mass index, blood albumin and cholesterol levels, clinical signs D) Body mass index, eating habits, functional status
B) Body mass index, weight loss, acute disease effect on intake explanation: The MUST screening tool determines a level of risk for patients based on the body mass index (BMI), recent unintentional weight loss, and an expectation of the disease affecting intake for 5 days or greater. Based on these factors, points are assigned to identify whether a patient is at low, medium, or high risk. The risk level indicates what type of care interventions are used with the patient. The Nutrition Screening Initiative uses BMI, eating habits, and functional status as part of its Level I screen. BMI, blood values for albumin and cholesterol, and identification of clinical signs of nutrient deficiency are included in the NSI's Level II screen.
According to the chapters from "Interviewing the Difficult Patient," what physical positioning indicates that you're willing to listen to them? A) You stand while encouraging the patient to continue lying in bed. B) Both you and the patient are seated at eye level. C) You are standing and allow the patient to sit. D) You stay near the door of the room so the patient knows you won't take too long
B) Both you and the patient are seated at eye level.
The Mini-Nutrition Assessment (MNA) may include assessment of which anthropometric measurement? A) Waist circumference B) Calf circumference C) Skinfold thickness D) Mid-arm circumference
B) Calf circumference
Which of the following statements accurately describes best the procedures for estimating body composition using the skinfold method? A) Plastic calipers are used to measure skinfold thinness at three sites on the body to calculate body density. B) Calipers are used to measure skinfold thickness at four sites on the body to calculate body density. C) Calipers are used to measure skinfold thickness at three sites on the body to calculate body fatness. D) Plastic calipers are used to measure skinfold thickness at two sites on the body to calculate body density.
B) Calipers are used to measure skinfold thickness at four sites on the body to calculate body density.
As noted in the Research text, which dietary assessment tool must be tailored to the eating patterns (especially cultural patterns) of the patient or population? A) 24-hour dietary recall B) Food frequency questionnaire C) Food diary or record D) Calorie count
B) Food frequency questionnaire
The purpose of Nutrition Assessment is: A) Collect family nutrition intake history B) Identify one or more nutrition problem(s) and make decisions about the underlying cause C) Identify all medical problems that could potentially relate to a nutrition problem for the patient D) Identify the relationship of the family medical history to the patient
B) Identify one or more nutrition problem(s) and make decisions about the underlying cause
According to the chapter by Lichstein, if family members or visitors are in the patient's room, what should you do? A) Ensure that your body language indicates your interest is only in the patient by turning away from family members and/or placing yourself between them and the patient. B) Introduce yourself to all present and explain the purpose of the interview. C) Request that all visitors leave the room while you talk to the patient. D) Ask the family members or visitors for information about the patient.
B) Introduce yourself to all present and explain the purpose of the interview.
According to the chapters from "Interviewing the Difficult Patient," the archetypal pattern of an effective interview is the repetition of what technique? A) Introduce, Explain, and Ask B) Invite, Listen, and Summarize C) Qualify, Quantify, and Rate D) Identify, Clarify, and Agree
B) Invite, Listen, and Summarize
Which of the following explains why it's inappropriate to use densitometry in individuals with chronic disease? A) It may result in underestimation of lean mass due to excess mineralization. B) It may result in overestimation of lean body mass due to fluid retention. C) It may result in underestimation of body fatness due to increased density of lean mass. D) It may result in overestimation of body fatness due to fluid retention.
B) It may result in overestimation of lean body mass due to fluid retention.
What is the primary benefit of using BMI as a screening tool? A) Its direct association with percent body fat B) Its simplicity and widespread use C) Its ability to determine total lean body mass D) Its ability to determine abdominal adiposity
B) Its simplicity and widespread use
Calipers are used in what type of height measurement? A) Demispan B) Knee height C) Recumbent D) Ulna
B) Knee height
Food frequency questionnaires are best used when you're interested in a patient's intake over a ___ period of time A) Short (last week or so) B) Long (several weeks at minimum)
B) Long (several weeks at minimum)
What assessment parameter remains the most accurate in a child who has edema? A) Weight for length B) Mid-upper arm circumference C) Weight for age D) BMI for age
B) Mid-upper arm circumference
What is the first step in the Nutrition Care Process? A) Monitoring and Evaluating B) Nutrition Assessment C) Nutrition Screening D) Nutrition Diagnosis E) Nutrition Intervention
B) Nutrition Assessment
In critically ill patients (those in the intensive care unit, ICU), side effects including poor glycemic control, altered neuroendocrine responses, increased risk of infectious complications, delays in time to get off mechanical ventilation, and increased mortality all may occur when a patient is: A) Underfed calories B) Overfed calories C) Fed the amount of calories needed
B) Overfed calories
For a single nutrient, the ___ will always be a larger amount than the Estimated Average Requirement (EAR). A) Estimated Energy Requirement (EER) B) Recommended Dietary Allowance (RDA) C) Acceptable Macronutrient Distribution Range (AMDR) D) Adequate Intake (AI)
B) RDA
Skinfold thickness is a method to estimate what type of body fat? A) Visceral B) Subcutaneous C) Essential
B) Subcutaneous
The patient interview is a critical time to collect what type of information? A) Objective B) Subjective
B) Subjective
Indirect calorimetry measurements are most accurate when which of the following conditions are met? A) The patient has exercised in the last hour B) The patient rests quietly for 10-15 minutes before measurement C) The patient has eaten a meal within 2 hours D) The patient has consumed caffeine in the last 20 minutes
B) The patient rests quietly for 10-15 minutes before measurement
Slower recovery and increased risk of developing clinical complications like pressure sores are associated with patients who are: A) Overfed calories B) Underfed calories C) Fed the amount of calories needed
B) Underfed calories
Practitioners can be fairly confident when using BMI in athletes, pregnant women, and older adults. A) True B) False
B) false
Normal or desirable bowel sounds are described as: A) Absent B) Present C) Hyperactive D) Hypoactive
B) present
Which of these assessment parameters will change first in a child who is experiencing inadequate intake of calories? A) Reduction in length for age B) Reduction in weight for age C) Reduction in head circumference for age
B) reduction in weight for age
Which of these questions is most effective to obtain information from a patient? A) "You stated you can't consume fish. Are you allergic, or do you just not like it, or does it disagree with you, like you feel bloated afterwards or you have pain in your abdomen or you have gas?" B) "You stated you can't consume fish. You really mean that you don't like it, right?" C) "You stated you can't consume fish. Why not?" D) "You stated you can't consume fish. Are you allergic?"
C) "You stated you can't consume fish. Why not?"
You are measuring a patient's blood pressure. You pump the blood pressure cuff to 180 mmHg and begin releasing pressure. You hear a rushing sound at 135 mmHg. You notice the needle moving back and forth at 115 mm Hg. The sound stops at 95 mmHg. You release all pressure at 70 mmHg. What is the patient's blood pressure? A) 115/70 B) 135/70 C) 135/95 D) 180/115
C) 135/95
Most skinfold thickness measurement techniques measure how many sites? A) 5 B) 7 C) 4 D) 2
C) 4
A particular food provides 100 kcal. How many kJ does this equal? A) 815 B) 23 C) 418 D) 526
C) 418 explanation: One kilocalorie is equal to 4.184 kJ (100 kcal . 4.18 kJ/kcal = 418 kJ)
The main benefit of using indirect calorimetry is: A) Machinery needed is cheap and readily available B) Accurately estimation of total energy expenditure C) Ability to individualize nutrition provided to meet this individual patient's needs D) Measurement is quick and easy to perform
C) Ability to individualize nutrition provided to meet this individual patient's needs
Per the Lichstein chapter, patients often stop volunteering information if the interviewer begins to do what? A) Sitting down during the interview B) Making "small talk" C) Asking only directive, closed-ended questions D) Crossing their arms
C) Asking only directive, closed-ended questions
Which of the following is an accurate equation for calculating BMI in an adult? A) BMI = height (m) / weight (kg)2 B) BMI = height (cm) / weight (kg)2 C) BMI = weight (kg) / height (m)2 D) BMI = weight (lbs) / height (cm)2
C) BMI = weight (kg) / height (m)2
Which method of measuring weight has the greatest chance of inaccuracy? A) Standing scale B) In-bed scale C) Bedscale
C) Bedscale
If a patient consumes a diet entirely consisting of a single macronutrient, which macronutrient will produce the highest respiratory quotient? A) Protein B) Lipid C) Carbohydrate
C) Carbohydrate
The respiratory quotient (RQ) is highest after consumption of a diet that is primarily composed of what? A) Protein B) Fat C) Carbohydrate D) Mixed macronutrients
C) Carbohydrate explanation: The RQ compares the carbon dioxide produced with the oxygen consumed when energy substrates are metabolized. The RQ for carbohydrate is 1. The RQs for protein, fat, and a mixed diet are, respectively, 0.82, 0.7, and 0.85.
The DRIs refer to an average ___ intake of a nutrient. A) Monthly B) Yearly C) Daily D) Weekly
C) Daily
The basis for an Recommended Dietary Allowance is the ___; without it, an RDA cannot be determined. A) Tolerable Upper Intake Level (UL) B) Adequate Intake (AI) C) Estimated Average Requirement (EAR) D) Acceptable Macronutrient Distribution Range (AMDR)
C) EAR
Carlos is a 5-year-old male. He is currently plotting at the 75th percentile for BMI for age. What is the most appropriate goal for the next time you see Carlos in 2 months? A) He increases his BMI for age, closer to the 95th percentile. B) He reduces his BMI for age, closer to the 50th percentile. C) He maintains his BMI for age at the 75th percentile.
C) He maintains his BMI for age at the 75th percentile.
Yasmine is a 4-month-old female who has a weight-for-age z-score of 0.16. Maria is also a 4-month-old female who has a weight-for-age z-score of 0.34. Who weighs more? A) Yasmine B) They weigh the same. C) Maria D) It cannot be interpreted from this information
C) Maria
In a patient who has been very ill and is now recovering, indirect calorimetry will help the clinician to most accurately tailor nutrition support if measurements are done: A) While the patient is on hemodialysis B) When the patient arrives in the hospital and on the day that they discharge C) Multiple times at different stages of the patient's illness D) Once, right when the patient enters the ICU
C) Multiple times at different stages of the patient's illness
Calculations for height using an ulna measurement vary slightly based on what patient characteristic? A) Weight B) Frame size C) Sex D) Ethnicity
C) Sex
Which of the following is NOT true of nutrition screening? A) Should be able to be done quickly B) Should be setting specific C) Should be done by dietitians D) Should include weight history
C) Should be done by dietitians explanation: Tools and parameters should be established by dietitians but screening may be performed by other health care professionals. The parameters should be easily accessible and the process should be quick. The screening tool used should be specific to the setting.
The MNA short form has been validated for use in what population? A) Surgical populations B) Children C) Subacute and ambulatory elderly D) Critically ill elderly
C) Subacute and ambulatory elderly explanation: The MNA short form is a rapid and reliable screening tool for ambulatory and subacute elderly populations. MUST is used for medical and surgical populations.
What is the primary basis for the Adequate Intake for nutrients in infants (0-6 months old)? A) Needs for toddlers, decreased according to body weight B) Animal trials using infant primates C) The nutrient content of human milk D) Detailed case-cohort studies of deficiency
C) The nutrient content of human milk
The purpose of nutritional screening is to: A) categorize patients as high or moderate risk. B) assess the patient's nutritional status. C) identify patients at nutritional risk. D) determine a patient's nutritional problem.
C) identify patients at nutritional risk. explanation: Nutrition screening is a quick means of identifying whether or not a person may be at risk for a nutritional problem. Usually, only a few well-selected parameters related to nutrition are evaluated to determine this risk. If screening does identify a potential risk, then a more complete nutrition assessment should be performed. The assessment will identify any specific nutrition problems the patient may have. Generally, screening is not used to classify degree of risk—either the patient is at nutritional risk or not
What is the most feasible clinical method for measuring human energy expenditure? A) Direct calorimetry B) Bomb calorimetry C) Indirect calorimetry D) Doubly labeled water
C) indirect calorimetry explanation: Indirect calorimetry is commonly used in hospital settings. The piece of equipment is known as a metabolic cart or monitor. Other methods of measuring energy expenditure include doubly labeled water and direct calorimetry; however, these are not practical for clinical practice. Bomb calorimetry measures the energy available from food.
Tolerable upper intakes (UIs) of nutrients were established to: A) provide data on estimated safe and adequate daily dietary intakes. B) define the level of nutrient that will meet the requirements of 97% to 98% of the healthy population. C) reduce the risk of adverse toxic effects. D) define nutrient intakes that may promote health.
C) reduce the risk of adverse toxic effects. explanation: ULs were established for many nutrients to reduce the risk of adverse or toxic effects from consumption of nutrients in concentrated forms. RDAs are aimed at 97% to 98% of the healthy population's nutrient requirements. Estimated safe and adequate daily dietary intakes were established for nutrients known to be essential for life, but recommended intakes cannot be established because of insufficient data
When measuring ___, it's preferable that you NOT tell the patient what you are doing. A) Pulse B) Blood pressure C) Respiratory rate D) Bowel sounds
C) respiratory rate
Respiratory quotient values above what level would cause a clinician to be skeptical of the quality of the indirect calorimetry measurement (and likely indicate that a repeat measurement would be most appropriate)? A) 0.81 B) 1.0 C) 0.69 D) 1.2
D) 1.2
As noted in the Research text, the National Health and Nutrition Examination Survey (NHANES) uses what dietary assessment method? A) Food frequency questionnaire B) Calorie count C) Food diary or record D) 24-hour dietary recall
D) 24-hour dietary recall
A pediatric patient who has been screened for malnutrition and did NOT generate a nutrition assessment should be rescreened after how much time has passed? A) 14 days B) 10 days C) 7 days D) 4 days
D) 4 days
A dish has 60 g of carbohydrate, 35 g of protein, and 25 g of fat. How many total kilocalories are in the dish? A) 555 kcal B) 655 kcal C) 480 kcal D) 605 kcal
D) 605 kcal explanation: One gram of carbohydrate provides 4 kcal. One gram of protein provides 4 kcal. One gram of fat provides 9 kcal. Therefore, (60 g carb . 4 kcal ÷ g carb) + (35 g prot . 4 kcal ÷ g prot) + (25 g fat . 9 kcal ÷ g fat) = 240 kcal + 140 kcal + 225 kcal = 605 kcal
During Nutrition Assessment, the RDN should: A) Determine whether nutrition diagnosis (problem) exists B) Identify the need for additional information C) Determine if the patient or group requires nutrition care at this time D) All of the above
D) All of the above
When choosing a comparative standard, what factor(s) need to be considered? A) Practice setting B) Population characteristics, such as age and gender C) Disease state and severity D) All of the above
D) All of the above
Indirect calorimetry is most beneficial for patients in whom energy estimation equations are known to be even more inaccurate than usual. These conditions include: A) Heavy sedation B) Failure to respond to a nutrition support regimen C) Obesity D) All of these E) Severe malnutrition F) Amputation G) Severe thyroid disorders
D) All of these
According to the chapter by Lichstein, as you close the interview, you should do what? A) Shake the patient's hand to establish a physical connection. B) Ask the patient what brought them to see you today. C) Introduce yourself to the other family members or visitors in the room. D) Ask if the patient has any questions for you or anything they'd like to discuss.
D) Ask if the patient has any questions for you or anything they'd like to discuss.
Which of the following reflect the way a RDN actually completes the Nutrition Care Process? A) The steps are always conducted in the order shown in the NCP: nutrition assessment, nutrition diagnosis, nutrition intervention and finally nutrition monitoring and evaluation. B) You may return to add more data to nutrition assessment and then revise your nutrition diagnosis, intervention if the patient provides additional information during your nutrition counseling intervention. C) Often during the course of providing nutrition care, the steps do not occur in a linear fashion. D) Both B and C are correct
D) Both B and C
What dietary assessment tool can really only be used in an institutional (like a nursing home) or inpatient setting? A) Food frequency questionnaire B) 24-hour dietary recall C) Food diary or record D) Calorie count
D) Calorie count
A major difference between MyPyramid in the United States and Canada's Food Guide to Healthy Eating is: A) only MyPyramid includes a recommendation for physical activity. B) MyPyramid emphasizes eating vegetables. C) the Canadian guide recommends daily servings of milk. D) Canada's Food Guide recognizes cultural, spiritual, and physical importance of Aboriginal foods
D) Canada's Food Guide recognizes cultural, spiritual, and physical importance of Aboriginal foods Explanation: The Canadian Food Guide recognizes the cultural, spiritual, and physical importance of traditional Aboriginal foods as well as the role of nontraditional foods in contemporary diets. MyPyramid does not make the same distinction.
When is basal metabolism at its highest rate? A) During periods of sleep B) During the digestion of a meal C) During periods of exercise D) During periods of rapid growth
D) During periods of rapid growth explanation: Because basal metabolism only accounts for the proportion of energy necessary for support of life functions, it does not include energy increase after eating (TEF) or during exercise (AT). During infancy, childhood, adolescence, and pregnancy, basal metabolism increases as FFM increases.
Which of the following is NOT part of the Daily Reference Intake (DRI)? A) Estimated Average Requirement (EAR) B) Adequate Intake (AI) C) Recommended Dietary Allowance (RDA) D) Healthy Eating Index (HEI)
D) HEI Explanation: The DRI Model includes four reference points—AI, EAR, RDA, and Upper Intake Level (UL). The HEI measures how well people's diets conform to recommended healthy eating patterns.
Which of the following best describes the contribution of physical activity to total energy expenditure? A) It accounts for 10% of total energy expenditure. B) Its contribution to total energy expenditure increases with age. C) Its contribution to total energy expenditure is most consistent during childhood. D) It is the most variable component of total energy expenditure.
D) It is the most variable component of total energy expenditure. explanation: Activity thermogenesis is highly variable and dependent on body size and the efficiency of individual habits of motion. Whereas the thermic effect of food tends to be about 10% of TEE, AT can range from 100 kcal/day in sedentary people to 3000 kcal/day in highly active people. AT tends to decrease with age, and it tends to be variable during childhood.
According to the chapters from "Interviewing the Difficult Patient," which of the following indicates that a clinician is interested in the patient during an interview? A) Pausing the interview to take a phone call or return a text B) Looking at the patient's medical chart during the interview C) Proceeding with the interview as planned when the patient becomes upset D) Mirroring the patient's nonverbal communication and body postures
D) Mirroring the patient's nonverbal communication and body postures
The Nutrition Assessment process involves: A) Determining the appropriate medical tests to order for the patient B) Writing a complete patient and family history C) Obtaining and verifying medical data D) Obtaining, verifying, and interpreting data
D) Obtaining, verifying, and interpreting data
Which of the following conditions is necessary to obtain an accurate measure of a patient's basal metabolic rate (BMR)? A) Test in environmental conditions equal to body temperature. B) Test 4 to 6 hours after the last meal. C) Test at the end of the day when the patient is ready to go to sleep. D) Test in the morning after the patient has awakened.
D) Test in the morning after the patient has awakened. explanation: For an accurate measurement of BMR, the test should be performed when the body is using its minimum amount of energy, usually in the morning after waking, and at least 10 to 12 hours after the last meal so as to not include the thermic effect of food. Climates above 86° F increase metabolism because of sweat gland activity.
Bioelectrical impedance analysis (BIA) estimates body composition based on the principle that an electrical current travels more quickly through hydrated fat-free body mass and fluids than fat and bone mass due to which of the following? A) The higher concentration of electrolytes in fat mass B) The lower concentration of electrolytes in lean mass C) The higher concentration of calcium in bone mass D) The higher concentration of electrolytes in lean mass
D) The higher concentration of electrolytes in lean mass
Which is the most sensitive indicator of changes in a child's growth? A) Length B) Head circumference C) Percentiles D) Z-scores
D) Z-scores
There is an RDI for all of the following nutrients except A) selenium. B) biotin. C) iron. D) caffeine.
D) caffeine
When listening for bowel sounds, you will begin in what quadrant? A) Left lower B) Left upper C) Right upper D) Right lower
D) right lower
During re-assessment, the RDN should: A) Determine whether the monitoring and evaluation parameters previously identified have changed B) Identify the status of the previous nutrition diagnosis C) Determine if there is a new Nutrition Diagnosis (problem) D) Determine whether additional data of any kind is needed E) All of the above
E) All of the above
Which step(s) provide data that will likely lead to the selection of data for monitoring and evaluations? A) Nutrition Assessment (data evaluated compared to standards) B) Nutrition Diagnoses (signs and symptoms of PES statement) C) Nutrition Intervention (outcomes of interventions) D) Nutrition Screening (data used to identify need for nutrition care) E) Both A & B
E) Both A&B
A male patient's waist circumference is 36 inches and hip circumference is 37 inches. Based on this assessment, is this person at increased risk of cardiovascular disease? Yes No
Yes
