Exam 2

The nurse is assessing a child diagnosed with a brain tumor. Which of the following signs and symptoms would the nurse expect the child to demonstrate? Select all that apply. 1. Head tilt 2. Vomiting 3. Polydipsia 4. Lethargy 5. Increased appetite 6. Increased pulse

1, 2, 4. Head tilt, vomiting, and lethargy are classic signs assessed in a child with a brain tumor. Clinical manifestations are the result of location and size of the tumor.

Which of the following values is considered normal for ICP? 1. 0 to 15 mm Hg 2. 25 mm Hg 3. 35 to 45 mm Hg 4. 120/80 mm Hg

1. 0 to 15 mm Hg Normal ICP is 0-15 mm Hg.

Which client would the nurse identify as being most at risk for experiencing a CVA? 1. A 55-year-old African American male. 2. An 84-year-old Japanese female. 3. A 67-year-old Caucasian male. 4. A 39-year-old pregnant female.

1. A 55-year-old African American male. African Americans have twice the rate of CVA's as Caucasians; males are more likely to have strokes than females except in advanced years.

The nurse is evaluating the status of a client who had a craniotomy 3 days ago. The nurse would suspect the client is developing meningitis as a complication of surgery if the client exhibits: 1. A positive Brudzinski's sign 2. A negative Kernig's sign 3. Absence of nuchal rigidity 4. A Glascow Coma Scale score of 15

1. A positive Brudzinski's sign Signs of meningeal irritation compatible with meningitis include nuchal rigidity, positive Brudzinski's sign, and positive Kernig's sign. Brudzinski's sign is positive when the client flexes the hips and knees in response to the nurse gently flexing the head and neck onto the chest.

The client diagnosed with atrial fibrillation has experienced a transient ischemic attack (TIA). Which medication would the nurse anticipate being ordered for the client on discharge? 1. An oral anticoagulant medication. 2. A beta-blocker medication. 3. An anti-hyperuricemic medication. 4. A thrombolytic medication.

1. An oral anticoagulant medication. Thrombi form secondary to atrial fibrillation. Therefore, an anticoagulant would be anticipated to prevent thrombi formation; and oral (warfarin [Coumadin]) at discharge versus intravenous.

Which of the following symptoms may occur with a phenytoin level of 32 mg/dl? 1. Ataxia and confusion 2. Sodium depletion 3. Tonic-clonic seizure 4. Urinary incontinence

1. Ataxia and confusion A therapeutic phenytoin level is 10 to 20 mg/dl. A level of 32 mg/dl indicates toxicity. Symptoms of toxicity include confusion and ataxia.

Which of the following would lead the nurse to suspect that a child with meningitis has developed disseminated intravascular coagulation? 1. Hemorrhagic skin rash 2. Edema 3. Cyanosis 4. Dyspnea on exertion

1. Hemorrhagic skin rash DIC is characterized by skin petechiae and a purpuric skin rash caused by spontaneous bleeding into the tissues. An abnormal coagulation phenomenon causes the condition.

Regular oral hygiene is an essential intervention for the client who has had a stroke. Which of the following nursing measures is inappropriate when providing oral hygiene? 1. Placing the client on the back with a small pillow under the head. 2. Keeping portable suctioning equipment at the bedside. 3. Opening the client's mouth with a padded tongue blade. 4. Cleaning the client's mouth and teeth with a toothbrush.

1. Placing the client on the back with a small pillow under the head. A helpless client should be positioned on the side, not on the back. This lateral position helps secretions escape from the throat and mouth, minimizing the risk of aspiration.

Which of the following assessment data indicated nuchal rigidity? 1. Positive Kernig's sign 2. Negative Brudzinski's sign 3. Positive homan's sign 4. Negative Kernig's sign

1. Positive Kernig's sign A positive Kernig's sign indicated nuchal rigidity, caused by an irritative lesion of the subarachnoid space. Brudzinski's sign is also indicative of the condition.

An 18-year-old client is admitted with a closed head injury sustained in a MVA. His intracranial pressure (ICP) shows an upward trend. Which intervention should the nurse perform first? 1. Reposition the client to avoid neck flexion 2. Administer 1 g Mannitol IV as ordered 3. Increase the ventilator's respiratory rate to 20 breaths/minute 4. Administer 100 mg of pentobarbital IV as ordered.

1. Reposition the client to avoid neck flexion The nurse should first attempt nursing interventions, such as repositioning the client to avoid neck flexion, which increases venous return and lowers ICP.

The client is having a lumbar puncture performed. The nurse would plan to place the client in which position for the procedure? 1. Side-lying, with legs pulled up and head bent down onto the chest 2. Side-lying, with a pillow under the hip 3. Prone, in a slight Trendelenburg's position 4. Prone, with a pillow under the abdomen.

1. Side-lying, with legs pulled up and head bent down onto the chest The client undergoing lumbar puncture is positioned lying on the side, with the legs pulled up to the abdomen, and with the head bent down onto the chest. This position helps to open the spaces between the vertebrae.

Which of the following respiratory patterns indicate increasing ICP in the brain stem? 1. Slow, irregular respirations 2. Rapid, shallow respirations 3. Asymmetric chest expansion 4. Nasal flaring

1. Slow, irregular respirations Neural control of respiration takes place in the brain stem. Deterioration and pressure produce irregular respiratory patterns.

A client is at risk for increased ICP. Which of the following would be a priority for the nurse to monitor? 1. Unequal pupil size 2. Decreasing systolic blood pressure 3. Tachycardia 4. Decreasing body temperature

1. Unequal pupil size Increasing ICP causes unequal pupils as a result of pressure on the third cranial nerve.

A client with subdural hematoma was given mannitol to decrease intracranial pressure (ICP). Which of the following results would best show the mannitol was effective? 1. Urine output increases 2. Pupils are 8 mm and nonreactive 3. Systolic blood pressure remains at 150 mm Hg 4. BUN and creatinine levels return to normal

1. Urine output increases Mannitol promotes osmotic diuresis by increasing the pressure gradient in the renal tubes.

A client has been pronounced brain dead. Which findings would the nurse assess? Check all that apply. 1. Decerebrate posturing 2. Dilated nonreactive pupils 3. Deep tendon reflexes 4. Absent corneal reflex

2, 3, 4. A client who is brain dead typically demonstrates nonreactive dilated pupils and nonreactive or absent corneal and gag reflexes. The client may still have spinal reflexes such as deep tendon and Babinski reflexes in brain death. Decerebrate or decorticate posturing would not be seen.

A 23-year-old patient with a recent history of encephalitis is admitted to the medical unit with new onset generalized tonic-clonic seizures. Which nursing activities included in the patient's care will be best to delegate to an LPN/LVN whom you are supervising? 1. Document the onset time, nature of seizure activity, and postictal behaviors for all seizures. 2. Administer phenytoin (Dilantin) 200 mg PO daily. 3. Teach patient about the need for good oral hygiene. 4. Develop a discharge plan, including physician visits and referral to the Epilepsy Foundation.

2. Administer phenytoin (Dilantin) 200 mg PO daily. Administration of medications is included in LPN education and scope of practice. Collection of data about the seizure activity may be accomplished by an LPN/LVN who observes initial seizure activity. An LPN/LVN would know to call the supervising RN immediately if a patient started to seize.

Which of the following pathologic processes is often associated with aseptic meningitis? 1. Ischemic infarction of cerebral tissue 2. Childhood diseases of viral causation such as mumps 3. Brain abscesses caused by a variety of pyogenic organisms 4. Cerebral ventricular irritation from a traumatic brain injury

2. Childhood diseases of viral causation such as mumps Aseptic meningitis is caused principally by viruses and is often associated with other diseases such as measles, mumps, herpes, and leukemia.

A lumbar puncture is performed on a child suspected of having bacterial meningitis. CSF is obtained for analysis. A nurse reviews the results of the CSF analysis and determines that which of the following results would verify the diagnosis? 1. Cloudy CSF, decreased protein, and decreased glucose 2. Cloudy CSF, elevated protein, and decreased glucose 3. Clear CSF, elevated protein, and decreased glucose 4. Clear CSF, decreased pressure, and elevated protein

2. Cloudy CSF, elevated protein, and decreased glucose A diagnosis of meningitis is made by testing CSF obtained by lumbar puncture. In the case of bacterial meningitis, findings usually include an elevated pressure, turbid or cloudy CSF, elevated leukocytes, elevated protein, and decreased glucose levels.

The nurse is caring for the client with increased intracranial pressure. The nurse would note which of the following trends in vital signs if the ICP is rising? 1. Increasing temperature, increasing pulse, increasing respirations, decreasing blood pressure. 2. Increasing temperature, decreasing pulse, decreasing respirations, increasing blood pressure. 3. Decreasing temperature, decreasing pulse, increasing respirations, decreasing blood pressure. 4. Decreasing temperature, increasing pulse, decreasing respirations, increasing blood pressure.

2. Increasing temperature, decreasing pulse, decreasing respirations, increasing blood pressure. A change in vital signs may be a late sign of increased intracranial pressure. Trends include increasing temperature and blood pressure and decreasing pulse and respirations. Respiratory irregularities also may arise.

A client admitted to the hospital with a subarachnoid hemorrhage has complaints of severe headache, nuchal rigidity, and projectile vomiting. The nurse knows lumbar puncture (LP) would be contraindicated in this client in which of the following circumstances? 1. Vomiting continues 2. Intracranial pressure (ICP) is increased 3. The client needs mechanical ventilation 4. Blood is anticipated in the cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)

2. Intracranial pressure (ICP) is increased Sudden removal of CSF results in pressures lower in the lumbar area than the brain and favors herniation of the brain; therefore, LP is contraindicated with increased ICP.

During the acute stage of meningitis, a 3-year-old child is restless and irritable. Which of the following would be most appropriate to institute? 1. Limiting conversation with the child 2. Keeping extraneous noise to a minimum 3. Allowing the child to play in the bathtub 4. Performing treatments quickly

2. Keeping extraneous noise to a minimum A child in the acute stage of meningitis is irritable and hypersensitive to loud noise and light. Therefore, extraneous noise should be minimized and bright lights avoided as much as possible.

Meningitis occurs as an extension of a variety of bacterial infections due to which of the following conditions? 1. Congenital anatomic abnormality of the meninges 2. Lack of acquired resistance to the various etiologic organisms 3. Occlusion or narrowing of the CSF pathway 4. Natural affinity of the CNS to certain pathogens

2. Lack of acquired resistance to the various etiologic organisms Extension of a variety of bacterial infections is a major causative factor of meningitis and occurs as a result of a lack of acquired resistance to the etiologic organisms. Preexisting CNS anomalies are factors that contribute to susceptibility.

When interviewing the parents of a 2-year-old child, a history of which of the following illnesses would lead the nurse to suspect pneumococcal meningitis? 1. Bladder infection 2. Middle ear infection 3. Fractured clavicle 4. Septic arthritis

2. Middle ear infection Organisms that cause bacterial meningitis, such as pneumococci or meningococci, are commonly spread in the body by vascular dissemination from a middle ear infection. The meningitis may also be a direct extension from the paranasal and mastoid sinuses. The causative organism is a pneumococcus. A chronically draining ear is frequently also found.

What is a priority nursing assessment in the first 24 hours after admission of the client with a thrombotic stroke? 1. Cholesterol level 2. Pupil size and pupillary response 3. Bowel sounds 4. Echocardiogram

2. Pupil size and pupillary response It is crucial to monitor the pupil size and pupillary response to indicate changes around the cranial nerves.

A client with a subarachnoid hemorrhage is prescribed a 1,000-mg loading dose of Dilantin IV. Which consideration is most important when administering this dose? 1. Therapeutic drug levels should be maintained between 20 to 30 mg/ml. 2. Rapid Dilantin administration can cause cardiac arrhythmias. 3. Dilantin should be mixed in dextrose in water before administration. 4. Dilantin should be administered through an IV catheter in the client's hand.

2. Rapid Dilantin administration can cause cardiac arrhythmias. Dilantin IV shouldn't be given at a rate exceeding 50 mg/minute. Rapid administration can depress the myocardium, causing arrhythmias.

A nurse is reviewing the record of a child with increased ICP and notes that the child has exhibited signs of decerebrate posturing. On assessment of the child, the nurse would expect to note which of the following if this type of posturing was present? 1. Abnormal flexion of the upper extremities and extension of the lower extremities 2. Rigid extension and pronation of the arms and legs 3. Rigid pronation of all extremities 4. Flaccid paralysis of all extremities

2. Rigid extension and pronation of the arms and legs Decerebrate posturing is characterized by the rigid extension and pronation of the arms and legs.

You are preparing to admit a patient with a seizure disorder. Which of the following actions can you delegate to LPN/LVN? 1. Complete admission assessment. 2. Set up oxygen and suction equipment. 3. Place a padded tongue blade at bedside. 4. Pad the side rails before patient arrives.

2. Set up oxygen and suction equipment. The LPN/LVN can set up the equipment for oxygen and suctioning. Focus: Delegation/supervision.

A client with a subdural hematoma becomes restless and confused, with dilation of the ipsilateral pupil. The physician orders mannitol for which of the following reasons? 1. To reduce intraocular pressure 2. To prevent acute tubular necrosis 3. To promote osmotic diuresis to decrease ICP 4. To draw water into the vascular system to increase blood pressure

3. To promote osmotic diuresis to decrease ICP Mannitol promotes osmotic diuresis by increasing the pressure gradient, drawing fluid from intracellular to intravascular spaces. Although mannitol is used for all the reasons described, the reduction of ICP in this client is a concern

Which assessment data would indicate to the nurse that the client would be at risk for a hemorrhagic stroke? 1. A blood glucose level of 480 mg/dl. 2. A right-sided carotid bruit. 3. A blood pressure of 220/120 mmHg. 4. The presence of bronchogenic carcinoma

3. A blood pressure of 220/120 mmHg. Uncontrolled hypertension is a risk factor for hemorrhagic stroke, which is a ruptured blood vessel in the cranium.

During the first 24 hours after thrombolytic therapy for ischemic stroke, the primary goal is to control the client's: 1. Pulse 2. Respirations 3. Blood pressure 4. Temperature

3. Blood pressure Controlling the blood pressure is critical because an intracerebral hemorrhage is the major adverse effect of thrombolytic therapy. Blood pressure should be maintained according to physician and is specific to the client's ischemic tissue needs and risks of bleeding from treatment. Other vital signs are monitored, but the priority is blood pressure.

What is the expected outcome of thrombolytic drug therapy? 1. Increased vascular permeability. 2. Vasoconstriction. 3. Dissolved emboli. 4. Prevention of hemorrhage

3. Dissolved emboli. Thrombolytic therapy is used to dissolve emboli and reestablish cerebral perfusion.

Which of the following nursing interventions is appropriate for a client with an ICP of 20 mm Hg? 1. Give the client a warming blanket 2. Administer low-dose barbiturate 3. Encourage the client to hyperventilate 4. Restrict fluids

3. Encourage the client to hyperventilate Normal ICP is 15 mm Hg or less. Hyperventilation causes vasoconstriction, which reduces CSF and blood volume, two important factors for reducing a sustained ICP of 20 mm Hg.

A nurse is planning care for a child with acute bacterial meningitis. Based on the mode of transmission of this infection, which of the following would be included in the plan of care? 1. No precautions are required as long as antibiotics have been started 2. Maintain enteric precautions 3. Maintain respiratory isolation precautions for at least 24 hours after the initiation of antibiotics 4. Maintain neutropenic precautions

3. Maintain respiratory isolation precautions for at least 24 hours after the initiation of antibiotics A major priority of nursing care for a child suspected of having meningitis is to administer the prescribed antibiotic as soon as it is ordered. The child is also placed on respiratory isolation for at least 24 hours while culture results are obtained and the antibiotic is having an effect.

While cooking, your client couldn't feel the temperature of a hot oven. Which lobe could be dysfunctional? 1. Frontal 2. Occipital 3. Parietal 4. Temporal

3. Parietal The parietal lobe regulates sensory function, which would include the ability to sense hot or cold objects.

Which of the following signs and symptoms of increased ICP after head trauma would appear first? 1. Bradycardia 2. Large amounts of very dilute urine 3. Restlessness and confusion 4. Widened pulse pressure

3. Restlessness and confusion The earliest symptom of elevated ICP is a change in mental status.

A 78-year-old client is admitted to the emergency department with numbness and weakness of the left arm and slurred speech. Which nursing intervention is a priority? 1. Prepare to administer recombinant tissue plasminogen activator (rt-PA). 2. Discuss the precipitating factors that caused the symptoms. 3. Schedule for A STAT computer tomography (CT) scan of the head. 4. Notify the speech pathologist for an emergency consult

3. Schedule for A STAT computer tomography (CT) scan of the head. A CT scan will determine if the client is having a stroke or has a brain tumor or another neurological disorder. This would also determine if it is a hemorrhagic or ischemic accident and guide the treatment because only an ischemic stroke can use rt-PA. This would make (1) not the priority since if a stroke was determined to be hemorrhagic, rt-PA is contraindicated.

The nurse and unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) are caring for a client with right-sided paralysis. Which action by the UAP requires the nurse to intervene? 1. The assistant places a gait belt around the client's waist prior to ambulating. 2. The assistant places the client on the back with the client's head to the side. 3. The assistant places her hand under the client's right axilla to help him/her move up in bed. 4. The assistant praises the client for attempting to perform ADL's independently.

3. The assistant places her hand under the client's right axilla to help him/her move up in bed. This action is inappropriate and would require intervention by the nurse because pulling on a flaccid shoulder joint could cause shoulder dislocation; as always use a lift sheet for the client and nurse safety.

Which of the following describes decerebrate posturing? 1. Internal rotation and adduction of arms with flexion of elbows, wrists, and fingers 2. Back hunched over, rigid flexion of all four extremities with supination of arms and plantar flexion of the feet 3. Supination of arms, dorsiflexion of feet 4. Back arched; rigid extension of all four extremities.

4. Back arched; rigid extension of all four extremities. Decerebrate posturing occurs in patients with damage to the upper brain stem, midbrain, or pons and is demonstrated clinically by the arching of the back, rigid extension of the extremities, pronation of the arms, and plantar flexion of the feet.

A client has signs of increased ICP. Which of the following is an early indicator of deterioration in the client's condition? 1. Widening pulse pressure 2. Decrease in the pulse rate 3. Dilated, fixed pupil 4. Decrease in LOC

4. Decrease in LOC A decrease in the client's LOC is an early indicator of deterioration of the client's neurological status. Changes in LOC, such as restlessness and irritability, may be subtle.

Problems with memory and learning would relate to which of the following lobes? 1. Frontal 2. Occipital 3. Parietal 4. Temporal

4. Temporal The temporal lobe functions to regulate memory and learning problems because of the integration of the hippocampus

A client, age 22, is admitted with bacterial meningitis. Which hospital room would be the best choice for this client? A. A private room down the hall from the nurses' station B. An isolation room three doors from the nurses' station C. A semi private room with a 32-year-old client who has viral meningitis D. A two-bed room with a client who previously had bacterial meningitis

B. An isolation room three doors from the nurses' station A client with bacterial meningitis should be kept in isolation for at least 24 hours after admission.

A female client with a suspected brain tumor is scheduled for computed tomography (CT). What should the nurse do when preparing the client for this test? A. Immobilize the neck before the client is moved onto a stretcher. B. Determine whether the client is allergic to iodine, contrast dyes, or shellfish. C. Place a cap on the client's head. D. Administer a sedative as ordered.

B. Determine whether the client is allergic to iodine, contrast dyes, or shellfish. Because CT commonly involves the use of a contrast agent, the nurse should determine whether the client is allergic to iodine, contrast dyes, or shellfish.

Which nursing diagnosis takes highest priority for a client with Parkinson's crisis? A. Imbalanced nutrition: Less than body requirements B. Ineffective airway clearance C. Impaired urinary elimination D. Risk for injury

B. Ineffective airway clearance In Parkinson's crisis, dopamine-related symptoms are severely exacerbated, virtually immobilizing the client. A client confined to bed during such a crisis is at risk for aspiration and pneumonia. Also, excessive drooling increases the risk of airway obstruction. Because of these concerns, the nursing diagnosis of Ineffective airway clearance takes highest priority. Although the other options also are appropriate, they aren't immediately life-threatening.

The nurse is caring for the male client who begins to experience seizure activity while in bed. Which of the following actions by the nurse would be contraindicated? A. Loosening restrictive clothing B. Restraining the client's limbs C. Removing the pillow and raising padded side rails D. Positioning the client to side, if possible, with the head flexed forward

B. Restraining the client's limbs The limbs are never restrained because the strong muscle contractions could cause the client harm. If the client is not in bed when seizure activity begins, the nurse lowers the client to the floor, if possible, protects the head from injury, and moves furniture that may injure the client. Other aspects of care are as described for the client who is in bed.

A female client admitted to an acute care facility after a car accident develops signs and symptoms of increased intracranial pressure (ICP). The client is intubated and placed on mechanical ventilation to help reduce ICP. To prevent a further rise in ICP caused by suctioning, the nurse anticipates administering which drug endotracheally before suctioning? A. Phenytoin (Dilantin) B. Mannitol (Osmitrol) C. Lidocaine (Xylocaine) D. Furosemide (Lasix)

C. Lidocaine (Xylocaine) Administering lidocaine via an endotracheal tube may minimize elevations in ICP caused by suctioning.

For a male client with suspected increased intracranial pressure (ICP), a most appropriate respiratory goal is to: A. Prevent respiratory alkalosis. B. Lower arterial pH. C. Promote carbon dioxide elimination. D. Maintain partial pressure of arterial oxygen (PaO2) above 80 mm Hg

C. Promote carbon dioxide elimination. The goal of treatment is to prevent acidemia by eliminating carbon dioxide. That is because an acid environment in the brain causes cerebral vessels to dilate and therefore increases ICP.

During recovery from a cerebrovascular accident (CVA), a female client is given nothing by mouth, to help prevent aspiration. To determine when the client is ready for a liquid diet, the nurse assesses the client's swallowing ability once each shift. This assessment evaluates: A. Cranial nerves I and II. B. Cranial nerves III and V. C. Cranial nerves VI and VIII. D. Cranial nerves IX and X.

D. Cranial nerves IX and X. Swallowing is a motor function of cranial nerves IX and X.

A male client is having a lumbar puncture performed. The nurse would plan to place the client in which position? A. Side-lying, with a pillow under the hip B. Prone, with a pillow under the abdomen C. Prone, in slight-Trendelenburg's position D. Side-lying, with the legs, pulled up and head bent down onto the chest.

D. Side-lying, with the legs, pulled up and head bent down onto the chest. The client undergoing lumbar puncture is positioned lying on the side, with the legs pulled up to the abdomen and the head bent down onto the chest. This position helps open the spaces between the vertebrae.

A male client is having tonic-clonic seizures. What should the nurse do first? A. Elevate the head of the bed. B. Restrain the client's arms and legs. C. Place a tongue blade in the client's mouth. D. Take measures to prevent injury.

D. Take measures to prevent injury. Protecting the client from injury is the immediate priority during a seizure