EXAM 2: MI

The nurse is caring for a client diagnosed with a myocardial infarction who is experiencing chest pain. Which interventions should the nurse implement? Select all that apply. 1. Administer morphine intramuscularly. 2. Administer an aspirin orally. 3. Apply oxygen via a nasal cannula. 4. Place the client in a supine position. 5. Administer nitroglycerin subcutaneously

2. Rationale: Aspirin is an antiplatelet medication and should be administered orally; 3. R: Oxygen will help decrease myocardial ischemia, thereby decreasing pain.

The client diagnosed with rule-out myocardial infarction is experiencing chest pain while walking to the bathroom. Which action should the nurse implement first? 1. Administer sublingual nitroglycerin. 2. Obtain a STAT electrocardiogram. 3. Have the client sit down immediately. 4. Assess the client's vital signs.

3. Have the client sit down immediately. Rationale: Stopping all activity will decrease the need of the myocardium for oxygen and may help decrease the chest pain.

692. A client is admitted to an emergency department with chest pain that is being ruled out for myocardial infarction. Vital signs are as follows: at 11 AM, pulse (P), 92 beats/min, respiratory rate (RR), 24 breaths/min, blood pressure (BP), 140/88 mm Hg; 11:15 AM, P, 96 beats/min, RR, 26 breaths/min, BP, 128/82 mm Hg; 11:30 AM, P, 104 beats/min, RR, 28 breaths/min, BP, 104/ 68 mm Hg; 11:45 AM, P, 118 beats/min, RR, 32 breaths/min, BP, 88/58 mm Hg. The nurse should alert the physician because these changes are most consistent with which of the following complications? 1. Cardiogenic shock 2. Cardiac tamponade 3. Pulmonary embolism 4. Dissecting thoracic aortic aneurysm

ANS: 1 Rationale: Cardiogenic shock occurs with severe damage (more than 40%) to the left ventricle. Classic signs include hypotension, a rapid pulse that becomes weaker, decreased urine output, and cool, clammy skin. Respiratory rate increases as the body develops metabolic acidosis from shock. Cardiac tamponade is accompanied by distant, muffled heart sounds and prominent neck vessels. Pulmonary embolism presents suddenly with severe dyspnea accompanying the chest pain. Dissecting aortic aneurysms usually are accompanied by back pain.

The client diagnosed with a myocardial infarction asks the nurse, "Why do I have to rest and take it easy? My chest doesn't hurt anymore." Which statement would be the nurse's best response? 1. "Your heart is damaged and needs about four (4) to six (6) weeks to heal." 2. "There is necrotic myocardial tissue that puts you at risk for dysrhythmias." 3. "Your doctor has ordered bedrest. Therefore, you must stay in the bed." 4. "Just because your chest doesn't hurt anymore doesn't mean you are out of danger."

ANS: 1. "Your heart is damaged and needs about four (4) to six (6) weeks to heal." Rationale: The heart tissue is dead, stress or activity may cause heart failure, and it does take about six (6) weeks for scar tissue to form.

The intensive care department nurse is assessing the client who is 12 hours post-myocardial infarction. The nurse assesses an S3 heart sound. Which intervention should the nurse implement? 1. Notify the health-care provider immediately. 2. Elevate the head of the client's bed. 3. Document this as a normal and expected finding. 4. Administer morphine intravenously.

ANS: 1. Notify the health-care provider immediately. Rationale: An S3 indicates left ventricular failure and should be reported to the healthcare provider. It is a potential life threatening complication of a myocardial infarction.

697. A client with myocardial infarction is developing cardiogenic shock. Because of the risk of myocardial ischemia, for which of the following should the nurse carefully assess the client? 1. Bradycardia 2. Ventricular dysrhythmias 3. Rising diastolic blood pressure 4. Falling central venous pressure

ANS: 2 Rationale: Classic signs of cardiogenic shock as they relate to this question include low blood pressure and tachycardia. The central venous pressure would rise as the backward effects of the severe left ventricular failure became apparent. Dysrhythmias commonly occur as a result of decreased oxygenation and severe damage to greater than 40% of the myocardium.

696. A client with myocardial infarction suddenly becomes tachycardic, shows signs of air hunger, and begins coughing frothy, pink-tinged sputum. Which of the following would the nurse anticipate when auscultating the client's breath sounds? 1. Stridor 2. Crackles 3. Scattered rhonchi 4. Diminished breath sounds

ANS: 2 Rationale: Pulmonary edema is characterized by extreme breathlessness, dyspnea, air hunger, and the production of frothy, pink-tinged sputum. Auscultation of the lungs reveals crackles. Rhonchi and diminished breath sounds are not associated with pulmonary edema. Stridor is a crowing sound associated with laryngospasm or edema of the upper airway

700. A client is wearing a continuous cardiac monitor, which begins to sound its alarm. A nurse sees no electrocardiographic complexes on the screen. Which of the following should be the priority action of the nurse? 1. Call a code blue. 2. Call the physician. 3. Check the client status and lead placement. 4. Press the recorder button on the electrocardiogram console.

ANS: 3 Rationale: Sudden loss of electrocardiographic complexes indicates ventricular asystole or possibly electrode displacement. Accurate assessment of the client and equipment is necessary to determine the cause and identify the appropriate intervention. Options 1, 2, and 4 are unnecessary.

695. A nurse notes that a client with sinus rhythm has a premature ventricular contraction that falls on the T wave of the preceding beat. The client's rhythm suddenly changes to one with no P waves, no definable QRS complexes, and coarse wavy lines of varying amplitude. How would the nurse correctly interpret this rhythm? 1. Asystole 2. Atrial fibrillation 3. Ventricular fibrillation 4. Ventricular tachycardia

ANS: 3 Rationale: Ventricular fibrillation is characterized by irregular chaotic undulations of varying amplitudes. Ventricular fibrillation has no measurable rate and no visible P waves or QRS complexes and results from electrical chaos in the ventricles.

The client diagnosed with a myocardial infarction is six (6) hours post-right femoral percutaneous transluminal coronary angioplasty (PTCA), also known as balloon surgery. Which assessment data would require immediate intervention by the nurse? 1. The client is keeping the affected extremity straight. 2. The pressure dressing to the right femoral area is intact. 3. The client is complaining of numbness in the right foot. 4. The client's right pedal pulse is 3+ and bounding.

ANS: 3. The client is complaining of numbness in the right foot. Rationale: Any neurovascular assessment data that are abnormal require intervention by the nurse; numbness may indicate decreased blood supply to the right foot.

The client who is one (1) day postoperative coronary artery bypass surgery is exhibiting sinus tachycardia. Which intervention should the nurse implement? 1. Assess the apical heart rate for one (1) full minute. 2. Notify the client's cardiac surgeon. 3. Prepare the client for synchronized cardioversion. 4. Determine if the client is having pain.

ANS: 4. Determine if the client is having pain. Rationale: Sinus tachycardia means the sinoatrial node is the pacemaker, but the rate is greater than 100 because of pain, anxiety, or fever. The nurse must determine the cause and treat appropriately. There is no specific medication for sinus tachycardia.

Which intervention should the nurse implement when defibrillating a client who is in ventricular fibrillation? 1. Defibrillate the client at 50, 100, and 200 joules. 2. Do not remove the oxygen source during defibrillation. 3. Place petroleum jelly on the defibrillator pads. 4. Shout "all clear" prior to defibrillating the client.

ANS: 4. Shout "all clear" prior to defibrillating the client. Rationale: If any member of the health-care team is touching the client or the bed during defibrillation, that person could possibly be shocked. Therefore, the nurse should shout "all clear."

The nurse is administering a calcium channel blocker to the client diagnosed with a myocardial infarction. Which assessment data would cause the nurse to question administering this medication? 1. The client's apical pulse is 64. 2. The client's calcium level is elevated. 3. The client's telemetry shows occasional PVCs. 4. The client's blood pressure is 90/62.

ANS: 4. The client's blood pressure is 90/62. Rationale: The client's blood pressure is low, and a calcium channel blocker could cause the blood pressure to bottom out.

Along with persistent, crushing chest pain, which signs/symptoms would make the nurse suspect that the client is experiencing a myocardial infarction? 1. Midepigastric pain and pyrosis. 2. Diaphoresis and cool clammy skin. 3. Intermittent claudication and pallor. 4. Jugular vein distention and dependent edema.

Rationale: 2; Diaphoresis (sweating) is a systemic reaction to the MI. The body vasoconstricts to shunt blood from the periphery to the trunk of the body; this, in turn, leads to cold, clammy skin

Which cardiac enzyme would the nurse expect to elevate first in a client diagnosed with a myocardial infarction? 1. Creatine kinase (CK-MB). 2. Lactate dehydrogenase (LDH). 3. Troponin. 4. White blood cells (WBCs).

Rationale: 3; Troponin is the enzyme that elevates within 1 to 2 hours.