Exam #3

A client experienced prolonged labor with prolonged premature rupture of membranes. The nurse would be alert for which condition in the mother and the newborn? A. infection B. hemorrhage C. trauma D. hypovolemia

Answer: A Rationale: Although hemorrhage, trauma, and hypovolemia may be problems, the prolonged labor with the prolonged premature rupture of membranes places the client at high risk for a postpartum infection. The rupture of membranes removes the barrier of amniotic fluid, so bacteria can ascend.

A nurse is developing a plan of care for a newborn with omphalocele. Which measure would the nurse include? A. placing the newborn into a sterile drawstring bowel bag B. using clean technique for dressing changes C. preparing the newborn for incision and drainage D. instituting gavage feedings

Answer: A Rationale: An infant with an omphalocele is placed in a sterile drawstring bowel bag that maintains a sterile environment for the exposed contents, allows visualization, reduces heat and moisture loss, and allows heat from radiant warmers to reach the newborn. The newborn is placed feet-first into the bag, and the drawstring is secured around the torso. Strict sterile technique is necessary to prevent contamination of the exposed abdominal contents. An orogastric tube attached to low suction is used to prevent intestinal distention. IV therapy is administered to maintain fluid and electrolyte balance and provide a route for antibiotic therapy. Surgery is done to repair the defect not to incise and drain it.

The nurse is providing care to a newborn with severe meconium aspiration syndrome (MAS). The nurse is reviewing the newborn's diagnostic test results. Which finding would the nurse Expect? A. patchy, fluffy infiltrates on chest X-ray B. vocal cords negative for meconium C. elevated blood pH D. increased PaO2

Answer: A Rationale: Chest X-rays show patchy, fluffy infiltrates unevenly distributed throughout the lungsand marked hyperaeration mixed with areas of atelectasis. ABG analysis will indicate metabolic acidosis with a low blood pH, decreased PaO2, and increased PaCO2. Direct visualization of thevocal cords for meconium staining using an appropriate size laryngoscope is needed.

A newborn with severe meconium aspiration syndrome (MAS) is not responding to conventional treatment. Which measure would the nurse anticipate as possibly necessary for this Newborn? A. extracorporeal membrane oxygenation (ECMO) B. respiratory support with a ventilator C. insertion of a laryngoscope for deep suctioning D. replacement of an endotracheal tube via X-ray

Answer: A Rationale: If conventional measures are ineffective, then the nurse would need to prepare the newborn for ECMO. Hyperoxygenation, ventilatory support, and direct tracheal suctioning are typically used initially to promote tissue perfusion. However, if these are ineffective, ECMO would be the next step. Reference: p. 864

After a rapid assessment determines that a newborn is in need of resuscitation, the nurse would perform which action first? A. Dry the newborn thoroughly. B. Suction the airway. C. Administer ventilations. D. Give volume expanders.

Answer: A Rationale: If resuscitation is needed, the nurse must first stabilize the newborn by drying thenewborn thoroughly with a warm towel and provide warmth by placing him or her under aradiant heater to prevent rapid heat loss. Next the newborn's head is placed in a neutral positionto open the airway, and the airway is cleared with a bulb syringe or suction catheter. Breathing isstimulated. Often handling and rubbing the newborn with a dry towel may be all that is needed to stimulate respirations. Next ventilations and then chest compressions are done. Administration of epinephrine and/or volume expanders is the last step.

While caring for a preterm newborn receiving oxygen therapy, the nurse monitors the oxygen therapy duration closely based on the understanding that the newborn is at risk for which condition? A. retinopathy of prematurity B. metabolic acidosis C. infection D. cold stress

Answer: A Rationale: Oxygen administration is a common therapy in the neonatal intensive care unit,though the normal oxygen concentration for a preterm infant remains unknown. Use of largeconcentrations of oxygen and sustained oxygen saturations higher than 95% while onsupplemental oxygen have been associated with the development of retinopathy of prematurity(ROP) and further respiratory complications in the preterm newborn (Martin & Deakins, 2020).For these reasons, oxygen should be used judiciously to prevent the development of furthercomplications. A guiding principle for oxygen therapy is it should be targeted to levelsappropriate to the condition, gestational age, and postnatal age of the newborn. Current common practice is to maintain oxygen saturation levels in the high 80s to mid-90s, though a wide variation in practice may still occur. Metabolic acidosis may occur due to anaerobic metabolism used for heat production. Infection may occur for numerous reasons, but they are unrelated to oxygen therapy. Cold stress results from problems due to the preterm newborn's inadequate supply of brown fat, decreased muscle tone, and large body surface area.

After teaching the parents of a newborn with retinopathy of prematurity (ROP) about the disorder and treatment, which statement by the parents indicates that the teaching was Successful? A. "Can we schedule follow-up vision screenings with the pediatric ophthalmologist now?" B. "We can fix the problem with surgery." C. "We'll make sure to administer eye drops each day for the next few weeks." D. "I'm sure the baby will grow out of it."

Answer: A Rationale: Parents of a newborn with suspected retinopathy of prematurity (ROP) should schedule follow-up vision screenings with a pediatric ophthalmologist every 2 to 3 weeks, depending on the severity of the findings at the initial examination.

A newborn has been diagnosed with retinopathy of prematurity. The nurse is teaching the parents about this condition. Which statement would the nurse most likely include in the Teaching? A. "You'll need to schedule follow-up eye examinations with the pediatric ophthalmologist." B. "Let's talk about the surgery that will be needed." C. "You'll need to give the eye drops each day for the next few weeks." D. "It's difficult now, but rest assured that your baby will grow out of it."

Answer: A Rationale: Parents of a newborn with suspected retinopathy of prematurity (ROP) should schedule follow-up vision screenings with a pediatric ophthalmologist every 2 to 3 weeks, depending on the severity of the findings at the initial examination. Surgery may or may not be needed. Eye drops are not used. Some children do grow out of it, but it is inappropriate for the nurse to assume that this is the case with this child.

A nurse is making a home visit to a postpartum client. Which finding would lead the nurse to suspect that a woman is experiencing postpartum psychosis? A. delirium B. feelings of guilt C. sadness D. insomnia

Answer: A Rationale: Postpartum psychosis is at the severe end of the continuum of postpartum emotional disorders. It is manifested by depression that escalates to delirium, hallucinations, anger toward self and infant, bizarre behavior, mania, and thoughts of hurting herself and the infant. Feelings of guilt, sadness, and insomnia are associated with postpartum depression.

On a follow-up visit to the clinic, a nurse suspects that a postpartum client is experiencing postpartum psychosis. Which finding would most likely lead the nurse to suspect this condition? A. delusional beliefs B. feelings of anxiety C. sadness D. insomnia

Answer: A Rationale: Postpartum psychosis is at the severe end of the continuum of postpartum emotional disorders. It is manifested by depression that escalates to delirium, hallucinations, delusional beliefs, anger toward self and infant, bizarre behavior, mania, and thoughts of hurting herself and the infant. Feelings of anxiety, sadness, and insomnia are associated with postpartum depression.

A woman who is 12 hours postpartum had a pulse rate around . 80 beats per minute during pregnancy. Now, the nurse finds a pulse of 60 beats per minute. Which of these actions should the nurse take? A) Document the finding, as it is a normal finding at this time. B) Contact the primary care provider, as it indicates early DIC.C. C) Contact the primary care provider, as it is a first sign of postpartum eclampsia. D) Obtain a prescription for a CBC, as it suggests postpartum anemia.

Answer: A Rationale: Pulse rates of 60 to 80 beats per minute at rest are normal during the first week after birth. This pulse rate is called puerperal bradycardia.

A multipara client develops thrombophlebitis after birth. Which assessment findings would lead the nurse to intervene immediately? A. dyspnea, diaphoresis, hypotension, and chest pain B. dyspnea, bradycardia, hypertension, and confusion C. weakness, anorexia, change in level of consciousness, and coma D. pallor, tachycardia, seizures, and jaundice

Answer: A Rationale: Sudden unexplained shortness of breath and reports of chest pain along with diaphoresis and hypotension suggest pulmonary embolism, which requires immediate action. Other signs and symptoms include tachycardia, apprehension, hemoptysis, syncope, and sudden change in the woman's mental status secondary to hypoxemia. Anorexia, seizures, and jaundice are unrelated to a pulmonary embolism.

A nurse is providing care to a large for gestational age newborn. The newborn's blood glucose level was 32 mg/dL one hour ago. Breast-feeding was initiated. The nurse checks the newborn's blood glucose level and finds it to be 23 mg/dL. Which action would the nurse do next? A. Administer intravenous glucose. B. Feed the newborn 2 ounces of formula .C. Initiate blow-by oxygen therapy .D. Place the newborn under a radiant warmer.

Answer: A Rationale: Supervised breast-feeding or formula feeding may be initial treatment options inasymptomatic hypoglycemia. However, symptomatic hypoglycemia should always be treatedwith frequent breast or formula feedings or dextrose gel massaged into the buccal mucosa. Ifhypoglycemia persists, then intravenous dextrose may be needed. Oral feedings would be used to maintain the newborn's glucose level above 40 mg/dL. Blow-by oxygen would have no effect on glucose levels; it may be helpful in promoting oxygenation. Placing the newborn under a radiant warmer would be a more appropriate measure for cold stress.

An LGA newborn has a blood glucose level of 30 mg/dL and is exhibiting symptoms of hypoglycemia. Which action would the nurse do next? A. Encourage frequent feedings B. Feed the newborn 2 ounces of dextrose water. C. Initiate blow-by oxygen therapy. D. Place the newborn under a radiant warmer.

Answer: A Rationale: Symptomatic hypoglycemia should always be treated with frequent breast or formula feedings or dextrose gel massaged into the buccal mucosa. Glucose water is not indicated. Blow-by oxygen would have no effect on glucose levels; it may be helpful in promoting oxygenation. Placing the newborn under a radiant warmer would be a more appropriate measure for cold stress.

While reviewing a newborn's medical record, the nurse notes that the chest X-ray shows a ground glass pattern. The nurse interprets this as indicative of: A. respiratory distress syndrome. B. transient tachypnea of the newborn. C. asphyxia. D. persistent pulmonary hypertension.

Answer: A Rationale: The chest X-ray of a newborn with RDS reveals a reticular (ground glass) pattern. For TTN, the chest X-ray shows lung overaeration and prominent perihilar interstitial markings and streakings. A chest X-ray for asphyxia would reveal possible structural abnormalities that might interfere with respiration, but the results are highly variable. An echocardiogram would be done to evaluate persistent pulmonary hypertension.

A nurse is developing the plan of care for a small-for-gestational-age newborn. Which action would the nurse determine as a priority? A. Preventing hypoglycemia with early feedings B. Observing for newborn reflexes C. Promoting bonding between the parents and the newborn D. Monitoring vital signs every 2 hours

Answer: A Rationale: The nurse must consider the implications of a small-for-gestational-age newborn. With the loss of the placenta at birth, the newborn must now assume control of glucose homeostasis. This is achieved by early oral intermittent feedings. Observing for newborn reflexes, promoting bonding, and monitoring vital signs, although important, are not the priority for this newborn.

While changing a female newborn's diaper, the nurse observes a mucus-like, slightly bloody vaginal discharge. Which action would the nurse do next? A. Document this as pseudo menstruation. B. Notify the primary care provider immediately. C. Obtain a culture of the discharge. D. Inspect for engorgement.

Answer: A Rationale: The nurse should assess pseudomenstruation, a vaginal discharge composed of mucus mixed with blood, which may be present during the first few weeks of life. This dischargerequires no treatment. The discharge is a normal finding and thus does not need to be reportedimmediately. It is not an indication of infection. The female genitalia normally will be engorged, so assessing for engorgement is not indicated.

The nurse is inspecting the external genitalia of a male newborn. Which finding would alert the nurse to a possible problem? A. limited rugae B. large scrotum C. palpable testes in scrotal sac D. negative engorgement

Answer: A Rationale: The scrotum usually appears relatively large and should be pink in white neonates and dark brown in neonates of color. Rugae should be well formed and should cover the scrotal sac. There should not be bulging, edema(engorgement), or discoloration. Testes should be palpable in the scrotal sac and feel firm and smooth and be of equal size on both sides of the scrotal sac.

When assessing the postpartum woman, the nurse uses indicators other than pulse rate and blood pressure for postpartum hemorrhage because: A. these measurements may not change until after the blood loss is large. B. the body's compensatory mechanisms activate and prevent any changes. C. they relate more to change in condition than to the amount of blood lost. D. maternal anxiety adversely affects these vital signs.

Answer: A Rationale: The typical signs of hemorrhage do not appear in the postpartum woman until as much as 1,800 to 2,100 ml of blood has been lost. In addition, accurate determination of actual blood loss is difficult because of blood pooling inside the uterus and on perineal pads, mattresses, and the floor.

Assessment of a postpartum client reveals a firm uterus with bright-red bleeding and a localized bluish bulging area just under the skin at the perineum. The woman also reports significant pelvic pain and is experiencing problems with voiding. The nurse suspects which condition? A. hematoma B. laceration C. bladder distention D. uterine atony

Answer: A Rationale: The woman most likely has a hematoma based on the findings: firm uterus with bright-red bleeding; localized bluish bulging area just under the skin surface in the perineal area; severe perineal or pelvic pain; and difficulty voiding. A laceration would involve a firm uterus with a steady stream or trickle of unclotted bright-red blood in the perineum. Bladder distention would be palpable along with a soft, boggy uterus that deviates from the midline. Uterine atony would be noted by a uncontracted uterus.

A preterm newborn has received large concentrations of oxygen therapy during a 3-month stay in the NICU. As the newborn is prepared to be discharged home, the nurse anticipates a referral for which specialist? A. ophthalmologist B. nephrologist C. cardiologist D. neurologist

Answer: A Rationale: Use of large concentrations of oxygen and sustained oxygen saturations higher than95% while on supplemental oxygen have been associated with the development of retinopathy of prematurity (ROP) and further respiratory complications in the preterm newborn (Martin &Deakins, 2020). For these reasons, oxygen should be used judiciously to prevent thedevelopment of further complications. A guiding principle for oxygen therapy is it should betargeted to levels appropriate to the condition, gestational age, and postnatal age of the newborn. As a result, an ophthalmology consult for follow-up after discharge is essential for preterm infants who have received extensive oxygen. Although referrals to other specialists may be warranted depending on the newborn's status, there is no information to suggest that any would be needed.

Which action would be most appropriate for the nurse to take when a newborn has an unexpected anomaly at birth? A) Show the newborn to the parents as soon as possible while explaining the defect. B) Remove the newborn from the birthing area immediately. C) Inform the parents that there is nothing wrong at the moment. D) Tell the parents that the newborn must go to the nursery immediately.

Answer: A Rationale: When an anomaly is identified at or after birth, parents need to be informed promptly and given a realistic appraisal of the severity of the condition, the prognosis, and treatment options so that they can participate in all decisions concerning their child. Removing the newborn from the area or telling them that the newborn needs to go to the nursery immediately is inappropriate and would only add to the parents' anxieties and fears. Telling them that nothing is wrong is inappropriate because it violates their right to know. Reference: p. 898

A postpartum woman is diagnosed with endometritis. The nurse interprets this as an infection involving which area? Select all that apply. A. endometrium B. decidua C. myometrium D. broad ligament E. ovaries F. fallopian tubes

Answer: A, B, C Rationale: Endometritis is an infectious condition that involves the endometrium, decidua, and adjacent myometrium of the uterus. Extension of endometritis can result in parametritis, which involves the broad ligament and possibly the ovaries and fallopian tubes, or septic pelvic thrombophlebitis.

A 20-hour-old neonate is suspected of having polycythemia. Which nursing intervention(s) will the nurse utilize to provide care for this neonate? Select all that apply. A. Obtain hemoglobin and hematocrit laboratory tests B. Provide early feedings to prevent hypoglycemia C. Maintain oxygen saturation parameters D. Monitor urinary output E. Insert a peripheral IV

Answer: A, B, C, D Rationale: Polycythemia in a neonate is defined as a hematocrit above 65% (0.65) and a hemoglobin level above 20 g/dl (200 g/l). The hematocrit and hemoglobin peak between 6 and 12 hours of life and then start to decrease. If these values do not decrease as expected, then hypoperfusion will occur and polycythemia will develop. In the beginning, the nurse may assess feeding difficulties, hypoglycemia, jitteriness and respiratory distress. As the condition worsens, a ruddy skin color could be seen, cyanosis could develop, the neonate could become lethargic and seizures could develop. Nursing care for this neonate requires obtaining hematocrit and hemoglobin laboratory tests at 2 hours, 12 hours and 24 hours. Feeding should be started to provide fluid, nutrition and prevent hypoglycemia. The oxygen saturation should be monitored. If the levels are below the established parameters from the health care provider, oxygen therapy will be needed. The urine output should be monitored continuously because polycythemia can cause real failure. A peripheral IV may or may not be needed. This would depend on the neonate's condition and if IV fluids would be required.

A nurse is conducting a refresher program for a group of nurses working in the newborn nursery. After teaching the group about variations in newborn head size and appearance, the nurse determines that the teaching was successful when the group identifies which variation as normal? Select all that apply. A. cephalhematoma B. molding C. closed fontanels D. caput succedaneum E. posterior fontanel diameter 1.5 cm

Answer: A, B, D Rationale: Normal variations in newborn head size and appearance include cephalhematoma, molding, and caput succedaneum. Microcephaly, closed fontanels, or a posterior fontanel diameter greater than 1 cm are considered abnormal.

A nurse suspects that a preterm newborn is having problems with thermal regulation. Which findings would support the nurse's suspicion? Select all that apply. A. shallow, slow respirations B. cyanotic hands and feet C. irritability D. hypertonicity E. feeble cry

Answer: A, B, E Rationale: Typically, a preterm newborn that is having problems with thermal regulation is coolto the touch. The hands, feet, and tongue may appear cyanotic. Respirations are shallow or slow, or signs of respiratory distress are present. The newborn is lethargic and hypotonic, feeds poorly, and has a feeble cry. Blood glucose levels are probably low, leading to hypoglycemia, due to the energy expended to keep warm.

A nurse is preparing a presentation for a group of perinatal nurses about common problems associated with preterm birth. When describing the preterm newborn's risk for perinatal asphyxia, the nurse includes which factor as contributing to the newborn's risk? Select all that apply. A. surfactant deficiency B. placental deprivation C. immaturity of the respiratory control centers D. decreased amounts of brown fatE. depleted glycogen stores

Answer: A, C Rationale: Preterm newborns are at risk for perinatal asphyxia due to surfactant deficiency,unstable chest wall, immaturity of the respiratory control centers, small respiratory passages, and inability to clear mucus from the airways. Placental deprivation places the postterm newborn at risk for perinatal asphyxia. Decreased amounts of brown fat and depleted glycogen stores place the SGA newborn at risk for problems with thermoregulation.

A nurse is providing a refresher class for a group of postpartum nurses. The nurse reviews the risk factors associated with postpartum hemorrhage. The group demonstrates understanding of the information when they identify which risk factors associated with uterine tone? Select all that apply. A. rapid labor B. retained blood clots C. hydramnios D. operative birth E. fetal malpostion

Answer: A, C Rationale: Risk factors associated with uterine tone include hydramnios, rapid or prolonged labor, oxytocin use, maternal fever, or prolonged rupture of membranes. Retained blood clots are a risk factor associated with tissue retained in the uterus. Fetal malposition and operative birth are risk factors associated with trauma of the genital tract.

A nurse is explaining to the parents of a child with bladder exstrophy about the care their infant requires. Which measures would the nurse include in the explanation? Select all that Apply. A. covering the area with a sterile, clear, nonadherent dressing B. irrigating the surface with sterile saline twice a day C. monitoring drainage through the suprapubic catheter D. administering prescribed antibiotic therapy E. preparing for surgical intervention in about 2 weeks

Answer: A, C, D Rationale: Care for an infant with bladder exstrophy includes covering the area with a sterile, clear, nonadherent dressing and irrigating the bladder surface with sterile saline after each diaper change to prevent infection, assisting with insertion and monitoring drainage from suprapubic catheter, administering prescribed antibiotic therapy, and preparing the parents and infant for Surgery.

The nurse is developing a discharge teaching plan for a postpartum woman who has developed a postpartum infection. Which measures would the nurse most likely include in this teaching plan? Select all that apply. A. taking the prescribed antibiotic until it is finished B. checking temperature once a week C. washing hands before and after perineal care D. handling perineal pads by the edges E. directing peribottle to flow from back to front

Answer: A, C, D Rationale: Teaching should address taking the prescribed antibiotic until finished to ensure complete eradication of the infection; checking temperature daily and notifying the practitioner if it is above 100.4° F (38° C); washing hands thoroughly before and after eating, using the bathroom, touching the perineal area, or providing newborn care; handling perineal pads by the edges and avoiding touching the inner aspect of the pad that is against the body; and directing peribottle so that it flows from front to back.

The nurse is assessing a newborn and suspects that the newborn was exposed to drugs in utero because the newborn is exhibiting signs of neonatal abstinence syndrome. Which findings would the nurse expect to assess? Select all that apply. A. tremors B. diminished sucking C. regurgitation D. shrill, high-pitched cry E. hypothermia F. frequent sneezing G. shrill, high-pitched cry

Answer: A, C, D, F, G Rationale: Signs and symptoms of neonatal abstinence syndrome include tremors, frantic sucking, regurgitation or projectile vomiting, shrill high-pitched cry, fever, and frequent Sneezing.

A newborn was diagnosed with a congenital heart defect and will undergo surgery at a later time. The nurse is teaching the parents about signs and symptoms that need to be reported. The nurse determines that the parents have understood the instructions when they state that they will report which signs? Select all that apply. A. weight loss B. pale skin C. fever D. absence of edema E. increased respiratory rate

Answer: A, C, E Rationale: Signs and symptoms that need to be reported include weight loss, poor feeding, cyanosis, breathing difficulties, irritability, increased respiratory rate, and fever.

A nurse is developing a plan of care for a preterm newborn to address the nursing diagnosis of risk for delayed development. Which measures would the nurse include? Select all that apply. A. clustering care to promote rest B. positioning newborn in extension C. using kangaroo care D. loosely covering the newborn with blankets E. providing nonnutritive sucking

Answer: A, C, E Rationale: The nurse would focus the plan of care on developmental care, which includesclustering care to promote rest and conserve energy, using flexed positioning to simulate in utero positioning, using kangaroo care to promote skin to skin sensations, swaddling with a blanket to maintain the flexed position, and providing nonnutritive sucking.

A nurse is assessing a newborn who has been classified as small for gestational age. Which characteristics would the nurse expect to find? Select all that apply. A. wasted extremity appearance B. increased amount of breast tissue C. sunken abdomen D. adequate muscle tone over buttocks E. narrow skull sutures

Answer: A, C, E Rationale: Typical characteristics of SGA newborns include a head that is disproportionatelylarge compared to the rest of the body, wasted appearance of the extremities, reducedsubcutaneous fat stores, decreased amount of breast tissue, scaphoid abdomen, wide skullsutures, poor muscle tone over buttocks and cheeks, loose and dry skin appearing oversized, and a thin umbilical cord.

Assessment of a postpartum woman experiencing postpartum hemorrhage reveals mild shock. Which finding would the nurse expect to assess? Select all that apply. A. diaphoresis B. tachycardia C. oliguria D. cool extremities E. confusion

Answer: A, D Rationale: Signs and symptoms of mild shock include diaphoresis, increased capillary refill, cool extremities, and maternal anxiety. Tachycardia and oliguria suggest moderate shock. Confusion suggests severe shock.

A new parent is talking with the nurse about feeding the newborn. The parent has chosen touse formula. The parent asks, "How can I make sure that my baby is getting what is needed?" Which response(s) by the nurse would be appropriate? Select all that apply. A. "Make sure to use an iron-fortified formula until your baby is about 1 year old." B. "Start giving your baby flouride supplements now so your baby develops strong teeth." C. "Since you are not breastfeeding, your baby needs a baby multivitamin each day." D. "Your baby gets enough fluid with formula, so you do not need to give extra water." E. "It is important to give your baby vitamin D each day."

Answer: A, D, E Rationale: Fluid requirements for the newborn and infant range from 100 to 150 mL/kg daily. This requirement can be met through breastfeeding or bottle feeding. Additional water supplementation is not necessary. Adequate carbohydrates, fats, protein, and vitamins are achieved through consumption of breast milk or formula. Iron-fortified formula is recommenedfor all infants who are not breastfed from birth to 1 year of age. The breastfed infant draws oniron reserves for the first 6 months and then needs iron-rich foods or supplementation added at 6 months of age. All infants (breastfed and bottle fed) should receive a daily supplement of 400International Units of vitamin D starting within the first few days of life to prevent rickets andvitamin D deficiency. It is also recommended that fluoride supplementation be given to infantsnot receiving fluoridated water after the age of 6 months.

A home health care nurse is assessing a postpartum woman who was discharged 2 days ago. The woman tells the nurse that she has a low-grade fever and feels "lousy." Which finding would lead the nurse to suspect endometritis? Select all that apply. A. lower abdominal tenderness B. urgency C. flank pain D. breast tenderness E. anorexia

Answer: A, E Rationale: Manifestations of endometritis include lower abdominal tenderness or pain on one or both sides, elevated temperature, foul-smelling lochia, anorexia, nausea, fatigue and lethargy, leukocytosis, and elevated sedimentation rate. Urgency and flank pain would suggest a urinary tract infection. Breast tenderness may be related to engorgement or suggest mastitis.

A woman gives birth to a newborn at 36 weeks' gestation. She tells the nurse, "I'm so glad that my baby isn't premature." Which response by the nurse would be most appropriate? A. "You are lucky to have given birth to a term newborn." B. "We still need to monitor him closely for problems." C. "How do you feel about giving birth to your baby at 36 weeks?" D. "Your baby is premature and needs monitoring in the NICU."

Answer: B Rationale: A baby born at 36 weeks' gestation is considered a late preterm newborn. Thesenewborns face similar challenges as those of preterm newborns and require similar care. Tellingthe mother that close monitoring is necessary can prevent any misconceptions that she mighthave and prepare her for what might arise. The baby is not considered a term newborn, nor is the baby considered premature. The decision for care in the NICU would depend on the newborn's status. Asking the woman how she feels about the birth demonstrates caring but does not address the woman's lack of understanding about her newborn

A nurse is conducting a class for expectant parents about newborns. As part of the class, the nurse describes newborns with birth weight variations. The nurse determines that the teaching was successful when the class identifies which variation if a newborn weighs 5.2 lb (2,358 g) at any gestational age? A. small for gestational age B. low birth weight C. very low birth weight D. extremely low birth weight

Answer: B Rationale: A low-birth-weight newborn weighs less than 5.5 lb (2,500 g) but more than 3 lb 5 oz (1,587 g). A very-low-birth-weight newborn would weigh less than 3 lb 5 oz (1,587 g) but more than 2 lb 3 oz (1,000 g). An extremely-low-birth-weight newborn weighs less than 2 lb 3 oz (1,000 g). A small-for-gestational-age newborn typically weighs less than 5 lb 8 oz (2,500 g) at term.

Just after birth, a newborn's axillary temperature is 94°F (34.4°C). What action would be most appropriate? A. Assess the newborn's gestational age. B. Rewarm the newborn gradually. C. Observe the newborn every hour. D. Notify the primary care provider if the temperature goes lower.

Answer: B Rationale: A newborn's temperature is typically maintained at 97.7° F to 99.7° F (36.5° C to 37.5° C). Since this newborn's temperature is significantly lower, the nurse should institute measures to rewarm the newborn gradually. Assessment of gestational age is completed regardless of the newborn's temperature. Observation would be inappropriate because lack of action may lead to a further lowering of the temperature. The nurse should notify the primary care provider of the newborn's current temperature since it is outside normal parameters.

A nurse is assisting in the resuscitation of a newborn. The nurse would expect to stop resuscitation efforts when the newborn has no heartbeat and respiratory effort after which time Frame? A. 5 minutes B. 10 minutes C. 15 minutes D. 20 minutes

Answer: B Rationale: According to the American Heart Association and American Academy of Pediatrics Guidelines for Neonatal Resuscitation, resuscitation efforts may be stopped if the newborn exhibits no heartbeat and no respiratory effort after 10 minutes of continuous and adequate Resuscitation.

A nurse is developing a program to help reduce the risk of late postpartum hemorrhage in clients in the labor and birth unit. Which measure would the nurse emphasize as part of this program? A. administering broad-spectrum antibiotics B. inspecting the placenta after delivery for intactness C. manually removing the placenta at birth D. applying pressure to the umbilical cord to remove the placenta

Answer: B Rationale: After the placenta is expelled, a thorough inspection is necessary to confirm its intactness because tears or fragments left inside may indicate an accessory lobe or placenta accreta. These can lead to profuse hemorrhage because the uterus is unable to contract fully. Administering antibiotics would be appropriate for preventing infection, not postpartum hemorrhage. Manual removal of the placenta or excessive traction on the umbilical cord can lead to uterine inversion, which in turn would result in hemorrhage

A newborn has an Apgar score of 6 at 5 minutes. Which action would be the priority? A. initiating IV fluid therapy B. beginning resuscitative measures C. promoting kangaroo care D. obtaining a blood culture

Answer: B Rationale: An Apgar score below 7 at 1 or 5 minutes indicates the need for resuscitation. Intravenous fluid therapy and blood cultures may be done once resuscitation is started. Kangaroo care would be appropriate once the newborn is stable. Reference: p. 861-863

A nurse is providing care to a newborn who is receiving phototherapy. Which action would the nurse most likely include in the plan of care? A. keeping the newborn in the supine position B. covering the newborn's eyes while under the bililights C. ensuring that the newborn is covered or clothed D. reducing the amount of fluid intake to 8 ounces daily

Answer: B Rationale: During phototherapy, the newborn's eyes are covered to protect them from the lights. The newborn is turned every 2 hours to expose all areas of the body to the lights and is kept undressed, except for the diaper area, to provide maximum body exposure to the lights. Fluid intake is increased to allow for added fluid, protein, and calories. Reference: p. 893

The nurse prepares to administer a gavage feeding for a newborn with transient tachypnea based on the understanding that this type of feeding is necessary because: A) lactase enzymatic activity is not adequate. B) oxygen demands need to be reduced. C) renal solute lead must be considered. D) hyperbilirubinemia is likely to develop.

Answer: B Rationale: For the newborn with transient tachypnea, the newborn's respiratory rate is high, increasing the oxygen demand. Thus, measures are initiated to reduce this demand. Gavage feedings are one way to do so. With transient tachypnea, enzyme activity and kidney function are not affected. This condition typically resolves within 72 hours. The risk for hyperbilirubinemia is not increased. Reference: p. 859

The nurse is providing care to a newborn who was born at 36 weeks' gestation. Based on the nurse's understanding of gestational age, the nurse identifies this newborn as: A. preterm. B. late preterm. C. term. D. postterm.

Answer: B Rationale: Gestational age is typically measured in weeks: a newborn born before completion of 37 weeks is classified as a preterm newborn, and one born after completion of 42 weeks is classified as a postterm newborn. An infant born from the first day of the 38th week through 42 weeks is classified as a term newborn. The late preterm newborn (near term) is one who is born between 34 weeks and 36 weeks, 6 days of gestation.

A nurse is assessing a postpartum client who is at home. Which statement by the client would lead the nurse to suspect that the client may be developing postpartum depression? A. "I just feel so overwhelmed and tired." B. "I'm feeling so guilty and worthless lately." C. "It's strange, one minute I'm happy, the next I'm sad." D. "I keep hearing voices telling me to take my baby to the river."

Answer: B Rationale: Indicators for postpartum depression include feelings related to restlessness, worthlessness, guilt, hopeless, and sadness along with loss of enjoyment, low energy level, and loss of libido. The statements about being overwhelmed and fatigued and changing moods suggest postpartum blues. The statement about hearing voices suggests postpartum psychosis.

A postpartum woman who developed deep vein thrombosis is being discharged on anticoagulant therapy. After teaching the woman about this treatment, the nurse determines that additional teaching is needed when the woman makes which statement? A. "I will use a soft toothbrush to brush my teeth." B. "I can take ibuprofen if I have any pain." C. "I need to avoid drinking any alcohol." D. "I will call my health care provider if my stools are black and tarry."

Answer: B Rationale: Individuals receiving anticoagulant therapy need to avoid use of any over-the-counter products containing aspirin or aspirin-like derivatives such as NSAIDs (ibuprofen) to reduce the risk for bleeding. Using a soft toothbrush and avoiding alcohol are appropriate measures to reduce the risk for bleeding. Black, tarry stools should be reported to the health care provider

The nurse prepares to assess a newborn who is considered to be large-for-gestational-age (LGA). Which characteristic would the nurse correlate with this gestational age variation? A. strong, brisk motor skills B. difficulty in arousing to a quiet alert state C. birthweight of 7 lb, 14 oz (3,572 g) D. wasted appearance of extremities

Answer: B Rationale: LGA newborns typically are more difficult to arouse to a quiet alert state. They have poor motor skills, have a large body that appears plump and full-sized, and usually weigh more than 8 lb, 13 oz (3,997 g) at term.

A nurse is reviewing the maternal history of a large-for-gestational-age (LGA) newborn. Which factor, if noted in the maternal history, would the nurse identify as possibly contributing to the birth of this newborn? A. substance use disorder B. diabetes C. preeclampsia D. infection

Answer: B Rationale: Maternal factors that increase the chance of having an LGA newborn include maternal diabetes mellitus or glucose intolerance, multiparity, prior history of a macrosomic infant, postdate gestation, maternal obesity, male fetus, and genetics. Substance use disorder isassociated with small-for-gestational-age (SGA) newborns and preterm newborns. A maternalhistory of preeclampsia and infection would be associated with preterm birth.

A nurse is reviewing the plan of care for a newborn who has been diagnosed respiratory distress syndrome. Which intervention would the nurse closely monitor to reduce the child's risk for chronic lung disease? A. Rescue surfactant therapy B. Mechanical ventilation C. Oxygen therapy D. Radiant warmer use

Answer: B Rationale: Mechanical ventilation has been associated with an increased risk for bronchopulmonary dysplasia (chronic lung disease). Oxygen therapy and surfactant rescue therapy are used as treatment for respiratory distress syndrome and may help to reduce the risk for needing mechanical ventilatIion. Radiant warmer use would facility thermoregulation but would have no impact on the development of chronic lung disease

A postpartum client is prescribed medication therapy as part of the treatment plan for postpartum hemorrhage. Which medication would the nurse expect to administer in this situation? A. Magnesium sulfate B. methylergonovine C. Indomethacin D. nifedipine

Answer: B Rationale: Methylergonovine, along with oxytocin and carboprost are drugs used to manage postpartum hemorrhage. Magnesium sulfate, indomethecin, and nifedipine are used to control preterm labor.

The nurse is assessing a preterm newborn who is in the neonatal intensive care unit (NICU) for signs and symptoms of overstimulation. Which assessment finding would the nurse correlate with this situation? A. increased respirations B. flaying hands C. eupnea D. increased heart rate

Answer: B Rationale: Overstimulation may have negative effects by reducing oxygenation and causingstress. A newborn reacts to stress by flaying the hands or bringing an arm up to cover the face.When overstimulated, such as by noise, lights, excessive handling, alarms, and procedures, and stress, heart and respiratory rates decrease and periods of apnea or bradycardia may occur.

After teaching the parents of a newborn with periventricular hemorrhage about the disorder and treatment, which statement by the parents indicates that the teaching was successful? A) "We'll make sure to cover both of his eyes to protect them." B) "Our newborn could develop a learning disability later on." C) "Once the bleeding ceases, there won't be any more worries." D) "We need to get family members to donate blood for transfusion."

Answer: B Rationale: Periventricular hemorrhage has long-term sequelae such as seizures, hydrocephalus, periventricular leukomalacia, cerebral palsy, learning disabilities, vision or hearing deficits, and intellectual disability. Covering the eyes is more appropriate for the newborn receiving phototherapy. The bleeding in the brain can lead to serious long-term effects. Blood transfusions are not used to treat periventricular hemorrhage

A nurse is teaching new parents about bathing their newborn. The nurse determines that the teaching was successful when the parents make which statement? A. "We can put a tiny bit of lotion on his skin, and then rub it in gently." B. "We should avoid using any kind of baby powder." C. "We need to bathe him at least four to five times a week." D. "We should clean his eyes after washing his face and hair."

Answer: B Rationale: Powders should not be used, because they can be inhaled, causing respiratory distress. If the parents want to use oils and lotions, have them apply a small amount onto their hand first, away from the newborn; this warms the lotion. Then the parents should apply the lotion or oil sparingly. Parents need to be instructed that a bath two or three times weekly is sufficient for the first year because too frequent bathing may dry the skin. The eyes are cleaned first and only with plain water; then the rest of the face is cleaned with plain water.

A newborn is scheduled to undergo a screening test for phenylketonuria (PKU). The nurse prepares to obtain the blood sample from the newborn's: A. finger. B. heel. C. scalp vein. D. umbilical vein.

Answer: B Rationale: Screening tests for genetic and inborn errors of metabolism require a few drops of blood taken from the newborn's heel. The finger, scalp vein, or umbilical vein are inappropriate sites for the blood sample.

A nurse is teaching the mother of a newborn experiencing cocaine withdrawal about caring for the neonate at home. The mother stopped using cocaine near the end of her pregnancy. The nurse determines that additional teaching is needed when the mother identifies which action as appropriate for her newborn? A) wrapping the newborn snugly in a blanket B) waking the newborn every hour C) checking the newborn's fontanels D) offering a pacifier

Answer: B Rationale: Stimuli need to be decreased. Waking the newborn every hour would most likely be too stimulating. Measures such as swaddling the newborn tightly and offering a pacifier help to decrease irritable behaviors. A pacifier also helps to satisfy the newborn's need for nonnutritive sucking. Checking the fontanels provides evidence of hydration.

A postpartum client comes to the clinic for her routine 6-week visit. The nurse assesses the client and suspects that she is experiencing subinvolution based on which finding? A. nonpalpable fundus B. moderate lochia serosa C. bruising on arms and legs D. fever

Answer: B Rationale: Subinvolution is usually identified at the woman's postpartum examination 4 to 6 weeks after birth. The clinical picture includes a postpartum fundal height that is higher than expected, with a boggy uterus; the lochia fails to change colors from red to serosa to alba within a few weeks. Normally, at 4 to 6 weeks, lochia alba or no lochia would be present and the fundus would not be palpable. Thus evidence of lochia serosa suggests subinvolution. Bruising would suggest a coagulopathy. Fever would suggest an infection.

A nurse is presenting a review class for a group of neonatal nurses on the different types of congenital heart disease in infants. The group demonstrates a need for additional teaching when they identify which condition as an example of increased pulmonary blood flow (left-to-right shunting)? A) atrial septal defect B) tetralogy of Fallot C) ventricular septal defect D) patent ductus arteriosus

Answer: B Rationale: Tetralogy of Fallot is a congenital heart condition that results from decreased, not increased, pulmonary blood flow. Atrial septal defect, ventricular septal defect, and patent ductus arteriosus are heart conditions that involve increased blood flow from higher pressure (left sideof heart) to lower pressure (right side of heart), resulting in left-to-right shunting.

A nurse is assessing a client who gave birth vaginally about 4 hours ago. The client tells the nurse that she changed her perineal pad about an hour ago. On inspection, the nurse notes thatthe pad is now saturated. The uterus is firm and approximately at the level of the umbilicus.Further inspection of the perineum reveals an area, bluish in color and bulging just under the skin surface. Which action would the nurse do next? A. Apply warm soaks to the area. B. Notify the health care provider. C. Massage the uterine fundus. D. Encourage the client to void.

Answer: B Rationale: The client is experiencing postpartum hemorrhage secondary to a perineal hematoma. The nurse needs to notify the health care provider about these findings to prevent further hemorrhage. Applying warm soaks to the area would do nothing to control the bleeding. With a perineal hematoma, the uterus is firm, so massaging the uterus or encouraging the client to void would not be appropriate.

A nurse is reviewing a journal article on the causes of postpartum hemorrhage. Which condition would the nurse most likely find as the most common cause? A. labor augmentation B. uterine atony C. cervical or vaginal lacerations D. uterine inversion

Answer: B Rationale: The most common cause of postpartum hemorrhage is uterine atony, failure of the uterus to contract and retract after birth. The uterus must remain contracted after birth to control bleeding from the placental site. Labor augmentation is a risk factor for postpartum hemorrhage. Lacerations of the birth canal and uterine inversion may cause postpartum hemorrhage, but these are not the most common cause.

A group of nurses are reviewing information about mastitis and its causes in an effort to develop a teaching program on prevention for postpartum women. The nurses demonstrate understanding of the information when they focus the teaching on ways to minimize risk of exposure to which organism? A. E. coli B. S. aureus C. Proteus D. Klebsiella

Answer: B Rationale: The most common infectious organism that causes mastitis is S. aureus, which comes from the breast-feeding infant's mouth or throat. E. coli is another, less common cause. E. coli, Proteus, and Klebsiella are common causes of urinary tract infections.

Assessment of a newborn's head circumference reveals that it is 34 cm. The nurse would suspect that this newborn's chest circumference would be: A. 30 cm. B. 32 cm. C. 34 cm. D. 36 cm.

Answer: B Rationale: The newborn's chest should be round, symmetric, and 2 to 3 cm smaller than the head circumference. Therefore, this newborn's chest circumference of 31 to 32 cm would be normal.

A nurse is massaging a postpartum client's fundus and places the nondominant hand on the area above the symphysis pubis based on the understanding that this action: A. determines that the procedure is effective. B. helps support the lower uterine segment. C. aids in expressing accumulated clots. D. prevents uterine muscle fatigue.

Answer: B Rationale: The nurse places the nondominant hand on the area above the symphysis pubis to help support the lower uterine segment. The hand, usually the dominant hand that is placed on the fundus, helps to determine uterine firmness (and thus the effectiveness of the massage). Applying gentle downward pressure on the fundus helps to express clots. Overmassaging the uterus leads to muscle fatigue.

A late preterm newborn is being prepared for discharge to home after being in the neonatalintensive care unit for 4 days. The nurse instructs the parents about the care of their newborn and emphasizes warning signs that should be reported to the pediatrician immediately. The nurse determines that additional teaching is needed based on which parental statement? A. "We will call 911 if we start to see that our newborn's lips or skin are looking bluish." B. "If our newborn's skin turns yellow, it is from the treatments and our newborn is okay. " C. "If our newborn does not have a wet diaper in 12 hours, we will call our pediatrician." D. "We will let the pediatrician know if our newborn's temperature goes above 100.4°F (38°C)."

Answer: B Rationale: The parents of a preterm newborn need teaching about when to notify their pediatrican or nurse practitioner. These include: displaying a yellow color to the skin (jaundice); having difficulty breathing or turning blue (call for emergency services in this case); having a temperature below 97°F (36.1°C) or above 100.4°F (38°C); and failing to void for 12 hours.

A nurse is describing the advantages and disadvantages of circumcision to a group of expectant parents. Which statement by the parents indicates effective teaching? A. "Sexually transmitted infections are more common in circumcised males." B. "The rate of penile cancer is less for circumcised males." C. "Urinary tract infections are more easily treated in circumcised males." D. "Circumcision is a risk factor for acquiring HIV infection."

Answer: B Rationale: The risk for penile cancer appears to be slightly lower for males who are circumcised.However, penile cancer is rare and other risk factors such as genital warts and HPV infectionseem to play a larger role. Sexually transmitted infections are less common in circumcised males, but the risk is believed to be related more to behavioral factors than circumcision status.Circumcised males have a 50% lower risk of acquiring HIV infection. Urinary tract infectionsare slightly less common in circumcised boys. However, rates are low in both circumcised anduncircumcised boys and are easily treated without long-term sequelae.

After teaching a woman with a postpartum infection about care after discharge, which client statement indicates the need for additional teaching?A. "I need to call my doctor if my temperature goes above 100.4° F (38° C)." B. "When I put on a new pad, I'll start at the back and go forward." C. "If I have chills or my discharge has a strange odor, I'll call my doctor." D. "I'll point the spray of the peri-bottle so it the water flows front to back."

Answer: B Rationale: The woman needs additional teaching when she states that she should apply the perineal pad starting at the back and going forward. The pad should be applied using a front-to- back motion. Notifying the health care provider of a temperature above 100.4° F (38° C), aiming the peri-bottle spray so that the flow goes from front to back, and reporting danger signs such as chills or lochia with a strange odor indicate effective teaching.

When developing the plan of care for a newborn with congenital condition, the nurse would include which measure to promote participation by the parents? A. Use verbal instructions primarily for explanations. B. Assist with the decision-making process. C. Provide personal views about their decisions. D. Encourage them to refrain from showing emotions.

Answer: B Rationale: To promote parental participation, the nurse should assist them with making decisionsabout treatment and support their decisions for the newborn's care. Imposing personal viewsabout their decisions is inappropriate and undermines the nurse-client relationship. In addition,the nurse would assess their ability to cope with the diagnosis, encourage them to verbalize their feelings about the newborn's condition and treatment and educate them about the newborn's condition using written information and pictures to enhance understanding.

Which intervention would be most appropriate for the nurse to do when assisting parents who have experienced the loss of their preterm newborn? A. Avoid using the terms "death" or "dying." B. Provide opportunities for them to hold the newborn. C. Refrain from initiating conversations with the parents. D. Quickly refocus the parents to a more pleasant topic.

Answer: B Rationale: When dealing with grieving parents, nurses should provide them with opportunities tohold the newborn if they desire. In addition, the nurse should provide the parents with as manymemories as possible, encouraging them to see, touch, dress, and take pictures of the newborn. These interventions help to validate the parents' sense of loss, relive the experience, and attach significance to the meaning of loss. The nurse should use appropriate terminology, such as "dying," "died," and "death," to help the parents accept the reality of the death. Nurses need to demonstrate empathy and to respect the parents' feelings, responding to them in helpful and supportive ways. Active listening and allowing the parents to vent their frustrations and anger help validate the parents' feelings and facilitate the grieving process.

Which information would the nurse include when teaching a new mother about the difference between pathologic and physiologic jaundice? A) Physiologic jaundice results in kernicterus. B) Pathologic jaundice appears within 24 hours after birth. C) Both are treated with exchange transfusions of maternal O- blood. D) Physiologic jaundice requires transfer to the NICU.

Answer: B Rationale: Pathologic jaundice appears within 24 hours after birth whereas physiologic jaundice commonly appears around the third or fourth days of life. Kernicterus is more commonly associated with pathologic jaundice. An exchange transfusion is used only if the total serum bilirubin level remains elevated after intensive phototherapy. With this procedure, the newborn's blood is removed and replaced with nonhemolyzed red blood cells from a donor. Physiologic jaundice often is treated at home.

A nurse is teaching a postpartum client and her partner about caring for their newborn's umbilical cord site. Which statement by the parents indicates a need for additional teaching? A. "We can put him in the tub to bathe him once the cord falls off and is healed." B. "The cord stump should change from brown to yellow." C. "Exposing the stump to the air helps it to dry." D. "We need to call the primary care provider if we notice a funny odor."

Answer: B Rationale: The cord stump should change color from yellow to brown or black. Therefore the parents need additional teaching if they state the color changes from brown to yellow. Tub baths are avoided until the cord has fallen off and the area is healed. Exposing the stump to the air helps it to dry. The parents should notify their primary care provider if there is any bleeding, redness, drainage, or foul odor from the cord stump.

The nurse is auscultating a newborn's heart and places the stethoscope at the point of maximal impulse at which location? A. just superior to the nipple, at the midsternum B. lateral to the midclavicular line at the fourth intercostal space C. at the fifth intercostal space to the left of the sternum D. directly adjacent to the sternum at the second intercostals space

Answer: B Rationale: The point of maximal impulse (PMI) in a newborn is a lateral to midclavicular line located at the fourth intercostal space.

The nurse is assessing a newborn's eyes. Which findings would the nurse identify as normal? Select all that apply. A. slow blink response B. able to track object to midline C. transient deviation of the eyes D. involuntary repetitive eye movement E. absent red reflex

Answer: B, C, D Rationale: Assessment of the eyes should reveal a rapid blink reflex, ability to track objects to the midline, transient strabismus (deviation or wandering of the eyes independently), searching nystagmus (involuntary repetitive eye movement), and a red reflex.

The nurse is assessing the newborn of a mother who had gestational diabetes. Which findings would the nurse expect? Select all that apply. A. pale skin color B. buffalo hump C. distended upper abdomen D. excessive subcutaneous fat E. long slender neck

Answer: B, C, D Rationale: Infants of diabetic mothers exhibit full rosy cheeks with a ruddy skin color, short neck, buffalo hump over the nape of the neck, massive shoulders, distended upper abdomen, and excessive subcutaneous fat tissue.

A newborn is diagnosed with meconium aspiration syndrome. When assessing this newborn, the nurse would expect which findings? Select all that apply. A. pigeon chest B. prolonged tachypnea C. intercostal retractions D. high blood pH level E. coarse crackles on auscultation

Answer: B, C, E Rationale: Assessment findings associated with meconium aspiration syndrome include barrel- shaped chest with an increased anterior-posterior (AP) chest diameter (similar to that found in a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease), prolonged tachypnea, progression from mildto severe respiratory distress, intercostal retractions, end-expiratory grunting, and cyanosis.Coarse crackles and rhonchi are noted on lung auscultation.

A nurse suspects that a client may be developing disseminated intravascular coagulation. The woman has a history of placental abruption (abruptio placentae) during birth. Which finding would help to support the nurse's suspicion? A. severe uterine pain B. board-like abdomen C. appearance of petechiae D. inversion of the uterus

Answer: C Rationale: A complication of abruption placentae is disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), which is manifested by petechiae, ecchymoses, and other signs of impaired clotting. Severe uterine pain, a board-like abdomen, and uterine inversion are not associated with DIC and placental abruption.

A newborn is suspected of having fetal alcohol syndrome. Which finding would the nurse expect to assess? A) bradypnea B) hydrocephaly C) flattened maxilla D) hypoactivity

Answer: C Rationale: A newborn with fetal alcohol syndrome exhibits characteristic facial features such as microcephaly (not hydrocephaly), small palpebral fissures, and abnormally small eyes, flattened or absent maxilla, epicanthal folds, thin upper lip, and missing vertical groove in the median portion of the upper lip. Bradypnea is not typically associated with fetal alcohol syndrome. Fine and gross motor development is delayed, and the newborn shows poor hand-eye coordination but not hypoactivity

A nurse is assessing a postterm newborn. Which finding would the nurse correlate with this gestational age variation? A. moist, supple, plum skin appearance B. abundant lanugo and vernix C. thin umbilical cord D. absence of sole creases

Answer: C Rationale: A postterm newborn typically exhibits a thin umbilical cord; dry, cracked, wrinkled skin; limited vernix and lanugo; and creases covering the entire soles of the feet.

The nurse frequently assesses the respiratory status of a preterm newborn based on theunderstanding that the newborn is at increased risk for respiratory distress syndrome because of which factor? A. inability to clear fluids B. immature respiratory control center C. deficiency of surfactant D. smaller respiratory passages

Answer: C Rationale: A preterm newborn is at increased risk for respiratory distress syndrome (RDS) mostcommonly because of a surfactant deficiency. Surfactant helps to keep the alveoli open andmaintain lung expansion. With a deficiency, the alveoli collapse, predisposing the newborn toRDS. An inability to clear fluids can lead to transient tachypnea. Immature respiratory controlcenters lead to an increased risk for apnea. Smaller respiratory passages lead to an increased risk for obstruction.

A nurse is developing a plan of care for a woman who is at risk for thromboembolism. Which measure would the nurse include as the most cost-effective method for prevention? A. prophylactic heparin administration B. compression stockings C. early ambulation D. warm compresses

Answer: C Rationale: Although compression stockings and prophylactic heparin administration may be appropriate, the most cost-effective preventive method is early ambulation. It is also the easiest method. Warm compresses are used to treat superficial venous thrombosis.

A newborn is suspected of developing persistent pulmonary hypertension. The nurse would expect to prepare the newborn for which procedure to confirm the suspicion? A. chest X-ray B. blood cultures C. echocardiogram D. stool for occult blood

Answer: C Rationale: An echocardiogram is used to reveal right-to-left shunting of blood to confirm the diagnosis of persistent pulmonary hypertension. Chest X-ray would be most likely used to aid in the diagnosis of RDS or TTN. Blood cultures would be helpful in evaluating for neonatal sepsis. Stool for occult blood may be done to evaluate for NEC.

The nurse is assessing a newborn who is large for gestational age. The newborn was born breech. The nurse suspects that the newborn may have experienced trauma to the upper brachial plexus based on which assessment finding? A. absent grasp reflex B. hand weakness C. absent Moro reflex D. facial asymmetry

Answer: C Rationale: An injury to the upper brachial plexus, or Erb's palsy, is manifested by adduction,pronation, and internal rotation of the affected extremity, absent shoulder movement, absentMoro reflex and positive grasp reflex. An absent grasp reflex and hand weakness is noted with alower brachial plexus injury. Facial asymmetry is associated with a cranial nerve injury.

A group of pregnant women are discussing high-risk newborn conditions as part of a prenatal class. When describing the complications that can occur in these newborns to the group, which would the nurse include as being at lowest risk? A. small-for-gestational-age (SGA) newborns B. large-for-gestational-age (LGA) newborns C. appropriate-for-gestational-age (AGA) newborns D. low-birth-weight newborns

Answer: C Rationale: Appropriate for gestational age (AGA) describes a newborn with a weight that falls within the 10th to 90th percentile for that particular gestational age. Infants who are AGA have lower morbidity and mortality than other groups. The other categories all have an increased risk of complications.

A nurse is reviewing a journal article about newborn pain prevention and management. Which information would the nurse most likely find discussed in the article? A. Newborn pain is frequently recognized and treated. B. Newborns rarely experience pain with procedures. C. Pain is frequently mistaken for irritability or agitation. D. Newborns may be less sensitive to pain than adult.

Answer: C Rationale: Assessment of pain in the newborn remains a contentious and vexing problem.According to an international consortium, principles of newborn pain prevention andmanagement include the following: newborn pain frequently goes unrecognized andundertreated; newborns experience pain, and analgesics should be given; a procedure considered painful for an adults should also be considered painful for a newborn; newborns may be more sensitive to pain than adults; and pain behavior is frequently mistaken for irritability andagitation.

The nurse is assessing a preterm newborn's fluid and hydration status. Which finding would alert the nurse to possible overhydration? A. decreased urine output B. tachypnea C. bulging fontanels D. elevated temperature

Answer: C Rationale: Bulging fontanels in a preterm newborn suggest overhydration. Sunken fontanels, decreased urine output, and elevated temperature would suggest dehydration.

A nurse is preparing a presentation for a group of neonatal nurses on congenital clubfoot. The nurse determines that the presentation was successful when the group makes which statement? A. Clubfoot is a common genetic disorder. B. The condition affects girls more often than boys. C. The exact cause of clubfoot is not known. D. The intrinsic form can be manually reduced.

Answer: C Rationale: Clubfoot is a complex, multifactorial deformity with genetic and intrauterine factors. Heredity and race seem to factor into the incidence, but the means of transmission and the etiology are unknown. Most newborns with clubfoot have no identifiable genetic, syndromal, or extrinsic cause. Clubfoot affects boys twice as often as girls. With the intrinsic type, manual reduction is not possible.

A nurse is developing a plan of care for a preterm infant experiencing respiratory distress. Which measure will the nurse include in this plan? A. Stimulate the infant with frequent handling. B. Keep the newborn in an open bassinet. C. Administer oxygen using an oxygen hood. D. Give intermittent tube feedings.

Answer: C Rationale: For the preterm infant experiencing respiratory distress, the nurse would expect to handle the newborn as little as possible to reduce oxygen requirements. Other appropriate interventions include keeping the infant warm preferably in a warmed isolette to conserve the baby's energy and prevent cold stress; administer oxygen using an oxygen hood; and provide energy through calories via intravenous dextrose or gavage or continuous tube feedings to prevent hypoglycemia.

A nurse is teaching the mother of a newborn diagnosed with galactosemia about dietary restrictions. The nurse determines that the mother has understood the teaching when she identifies which substance as needing to be restricted? A. phenylalanine B. protein C. lactose D. iodine

Answer: C Rationale: Lifelong restriction of lactose is required for galactosemia. Phenylalanine is restricted for those with phenylketonuria. Low protein is needed with maple syrup urine disease. Iodine would not be restricted for any inborn error of metabolism.

A nurse is providing care to a newborn. The nurse suspects that the newborn is developing sepsis based on which assessment finding? A. increased urinary output B. interest in feeding C. temperature instability D. wakefulness

Answer: C Rationale: Manifestations of sepsis are typically nonspecific and may include hypothermia (temperature instability), oliguria or anuria, lack of interest in feeding, and lethargy.

The nurse completes the initial assessment of a newborn. Which finding would lead the nurse to suspect that the newborn is experiencing difficulty with oxygenation? A. respiratory rate of 54 breaths/minute B. abdominal breathing C. nasal flaring D. acrocyanosis

Answer: C Rationale: Nasal flaring is a sign of respiratory difficulty in the newborn. A rate of 54 breaths/minute, diaphragmatic/abdominal breathing, and acrocyanosis are normal findings.

A new mother who is breastfeeding her newborn asks the nurse, "How will I know if my baby is drinking enough?" Which response by the nurse would be most appropriate? A. "If he seems content after feeding, that should be a sign." B. "Make sure he drinks at least 5 minutes on each breast." C. "He should wet between 6 to 10 diapers each day." D. "If his lips are moist, then he's okay."

Answer: C Rationale: Soaking 6 to 10 diapers a day indicates adequate hydration. Contentedness after feeding is not an indicator for adequate hydration. Typically a newborn wakes up 8 to 12 times per day for feeding. As the infant gets older, the time on the breast increases. Moist mucous membranes help to suggest adequate hydration, but this is not the best indicator.

The parents of a preterm newborn being cared for in the neonatal intensive care unit (NICU) are coming to visit for the first time. The newborn is receiving mechanical ventilation, intravenous fluids and medications and is being monitored electronically by various devices. Which action by the nurse would be most appropriate? A. Suggest that the parents stay for just a few minutes to reduce their anxiety. B. Reassure them that their newborn is progressing well. C. Encourage the parents to touch their preterm newborn. D. Discuss the care they will be giving the newborn upon discharge.

Answer: C Rationale: The NICU environment can be overwhelming. Therefore, the nurse should address their reactions and explain all the equipment being used. On entering the NICU, the nurse should encourage the parents to touch, interact, and hold their newborn. Doing so helps to acquaint the parents with their newborn, promotes self-confidence, and fosters parent-newborn attachment. The parents should be allowed to stay for as long as they feel comfortable. Reassurance, although helpful, may be false reassurance at this time. Discussing discharge care can be done later once the newborn's status improves and plans for discharge are initiated.

Assessment of newborn reveals a large protruding tongue, slow reflexes, distended abdomen, poor feeding, hoarse cry, goiter, and dry skin. Which condition would the nurse suspect? A. phenylketonuria B. galactosemia C. congenital hypothyroidism D. maple syrup urine disease

Answer: C Rationale: The manifestations listed correlate with congenital hypothyroidism. Withphenylketonuria, the infant appears normal at birth, but by 6 months of age, signs of slow mental development are evident. Vomiting, poor feeding, failure to thrive, overactivity, and musty-smelling urine are additional signs. With maple syrup urine disease, signs and symptoms include lethargy, poor feeding, vomiting, weight loss, seizures, shrill cry, shallow respirations, loss ofreflexes, and a sweet maple syrup odor to the urine. With galactosemia, manifestations includevomiting, hypoglycemia, hyperbilirubinemia, poor weight gain, cataracts, and frequentInfections.

A client is experiencing postpartum hemorrhage, and the nurse begins to massage her fundus. Which action would be most appropriate for the nurse to do when massaging the woman's fundus? A. Place the hands on the sides of the abdomen to grasp the uterus. B. Use an up-and-down motion to massage the uterus. C. Wait until the uterus is firm to express clots. D. Continue massaging the uterus for at least 5 minutes.

Answer: C Rationale: The uterus must be firm before attempts to express clots are made because application of firm pressure on an uncontracted uterus could lead to uterine inversion. One hand is placed on the fundus and the other hand is placed on the area above the symphysis pubis. Circular motions are used for massage. There is no specified amount of time for fundal massage. Uterine tissue responds quickly to touch, so it is important not to overmassage the fundus.

Review of a primiparous woman's labor and birth record reveals a prolonged second stage of labor and extended time in the stirrups. Based on an interpretation of these findings, the nurse would be especially alert for which condition? A. retained placental fragments B. hypertension C. thrombophlebitis D. uterine subinvolution

Answer: C Rationale: The woman is at risk for thrombophlebitis due to the prolonged second stage of labor, necessitating an increased amount of time in bed, and venous pooling that occurs when the woman's legs are in stirrups for a long period of time. These findings are unrelated to retained placental fragments, which would lead to uterine subinvolution, or hypertension.

Assessment of a newborn reveals transient tachypnea. The nurse reviews the newborn's medical record. Which factor in the newborn's history would the nurse identify as playing a role in this this condition? A. vaginal birth B. shortened labor C. central nervous system depressant during labor D. maternal hypertension

Answer: C Rationale: Transient tachypnea of the newborn occurs when the fetal liquid in the lungs is removed slowly or incompletely. This can be due to the lack of thoracic squeezing that occurs during a cesarean birth or diminished respiratory effort if the mother received central nervous system depressant medication. Prolonged labor, macrosomia of the fetus, and maternal asthma also have been associated with this condition.

A postpartum woman is prescribed oxytocin to stimulate the uterus to contract. Which action would be most important for the nurse to do? A. Administer the drug as an IV bolus injection. B. Give as a vaginal or rectal suppository. C. Piggyback the IV infusion into a primary line. D. Withhold the drug if the woman is hypertensive.

Answer: C Rationale: When giving oxytocin, it should be diluted in a liter of IV solution and the infusion set up to be piggy-backed into a primary line to ensure that the medication can be discontinued readily if hyperstimulation or adverse effects occur. It should never be given as an IV bolus injection. Oxytocin may be given if the woman is hypertensive. Oxytocin is not available as a vaginal or rectal suppository.

The nurse frequently assesses the respiratory status of a preterm newborn based on the understanding that the newborn is at increased risk for respiratory distress syndrome because of: A. inability to clear fluids. B. immature respiratory control center. C. deficiency of surfactant. D. smaller respiratory passages.

Answer: C Rationale: A preterm newborn is at increased risk for respiratory distress syndrome (RDS) because of a surfactant deficiency. Surfactant helps to keep the alveoli open and maintain lung expansion. With a deficiency, the alveoli collapse, predisposing the newborn to RDS. An inability to clear fluids can lead to transient tachypnea. Immature respiratory control centers lead to an increased risk for apnea. Smaller respiratory passages led to an increased risk for Obstruction.

A nurse is teaching a group of pregnant women about the adverse effects of substances on the fetus. The nurse determines that additional teaching is needed when the group identifies which substance as being teratogenic? A. alcohol B. nicotine C. marijuana D. cocaine

Answer: C' Rationale: Marijuana has not been shown to have teratogenic effects on the fetus. Alcohol, nicotine, and cocaine do affect the fetus.

A nurse is providing teaching to a new mother about her newborn's nutritional needs. Which suggestions would the nurse include in the teaching? Select all that apply. A. Supplement with iron if the woman is breastfeeding. B. Provide supplemental water intake with feedings. C. Feed the newborn every 2 to 4 hours during the day. D. Burp the newborn frequently throughout each feeding. E. Use feeding time for promoting closeness.

Answer: C, D, E Rationale: Most newborns are on demand feeding schedules and are allowed to feed when theyawaken. When they go home, mothers are encouraged to feed their newborns every 2 to 4 hours during the day and only when the newborn awakens during the night for the first few days after birth. Newborns swallow air during feedings, which causes discomfort and fussiness. Parents can prevent this by burping them frequently throughout the feeding. Feeding is also more than an opportunity to get nutrients into the newborn. It is also a time for closeness and sharing. Iron supplementation is recommended for infants who are bottle-fed. Fluid requirements for the newborn and infant do range from 100 to 150 mL/kg daily. This requirement can be met through breast or bottle feedings. Thus, additional water supplementation is not necessary.

A nurse is presenting a review class for a group of neonatal nurses about congenital conditions in the newborn. The nurse determines that the teaching was effective based on which statement made by the group? A. "Usually a definitive cause can be identified." B. "Congenital conditions typically affect a specific body system." C. "A congenital condition is an anomaly that develops immediately after birth." D. "These conditions are responsible for nearly half the deaths in term newborns."

Answer: D Rationale: A birth defect is any structural anomaly present at birth. They can be caused by genetic abnormalities or environmental exposures; many have unknown etiologies.Congenital conditions can arise from many etiologies, including single-gene disorders, chromosome aberrations, exposure to teratogens, and many sporadic conditions of unknown cause. Congenital conditions may be inherited or sporadic, isolated or multiple, apparent or hidden, gross or microscopic. They cause nearly half of all deaths in term newborns and cause long-term sequelae for many. Reference: p. 898

Rapid assessment of a newborn indicates the need for resuscitation. The newborn has copious secretiohs. The newborn is dried and placed under a radiant warmer. Which action would the nurse do next? A. Intubate with an appropriate-sized endotracheal tube. B. Give chest compressions at a rate of 80 times per minute. C. Administer epinephrine intravenously. D. Clear the airway with a bulb syringe.

Answer: D Rationale: After placing the newborn's head in a neutral position, the nurse would clear the airway with a bulb syringe or suction. This is followed by assessment of breathing and bagging if needed, placing a pulse oximeter, ventilating the newborn, assessing the heart rate and giving chest compressions if needed, and then admnistering epinephrine and/or volume expansion if needed.

Which finding would alert the nurse to suspect that a newborn has an imperforate anus? ' A. irritability B. sunken abdomen C. clay-colored stools D. bilious vomiting

Answer: D Rationale: In the infant with suspected imperforate anus, assess for common signs of intestinal obstruction, which include bilious vomiting and abdominal distention.

A nurse is assisting the anxious parents of a preterm newborn to cope with the situation. Which statement by the nurse would be least appropriate? A. "I'll be here to help you all along the way." B. "What has helped you to deal with stressful situations in the past?" C. "Let me tell you about what you will see when you visit your baby." D. "Forget about what's happened in the past, and focus on the now."

Answer: D Rationale: Instead of telling the parents to forget about what has happened, the nurse shouldreview with them the events that have occurred since birth to help them understand and clarifyany misconceptions they might have. Other helpful interventions would include telling theparents that the nurse will be with them because this provides them with a physical presence and support; asking about previous coping strategies that worked so that they can use them now; and explaining what is happening and all the equipment being used so they can understand the situation.

A nurse is providing education to a woman who is experiencing postpartum hemorrhage and is to receive a uterotonic agent. The nurse determines that additional teaching is needed when the woman identifies which drug as possibly being prescribed as treatment? A. oxytocin B. methylergonovine C. carboprost D. magnesium sulfate

Answer: D Rationale: Magnesium sulfate is during labor as a tocolytic agent to slow or halt preterm labor. It is not be used to treat postpartum hemorrhage. Oxytocin, methylergonovine, and carboprost are drugs used to manage postpartum hemorrhage.

A woman who is 2 weeks postpartum calls the clinic and says, "My left breast hurts." After further assessment on the phone, the nurse suspects the woman has mastitis. In addition to pain, the nurse would question the woman about which symptom? A. an inverted nipple on the affected breast B. no breast milk in the affected breast C. an ecchymotic area on the affected breast D. hardening of an area in the affected breast

Answer: D Rationale: Mastitis is characterized by a tender, hot, red, painful area on the affected breast. An inverted nipple is not associated with mastitis. With mastitis, the breast is distended with milk, the area is inflamed (not ecchymotic), and there is breast tenderness.

A newborn has been diagnosed with a group B streptococcal infection shortly after birth. The nurse understands that the newborn most likely acquired this infection from which cause? A. improper hand washing B. contaminated formula C. nonsterile catheter insertion D. mother's birth canal

Answer: D Rationale: Most often, a newborn develops a group B streptococcus infection during the birthing process when the newborn comes into contact with an infected birth canal. Improper handwashing, contaminated formula, and nonsterile catheter insertion would most likely lead to a late-onset infection, which typically occurs in the nursery due to horizontal transmission. Reference: p. 895

A nurse is teaching a new mother about breastfeeding. The nurse determines that the teaching was successful when the woman identifies which hormone as responsible for milk let-down? A) prolactin B) estrogen C) progesterone D) oxytocin

Answer: D Rationale: Oxytocin is released from the posterior pituitary to promote milk let-down. Prolactin levels increase at term with a decrease in estrogen and progesterone; estrogen and progesterone levels decrease after the placenta is delivered. Prolactin is released from the anterior pituitary gland and initiates milk production.

As part of an in-service program to a group of home health care nurses who care for postpartum women, a nurse is describing postpartum depression. The nurse determines that the teaching was successful when the group identifies that this condition becomes evident at which time after birth of the newborn? A. in the first week B. within the first 2 weeks C. in approximately 1 month D. within the first 6 weeks

Answer: D Rationale: PPD usually has a gradual onset and becomes evident within the first 6 weeks postpartum. Postpartum blues typically manifests in the first week postpartum. Postpartum psychosis usually appears about 3 months after birth of the newborn.

The nurse is conducting a class for postpartum women about mood disorders. The nurse describes a transient, self-limiting mood disorder that affects mothers after birth. The nurse determines that the women understood the description when they identify the condition as postpartum: A. depression. B. psychosis. C. bipolar disorder. D. blues.

Answer: D Rationale: Postpartum blues are manifested by mild depressive symptoms of anxiety, irritability, mood swings, tearfulness, increased sensitivity, feelings of being overwhelmed, and fatigue. They are usually self-limiting and require no formal treatment other than reassurance and validation of the woman's experience as well as assistance in caring for herself and her newborn. Postpartum depression is a major depressive episode associated with birth. Postpartum psychosis is at the severe end of the continuum of postpartum emotional disorders. Bipolar disorder refers to a mood disorder typically involving episodes of depression and mania.

The nurse is teaching a group of parents who have preterm newborns about the differences between a full-term newborn and a preterm newborn. Which characteristic would the nurse describe as associated with a preterm newborn but not a term newborn? A. fewer visible blood vessels through the skin B. more subcutaneous fat in the neck and abdomen C. well-developed flexor muscles in the extremities D. greater body surface area in proportion to weight

Answer: D Rationale: Preterm newborns have large body surface areas compared to weight, which allows an increased transfer of heat from their bodies to the environment. Preterm newborns often have thin transparent skin with numerous visible veins, minimal subcutaneous fat, and poor muscle tone.

A nurse is assessing a postpartum client. Which finding would the cause the nurse the greatest concern? A. leg pain on ambulation with mild ankle edema B. calf pain with dorsiflexion of the foot C. perineal pain with swelling along the episiotomy D. sharp, stabbing chest pain with shortness of breath

Answer: D Rationale: Sharp, stabbing chest pain with shortness of breath suggests pulmonary embolism, an emergency that requires immediate action. Leg pain on ambulation with mild edema suggests superficial venous thrombosis. Calf pain on dorsiflexion of the foot may indicate deep vein thrombosis or a strained muscle or contusion. Perineal pain with swelling along the episiotomy might be a normal finding or suggest an infection. Of the conditions, pulmonary embolism is the most urgent.

A nurse is assessing a newborn. Which finding would alert the nurse to the possibility of respiratory distress in a newborn? A. symmetrical chest movements B. periodic breathing C. respirations of 40 breaths/minute D. sternal retractions

Answer: D Rationale: Sternal retractions, cyanosis, tachypnea, expiratory grunting, and nasal flaring aresigns of respiratory distress in a newborn. Symmetrical chest movements and a respiratory ratebetween 30 to 60 breaths/minute are typical newborn findings. Some newborns may demonstrate periodic breathing (cessation of breathing lasting 5 to 10 seconds without changes in color or heart rate) in the first few days of life.

A woman who is experiencing postpartum hemorrhage is extremely apprehensive and diaphoretic. The woman's extremities are cool and her capillary refill time is increased. Based on this assessment, the nurse suspects that the client is experiencing approximately how much blood loss? A. 20% B. 30% C. 40% D. 60%

Answer: D Rationale: The client's assessment indicated mild shock, which is associated with a 20% blood loss. Moderate shock occurs with a blood loss of 30 to 40%. Severe shock is associated with a blood loss greater than 40%.

A preterm newborn is receiving enteral feedings. Which finding would alert the nurse to suspect that the newborn is developing NEC? A. irritability B. sunken abdomen C. clay-colored stools D. feeding intolerance

Answer: D Rationale: The newborn with NEC may exhibit feeding intolerance with lethargy, abdominal distention and tenderness, and bloody stools.

A nurse is assessing a preterm newborn. Which finding would alert the nurse to suspect that a preterm newborn is in pain? A. bradycardia B. oxygen saturation level of 94% C. decreased muscle tone D. sudden high-pitched cry

Answer: D Rationale: The nurse should suspect pain if the newborn exhibits a sudden high-pitched cry, oxygen desaturation, tachycardia, and increased muscle tone.

When assessing a newborn's reflexes, the nurse strokes the newborn's cheek, and thenewborn turns toward the side that was stroked and begins sucking. The nurse documents which reflex as being positive? A. palmar grasp reflex B. tonic neck reflex C. Moro reflex D. rooting reflex

Answer: D Rationale: The rooting reflex is elicited by stroking the newborn's cheek. The newborn shouldturn toward the side that was stroked and should begin to make sucking movements. The palmar grasp reflex is elicited by placing a finger on the newborn's open palm. The baby's hand will close around the finger. Attempting to remove the finger causes the grip to tighten. The tonicneck reflex is elicited by having the newborn lie on the back and turning the head to one side.The arm toward which the baby is facing should extend straight away from the body with thehand partially open, whereas the arm on the side away from the face is flexed and the fist isclenched tightly. Reversing the direction to which the face is turned reverses the position. TheMoro reflex is elicited by placing the newborn on his or her back, supporting the upper body weight of the supine newborn by the arms using a lifting motion without lifting the newborn off the surface. The arms are released suddenly, the newborn will throw the arms outward and flex the knees, and then the arms return to the chest. The fingers also spread to form a C.

involution

a retrograde change of the entire body or in a particular organ, asthe retrograde changes in the female genital organs that result innormal size after delivery.

A primipara client gave birth vaginally to a healthy newborn girl 48 hours ago. The nurse palpates the client's fundus and documents which finding as normal? A. two fingerbreadths above the umbilicus B. at the level of the umbilicus C. two fingerbreadths below the umbilicus D. four fingerbreadths below the umbilicus Answer: C

ANS: C Rationale: During the first few days after birth, the uterus typically descends downward from the level of the umbilicus at a rate of 1 cm (1 fingerbreadth) per day so that by day 2, it is about 2 fingerbreadths below the umbilicus.

A woman who gave birth to a healthy newborn several hours ago asks the nurse,"Why am I perspiring so much?" The nurse integrates knowledge that a decrease in which hormone plays a role in this occurrence? A) estrogen B) hCG C) hPL D) progesterone

Answer: A Rationale: Although hCG, hPL, and progesterone decline rapidly after birth, decreased estrogen levels are associated with breast engorgement and with the diuresis of excess extracellular fluid accumulated during pregnancy.

After the birth of a newborn, which action would the nurse do first to assist in thermoregulation? A. Dry the newborn thoroughly. B. Put a hat on the newborn's head. C. Check the newborn's temperature. D. Wrap the newborn in a blanket.

Answer: A Rationale: Drying the newborn immediately after birth using warmed blankets is essential toprevent heat loss through evaporation. Then the nurse would place a cap on the baby's head and wrap the newborn. Assessing the newborn's temperature would occur once these measures were initiated to prevent heat loss.

A nurse is providing care to a postpartum woman. The nurse determines that the client is in the taking-in phase based on which finding? A) The client states, "He has my eyes and nose." B) The client shows interest in caring for the newborn. C) The client performs self-care independently. D) The client confidently cares for the newborn.

Answer: A Rationale: During the taking-in phase, new mothers when interacting with their newborns spend time claiming the newborn and touching him or her, commonly identifying specific features in the newborn such as "he has my nose" or "his fingers are long like his father's." Independence in self-care and interest in caring for the newborn are typical of the taking-hold phase. Confidence in caring for the newborn is demonstrated during the letting-go phase.

When describing the neurologic development of a newborn to parents, the nurse would explain that it occurs in which fashion? A. head-to-toe B. lateral-to-medial C. outward-to-inward D. distal-caudal

Answer: A Rationale: Neurologic development follows a cephalocaudal (head-to-toe) and proximal-distal (center to outside) pattern.

A new mother asks the nurse, "Why has my baby lost weight since he was born?" The nurse integrates knowledge of which cause when responding to the new mother? A. insufficient calorie intake B. shift of water from extracellular space to intracellular space C. increase in stool passage D. overproduction of bilirubin

Answer: A Rationale: Normally, term newborns lose 5% to 10% of their birth weight as a result of insufficient caloric intake within the first week after birth, shifting of intracellular water to extracellular space, and insensible water loss. Stool passage and bilirubin have no effect on weight loss.

12. When developing the plan of care for the parents of a newborn, the nurse identifies interventions to promote bonding and attachment based on the rationale that bonding and Attachment are most supported by which measure? A. early parent-infant contact following birth B. expert medical care for the labor and birth C. good nutrition and prenatal care during pregnancy D. grandparent involvement in infant care after birth

Answer: A Rationale: Optimal bonding requires a period of close contact between the parents and newbornwithin the first few minutes to a few hours after birth. Expert medical care, nutrition and prenatalcare, and grandparent involvement are not associated with the promotion of bonding.

A nurse is assessing a newborn's reflexes. The nurse strokes the lateral sole of the newborn's foot from the heel to the ball of the foot to elicit which reflex? A. Babinski B. tonic neck C. stepping D. plantar grasp

Answer: A Rationale: The Babinski reflex is elicited by stroking the lateral sole of the newborn's foot from the heel toward and across the ball of the foot. The tonic neck reflex is tested by having the newborn lie on his back and then turn his head to one side. The stepping reflex is elicited by holding the newborn upright and inclined forward with the soles of the feet on a flat surface. The plantar grasp reflex is elicited by placing a finger against the area just below the newborn's toes

Assessment of a newborn reveals a heart rate of 180 beats per minute. To determine whetherthis finding is a common variation rather than a sign of distress, what else does the nurse need to know? A. How many hours old is this newborn? B. How long ago did this newborn eat? C. What was the newborn's birthweight? D. Is acrocyanosis present?

Answer: A Rationale: The typical heart rate of a newborn ranges from 110 to 160 beats per minute with wide fluctuation during activity and sleep. Typically heart rate is assessed every 30 minutes until stable for 2 hours after birth. The time of the newborn's last feeding and his birthweight would have no effect on his heart rate. Acrocyanosis is a common normal finding in newborns.

The nurse is assisting a postpartum woman out of bed to the bathroom for a sitz bath. Which of the following would be a priority? A. placing the call light within her reach B. teaching her how the sitz bath works C. telling her to use the sitz bath for 30 minutes D. cleaning the perineum with the peri-bottle

Answer: A Rationale: Tremendous hemodynamic changes are taking place within the woman, and safety must be a priority. Therefore, the nurse makes sure that the emergency call light is within her reach should she become dizzy or lightheaded. Teaching her how to use the sitz bath, including using it for 15 to 20 minutes, is appropriate but can be done once the woman's safety is ensured. The woman should clean her perineum with a peri-bottle before using the sitz bath, but this can be done once the woman's safety needs are met.

Prior to discharging a 24-hour-old newborn, the nurse assesses the newborn's respiratory status. What would the nurse expect to assess? A. respiratory rate 45 breaths/minute, irregular B. costal breathing pattern C. nasal flaring, rate 65 breaths/minute D. crackles on auscultation

Answer: A Rationale: Typically, respirations in a 24-hour-old newborn are symmetric, slightly irregular, shallow, and unlabored at a rate of 30 to 60 breaths/minute. The breathing pattern is primarily diaphragmatic. Nasal flaring, rates above 60 breaths per minute, and crackles suggest a problem.

A client expresses concern that her 2-hour-old newborn is sleepy and difficult to awaken. The nurse explains that this behavior indicates: A. normal progression of behavior. B. probable hypoglycemia. C. physiological abnormality. D. inadequate oxygenation.

Answer: A Rationale: From 30 to 120 minutes of age, the newborn enters the second stage of transition, that of sleep or a decrease in activity. More information would be needed to determine ifhypoglycemia, a physiologic abnormality, or inadequate oxygenation was present.

When assessing a newborn 1 hour after birth, the nurse measures an axillary temperature of 95.8° F (35.4° C), an apical pulse of 114 beats per minute, and a respiratory rate of 60 breaths per minute. The nurse would identify which area as the priority? A. hypothermia B. impaired parenting C. deficient fluid volume D. risk for infection

Answer: A Rationale: The newborn's heart rate is slightly below the accepted range of 120 to 160 beats per minute; the respiratory rate is at the high end of the accepted range of 30 to 60 breaths per minute. However, the newborn's temperature is significantly below the accepted range of 97.7 to99.7? (36.5 to 37.6?). Therefore, the priority problem area is hypothermia. There is no information to suggest impaired parenting. Additional information is needed to determine if thereis deficient fluid volume or a risk for infection.

The nurse is making a follow-up home visit to a woman who is 12 days postpartum. Which finding would the nurse expect when assessing the client's fundus? A) cannot be palpated B) 2 cm below the umbilicus C) 6 cm below the umbilicus D) 10 cm below the umbilicus

Answer: A Rationale: By the end of 10 days, the fundus usually cannot be palpated because it has descended into the true pelvis.

Twenty minutes after birth, a baby begins to move his head from side to side, making eye contact with the mother, and pushes his tongue out several times. The nurse interprets this as: A. a good time to initiate breast-feeding. B. the period of decreased responsiveness preceding sleep. C. a sign that the infant is being overstimulated. D. evidence that the newborn is becoming chilled.

Answer: A Rationale: The newborn is demonstrating behaviors indicating the first period of reactivity,which usually begins at birth and lasts for the first 30 minutes. This is a good time to initiatebreastfeeding. Decreased responsiveness occurs from 30 to 120 minutes of age and ischaracterized by muscle relaxation and diminished responsiveness to outside stimuli. None of the behaviors indicate overstimulation. Chilling would be evidenced by tachypnea, decreasedactivity, and hypotonia.

A nurse is providing care to a woman of Latin American culture who delivered a healthy neonate 6hours ago. When developing a plan of care that is culturally congruent for this client, which information would be important for the nurse to obtain initially? Select all that apply. A) Meanings associated with touch and gestures B) Woman's beliefs about the postpartum period C) Plans for care of the newborn after discharge D) Amount of help the partner is expected to provide E) Preferences for measures to relieve discomforts

Answer: A, B, D, E Rationale: Although childbirth and the postpartum period are unique experiences for each woman, how the woman perceives and makes meaning of them is culturally defined. Nurses caring for childbearing families should consider all aspects of culture, including health beliefs, communication, space, and family roles. To ensure culturally congruent care, the nurse needs to gather initial information about the woman's health beliefs about the postpartum period because different cultures view the postpartum period differently, such as the need to balance hot and cold substances. This belief can influence the woman's preferences for relieving discomforts. The meaning of touch and gestures is also important to determine. The concept of personal space and the dimensions of comfort zones differ from culture to culture. Nurses must be sensitive to how people respond when being touched and should refrain from touching if the client's response indicates it is unwelcome. In addition, cultural norms also have an impact on family roles, expectations, and behaviors associated with a member's position in the family. For example, culture may influence whether a male partner actively participates in the woman's pregnancy and childbirth. In the Western countries, partners are expected to be involved, but this role expectation may conflict with that of many of the diverse groups now living in the countries. Plans for care of the newborn can be addressed at a later time.

A nurse is preparing a class on newborn adaptations for a group of soon-to-be parents. When describing the change from fetal to newborn circulation, which information would the nurse include? Select all that apply. A. Decrease in right atrial pressure leads to closure of the foramen ovale B. Increase in oxygen levels leads to a decrease in systemic vascular resistance. C. Onset of respirations leads to a decrease in pulmonary vascular resistance. D. Increase in pressure in the left atrium results from increases in pulmonary blood flow. E. Closure of the ductus venosus eventually forces closure of the ductus arteriosus.

Answer: A, C, D, E Rationale: When the umbilical cord is clamped, the first breath is taken, and the lungs begin tofunction. As a result, systemic vascular resistance increases and blood return to the heart via the inferior vena cava decreases. Concurrently with these changes, there is a rapid decrease inpulmonary vascular resistance and an increase in pulmonary blood flow (Boxwell, 2010). Theforamen ovale functionally closes with a decrease in pulmonary vascular resistance, which leads to a decrease in right-sided heart pressures. An increase in systemic pressure, after clamping of the cord, leads to an increase in left-sided heart pressures. Ductus arteriosus, ductus venosus, and umbilical vessels that were vital during fetal life are no longer needed.

A newborn is experiencing cold stress. Which findings would the nurse expect to assess? Select all that apply. A. respiratory distress B. decreased oxygen needs C. hypoglycemia D. metabolic alkalosis E. jaundice

Answer: A, C, E Rationale: Cold stress in the newborn can lead to the following problems if not reversed: depleted brown fat stores, increased oxygen needs, respiratory distress, increased glucose consumption leading to hypoglycemia, metabolic acidosis, jaundice, hypoxia, and decreased surfactant production.

A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a postpartum client. The nurse identifies that the woman is at risk for a postpartum infection based on which of the following? (Select all that apply.) A. history of diabetes B. labor of 12 hours C. rupture of membranes for 16 hours D. hemoglobin level 10 mg/dL E. placenta requiring manual extraction

Answer: A, D, E Rationale: Risk factors for postpartum infection include history of diabetes, labor over 24 hours, hemoglobin less than 10.5 mg/dL, prolonged rupture of membranes (more than 24 hours), and manual extraction of the placenta.

Assessment of a newborn reveals uneven gluteal (buttocks) skin creases and a "clunk" when the Ortolani maneuver is performed. What would the nurse suspect? A. slipping of the periosteal joint B. developmental hip dysplasia C. normal newborn variation D. overriding of the pelvic bone

Answer: B Rationale: A "clunk" indicates the femoral head hitting the acetabulum as the head reenters the area. This, along with uneven gluteal creases, suggests developmental hip dysplasia. These findings are not a normal variation and are not associated with slipping of the periosteal joint or overriding of the pelvic bone.

The nurse observes the stool of a newborn who has begun to breastfeed. Which finding would the nurse expect? A. greenish black, tarry stool B. yellowish-brown, seedy stool C. yellow-gold, stringy stool D. yellowish-green, pasty stool

Answer: B Rationale: After feedings are initiated, a transitional stool develops, which is greenish brown to yellowish brown, thinner in consistency, and seedy in appearance. Meconium stool is greenish black and tarry. The last development in the stool pattern is the milk stool. Milk stools of the breastfed newborn are yellow-gold, loose, and stringy to pasty in consistency, and typically sour- smelling. The milk stools of the formula-fed newborn vary depending on the type of formula ingested. They may be yellow, yellow-green, or greenish and loose, pasty, or formed in consistency, and they have an unpleasant odor.

A nurse is explaining to a group of new parents about the changes that occur in the neonate to sustain extrauterine life, describing the cardiac and respiratory systems as undergoing the most changes. Which information would the nurse integrate into the explanation to support this Description? A. The cardiac murmur heard at birth disappears by 48 hours of age. B. Pulmonary vascular resistance (PVR) is decreased as lungs begin to function. C. Heart rate remains elevated after the first few moments of birth. D. Breath sounds will have rhonchi for at least the first day of life as fluid is absorbed.

Answer: B Rationale: Although all the body systems of the newborn undergo changes, respiratory gas exchange along with circulatory modifications must occur immediately to sustain extrauterine life. With the first breath, PVR decreases, and the heart rate initially increases but then decreases to 120 to 130 bpm after a few minutes. The ductal murmur will go away in 80+% of infants by 48 hours. Rhonchi caused by retained amniotic fluid is an abnormal finding and would not be expected.

29. After teaching parents about their newborn, the nurse determines that the teaching was successful when they identify which concept as reflecting the enduring nature of their relationship, one that involves placing the infant at the center of their lives and finding their own way to assume the parental identity? A. reciprocity B. commitment C. bonding D. attachment

Answer: B Rationale: Commitment refers to the enduring nature of the relationship. The components of this are two fold: centrality and parent role exploration. In centrality, parents place the infant at the center of their lives. They acknowledge and accept their responsibility to promote the infant'ssafety, growth, and development. Parent role exploration is the parents' ability to find their own way and integrate the parental identity into themselves. The development of a close emotional attraction to the newborn by parents during the first 30 to 60 minutes after birth describes bonding. Reciprocity is the process by which the infant's capabilities and behavioral characteristics elicit a parental response. Engrossment refers to the intense interest during early contact with a newborn. Attachment refers to the process of developing strong ties of affection between an infant and a significant other.

When assessing a postpartum woman, the nurse suspects the woman is experiencing a problem based on which finding? A) elevated white blood cell count B) acute decrease in hematocrit C) increased levels of clotting factors D) pulse rate of 60 beats/minute

Answer: B Rationale: Despite a decrease in blood volume after birth, hematocrit levels remain relatively stable and may even increase. An acute decrease is not an expected finding. Red blood cell production ceases early in the puerperium, causing mean hemoglobin and hematocrit levels to decrease slightly in the first 24 hours. During the next 2 weeks, both levels rise slowly. The white blood count, which increases in labor, remains elevated for first 4 to 6 days after birth but then falls to 6,000 to 10,000/mm3. The WBC count remains elevated for the first 4 to 6 days and clotting factors remain elevated for 2 to 3 weeks. Bradycardia (50 to 70 beats per minute) for the first two weeks reflects the decrease in cardiac output. The increase in cardiac output and stroke volume during pregnancy begins to diminish after birth once the placenta has been delivered. This decrease in cardiac output is reflected in bradycardia (40 to 60 bpm) for up to the first 2 weeks postpartum

When developing the plan of care for the parents of a newborn, the nurse identifies interventions to promote bonding and attachment based on the rationale that bonding and attachment are most supported by which measure? A. introducing solid foods immediately to increase sleep cycle B. demonstrating comfort measures to quiet a crying infant C. encouraging daily outings to the shopping mall with the newborn D. allowing the infant to cry for at least an hour before picking him or her up

Answer: B Rationale: Discharge teaching typically would focus on several techniques to comfort a crying newborn. The nurse needs to emphasize the importance of responding to the newborn's cues, not allowing the infant to cry for an hour before being comforted. Information about solid foods is inappropriate for a newborn because solid foods are not introduced at this time. The mother and newborns need rest periods. Therefore, daily outings to a shopping mall would be inappropriate. Information about newborn sleep-wake cycles and measures for sensory enrichment and stimulation would be more appropriate.

A nurse is making a home visit to a postpartum woman who gave birth to a healthy newborn 4 days ago. The woman's breasts are swollen, hard, and tender to the touch. The nurse documents this finding as: A) involution. B) engorgement. C) mastitis. D) engrossment

Answer: B Rationale: Engorgement is the process of swelling of the breast tissue as a result of an increase in blood and lymph supply as a precursor to lactation (Figure 15.4). Breast engorgement usually peaks in 3 to 5 days postpartum and usually subsides within the next 24 to 36 hours (Chapman, 2011). Engorgement can occur from infrequent feeding or ineffective emptying of the breasts and typically lasts about 24 hours. Breasts increase in vascularity and swell in response to prolactin 2 to 4 days after birth. If engorged, the breasts will be hard and tender to touch. Involution refers to the process of the uterus returning to its prepregnant state. Mastitis refers to an infection of the breasts. Engrossment refers to the bond that develops between the father and the newborn.

A nurse is working as part of a committee to establish policies to promote bonding and attachment. Which practice would be least effective in achieving this goal? A. allowing unlimited visiting hours on maternity units B. offering round-the-clock nursery care for all infants C. promoting rooming-in D. encouraging infant contact immediately after birth

Answer: B Rationale: Factors that can affect attachment include separation of the infant and parents for long times during the day, such as if the infant was being cared for in the nursery throughout the day. Unlimited visiting hours, rooming-in, and infant contact immediately after birth promote bonding and attachment.

A postpartum client who is bottle feeding her newborn asks, "When should my period return?" Which response by the nurse would be most appropriate? A) "It's difficult to say, but it will probably return in about 2 to 3 weeks." B) "It varies, but you can estimate it returning in about 7 to 9 weeks." C) "You won't have to worry about it returning for at least 3 months." D) "You don't have to worry about that now. It'll be quite a while."

Answer: B Rationale: For the non lactating woman, menstruation resumes 7 to 9 weeks after giving birth, with the first cycle being anovulatory. For the lactating woman, menses can return anytime from 2 to 18 months after birth.

A nurse is teaching a new mother about her newborn's immune status. The nurse determines that the teaching was successful when the mother states which immunoglobulin as having crossed the placenta? A. IgA B. IgG C. IgM D. IgE

Answer: B Rationale: IgG is the major immunoglobulin and the most abundant, making up about 80% of all circulating antibodies. It is found in serum and interstitial fluid. It is the only class able to cross the placenta, with active placental transfer beginning at approximately 20 to 22 weeks' gestation. No other immunoglobulin crosses the placenta.

After a normal labor and birth, a client is discharged from the hospital 12 hours later. When the community health nurse makes a home visit 2 days later, which finding would alert the nurse to the need for further intervention? A. presence of lochia serosa B. frequent scant voidings C. fundus firm, below umbilicus D. milk filling in both breasts

Answer: B Rationale: Infrequent or insufficient voiding may be a sign of infection and is not a normal finding on the second postpartum day. Lochia serosa, a firm fundus below the umbilicus, and milk filling the breasts are expected findings.

A new mother is changing the diaper of her 12-hour-old newborn and asks why the stool is black and sticky. Which response by the nurse would be most appropriate? A. "You probably took iron during your pregnancy and that is what causes this type of stool." B. "This is meconium stool and is normal for a newborn." C. "I'll take a sample and check it for possible bleeding." D. "This is unusual, and I need to report this to your pediatrician. "

Answer: B Rationale: Meconium is greenish-black and tarry and usually passed within 12 to 24 hours of birth. This is a normal finding. Iron can cause stool to turn black, but this would not be the case here. The stool is a normal occurrence and does not need to be checked for blood or reported.

During a physical assessment of a newborn, the nurse observes bluish markings across the newborn's lower back. The nurse interprets this finding as: A. milia. B. Mongolian spots. C. stork bites. D. birth trauma.

Answer: B Rationale: Mongolian spots are blue or purple splotches that appear on the lower back and buttocks of newborns. Milia are unopened sebaceous glands frequently found on a newborn's nose. Stork bites are superficial vascular areas found on the nape of the neck and eyelids and between the eyes and upper lip. Birth trauma would be manifested by bruising, swelling, and possible deformity.

A postpartum woman who is bottle-feeding her newborn asks the nurse, About how much should my newborn drink at each feeding? The nurse responds by saying that to feel satisfied, the newborn needs which amount at each feeding? A. 1 to 2 ounces B. 2 to 4 ounces C. 4 to 6 ounces D. 6 to 8 ounces

Answer: B Rationale: Newborns need about 108 cal/kg or approximately 650 cal/day (Dudek, 2010). Therefore, a newborn will need to 2 to 4 ounces to feel satisfied at each feeding.

A nurse is reviewing the laboratory test results of a newborn. Which result would the nurse identify as a cause for concern? A. hemoglobin 19 g/dL B. platelets 75,000/uL C. white blood cells 20,000/mm3 D. hematocrit 52%

Answer: B Rationale: Normal newborn platelets range from 150,00 to 350,000/uL. Normal hemoglobin ranges from 17 to 23g/dL, and normal hematocrit ranges from 46% to 68%. Normal white blood cell count ranges from 10,000 to 30,000/mm3.

After reviewing information about postpartum blues, a group of students demonstrate understanding when they state which of the following about this condition? A. "Postpartum blues is a long-term emotional disturbance." B. "Getting some outside help for housework can lessen feelings of being overwhelmed." C. "The mother loses contact with reality." D. "Extended psychotherapy is needed for treatment."

Answer: B Rationale: Postpartum blues require no formal treatment other than support and reassurance because they do not usually interfere with the woman's ability to function and care for her infant. Nurses can ease a mother's distress by encouraging her to vent her feelings and by demonstrating patience and understanding with her and her family. Suggest that getting outside help with housework and infant care might help her to feel less overwhelmed until the blues ease. Provide telephone numbers she can call when she feels down during the day. Making women aware of this disorder while they are pregnant will increase their knowledge about this mood disturbance, which may lessen their embarrassment and increase their willingness to ask for and accept help if it does occur.

A woman who gave birth 24 hours ago tells the nurse,"I've been urinating so much over the past several hours." Which response by the nurse would be most appropriate? A) "You must have an infection, so let me get a urine specimen." B) "Your body is undergoing many changes that cause your bladder to fill quickly." C) "Your uterus is not contracting as quickly as it should." D) "The anesthesia that you received is wearing off and your bladder is working again."

Answer: B Rationale: Postpartum diuresis occurs as a result of several mechanisms: the large amounts of IV fluids given during labor, a decreasing antidiuretic effect of oxytocin as its level declines, the buildup and retention of extra fluids during pregnancy, and a decreasing production of aldosterone—the hormone that decreases sodium retention and increases urine production. All these factors contribute to rapid filling of the bladder within 12 hours of birth. Diuresis begins within 12 hours after childbirth and continues throughout the first week postpartum.

A postpartum woman who has experienced diastasis recti asks the nurse about what to expect related to this condition. Which response by the nurse would be most appropriate? A) "You'll notice that this will fade to silvery lines." B) "Exercise will help to improve the muscles." C) "Expect the color to lighten somewhat." D) "You'll notice that your shoe size will increase."

Answer: B Rationale: Separation of the rectus abdominis muscles, called diastasis recti, is more common in women who have poor abdominal muscle tone before pregnancy. After birth, muscle tone is diminished and the abdominal muscles are soft and flabby. Specific exercises are necessary to help the woman regain muscle tone. Fortunately, diastasis responds well to exercise, and abdominal muscle tone can be improved. Stretch marks (striae gravidarum) fade to silvery lines. The darkened pigmentation of the abdomen (linea nigra), face (melasma), and nipples gradually fades. Parous women will note a permanent increase in shoe size.

The nurse is assessing a postpartum clients lochia and finds that there is about a 4-inch stain on the perineal pad. The nurse documents this finding as which of the following? A. 10 mL B. 10 to 25 mL C. 25 to 50 mL D. over 50 mL

Answer: B Rationale: The amount of lochia is described as light or small for an approximately 4-inch stain and indicates a blood loss of 10 to 25 mL. Scant refers to a 1- to 2-inch stain of lochia and approximately 10 mL of blood loss; moderate refers to a 4- to 6-inch stain, suggesting a 25 to 50 mL blood loss; and large or heavy refers to a pad that is saturated within 1 hour after changing, indicating over 50 mL blood loss.

A nurse is observing a postpartum client interacting with her newborn and notes that the mother is engaging with the newborn in the en face position. Which of the following would the nurse be observing? A. mother placing the newborn next to bare breast B. mother making eye-to-eye contact with the newborn C. mother gently stroking the newborn's face D. mother holding the newborn upright at the shoulder

Answer: B Rationale: The en face position is characterized by the mother interacting with the newborn through eye-to-eye contact while holding the newborn. Bonding is a vital component of the attachment process and is necessary in establishing parent-infant attachment and a healthy, loving relationship. During this early period of acquaintance, mothers touch their infants in a characteristic manner. Mothers visually and physically "explore" their infants, initially using their fingertips on the infant's face and extremities and progressing to massaging and stroking the infant with their fingers. This is followed by palm contact on the trunk. Eventually, mothers draw their infant toward them and hold the infant. Kangaroo care refers to skin-to-skin cotact between the mother and newborn.

The nurse is teaching a group of parents about the similarities and differences between newborn skin and adult skin. Which statement by the group indicates that additional teaching is needed? A. "The newborn's skin and that of an adult are similar in thickness." B. "The newborn's sweat glands function fully, just like those of an adult." C. "Skin development in the newborn is not complete at birth."' D. "The newborn has fewer fibrils connecting the dermis and epidermis."

Answer: B Rationale: The newborn has sweat glands, like an adult, but full adult functioning is not present until the second or third year of life. The newborn and adult epidermis is similar in thickness and lipid composition, but skin development is not complete at birth. Fewer fibrils connect the dermis and epidermis in the newborn when compared with the adult.

After teaching an in-service program to a group of nurses working in newborn nursery about a neutral thermal environment, the nurse determines that the teaching was successful when the group identifies which process as the newborn's primary method of heat production? A. convection B. nonshivering thermogenesis C. cold stress D. bilirubin conjugation

Answer: B Rationale: The newborn's primary method of heat production is through nonshivering thermogenesis, a process in which brown fat (adipose tissue) is oxidized in response to cold exposure. Convection is a mechanism of heat loss. Cold stress results with excessive heat loss that requires the newborn to use compensatory mechanisms to maintain core body temperature. Bilirubin conjugation is a mechanism by which bilirubin in the blood is eliminated.

When making a home visit, the nurse observes a newborn sleeping on his back in a bassinet. In one corner of the bassinet is some soft bedding material, and at the other end is a bulb syringe. The nurse determines that the mother needs additional teaching for which reason? A. The newborn should not be sleeping on his back. B. Soft bedding material should not be in areas where infants sleep. C. The bulb syringe should not be kept in the bassinet. D. This newborn should be sleeping in a crib.

Answer: B Rationale: The nurse should instruct the mother to remove all fluffy bedding, quilts, stuffedanimals, and pillows from the crib to prevent suffocation. Newborns and infants should be placedon their backs to sleep. Having the bulb syringe nearby in the bassinet is appropriate. Although a crib is the safest sleeping location, a bassinet is appropriate initially.

The partner of a woman who has given birth to a healthy newborn says to the nurse,"I want to be involved, but I'm not sure that I'm able to care for such a little baby." The nurse interprets this as indicating which stage? A) expectations B) reality C) transition to mastery D) Taking-hold

Answer: B Rationale: The partner's statement reflects stage 2 (reality), which occurs when fathers or partners realize that their expectations in stage 1 are not realistic. Their feelings change from elation to sadness, ambivalence, jealousy, and frustration. Many wish to be more involved in the newborn's care and yet do not feel prepared to do so. New fathers or partners pass through stage 1 (expectations) with preconceptions about what home life will be like with a newborn. Many men may be unaware of the dramatic changes that can occur when this newborn comes home to live with them. In stage 3 (transition to mastery), the father or partner makes a conscious decision to take control and be at the center of his newborn's life regardless of his preparedness. Taking-hold is a stage of maternal adaptation

A woman gave birth to a healthy term neonate today at 1330. It is now 1430 and the nurse has completed the client's assessment. At which time would the nurse next assess the client? A. 1445 B. 1500 C. 1530 D. 1830

Answer: B Rationale: The woman is in her second hour postpartum. Typically, the nurse would assess the woman every 30 minutes. In this case, this would be 1500. During the first hour, assessments are usually completed every 15 minutes. After the second hour, assessments would be made every 4 hours for the first 24 hours and then every 8 hours.

The nurse administers RhoGAM to an Rh-negative client after delivery of an Rh-positive newborn based on the understanding that this drug will prevent her from: A. becoming Rh positive. B. developing Rh sensitivity. C. developing AB antigens in her blood. D. becoming pregnant with an Rh-positive fetus.

Answer: B Rationale: The woman who is Rh-negative and whose infant is Rh-positive should be given Rho(D) immune globulin within 72 hours after birth to prevent sensitization.

A nurse is preparing a presentation about ways to minimize heat loss in the newborn. Which measure would the nurse include to prevent heat loss through convection? A. placing a cap on a newborn's head B. working inside an isolette as much as possible. C. placing the newborn skin-to-skin with the mother D. using a radiant warmer to transport a newborn

Answer: B Rationale: To prevent heat loss by convection, the nurse would keep the newborn out of directcool drafts (open doors, windows, fans, air conditioners) in the environment, work inside anisolette as much as possible and minimize opening portholes that allow cold air to flow inside,and warm any oxygen or humidified air that comes in contact with the newborn. Placing a cap on the newborn's head would help minimize heat loss through evaporation. Placing the newbornskin-to-skin with the mother helps to prevent heat loss through conduction. Using a radiantwarmer to transport a newborn helps minimize heat loss through radiation.

After teaching a postpartum woman about breast-feeding, the nurse determines that the teaching was successful when the woman states which of the following? A. "I should notice a decrease in abdominal cramping during breast-feeding." B. "I should wash my hands before starting to breastfeed." C. "The baby can be awake or sleepy when I start to feed him." D. "The baby's mouth will open up once I put him to my breast."

Answer: B Rationale: To promote successful breastfeeding, the mother should wash her hands before breast feeding and make sure that the baby is awake and alert and showing hunger signs. In addition, the mother should lightly tickle the infant's upper lip with her nipple to stimulate the infant to open the mouth wide and then bring the infant rapidly to the breast with a wide-open mouth. The mother also needs to know that her afterpains will increase during breastfeeding

The nurse places a warmed blanket on the scale when weighing a newborn to minimize heat loss via which mechanism? A. evaporation B. conduction C. convection D. radiation

Answer: B Rationale: Using a warmed cloth diaper or blanket to cover any cold surface, such as a scale, that touches a newborn directly helps to prevent heat loss through conduction. Drying a newborn and promptly changing wet linens, clothes, or diapers help reduce heat loss via evaporation. Keeping the newborn out of a direct cool draft, working inside an isolette as much as possible, and minimizing the opening of portholes help prevent heat loss via convection. Keeping cribs and isolettes away from outside walls, cold windows, and air conditioners and using radiant warmers while transporting newborns and performing procedures will help reduce heat loss via radiation.

A nurse is visiting a postpartum woman who gave birth to a healthy newborn 5 days ago.Which finding would the nurse expect? A) bright red discharge B) pinkish brown discharge C) deep red mucus-like discharge D) creamy white discharge

Answer: B Rationale: Lochia serosa is pinkish brown and is expelled 3 to 10 days postpartum. Lochia rubra is a deep-red mixture of mucus, tissue debris, and blood that occurs for the first 3 to 4 days after birth. Lochia alba is creamy white or light brown and consists of leukocytes, decidual tissue, and reduced fluid content and occurs from days 10 to 14 but can last 3 to 6 weeks postpartum.

As part of an education program for a group of pregnant women, the nurse teaches them about the changes that occur in the respiratory system during the postpartum period. The women demonstrate understanding of the information when they identify which occurrence as a postpartum adaptation? A) continued shortness of breath B) relief of rib aching C) diaphragmatic elevation D) decrease in respiratory rate

Answer: B Rationale: Respirations usually remain within the normal adult range of 16 to 24 breaths per minute. As the abdominal organs resume their nonpregnant position, the diaphragm returns to its usual position. Anatomic changes in the thoracic cavity and rib cage caused by increasing uterine growth resolve quickly. As a result, discomforts such as shortness of breath and rib aches are relieved.

A father of a newborn tells the nurse,"I may not know everything about being a dad, but I'm going to do the best I can for my son." The nurse interprets this as indicating the father is in which stage of adaptation? A) expectations B) transition to mastery C) reality D) taking-in

Answer: B Rationale: The father's statement reflects transition to mastery because he is making a conscious decision to take control and be at the center of the newborn's life regardless of his preparedness. The expectations stage involves preconceptions about how life will be with a newborn. Reality occurs when fathers realize their expectations are not realistic. Taking-in is a phase of maternal adaptation.

A nurse is assessing a newborn who is about 41⁄2 hours old. The nurse would expect this newborn to exhibit which behavior? Select all that apply. A. sleeping B. interest in environmental stimuli C. passage of meconium D. difficulty arousing the newborn E. spontaneous Moro reflexes

Answer: B, C Rationale: The newborn is in the second period of reactivity, which begins as the newborn awakens and shows an interest in environmental stimuli. This period lasts 2 to 8 hours in thenormal newborn (Boxwell, 2010). Heart and respiratory rates increase. Peristalsis also increases. Thus, it is not uncommon for the newborn to pass meconium or void during this period. In addition, motor activity and muscle tone increase in conjunction with an increase in muscular coordination. Spontaneous Moro reflexes are noted during the first period of reactivity. Sleeping and difficulty arousing the newborn reflect the period of decreased responsiveness.

A nurse is preparing a presentation about changes in the various body systems during the postpartum period and their effects for a group of new mothers. The nurse explains which event as influencing a postpartum woman's ability to void? Select all that apply. A) use of an opioid anesthetic during labor B) generalized swelling of the perineum C) decreased bladder tone from regional anesthesia D) use of oxytocin to augment labor E) need for an episiotomy

Answer: B, C, D Rationale: Many women have difficulty feeling the sensation to void after giving birth if they received an anesthetic block during labor (which inhibits neural functioning of the bladder) or if they received oxytocin to induce or augment their labor (antidiuretic effect). These women will be at risk for incomplete emptying, bladder distention, difficulty voiding, and urinary retention. In addition, urination may be impeded by perineal lacerations; generalized swelling and bruising of the perineum and tissues surrounding the urinary meatus; hematomas; decreased bladder tone as a result of regional anesthesia; and diminished sensation of bladder pressure as a result of swelling, poor bladder tone, and numbing effects of regional anesthesia used during labor.

A nurse is developing a teaching plan for a postpartum woman who is breast-feeding about sexuality and contraception. Which of the following would the nurse most likely include? (Select all that apply.) A. resumption of sexual intercourse about two weeks after birth B. possible experience of fluctuations in sexual interest C. use of a water-based lubricant to ease vaginal discomfort D. use of combined hormonal contraceptives for the first three weeks E. possibility of increased breast sensitivity during sexual activity

Answer: B, C, E Rationale: Typically, sexual intercourse can be resumed once bright-red bleeding has stopped and the perineum is healed from an episiotomy or lacerations. This is usually by the third to the sixth week postpartum. Fluctuations in sexual interest are normal. In addition, breastfeeding women may notice a let-down reflex during orgasm and find that breasts are very sensitive when touched by the partner. Precoital vaginal lubrication may be impaired during the postpartum period, especially in women who are breastfeeding. Use of water-based gel lubricants can help. The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention recommend that postpartum women not use combined hormonal contraceptives during the first 21 days after birth because of the high risk for venous thromboembolism (VTE) during this period.

A nurse is observing a postpartum woman and her partner interact with the their newborn. The nurse determines that the. parents are developing parental attachment with their newborn when they demonstrate which of the following? (Select all that apply.) A. frequently ask for the newborn to be taken from the room B. identify common features between themselves and the newborn C. refer to the newborn as having a monkey-face D. make direct eye contact with the newborn E. refrain from checking out the newborn's features

Answer: B, D Rationale: Positive behaviors that indicate attachment include identifying common features and making direct eye contact with the newborn. Asking for the newborn to be taken out of the room, referring to the newborn as having a monkey-face, and refraining from checking out the newborn's features are negative attachment behaviors.

After teaching a group of students about risk factors associated with postpartum hemorrhage, the instructor determines that the teaching was successful when the students identify which of the following as a risk factor? (Select all that apply.) A. prolonged labor B. placenta previa C. null parity D. hydramnios E. labor augmentation

Answer: B, D, E Rationale: Risk factors for postpartum hemorrhage include precipitous labor less than 3 hours, placenta previa or abruption, multiparity, uterine overdistention such as with a large infant, twins, or hydramnios, and labor induction or augmentation. Prolonged labor over 24 hours is a risk factor for postpartum infection.

A postpartum client has a fourth-degree perineal laceration. The nurse would expect which of the following medications to be ordered? A) ferrous sulfate B) methylergonovine C) docusate D) bromocriptine

Answer: C Rationale: A stool softener such as docusate may promote bowel elimination in a woman with a fourth-degree laceration, who may fear that bowel movements will be painful. Ferrous sulfate would be used to treat anemia. However, it is associated with constipation and would increase the discomfort when the woman has a bowel movement. Methylergonovine would be used to prevent or treat postpartum hemorrhage. Bromocriptine is used to treat hyperprolactinemia.

When reviewing the medical record of a postpartum client, the nurse notes that the client has experienced a third-degree. laceration. The nurse understands that the laceration extends to which of the following? A. superficial structures above the muscle B. through the perineal muscles C. through the anal sphincter muscle D. through the anterior rectal wall

Answer: C Rationale: A third-degree laceration extends through the anal sphincter muscle. A first-degree laceration involves only the skin and superficial structures above the muscle. A second-degree laceration extends through the perineal muscles. A fourth-degree laceration continues through the anterior rectal wall

When explaining how a newborn adapts to extrauterine life, the nurse would describe which body systems as undergoing the most rapid changes? A. gastrointestinal and hepatic B. urinary and hematologic C. respiratory and cardiovascular D. neurological and integumentary

Answer: C Rationale: Although all the body systems of the newborn undergo changes, respiratory gas exchange along with circulatory modifications must occur immediately to sustain extrauterine life.

To decrease the pain associated with an episiotomy. immediately after birth, which action by the nurse would be most appropriate? A) Offer warm blankets B). Encourage the woman to void. C) Apply an ice pack to the site. D) Offer a warm sitz bath.

Answer: C Rationale: An ice pack is the first measure used after a vaginal birth to provide perineal comfort from edema, an episiotomy, or lacerations. Warm blankets would be helpful for the chills that the women may experience. Encouraging her to void promotes urinary elimination and uterine involution. A warm sitz bath is effective after the first 24 hours

A group of nurses are reviewing information about the changes in the newborn's lungs that must occur to maintain respiratory function. The nurses demonstrate understanding of this information when they identify which event as occurring first? A. expansion of the lungs B. increased pulmonary blood flow C. initiation of respiratory movement D. redistribution of cardiac output

Answer: C Rationale: Before the newborn's lungs can maintain respiratory function, the following events must occur: respiratory movement must be initiated; lungs must expand, functional residual capacity must be established, pulmonary blood flow must increase, and cardiac output must be redistributed.

The nurse encourages the mother of a healthy newborn to put the newborn to the breast immediately after birth for which reason? A. to aid in maturing the newborn's sucking reflex B. to encourage the development of maternal antibodies C. to facilitate maternal-infant bonding D. to enhance the clearing of the newborn's respiratory passages

Answer: C Rationale: Breastfeeding can be initiated immediately after birth. This immediate mother-newborn contact takes advantage of the newborn's natural alertness and fosters bonding. This contact also reduces maternal bleeding and stabilizes the newborn's temperature, blood glucose level, and respiratory rate. It is not associated with maturing the sucking reflex, encouraging the development of maternal antibodies, or aiding in clearing of the newborn's respiratory passages.

The nurse is assessing the skin of a newborn and notes a rash on the newborn's face and chest. The rash consists of small papules and is scattered with no pattern. The nurse interprets this finding as: A. harlequin sign. B. nevus flames. C. erythema toxicum. D. port wine stain.

Answer: C Rationale: Erythema toxicum (newborn rash) is a benign, idiopathic, generalized, transient rashthat occurs in up to 70% of all newborns during the first week of life. It consists of small papulesor pustules on the skin resembling flea bites. The rash is common on the face, chest, and back.One of the chief characteristics of this rash is its lack of pattern. It is caused by the newborn'seosinophils reacting to the environment as the immune system matures. Harlequin sign refers tothe dilation of blood vessels on only one side of the body, giving the newborn the appearance ofwearing a clown suit. It gives a distinct midline demarcation, which is described as pale on thenondependent side and red on the opposite, dependent side. Nevus flammeus or port wine stain is a capillary angioma located directly below the dermis. It is flat with sharp demarcations and is purple-red. This skin lesion is made up of mature capillaries that are congested and dilated.

A primipara client who is bottle feeding her baby begins to experience breast engorgement on her third postpartum day. Which instruction would be most appropriate to aid in relieving her discomfort? A. "Express some milk from your breasts every so often to relieve the distention." B. "Remove your bra to relieve the pressure on your sensitive nipples and breasts." C. "Apply ice packs to your breasts to reduce the amount of milk being produced." D. "Take several warm showers daily to stimulate the milk let-down reflex."

Answer: C Rationale: For the woman with breast engorgement who is bottle feeding her newborn, encourage the use of ice packs to decrease pain and swelling. Expressing milk from the breasts and taking warm showers would be appropriate for the woman who was breastfeeding. Wearing a supportive bra 24 hours a day also is helpful for the woman with engorgement who is bottle Feeding.

A nurse is teaching a postpartum client how to do muscle-clenching exercises for the perineum. The client asks the nurse, "Why do I need to do these exercises?" Which reason would the nurse most likely incorporate into the response? A) reduces lochia B) promotes uterine involution C) improves pelvic floor tone D) alleviates perineal pain

Answer: C Rationale: Muscle clenching perineal exercises help to improve pelvic floor tone, strengthen perineal muscles, and promote healing, ultimately helping to prevent urinary incontinence later in life. Kegel exercises have no effect on lochia, involution, or pain.

A postpartum woman who is breast-feeding tells the nurse that she is experiencing nipple pain. Which of the following would be least appropriate for the nurse to suggest? A. "I use a mild analgesic about 1 hour before breastfeeding." B. "I apply expressed breast milk to my nipples." C. "I apply glycerin-based gel to my nipples." D. "My baby latches on."

Answer: C Rationale: Nipple pain is difficult to treat, although a wide variety of topical creams, ointments, and gels are available to do so. This group includes beeswax, glycerin-based products, petrolatum, lanolin, and hydrogel products. Many women find these products comforting.Beeswax, glycerin-based products, and petrolatum all need to be removed before breastfeeding.These products should be avoided in order to limit infant exposure because the process ofremoval may increase nipple irritation. Mild analgesics such as acetaminophen or ibuprofen areconsidered relatively safe for breastfeeding mothers. Applying expressed breast milk to nipples and allowing it to dry has been suggested to reduce nipple pain. Usually the pain is due toincorrect latch-on and/or removal of the nursing infant from the breast. Early assistance withbreastfeeding to ensure correct positioning can help prevent nipple trauma. In addition, applyingexpressed milk to nipples and allowing it to dry has been suggested to result in less nipple painfor many women.

The nurse develops a teaching plan for a postpartum client and includes teaching about how to perform pelvic floor muscle training or Kegel exercises. The nurse includes this information for which reason? A) reduce lochia B) promote uterine involution C) improve pelvic floor tone D) alleviate perineal pain

Answer: C Rationale: Pelvic floor muscle training or Kegel exercises help to improve pelvic floor tone, strengthen perineal muscles, and promote healing, ultimately helping to prevent urinary incontinence later in life. Kegel exercises have no effect on lochia, involution, or pain.

Which of the following factors in a clients history would alert the nurse to an increased risk for postpartum hemorrhage? A. multiparity, age of mother, operative birth B. size of placenta, small baby, operative birth C. uterine atony, placenta previa, operative procedures D. prematurity, infection, length of labor

Answer: C Rationale: Risk factors for postpartum hemorrhage include a precipitous labor less than three hours, uterine atony, placenta previa or abruption, labor induction or augmentation, operative procedures such as vacuum extraction, forceps, or cesarean birth, retained placental fragments, prolonged third stage of labor greater than 30 minutes, multiparity, and uterine overdistention such as from a large infant, twins, or hydramnios.

While observing the interaction between a newborn and the mother, the nurse notes the newborn nestling into the arms of the mother. The nurse identifies this as which behavior? A. habituation B. self-quieting ability C. social behaviors D. orientation

Answer: C Rationale: Social behaviors include cuddling and snuggling into the arms of the parent when the newborn is held. Self-quieting ability refers to newborns' ability to quiet and comfort themselves, such as by hand-to-mouth movements and sucking, alerting to external stimuli and motor activity. Habituation is the newborn's ability to process and respond to visual and auditory stimuli—that is, how well and appropriately he or she responds to the environment. Habituation is the ability to block out external stimuli after the newborn has become accustomed to the activity. Orientation refers to the response of newborns to stimuli, becoming more alert when sensing a new stimulus in their environment.

After teaching parents about their newborn, the nurse determines that the teaching was successful when they identify the development of a close emotional attraction to a newborn by parents during the first 30 to 60 minutes after birth as which of the following? A. reciprocity B. engrossment C. bonding D. attachment

Answer: C Rationale: The development of a close emotional attraction to the newborn by parents during the first 30 to 60 minutes after birth describes bonding. Reciprocity is the process by which the infant's capabilities and behavioral characteristics elicit a parental response. Engrossment refers to the intense interest during early contact with a newborn. Attachment refers to the process of developing strong ties of affection between an infant and significant other.

A nurse is assessing a postpartum woman's adjustment to her maternal role. Which event would the nurse expect to occur first? A) reestablishing relationships with others B) demonstrating increasing confidence in care of the newborn C) assuming a passive role in meeting her own needs D) becoming preoccupied with the present

Answer: C Rationale: The first task of adjusting to the maternal role is the taking-in phase in which the mother demonstrates dependent behaviors and assumes a passive role in meeting own basic needs. During the taking-hold phase, the mother becomes preoccupied with the present. During the letting-go phase, the mother reestablishes relationships with others and demonstrates increased responsibility and confidence in caring for the newborn.

A nurse is completing a postpartum assessment. Which finding would alert the nurse to a potential problem? A. lochia rubra with a fleshy odor B. respiratory rate of 16 breaths per minute C. temperature of 101° F (38.3° C) D. pain rating of 2 on a scale from 0 to 10

Answer: C Rationale: Typically, the new mother's temperature during the first 24 hours postpartum is within the normal range. Some women experience a slight fever, up to 100.4 F (38o C), during the first 24 hours. A temperature above 100.4o F (38o C) at any time or an abnormal temperature after the first 24 hours may indicate infection and must be reported. Foul-smelling lochia or lochia with an unexpected change in color or amount, shortness of breath, or respiratory rate below 16 or above 20 breaths per minute would also be a cause for concern. The goal of pain management is to have the woman's pain scale rating maintained between 0 to 2 points at all times, especially after Breast-feeding

While performing a physical assessment of a newborn boy, the nurse notes diffuse edema of the soft tissues of his scalp that crosses suture lines. The nurse documents this finding as: A. molding. B. microcephaly C. caput succedaneum. D. cephalhematoma.

Answer: C Rationale: Caput succedaneum is localized edema on the scalp, a poorly demarcated soft tissue swelling that crosses the suture lines. Molding refers to the elongated shape of the fetal head as it accommodates to the passage through the birth canal. Microcephaly refers to a headcircumference that is 2 standard deviations below average or less than 10% of normal parametersfor gestational age. Cephalhematoma is a localized effusion of blood beneath the periosteum ofthe skull.

A nurse is reviewing information about maternal and paternal adaptations to the birth of a newborn.The nurse observes the parents interacting with their newborn physically and emotionally. The nurse documents this as: A) puerperium. B) lactation. C) attachment. D) engrossment.

Answer: C Rationale: Attachment is a formation of a relationship between a parent and her/his newborn through a process of physical and emotional interactions. Puerperium refers to the postpartum period. Lactation refers to the process of milk secretion by the breasts. Engrossment refers to the bond that develops between the father and the newborn.

A postpartum woman is having difficulty voiding for the first time after giving birth. Which of the following would be least effective in helping to stimulate voiding? A. pouring warm water over her perineal area B. having her hear the sound of water running nearby C. placing her hand in a basin of cool water D. standing her in the shower with the warm water on

Answer: C Rationale: Helpful measures to stimulate voiding include placing her hand in a basin of warm water, pouring warm water over her perineal area, hearing the sound of running water nearby, blowing bubbles through a straw, standing in the shower with the warm water turned on, and drinking fluids

When the nurse is assessing a postpartum client approximately 6 hours after birth, which finding would warrant further investigation? A) deep red, fleshy-smelling lochia B) voiding of 350 cc C) blood pressure 90/50 mm Hg D) profuse sweating

Answer: C Rationale: In most instances of postpartum hemorrhage, blood pressure and cardiac output remain increased because of the compensatory increase in heart rate. Thus, a decrease in blood pressure and cardiac output are not expected changes during the postpartum period. Early identification is essential to ensure prompt intervention. Deep red, fleshy-smelling lochia is a normal finding 6 hours postpartum. Voiding in small amounts such as less than 150 cc would indicate a problem, but 350 cc would be appropriate. Profuse sweating also is normal during the postpartum period.

Which method would be most effective in evaluating the parents' understanding about their newborn's care? A. Demonstrate all infant care procedures. B. Allow the parents to state the steps of the care. C. Observe the parents performing the procedures. D. Routinely assess the newborn for cleanliness.

Answer: C Rationale: The most effective means to evaluate the parents' learning is to observe them performing the procedures. Parental roles develop and grow through interaction with their newborn. The nurse would involve both parents in the newborn's care and praise them for their efforts. Demonstrating the procedures to the parents and having the parents state the steps are helpful but do not guarantee that the parents understand them. Assessing the newborn for cleanliness would provide little information about parental learning

A postpartum client comes to the clinic for her 6-week postpartum checkup. When assessing the client's cervix, the nurse would expect the external cervical os to appear: A) shapeless. B) circular. C) triangular. D) slit-like.

Answer: D Rationale: After birth, the external cervical os is no longer shaped like a circle but instead appears as a jagged slit-like opening, often described as a "fish mouth."

The nurse is providing an in-service education program to a group of home healthcare nurses who provide care to postpartum women. After teaching the group about the process of involution, the nurse determines that additional teaching is needed when the group identifies which process as being involved? A) catabolism B) muscle fiber contraction C) epithelial regeneration D) vasodilation

Answer: D Rationale: Involution involves three retrogressive processes: contraction of muscle fibers to reduce those previously stretched during pregnancy; catabolism, which reduces enlarged myometrial cells; and regeneration of uterine epithelium from the lower layer of the deciduas after the upper layers have been sloughed off and shed during lochial discharge. Vasodilation is not involved.

The nurse places a newborn with jaundice under the phototherapy lights in the nursery to achieve which goal? A. Prevent cold stress. B. Increase surfactant levels in the lungs. C. Promote respiratory stability. D. Decrease the serum bilirubin level.

Answer: D Rationale: Jaundice reflects elevated serum bilirubin levels; phototherapy helps to break down the bilirubin for excretion. Phototherapy has no effect on body temperature, surfactant levels, or respiratory stability.

A new mother reports that her newborn often spits up after feeding. Assessment reveals regurgitation. Which factor would the nurse integrate into the response? A. newborn being placed prone after feeding B. limited ability of digestive enzymes C. underdeveloped pyloric sphincter D. relaxed cardiac sphincter

Answer: D Rationale: The cardiac sphincter and nervous control of the stomach is immature, which maylead to uncoordinated peristaltic activity and frequent regurgitation. Placement of the newborn isunrelated to regurgitation. Most digestive enzymes are available at birth, but they are limited intheir ability to digest complex carbohydrates and fats; this results in fatty stools, notregurgitation. Immaturity of the pharyngoesophageal sphincter and absence of lower esophageal peristaltic waves, not an underdeveloped pyloric sphincter, also contribute to the reflux of gastric contents

The nurse observes the stool of a newborn who is being bottle-fed.The newborn is 2 days old. What would the nurse expect to find? A. greenish black, tarry stool B. yellowish-brown, seedy stool C. yellow-gold, stringy stool D. yellowish-green, pasty stool

Answer: D Rationale: The milk stools of the formula-fed newborn vary depending on the type of formula ingested. They may be yellow, yellow-green, or greenish and loose, pasty, or formed in consistency, and they have an unpleasant odor. After breast-feedings are initiated, a transitional stool develops, which is greenish brown to yellowish brown, thinner in consistency, and seedy in appearance. Meconium stool is greenish black and tarry. The last development in the stool pattern is the milk stool. Milk stools of the breast-fed newborn are yellow-gold, loose, and stringy to pasty in consistency, and typically sour-smelling.

While making rounds in the nursery, the nurse sees a 6-hour-old baby girl gagging and turning bluish. What would the nurse do first? A. Alert the primary care provider stat, and turn the newborn to her right side. B. Administer oxygen via facial mask by positive pressure. C. Lower the newborn's head to stimulate crying. D. Aspirate the oral and nasal pharynx with a bulb syringe.

Answer: D Rationale: The nurse's first action would be to suction the oral and nasal pharynx with a bulb syringe to maintain airway patency. Turning the newborn to her right side will not alleviate the blockage due to secretions. Administering oxygen via positive pressure is not indicated at this time. Lowering the newborn's head would be inappropriate.

The nurse administers vitamin K intramuscularly to the newborn based on which rationale? A. Stop Rh sensitization. B. Increase erythropoiesis C. Enhance bilirubin breakdown. D. Promote blood clotting.

Answer: D Rationale: Vitamin K promotes blood clotting by increasing the synthesis of prothrombin by the liver. Rho(D) immune globulin prevents Rh sensitization. Erythropoietin stimulates erythropoiesis. Phototherapy enhances bilirubin breakdown.

The nurse is assessing the respirations of several newborns. The nurse would notify the health care provider for the newborn with which respiratory rate at rest? A. 38 breaths per minute B. 46 breaths per minute C. 54 breaths per minute D. 68 breaths per minute

Answer: D Rationale: After respirations are established in the newborn, they are shallow and irregular, ranging from 30 to 60 breaths per minute, with short periods of apnea (less than 15 seconds). Thus a newborn with a respiratory rate below 30 or above 60 breaths per minute would require further evaluation.

The nurse institutes measures to maintain thermoregulation based on the understanding that newborns have limited ability to regulate body temperature because they: A. have a smaller body surface compared to body mass. B. lose more body heat when they sweat than adults. C. have an abundant amount of subcutaneous fat all over. D. are unable to shiver effectively to increase heat production.

Answer: D Rationale: Newborns have difficulty maintaining their body heat through shivering and other mechanisms. They have a large body surface area relative to body weight and have limited sweating ability. Additionally, newborns lack subcutaneous fat to provide insulation.

A postpartum client is experiencing subinvolution. When reviewing the woman's labor and birth history, which factor would the nurse identify as being a significant contributor to this condition? A) early ambulation B) short duration of labor C) breastfeeding D) use of anesthetics

Answer: D Rationale: Factors that inhibit involution include prolonged labor and difficult birth, incomplete expulsion of amniotic membranes and placenta, uterine infection, overdistention of uterine muscles (such as by multiple gestation, hydramnios, or large singleton fetus), full bladder (which displaces the uterus and interferes with contractions), anesthesia (which relaxes uterine muscles), and close childbirth spacing. Factors that facilitate uterine involution include complete expulsion of amniotic membranes and placenta at birth, complication-free labor and birth process, breastfeeding, and early ambulation.

A client who is breastfeeding her newborn tells the nurse, "I notice that when I feed him, I feel fairly strong contraction-like pain. Labor is over. Why am I having contractions now?" Which response by the nurse would be most appropriate? A) "Your uterus is still shrinking in size; that's why you're feeling this pain." B) "Let me check your vaginal discharge just to make sure everything is fine." C) "Your body is responding to the events of labor, just like after a tough workout." D) "The baby's sucking releases a hormone that causes the uterus to contract."

Answer: D Rationale: The woman is describing afterpains, which are usually stronger during breastfeeding because oxytocin released by the sucking reflex strengthens uterine contractions. Afterpains are associated with uterine involution, but the woman's description strongly correlates with the hormonal events of breastfeeding. All women experience afterpains, but they are more acute in multiparous women secondary to repeated stretching of the uterine muscles.

The caring for a mother who has had a c-section, the nurse would expect the client's lochia to be: A) greater than after a vaginal birth B) about the same as after vaginal birth C) less than after a vaginal birth D) saturated with clots and mucus

C) less than after a vaginal birth Rationale: Women who have had cesarean births tend to have less flow because the uterine debris is removed manually along with delivery of the placenta.

Assessment of a newborn reveals rhythmic spontaneous movements. The nurse interprets this as indicating: A. habituation. B. motor maturity. C. orientation. D. social behaviors.

Answer: B Rationale: Motor maturity is evidenced by rhythmic, spontaneous movements. Habituation is manifested by the newborn's ability to respond to the environment appropriately. Orientation involves the newborn's response to new stimuli, such as turning the head to a sound. Social behaviors involve cuddling and snuggling into the arms of a parent.

Which statement would alert the nurse to the potential for impaired bonding between mother and newborn? A. "You have your daddy's eyes." B. "He looks like a frog to me." C. "Where did you get all that hair?" D. "He seems to sleep a lot."

Answer: B Rationale: Negative comments may indicate impaired bonding. Pointing out commonalities such as "daddy's eyes" and expressing pride such as "all that hair" are positive attachment behaviors. The statement about sleeping a lot indicates that the mother is assigning meaning to the newborn's actions, another positive attachment behavior.

A nurse is teaching a group of new parents about their newborns' sensory capabilities. The nurse would identify which sense as being well-developed at birth? A. hearing B. touch C. taste D. vision

Answer: A Rationale: Hearing is well developed at birth, evidenced by the newborn's response to noise by turning. Vision is the least mature sense at birth. Touch is evidenced by the newborn's ability to respond to tactile stimuli and pain. A newborn can distinguish between sweet and sour by 72 hours of age.

When teaching new parents about the sensory capabilities of their newborn, which sense would the nurse identify as being the least mature? A. hearing B. touch C. taste D. vision

Answer: D Rationale: Vision is the least mature sense at birth. Hearing is well developed at birth, evidenced by the newborn's response to noise by turning. Touch is evidenced by the newborn's ability to respond to tactile stimuli and pain. A newborn can distinguish between sweet and sour by 72 hours of age.

A nurse is assessing a newborn and observes the newborn moving his head and eyes toward a loud sound. The nurse interprets this as which behavior? A. habituation B. motor maturity C. social behavior D. orientation

Answer: D Rationale: Orientation refers to the response of newborns to stimuli. It reflects newborns' response to auditory and visual stimuli, demonstrated by their movement of head and eyes to focus on that stimulus. Habituation is the newborn's ability to process and respond to visual and auditory stimuli—that is, how well and appropriately he or she responds to the environment. Habituation is the ability to block out external stimuli after the newborn has become accustomed to the activity. Motor maturity depends on gestational age and involves evaluation of posture, tone, coordination, and movements. These activities enable newborns to control and coordinate movement. When stimulated, newborns with good motor organization demonstrate movements that are rhythmic and spontaneous. Social behaviors include cuddling and snuggling into the arms of the parent when the newborn is held.

The nurse is developing a teaching plan for a client who has decided to bottle-feed her newborn. Which information would the nurse include in the teaching plan to facilitate suppression of lactation? A) encouraging the woman to manually express milk B) suggesting that she take frequent warm showers to soothe her breasts C) telling her to limit the amount of fluids that she drinks D) instructing her to apply ice packs to both breasts every other hour

D) instructing her to apply ice packs to both breasts every other hour Rationale: If the woman is not breastfeeding, relief measures for engorgement include wearing a tight supportive bra 24 hours daily, applying ice to her breasts for approximately 15 to 20 minutes every other hour, and not stimulating her breasts by squeezing or manually expressing milk. Warm showers enhance the let-down reflex and would be appropriate if the woman was breastfeeding. Limiting fluid intake is inappropriate. Fluid intake is important for all postpartum women, regardless of the feeding method chosen.

A primipara client gave birth vaginally to a healthy newborn girl 12 hours ago. The nurse palpates the client's fundus. Which finding would the nurse identify as expected? two fingerbreadths above the umbilicus at the level of the umbilicus two fingerbreadths below the umbilicus four fingerbreadths below the umbilicus

at the level of the umbilicus Answer: B Rationale: During the first 12 hours postpartum, the fundus of the uterus is located at the level of the umbilicus. Over the first few days after birth, the uterus typically descends from the level of the umbilicus at a rate of 1 cm (one fingerbreadth) per day. By 3 days, the fundus lies two to three fingerbreadths below the umbilicus (or slightly higher in multiparous women). By the end of 10 days, the fundus usually cannot be palpated because it has descended into the true pelvis.