Exam 3

During a CPR class, a participant asks about the difference between cardioversion and defibrillation. What would be the instructors best response? A) Cardioversion is done on a beating heart; defibrillation is not. B) The difference is the timing of the delivery of the electric current. C) Defibrillation is synchronized with the electrical activity of the heart, but cardioversion is not. D) Cardioversion is always attempted before defibrillation because it has fewer risks.

B) The difference is the timing of the delivery of the electric current.

The nurse caring for a patient whose sudden onset of sinus bradycardia is not responding adequately to atropine. What might be the treatment of choice for this patient? A) Implanted pacemaker B) Trancutaneous pacemaker C) ICD D) Asynchronous defibrillator

B) Trancutaneous pacemaker

A nurse on a burn unit is caring for a patient in the acute phase of burn care. While performing an assessment during this phase of burn care, the nurse recognizes that airway obstruction related to upper airway edema may occur up to how long after the burn injury? A) 2 days B) 3 days C) 5 days D) 1 week

A) 2 days

The nurse providing care for a patient post PTCA knows to monitor the patient closely. For what complications should the nurse monitor the patient? Select all that apply. A) Abrupt closure of the coronary artery B) Venous insufficiency C) Bleeding at the insertion site D) Retroperitoneal bleeding E) Arterial occlusion

A) Abrupt closure of the coronary artery C) Bleeding at the insertion site D) Retroperitoneal bleeding E) Arterial occlusion

An emergency department nurse has just received a patient with burn injuries brought in by ambulance. The paramedics have started a large-bore IV and covered the burn in cool towels. The burn is estimated as covering 24% of the patients body. How should the nurse best address the pathophysiologic changes resulting from major burns during the initial burn-shock period? A) Administer IV fluids B) Administer broad-spectrum antibiotics C) Administer IV potassium chloride D) Administer packed red blood cells

A) Administer IV fluids

A patient is brought to the ED and determined to be experiencing symptomatic sinus bradycardia. The nurse caring for this patient is aware the medication of choice for treatment of this dysrhythmia is the administration of atropine. What guidelines will the nurse follow when administering atropine? A) Administer atropine 0.5 mg as an IV bolus every 3 to 5 minutes to a maximum of 3.0 mg. B) Administer atropine as a continuous infusion until symptoms resolve. C) Administer atropine as a continuous infusion to a maximum of 30 mg in 24 hours. D) Administer atropine 1.0 mg sublingually.

A) Administer atropine 0.5 mg as an IV bolus every 3 to 5 minutes to a maximum of 3.0 mg.

An older adult patient has been diagnosed with aortic regurgitation. What change in blood flow should the nurse expect to see on this patient's echocardiogram? A) Blood to flow back from the aorta to the left ventricle B) Obstruction of blood flow from the left ventricle C) Blood to flow back from the left atrium to the left ventricle D) Obstruction of blood from the left atrium to left ventricle

A) Blood to flow back from the aorta to the left ventricle

A nurse is caring for a patient who is exhibiting ventricular tachycardia (VT). Because the patient is pulseless, the nurse should prepare for what intervention? A) Defibrillation B) ECG monitoring C) Implantation of a cardioverter defibrillator D) Angioplasty

A) Defibrillation

A patient has sustained a severe burn injury and is thought to have an impaired intestinal mucosal barrier. Since this patient is considered at an increased risk for infection, what intervention will best assist in avoiding increased intestinal permeability and prevent early endotoxin translocation? A) Early enteral feeding B) Administration of prophylactic antibiotics C ) Bowel cleansing procedures D) Administration of stool softeners

A) Early enteral feeding

A patient with a history rheumatic heart disease knows that she is at risk for bacterial endocarditis when undergoing invasive procedures. Prior to a scheduled cystoscopy, the nurse should ensure that the patient knows the importance of taking which of the following drugs? A) Enoxaparin (Lovenox) B) Metoprolol (Lopressor) C) Azathioprine (Imuran) D) Amoxicillin (Amoxil)

D) Amoxicillin (Amoxil)

The OR nurse is explaining to a patient that cardiac surgery requires the absence of blood from the surgical field. At the same time, it is imperative to maintain perfusion of body organs and tissues. What technique for achieving these simultaneous goals should the nurse describe? A) Coronary artery bypass graft (CABG) B) Percutaneous transluminal coronary angioplasty (PTCA) C) Atherectomy D) Cardiopulmonary bypass

D) Cardiopulmonary bypass

A patient who has recently recovered from a systemic viral infection is undergoing diagnostic testing for myocarditis. Which of the nurses assessment findings is most consistent with myocarditis? A) Sudden changes in level of consciousness (LOC) B) Peripheral edema and pulmonary edema C) Pleuritic chest pain D) Flulike symptoms

D) Flulike symptoms

The nurse is caring for a patient with right ventricular hypertrophy and consequently decreased right ventricular function. What valvular disorder may have contributed to this patients diagnosis? A) Mitral valve regurgitation B) Aortic stenosis C) Aortic regurgitation D) Mitral valve stenosis

D) Mitral valve stenosis

A nurse is planning discharge health education for a patient who will soon undergo placement of a mechanical valve prosthesis. What aspect of health education should the nurse prioritize in anticipation of discharge? A) The need for long-term antibiotics B) The need for 7 to 10 days of bed rest C) Strategies for preventing atherosclerosis D) Strategies for infection prevention

D) Strategies for infection prevention

A group of nurses are participating in orientation to a telemetry unit. What should the staff educator tell this class about ST segments? A) They are the part of an ECG that reflects systole. B) They are the part of an ECG used to calculate ventricular rate and rhythm. C) They are the part of an ECG that reflects the time from ventricular depolarization through repolarization. D) They are the part of an ECG that represents early ventricular repolarization.

D) They are the part of an ECG that represents early ventricular repolarization.

A client has experienced burns to the upper thighs and knees. Following the application of new wound dressings, the nurse should perform what nursing action? A. Instruct the client to keep the wound site in a dependent position. B. Administer PRN analgesia as prescribed. C. Assess the client's peripheral pulses distal to the dressing. D. Assist with passive range-of-motion exercises to "set" the new dressing.

C. Assess the client's peripheral pulses distal to the dressing.

A client with severe burns is admitted to the intensive care unit to stabilize and begin fluid resuscitation before transport to the burn center. The nurse should monitor the client closely for what signs of the onset of burn shock? A. Confusion B. High fever C. Decreased blood pressure D. Sudden agitation

C. Decreased blood pressure

A client is brought to the ED by paramedics, who report that the client has partial-thickness burns on the chest and legs. The client has also suffered smoke inhalation. What is the priority in the care of a client who has been burned and suffered smoke inhalation? A. Pain B. Fluid balance C. Anxiety and fear D. Airway management

D. Airway management

A nurse is performing a home visit to a client who is recovering following a long course of inpatient treatment for burn injuries. When performing this home visit, the nurse should do which of the following? A. Assess the client for signs of electrolyte imbalances. B. Administer fluids as prescribed. C. Assess the risk for injury recurrence. D. Assess the client's psychosocial state

D. Assess the client's psychosocial state

client is brought to the emergency department from the site of a chemical fire, where the client suffered a burn that involves the epidermis, dermis, and the muscle and bone of the right arm. On inspection, the skin appears charred. Based on these assessment findings, what is the depth of the burn on the client's arm? A. Superficial partial thickness B. Deep partial thickness C. Full partial thickness D. Full thickness

D. Full thickness

The ICU nurse is developing a nursing care plan for a client with severe full thickness and deep partial thickness burns over half his body. Which client problem has priority? a. high risk for infection b. ineffective coping c. impaired physical mobility d. knowledge deficit

High Risk for Infection

The nurse is auscultating the breath sounds of a patient with pericarditis. What finding is most consistent with this diagnosis? A) Wheezes B) Friction rub C) Fine crackles D) Coarse crackles

B) Friction rub

A public health nurse has reviewed local data about the incidence and prevalence of burn injuries in the community. These data are likely to support what health promotion effort? A) Education about home safety B) Education about safe storage of chemicals C) Education about workplace health threats D) Education about safe driving

A) Education about home safety

The patient has just returned to the floor after balloon valvuloplasty of the aortic valve and the nurse is planning appropriate assessments. The nurse should know that complications following this procedure include what? Select all that apply. A) Emboli B) Mitral valve damage C) Ventricular dysrhythmia D) Atrial-septal defect E) Plaque formation

A) Emboli B) Mitral valve damage C) Ventricular dysrhythmia (also regurgitation and perforation)

The nurse and the other members of the team are caring for a patient who converted to ventricular fibrillation (VF). The patient was defibrillated unsuccessfully and the patient remains in VF. According to national standards, the nurse should anticipate the administration of what medication? A) Epinephrine 1 mg IV push B) Lidocaine 100 mg IV push C) Amiodarone 300 mg IV push D) Sodium bicarbonate 1 amp IV push

A) Epinephrine 1 mg IV push

The nurse is caring for an adult patient who has gone into ventricular fibrillation. When assisting with defibrillating the patient, what must the nurse do? A) Maintain firm contact between paddles and patient skin. B) Apply a layer of water as a conducting agent. C) Call all clear once before discharging the defibrillator. D) Ensure the defibrillator is in the sync mode.

A) Maintain firm contact between paddles and patient skin.

A cardiac surgery patients new onset of signs and symptoms is suggestive of cardiac tamponade. As a member of the interdisciplinary team, what is the nurses most appropriate action? A) Prepare to assist with pericardiocentesis. B) Reposition the patient into a prone position. C) Administer a dose of metoprolol. D) Administer a bolus of normal saline.

A) Prepare to assist with pericardiocentesis.

A patient is admitted to the critical care unit (CCU) with a diagnosis of cardiomyopathy. When reviewing the patients most recent laboratory results, the nurse should prioritize assessment of which of the following? A) Sodium B) AST, ALT, and bilirubin C) White blood cell differential D) BUN

A) Sodium

A patient who is a candidate for an implantable cardioverter defibrillator (ICD) asks the nurse about the purpose of this device. What would be the nurses best response? A) To detect and treat dysrhythmias such as ventricular fibrillation and ventricular tachycardia B) To detect and treat bradycardia, which is an excessively slow heart rate C) To detect and treat atrial fibrillation, in which your heart beats too quickly and inefficiently D) To shock your heart if you have a heart attack at home

A) To detect and treat dysrhythmias such as ventricular fibrillation and ventricular tachycardia

A client is brought to the emergency department with a burn injury. The nurse knows that the first systemic event after a major burn injury is what event? A. Hemodynamic instability B. Gastrointestinal hypermotility C. Respiratory arrest D. Hypokalemia

A. Hemodynamic instability

The nurse is analyzing a rhythm strip. What component of the ECG corresponds to the resting state of the patients heart? A) P wave B) T wave C) U wave D) QRS complex

B) T wave

A nurse has reported for a shift at a busy burns and plastics unit in a large university hospital. Which client is most likely to have life-threatening complications? A. A 4-year-old scald victim burned over 24% of the body B. A 27-year-old male burned over 36% of his body in a car accident C. A 39-year-old female client burned over 18% of her body D. A 60-year-old male burned over 16% of his body in a brush fire

A. A 4-year-old scald victim burned over 24% of the body

A nurse is caring for a client who just had cardiac catheterization. Which of the following nursing interventions should the nurse include in the client's plan of care? SATA A. Check peripheral pulses in the affected extremity B. Place the client in high fowler's position C. Measure the clients vital signs every 4 hours D. Keep the client's hip and leg extended E. Have the client remain in bed for up to 6 hours

A. Check peripheral pulses in the affected extremity D. Keep the client's hip and leg extended E. Have the client remain in bed for up to 6 hours

A nurse is teaching a client who is postoperative following the insertion of a permanent pacemaker. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include? SATA A. Count your pulse for 1 minute each morning B. Resume activities that can cause jolting after 4 weeks C. Do not wear tight clothing over the insertion area D. Request to be scanned with a handheld metal detector at the airport E. Do not have a microwave oven in the home

A. Count your pulse for 1 minute each morning C. Do not wear tight clothing over the insertion area

A client in the emergent/resuscitative phase of a burn injury has had blood work and arterial blood gases drawn. Upon analysis of the client's laboratory studies, the nurse will expect the results to indicate what findings? A. Hyperkalemia, hyponatremia, elevated hematocrit B. Hypokalemia, hypernatremia, decreased hematocrit C. Hyperkalemia, hypernatremia, decreased hematocrit D. Hypokalemia, hyponatremia, elevated hematocrit

A. Hyperkalemia, hyponatremia, elevated hematocrit (metabolic acidosis)

A client is admitted to the burn unit after being transported a long distance. The client has burns to the groin area and circumferential burns to both upper thighs. When assessing the client's legs distal to the wound site, the nurse should be cognizant of the risk of what complication? A. Ischemia B. Referred pain C. Cellulitis D. Venous thromboembolism (VTE)

A. Ischemia

A client is in the acute phase of a burn injury. One of the nursing diagnoses in the plan of care is Ineffective Coping Related to Trauma of Burn Injury. What interventions appropriately address this diagnosis? Select all that apply. A. Promote truthful communication. B. Avoid asking the client to make decisions. C. Teach the client coping strategies. D. Administer benzodiazepines as prescribed. E. Provide positive reinforcement.

A. Promote truthful communication. C. Teach the client coping strategies. E. Provide positive reinforcement.

A nurse is caring for a client in the emergent/resuscitative phase of burn injury. During this phase, the nurse should monitor for evidence of what alteration in laboratory values? A. Sodium deficit B. Decreased prothrombin time (PT) C. Potassium deficit D. Decreased hematocrit

A. Sodium deficit

An emergency department nurse learns from the paramedics that the team is transporting a client who has suffered injury from a scald from a hot kettle. What variables will the nurse consider when determining the depth of burn? A. The causative agent B. The client's pre-injury health status C. The client's prognosis for recovery D. The circumstances of the accident

A. The causative agent

The staff educator is presenting a workshop on valvular disorders. When discussing the pathophysiology of aortic regurgitation the educator points out the need to emphasize that aortic regurgitation causes what? A) Cardiac tamponade B) Left ventricular hypertrophy C) Right-sided heart failure D) Ventricular insufficiency

B) Left ventricular hypertrophy

The nurse is caring for a patient who is scheduled to undergo mechanical valve replacement. Patient education should include which of the following? A) Use of patient-controlled analgesia B) Long-term anticoagulant therapy C) Steroid therapy D) Use of IV diuretics

B) Long-term anticoagulant therapy

A nurse has taken on the care of a patient who had a coronary artery stent placed yesterday. When reviewing the patients daily medication administration record, the nurse should anticipate administering what drug? A) Ibuprofen B) Clopidogrel C) Dipyridamole D) Acetaminophen

B) Clopidogrel

A patient newly admitted to the telemetry unit is experiencing progressive fatigue, hemoptysis, and dyspnea. Diagnostic testing has revealed that these signs and symptoms are attributable to pulmonary venous hypertension. What valvular disorder should the nurse anticipate being diagnosed in this patient? A) Aortic regurgitation B) Mitral stenosis C) Mitral valve prolapse D) Aortic stenosis

B) Mitral stenosis

New nurses on the telemetry unit have been paired with preceptors. One new nurse asks her preceptor to explain depolarization. What would be the best answer by the preceptor? A) Depolarization is the mechanical contraction of the heart muscles. B) Depolarization is the electrical stimulation of the heart muscles. C) Depolarization is the electrical relaxation of the heart muscles. D) Depolarization is the mechanical relaxation of the heart muscles.

B) Depolarization is the electrical stimulation of the heart muscles.

A patient has returned to the cardiac care unit after having a permanent pacemaker implantation. For which potential complication should the nurse most closely assess this patient? A) Chest pain B) Bleeding at the implantation site C) Malignant hyperthermia D) Bradycardia

B) Bleeding at the implantation site

A nurse is assisting with obtaining an ECG for a client with Atrial Fibrillation. Which of the following actions should the nurse take? SATA A. keep the client NPO after midnight B. Inspect the electrode pads C. Wash the skin with plain water before applying the electrodes D. Instruct the client not to talk during the test E. Administer an analgesic prior to the procedure

B. Inspect the electrode pads D. Instruct the client not to talk during the test

The nurse is writing a plan of care for a patient with a cardiac dysrhythmia. What would be the most appropriate goal for the patient? A) Maintain a resting heart rate below 70 bpm. B) Maintain adequate control of chest pain. C) Maintain adequate cardiac output. D) Maintain normal cardiac structure.

C) Maintain adequate cardiac output.

The nursing educator is presenting a case study of an adult patient who has abnormal ventricular depolarization. This pathologic change would be most evident in what component of the ECG? A) P wave B) T wave C) QRS complex D) U

C) QRS complex

A patient experienced a 33% TBSA burn 72 hours ago. The nurse observes that the patients hourly urine output has been steadily increasing over the past 24 hours. How should the nurse best respond to this finding? A) Obtain an order to reduce the rate of the patients IV fluid infusion. B) Report the patients early signs of acute kidney injury (AKI). C) Recognize that the patient is experiencing an expected onset of diuresis. D) Administer sodium chloride as ordered to compensate for this fluid loss.

C) Recognize that the patient is experiencing an expected onset of diuresis.

The nurse is caring for a patient who has just had an implantable cardioverter defibrillator (ICD) placed. What is the priority area for the nurses assessment? A) Assessing the patients activity level B) Facilitating transthoracic echocardiography C) Vigilant monitoring of the patients ECG D) Close monitoring of the patients peripheral perfusion

C) Vigilant monitoring of the patients ECG

During a patients care conference, the team is discussing whether the patient is a candidate for cardiac conduction surgery. What would be the most important criterion for a patient to have this surgery? A) Angina pectoris not responsive to other treatments B) Decreased activity tolerance related to decreased cardiac output C) Atrial and ventricular tachycardias not responsive to other treatments D) Ventricular fibrillation not responsive to other treatments

C) Atrial and ventricular tachycardias not responsive to other treatments

A patient with mitral stenosis exhibits new symptoms of a dysrhythmia. Based on the pathophysiology of this disease process, the nurse would expect the patient to exhibit what heart rhythm? A) Ventricular fibrillation (VF) B) Ventricular tachycardia (VT) C) Atrial fibrillation D) Sinus bradycardia

C) Atrial fibrillation

The nurse is planning discharge teaching for a patient with a newly inserted permanent pacemaker. What is the priority teaching point for this patient? A) Start lifting the arm above the shoulder right away to prevent chest wall adhesion. B) Avoid cooking with a microwave oven. C) Avoid exposure to high-voltage electrical generators. D) Avoid walking through store and library antitheft devices.

C) Avoid exposure to high-voltage electrical generators.

The nurse is caring for a patient who has had a dysrhythmic event. The nurse is aware of the need to assess for signs of diminished cardiac output (CO). What change in status may signal to the nurse a decrease in cardiac output? A) Increased blood pressure B) Bounding peripheral pulses C) Changes in level of consciousness D) Skin flushing

C) Changes in level of consciousness

The nurse is admitting a patient with complaints of dyspnea on exertion and fatigue. The patients ECG shows dysrhythmias that are sometimes associated with left ventricular hypertrophy. What diagnostic tool would be most helpful in diagnosing cardiomyopathy? A) Cardiac catheterization B) Arterial blood gases C) Echocardiogram D) Exercise stress test

C) Echocardiogram

A 17-year-old boy is being treated in the ICU after going into cardiac arrest during a football practice. Diagnostic testing reveals cardiomyopathy as the cause of the arrest. What type of cardiomyopathy is particularly common among young people who appear otherwise healthy? A) Dilated cardiomyopathy (DCM). B) Arrhythmogenic right ventricular cardiomyopathy (ARVC) C) Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (HCM) D) Restrictive or constrictive cardiomyopathy (RCM)

C) Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (HCM)

The nurse is creating a plan of care for a patient with a cardiomyopathy. What priority goal should underlie most of the assessments and interventions that are selected for this patient? A) Absence of complications B) Adherence to the self-care program C) Improved cardiac output D) Increased activity tolerance

C) Improved cardiac output

The current phase of a client's treatment for a burn injury prioritizes wound care, nutritional support, and prevention of complications such as infection. Based on these care priorities, the client is in what phase of burn care? A. Emergent B. Immediate resuscitative C. Acute D. Rehabilitation

C. Acute

A client's burns are estimated at 36% of total body surface area; fluid resuscitation has been ordered in the emergency department. After establishing intravenous access, the nurse should anticipate the administration of what fluid? A. 0.45% NaCl with 20 mEq/L KCl B. 0.45% NaCl with 40 mEq/L KCl C. Normal saline D. Lactated Ringer

D. Lactated Ringer

An emergency department nurse has just admitted a client with a burn. What characteristic of the burn will primarily determine whether the client experiences a systemic response to this injury? A. The length of time since the burn B. The location of burned skin surfaces C. The source of the burn D. The total body surface area (TBSA) affected by the burn

D. The total body surface area (TBSA) affected by the burn

An occupational health nurse is called to the floor of a factory where a worker has sustained a flash burn to the right arm. The nurse arrives and the flames have been extinguished. The next step is to "cool the burn." How should the nurse cool the burn? A. Apply ice to the site of the burn for 5 to 10 minutes. B. Wrap the client's affected extremity in ice until help arrives. C. Apply an oil-based substance to the burned area until help arrives. D. Wrap cool towels around the affected extremity intermittently.

D. Wrap cool towels around the affected extremity intermittently.

A nurse in the ED is assessing a client with deep partial thickness and full thickness burns over 40% TBSA. Which findings are common during this phase? (SATA) a. T 36.1 b. Bradycardia c. Hyperkalemia d. Hyponatremia e. decreased hematocrit

a. T 36.1 c. Hyperkalemia d. Hyponatremia