Exam 4- Adult hepatic

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Many people who have gastroesophageal reflux are a. underweight. b. obese. c. male. d. children.

b

A food that individuals with celiac disease would need to eliminate is a. cream of wheat. b. homemade applesauce. c. vanilla yogurt. d. buttermilk.

A

A food that is considered a common food allergen is a. peanut butter. b. rice crackers. c. lemonade. d. chocolate.

A

A food that should be omitted from the diet of a patient with peptic ulcer disease is a. black pepper. b. apple juice. c. milk. d. popcorn.

A

A nurse cares for a client who has cirrhosis of the liver. Which action should the nurse take to decrease the presence of ascites? a. Monitor intake and output. b. Provide a low-sodium diet. c. Increase oral fluid intake. d. Weigh the client daily.

B

A nurse assesses a client who has cholecystitis. Which clinical manifestation indicates that the condition is chronic rather than acute? a. Temperature of 100.1 F (37.8 C) b. Positive Murphys sign c. Light-colored stools d. Upper abdominal pain after eating

C

A nurse cares for a client who has obstructive jaundice. The client asks, Why is my skin so itchy? How should the nurse respond? a. Bile salts accumulate in the skin and cause the itching. b. Toxins released from an inflamed gallbladder lead to itching. c. Itching is caused by the release of calcium into the skin. d. Itching is caused by a hypersensitivity reaction.

A

A food that individuals with celiac disease might need to avoid is a. malted milk. b. buttermilk. c. rice. d. prune juice.

A

Ascites, a localized edema of the peritoneal cavity, is caused by a. low plasma protein levels. b. inadequate intake of carbohydrate. c. too much fat in the diet. d. excessive fluid intake.

A

Patients with cystic fibrosis need to take a. enzymes and supplements. b. large doses of vitamins and minerals. c. antidiarrheal agents. d. hormones and enzymes.

A

To reduce the incidence of constipation, an appropriate dietary intervention would be to a. encourage daily use of over-the-counter laxatives. b. include 2 servings of ice cream twice a week between meals. c. include servings of natural laxatives such as dried apricots and prunes. d. decrease fluid intake since this may interfere with bowel regularity.

C

Treatment for diverticulosis includes a diet that is a. bland. b. low in fiber. c. high in fiber. d. full liquid.

C

A cause of diarrhea is a. drinking too much liquid with a meal. b. lactose intolerance. c. excessive intake of protein. d. swallowing air while eating.

B

A nurse cares for a client who is recovering from an open Whipple procedure. Which action should the nurse take? a. Clamp the nasogastric tube. b. Place the client in semi-Fowlers position. c. Assess vital signs once every shift. d. Provide oral rehydration.

B

Bile is produced by the a. gallbladder. b. pancreas. c. liver. d. intestine.

C

A resident who has Parkinson's disease and resides in a long-term care facility has recurring pneumonia and coughs while eating. This may be evidence of a. dysphasia. b. dysphagia. c. achalasia. d. dyspnea.

b

The lower esophageal sphincter muscle controls entry of food into the a. esophagus. b. stomach. c. small intestine. d. rectum.

c

The term used to describe difficulty in swallowing is a. pyrosis. b. polydipsia. c. dysphagia. d. dyspepsia.

c

An elemental diet provides a. all necessary vitamins and minerals. b. all nutrients needed in a bland, low-residue form. c. all nutrients needed in their simplest absorbable form. d. a diet high in mineral elements.

C

Niacin is prescribed for a patient who has hyperlipidemia. The nurse checks the patient's medical history, knowing that this medication is contraindicated in which disorder? a. Renal disease b. Cardiac disease c. Liver disease d. Diabetes mellitus

C

Nutrition therapy for gallbladder disorders includes a. reducing cholesterol intake. b. eliminating gas-forming foods. c. lowering fat intake. d. increasing caloric intake.

C

Of the following, a food item that may be restricted in the patient with cirrhosis is a. apple slices. b. orange sherbet. c. hotdog. d. peas.

C

Small outpouchings in the lower gastrointestinal tract are called a. hernias. b. lesions. c. diverticula. d. epiploic appendages.

C

The primary objective of treatment of hepatic encephalopathy is to a. encourage the patient to eat. b. feed the patient parenterally to give the liver a rest. c. remove sources of excess ammonia. d. encourage the patient to exercise and maintain mental functions.

C

Crohn's disease is a(n) a. disorder of protein metabolism. b. chronic enzyme deficiency. c. excess in the production of insulin. d. inflammatory bowel disease.

D

A nurse assesses a client who is recovering from a paracentesis 1 hour ago. Which assessment finding requires action by the nurse? a. Urine output via indwelling urinary catheter is 20 mL/hr b. Blood pressure increases from 110/58 to 120/62 mm Hg c. Respiratory rate decreases from 18 to 14 breaths/min d. A decrease in the clients weight by 6 kg

A

A patient is receiving a nutritional supplement via an enteral feeding tube. The nurse will monitor for which common adverse effect? a. Diarrhea b. Constipation c. Fluid overload d. Heartburn

A

A mother calls the pediatrician's office to report that her 18-month-old child has eaten half of a bottle of baby aspirin. She says, "I have a bottle of syrup of ipecac. Should I give it to him? He seems fine right now. What do I do?" What is the nurse's best response? a. "Go ahead and give him the ipecac, and then call 911." b. "Don't give him the ipecac. Call the Poison Control number immediately for instructions." c. "Please come to the office right away so that we can check him." d. "Go ahead and take him to the emergency room right now."

B

A patient is on vitamin D supplemental therapy. The nurse will monitor for which signs of toxicity during this therapy? a. Tinnitus b. Anorexia c. Diarrhea d. Hypotension

B

The characteristic symptoms of celiac disease are a. vomiting and diarrhea. b. diarrhea and steatorrhea. c. abdominal pain and constipation. d. chronic, bloody diarrhea.

B

An eroded mucosal area in the central portion of the gastrointestinal tract describes a a. hiatal hernia. b. diverticulum. c. peptic ulcer. d. Crohn's lesion.

C

A nurse assesses clients on the medical-surgical unit. Which client is at greatest risk for the development of carcinoma of the liver? a. A 22-year-old with a history of blunt liver trauma b. A 48-year-old with a history of diabetes mellitus c. A 66-year-old who has a history of cirrhosis d. An 82-year-old who has chronic malnutrition

C

The most important function of the gallbladder is to a. produce bile. b. synthesize cholesterol. c. release lipase enzymes. d. concentrate and store bile.

D

The nurse is counseling a patient about calcium supplements. Which dietary information is appropriate during this teaching session? a. "Take oral calcium supplements with meals." b. "There are no drug interactions with calcium products." c. "Avoid foods that are high in calcium, such as beef, egg yolks, and liver." d. "Be sure to eat foods high in calcium, such as dairy products and salmon."

D

A nurse cares for a client who has chronic cirrhosis from substance abuse. The client states, All of my family hates me. How should the nurse respond? a. You should make peace with your family. b. This is not unusual. My family hates me too. c. I will help you identify a support system. d. You must attend Alcoholics Anonymous.

C

A nurse cares for a client with acute pancreatitis. The client states, I am hungry. How should the nurse reply? a. Is your stomach rumbling or do you have bowel sounds? b. I need to check your gag reflex before you can eat. c. Have you passed any flatus or moved your bowels? d. You will not be able to eat until the pain subsides.

C

A patient with type 2 diabetes will be receiving a nasogastric tube feeding for a few days. The nurse expects which type of formula to be used? a. Jevity b. Ensure Plus c. Glucerna d. Polycose

C

A food that appears to reduce symptoms of irritable bowel syndrome is a. white bread with butter b. peanut butter pretzels c. sesame seed crackers d. whole grain wheat toast

D

A nurse assesses a client who is prescribed an infusion of vasopressin (Pitressin) for bleeding esophageal varices. Which clinical manifestation should alert the nurse to a serious adverse effect?a. Nausea and vomiting b. Frontal headache c. Vertigo and syncope d. Mid-sternal chest pain

D

A nurse assesses clients on the medical-surgical unit. Which client should the nurse identify as at high risk for pancreatic cancer? a. A 26-year-old with a body mass index of 21 b. A 33-year-old who frequently eats sushi c. A 48-year-old who often drinks wine d. A 66-year-old who smokes cigarettes

D

A nurse cares for a client who is hemorrhaging from bleeding esophageal varices and has an esophagogastric tube. Which action should the nurse take first?a. Sedate the client to prevent tube dislodgement. b. Maintain balloon pressure at 15 and 20 mm Hg. c. Irrigate the gastric lumen with normal saline. d. Assess the client for airway patency.

D

A patient has been receiving total parenteral nutrition. Upon assessment, the nurse notes these assessment findings: blood pressure 150/92 mm Hg (elevated from previous readings); pulse rate 110 beats/min and weak; pitting edema on both ankles; and new-onset confusion. The nurse suspects that the patient is experiencing which condition? a. Infection b. Hypoglycemia c. Hyperglycemia d. Fluid overload

D

A nurse cares for a client with end-stage pancreatic cancer. The client asks, Why is this happening to me? How should the nurse respond? a. I dont know. I wish I had an answer for you, but I dont. b. Its important to keep a positive attitude for your family right now. c. Scientists have not determined why cancer develops in certain people. d. I think that this is a trial so you can become a better person because of it.

A

After teaching a client who has alcohol-induced cirrhosis, a nurse assesses the clients understanding. Which statement made by the client indicates a need for additional teaching? a. I cannot drink any alcohol at all anymore. b. I need to avoid protein in my diet. c. I should not take over-the-counter medications. d. I should eat small, frequent, balanced meals.

B

A nurse cares for a client who is prescribed lactulose (Heptalac). The client states, I do not want to take this medication because it causes diarrhea. How should the nurse respond? a. Diarrhea is expected; thats how your body gets rid of ammonia. b. You may take Kaopectate liquid daily for loose stools .c. Do not take any more of the medication until your stools firm up. d. We will need to send a stool specimen to the laboratory.

A

A nurse cares for a client who is recovering from laparoscopic cholecystectomy surgery. The client reports pain in the shoulder blades. How should the nurse respond? a. Ambulating in the hallway twice a day will help. b. I will apply a cold compress to the painful area on your back. c. Drinking a warm beverage can relieve this referred pain. d. You should cough and deep breathe every hour.

A

A nurse assesses a client who is recovering from an open Whipple procedure. Which action should the nurse perform first? a. Assess the clients endotracheal tube with 40% FiO2. b. Insert an indwelling Foley catheter to gravity drainage. c. Place the clients nasogastric tube to low intermittent suction. d. Start lactated Ringers solution through an intravenous catheter.

A

A nurse assesses clients at a community health fair. Which client is at greatest risk for the development of hepatitis B? a. A 20-year-old college student who has had several sexual partners b. A 46-year-old woman who takes acetaminophen daily for headaches c. A 63-year-old businessman who travels frequently across the country d. An 82-year-old woman who recently ate raw shellfish for dinner

A

A clinical symptom of gallbladder inflammation or gallstones is a. pain and distention after eating. b. jaundice. c. anorexia. d. weakness and apathy.

A

A nurse assesses a client who is recovering from a Whipple procedure. Which assessment finding alerts the nurse to urgently contact the health care provider?a. Drainage from a fistula b. Absent bowel sounds c. Pain at the incision site d. Nasogastric (NG) tube drainage

A

The nurse is reviewing conditions caused by nutrient deficiencies. Conditions such as infantile rickets, tetany, and osteomalacia are caused by a deficiency in which vitamin or mineral? a. Vitamin D b. Vitamin C c. Zinc d. Cyanocobalamin (vitamin B12)

A

The peripheral parenteral nutrition bag that has been infusing into the patient is empty, and the nurse realizes that the next bag is not ready. The nurse should immediately hang which of these intravenous solutions until the new bag arrives? a. 10% dextrose in water b. 20% dextrose in water c. 0.9% sodium chloride d. Lactated Ringer's solution

A

The treatment of hepatitis includes a. rest and optimal nutrition. b. antibiotics and optimal nutrition. c. fluid restriction and rest. d. diuretics and optimal nutrition.

A

A nurse obtains a clients health history at a community health clinic. Which statement alerts the nurse to provide health teaching to this client? a. I drink two glasses of red wine each week. b. I take a lot of Tylenol for my arthritis pain. c. I have a cousin who died of liver cancer. d. I got a hepatitis vaccine before traveling.

B

A newly admitted patient has orders for a zinc supplement. The nurse reviews the patient's medical history and concludes that the zinc is ordered for which reason? a. To treat pellagra b. To aid in wound healing c. To treat osteomalacia d. As an antidote for anticoagulant overdose

B

A nurse plans care for a client with acute pancreatitis. Which intervention should the nurse include in this clients plan of care to reduce discomfort? a. Administer morphine sulfate intravenously every 4 hours as needed. b. Maintain nothing by mouth (NPO) and administer intravenous fluids. c. Provide small, frequent feedings with no concentrated sweets. d. Place the client in semi-Fowlers position with the head of bed elevated.

B

A nurse cares for a client with hepatic portal-systemic encephalopathy (PSE). The client is thin and cachectic in appearance, and the family expresses distress that the client is receiving little dietary protein. How should the nurse respond? a. A low-protein diet will help the liver rest and will restore liver function. b. Less protein in the diet will help prevent confusion associated with liver failure. c. Increasing dietary protein will help the client gain weight and muscle mass. d. Low dietary protein is needed to prevent fluid from leaking into the abdomen.

B

The presence of gallstones in the gallbladder is called a. cholecystitis. b. cholelithiasis. c. cholecystectomy. d. cholecystokinin.

B

When monitoring a patient who has been receiving peripheral parenteral nutrition for more than 3 weeks, the nurse will watch for which potential complication? a. Diarrhea b. Phlebitis c. Hypernatremia d. Hypoglycemia

B

Most ulcers occur in the a. esophagus. b. stomach. c. duodenal bulb. d. ileum.

C

A nurse cares for a client who is scheduled for a paracentesis. Which intervention should the nurse delegate to an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP)? a. Have the client sign the informed consent form. b. Assist the client to void before the procedure. c. Help the client lie flat in bed on the right side. d. Get the client into a chair after the procedure.

B

A nurse cares for a client with hepatitis C. The clients brother states, I do not want to contract this infection, so I will not go into his hospital room. How should the nurse respond? a. If you wear a gown and gloves, you will not get this virus. b. Viral hepatitis is not spread through casual contact. c. This virus is only transmitted through a fecal specimen. d. I can give you an update on your brothers status from here.

B

A nurse cares for a client with hepatopulmonary syndrome who is experiencing dyspnea with oxygen saturations at 92%. The client states, I do not want to wear the oxygen because it causes my nose to bleed. Get out of my room and leave me alone! Which action should the nurse take? a. Instruct the client to sit in as upright a position as possible. b. Add humidity to the oxygen and encourage the client to wear it. c. Document the clients refusal, and call the health care provider. d. Contact the provider to request an extra dose of the clients diuretic.

A

A nurse prepares to discharge a client with chronic pancreatitis. Which question should the nurse ask to ensure safety upon discharge? a. Do you have a one- or two-story home? b. Can you check your own pulse rate? c. Do you have any alcohol in your home? d. Can you prepare your own meals?

A

A nurse teaches a client with hepatitis C who is prescribed ribavirin (Copegus). Which statement should the nurse include in this clients discharge education? a. Use a pill organizer to ensure you take this medication as prescribed. b. Transient muscle aching is a common side effect of this medication. c. Follow up with your provider in 1 week to test your blood for toxicity. d. Take your radial pulse for 1 minute prior to taking this medication.

A

A patient is receiving a tube feeding through a gastrostomy. The nurse expects that which type of drug will be used to promote gastric emptying for this patient? a. Prokinetic drugs, such as metoclopramide (Reglan) b. Serotonin blockers, such as ondansetron (Zofran) c. Anticholinergic drugs, such as scopolamine (Transderm-Scop) d. Neuroleptic drugs, such as chlorpromazine (Thorazine)

A

A patient who has severe nausea and vomiting following a case of food poisoning comes to the urgent care center. When reviewing his medication history, the nurse notes that he has an allergy to procaine. The nurse would question an order for which antiemetic drug if ordered for this patient? a. Metoclopramide (Reglan) b. Promethazine (Phenergan) c. Phosphorated carbohydrate solution (Emetrol) d. Palonosetron (Aloxi)

A

A patient will be starting vitamin D supplements. The nurse reviews his medical record for contraindications, including which condition? a. Renal disease b. Cardiac disease c. Hypophosphatemia d. There are no contraindications to vitamin D supplements.

A

A patient with a history of diverticulosis who complains of severe left lower quadrant pain with diarrhea, nausea, and vomiting should be evaluated for a. diverticulitis. b. obstruction. c. diarrhea. d. celiac disease.

A

A patient with a partial bowel obstruction will be given a 1-week course of enteral tube feeding via a nasogastric tube. Which formulation is appropriate for this patient? a. Vivonex Plus, an elemental formulation b. Osmolite, a polymeric formulation c. Glucerna, a formulation for impaired glucose tolerance d. Polycose, a modular formulation that contains carbohydrates

A

An older adult patient needs to receive an enteral supplement to improve her overall nutritional status. When considering enteral supplements, the nurse notes that which formulation provides complex nutrients? a. Ensure Plus b. Moducal c. Propac d. Microlipid

A

Hepatitis is usually the result of a. a viral infection or alcohol or drug abuse. b. a bacterial or viral infection. c. excessive fat and protein intake. d. chronic malnutrition.

A

Of the following, a food choice that would help provide adequate protein for recovery from hepatitis is a. grilled chicken. b. apple turnover. c. fruit salad. d. English muffin.

A

Pathologic changes in the liver caused by cirrhosis include a. fatty infiltration. b. spongy tissue formation. c. gallstone formation. d. edema and swelling.

A

The major nutrition problem related to development of ascites is a. protein deficiency. b. excessive fat intake. c. deficiency of digestive enzymes. d. excessive sodium intake.

A

Viral hepatitis can be contracted through a. ingestion of contaminated food or water. b. airborne viruses from coughing and sneezing. c. physical contact with an infected person. d. alcohol abuse.

A

Which of the following describes general nutrition guidelines for a patient with a peptic ulcer? a. General, well-balanced diet as tolerated b. High-protein, low-fiber diet with no seasonings c. High-protein diet and regularly scheduled meals d. Low-fiber diet with no seasonings and no milk or cream

A

A patient is taking chemotherapy with a drug that has a high potential for causing nausea and vomiting. The nurse is preparing to administer an antiemetic drug. Which class of antiemetic drugs is most commonly used to prevent nausea and vomiting for patients receiving chemotherapy? a. Prokinetic drugs, such as metoclopramide (Reglan) b. Serotonin blockers, such as ondansetron (Zofran) c. Anticholinergic drugs, such as scopolamine d. Neuroleptic drugs, such as promethazine (Phenergan)

B

A patient on chemotherapy is using ondansetron (Zofran) for treatment of nausea. The nurse will instruct the patient to watch for which adverse effect of this drug? a. Dizziness b. Diarrhea c. Dry mouth d. Blurred vision

B

A nurse cares for a client who is prescribed patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) after a cholecystectomy. The client states, When I wake up I am in pain. Which action should the nurse take? a. Administer intravenous morphine while the client sleeps. b. Encourage the client to use the PCA pump upon awakening. c. Contact the provider and request a different analgesic. d. Ask a family member to initiate the PCA pump for the client.

B

A patient who has AIDS has lost weight and is easily fatigued because of his malnourished state. The nurse anticipates an order for which antinausea drug to stimulate his appetite? a. Metoclopramide (Reglan), a prokinetic drug b. Dronabinol (Marinol), a tetrahydrocannabinoid c. Ondansetron (Zofran), a serotonin blocker d. Aprepitant (Emend), a substance P/NK1 receptor antagonist

B

A patient who has been newly diagnosed with vertigo will be taking an antihistamine antiemetic drug. The nurse will include which information when teaching the patient about this drug? a. The patient may skip doses if the patient is feeling well. b. The patient will need to avoid driving because of possible drowsiness. c. The patient may experience occasional problems with taste. d. It is safe to take the medication with a glass of wine in the evening to help settle the stomach.

B

A patient with a history of alcohol abuse has been admitted for severe weakness and malnutrition. The nurse will prepare to administer which vitamin preparation to prevent Wernicke's encephalopathy? a. Vitamin B3 (niacin) b. Vitamin B1 (thiamine) c. Vitamin B6 (pyridoxine) d. Folic acid

B

A telehealth nurse speaks with a client who is recovering from a liver transplant 2 weeks ago. The client states, I am experiencing right flank pain and have a temperature of 101 F. How should the nurse respond? a. The anti-rejection drugs you are taking make you susceptible to infection. b. You should go to the hospital immediately to have your new liver checked out. c. You should take an additional dose of cyclosporine today. d. Take acetaminophen (Tylenol) every 4 hours until you feel better.

B

A woman has been receiving both radiation and chemotherapy for her cancer. Lately, she has developed anorexia caused by the treatments, so she needs short-term nutrition supplementation. The nurse anticipates that the physician will initiate which therapy? a. Central total parenteral nutrition b. Peripheral parenteral nutrition c. Oral nutritional supplements with meals d. Nasogastric enteral supplementation

B

After teaching a client who has been diagnosed with hepatitis A, the nurse assesses the clients understanding. Which statement by the client indicates a correct understanding of the teaching? a. Some medications have been known to cause hepatitis A. b. I may have been exposed when we ate shrimp last weekend. c. I was infected with hepatitis A through a recent blood transfusion. d. My infection with Epstein-Barr virus can co-infect me with hepatitis A.

B

After teaching a client who is recovering from laparoscopic cholecystectomy surgery, the nurse assesses the clients understanding. Which statement made by the client indicates a correct understanding of the teaching? a. Drinking at least 2 liters of water each day is suggested. b. I will decrease the amount of fatty foods in my diet. c. Drinking fluids with my meals will increase bloating. d. I will avoid concentrated sweets and simple carbohydrates.

B

An emergency room nurse assesses a client after a motor vehicle crash. The nurse notices a steering wheel mark across the clients chest. Which action should the nurse take? a. Ask the client where in the car he or she was sitting during the crash. b. Assess the client by gently palpating the abdomen for tenderness. c. Notify the laboratory to draw blood for blood type and crossmatch. d. Place the client on the stretcher in reverse Trendelenburg position.

B

The nurse is preparing a plan of care for a patient undergoing therapy with vitamin A. Which nursing diagnosis is appropriate for this patient? a. Impaired tissue integrity related to vitamin deficiency b. Risk for injury related to night blindness caused by vitamin deficiency c. Impaired physical mobility (muscle weakness) related to vitamin deficiency d. Acute confusion related to vitamin deficiency

B

The nurse is preparing to administer medications to a patient who is receiving a feeding via a gastric tube. When reviewing the patient's medication list, the nurse notes a potential concern about a food-drug interaction if which medication is listed? a. Multivitamin solution b. Phenytoin (Dilantin) c. Metoclopramide (Reglan) d. Warfarin (Coumadin)

B

A major difficulty in treating hepatitis is that a. the person must stay in isolation for a long time. b. the person can have only a clear liquid diet. c. the person usually has a poor appetite. d. typically only one kind of antibiotic will cure it.

C

A nurse assesses clients at a community health center. Which client is at highest risk for pancreatic cancer? a. A 32-year-old with hypothyroidism b. A 44-year-old with cholelithiasis c. A 50-year-old who has the BRCA2 gene mutation d. A 68-year-old who is of African-American ethnicity

C

A nurse prepares to assess the emotional state of a client with end-stage pancreatic cancer. Which action should the nurse take first? a. Bring the client to a quiet room for privacy. b. Pull up a chair and sit next to the clients bed. c. Determine whether the client feels like talking about his or her feelings. d. Review the health care providers notes about the prognosis for the client.

C

A patient with motion sickness is planning a cross-country car trip and has a new prescription for a scopolamine transdermal patch (Transderm-Scop). The nurse provides teaching for the use of this patch medication. The patient shows a correct understanding of the teaching with which statement? a. "I will change the patch every day." b. "I will change the patch every other day." c. "I will change the patch every 3 days." d. "I will remove the patch only if it stops working."

C

A woman who is in the first trimester of pregnancy has been experiencing severe morning sickness. She asks, "I've heard that ginger tablets may be a natural way to ease the nausea and vomiting. Is it okay to try them?" What is the nurse's best response? a. "They are a safe and natural remedy for nausea when you are pregnant." b. "Go ahead and try them, but stop taking them once the nausea is relieved." c. "Some health care providers do not recommend ginger during pregnancy. Let's check with your provider." d. "You will need to wait until after the first trimester to try them."

C

After teaching a client who has plans to travel to a non-industrialized country, the nurse assesses the clients understanding regarding the prevention of viral hepatitis. Which statement made by the client indicates a need for additional teaching? a. I should drink bottled water during my travels. b. I will not eat off anothers plate or share utensils. c. I should eat plenty of fresh fruits and vegetables. d. I will wash my hands frequently and thoroughly.

C

After teaching a client who is prescribed pancreatic enzyme replacement therapy, the nurse assesses the clients understanding. Which statement made by the client indicates a need for additional teaching? a. The capsules can be opened and the powder sprinkled on applesauce if needed. b. I will wipe my lips carefully after I drink the enzyme preparation. c. The best time to take the enzymes is immediately after I have a meal or a snack. d. I will not mix the enzyme powder with food or liquids that contain protein.

C

A patient accidentally took an overdose of the anticoagulant warfarin (Coumadin), and the nurse is preparing to administer vitamin K as an antidote. Which statement about vitamin K is accurate? a. The vitamin K dose will be given intramuscularly. b. The patient will take oral doses of vitamin K after the initial injection. c. The vitamin K cannot be given if the patient has renal disease. d. The patient will be unresponsive to warfarin therapy for 1 week after the vitamin K is given.

D

After teaching a client who has a history of cholelithiasis, the nurse assesses the clients understanding. Which menu selection made by the client indicates the client clearly understands the dietary teaching? a. Lasagna, tossed salad with Italian dressing, and low-fat milk b. Grilled cheese sandwich, tomato soup, and coffee with cream c. Cream of potato soup, Caesar salad with chicken, and a diet cola d. Roasted chicken breast, baked potato with chives, and orange juice

D

During the night shift, a patient's total parenteral nutrition (TPN) infusion ran out, and the nurse discovered that there was no TPN solution on hand to continue the infusion. The pharmacy is closed and will not reopen for 5 hours. The nurse will have to implement measures to prevent which consequence of abruptly discontinuing TPN infusions? a. Dehydration b. Hyperglycemia c. Dumping syndrome d. Rebound hypoglycemia

D

Nutrition therapy for hepatitis includes a diet that is _____ in protein, _____ in carbohydrate, and _____ in fat. a. high, high, high b. low, high, low c. low, low, high d. high, high, moderate

D

Nutrition therapy for the patient with cirrhosis includes a diet that is a. low in sodium, high in protein, and low in carbohydrates. b. soft textured and high in energy. c. high in protein, high in carbohydrates, and high in fat. d. adequate in calories, low in sodium, and soft textured.

D

The nurse is reviewing new postoperative orders and notes that the order reads, "Give hydroxyzine (Vistaril) 50 mg IV PRN nausea or vomiting." The patient is complaining of slight nausea. Which action by the nurse is correct at this time? a. Hold the dose until the patient complains of severe nausea. b. Give the dose orally instead of intravenously. c. Give the patient the IV dose of hydroxyzine as ordered. d. Call the prescriber to question the route that is ordered.

D

The nurse will prepare to give which preparation to a newborn upon arrival in the nursery after delivery? a. Vitamin B1 (thiamine) b. Vitamin D (calciferol) c. Folic acid d. Vitamin K (AquaMEPHYTON)

D


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