Exam 4 lecterio
After recognition of stroke symptoms, what is the therapeutic time frame for use of alteplase (tPA)? 6-8 hour window 4-6 hour window 1-4 hour window 1-6 hour window
2
Angiotensin II is 4-8 times as potent as which hormone? Angiotensin I Norepinephrine Angiotensinogen Insulin
2
In which scenario is warfarin contraindicated? Long-term treatment Emergencies Deep vein thrombosis Preventative treatment
2
What adverse effect can occur if a client has pulmonary issues and take a beta-adrenergic blocking agent? Hypoglycemia Bronchospasms Cardiac arrest Hypertension
2
What are antiplatelets primarily used for in blood clot treatment? An antidote for warfarin Arterial thrombosis An antidote for heparin Venous thrombosis
2
What is protamine sulfate primarily used for in blood clot treatment? Arterial thrombosis An antidote for heparin An antidote for warfarin Venous thrombosis
2
What is the target international normalized ratio (INR) range for clients diagnosed with a pulmonary embolism? 2.5-4.5 2.0-3.0 2.5-3.5 1.0-3.0
2
What type of angina pectoris is considered an emergency and caused by a thrombus? Variant angina Unstable angina Prinzmetal angina Chronic stable angina
2
What type of drug falls into the categories of both vasodilators and cardiac depressants? Thrombolytics Calcium channel blockers Beta blockers Nitrates
2
Which catecholamines do beta-adrenergic blocking agents inhibit? Testosterone and cortisol Norepinephrine and epinephrine Prolactin and insulin Adrenaline and progesterone
2
Which peptide hormone do angiotensin I and angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) build? Angiotensinogen II Angiotensin II ACE II Aldosterone II
2
Which type of medication can dissolve existing clots but also come with high risks? Anticoagulants Thrombolytics Meglitinides Antiplatelets
2
Within how many days of starting heparin can thrombocytopenia occur? 2-8 5-10 3-5 1-3
2
how does a beta blocker affect glycogenolysis? Temporarily speeds up glycogenolysis in the liver Тemporarily blocks glycogenolysis in the liver Permanently blocks glycogenolysis in the liver Permanently slows down glycogenolysis in the liver
2
A geriatric client has constipation after taking calcium channel blockers. What does the nurse do to improve the client's well-being? Select all that apply. Encourage the client to rest. Advise the client to increase their fiber intake. Support and encourage the client to move. Motivate the client to eat fresh fruits. Provide the client with high-carb meals.
2 3 4
For which condition would the use of warfarin be contraindicated? Select all that apply. Pulmonary embolism Pregnancy Current severe bleeding Uncontrolled hypertension Deep vein thrombosis
2 3 4
What are the common side effects of calcium channel blockers? Select all that apply Tremors Orthostatic hypotension Bradycardia Headache Diarrhea
2 3 4
Which medications increase a client's risk of bleeding? Select all that apply. Aminoglycosides Thrombolytics Anticoagulants Antiplatelets Antidysrhythmics
2 3 4
What are some of the key players in maintaining blood pressure? Select all that apply. Capillaries Medulla oblongata Arterioles Adrenal medulla Baroreceptors
2 3 4 5
When are beta-adrenergic blocking agents indicated? Select all that apply. For hypotension For angina For hypertension For cardiomyopathy For supraventricular arrhythmias
2 3 4 5
Which clinical findings could be indicative of excessive bleeding? Select all that apply. Dry cough and sweating Bleeding gums Drop in blood pressure Black, tarry stools Change in level of consciousness
2 3 4 5
Which calcium channel blockers will lower a client's heart rate? Select all that apply. Nimodipine Verapamil Nifedipine Diltiazem Felodipine
2 4
What are physiological responses to epinephrine? Select all that apply. Decrease in heart rate Uterine relaxation Decreased skeletal muscle contraction Dilation of skeletal muscle arterioles Bronchodilation
2 4 5
What are the common adverse effects of angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors? Select all that apply. Acute renal failure Elevated potassium Cardiac arrhythmia Cough Angioedema
2 4 5
For which action is angiotensin II responsible? Decrease of blood pressure Volume depletion Vasoconstriction Vasodilation
3
How do calcium channel blockers (CCBs) work? CCBs prevent calcium ions from crossing myocardial cell membranes and vascular smooth muscle cells, resulting in venous vasodilation and a lower heart rate. CCBs prevent calcium ions from crossing myocardial cell membranes and vascular smooth muscle cells, resulting in venous vasodilation and an increased heart rate. CCBs prevent calcium ions from crossing into myocardial cells and vascular smooth muscle cells resulting in arterial vasodilation and a lower heart rate. CCBs prevent calcium ions from crossing myocardial cell membranes and vascular smooth muscle cells, resulting in arterial vasodilation and an increased heart rate.
3
In which area of the body are antiplatelet medications primarily used for prevention of thrombosis? Veins Capillaries Arteries Organs
3
What adverse reaction can occur if beta-adrenergic blocking agents are discontinued abruptly? Impotence Bronchospasm Dysrhythmias Hypotension
3
What effect does a beta-adrenergic blocking agent have on the heart? Prevents dysrhythmias Increases heart rate Decreases heart rate Lowers the rate of adrenal gland secretions
3
What is the common suffix for angiotensin II receptor blockers (ARBs)? "-pril" "-phan" "-tan" "-tin"
3
What is the only thing eplerenone binds to? Sodium receptors Renin receptors Aldosterone receptors Angiotensin receptors
3
What is the role of beta-adrenergic receptors? Respond to hypertension within the circulatory system Respond to parasympathetic nervous system stimulation Respond to sympathetic nervous system stimulation Respond to hypotension within the circulatory system
3
What is the systolic mm Hg of a hypertensive crisis? Higher than 120 mm Hg 90 mm Hg or higher Higher than 180 mm Hg 140 mm Hg or higher
3
What is the therapeutic target for heparin? 40 seconds 40-60 seconds 60-80 seconds 20 seconds
3
Which peptide hormone do renin and circulating angiotensinogen build? Angiotensinogen II Angiotensinogen I Angiotensin I Angiotensin II
3
Which suffix is usually used for hypertension medications that are beta-adrenergic blockers? "-tan" "-pril" "-olol" "-pine"
3
What lab work is monitored when a client is taking anticoagulants, antiplatelets, and/or thrombolytics? Select all that apply. Blood urea nitrogen Aspartate aminotransferase (AST) Prothrombin time (PT) Partial thromboplastin time (PTT) Heparin anti-Xa level
3 4 5
Calcium channel blockers commonly end in which suffix? "-olol" "-pril" "-tan" "-pine"
4
The nurse assesses a client who is on spironolactone (potassium-sparing diuretic) daily, and the health care provider has just ordered captopril. Which action is the most important for the nurse to take? Educate the client to take the first dose at bedtime. Check the client's heart rate. Evaluate the client for a history of GI bleeding. Auscultate the client's lung sounds.
1
What are the most commonly prescribed calcium channel blockers? Diltiazem and verapamil Captopril and atenolol Atenolol and verapamil Diltiazem and captopril
1
What are thrombolytic medications used for? Emergency treatment to dissolve blood clots Preventative care for blood clots Conversion of plasmin into plasminogen Preventative care for strokes
1
What causes a thrombus? A rupture of plaque and platelet aggregation Dead myocardial tissue that ruptures Blood that fails to coagulate fast enough A complex form of a vasospasm
1
What is the role of renin in the body? Increase blood pressure Detoxify the liver Balance angiotensin I Lower blood pressure
1
What scenario might indicate that a beta-adrenergic blocking agent needs to be prescribed? Test anxiety Hypotension Hyperkalemia Epilepsy
1
What side effect of angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors can clients experience? Protein in their urine Protein in their bloodstream Protein in their muscles Protein in their stool
1
What typically causes cardiac chest pain? Inadequate supply of oxygen to the heart muscle Inadequate supply of sodium in the bloodstream Excess supply of sodium in the bloodstream Excess supply of oxygen to the heart muscle
1
Which medication is a vitamin K antagonist? Warfarin Bivalirudin Aspirin Fondaparinux
1
Which side effects of ACE inhibitors can you easily remember by using the abbreviation ACE? Angioedema, cough, and elevated potassium Angioedema, chills, and elevated potassium Angioedema, cough, and elevated sodium Angioedema, chills, and elevated sodium
1
Which suffix is commonly at the end of beta-blocker medications? "-olol" "-tan" "-pril" "-pine"
1
Why is reflex tachycardia a potential adverse effect of beta-adrenergic blocking agents? The medication affects the electrical conductivity of the heart. The medication reduces the client's blood volume. The medication reduces potassium levels. The medication causes a disruption in coronary blood flow.
1
When should calcium channel blockers be used? Select all that apply. As antiarrhythmics For long-term prevention of angina For hypertension For hypotension For thrombosis
1 2 3
What are the components of the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone-system (RAAS)? Select all that apply. Renin Angiotensin I Adenosine triphosphate (ATP) Angiotensin II Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE)
1 2 4 5
Which clotting factors are vitamin K dependent? Select all that apply. Factor X Factor IX Factor VIII Factor VII Prothrombin
1 2 4 5
What are the adverse effects associated with beta blockers? Select all that apply. Symptomatic bradycardia Constipation Hypertension AV heart block Reduced cardiac output
1 3 4
What is the intended response of beta-adrenergic blocking agents? Select all that apply. Reduced conduction velocity Increased conduction velocity Decreased heart rate Lower blood pressure Increased heart rate
1 3 4
What are the potential side effects of beta blockers? Select all that apply. Bronchospasms Hypertension Hypotension Nausea Impotence
1 3 4 5
What are the side effects of angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors? Select all that apply. Transient elevation in BUN Elevated protein in bloodstream Headache and fatigue Angioedema Dry, non-productive cough
1 3 4 5
What factors can affect the bioavailability of heparin? Select all that apply. Liver disease Gastrointestinal disease Kidney disease Heparin resistance Obesity
1 3 4 5
What types of drugs are considered antianginal agents? Select all that apply. Calcium channel blockers Thrombolytics Organic nitrates Ranolazine Beta blockers
1 3 4 5
Which non-cardiovascular conditions are indicated for taking beta-adrenergic blocking agents? Select all that apply. For anxiety For attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder For open-angle glaucoma For essential tremors For migraine headaches
1 3 4 5
hat are the clinical findings associated with dangerous complications of thrombolytic medications? Select all that apply. Hypotension and tachycardia Increase in urination Hematemesis Shortness of breath and angina Change in level of consciousness
1 3 4 5
n what forms is cardiac chest pain expressed in clients? Select all that apply. Shortness of breath Manic behaviors Dizziness or weakness Nausea or vomiting Cold sweats
1 3 4 5
For which scenarios is the prescription of angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) Inhibitors indicated? Select all that apply. Diabetic retinopathy Treatment of hypotension Right ventricular systolic failure Acute myocardial infarction Treatment of hypertension
1 4 5
What are the characteristics of direct renin inhibitors? Select all that apply. Should not be used during pregnancy Does not suppress the RAAS from step 1 Should not be used to reduce blood pressure Hyperkalemia may be a problem if used with ACE inhibitors Less cough and angioedema than ACE inhibitors
1 4 5
The nurse assesses a client who is on spironolactone (potassium-sparing diuretic) daily, and the health care provider has just ordered captopril. Why is it most important to educate the client about taking the first dose at bedtime? Taking captopril when one is already taking a diuretic increases the risk of extreme fatigue and drowsiness. Taking captopril when one is already taking a diuretic increases the risk of severe hypoglycemia. Taking captopril when one is already taking a diuretic increases the risk of unexpected hypertension. Taking captopril when one is already taking a diuretic increases the risk of orthostatic hypotension.
4
What are the physiological effects of beta blockers? Block the activation of beta-adrenergic receptors and catalyze the action of catecholamines Stimulate the activation of beta-adrenergic receptors and catalyze the action of catecholamines Stimulate the activation of beta-adrenergic receptors and inhibit the action of catecholamines Block the activation of beta-adrenergic receptors and inhibit the action of catecholamines
4
What condition do beta-adrenergic blocking agents treat? Low blood pressure High blood sugar Low blood sugar High blood pressure
4
What effect do epinephrine and norepinephrine have on the sinoatrial (SA) node? Causes irregular heartbeats Lowers heart rate Increases systolic blood pressure Increases heart rate
4
What is the action of sympatholytic medications? They slow down the sympathetic nervous system. They jumpstart the sympathetic nervous system. They cause an increase in blood pressure and heart rate. They work against the sympathetic nervous system.
4
What is the correct route to administer enoxaparin? Intravenously Orally Topically Subcutaneously
4
What is the systolic range of high blood pressure (hypertension) stage 1? 120-129 mm Hg 140 mm Hg or higher Higher than 180 mm Hg 130-139 mm Hg
4
What is the target international normalized ratio (INR) range for clients with a prosthetic aortic heart valve? 1.0-3.0 2.5-4.5 2.0-3.0 2.5-3.5
4
What term is used when the heart is perfused with oxygenated blood? Systolic pressure Antagonism Vasodilation Diastolic pressure
4
What type of blood clot initiates the clotting cascade? Arterial blood clot Cardiac blood clot Cerebral blood clot Venous blood clot
4
When is losartan indicated? Thrombocytopenia Atrial fibrillation Diabetic autonomic neuropathy Diabetic nephropathy Pulmonary embolism
4
Which hormone is responsible for volume expansion in high blood pressure? Angiotensin II Adrenaline Angiotensinogen Aldosterone
4
Which medication decreases every other product in the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system (RAAS) after renin? Angiotensin II receptor blocker ACE inhibitor Aldosterone receptor antagonist Direct renin inhibitor
4
Which type of medication disrupts the clotting cascade, causing a reduction of fibrin? Meglitinides Antiplatelets Thrombolytics Anticoagulants
4
What are the therapeutic uses of clopidogrel? Select all that apply. Treating ischemic strokes and transient ischemic attacks (TIA) Treating a pulmonary embolism Preventing myocardial infarction and angina Reducing thrombotic events such as MI, stroke, or established peripheral arterial disease Keeping coronary stents open
4 5
