exam 4 pre u
A student nurse is preparing a plan of care for a client with chronic pancreatitis. What nursing diagnosis related to the care of a client with chronic pancreatitis is the priority?
Impaired nutrition: less than body requirements Explanation: While each diagnosis may be applicable to this client, the priority nursing diagnosis is impaired nutrition: less than body requirements. The physician, nurse, and dietitian emphasize to the client and family the importance of avoiding alcohol and foods that have produced abdominal pain and discomfort in the past. Oral food or fluid intake is not permitted during the acute phase.
A nurse is caring for a client with syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion (SIADH). Which finding would indicate that the client has developed fluid overload?
dyspnea and hypertension Explanation: Signs of fluid overload would include confusion, dyspnea, pulmonary congestion, and hypertension. Muscle cramps, diarrhea, and weight gain without edema would be indicative of hyponatremia.
A nurse is caring for a client who was recently diagnosed with hyperparathyroidism. Which statement by the client indicates the need for additional discharge teaching?
"I will increase my fluid and calcium intake." Explanation: The client requires additional teaching if he states that he will increase his calcium intake. Hyperparathyroidism causes extreme increases in serum calcium levels. The client should increase his fluid intake, but he should limit his calcium and vitamin D intake. The client should continue to take pain mediations as scheduled and have regular follow-up visits with his physician. Tingling around the lips is a sign of hypercalcemia and should be reported to the physician immediately.
A client has been admitted to the critical care unit with a diagnosis of thyroid storm. What interventions should the nurse include in this client's immediate care? Select all that apply.
Administering beta blockers to reduce heart rate Applying interventions to reduce the client's temperature Explanation: Thyroid storm necessitates interventions to reduce heart rate and temperature. Diuretics, insulin, and steroids are not indicated to address the manifestations of this health problem.
What intervention does the nurse anticipate providing for the patient with ascites that will help correct the decrease in effective arterial blood volume that leads to sodium retention?
Albumin infusion Explanation: Albumin infusions help to correct decreases in effective arterial blood volume that lead to sodium retention. The use of this colloid reduces the incidence of postparacentesis circulatory dysfunction with renal dysfunction, hyponatremia, and rapid reaccumulation of ascites associated with decreased effective arterial volume.
Exercise lowers blood glucose levels. Which of the following are the physiologic reasons that explain this statement. Select all that apply.
Increases lean muscle mass Increases resting metabolic rate as muscle size increases Decreases total cholesterol Increases glucose uptake by body muscles Explanation: All of the options are benefits of exercise except the effect of decreasing the levels of HDL. Exercise increases the levels of HDL.
When preparing teaching plan for a client with an endocrine disorder, the nurse includes information about hormone regulation. Which of the following would the nurse include?
Most disorders result from over- or underproduction of the hormone. Explanation: Most endocrine disorders result from an overproduction or underproduction of specific hormones. A negative feedback loop controls hormone levels, such that a decrease in levels stimulates the releasing gland. Glandular enlargement is not involved with hormonal regulation
A patient who had a recent myocardial infarction was brought to the emergency department with bleeding esophageal varices and is presently receiving fluid resuscitation. What first-line pharmacologic therapy does the nurse anticipate administering to control the bleeding from the varices?
Octreotide (Sandostatin) Explanation: Octreotide (Sandostatin), a synthetic analogue of the hormone somatostatin, is effective in decreasing bleeding from esophageal varices, and lacks the vasoconstrictive effects of vasopressin. Because of this safety and efficacy profile, octreotide is considered the preferred treatment regimen for immediate control of variceal bleeding.
Which of the following endocrine disorder causes the patient to have dilutional hyponatremia
Syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion (SIADH) Explanation: Patients diagnosed with SIADH retain water and develop a subsequent sodium deficiency known as dilutional hyponatremia. In DI, there is excessive thirst and large volumes of dilute urine. Patients with DI, hypothyroidism, or hyperthyroidism do not exhibit dilutional hyponatremia
A patient with acute pancreatitis puts the call bell on to tell the nurse about an increase in pain. The nurse observes the patient guarding; the abdomen is boardlike and no bowel sounds are detected. What is the major concern for this patient?
The patient has developed peritonitis. Explanation: Abdominal guarding is present. A rigid or boardlike abdomen may develop and is generally an ominous sign, usually indicating peritonitis (Privette et al., 2011).
Which group of clients should not receive potassium iodide?
Those who are allergic to seafood Explanation: Potassium iodide should not be administered to anyone who is allergic to seafood, which is also high in iodine. Clients who take corticosteroids or cough medicines and those who are pregnant would be appropriate candidates for potassium iodide therapy.
A physician has ordered a liver biopsy for a client with cirrhosis whose condition has recently deteriorated. The nurse reviews the client's recent laboratory findings and recognizes that the client is at risk for complications due to:
low platelet count. Explanation: Prolonged prothrombin time (PT) and low platelet count place the client at high risk for hemorrhage. The client may receive intravenous (IV) administration of vitamin K or infusions of platelets before liver biopsy to reduce the risk of bleeding.
A client is undergoing diagnostics for an alteration in thyroid function. What physiologic function is affected by altered thyroid function? You Selected:
metabolic rate Explanation: The thyroid concentrates iodine from food and uses it to synthesize thyroxine (T4) and triiodothyronine (T3). These two hormones regulate the body's metabolic rate.
A student accepted into a nursing program must begin receiving the hepatitis B series of injections. The student asks when the next two injections should be administered. What is the best response by the instructor?
"You must have the second one in 1 month and the third in 6 months." Explanation: Both forms of the hepatitis B vaccine are administered intramuscularly in three doses; the second and third doses are given 1 and 6 months, respectively, after the first dose.
A client with acromegaly is complaining of severe headaches. What does the nurse suspect is the cause of the headaches that is related to the acromegaly?
A pituitary tumor Explanation: When the overgrowth is from a tumor, headaches caused by pressure on the sella turcica, a bony depression in which the pituitary gland rests, are common. There is actually an increase in the secretion of the growth hormone. The headaches would not be caused by decreases in glucose levels. The client does not have cerebral edema.
A client is evaluated for severe pain in the right upper abdominal quadrant, which is accompanied by nausea and vomiting. The physician diagnoses acute cholecystitis and cholelithiasis. For this client, which nursing diagnosis takes top priority?
Acute pain related to biliary spasms Explanation: The chief symptom of cholecystitis is abdominal pain or biliary colic. Typically, the pain is so severe that the client is restless and changes positions frequently to find relief. Therefore, the nursing diagnosis of Acute pain related to biliary spasms takes highest priority. Until the acute pain is relieved, the client can't learn about prevention, may continue to experience anxiety, and can't address nutritional concerns.
The nurse is assisting the physician with a procedure to remove ascitic fluid from a client with cirrhosis. What procedure does the nurse ensure the client understands will be performed?
Abdominal paracentesis Explanation: Abdominal paracentesis may be performed to remove ascitic fluid. Abdominal fluid is rapidly removed by careful introduction of a needle through the abdominal wall, allowing the fluid to drain. Fluid is removed from the lung via a thoracentesis. Fluid cannot be removed with an abdominal CT scan, but it can assist with placement of the needle. Fluid cannot be removed via an upper endoscopy.
Before discharge, what should a nurse instruct a client with Addison's disease to do when exposed to periods of stress?
Administer hydrocortisone I.M. Explanation: Clients with Addison's disease and their family members should know how to administer I.M. hydrocortisone during periods of stress. Although it's important for the client to keep well hydrated during stress, the critical component in this situation is to know how and when to use I.M. hydrocortisone. Capillary blood glucose monitoring isn't indicated in this situation because the client doesn't have diabetes mellitus. Hydrocortisone replacement doesn't cause insulin resistance.
Trousseau's sign is elicited by which of the following?
Carpopedal spasm is induced by occluding the blood flow to the arm for 3 minutes with the use of a blood pressure cuff. Explanation: A positive Trousseau's sign is suggestive of latent tetany. A positive Chvostek's sign is demonstrated when a sharp tapping over the facial nerve just in front of the parotid gland and anterior to the ear causes spasm or twitching of the mouth, nose, and eye. A positive Allen's test is demonstrated by the palm remaining blanched with the radial artery occluded. The radial artery should not be used for an arterial puncture. A positive Homans' sign is demonstrated when the patient complains of pain in the calf when his foot is dorsiflexed.
What is the term for a rhythmic contraction of a muscle?
Clonus Explanation: Clonus is a rhythmic contraction of the muscle. Atrophy is a shrinkagelike decrease in the size of a muscle. Hypertrophy is an increase in the size of a muscle. Crepitus is a grating or crackling sound or sensation that may occur with movement of ends of a broken bone or irregular joint surface
Which diagnostic test is done to determine a suspected pituitary tumor?
Computed tomography Explanation: CT or magnetic resonance imaging is used to diagnose the presence and extent of pituitary tumors.
A client with cirrhosis has been referred to hospice care. Assessment data reveal a need to discuss nutrition with the client. What is the nurse's priority intervention?
Discuss meals that include low-fat high-carbohydrate content. Explanation: In cirrhosis, the liver's metabolic function is compromised, increasing the client's need for carbohydrates and other energy sources for cellular metabolism. The nurse should limit the client's fat intake to prevent satiation and should restrict protein intake because a cirrhotic liver can't metabolize protein effectively. A client with cirrhosis may have increased edema as a result of reduced plasma albumin, so he should restrict fluid intake rather than drink 64 oz of water daily. Increasing fiber intake isn't a priority intervention for a client with cirrhosis. A client with cirrhosis doesn't need to eliminate caffeine from his diet.
A client is admitted to the healthcare facility suspected of having acute pancreatitis and undergoes laboratory testing. Which of the following would the nurse expect to find?
Elevated urine amylase levels Explanation: Elevated serum and urine amylase, lipase, and liver enzyme levels accompany significant pancreatitis. If the common bile duct is obstructed, the bilirubin level is above normal. Blood glucose levels and white blood cell counts can be elevated. Serum electrolyte levels (calcium, potassium, and magnesium) are low.
A client with Addison's disease has a blood glucose level above 80 mg/dL 30 minutes after receiving 15 g of carbohydrates for symptoms of hypoglycemia. Which of the following would the nurse do now?
Give the client milk and graham crackers. Explanation: Milk and graham crackers contain forms of carbohydrates that take longer to absorb and tend to maintain the blood glucose level for an extended period. The physician should be informed if the client continues to be symptomatic and the blood glucose level is below 80 mg/dL. Maintaining bed rest protects the client from injuries from a fall but does not address the blood glucose issue. Assessing the client's blood glucose level provides a numeric assessment of the blood glucose level and would be performed in an ongoing fashion.
A client has an elevated serum ammonia concentration and is exhibiting changes in mental status. The nurse should suspect which condition?
Hepatic encephalopathy Explanation: Hepatic encephalopathy is a central nervous system dysfunction resulting from liver disease. It is frequently associated with an elevated ammonia concentration that produces changes in mental status, altered level of consciousness, and coma. Portal hypertension is an elevated pressure in the portal circulation resulting from obstruction of venous flow into and through the liver. Asterixis is an involuntary flapping movement of the hands associated with metabolic liver dysfunction.
The patient admitted with acute pancreatitis has passed the acute stage and is now able to tolerate solid foods. What type of diet will increase caloric intake without stimulating pancreatic enzymes beyond the ability of the pancreas to respond?
High-carbohydrate, low-protein, low-fat diet Explanation: The nurse should provide a high-carbohydrate, low-protein, low-fat diet when tolerated. These foods increase caloric intake without stimulating pancreatic secretions beyond the ability of the pancreas to respond.
A nurse cares for a client with a disorder of the endocrine function of the pancreas. Which hormones or enzymes may be impacted by this disorder? Select all that apply
Insulin Glucagon Somatostatin Explanation: Insulin, glucagon, and somatostatin are hormones released by the endocrine function of the pancreas. An impairment impacting endocrine function will impact all of these hormones. Lipase and amylase are enzymes released by the exocrine function of the pancreas and are not directly impacted by endocrine function.
A physician orders spironolactone (Aldactone), 50 mg by mouth four times daily, for a client with fluid retention caused by cirrhosis. Which finding indicates that the drug is producing a therapeutic effect?
Loss of 2.2 lb (1 kg) in 24 hours Explanation: Daily weight measurement is the most accurate indicator of fluid status; a loss of 2.2 lb (1 kg) indicates loss of 1 L of fluid. Because spironolactone is a diuretic, weight loss is the best indicator of its effectiveness. This client's serum potassium and sodium levels are normal. A blood pH of 7.25 indicates acidosis, an adverse reaction to spironolactone.
When performing a physical examination on a client with cirrhosis, a nurse notices that the client's abdomen is enlarged. Which of the following interventions should the nurse consider?
Measure abdominal girth according to a set routine. Explanation: If the abdomen appears enlarged, the nurse measures it according to a set routine. The nurse reports any change in mental status or signs of gastrointestinal bleeding immediately. It is not essential for the client to take laxatives unless prescribed. The client's food intake does not affect the size of the abdomen in case of cirrhosis.
Which of the following the are early manifestations of liver cancer? Select all that apply.
Pain Continuous aching in the back Explanation: Early manifestations of liver cancer include pain and continuous dull aching in the right upper quadrant epigastrium or back. Weight loss, anorexia, and anemia may occur. Jaundice is present only if the larger bile ducts are occluded by the pressure of malignant nodules in the hilum of the liver. Fever and vomiting are not associated manifestations.
Which glands regulate calcium and phosphorous metabolism?
Parathyroid Explanation: Parathormone (parathyroid hormone), the protein hormone produced by the parathyroid glands, regulates calcium and phosphorous metabolism. The thyroid gland controls cellular metabolic activity. The adrenal medulla at the center of the adrenal gland secretes catecholamines, and the outer portion of the gland, the adrenal cortex, secretes steroid hormones. The pituitary gland secretes hormones that control the secretion of additional hormones by other endocrine glands.
A client has a dysfunction in one of his glands that is causing a decrease in the level of calcium in the blood. What gland should be evaluated for dysfunction?
Parathyroid gland Explanation: The parathyroids secrete parathormone, which increases the level of calcium in the blood when there is a decrease in the serum level. The thyroid, thymus, and adrenal gland do not secrete calcium.
A client with cirrhosis has portal hypertension, which is causing esophageal varices. What is the goal of the interventions that the nurse will provide?
Reduce fluid accumulation and venous pressure. Explanation: Methods of treating portal hypertension aim to reduce fluid accumulation and venous pressure. There is no cure for cirrhosis; treating the esophageal varices is only a small portion of the overall objective. Promoting optimal neurologic function will not reduce portal hypertension.
A client with type 2 diabetes has been managing his blood glucose levels using diet and metformin. Following an ordered increase in the client's daily dose of metformin, the nurse should prioritize which of the following assessments?
Reviewing the client's creatinine and BUN levels Explanation: Metformin has the potential to be nephrotoxic; consequently, the nurse should monitor the client's kidney function. This drug does not typically affect clients' neutrophils, liver function, or cognition.
A patient is prescribed Sandostatin for the treatment of esophageal varices. The nurse knows that the purpose of this cyclic octapeptide is to reduce portal pressure by:
Selective vasodilation of the portal system. Explanation: Sandostatin slows the flow of blood (via vasodilation) from internal organs to the portal system, thus reducing pressure. The other choices are actions of different drugs used for the treatment of esophageal varices. Refer to Table 25-1 in the text.
A client comes to the ED with severe abdominal pain, nausea, and vomiting. The physician plans to rule out acute pancreatitis. The nurse would expect the diagnosis to be confirmed by an elevated result on which laboratory test?
Serum amylase Explanation: Serum amylase and lipase concentrations are used to make the diagnosis of acute pancreatitis. Serum amylase and lipase concentrations are elevated within 24 hours of the onset of symptoms. Serum amylase usually returns to normal within 48 to 72 hours, but the serum lipase concentration may remain elevated for a longer period, often days longer than amylase. Urinary amylase concentrations also become elevated and remain elevated longer than serum amylase concentrations.
A patient is diagnosed with gallstones in the bile ducts. What laboratory results should the nurse review?
Serum bilirubin level greater than 1.0 mg/dL Explanation: If the flow of bile is impeded (e.g., by gallstones in the bile ducts), bilirubin does not enter the intestine. As a result, blood levels of bilirubin increase.
The nurse should assess for an important early indicator of acute pancreatitis. What prolonged and elevated level would the nurse determine is an early indicator?
Serum lipase Explanation: Serum amylase and lipase levels are used in making the diagnosis of acute pancreatitis, although their elevation can be attributed to many other causes (Feldman et al., 2010). In most cases, serum amylase and lipase levels are elevated within 24 hours of the onset of the symptoms. Serum amylase usually returns to normal within 48 to 72 hours, but serum lipase levels may remain elevated for a longer period, often days longer than amylase.
Ammonia, the major etiologic factor in the development of encephalopathy, inhibits neurotransmission. Increased levels of ammonia are damaging to the body. The largest source of ammonia is from:
The digestion of dietary and blood proteins. Explanation: Circumstances that increase serum ammonia levels tend to aggravate or precipitate hepatic encephalopathy. The largest source of ammonia is the enzymatic and bacterial digestion of dietary and blood proteins in the GI tract. Ammonia from these sources increases as a result of GI bleeding (ie, bleeding esophageal varices, chronic GI bleeding), a high-protein diet, bacterial infection, or uremia.
A nurse practitioner treating a patient who is diagnosed with hepatitis A should provide health care information. Which of the following statements are correct for this disorder? Select all that apply.
There is a 70% chance that jaundice will occur. Transmission of the virus is possible with oral-anal contact during sex. Typically there is a spontaneous recovery. Explanation: The incubation period for hepatitis A is 15 to 50 days, with an average of 28 days. The risk of cirrhosis occurs with hepatitis B.
A patient is admitted to the hospital with possible cholelithiasis. What diagnostic test of choice will the nurse prepare the patient for?
Ultrasonography Explanation: Ultrasonography has replaced cholecystography (discussed later) as the diagnostic procedure of choice because it is rapid and accurate and can be used in patients with liver dysfunction and jaundice. It does not expose patients to ionizing radiation.
Which findings should a nurse expect to assess in client with Hashimoto's thyroiditis?
Weight gain, decreased appetite, and constipation Explanation: Hashimoto's thyroiditis, an autoimmune disorder, is the most common cause of hypothyroidism. It's seen most frequently in women older than age 40. Signs and symptoms include weight gain, decreased appetite; constipation; lethargy; dry cool skin; brittle nails; coarse hair; muscle cramps; weakness; and sleep apnea. Weight loss, increased appetite, and hyperdefecation are characteristic of hyperthyroidism. Weight loss, increased urination, and increased thirst are characteristic of uncontrolled diabetes mellitus. Weight gain, increased urination, and purplish-red striae are characteristic of hypercortisolism.
A client is admitted for suspected GI disease. Assessment data reveal muscle wasting, a decrease in chest and axillary hair, and increased bleeding tendency. The nurse suspects the client has:
cirrhosis. Explanation: Muscle wasting, a decrease in chest and axillary hair, and increased bleeding tendencies are all symptoms of cirrhosis. The client may also have mild fever, edema, abdominal pain, and an enlarged liver. Clients with peptic ulcer disease complain of a dull, gnawing epigastric pain that's relieved by eating. Appendicitis is characterized by a periumbilical pain that moves to the right lower quadrant and rebound tenderness. Cholelithiasis is characterized by severe abdominal pain that presents several hours after a large meal.
After being in remission from Hodgkin's disease for 18 months, a client develops a fever of unknown origin. The physician orders a blind liver biopsy to rule out advancing Hodgkin's disease and infection. Twenty-four hours after the biopsy, the client has a fever, complains of severe abdominal pain, and seems increasingly confused. The nurse suspects that these findings result from:
perforation of the colon caused by the liver biopsy. Explanation: After any invasive procedure, the nurse must stay alert for complications in the affected region — in this case, the abdomen. This client exhibits classic signs and symptoms of a perforated colon — severe abdominal pain, fever, and a decreasing level of consciousness. After detecting these findings, the nurse must notify the physician immediately — the client is experiencing a medical emergency and requires abdominal surgery and bowel resection. There is no reason to suspect bleeding resulting from the liver biopsy, although this condition must be ruled out. Bleeding would cause hypotension and signs of decreasing perfusion to major organs, not severe pain. Liver biopsy doesn't involve the use of contrast media.
A client who has worked for a company that produces paint and varnishing compounds for 24 years is visiting the clinic reporting chronic fatigue, dyspepsia, diarrhea, and a recently developing yellowing of the skin and sclera. The client reports clay-colored stools and frequent nosebleeds. Which type of cirrhosis is the likely cause of the client's symptoms?
postnecrotic Explanation: Postnecrotic cirrhosis results from destruction of liver cells secondary to infection (e.g., hepatitis), metabolic liver disease, or exposure to hepatotoxins or industrial chemicals. Alcoholic cirrhosis develops as a consequence of long-term alcohol abuse. Respiratory cirrhosis is not a type of cirrhosis. Biliary cirrhosis is less common than other types and is associated with scarring in the bile ducts.
A nurse in the surgical ICU just received a client from recovery following a Whipple procedure. Which nursing diagnoses should the nurse consider when caring for this acutely ill client? Select all that apply.
potential for infection acute pain and discomfort alterations in respiratory function Explanation: Monitor for potential for infection related to invasive procedure and poor physical condition. Monitor for pain related to extensive surgical incision. Monitor for alterations in respiratory function related to extensive surgical incisions, immobility, and prolonged anesthesia. Client is at risk for fluid volume deficit related to hemorrhage and loss of fluids.
A client who was recently diagnosed with carcinoma of the pancreas and is having a procedure in which the head of the pancreas is removed. In addition, the surgeon will remove the duodenum and stomach, redirecting the flow of secretions from the stomach, gallbladder, and pancreas into the middle section of the small intestine. What procedure is this client having performed?
radical pancreatoduodenectomy Explanation: Radical pancreatoduodenectomy involves removing the head of the pancreas, resecting the duodenum and stomach, and redirecting the flow of secretions from the stomach, gallbladder, and pancreas into the jejunum. Cholecystojejunostomy is a rerouting of the pancreatic and biliary drainage systems, which may be done to relieve obstructive jaundice. This measure is considered palliative only. A pancreatectomy is the surgical removal of the pancreas. A pancreatectomy may be total, in which case the entire organ is removed, usually along with the spleen, gallbladder, common bile duct, and portions of the small intestine and stomach. A distal pancreatectomy is a surgical procedure to remove the bottom half of the pancreas.
A client with acute liver failure exhibits confusion, a declining level of consciousness, and slowed respirations. The nurse finds him very difficult to arouse. The diagnostic information which best explains the client's behavior is:
subnormal serum glucose and elevated serum ammonia levels. Explanation: In acute liver failure, serum ammonia levels increase because the liver can't adequately detoxify the ammonia produced in the GI tract. In addition, serum glucose levels decline because the liver isn't capable of releasing stored glucose. Elevated serum ammonia and subnormal serum glucose levels depress the level of a client's consciousness. Elevated liver enzymes, low serum protein level, subnormal clotting factors and platelet count, elevated blood urea nitrogen and creatine levels, and hyperglycemia aren't as directly related to the client's level of consciousness.
The nurse is performing a neurovascular assessment of a client's injured extremity. Which would the nurse report?
Dusky or mottled skin color Explanation: Normally, skin color would be similar to the color in other body areas. Pale or dusky skin color indicates an abnormality that needs to be reported. Presence of pulses, capillary refill of 3 seconds, and warm skin are normal findings.
A client is given a diagnosis of hepatic cirrhosis. The client asks the nurse what findings led to this determination. Which of the following clinical manifestations would the nurse correctly identify? Select all that apply.
Enlarged liver size Ascites Hemorrhoids Explanation: Early in the course of cirrhosis, the liver tends to be large, and the cells are loaded with fat. The liver is firm and has a sharp edge that is noticeable on palpation. Portal obstruction and ascites, late manifestations of cirrhosis, are caused partly by chronic failure of liver function and partly by obstruction of the portal circulation. The obstruction to blood flow through the liver caused by fibrotic changes also results in the formation of collateral blood vessels in the GI system and shunting of blood from the portal vessels into blood vessels with lower pressures. These distended blood vessels form varices or hemorrhoids, depending on their location. Because of inadequate formation, use, and storage of certain vitamins (notably vitamins A, C, and K), signs of deficiency are common, particularly hemorrhagic phenomena associated with vitamin K deficiency. Additional clinical manifestations include deterioration of mental and cognitive function with impending hepatic encephalopathy and hepatic coma, as previously described.
A client is scheduled for a cholecystogram for later in the day. What is the nurse's understanding on the diagnostic use of this exam?
It visualizes the gallbladder and bile duct. Explanation: The cholecystogram is a diagnostic imaging test used to visualize the gallbladder and bile duct. The celiac axis arteriography visualizes the liver and pancreas. Ultrasonography shows the sizes of the abdominal organs and detects any masses. The endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP) visualizes the biliary structures and pancreas via endoscopy.
A patient comes to the clinic and informs the nurse of numbness, tingling, and a burning sensation in the arm from the elbow down to the fingers. What type of symptom would this be documented as?
Paresthesia Explanation: Sensory disturbances are frequently associated with musculoskeletal problems. The patient may describe paresthesias, which are sensations of burning, tingling, or numbness. These sensations may be caused by pressure on nerves or by circulatory impairment.
During an assessment of a patient with SIADH, the nurse notes the unexpected result of:
Pitting edema in the lower extremities. Explanation: In SIADH, the patient does not appear to retain fluids because reabsorbed water is intracellular rather than interstitial
Which of the following agents suppress release of thyroid hormones? Select all that apply.
Sodium iodide Potassium iodide Dexamethasone Saturated solution of potassium iodide (SSKI) Explanation: Sodium iodide, potassium iodide, dexamethasone, and SSKI suppress the release of thyroid hormones. Methimazole blocks the synthesis of thyroid hormone.
Which of the following is the most effective strategy to prevent hepatitis B infection?
Vaccine Explanation: The most effective strategy to prevent hepatitis B infection is through vaccination. Recommendations to prevent transmission of hepatitis B include vaccination of sexual contacts of individuals with chronic hepatitis, use of barrier protection during sexual intercourse, avoidance of sharing toothbrushes, razors with others, and covering open sores or skin lesions.