exam doc. 1

A cross dresser who only gets aroused when wearing women's clothing would be diagnosed with: a. Transvestic fetishism b. Exhibitionism c. Transvestism d. Gender identity disorder

A-- According to DSM-IV, Transvetic Fetishism is diagnosed when a heterosexual male has recurrent intense sexually arousing fantasies, sexual urges, or behaviors involving cross dressing. (B) Exhibitionism, involves the exposing of one's genitals to an unsuspecting stranger (C) Transvestism is not a DSM-IV term (D) Gender identity disorder includes a strong and persistent cross-gender identification with evidence of clinically significant distress or impairment in social, occupational, or other areas of functioning.

According to current research, the best predictor(s) for alcoholism would be a. family history of alcoholism. b. environmental stresses and opportunities for observational learning. c. interpersonal pressure and identifications. d. age and SES.

A-- If you wanted to find the best single predictor, you'd find out about alcoholism in the natural relatives of the patient. Even if the person is adopted away from the natural parents, the genetic connection is still the strongest one we have. So, when doing an initial assessment, you could ask about alcohol/drug abuse among family members. By the way, a good guess in answering any question structured as "the best predictor of (some disorder)" is "family history of that disorder." You won't be right 100% of the time, but you will be the majority of the time.

All of the following statements regarding item response theory are true, except a. it cannot be applied in the attempt to develop culture-fair tests. b. it's a useful theory in the development of computer programs designed to create tests tailored to the individual's level of ability. c. one of its assumptions is that test items measure a "latent trait." d. it usually has little practical significance unless one is working with very large samples.

A-- Item response theory is a highly technical mathematical approach to item analysis. Use of item analysis is based on a number of complex mathematical assumptions. One of these assumptions, known as invariance of item parameters, holds that the characteristics of items should be the same for all theoretically equivalent groups of subjects chosen from the same population. Thus, any culture-free test should demonstrate such invariance; i.e., a set of items shouldn't have a different set of characteristics for minority and non-minority subgroups. For this reason, item response theory has been applied to the development of culture-free tests, and choice A is not a true statement.The other choices are all true statements about item response theory, and therefore incorrect answers to this question. Consistent with choice B, item response theory is the theoretical basis of computer adaptive assessment, in which tests tailored to the examinee's ability level are computer generated. As stated by choice C, an assumption of item response theory is that items measure a latent trait, such as intelligence or general ability. And, finally, research supports the notion that the assumptions of item response theory only hold true for very large samples (choice D).

An adolescent's behavior is motivated primarily by her needs for power and attention. Her problems would probably be best addressed by a therapist adopting the approach of: a. Adler. b. Ellis. c. Perls. d. Freud.

A-- Probably the best way to approach this question is to see if the notions of power and attention are linked to any of the people listed in the responses. For Adlerians, a desire to belong is a primary motivator of behavior, but this desire may be channeled into the mistaken goals of power, attention, inadequacy, or revenge.

According to Self Verification Theory, a person who believes that he dances poorly would prefer to be told by friends: a. "You are a pretty bad dancer" b. "You are not a bad dancer" c. "You should become a professional dancer" d. nothing about dancing

A-- Self Verification theory proposes that people need and seek confirmation of their self-concept, regardless of whether their self-concept is positive or negative. Thus, people prefer to be right rather than happy. According to this theory, a person who dances poorly would prefer to be told so (assuming the other's evaluation matches the person's self evaluation).

A patient suffers damage to the spinal cord severe enough to cause numbness and tingling. However, the spinal cord is not severed. The patient is most likely experiencing: a. paresis. b. hemiplegia. c. quadriplegia. d. paraplegia.

A-- The term "paresis" means partial paralysis. Paresis can occur as a result of an injury to the spinal cord that does not result in its severation. If the spinal cord is severed, the result could be paraplegia (paralysis of the lower limbs), quadriplegia (paralysis of all four limbs), or hemiplegia (paralysis of one side of the body), depending on the location of the lesion. Note that the term paresis (or "general paresis") has been used to describe a syphilis-caused syndrome characterized by inflammation of cerebral tissue and mental and physical deterioration. However, the term's literal meaning is partial paralysis, and this is how it is often used as well.

A child is reinforced for cleaning up her room and for doing homework. Reinforcement for the homework is stopped. One could predict that cleaning up will: a. increase and doing homework will decrease. b. decrease and doing homework will also decrease. c. increase and doing homework will increase. d. decrease and doing homework will increase.

A-- This question has to do with the behavioral contrast effect. If we are reinforced for performing two different operants, and reinforcement for one of these behaviors stops, we tend to increase the rate of the remaining reinforced behavior. That is probably because the reinforcement that remains seems to become more valuable.

The Larry P. v. Riles case is important because it: a. defined the relationship between standard intellectual assessments and placement in Mental Retardation classes. b. was the first time a court addressed bias in job selection in private industry. c. relates to how much information must be revealed to research participants. d. limited certain restraint of trade clauses in the APA Ethics Code, such as using patient testimonials.

A-- This was a California case related to the use of standardized intelligence tests for assessing children for placement in special classes for the mentally retarded. It's one of several famous cases and rulings which questioned the validity of using these tests for this purpose. The ruling, which continues to be challenged, banned the use of IQ tests in the placement of minority children in special education classes.

When undertaking token economies with seriously disturbed individuals in mental institutions, one of the major problems with the program's efficacy has to do with a. generalization of behaviors. b. choice of reinforcers. c. exchange ratio. d. reinforcement value.

A-- Use of a token economy involves administering secondary reinforcers such as a token each time the person engages in a desired behavior, or taking away a reinforcer when a person engages in an undesired behavior. The tokens can then be exchanged for primary reinforcers such as food or desired activities. Token economies are commonly used in institutional settings. A problem with them is that behaviors learned often fail to generalize to the real world, since tokens are not available in the real world every time we do something right.

An advantage of using a MANOVA over multiple one-way ANOVAs is that a. the use of a MANOVA reduces the experiment-wise error rate. b. a MANOVA can be used when the study involves more than one dependent variable. c. a MANOVA is the more appropriate test when the researcher has an a priori hypotheses about the nature of the relationship between the independent and dependent variables. d. a MANOVA involves simpler mathematical calculations.

A-- When a study involves two or more dependent variables, data can be analyzed with either multiple (one for each dependent variable) statistical tests (e.g., multiple one-way ANOVAs) or one MANOVA. An advantage of the latter technique is that it reduces the probability that at least one Type I error (incorrect rejection of the null hypothesis) will be made. This is because the fewer statistical tests one conducts, the less likely it is that a Type I error will occur. In an experiment that involves more than one comparison, the probability of at least one Type I error is referred to as the experiment-wise error rate.

A new professor is teaching her first class on feminist theory. What is she required to do? a. Present a balanced view of feminist theory vs. other theories b. Concentrate solely on feminist theory; it is a given that there are other views of psychology c. Use it as a forum for presenting her dissertation findings d. Present other theories, but explain why feminist theory is the most appropriate paradigm for women

A-- While B and D could both possibly be an option, (A) is more in line with Standard 6.03 (a) which deals with objectivity: "When engaged in teaching or training, psychologists present psychological information accurately and with a reasonable degree of objectivity."

A MANOVA is used to statistically analyze data when: a. a study includes two or more independent variables b. a study includes two or more dependent variables c. there are more than two levels of a single independent variable d. a study includes at least one independent variable that is a between-groups variable and another independent variable that is a within-subjects variable

B-- A MANOVA (multivariate analysis of variance) is used to analyze the effects of one or more independent variables on two or more dependent variables that are each measured on an interval or ratio scale. A factorial ANOVA (a.) is used to analyze data when a factorial design, which includes two or more independent variables, is used and the dependent variable is measured on an interval or ratio scale. A one-way ANOVA (c.) is used when a study has one independent variable and more than two independent groups. The split-plot (mixed) ANOVA (d.) is the appropriate technique when at least one independent variable is a between-groups variable and another independent variable is a within-subjects variable.

Raising the cutoff score on a predictor test would have the effect of a. increasing true positives b. decreasing false positives c. decreasing true negatives d. decreasing false negatives.

B-- A simple way to answer this question is with reference to a chart such as the one displayed under the topic "Criterion-Related Validity" in the Test Construction section of your materials. If you look at this chart, you can see that increasing the predictor cutoff score (i.e., moving the vertical line to the right) decreases the number of false positives as well as true positives (you can also see that the number of both true and false negatives would be increased).You can also think about this question more abstractly by coming up with an example. Imagine, for instance, that a general knowledge test is used as a predictor of job success. If the cutoff score on this test is raised, fewer people will score above this cutoff and, therefore, fewer people will be predicted to be successful. Another way of saying this is that fewer people will come up "positive" on this predictor. This applies to both true positives and false positives.

Cognitive dissonance theory suggests that which of the following clients would be most likely to report benefitting from psychotherapy? a. a wealthy client who pays a very high fee b. a poor client who pays a very high fee c. a wealthy client who pays a very low fee d. a poor client who pays a very low fee

B-- According to the theory of cognitive dissonance, a person is motivated to reduce the negative, aversive state that results when his or her cognitions conflict with each other. From the perspective of this theory, the poor client paying a very high fee would experience a state of dissonance. Therefore, this client, more than those in the other responses, would be motivated to believe that he or she is benefitting from therapy.

Research investigating the relationship between sexual abuse in childhood and the development of Bulimia Nervosa in adulthood has found: a. the same rate as in the general population. b. a higher rate for children who were sexually abused. c. no significant relationship. d. a significant relationship for men but not for women.

B-- Although some research suggests that there is no relationship between sexual abuse and Bulimia and other Eating Disorders, we have reviewed more recent research that suggests that children who are sexually abused are more at risk.

When looking at an item characteristic curve (ICC), which of the following provides information about how well the item discriminates between high and low achievers? a. the Y-intercept b. the slope of the curve c. the position of the curve (left versus right) d. the position of the curve (top versus bottom)

B-- An item response curve provides one to three pieces of information about a test item - its difficulty (answer C); its ability to discriminate between high and low scorers (answer B); and the probability of answering the item correctly just by guessing (answer A).

According to Piaget, when a child accommodates new information by forming a new schema or modifying an existing one, this results in a. decentration. b. equilibration. c. assimilation. d. symbolic representation.

B-- As defined by Piaget, equilibration is a state of cognitive balance. The need for balance is what motivates the individual to assimilate and accommodate new information.

Dementia due to Head Trauma a. is usually progressive in cases of moderate to severe trauma. b. is usually progressive only in cases of repeated head trauma. c. unlike other forms of Dementia, does not usually involve disturbances in executive functions. d. unlike other forms of Dementia, is associated more with deficits in executive functions than with memory impairment.

B-- As described in DSM-IV, Dementia due to Head Trauma is usually nonprogressive when it is the result of a single head trauma. If it is progressive, this usually indicates a superimposed condition (e.g., hydrocephalus).

An intervention targeting Bronfenbrenner's microsystem will focus on a. family members. b. family members and/or classmates. c. school and church. d. parents' work and friends.

B-- Bronfenbrenner's ecological model distinguishes between four interacting environmental levels that range from the most proximal to the most global. The microsystem is the individual's immediate environment and includes parents, siblings, caregivers, classmates, and teachers.

You have been seeing a client for several months and believe that treatment has been a success. When you suggest termination to the client, he expresses a desire to continue therapy. Both you and the client are unable to come up with additional treatment goals; however, the client states that he really looks forward to coming to therapy just to talk. In this situation, you should: a. terminate treatment immediately. b. terminate treatment after a period of pretermination counseling, in which the client's reasons for not wanting to terminate are explored. c. continue seeing the client until he is ready to end therapy. d. seek consultation.

B-- Ethical standard 10.10 requires that a psychologist terminate a professional relationship when it becomes "reasonably clear that the client/patient no longer needs the service, is not likely to benefit, or is being harmed by continued service." Prior to termination, the psychologist must "provide pretermination counseling and suggest alternative service providers as appropriate."

The most effective behavioral technique to reduce a school-aged child's temper tantrums is: a. modeling b. extinction c. positive reinforcement d. negative reinforcement

B-- Extinction is the elimination or reduction in the frequency of a response achieved by the removal of the reinforcement maintaining the response. The extinction of temper tantrums would entail ignoring the child's behavior or not reinforcing it with attention. This technique has been found to be effective for reducing temper tantrums. Positive (c.) and negative (d.) reinforcement are used to strengthen behaviors. Modeling (a.) is used to teach new behaviors.

There is evidence that the effectiveness of systematic desensitization for reducing anxiety is actually due to repeated exposure to the feared stimulus, which leads to extinction of the anxiety response. However, systematic desensitization was originally developed as an application of a. negative reinforcement. b. counterconditioning. c. stimulus discrimination. d. avoidance conditioning.

B-- In systematic desensitization, anxiety-arousing stimuli are paired with stimuli that produce an incompatible response (often relaxation). In other words, it was designed to use counterconditioning in order to eliminate an anxiety response. Some research suggests, however, that it is actually just the exposure to anxiety-arousing stimuli, without aversive consequences, that explains the effectiveness of this technique.

J. Berry, who views acculturation as a multidimensional construct, would describe an integrated client as one who: a. Has a low retention of the minority culture b. Has high maintenance of the mainstream culture c. Rejects the mainstream culture but has a high retention of the minority culture d. Gets along with others in the workplace

B-- J. Barry conceptualizes acculturation as many models existing on a continuum, with the minority culture and the majority or mainstream culture at opposite poles. Integration would be displayed by an individual who has high retention of the minority culture and high maintenance of the mainstream culture.

According to Lenore Walker, which of the following best describes the dynamic that keeps battered women "hooked" into their relationship with the batterer? a. Due to having grown up in an abusive family, the victim believes that battering is a normal part of relationships. b. The costs of the abuse and the benefits of remaining in the relationship are about equal. c. The woman fears that the abuse will become even more severe if she tries to leave the relationship. d. The woman lacks knowledge about the resources available to help her leave the relationship.

B-- Lenore Walker describes a cycle of violence that involves three stags: tension building, acute battering incident, and loving contrition. According to Walker, most of the benefits of the relationship occur in the third stage, when the batterer offers apologies, assurances that the attacks will never happen again, and declarations of love. The relationship tends to remain stable when the balance between the costs of the abuse and the benefits of the relationship are fairly similar. As violence escalates, the relationship becomes more unstable, and the man escalates his charming behavior in an attempt to restore stability

Positive and negative life events are likely to have which of the following types of effect on a person's sense of satisfaction and well-being? a. neither short-term nor long-term effects b. short-term but not long-term effects c. long-term but not short-term effects d. both short-term and long-term effects

B-- Research suggests that positive and negative life events can create great joy or distress but don't really affect a person's long-term sense of satisfaction and well-being. Only recent life-events seem to influence a person's well-being, and this effect drops off in about three months. For example, lottery winners have not been found to be significantly happier than non-winners.

The difference between professional ethics and professional values is best stated by which of the following? a. If a psychologist is ethical, there should be no difference between ethics and values. b. Ethics are standards for practice set by the profession, while values refer to judgments of right and wrong. c. Ethics can be stated more specifically than values. d. Values specifically define appropriate professional conduct, while ethics are a more general code of proper professional conduct.

B-- Response B distinguishes between ethics and values. Values are concerned with what is good and desirable and ethics refer to correct or appropriate practice. Values and ethics are related in that the latter are usually derived from the former; for example, privacy is a value that is reflected in the ethical standard requiring psychologists to obtain clients' informed consent before releasing information about therapy. Responses A and C are not necessarily true, and answer D is not true since values do not specifically define appropriate professional conduct.

A therapist working from the perspective of Minuchin's school of thought would examine a family system in terms of a. multigenerational transmission processes. b. subsystems and boundaries. c. fusion and differentiation. d. communication style.

B-- Salvador Minuchin's Structural Family Therapy is based on and extends general family systems theory. The goal is to restructure maladaptive family structures, including family subsystems and boundaries.

Working Memory is an expansion of the WISC-III Freedom from Distractibility factor. It is comprised of which of the following scales? a. Coding, symbol search, digit span b. Arithmetic and digit-span c. Perceptual organization, comprehension, similarities d. Digit-span, picture arrangement, coding

B-- The Working Memory scale is comprised of the WISC-III subtests of Arithmetic and Digit-Span and measures numerical ability, attention, and concentration.

When helping his younger sister with her homework, an older brother "thinks aloud" while solving problems and gives his sister suggestions and support. This is best described as a. mentoring. b. scaffolding. c. social facilitation. d. social referencing.

B-- The older brother is using techniques associated with "scaffolding," which was originally described by Vygotsky and refers to the temporary support that parents, teachers, and more experienced children give to a child to help him/her do a task or acquire a skill.

A psychologist is consulted by the parents of a child who was referred by a pediatrician for evaluation. During the interview with the parents, they report the girl suffered a severe head injury which they haven't told the pediatrician about. Assuming appropriate consents have been obtained, the psychologist: a. should have the parents report this to the pediatrician. b. should report this to the pediatrician. c. should not report this until the parents tell the pediatrician first. d. should keep this information to herself.

B-- This question looks like one on confidentiality, and, indeed, there are some aspects of confidentiality embedded here. But, more than that, it's about professional relationships. You're told in the item stem that all consents have been obtained, so the confidentiality issue was already addressed. The question then is, "What should the psychologist do?" Since we're all here to help the patient, the most appropriate thing to do is to let the pediatrician know about your findings. You would call (probably call rather than write since calling is quicker) the pediatrician and report your findings. It was the pediatrician who made the referral in the first place, and you have the parents' consent.

Which of the following is most true of Type I Schizophrenia as described by Timothy Crow? a. There will be a poor prognosis. b. The symptoms are due to a neurotransmitter abnormality. c. A majority of symptoms will begin in adolescence. d. It will not respond to most antipsychotic medications.

B-- Timothy Crow distinguishes between two types (I and II) of Schizophrenia. Type I includes symptoms of delusions or hallucinations, inappropriate affect, and disorganized thinking. It is also thought to more likely be due to neurotransmitter irregularities. Type II symptoms are described by the other three choices, and is also considered to be more likely due to brain structure abnormalities (T.J. Crow, The two syndrome concept: Origins and current status, Schizophrenia Bulletin, 1992, 11, 471-486).

The term "group polarization" refers to the tendency of groups to make decisions that are a. more risky than those that might be made by individual members. b. more conservative than those that might be made by individual members. c. more risky or more conservative than those that might be made by individual members. d. more illogical than those that might be made by individual members.

C-- A group's decisions tend to be more extreme (in one direction or the other) than those that would be made by individuals in the group acting alone. This phenomenon is referred to as group polarization. One explanation for group polarization is that group members are more willing to support extreme decisions because, as group members, they won't have to take as much personal responsibility for their decisions as they would if they were acting alone.

Children with Generalized Anxiety Disorder most frequently worry about: a. being away from home or close relatives b. being embarrassed in public c. performance in school or sporting events d. having an illness

C-- According to DSM-IV-TR, children and adolescents with Generalized Anxiety Disorder frequently worry about their performance or competence at school and in sporting events. They may also worry about catastrophic events like earthquakes or nuclear war. Choice A is more characteristic of Separation Anxiety Disorder. Choice B indicates Social Phobia. And Choice D is characteristic of Hypochondriasis.

According to the central limit theorem, a. as sample size increases, the shape of a sample distribution becomes more normal. b. as the size of a sampling distribution of means increases, its distribution becomes more normal. c. as sample size increases, the shape of a sampling distribution of means becomes more normal. d. as sample size increases, the shape of a sampling distribution of means approximates the shape of the population distribution.

C-- According to the central limit theorem, the shape of a sampling distribution of means approaches normality as sample size increases. The central limit theorem is covered in the Advanced Statistics section of your materials, and you should study it after you have a reasonably solid grasp of the material presented in the rest of the section.

In an experiment, a psychologist establishes a conditioned startle response to a flashing red light by pairing presentation of the light with a loud noise that naturally elicits a startle reaction. Subsequently, the red light is simultaneously presented with a strong odor just before the loud noise. After many of these conditioning trials, which of the following is likely to occur when the strong odor is presented alone? a. The strong odor will produce a startle response that is even stronger than the response produced by the red light due to sensitization of the subject. b. The strong odor will produce a very weak or no startle response due to habituation. c. The strong odor will not produce a startle response because blocking will have occurred. d. The strong odor may or may not produce a startle response depending on the original strength of the subject's response to the loud noise.

C-- Blocking occurs when a CS is presented simultaneously with a second stimulus just before the US. Although it would seem that the second stimulus should acquire the properties of a CS from this procedure, that's not what happens. Instead, the second stimulus does not produce a conditioned response. This is referred to as blocking.

According to Horn and Cattell (1966) a. crystallized and fluid intelligence become more integrated in later adulthood. b. crystallized and fluid intelligence are uncorrelated. c. crystallized intelligence develops through the use of fluid intelligence. d. fluid (but not crystallized) intelligence depends on exposure to particular cultural and educational experiences.

C-- Cattell and Horn distinguish between fluid and crystallized intelligence. The former is independent of specific instruction and is relatively culture free, while the latter depends on exposure to education and is affected by cultural experiences. Cattell and Horn believed that these two aspects of intelligence are highly correlated and that crystallized intelligence develops through the use of fluid intelligence.

The purpose of rotation in factor analysis is to facilitate interpretation of the factors. Rotation: a. alters the factor loadings for each variable but not the eigenvalue for each factor b. alters the eigenvalue for each factor but not the factor loadings for the variables c. alters the factor loadings for each variable and the eigenvalue for each factor d. does not alter the eigenvalue for each factor nor the factor loadings for the variables

C-- In factor analysis, rotating the factors changes the factor loadings for the variables and eigenvalue for each factor although the total of the eigenvalues remains the same.

Linnehan's dialectical behavioral therapy is a combination of psychoeducation and cognitive therapy that involves a. intensive individual sessions. b. family therapy. c. individual and group sessions. d. group therapy.

C-- Linnehan uses dialectical behavioral therapy (DBT) in the treatment of Borderline Personality Disorder. DBT is a type of cognitive behavioral therapy that emphasizes social skills training, self-soothing exercises, and group dynamics. The patient is offered intensive individual and group sessions that are a combination of psychoeducation and cognitive therapy. DBT has been shown to reduce hospitalization and self-mutilating behavior (Linnehan, Heard, and Armstrong, 1993).

One of the criteria for the diagnosis of autism is: a. Difficulty with phonemes b. Difficulty with morphemes c. Reversal of pronouns d. Reversal of sentences

C-- People with autism rarely speak (about half don't speak at all) and when they do, speech usually involves abnormalities such as echolalia and reversal of pronouns, for example, saying "you" instead of "I".

When you look up to a person, are influenced by that person, identify with that person and hold them in high regard, that person has: a. Expert power b. Coercive power c. Referent power d. Reward power

C-- Referent power is based on a person's attraction to or desire to be like the holder of power. "A" Expert power is based on the belief that the power holder has special knowledge or expertise. "B" Coercive power results from the holder's ability to punish others. And finally, "D" reward power, results from the holder's ability to reward others.

What is the approximate probability that a person with a Schizophrenic brother (not an identical or fraternal twin) would also have Schizophrenia? a. 60% b. 45% c. 10% d. 0.5%

C-- The concordance rate for Schizophrenia among siblings is about 10%. If you didn't know this, you might have been able to guess the correct answer. A rate of 60% or 45% probably should have seemed too high. And 0.5% is at the low end of estimates of the approximate lifetime prevalence rate of Schizophrenia and therefore should have seemed too low to be the concordance rate among related individuals.

To determine whether or not the doctrine of comparable worth is lived up to in an organization, one would rely on a. the perceptions of employees. b. a job description. c. a job evaluation. d. a task analysis.

C-- The doctrine of comparable worth states that workers (in particular, men and women) should get equal pay for performing jobs that have equivalent worth. A job evaluation is a method of determining the worth or value of jobs in an organization. Thus, it is the best answer to this question, because it would be a way of comparing the value of different jobs. Note that many critics believe that current methods of job evaluation contain inherent gender biases. Statistics clearly show that women earn less than men, and some believe that one reason for this is that job evaluation methods undervalue the work that women perform.

By the time an individual diagnosed with __________________ reaches middle age, particularly the fourth decade of life, the symptoms often become less evident or remit to no longer meeting all the diagnostic criteria. a. Histrionic Personality Disorder b. Avoidant Personality Disorder c. Antisocial Personality Disorder d. Schizotypal Personality Disorder

C-- The symptoms of Antisocial Personality Disorder (APD), particularly criminal behaviors, often become less evident as an individual grows older (DSM-TR-IV, p. 704). APD has a chronic course and while some symptoms like criminal behaviors may decrease, other symptoms such as difficulties with interpersonal relationships may persist. (See: Paris, J. (2004). Personality disorders over time: Implications for therapy, American Journal of Psychotherapy, 58(4), 420-429.)

Your managed care company denies to pay for further sessions for a client and requests that you do not tell the client of its decision. In this situation, you should a. terminate with the client as requested. b. continue to provide treatment to the client if you believe the client could benefit from treatment. c. inform the client of all aspects of this decision that are relevant to treatment. d. seek the advice of an attorney regarding a possible lawsuit against the managed care company.

C-- This question is not so much about managed care as it is about informed consent procedures. Whether or not a patient's treatment is being financed by a managed care company, a psychologist should inform clients of relevant information regarding treatment at the outset of the professional relationship and continue to provide such information as it arises throughout treatment. Due to the nature of managed care companies, there may be more concerns that need to be discussed with managed care patients than with other clients. But the general informed consent requirement applies to this situation as well as many others.The other choices don't really address the issue raised by the question. Both choices "A" and "B" describe two possibly acceptable responses to this situation, but neither are requirements -- whether or not you would continue to see the patient would depend on a number of factors, including the patient's needs and your policies. Choice "D" implies that the managed care company's actions are illegal and have caused you harm, but the question does not provide enough information for you to reasonably conclude that this is true.

An older brother helps his younger brother to build a fort by giving his brother verbal explanations and suggestions as they go. The researcher who would use this as an illustration of his theory is: a. Piaget b. Patterson c. Vygotsky d. Erikson.

C-- This technique is what Vygotsky referred to as "scaffolding" and it is based on his idea that children receive support and teaching from their parents and other more experienced children.

You are seeing a client who exhibits all the major symptoms of a Major Depressive episode. You should a. invite his wife in to aid in completing a more comprehensive family history. b. assess for early child abuse. c. refer him to a psychiatrist for a medical evaluation. d. assess for recent deaths in his family.

C-- While the other choices could be options, "all the major symptoms" should tip you off to your client's level of distress. Standard 1.20 (Consultations and Referrals) states, "Psychologists arrange for appropriate consultations and referrals based principally on the best interests of their patients."

Which of the following is most consistent with the research regarding childhood sexual abuse? a. the effects are less severe for younger children compared to older children b. the effects are less severe the older the perpetrator is at the time of the abuse c. the effects are less severe when the perpetrator is a family member d. the effects are less severe when the perpetrator is a stranger

D-- Childhood sexual abuse often results in long-term consequences for the victims; however, certain factors have been found to moderate the severity of consequences. For example, the effects are generally less severe when the perpetrator is a stranger rather than a family member. However, approximately 70% of all incidents of childhood sexual abuse are committed by a family member.

Thinning refers to the process of: a. switching from a fixed interval to a fixed ratio schedule b. switching from a variable interval to a variable ratio schedule c. switching from an intermittent to a continuous schedule d. switching from a continuous to an intermittent schedule

D-- Continuous schedules, or reinforcing every response, are associated with quick learning, satiation and extinction. The process of thinning, or switching from a continuous to an intermittent schedule, is used to increase the resistance to extinction once a behavior is established.

Curriculum-based assessment is a. a form of norm-referenced assessment designed to compare the performance of students to other students who are receiving the same type of instruction. b. used to evaluate a curriculum in order to identify how it should be improved or changed. c. used to compare the curriculum at an educational institution to that of other institutions with similar students and goals. d. used to evaluate student performance in light of the current curriculum and identify possible modifications in instructional style.

D-- Curriculum-based assessment provides information about a student in the context of the existing curriculum. The results of such an assessment not only indicate the student's performance level -- they also provide feedback about the instruction itself, so that necessary changes can be made to better fit the student's ability and current knowledge. In contrast to choice A, curriculum-based assessment is criterion-referenced, since it involves evaluating the student's performance in light of an external standard (the curriculum). Norm-referenced assessment would involve evaluating a student's performance by way of a comparison to other students. In contrast to choice B, the assessment is not designed to bring about changes in the curriculum itself -- rather, its purpose is to help identify progress in terms of the existing curriculum and any change in instruction (e.g., pace, sequencing of topics) that would aid the student's progress in completing the curriculum

The brand name for one of the medications used for ADHD is: a. Tegretol b. Depakote c. Dolophine d. Dexedrine

D-- Dexedrine is sometimes used in the treatment of ADHD. Tegretol and Depakote are both used in the treatment of bipolar disorder. Dolophine is used for the treatment of heroin addiction.

Which of the following personality variables is significantly correlated with job performance across the widest variety of occupations? a. agreeableness b. emotional stability c. extraversion d. conscientiousness

D-- Factor analytic studies have identified five personality dimensions -- agreeableness, emotional stability, extraversion, openness, and conscientiousness -- that appear to underlie all other personality traits. The dimensions are commonly referred to in the literature "The Big Five." Of these, conscientiousness has the highest correlation with job performance and training success across a wide range of settings.

According to M. Seligman's theory of learned optimism, a student with an optimistic attribution style who fails an exam in a class which he usually does well in is most likely to say: a. "I was unlucky" b. "I didn't study enough" c. "the teacher is always a tough grader" d. "the test was hard this time"

D-- In Seligman's theory of learned optimism, attributions of optimistic people are believed to be the opposite of attributions of depressed people. Since depressed people make internal, stable, and global attributions to negative events, optimistic people would tend to make external, unstable, and specific attributions in response to negative events. Therefore, we can readily eliminate "B" ("I didn't study enough") since that's an internal attribution. Choice "C" ("the teacher is always a tough grader") is a stable attribution. That leaves Choices "A" ("I was unlucky") and Choice "D" ("the test was hard this time") - which are both external and unstable attributions. Of the two, however, Choice "D" is better since being unlucky would imply that success is a matter of luck.

If you want to keep a borderline patient involved with group therapy, what would be the best technique? a. You have them consult with a psychiatrist for a medication evaluation. b. You help the patient with the defense mechanism of splitting. c. You invite a client with a histrionic personality disorder to join the group. d. Offer individual therapy in addition to group therapy.

D-- Marsha Linehan (1993) has been achieving success with borderline patients with her use of dialectical behavioral therapy (DBT) which involves a combination of groups skills training and individual outpatient therapy. This combination has been successful at decreasing premature dropout rates in group therapy, as well as reducing suicide attempts and inpatient hospitalization rates.

The best predictor of treatment outcome among adult substance abusers is: a. age b. ethnicity c. history of criminal behavior d. severity of substance abuse problems

D-- Most studies have found that the best predictors of treatment outcome for substance abusers are psychiatric severity and problem severity. Other predictive factors include motivation and coping skills at baseline (J. R. McKay & R. V. Weiss, A review of temporal effects and outcome predictors in substance abuse treatment studies with long-term follow-ups: Preliminary results and methodological issues. Evaluation Review, 2001, 25(2), 113-161).

Patients with depression typically have: a. more rapid onset of REM sleep b. decreased slow wave sleep c. increased percentage of REM sleep d. all of the above

D-- Research has found that depression is most associated with a more rapid onset of REM sleep, decreased percentage of slow wave sleep, and increased percentage of REM sleep. The research also suggests that individuals with no prior history of depression but who have rapid REM onset have an increased risk of developing depression (e.g., D. Giles, D. Kupfer, A. Rush, & H. Roffwarg, Controlled comparison of electrophysiological sleep in families of probands with unipolar depression. American Journal of Psychiatry, 1998, 155(2), 192-199).

13. The Solomon four-group design is: a. a quasi-experimental design b. used to analyze the difference scores among four different treatment groups c. used to reduce practice effects d. used to evaluate the effects of pretesting

D-- The Solomon four-group design is a true experimental design used to evaluate the effects of pretesting, since some groups are pretested and others are not.

A multivariate analysis of variance would be used to analyze collected data when: a. the researcher wants to analyze the effects of an extraneous variable b. the researcher wants to remove the effects of an extraneous variable c. the study includes two or more independent variables d. the study includes two or more dependent variables

D-- The multivariate analysis of variance (MANOVA) is a type of ANOVA used when two or more dependent variables are included in a study. Rather than using separate ANOVAs to evaluate the effects of each of the dependent variables, a researcher could use the MANOVA when all the dependent variables are measured on a ratio or interval scale. This also helps to control the experiment-wise error rate.

A psychologist sees clients at a facility where fees are capitated. What does this mean? a. providers are paid a fee each time a service is performed b. clients are billed according to their ability to play c. clients are required to meet a deductible before their insurance will pay d. providers receive a fixed dollar amount over a specific period of time to cover the service needs of a fixed number of clients

D-- The term "capitation" refers to a fixed amount of money paid per person, not by the visit or procedure. Managed care companies usually express capitation in terms of cost per member per month. As stated in response "D," providers are paid a specific dollar amount, for a specific time period, to cover the service needs of a specific number of people. If a provider exceeds his or her capitated payment, he or she may not be able to cover his or her costs and, consequently, may limit his or her services.

The major threat to internal validity of a time-series quasi-experiment would be a. maturation b. selection. c. regression. d. history.

D-- To get this correct (except if you got it correct by chance), you'd need to know what a time-series design is. Basically, you take a number of measurements over time to get a longitudinal baseline trend, then somewhere along the line you introduce your experimental manipulation. If, following the manipulation, you see the trend change, you can infer that your intervention caused the change. But a major threat to the internal validity of this design is a historical event which could co-occur with your experimental manipulation. You'd have no control over these events and they could be a rival explanation for changes in your measurements.

The best treatment for someone who has difficulty making friends, is shy, and can't maintain steady employment is: a. individual social skills training. b. paradoxical intention. c. token economy. d. group social skills training.

D-- Treatment for very shy individuals who have trouble in interpersonal settings (as implied by the fact that the person cannot hold a job) typically involves social skills and assertiveness training. Although both of these treatments can be administered in individual therapy, the group format has a number of advantages: there are multiple models, and opportunities for feedback, support, and vicarious learning. These aren't available in individual training sessions. Thus, D is the best answer.