EXIT ALL

A client with metastatic cancer is preparing to make decisions about end-of-life issues. When the nurse explains a durable power of attorney for health care, which description is accurate?

It will identify someone that can make decisions for your health care if you are in a coma or vegetative state.

199. The nurse is caring for a client who is taking a macrolide to treat a bacterial infection. Which finding should the nurse report to the healthcare provider before administering the next dose?

Jaundice

310. The healthcare provider prescribes potassium chloride 25 mEq in 500 ml D_5W to infuse over 6 hours. The available 20 ml vial of potassium chloride is labeled, "10 mEq/5ml." how many ml of potassium chloride should the nurse add the IV fluid? (Enter numeric value only. If is rounding is required, round to the nearest tenth.)

12.5

560. A client currently receiving an infusion labeled Heparin Sodium 25,000 Units in 5% Dextrose Injection 500 mL at 14 mL/hour. A prescription is received to change the rate of the infusion to 900 units of Heparin per hour. The nurse should set the infusion pump to deliver how many mL/hour? (Enter numeric value only).

18

17. Before preparing a client for the first surgical case of the day, a part-time scrub nurse asks the circulating nurse if a 3 minute surgical hand scrub is adequate preparation for this client. Which response should the circulating nurse provide?

Direct the nurse to continue the surgical hand scrub for a 5 minute duration

520. The nurse is caring a client with NG tube. Which task can the nurse delegate to the UAP?

Disconnect the NG suction so the client can ambulate in the hallway

A client who is one week postoperative after an aortic valve replacement suddenly develops severe pain in the left leg. On assessment, the nurse determines that the client's leg is pale and cool, and no pulses are palpable in the left leg. After notifying the healthcare provider, which action should the nurse take?

Keep the client in bed in the supine position.

103. The nurse is teaching a client how to perform colostomy irrigations. When observing the client's return demonstration, which action indicated that the client understood the teaching?

Keeps the irrigating container less than 18 inches above the stoma

556. In preparing a diabetes education program, which goal should the nurse identify as the primary emphasis for a class on diabetes self-management?

Enable clients to become active participants in controlling the disease process

52. After a sudden loss of consciousness, a female client is taken to the ED and initial assessment indicate that her blood glucose level is critically low. Once her glucose level is stabilized, the client reports that was recently diagnosed with anorexia nervosa and is being treated at an outpatient clinic. Which intervention is more important to include in this client's discharge plan?

Encourage a low-carbohydrate and high-protein diet

354. A male client with COPD smokes two packs of cigarettes per day and is admitted to the hospital for a respiratory infection. He complains that he has trouble controlling respiratory distress at home when using his rescue inhaler. Which comment from the client indicates to the nurse that he is not using his inhaler properly?

"After I squeeze the inhaler and swallow, I always feel a slight wave of nausea, bit it goes away"

472. The nurse is caring for a client with hypovolemic shock who is receiving two units of packed red blood cells (RBCs) through a large bore peripheral IV. What action promotes maintenance of the client's cardiopulmonary stability during the blood transfusion?

Increase the oxygen flow via nasal cannula if dyspnea is present.

626. A 3-year-old boy with a congenital heart defect is brought to the clinic by his mother...During the assessment, the mother asks the nurse why her child is at the 5th percent...response is best for the nurse to provide?

"His smaller size is probably due to the heart disease"

523. The nurse is assessing a 4-year-old boy admitted to the hospital with the diagnosis of possible nephrotic syndrome. Which statement by the parents indicates a likely correlation to the child's diagnosis?

"I couldn't get my son's socks and shoes on this morning"

14. Following a lumbar puncture, a client voices several complaints. What complaint indicated to the nurse that the client is experiencing a complication?

"I have a headache that gets worse when I sit up"

The nurse is giving discharge instructions to the parents of a newborn with a prescription for home phototherapy. Which statement by a parent indicates understanding of the phototherapy?

"I will keep the baby's eyes covered when the baby is under the light." Neonatal jaundice is related to subcutaneous deposition of fat-soluble (indirect) bilirubin, which is converted to a water-soluble form when the skin is exposed to an ultraviolet light, so the infant's eyes should be protected (C) by closing the eyes and placing patches over them before placing the baby under the phototherapy light source. The baby's position should be changed about every two hours, not (A), so that the light reaches all areas of the body to promote conversion to a water-soluble form of bilirubin, which is excreted in the urine. The infant can be removed from the light for feedings and diaper changes, but should receive phototherapy exposure for 18 hours a day (B). The baby should be naked or dressed in only a diaper to expose as much skin as possible to the light (D).

A nurse takes a female client to the examination room and asks her to remove her clothes and put on an examination gown with the front open. The woman states, "I have special undergarments that I do not remove for religious reasons." How should the nurse respond?

"Tell me about your undergarments so we can discuss how you can have your examination comfortably.

64. A 10 year old who has terminal brain cancer asks the nurse, "What will happen to my body when I die?" How should the nurse respond?

"The heart will stop beating & you will stop breathing."

A 9-year-old is hospitalized for neutropenia and is placed in reverse isolation. The child asks the nurse, "Why do you have to wear a gown and mask when you are in my room?" How should the nurse respond?

"To protect you because you can get an infection very easily."

519. The nurse is conducting the initial assessment of an ill client who is from another culture.... What response should the nurse provide?

"What practices do you believe will help you heal?"

625. The nurse teaches an adolescent male client how to use a metered dose inhaler. Seen in the picture. What instruction should the nurse provide?

.Move the device one to two inches away from the mouth

455. A female client with severe renal impairment is receiving enoxaparin (lovenox) 30 mg SUBQ BID. Which laboratory value due to enoxaparin should the nurse report to the healthcare provider?

.creatinine clearance 25 mL/ minute

346. An infant is receiving penicillin G procaine 220,000 units IM. The drug is supplied as 600,000 units/ml. How many ml should the nurse administer? (Enter numeric value only. If rounding is required, round to the nearest tenth)

0.4

437. A school-age child who weighs 42 pounds receives a post-tonsillectomy prescription for promethazine (Phenergan) 0.5 mg/kg IM to prevent postoperative nausea. The medication is available in 25 mg/ml ampules. How many ml should the nurse administer? (Enter numeric value only. If rounding is required, round to the nearest tenth).

0.4

27. The healthcare provider prescribes celtazidime (Fortax) 35 mg every 8 hours IM for an infant. The 500 mg vial is labeled with the instruction to add 5.3 ml diluent to provide a concentration of 100 mg/ml. How many ml should the nurse administered for each dose? (Enter numeric value only. If rounding is required, round to the nearest tenth)

0.4 ml

418. A client with a serum sodium level of 125 meq/mL should benefit most from the administration of which intravenous solution?

0.9% sodium chloride solution (normal saline)

540. A client admitted to the telemetry unit is having unrelieved chest pain after receiving 3 sublingual nitroglycerin tablets and morphine 8 mg IV. The electrocardiogram reveals sinus bradycardia with ST elevation. In what order should the nurse implement the nursing actions? (Arrange first to last)

1. Call the rapid response team to assist 2. Move the crash cart to the client room 3. Notify the client's healthcare provider 4. Inform the family of the critical situation

98. The development of atherosclerosis is a process of sequential events. Arrange the pathophysiological events in orders of occurrence. (Place the first event on top and the last on the bottom)

1. Arterial endothelium injury causes inflammation 2. Macrophages consume low density lipoprotein (LDL), creating foam cells 3. Foam cells release growth factors for smooth muscle cells 4. Smooth muscle grows over fatty streaks creating fibrous plaques 5. Vessel narrowing results in ischemia

428. A client is receiving an IV solution labeled Heparin Sodium 20,000 Units in 5% dextrose injection 500 ml at 25 ml/hour. How many units of heparin is the client receiving each hour?

1000 units/hour

521. The nurse is collecting a sterile urine specimen using a straight catheter tray for culture.... (Arrange from first action to last).

1. Drape the client in a recumbent position for privacy 2. Open the urinary catheterization tray 3. Don sterile gloves using aseptic technique 4. Use forceps and swaps to clean the urinary meatus

334. The nurse is using a straight urinary catheter kit to collect a sterile urine specimen from a female client. After positioning am prepping this client, rank the actions in the sequence they should be implemented. (Place to first action on the top on the last action on the bottom.)

1. Open the sterile catheter kit close to the client's perineum. 2. Don sterile gloves and prepare to sterile field 3. Cleanse the urinary meatus using the solution, swabs, and forceps provided 4. Place distal end of the catheter in sterile specimen cup and insert catheter into meatus

365. Which action should the nurse implement with auscultating anterior breath sounds? (Place the first action on top and last action on the bottom)

1. Place stethoscope in suprasternal area to auscultate for bronchial sounds 2. Auscultate bronchovesicular sounds from side to side the first and second intercostal spaces 3. Displace female breast tissue and apply stethoscope directly on chest wall to hear vesicular sounds 4. Document normal breath sounds and location of adventitious breath sounds

212. The nurse is caring for a 4-year-old male child who becomes unresponsive as his heart rate decreases to 40 beats/minute. His blood pressure is 88/70 mmHg, and his oxygen saturation is 70% while receiving 100% oxygen by non-rebreather face mask. In what sequence, from first to last, should the nurse implement these actions? (Place the first action on top and last action on the bottom.)

1. Start chest compressions with assisted manual ventilations 2. Administer epinephrine 0.01 mg/kg intraosseous (IO) 3. Apply pads and prepare for transthoracic pacing 4. Review the possible underlying causes for bradycardia

372. Nurses working on a surgical unit are concerned about the physicians treatment of clients during invasive procedures, such as dressing changes and insertion of IV lines. Clients are often crying during the procedures, and the physician is usually unconcerned or annoyed by the client's response. To resolve this problem, what actions should the nurses take? (Arrange from the first action on the top of the list on the bottom)

1. Talk to the physician as a group in a non-confrontational manner. 2. Document concerns and report them to the charge nurse. 3. Submit a written report to the director of nursing. 4. Contact the hospital's chief of medical services. 5. File a formal complaint with the state medical board.

Preoperatively, a client is to receive 75 mg of meperidine (Demerol) IM. The Demerol solution contains 50 mg/mL. How much solution should the nurse administer?

1.5 mL.

440. The healthcare provider prescribes Morphine Sulfate Oral Solution 38 mg PO q4 hours for a client who is opioid-tolerant. The available 30 mL bottle is labeled, 100 mg/5 mL (20mg/mL), and is packaged with a calibrated oral syringe to provide to provide accurate dose measurements. How many mL should the nurse administer? (Enter the numerical value only. If rounding is required, round to the nearest tenth.)

1.9

575. The nurse mixes 250 mg of debutamine in 250 ml of D5W and plans to administer the solution at rate client weighing 110 pounds. The nurse should set the infusion pump to administer how many ml per hour only. If rounding is required, round the nearest whole number.)

45

561. The nurse notes the client receiving heparin infusion labeled, Heparin Na 25,000 Units in 5% Dextrose injection 500 ml at 50ml/hr. What dose of Heparin is the client receiving per hour?

2,500

430. The nurse is conducting health assessments. Which assessment finding increases a 56-year-old woman's risk for developing osteoporosis?

20 pack-year history of cigarette smoking

607. Dopamine protocol is prescribed for a male client who weigh 198 pounds to maintain the mean arterial pressure (MAP) greater than 65 mmHg. His current MAP is 50 mmHg, so the nurse increases the infusion to 7 mcg/kg/minute. The infusion is labeled dextrose 5% in water (D5W) 500 ml with dopamine 400 mg. The nurse should program the infusion pump to deliver how many ml/hour?

47

219. An adult client experiences a gasoline tank fire when riding a motorcycle and is admitted to the emergency department (ED) with full thickness burns to all surfaces of both lower extremities. What percentage of body surface area should the nurse document in the electronic medical record (EMR)?

36 %

A child is receiving maintainance intravenous (IV) fluids at the rate of 1000 mL for the first 10 kg of body weight, plus 50 mL/kg per day for each kilogram between 10 and 20. How many milliliters per hour should the nurse program the infusion pump for a child who weighs 19.5 kg? (Enter numeric value only. If rounding is required, round to the nearest whole number.)

61 The formula for calculating daily fluid requirements is: 0 to 10 kg, 100 mL/kg per day; or 10 to 20 kg, 1000 mL for the first 10 kg of body weight plus 50 mL/kg per day for each kilogram between 10 and 20. To determine an hourly rate, divide the total milliliters per day by 24. 19.5 kg x 50 mL/kg = 475 mL + 1000 mL = 1475 mL / 24 hours = 61 mL/hour

402. A 154 pound client with diabetic ketoacidosis is receiving an IV of normal saline 100 ML with regular insulin 100 units. The healthcare provider prescribes a rate of 0.1 units/kg/hour. To deliver the correct dosage, the nurse should set the infusion pump to Infuse how many ml/hour? enter numeric value only

7

559. A client is receiving an IV of heparin sodium 25000 units in 5% dextrose injection 500 ml at 14 ml/hour...verify that the client is receiving the prescribed amount of heparin. How many units is the client receiving?

700

24. The healthcare provider prescribes an IV solution of isoproterenol (Isuprel) 1 mg in 250 ml of D5W at 300 mcg/hour. The nurse should program the infusion pump to deliver how many ml/hour? (Enter numeric value only.)

75 ml/hour

297. The nurse is preparing a heparin bolus dose of 80 units/kg for a client who weighs 220 pounds. Heparin sodium injection, USP is available in a 3o ml multidose vial with the concentration of 1,000 USP units/ml. how many ml of heparin should the nurse administer? (Enter numeric value only)

8

The charge nurse working in the surgical department is making shift assignments. The shift personnel include an RN with 12 years of nursing experience, an RN with 2 years of nursing experience, and an RN with 3 months of nursing experience. Which client should the charge nurse assign to the RN with 3 months of experience? A.A client who is 2 days postoperative with a right total knee replacement B.A client who is scheduled for a sigmoid colostomy surgery today C.A client who has a surgical abdominal wound with dehiscence D.A client who is 1 day postoperative following a right-sided mastectomy

A (A) is the least critical client and should be assigned to the RN with the least experience. A client with a knee replacement is probably ambulating and able to perform self-care, and a physical therapist is likely to be assisting with the client's care. (B) will require a high level of nursing care when returned from surgery. (C) means that there is a separation or rupture of the wound, which requires an experienced nurse to provide care. (D) requires extensive teaching and should be assigned to a more experienced nurse.

Prior to administering an oral suspension, which intervention is most important for the nurse to implement? A.Assess the client's ability to swallow liquids. B.Obtain applesauce in which to mix the medication. C.Determine the client's food likes and dislikes. D.Auscultate the client's breath sounds.

A An oral suspension is a liquid, so the nurse needs to assess the client's ability to swallow liquids (A) to ensure that the client will not choke. If the client has difficulty swallowing liquids, a thickening substance may be used (B). If a food product is used to thicken the liquid, (C) would be beneficial. (D) may also be warranted, but only if the client is at risk for aspiration, determined by (A).

The nurse plans to evaluate the effectiveness of a bronchodilator. Which assessment datum indicates that the desired effect of a bronchodilator has been achieved? A.Increased oxygen saturation B.Increased urinary output C.Decreased apical pulse rate D.Decreased blood pressure

A Bronchodilators increase the diameter of the bronchioles, resulting in improved oxygenation, reflected by an increase in oxygen saturation (A). (B, C, and D) do not indicate the desired effect of a bronchodilator

Which physiologic finding in an older adult contributes to an adverse drug reaction? A.Reduced renal excretion B.Reduced gastrointestinal motility C.Increased hepatic metabolism D.Increased risk of autoimmune disorders

A During the aging process, reduced renal function (A) is common and contributes to drug accumulation that contributes to adverse reactions. Reduced hepatic function, not (C), predisposes an older adult to an increase in adverse drug reactions. (B) may occur frequently in an older client but does not impact the bioavailability of drugs. Although an older adult may have a decreased immune response, the aging client's risk for autoimmune disorders (D) is not increased nor does it affect drug pharmacotherapeutics.

A client with glomerulonephritis is scheduled for a creatinine clearance test to determine the need for dialysis. Which information should the nurse provide the client prior to the test? A.Failure to collect all urine specimens during the period of the study will invalidate the test. B.Blood is collected to measure the amount of creatinine and determine the glomerular filtration rate (GFR). C.Dialysis is started when the GFR is lower than 5 mL/min. D.Discard the first voiding, and record the time and amount of urine of each voiding for 24 hours.

A Glomerulonephritis damages the renal glomeruli and affects the kidney's ability to clear serum creatinine into the urine. Creatinine clearance is a 24-hour urine specimen test, so all urine should be collected during the period of the study or the results are inaccurate (A). As renal function decreases, the creatinine level will decrease in the urine (B). Dialysis is usually started when the GFR is 12 mL/min (C). There is no need to record the frequency and amount of each voiding (D) during the time span of urine collection.

Which statement by the U.S. Food and Drug Administration (FDA) is an example of a black box or black label warning for the drug clopidogrel (Plavix)? A.This drug could cause heart attack or stroke when taken by patients with certain genetic conditions. B.Clopidogrel helps prevent platelets from sticking together and forming clots in the blood. C.This drug can be taken in combination with aspirin to reduce the risk of acute coronary syndrome. D.Clopidogrel can reduce the risk of a future heart attack when taken by patients with peripheral artery disease.

A Rationale: A black box warning is a notice required by the FDA on a prescription drug that warns of potentially dangerous side effects (A). (B, C, and D) are all desired effects of the drug.

A client with human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infection has white lesions in the oral cavity that resemble milk curds. Nystatin (Mycostatin) preparation is prescribed as a swish and swallow. Which information is most important for the nurse to provide the client? A.Oral hygiene should be performed before the medication. B.Antifungal medications are available in tablet, suppository, and liquid forms. C.Candida albicans is the organism that causes the white lesions in the mouth. D.The dietary intake of dairy and spicy foods should be limited.

A HIV infection causes depression of cell-mediated immunity that allows an overgrowth of Candida albicans (oral moniliasis), which appears as white, cheesy plaque or lesions that resemble milk curds. To ensure effective contact of the medication with the oral lesions, oral liquids should be consumed and oral hygiene performed before swishing the liquid Mycostatin (A). (B and C) provide the client with additional information about the pathogenesis and treatment of opportunistic infections, but (A) allows the client to participate in self-care of the oral infection. Dietary restriction of spicy foods reduces discomfort associated with stomatitis, but restriction of dairy products is not indicated (D).

After administration of an 0730 dose of Humalog 50/50 insulin to a client with diabetes mellitus, which nursing action has the highest priority? A.Ensure that the client receives breakfast within 30 minutes. B.Remind the client to have a midmorning snack at 1000. C.Discuss the importance of a midafternoon snack with the client. D.Explain that the client's capillary glucose will be checked at 1130.

A Insulin 50/50 contains 50% regular and 50% NPH insulin. Therefore, the onset of action is within 30 minutes and the nurse's priority action is to ensure that the client receives a breakfast tray to avoid a hypoglycemic reaction (A). (B, C, and D) are also important nursing actions but are of less immediacy than (A).

The nurse is correct in withholding an older adult client's dose of nifedipine (Procardia) if which assessment finding is obtained? A.Blood pressure of 90/56 mm Hg B.Apical pulse rate of 68 beats/min C.Potassium level of 3.3 mEq/L D.Urine output of 200 mL in 4 hours

A Nifedipine (Procardia) is a calcium channel blocker that causes a decrease in blood pressure. It should be withheld if the blood pressure is lowered, and 90/56 mm Hg is a low blood pressure for an adult male (A). A pulse rate less than 60 beats/min is an indication to withhold the drug (B). A potassium level of 3.3 mEq/L is low (normal, 3.5 to 5.0 mEq/L), but this finding does not affect the administration of Procardia (C). Urine output of more than 30 mL/hr, or 120 mL in 4 hours, is normal. Although a 200- mL output in 4 hours is slightly less than normal and warrants follow-up, it is not an indication to withhold a nifedipine (Procardia) dose (D).

A very busy hospital unit has had several discharges and the census is unusually low. What is the best way for the charge nurse to use the time of the nursing staff? A.Encourage staff to participate in online in-service education. B.Assign staff to make sure that all equipment is thoroughly cleaned. C.Ask which staff members would like to go home for the remainder of the day. D.Notify the supervisor that the staff needs additional assignments.

A Online educational programs are available around the clock, so staff can engage in continuing education programs when the opportunity arises, such as during periods of low census (A). (B) is not the responsibility of the nursing staff. (C) is not the best use of staff and does not use the extra time provided by the low census. The charge nurse should use the time to improve the unit, and requesting additional assignments is not necessary (D)

Which assessment finding for a client with peritoneal dialysis requires immediate intervention by the nurse? A.The color of the dialysate outflow is opaque yellow. B.The dialysate outflow is greater than the inflow. C.The inflow dialysate feels warm to the touch. D.The inflow dialysate contains potassium chloride.

A Opaque or cloudy dialysate outflow is an early sign of peritonitis. The nurse should obtain a specimen for culture, assess the client, and notify the health care provider (A). (B and C) are desired. (D) is commonly done to prevent hypokalemia.

Which question is most relevant to ask the parents when obtaining the history of a 2-year-old child recently diagnosed with osteomyelitis? A."Has your child had an ear infection recently?" B."Does your child seem resistant to toilet training?" C."Is your child a picky eater?" D."Do you have a family history of bone disorders?"

A Osteomyelitis can be caused by internal infections, such as otitis media (A). (B and C) are normal developmental findings for a 2-year-old. Osteomyelitis is caused by a bacterial infection, so (D) is not relevant.

A nurse working in a community health setting is performing primary health screenings. Which individual is at highest risk for contracting an HIV infection? A.A 17-year-old who is sexually active with numerous partners B.A 45-year-old lesbian who has been sexually active with two partners in the past year C.A 30-year-old cocaine user who inhales the drug and works in a topless bar D.A 34-year-old male homosexual who is in a monogamous relationship

A Rationale: (A) is at greatest risk for contracting sexually transmitted diseases, including HIV, because the greater the number of sexual partners, the greater the risk for contracting an STD. (B) comprises the group of lowest infected persons because there is little transfer of body fluid during sexual acts. (C), who free-bases, would not be sharing needles, so contracting an STD is not necessarily a risk. A male homosexual in a monogamous relationship has a decreased risk of contracting HIV as long as both partners are monogamous and neither is infected (D).

A client with type 2 diabetes has a plantar foot ulcer. When developing a teaching plan regarding foot care, what information should the nurse obtain first from the client? A.How the client examines her feet B.Which hypoglycemic medication she takes C.Who lives in the home with her D.How long she has had diabetes mellitus

A Rationale: (A) specifically relates to foot care. (B, C, and D) provide worthwhile information to obtain but do not have the importance of (A).

After assessing a 26-year-old client with type 1 diabetes mellitus, which data may indicate that the client is experiencing chronic complications of diabetes? A.Blood pressure, 159/98 mm Hg B.Hemoglobin A1c (HbA1c), 6% C.Creatinine level, 1.0 mg/dL D.Chronic sciatica

A Rationale: A blood pressure of 159/98 mm Hg is hypertensive and increases the client's risk for acute coronary syndrome and/or stroke (A). (B and C) are within defined parameters, and (D) is not a recognized chronic complication of diabetes.

When caring for an 80-year-old client with pneumonia, which finding is of most concern to the nurse? A.Decrease in level of consciousness B.BUN level, 20 mg/dL; creatinine level, 1.0 mg/dL C.Reports of a dry mouth and lips D.Fine crackles auscultated in lung bases

A Rationale: A decrease in level of consciousness is a sign of decreased oxygenation and requires immediate intervention (A). The others are expected findings (B, C, and D).

The nurse is assessing a client at 20 weeks' gestation. Which measurement should be compared with the client's current weight to obtain the most accurate data about her weight gain during pregnancy? A.Usual prepregnant weight B.Weight at the first prenatal visit C.Weight during previous pregnancy D.Recommended pattern of weight gain

A Rationale: Comparing the client's current weight with her prepregnant weight (A) allows for the calculation of weight gain. By the time of the first prenatal visit (B), she may have already gained weight. (C) may not be relevant to weight gain with the current pregnancy. (D) should be evaluated based on serial weights, not just a single current weight.

A client is admitted to the hospital with the diagnosis of hypokalemia. Which clinical manifestation is most significant? A.Heart palpitations B.Leg cramps C.Nausea D.Tetany

A Rationale: Hypokalemia can cause heart palpitations, which are indicative of a dysrhythmia that could progress to a medical emergency (A). (B and C) are also of concern but are not as life threatening. (D) is a symptom of hypocalcemia.

A primipara presents to the perinatal unit describing rupture of the membranes (ROM), which occurred 12 hours prior to coming to the hospital. An oxytocin (Pitocin) infusion is begun, and 8 hours later the client's contractions are irregular and mild. What vital sign should the nurse monitor with greater frequency than the typical unit protocol? A.Maternal temperature B.Fetal blood pressure C.Maternal respiratory rate D.Fetal heart rate

A Rationale: Maternal temperature (A) should be monitored frequently as a primary indicator of infection. This client's rupture of membranes (ROM) occurred at least 20 hours ago (12 hours before coming to the hospital, in addition to 8 hours since hospital admission). Delivery is not imminent, and there is an increased risk of the development of infection 24 hours after ROM. (B) cannot be established with standard bedside monitoring. (C) is not specifically related to ROM. (D) is always monitored during labor; this situation would not prompt the nurse to increase FHR monitoring.

A client with bipolar disorder is seen in the mental health clinic for evaluation of a new medication regimen that includes risperidone (Risperdal). The nurse notes that the client has gained 30 lb in the past 3 months. Which assessment is most important for the nurse to obtain? A.Compliance with medication regimen B.Current thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) level C.Occurrence of mania or depression D.A 24-hour diet and exercise recall

A Rationale: Medication compliance (A) is most important for the treatment of psychotic disorders and, because Risperdal is associated with weight gain, it is probable that the client is complying with the treatment plan. The TSH level (B) indicates thyroid function, which regulates basal metabolic rate and influences weight. It is important to obtain information about occurrences of mania and depression (C) since the last visit, but if the client is compliant with the medication regimen, these symptoms are likely to have been controlled. Diet and exercise (D) should also be assessed, but weight gain is a likely indicator of medication compliance.

An 8-year-old child is receiving digoxin (Lanoxin) for congestive heart failure (CHF). In assessing the child, the nurse finds that her apical heart rate is 80 beats/min, she complains of being slightly nauseated, and her serum digoxin level is 1.2 ng/mL. What action should the nurse take? A.Because the child's heart rate and digoxin level are within normal range, assess for the cause of the nausea. B.Hold the next dose of digoxin until the health care provider can be notified because the serum digoxin level is elevated. C.Administer the next dose of digoxin and notify the health care provider that the child is showing signs of toxicity. D.Notify the health care provider that the child's pulse rate is below normal for her age group.

A Rationale: Nausea and vomiting are early signs of digoxin toxicity. However, the normal resting heart rate for a child 8 to 10 years of age is 70 to 110 beats/min and the therapeutic range of serum digoxin levels is 0.5 to 2 ng/mL. Based on the objective data, (A) is the best of the choices provided because the serum digoxin level is within normal levels. (B) is not warranted by the data presented. The digoxin level is within the therapeutic range and the child is not showing signs of toxicity (C). The child's pulse rate is within normal range for her age group (D).

The nurse is caring for a hospitalized client with myasthenia gravis. Which finding requires the most immediate action by the nurse? A.O2 saturation, 89% B.Reports diplopia C.Ptosis to left eye D.Difficulty speaking

A Rationale: Respiratory failure is a life-threatening complication that can occur with myasthenia gravis (A). (B, C, and D) are signs of the disease but are not as life threatening as decreased oxygen saturation.

A client who is prescribed chlorpromazine HCl (Thorazine) for schizophrenia develops rigidity, a shuffling gait, and tremors. Which action by the nurse is most important?A.Administer a dose of benztropine mesylate (Cogentin) PRN. B.Determine if the client has increased photosensitivity. C.Provide comfort measures for sore muscles. D.Assess the client for visual and auditory hallucinations.

A Rationale: Rigidity, shuffling gait, pill-rolling hand movements, tremors, dyskinesia, and masklike face are extrapyramidal side effects associated with Thorazine. It is most important for the nurse to administer an anticholinergic such as Cogentin to reverse these effects (A). The others (B, C, D) may be appropriate interventions but are not as urgent as (A).

Which vaccination should the nurse administer to a newborn? A.Hepatitis B B.Human papilloma virus (HPV) C.Varicella D.Meningococcal vaccine

A Rationale: The hepatitis B vaccination should be given to all newborns before hospital discharge (A). HPV is not recommended until adolescence (B). Varicella immunization begins at 12 months (C). Meningococcal vaccine is administered beginning at 2 years (D).

The charge nurse is making assignments for the upcoming shift. Which client is most appropriate to assign to the licensed practical nurse (LPN)? A.A client with nausea who needs a nasogastric tube inserted B.A client in hypertensive crisis who needs titration of IV nitroglycerin C. A newly admitted client who needs to have a plan of care established D.A client who is ready for discharge who needs discharge teaching

A Rationale: This client has a need for a skill that is within the scope of practice for the LPN (A). Titration of an IV drip, establishing care plans, and discharge teaching are within the scope of practice of a registered nurse (RN) and are not delegated (B, C, and D).

Staff on a cardiac unit consists of an RN, two practical nurses (PNs), and one UAP. Team 1's assignment includes two clients who are both 1 day postangioplasty and two clients with unstable angina. Team 2's assignment includes all stable clients, but two clients are bedridden and incontinent. Which staffing plan represents the best use of available staff? A.Team 1: RN team leader, PN; team 2, PN team leader, UAP B.Team 1, RN team leader, UAP; team 2, PN team leader, PN C.Team 1, PN team leader, PN; team 2, RN team leader, UAP D.Team 1, PN team leader, UAP; team 2, RN team leader, PN

A Team 1 includes high-risk clients who require a higher level of assessment and decision making, which should be provided by an RN and PN (A). Team 2 has stable clients at lower risk than those on team 1. Although two clients on team 2 require frequent care, the care is routine and predictable in nature and can be managed by the PN and UAP. (B, C, and D) do not use the expertise of the nursing staff for the high-risk clients.

381. A nurse working on an endocrine unit should see which client first?

A client taking corticosteroids who has become disoriented in the last two hours.

A 40-year-old office worker who is at 36 weeks' gestation presents to the occupational health clinic complaining of a pounding headache, blurry vision, and swollen ankles. Which intervention should the nurse implement first? A.Check the client's blood pressure. B.Teach her to elevate her feet when sitting. C.Obtain a 24-hour diet history to evaluate for the intake of salty foods. D.Assess the fetal heart rate.

A The blood pressure (A) should be assessed first. Preeclampsia is a multisystem disorder, and women older than 35 years and have chronic hypertension are at increased risk. Classic signs include headache, visual changes, edema, recent rapid weight gain, and elevated blood pressure. (B, C, and D) can be done if the blood pressure is normal.

The antigout medication allopurinol (Zyloprim) is prescribed for a client newly diagnosed with gout. Which comment by the client warrants intervention by the nurse? A."I take aspirin for my pain." B."I frequently eat fruit and drink fruit juices." C."I drink a great deal of water, so I have to get up at night to urinate." D."I observe my skin daily to see if I have an allergic rash to the medication."

A The client should be taught to avoid aspirin (A) because the ingestion of aspirin or diuretics can precipitate an attack of gout. (B, C, and D) are all appropriate for the treatment of gout. The client's urinary pH can be increased by the intake of alkaline ash foods, such as citrus fruits and juices, which will help reduce stone formation (B). Increasing fluids helps prevent urinary calculi (stone) formation and should be encouraged, even if the client must get up at night to urinate (C). Allopurinol has a rare but potentially fatal hypersensitivity syndrome, which is characterized by a rash and fever. The medication should be discontinued immediately if this occurs (D).

A male client with arterial peripheral vascular disease (PVD) complains of pain in his feet. Which instruction should the nurse give to the UAP to relieve the client's pain quickly? A.Help the client dangle his legs. B.Apply compression stockings. C.Assist with passive leg exercises. D.Ambulate three times a day.

A The client who has arterial PVD may benefit from dependent positioning, and this can be achieved with bedside dangling (A), which will promote gravitation of blood to the feet, improve blood flow, and relieve pain. (B) is indicated for venous insufficiency (C) and indicated for bed rest. Ambulation (D) is indicated to facilitate collateral circulation and may improve long-term complaints of pain.

Because of census overload, the charge nurse of an acute care medical unit must select a client who can be transferred back to a residential facility. The client with which symptomology is the most stable? A.A stage 3 sacral pressure ulcer, with colonized methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) B.Pneumonia, with a sputum culture of gram-negative bacteria C.Urinary tract infection, with positive blood cultures D.Culture of a diabetic foot ulcer shows gram-positive cocci

A The client with colonized MRSA (A) is the most stable client, because colonization does not cause symptomatic disease. The gram-negative organisms causing pneumonia are typically resistant to drug therapy (B), which makes recovery very difficult. Positive blood cultures (C) indicate a systemic infection. Poor circulation places the diabetic with an infected ulcer (D) at high risk for poor healing and bone infection.

A child is having a generalized tonic-clonic seizure. Which action should the nurse take? A.Move objects out of the child's immediate area. B.Quickly slip soft restraints on the child's wrists. C.Insert a padded tongue blade between the teeth. D.Place in the recovery position before going for help.

A The first priority during a seizure is to provide a safe environment, so the nurse should clear the area (A) to reduce the risk of trauma. The child should not be restrained (B) because this may cause more trauma. Objects should not be placed in the child's mouth (C) because it may pose a choking hazard. Although (D) should be implemented after the seizure, the nurse should not leave the child during a seizure to get help.

A client tells the nurse that he is suffering from insomnia. Which information is most important for the nurse to obtain? A.The client's usual sleeping pattern B.Whether the client smokes C.How much liquid the client consumes before bedtime D.The amount of caffeine that the client consumes during the day

A The first thing to determine is the client's usual sleeping pattern and how it has changed to become what the client describes as insomnia (A). (B, C, and D) provide additional information after (A) is ascertained.

The client with which fasting plasma glucose level needs the most immediate intervention by the nurse? A.50 mg/dL B.80 mg/dL C.110 mg/dL D.140 mg/dL

A The normal fasting plasma glucose level ranges from 70 to 105 mg/dL. A client with a low level, such as 50 mg/dL (A), requires the most immediate intervention to prevent loss of consciousness. Normal (B) and slightly elevated levels, such as 110 or 140 mg/dL (C and D), do not require immediate intervention.

A client reports experiencing dysuria and urinary frequency. Which client teaching should the nurse provide? A.Save the next urine sample. B.Restrict oral fluid intake. C.Strain all voided urine. D.Reduce physical activity.

A The nurse should instruct the client to save the next urine sample (A) for observation of its appearance and for possible urinalysis. The client is reporting symptoms that may indicate the onset of a urinary tract infection. Increased fluid intake should be encouraged, unless contraindicated (B). (C) is only necessary if a calculus (stone) is suspected. (D) is not indicated by this client's symptoms.

When the nurse-manager posts a schedule for volunteers to be on call, one staff member immediately signs up for all available 7-to-3 day shifts. Other staff members complain to the charge nurse that they were not permitted the opportunity to be on call for the day shift. What action should the nurse-manager implement? A.Speak privately with the nurse. B.Hold a staff meeting to discuss this issue. C.Review the nurse's current salary. D.Nominate the nurse for employee of the month.

A The nurse-manager should speak privately with the nurse (A) to assess the nurse's motives and to discuss allowing other team members the opportunity to be on call for the day shift. (B) might become confrontational. (C) is irrelevant. (D) is not warranted.

The nurse meets resistance while flushing a central venous catheter (CVC) at the subclavian site. Which action should the nurse perform? A.Examine for clamp closures. B.Irrigate with a larger syringe. C.Assess for signs of infection. D.Flush the line with heparin.

A Thrombus formation, closed clamp, or crystallized medication can cause resistance while flushing a central line, so the line should be assessed for closed clamps (A) first. Irrigation with a larger syringe (B) will not alleviate the cause for the resistance and can rupture the line. A central line infection (C) should not cause resistance while flushing the line. The CVC should be flushed with normal saline (D) or a diluted solution of heparin (10-100 U/mL) after (A) is completed, if necessary.

457. The nurse is assigned to care for clients on a medical unit. Based on the notes taken during the shift report, which client situation warrants the nurse's immediate attention?

A 10-year-old who is receiving chemotherapy and the infusion pump is beeping

388. The charge nurse is planning for the shift and has a registered nurse (RN) and a practical nurse (PN) on the team. Which client should the charge nurse assign to the RN?

A 30 year old depressed client who admits to suicide ideation.

The nurse is preparing to administer IV fluid to a client with a strict fluid restriction. IV tubing with which feature is most important for the nurse to select?

A Buretrol attachment.

45. Which location should the nurse choose as the best for beginning a screening program for hypothyroidism?

A business and professional women's group.

123. A family member of a frail elderly adult asks the nurse about eligibility requirements for hospice care. What information should the nurse provide? (Select all that apply.)

A client must be willing to accept palliative care, not curative care. The healthcare provider must project that the client has 6 months or less to live.

501. When assessing a male client, the nurse notes that he has unequal lung expansion. What conclusion regarding this finding is most likely to be accurate? The client has

A collapsed lung

Which instruction should the nurse include in the discharge teaching for a client who is taking an antipsychotic medication?

A common side effect of antipsychotic medications is constipation, and increasing high-fiber foods in the diet (A) can help to alleviate this problem.

594. The nurse is reviewing a client's electrocardiogram and determines the PR interval (PRI) is prolonged. What does this finding indicate?

Inability of the SA node to initiate an impulse at the normal rate

125. A nurse with 10 years experience working in the emergency room is reassigned to the perinatal unit to work an 8 hour shift. Which client is best to assign to this nurse?

A mother with an infected episiotomy

A 56-year-old female client is receiving intracavitary radiation via a radium implant. Which nurse should be assigned to care for this client?

A nurse with Marfan's syndrome who is postmenopausal.

The nurse is planning to conduct nutritional assessments and diet teaching to clients at a family health clinic. Which individual has the greatest nutritional and energy demands?

A pregnant woman.

Clinical portfolios are being introduced into the performance appraisal process for staff nurses employed at a hospital. What should the nurse-manager request that each staff nurse include in the portfolio?

A self-evaluation that identifies how the nurse has met professional objectives and goals.

A low potassium diet is prescribed for a client. What foods should the nurse teach this client to avoid?

A serving of dried prunes (D) contains more than 300 mg of potassium, and should be avoided. The richest dietary sources of potassium are unprocessed foods (especially fruits), many vegetables, and some dairy products, so the client should avoid these food groups. Servings of foods containing less than 150 mg of potassium, such as (A, B, and C), are good choices for a low potassium diet.

464. After teaching a male client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) about therapeutic diet...which menu of foods indicates that the teaching was effective? Select all that apply

A slice of whole grain toast A bowl of cream of wheat

The nurse anticipates administering Rho(D) immune globulin (RhoGAM) to which individual(s)? (Select all that apply.) A.An Rh-negative woman who has had a miscarriage at 24 weeks B.The father of a baby of an Rh-positive fetus C.An Rh-negative mother after delivery of an Rh-positive infant with a negative direct Coombs' test D.An Rh-positive infant within 72 hours after birth E.An Rh-negative mother with a negative antibody titer at 28 weeks

A,C,E Rationale: (A, C, and E) are all candidates for RhoGAM. RhoGAM should never be given to an infant or father (B and D).

183. The charge nurse is making assignment on a psychiatric unit for a practical nurse (PN) and newly license register nurse (RN). Which client should be assigned to the RN?

A young male with schizophrenia who said voices is telling him to kill his psychiatric.

When assessing a normal newborn, which finding(s) should the nurse expect? (Select all that apply.) A.Umbilical cord contains one vein and two arteries B.Slightly edematous labia in the female newborn C.Absence of Babinski reflex D.Presence of white plaques on the cheeks and tongue E.Nasal flaring noted with respirations

A,B Rationale: These are normal findings (A and B). The others indicate abnormalities or complications and should be reported to the primary health care provider (C, D, and E).

The nurse assesses a woman in the emergency room who is in her third trimester of pregnancy. Which finding(s) is(are) indicative of abruptio placentae? (Select all that apply.) A.Dark red vaginal bleeding B.Rigid boardlike abdomen C.Soft abdomen on palpation D.Complaints of severe abdominal pain E.Painless bright red vaginal bleeding

A,B,D Rationale: These are all signs of abruptio placentae (A, B, and D). The others are signs of placenta previa (C and E).

The nurse teaches a class on bioterrorism. Which method(s) of transmission is(are) possible with the biologic agent Bacillus anthracis (Anthrax)? (Select all that apply.) A.Inhalation of powder form B.Handling of infected animals C.Spread from person to person through coughing D.Eating undercooked meat from infected animals E.Direct cutaneous contact with the powder

A,B,D,E Rationale: Anthrax can be transmitted by the inhalation, cutaneous, and digestive routes (A, B, D, and E); however, the disease is not spread from person to person (C).

A nurse performs an initial admission assessment of a 56-year-old client. Which factor(s) would indicate that the client is at risk for metabolic syndrome? (Select all that apply.) A.Abdominal obesity B.Sedentary lifestyle C.History of hypoglycemia D.Hispanic or Asian ethnicity E.Increased triglycerides

A,B,D,E Rationale: Metabolic syndrome is a name for a group of risk factors that increase the risk for coronary artery disease, type 2 diabetes, and stroke (A, B, D, and E). Hypoglycemia is not a risk factor for metabolic syndrome (C).

The nurse is preparing a client for surgical stabilization of a fractured lumbar vertebrae. Which indication(s) best supports the client's need for insertion of an indwelling urinary catheter? (Select all that apply.) A.Hourly urine output B.Bladder distention C.Urinary incontinence D.Intraoperative bladder decompression E.Urine sample for culture

ABD Continuous bladder drainage using an indwelling catheter is indicated for monitoring hourly urinary output (A), bladder distention (B), and bladder decompression (D) related to urinary retention under anesthesia. Less invasive measures, such as a condom catheter or bladder training for urinary incontinence (C) or midstream collection of urine for culture (E) are not indicated based on the client's description.

The nurse assists the health care provider with an amniocentesis during the third trimester of pregnancy. Which intervention(s) would the nurse expect to implement after the procedure? (Select all that apply.) A.Monitor maternal vital signs for hemorrhage. B.Instruct the woman to report any contractions. C.Ensure that the woman has a full bladder prior to beginning. D.Monitor fetal heart rate for 1 hour after the procedure. E.Place the client in a side-lying position.

ABD These are safe measures to implement during an amniocentesis to monitor for and prevent complications (A, B, and D). During late pregnancy the bladder should be emptied so that it will not be punctured, but during early pregnancy the bladder must be full to push the uterus upward (C). The woman should be placed in a supine position with her hands across her chest (E).

284. The nurse inserts an indwelling urinary catheter as seen in the video what action should the nurse take next?

Leave the catheter in place and obtain a sterile catheter.

The nurse administers levothyroxine (Synthroid) to a client with hypothyroidism. Which data indicate(s) that the drug is effective? (Select all that apply.) A.Increase in T3 and T4 B.Decrease in heart rate C.Increase in TSH D.Decrease in urine output E.Decrease in periorbital edema

ABE Levothyroxine is a thyroid replacement drug that increases thyroid hormone levels (T3 [triiodothyronine] and T4 [thyroxine]) and decreases periorbital edema, a symptom of hypothyroidism (A and E). Decrease in heart rate and an increased level of thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) are not therapeutic results from taking levothyroxine (Synthroid) (B and C). Levothyroxine does not affect urine output (D).

Which intervention(s) is(are) most helpful in evaluating the effectiveness of nursing and medical treatments for dehydration in a 36-month-old child? (Select all that apply.) A.Record wet diapers. B.Assess for sunken fontanels. C.Examine skin turgor. D.Observe mucous membranes.

ACD All these interventions can be used to evaluate fluid status in children and are helpful assessment functions (A, C, and D), but the age of the child makes a fontanel check impractical (B). The posterior fontanel closes at 2 months and the anterior fontanel closes at 18 months of age.

The nurse performs an assessment on a client with heart failure. Which finding(s) is(are) consistent with the diagnosis of left-sided heart failure? (Select all that apply.) A.Confusion B.Peripheral edema C.Crackles in the lungs D.Dyspnea E.Distended neck veins

ACD Left-sided heart failure results in pulmonary congestion caused by the left ventricle's inability to pump blood to the periphery. Confusion, crackles in the lungs, and dyspnea are all signs of pulmonary congestion (A, C, and D). (B and E) are associated with right-sided heart failure.

What instruction(s) related to foot care is(are) appropriate for the client with type 1 diabetes mellitus? (Select all that apply.) A.Use lanolin to moisturize the tops and bottoms of the feet. B.Soak the feet in warm water for at least 1 hour daily. C.Wash feet daily and dry well, particularly between the toes. D.Use over-the-counter products to remove corns and calluses. E.Wear leather shoes that fit properly.

ACE (A, C, and E) are therapeutic interventions for foot care in the diabetic patient. (B and D) are contraindicated and could cause foot infection or injury.

Transcutaneous electrical nerve stimulation (TENS) is prescribed for a client with chronic back pain. Which action(s) should the nurse take when preparing the client for this type of pain relief? (Select all that apply.) A.Shave the area where the TENS will be placed. B.Obtain small needles for insertion. C.Place the TENS unit directly over or near the site of pain. D.Explain to the client that drowsiness may occur immediately after using TENS. E.Describe the use of TENS for postoperative procedures such as dressing changes.

ACE The correct choices are (A, C, and E). The TENS unit consists of a battery-operated transmitter, lead wires, and electrodes. The electrodes are placed directly over or near the site of pain (C), and hair or skin preparations should be removed before attaching the electrodes (A). The TENS unit is useful for managing postoperative pain or pain associated with postoperative procedures, such as removing drains or changing dressings (E). Electrodes are used, not needles (B) and, unlike with opioids, pain relief is achieved without drowsiness (D).

Which nursing intervention(s) should be implemented when caring for a client with bipolar disorder in the manic phase? (Select all that apply.) A.Report lithium level of 2.0 mEq/L to the primary health care provider. B.Encourage competitive physical activities as part of the client's therapy. C.Provide an environment with increased stimuli to engage the client. D.Maintain consistent salt levels in the diet when client is taking lithium. E.Assess the client's nutritional and hydration status.

ADE A therapeutic level for serum lithium is 0.5 to 1.5 mEq/L, and the client with 2.0 mEq/L is experiencing toxicity (A). Consistent salt levels are important when taking lithium to maintain a therapeutic level (D). Because of the client's manic state, the client is at risk for impaired nutrition and dehydration; therefore, they should be assessed (E). Noncompetitive physical activities should be encouraged because of the risk for agitation (B), and decreased environmental stimuli is therapeutic for the manic phase (C).

80. Which intervention is most important for the nurse to include in the plan of care for an older woman with osteoporosis?

Place the client on fall precautions

67. The nurse who is working on a surgical unit receives change of shift report on a group of clients for the upcoming shift. A client with which condition requires the most immediate attention by the nurse?

Abdominal-perineal resection 2 days ago with no drainage on dressing who has fever and chills.

A client with cancer has a history of alcohol abuse and is taking acetaminophen (Tylenol) for pain. Which organ function is most important for the nurse to monitor?

Acetaminophen and alcohol are both metabolized in the liver. This places the client at risk for hepatotoxicity, so monitoring liver (A) function is the most important assessment because the combination of acetaminophen and alcohol, even in moderate amounts, can cause potentially fatal liver damage. Other non-narcotic analgesics, such as n onsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs), are more likely to promote adverse renal effects (B). Acetaminophen does not place the client at risk for toxic reactions related to (C or D).

516. What is the primary goal when planning nursing care for a client with degenerative joint disease (DJD)?

Achieve satisfactory pain control.

590. A female client comes to the clinic complaining of fatigue and inability to sleep because she is the full-time caretaker for 22-year-old son who was paralyzed by a motor vehicle collision. She adds that her husband left her because he says he can't take her behavior any more since all she does is care for their son. What intervention should the nurse implement?

Acknowledge the client's stress and suggest that she consider respite care.

A client who has active tuberculosis (TB) is admitted to the medical unit. What action is most important for the nurse to implement?

Active tuberculosis requires implementation of airborne precautions, so the client should be assigned to a negative pressure air-flow room (D). Although (A and C) should be implemented for clients in isolation with contact precautions, it is most important that air flow from the room is minimized when the client has TB. (B) should be implemented when the client leaves the isolation environment.

The nurse plans a teaching session with a client but postpones the planned session based on which nursing problem?

Activity intolerance related to postoperative pain.

566. A primigravida client is 36 weeks gestation is admitted to labor and delivery unit because her membranes ruptured 30minutes ago. Initial assessment indicates 2cm dilation, 50% effaced, -2 station, vertex presentation greenish colored amniotic fluid, and contractions occurring 3-5 minutes with a low FHR after the last contraction peaks:

Administer Oxygen via face mask

30. A client is receiving a full strength continuous enteral tube feeding at 50 ml/hour and has developed diarrhea. The client has a new prescription to change the feeding to half strength. What intervention should the nurse implement?

Add equal amounts of water and feeding to a feeding bag and infuse at 50ml/hour

79. A postoperative female client has a prescription for morphine sulfate 10 mg IV q3 hours for pain. One dose of morphine was administered when the client was admitted to the post anesthesia care unit (PACU) and 3 hours later, the client is again complaining of pain. Her current respiratory rate is 8 breaths/minute. What action should the nurse take?

Administer Naxolone IV

129. After several hours of non-productive coughing, a client presents to the emergency room complaining of chest tightness and shortness of breath. History includes end stage chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) and diabetes mellitus. While completing the pulmonary assessment, the nurse hears wheezing and poor air movement bilaterally. Which actions should the nurse implement? (Select all that apply.)

Administer PRN nebulizer treatment. Obtain 12 lead electrocardiogram. Monitor continuous oxygen saturation.

314. An older adult resident of a long-term care facility has a 5-year history of hypertension. The client has a headache and rate the pain 5 on a pain scale 0 to 10. The client's blood pressure is currently 142/89. Which interventions should the nurse implement? (Select all that apply)

Administer a daily dose of lisinopril as scheduled. Provide a PRN dose of acetaminophen for headache

340. While making rounds, the charge nurse notices that a young adult client with asthma who was admitted yesterday is sitting on the side of the bed and leaning over the bed-side-table. The client is currently receiving at 2 litters/minute via nasal cannula. The client is wheezing and is using pursed-lip breathing. Which intervention should the nurse implement?

Administer a nebulizer Treatment

130. The nurse caring for a 3-month-old boy one day after a pylorotomy notices that the infant is restless, is exhibiting facial grimaces, and is drawing his knees to his chest. What action should the nurse take?

Administer a prescribed analgesia for pain.

356. A 6 -years-old who has asthma is demonstrating a prolonged expiratory phase and wheezing, and has 35% personal best peak expiratory flow rate (PEFR). Based on these finding, which action should the nurse implement first?

Administer a prescribed bronchodilator.

The nurse is planning care for a client who is having abdominal surgery. To achieve desired postoperative outcomes, the nurse includes interventions that promote progressive mobilization, such as turn, cough, deep breathe, and early ambulation. Which additional intervention should the nurse include?

Administer analgesics prior to encouraging progressive activities and ambulation.

A nurse whose tuberculosis (TB ) skin test result reveals an 8 mm induration obtains a negative chest radiograph, which indicates latent tuberculosis. The employee-health nurse should implement which intervention for this nurse?

Administer isoniazid (INH) daily for 6 to 9 months.

75. A client was admitted to the cardiac observation unit 2 hours ago complaining of chest pain. On admission, the client's EKG showed bradycardia, ST depression, but no ventricular ectopy. The client suddenly reports a sharp increase in pain, telling the nurse, "I feel like an elephant just stepped on my chest" The EKG now shows Q waves and ST segment elevations in the anterior leads. What intervention should the nurse perform?

Administer prescribed morphine sulfate IV and provide oxygen at 2 L/min per nasal cannula.

139. A client with a history of chronic pain requests a nonopioid analgesic. The client is alert but has difficulty describing the exact nature and location of the pain to the nurse. Which action should the nurse implement next?

Administer the analgesic as requested

210. The nurse assesses a client with new onset diarrhea. It is most important for the nurse to question the client about recent use of which type of medication?

Antibiotics

The nurse obtains a heart rate of 92 and a blood pressure of 110/76 prior to administering a scheduled dose of verapamil (Calan) for a client with atrial flutter. Which action should the nurse implement?

Administer the dose as prescribed. Verapamil slows sinoatrial (SA) nodal automaticity, delays atrioventricular (AV) nodal conduction, which slows the ventricular rate, and is used to treat atrial flutter, so (A) should be implemented, based on the client's heart rate and blood pressure. (B and C) are not indicated. (D) delays the administration of the scheduled dose.

271. A client receives a new prescription for simvastatin (Zocor) 5 mg PO daily at bedtime. What action should the nurse take?

Administer the medication as prescribed with a glass of water

192. The healthcare provider changes a client's medication prescription from IV to PO administration and double the dose. The nurse notes in the drug guide that the prescribed medication, when given orally, has a high first-pass effect and reduce bioavailability. What action should the nurse implement?

Administer the medication via the oral route as prescribed

529. A toddler presents to the clinic with a barking cough, strider, refractions with respiration, the child's skin is pink with capillary refill of 2 seconds. Which intervention should the nurse implement?

Administered Nebulized Epinephrine

34. Following surgery, a male client with antisocial personality disorder frequently requests that a specific nurse be assigned to his care and is belligerent when another nurse is assigned. What action should the charge nurse implement?

Advise the client that assignments are not based on clients requests

498. A female client with chronic urinary retention explains double voiding technique to the nurse by stating she voids partially, hold the remaining urine in her bladder for three minutes, then voids again to empty her bladder fully. How should the nurse respond?

Advise the client to empty her bladder fully when she first voids

434. The nurse makes a supervisory home visit to observe an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) who is providing personal care for a client with Alzheimer's disease. The nurse observes that whenever the client gets upset, the UAP changes the subject. What action should the nurse take in response to this observation?

Affirm that the UAP is using and effective strategy to reduce the client's anxiety.

336. When should intimate partner violence (IPV) screening occur?

As a routine part of each healthcare encounter

532. The nurse observes a newly hired unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) performing a fingestick to obtain a client's blood glucose. Prior to sticking the client's finger, the UAP explains the procedure and tell the client that it I painless. What action should the nurse take?

Allow the UAP to complete the procedure, then discuss the painless comment privately with the UAP.

360. A female nurse who took drugs from the unit for personal use was temporarily released from duty. After completion of mandatory counseling, the nurse has asked administration to allow her to return to work. When the nurse administrator approaches the charge nurse with the impaired nurse request, which action is best for the charge nurse to take?

Allow the impaired nurse to return to work and monitor medication administration

536. A nurse is preparing to feed a 2-month-old male infant with heart failure who was born with congenital heart defect. Which intervention should the nurse implement?

Allow the infant to rest before feeding

538. A nurse receive a shift report about a male client with Obsessive compulsive disorder (OCD). The nurse does morning rounds and reaches the client while he is repeatedly washing the top of the same table. What intervention should the nurse implement?

Allow time for the behavior and then redirect the clients to other activities

414. A young adult who is hit with a baseball bat on the temporal area of the left skull is conscious when admitted to the ED and is transferred to the Neurological Unit to be monitored for signs of closed head injury. Which assessment finding is indicative of a developing epidural hematoma?

Altered consciousness within the first 24 hours after injury.

57. A young adult who is hit with a baseball bat on the temporal area of the left skull is conscious when admitted to the ED and is transferred to the Neurological Unit to be monitored for signs of closed head injury. Which assessment finding is indicative of a developing epidural hematoma?

Altered consciousness within the first 24 hours after injury.

A retired office worker is admitted to the psychiatric inpatient unit with a diagnosis of major depression. The initial nursing care plan includes the goal, "Assist client to express feelings of anger." Which nursing intervention is most important to include in the client's plan of care?

Ask client to describe triggers of anger.

399. A male client with cancer is admired to the oncology unit and tells the nurse that he is in the hospital for palliative care measures. The nurse notes that the client's admission prescription include radiation therapy. What action should the nurse implement?

Ask the client about his expected goals for the hospitalization

A male client who has been taking propranolol (Inderal) for 18 months tells the nurse that the healthcare provider discontinued the medication because his blood pressure has been normal for the past three months. Which instruction should the nurse provide?

Although the healthcare provider discontinued the propranolol, measures to prevent rebound cardiac excitation, such as progressively reducing the dose over one to two weeks (C), should be recommended to prevent rebound tachycardia, hypertension, and ventricular dysrhythmias. Abrupt cessation (A and B) of the beta-blocking agent may precipitate tachycardia and rebound hypertension, so gradual weaning should be recommended. (D) is not indicated.

19. The charge nurse of a critical care unit is informed at the beginning of the shift that less than the optimal number of registered nurses will be working that shift. In planning assignments, which client should receive the most care hours by a registered nurse (RN)?

An 82-year-old client with Alzheimer's disease newly-fractures femur who has a Foley catheter and soft wrist restrains applied

The nurse is inspecting the external eye structures for a client. Which finding is a normal racial variation?

An African-American client may have slightly yellow sclerae.

After one month of short-term corticosteroid therapy, a client with an acute exacerbation of rheumatoid arthritis returns to the clinic for a follow-up visit. Which laboratory finding should the nurse review for a therapeutic response?

An elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) is indicative of active inflammation, so the nurse should determine if the ESR has normalized (D)

43. Which client is at the greatest risk for developing delirium?

An adult client who cannot sleep due to constant pain.

495. The healthcare provider prescribes heparin protocol at18 units/kg/hr for a client with a possible pulmonary embolism. This client weighs 144 pounds. The available solution is labeled, heparin sodium 25,000 units in 5% dextrose 250 ml. the nurse should program the pump to deliver how many ml/hr? (Enter numeric value only. If rounding is require round to the nearest whole number.)

Answer 12

150. A 16-year-old adolescent with meningococcal meningitis is receiving a continuous IV infusion of penicillin G, which is prescribed as 20 million units in a total volume of 2 liters of normal saline every 24 hr. The pharmacy delivers 10 million units/ liters of normal saline. How many ml/hr should the nurse program the infusion pump? (Enter numeric value only. If rounding is required, round to the nearest whole number.)

Answer 83

361. In making client care assignment, which client is best to assign to the practical nurse (PN) working on the unit with the nurse?

An immobile client receiving low molecular weight heparin q12 h.

382. A client is receiving and oral antibiotic suspension labeled 250 mg/2ml. The healthcare provider prescribes 200mg every 6 hours. How many ml should the nurse administer at each dose? (Enter numerical value only. If rounding is required, round to the nearest tenth)

Answer: 1.6

141. The nurse uses the parkland formula (4ml x kg x total body surface area = 24 hours fluid replacement) to calculate the 24-hours IV fluid replacement for a client with 40% burns who weighs 76kg. How many ml should the client receive? (Enter numeric value only.

Answer: 12160

378. After receiving the Braden scale findings of residents at a long-term facility, the charge nurse should to tell the unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) to prioritize the skin care for which client?

An older man whose sheets are damped each time he is turned.

225. Based on principles of asepsis, the nurse should consider which circumstance to be sterile?

An open sterile Foley catheter kit set up on a table at the nurse waist level

112. At the end of a preoperative teaching session on pain management techniques, a client starts to cry and states, "I just know I can't handle all the pain." What is the priority nursing diagnosis for this client?

Anxiety

185. In assessing an older female client with complication associated with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), the nurse notices a change in the client's appearance. Her face appears tense and she begs the nurse not to leave her alone. Her pulse rate is 100, and respirations are 26 per min. What is the primary nursing diagnosis?

Anxiety related to fear of suffocation.

406. A young adult male who is being seen at the employee health care clinic for an annual assessment tell the nurse that his mother was diagnosed with schizophrenia when she was his age and that life with a schizophrenic mother was difficulty indeed. Which response is best for the nurse to provide?

Ask the client if he is worried about becoming schizophrenic at the age his mother was diagnosed.

506. The nurse requests a meals tray for a client follows Mormon beliefs and who is on clear liquid diet following abdominal surgery. Which meal item should the nurse request for this client? (Select all that apply)

Apple juice Chicken broth.

A male client who had abdominal surgery has a nasogastric tube to suction, oxygen per nasal cannula, and complains of dry mouth. Which action should the nurse implement?

Apply a water soluble lubricant to the lips, oral mucosa and nares. To ease the client's discomfort, a water soluble lubricant to the lips and nares assists to keep the mucous membranes moist (D). (A) is a petroleum-based product and should not be used because it is flammable. (B and C) should not be given to the client with a nasogastric tube to suction because it can cause further distension and interfere with fluid and electrolyte balance.

546. A multigravida, full-term, laboring client complains of "back labor". Vaginal examination reveals that the client's 3 cm with 50% effacement and the fetal head is at -1 station. What should the nurse implement?

Apply counter-pressure to the sacral area

595. The nurse is teaching a male client with multiple sclerosis how to empty his bladder using the Crede Method. When performing a return demonstration, the client applies pressure to the umbilical areas of his abdomen. What instruction should the nurse provide?

Apply downward manual pressure at the suprapubic regions.

95. After repositioning an immobile client, the nurse observes an area of hyperemia. To assess for blanching, what action should the nurse take?

Apply light pressure over the area.

606. A client present at the clinic with blepharitis. What instructions should the nurse provide for home care?

Apply warm moist compresses then gently scrub eyelids with dilute baby shampoo

29. A female client is admitted with end stage pulmonary disease is alert, oriented, and complaining of shortness of breath. The client tells the nurse that she wants "no heroic measures" taken if she stops breathing, and she asks the nurse to document this in her medical record. What action should the nurse implement?

Ask the client to discuss "do not resuscitate" with her healthcare provider

To assess a client's pupillary response to accommodation, a nurse should perform which activity?

Ask the client to look at a distant object and then at an object held 10 cm from the nose.

128. While teaching a young male adult to use an inhaler for his newly diagnosed asthma, the client stares into the distance and appears to be concentrating on something other than the lesson the nurse is presenting. What action should the nurse take?

Ask the client what he is thinking about at his time.

454. While the nurse is conducting a daily assessment of an older woman who resides in a long-term facility, the client begins to cry and tells the nurse that her family has stopped calling and visiting. What action should the nurse take first?

Ask the client when a family member last visited her.

465. When five family members arrive at the hospital, they all begin asking the nurse questions regarding the prognosis of their critically ill mother. What intervention should the nurse implement first?

Ask the family to identify a specific spokesperson

295. A new member joins the nursing team spreads books on the table, puts items on two chairs, and sits on a third chair. The members of the group are forced to move closer and remove their possessions from the table what action should the nurse leader take?

Ask the new person to move belonging to accommodate others

307. A client who had a percutaneous transluminal coronary angioplasty (PTCA) two weeks ago returns to the clinic for a follow up visit. The client has a postoperative ejection fraction ejection fraction of 30%. Today the client has lungs which are clear, +1 pedal edema, and a 5pound weight gain. Which intervention the nurse implement?

Assess compliance with routine prescriptions.

462. On a busy day, one hour after the shift report is completed, the charge nurse learns that a female staff nurse who lives one hour away from the hospital forgot her prescription eye glasses at home. What action should the charge nurse take?

Ask the nurse to return home and get her prescription eyeglasses for work.

154. A preschool-aged boy is admitted to the pediatric unit following successful resuscitation from a near-drowning incident. While providing care to child, the nurse begins talking with his preadolescent brother who rescued the child from the swimming pool and initiated resuscitation. The nurse notices the older boy becomes withdrawn when asked about what happened. What action should the nurse take?

Ask the older brother how he felt during the incident.

The nurse is interviewing a female client whose spouse is present. During the interview, the spouse answers most of the questions for the client. Which action is best for the nurse to implement?

Ask the spouse to step out for a few minutes.

511. The healthcare provider prescribes oxycodone/ aspirin 1 tab PO every 4h as needed for pain, for a client with polycystic kidney disease. Before administering this medication, which component of the prescription should the nurse question?

Aspirin content.

216. Which intervention should the nurse implement during the administration of vesicant chemotherapeutic agent via an IV site in the client's arm?

Assess IV site frequently for signs of extravasation

417. Which intervention should the nurse implement during the administration of vesicant chemotherapeutic agent via an IV site in the client's arm?

Assess IV site frequently for signs of extravasation

497. The nurse is arranging home care for an older client who has a new colostomy following a large bowel resection three day. The clients plan to live with a family member. Which action should the nurse implement? Select all that apply

Assess the client for self-care ability Provide pain medication instructions Teach care of ostomy to care provider

Prior to the discharge of a healthy 4-day-old newborn, the nurse is collecting the blood specimens to screen for phenylketonuria (PKU), the Guthrie inhibition assay blood test. What action should the nurse implement to ensure the validity of the test?

Assess the newborn's feeding patterns of formula or breast milk which has "come in."

119. An older male comes to the clinic with a family member. When the nurse attempts to take the client's health history, he does not respond to questions in a clear manner. What action should the nurse implement first?

Assess the surroundings for noise and distractions.

51. An unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) assigned to obtain client vital signs reports to the charge nurse that a client has a weak pulse with a rate of 44 beat/ minutes. What action should the charge nurse implement?

Assign a practical nurse (LPN) to determine if an apical radial deficit is present

325. An adult who is 5 feet 5 inches (165.1 cm) tall and weighs 90 lb. (40.8 Kg) is admitted with a diagnosis of chronic anorexia. The client receives a regular diet for 2 days, and the client's medical records indicates that 100% of the diet provided has been consumed. However the client's weight on the third day morning after admission is 89 lb. (40.4 Kg). What action should the nurse implement?

Assign staff to monitor what the client eats.

443. The nurse who works in labor and delivery is reassigned to the cardiac care unit for the day because of a low census in labor and delivery. Which assignments is best for the nurse to give this nurse?

Assist cardiac nurses with their assignments

324. An adult client with severe depression was admitted to the psychiatric unit yesterday evening. Although the client ran one year ago, his spouse states that the client no longer runs, bur sits and watches television most of the day. Which is most important for the nurse to include in this client's plan of care for today?

Assist client in identifying goals for the day.

86. Several months after a foot injury, and adult woman is diagnosed with neuropathic pain. The client describes the pain as severe and burning and is unable to put weight on her foot. She asks the nurse when the pain will "finally go away." How should the nurse respond?

Assist the client in developing a goal of managing the pain

597. A client with gestational diabetes, at 39 weeks of gestation, is in the second stage of labor. After delivering of the fetal head, the nurse recognizes that shoulder dystocia is occurring. What intervention should the nurse implement first?

Assist the client to sharply flex her thighs up again the abdomen.

A client is receiving atenolol (Tenormin) 25 mg PO after a myocardial infarction. The nurse determines the client's apical pulse is 65 beats per minute. What action should the nurse implement next?

Atenolol, a beta-blocker, blocks the beta receptors of the sinoatrial node to reduce the heart rate, so the medication should be administered (C) because the client's apical pulse is greater than 60. (A, B, and D) are not indicated at this time.

203. While receiving a male postoperative client's staples de nurse observe that the client's eyes are closed and his face and hands are clenched. The client states, "I just hate having staples removed". After acknowledgement the client's anxiety, what action should the nurse implement?

Attempt to distract the client with general conversation

163. Which problem, noted in the client's history, is important for the nurse to be aware of prior to administration of a newly prescribed selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI)?

Aural migraine headaches.

450. A client who had an open cholecystectomy two weeks ago comes to the emergency department with complaints of nausea, abdominal distention, and pain. Which assessment should the nurse implement?

Auscultate all quadrant of the abdomen.

384. The nurse identifies an electrolyte imbalance, an elevated pulse rate, and elevated BP for a client with chronic kidney disease. Which is the most important action for the nurse to take?

Auscultate for irregular heart rate.

28. The nurse notes that a client has been receiving hydromorphone (Dilaudid) every six hours for four days. What assessment is most important for the nurse to complete?

Auscultate the client's bowel sounds

433. A client in the intensive care unit is being mechanically ventilated, has an indwelling urinary catheter in place, and is exhibiting signs of restlessness. Which action should the nurse take first?

Auscultated bilateral breath sounds

Which information should the nurse give a client with chronic kidney disease (CKD)?

Avoid salt substitutes. A client with CKD should restrict sodium and potassium dietary intake, and salt substitutes usually contain potassium, so (C) should be taught. Hypocalcemia is a complication of CKD and calcium supplements are often needed, not (A). Anemia related to CKD is treated with iron, folic acid, and erythropoietin, not (B). Although (D) is a common dietary recommendation, it not an essential part of client teaching for CKD.

A child with bacterial conjunctivitis receives a prescription for erythromycin eye drops. Which information is most important for the nurse to include in the teaching plan?

Avoid sharing towels and washcloths with siblings.

305. The nurse is preparing a discharge teaching plan for a client who had a liver transplant. Which instruction is most important to include in this plan?

Avoid crowds for first two months after surgery.

608. The nurse is teaching a client with atrial fibrillation about a newly prescribed medication, dronedarone. Which information should the nurse include in client interactions? (Select all that apply)

Avoid eating grapefruit or drinking grapefruit juice. Report changes in the use of daily supplements Notify you heal care provider if your skin looks yellow

571. A client with a recent colostomy expresses concern about the ability to control flatus. Which intervention is most important for the nurse to include in the client's plan of care?

Avoid foods that caused gas before the colostomy

104. The nurse should teach the client to observe which precaution while taking dronedarone?

Avoid grapefruits and its juice

424. The home care nurse provide self-care instruction for a client chronic venous insufficiency cause by deep vein thrombosis. Which instructions should the nurse include in the client's discharge teaching plan? Select all that apply

Avoid prolonged standing or sitting Use recliner for long period of sitting continue wearing elastic stocking

309. The nurse is preparing an older client for discharge following cataract extraction. Which instruction should be include in the discharge teaching?

Avoid straining at stool, bending, or lifting heavy objects.

A nurse is planning to teach self-care measures to a female client about prevention of yeast infections. Which instructions should the nurse provide?

Avoid tight-fitting clothing and do not use bubble-bath or bath salts.

124. A client with atrial fibrillation receives a new prescription for dabigatran. What instruction should the nurse include in this client's teaching plan?

Avoid use of nonsteroidal ant-inflammatory drugs (NSAID).

The charge nurse of a 16-bed medical unit is making 0700 to 1900 shift assignments. The team consists of two RNs, two PNs, and two UAP. Which assignment is the most effective use of the available team members? A.Assign the PNs to perform am care and assist with feeding the clients. B.Assign the UAPs to take vital signs and obtain daily weights. C.Assign the RNs to answer the call lights and administer all medications. D.Assign the PNs to assist health care providers on rounds and perform glucometer checks.

B A UAP can take vital signs and daily weights on stable clients (B). UAPs can perform am care and feed clients, which is a better use of personnel than assigning the task to the PN (A). All team members can answer call lights and PNs can administer some of the medications, so assigning the RN (C) these tasks is not an effective use of the available personnel. The RN is the best team member to assist on rounds (D), and the UAP can perform glucometer checks, so assigning the PN these tasks is not an effective use of available personnel.

A client with hemiparesis needs assistance transferring from the bed to the wheelchair. The nurse assists the client to a sitting position on the side of the bed. Which action should the nurse implement next? A.Flex the hips and knees and align the knees with the client's knees for safety. B.Allow the client to sit on the side of the bed for a few minutes before transferring. C.Place the client's weight-bearing or strong leg forward and the weak foot back. D.Grasp the transfer belt at the client's sides to provide movement of the client.

B A client who has been immobile may be weak and dizzy and develop orthostatic hypotension (a drop in blood pressure on rising), so allowing the client to sit for a few minutes (B) before transferring from the bedside to the wheelchair provides time for the client to gain equilibrium and allows dependent blood in the lower extremities to return to the heart. Next, positioning the legs under the client's center of gravity (A and C) reduces back strain and stabilizes the client to stand. To ensure a safe transfer for a client with hemiparesis (unilateral muscle weakness), a transfer belt (D) provides a secure hold to prevent sudden falls.

An older client is admitted to the hospital with abdominal pain and watery, incontinent diarrhea following a course of antibiotic therapy for pneumonia. Stool cultures reveal the presence of Clostridium difficile. While planning care, which nursing goal should the nurse establish as the priority? A.Fluid and electrolyte balance is maintained. B.Health care-associated infection (HAI) transmission of infectious diarrhea is prevented. C.Abdominal pain is relieved and perianal skin integrity is maintained. D.Normal bowel patterns are reestablished.

B A priority goal for the client with infectious diarrhea caused by Clostridium difficile is infection control precautions and the prevention of health care-associated infection (HAI) transmission (B). (A and C) are goals dependent on the return of the client's normal bowel pattern (D).

When caring for a client hospitalized with Guillain-Barré syndrome, which information is most important for the nurse to report to the primary health care provider? A.Ascending numbness from the feet to the knees B.Decrease in cognitive status of the client C.Blurred vision and sensation changesD. Persistent unilateral headache

B Rationale: A decline in cognitive status in a client is indicative of symptoms of hypoxia and a possible need to assist the client with mechanical ventilation. A primary health care provider will need to be contacted immediately (B). (A, C, and D) are findings associated with Guillain-Barré syndrome that should also be reported, but are not as critical as the client's hypoxic status.

The health care provider performs a bone marrow aspiration from the posterior iliac crest for a client with pancytopenia. Which action should the nurse implement first? A.Inspect the dressing over the puncture site and under the client for bleeding. B.Take the vital signs to determine the client's response for a potential blood loss. C.Use caution when changing the dressing to avoid dislodging a clot at the puncture site. D.Assess the client's pain level to determine the need for analgesic medication.

B After bone marrow aspiration, pressure is applied at the aspiration site, which is critical for a client with pancytopenia because of a decrease in the platelet count. The client's baseline vital signs should be obtained first to determine changes indicating bleeding caused by the procedure (B). Although (A, C, and D) should be implemented after the procedure, the first action is to obtain a baseline assessment.

The nurse is teaching a client newly diagnosed with diabetes mellitus about the subcutaneous administration of Regular and NPH insulin. Which statement indicates that the client needs further instruction? A."I should balance my daily exercise with my dietary intake and insulin dosages." B."When I give myself an injection, I should aspirate to make sure that I am not in a blood vessel." C."I should inject my insulin into a different site to reduce the development of scar tissue." D."I should remove the dose of clear insulin first and then the dose of cloudy insulin from the vials."

B Aspiration (B) is not necessary when giving insulin because it could increase tissue trauma and affect the absorption rate. (C) helps minimize tissue atrophy, which can affect the absorption of the insulin. (A and D) are correct procedures. The client should balance an active physical lifestyle with diet, insulin, and blood glucose monitoring to ensure good serum glucose control. When mixing insulins in the same syringe, the clear (Regular) insulin is withdrawn first to avoid contamination of the clear vial with cloudy NPH insulin, which will alter the absorption rate of the remaining Regular insulin.

The charge nurse overhears a staff member asking for a doughnut from a client's meal tray. Which action should the charge nurse implement? A.Advise the client that food from the meal tray should not be shared with others. B.Leave the room and discuss the incident privately with the staff member. C.Objectively document the situation as observed on a variance report. D.Call the nurse-manager to the client's room immediately.

B Discussing the incident privately (B) promotes open communication between the charge nurse and staff member. The client is free to share unwanted food (A) with family or friends, but the employee should not ask for the client's food. (C) is not necessary, and the charge nurse can respond to this situation without implementing (D).

A client with acute renal failure (ARF) starts to void 4 L/day 2 weeks after treatment is initiated. Which complication is important for the nurse to monitor the client for at this time? A.Diabetes insipidus B.Hypotension C.Hyperkalemia D.Uremia

B During the transition from oliguria to the diuretic phase of acute renal failure, the tubule's inability to concentrate the urine causes osmotic diuresis, which places the client at risk for hypovolemia and hypotension (B). (A) is related to the secretion of antidiuretic hormone (ADH) and not specifically to the kidney function. Because of the excessive fluid loss, the client is at risk for potassium loss, not (C). (D) is characteristic of chronic renal failure with multiple body system involvement.

When caring for a client in labor, which finding is most important to report to the primary health care provider? A.Maternal heart rate, 90 beats/min. B.Fetal heart rate, 100 beats/min C.Maternal blood pressure, 140/86 mm Hg D.Maternal temperature, 100.0° F

B Rationale: A fetal heart rate (FHR) of 100 beats/min may indicate fetal distress (B) because the average FHR at term is 140 beats/min and the normal range is 110 to beats/min 160. The others (A, C, and D) are normal findings for a woman in labor.

When the administration at a large urban medical center decides to establish a unit to care for clients with infectious diseases, such as severe acute respiratory syndrome (SARS) and the avian flu, several employees express fear related to caring for these clients. When choosing staff to work on this unit, which action is best for the nurse-manager to take? A.Make it clear that no one who is afraid to care for clients with rare disorders will be permitted to work on the unit. B.Conduct an education program about infectious diseases and then assess the staff's willingness to work with these clients. C.Introduce the staff to the family of a client who has been treated for SARS and ask the staff to share their fears with this family. D.Assign staff based on the needs of the unit, providing peer counseling for those staff members who express fear.

B Fear is often related to a lack of knowledge and an education program about the relevant disorders would be appropriate, but after the education program, the nursing staff should be reassessed regarding their willingness to work with these clients (B). (A) is too authoritarian and does not permit education to play a role in reducing fears. (C) is likely to be intrusive to the family member. Arbitrary staffing (D) without education does not reduce staff fears, even with the provision of peer counseling.

The health care provider prescribes 1000 mL of a D5W solution to infuse over 8 hours for a client who has had a appendectomy. The IV tubing being using delivers 15 gtt/mL. The nurse should set the flow rate at how many gtt/min? (If rounding is necessary, round to the nearest whole drop.) A.15 B.32 C.64 D.50

B Flow rate = 15 gtt/mL × (1000 mL/8 hr) × (1 hr/60 min) = 32 gtt/min

The nurse is preparing to administer dalteparin (Fragmin) subcutaneously to an immobile client who has been receiving the medication for 5 days. Which finding indicates that the nurse should hold the prescribed dose? A.Tachypnea B.Guaiac-positive stool C.Multiple small abdominal bruises D.Dependent pitting edema

B Fragmin is an anticoagulant used to prevent deep vein thrombosis (DVT) in the at-risk client. If the client develops overt signs of bleeding, such as guaiac-positive stool (B) while receiving an anticoagulant, the medication should be held and coagulation studies completed. (A) is not an indication to hold the medication unless accompanied by signs of bleeding. (C) is an expected result. (D) is related to fluid volume, rather than anticoagulant therapy.

A client is admitted to the mental health unit with a chief complaint of crying, depressed mood, and sleeping difficulties. While talking about the death of a friend, the client states, "I can't believe this happened." Which statement by the nurse is most therapeutic? A."It sounds like you're feeling very sad." B."Tell me more about how you're feeling." C."How often do you have crying spells?" D."Do you want to talk about these feelings?"

B It is most therapeutic to ask an open-ended question and encourage the client to explore his or her feelings (B). (A) is a leading response, and the client may not be feeling sad. (C and D) are close-ended questions that do not facilitate communication.

The nurse is obtaining a client's sexual history. Which finding requires additional follow-up regarding the client's self-image? A.Sexual intercourse with the spouse occurs four times a week. B.The spouse has never seen the client naked. C.The client has had surgery for permanent birth control. D.A history of a 20-lb weight loss occurred in the past year.

B It is usual for spouses to see each other without clothing, so a follow-up question about (B) should provide additional information about the client's self-concept and body image. (A and C) are choices within the continuum of normal and acceptable sexual needs based on each couple's preferences. Body image is a perception of one's physical self and weight gain or loss normally affects one's self-image (D).

The nurse prepares to administer acetaminophen oral suspension to a child who weighs 66 pounds. The prescription reads: Administer 15 mg/kg every 6 hours by mouth. The Tylenol is available 150 mg/5 ml. Which is the correct dosage indicated on the image? A.30ml B.15ml C.10ml D.5ml

B Rationale: 66 lb/(2.2 kg/lb) = 30 kg 30 kg × (15 mg/kg) = 450 mg (5 mL/150 mg) × 450 mg = 15 mL or (450 mg/150 mg) × 5 mL = 15 mL

The nurse is assessing suicide risk for a client recently admitted to the acute psychiatric unit. Which finding is the most significant risk factor? A.High level of anxiety present B.History of previous suicide attempt C.Family history of depression D.Self-care deficit is noted

B Rationale: A previous history of a suicide attempt is the most significant risk factor for future suicide attempts because the client has previously implemented a plan (B). The others (A, C, and D) may also be risk factors but are not as significant as a history of previous attempts.

A nurse is assessing a client with heart failure who has been prescribed digoxin (Lanoxin) for therapy. Which finding indicates an issue with the medication management? A.Regular heart rate of 88 beats/min B.Serum potassium level, 2.9 mEq/L C.Weight decreases by 1 lb daily D.Serum sodium level, 138 mEq/L

B Rationale: A serum potassium level of 2.9 mEq/L is low, and side effects of digoxin toxicity are exacerbated when the potassium level is low (B). (A, C, and D) are all expected findings when caring for a client with congestive heart failure.

A client in the psychiatric setting with an anxiety disorder reports chest pain. Which action should the nurse take first? A.Administer an antianxiety medication PRN. B.Assess the client's vital signs. C.Notify the primary health care provider. D.Determine coping mechanisms used in the past.

B Rationale: Although increased heart rate, palpitations, and chest pain may be caused by anxiety, it is important that the nurse assess the patient and rule out physiologic causes (B). Nonpharmacologic measures should be taken first (A). (C and D) may be considered but are not as high priority as the initial physiologic assessment.

The nurse empties a client's urinary drainage from an indwelling Foley catheter. Which finding should be reported to the primary health care provider? A.Ammonia odor is noted when the catheter is emptied. B.240 mL of urinary output is produced in 12 hours. C.A 16-French catheter was used for an adult female. D.Drainage system is hanging below the level of the bladder.

B Rationale: An expected finding is between 400 and 750 mL in 12 hours = average of 30 mL/hr (B). Ammonia odor is an expected finding (A). Size 14- to 18-French catheters are common sizes used in the adult female (C). Below the level of the bladder is the correct position for the drainage bag (D).

Which data obtained during a respiratory assessment for a 78-year-old client is most important to report to the primary health care provider? A.Auscultation of vesicular breath sounds B.Pulse oximetry reading of 89% C.Arterial Pao2 of 86% D.Resonance on percussion of the lungs

B Rationale: An oxygen saturation lower than 90% indicates hypoxia (B). (A, C, and D) are all normal findings.

A nurse is interviewing a mother during a well-child visit. Which finding would alert the nurse to continue further assessment of the infant? A.Two-month-old who is unable to roll from back to abdomen B.Ten-month-old who cannot sit without support C.Nine-month-old who cries when his mother leaves the room D.Eight-month-old who has not yet begun to speak words

B Rationale: As a developmental milestone, infants should sit unsupported by 8 months (B). The milestone of rolling over is achieved at 5 to 6 months for most infants (A). Stranger anxiety is common from 7 to 9 months (C). Speaking a few words is expected at about 12 months (D).

When blood or blood products are administered, which task can be assigned to the licensed practical nurse (LPN)? A.Initiation of the blood product B.Obtaining vital signs after infusion has begun C.Assessment of client's condition prior to blood administration D.Evaluation of client's response after receiving blood product

B Rationale: Blood and blood products must be initiated by the registered nurse (RN) (B); however, obtaining vital signs may be delegated as long as the results are evaluated by the RN. (A, C, and D) are all part of the nursing process and the scope of the RN.

The nurse is caring for a client with a cerebrovascular accident (CVA) who is receiving enteral tube feedings. Which task performed by the UAP requires immediate intervention by the nurse? A.Suctions oral secretions from mouth B.Positions head of bed flat when changing sheets C.Takes temperature using the axillary method D.Keeps head of bed elevated at 30 degrees

B Rationale: Positioning the head of the bed flat when enteral feedings are in progress puts the client at risk for aspiration (B). The others are all acceptable tasks performed by the UAP (A, C, and D).

393. A client with a lower respiratory tract infection receives a prescription for ciprofloxacin 500mg PO q 12hours. When the client request an afternoon snack, which dietary choice should the nurse provide?

Cinnamon applesauce

The nurse plans to teach blood glucose self-monitoring to a client who is newly diagnosed with diabetes mellitus type 1, and the health care provider has given the client a schedule for testing. In addition to the prescribed schedule, the nurse should also instruct the client to check the blood glucose level in which circumstance? A.Any time the client awakens during the night B.Whenever the client has feelings of dizziness C.Right after meals if insulin is not administered 30 minutes before the meal D.Only at scheduled times; additional testing harmful to fingertips

B Rationale: Clients should be instructed to always check their blood glucose level whenever they feel faint or dizzy (B). There is great variability in recommendations for the frequency of blood glucose testing. When first diagnosed, clients are often advised to test before and after meals and at bedtime, and then after meals and at bedtime for a short period. Once they are stable, clients may be advised to test four times a day or as little as once each week, depending on the consistency of their diet and exercise and stability of their blood sugar level. (A, C, and D) provide inaccurate information.

A client with non-Hodgkin's lymphoma has been prescribed cyclophosphamide (Cytoxan) IV for therapy. Which assessment finding would need to be reported immediately to the oncologist? A.Sores on the mouth or tongue B.Chills, fever, and sore throat C.Loss of appetite or weight with diarrhea D.Changes in color of fingernails or toenails

B Rationale: Cyclophosphamide (Cytoxan) is an immunosuppressive drug used to treat lymphoma and puts the client at risk for infection. Signs and symptoms of an infection should be reported to the oncologist immediately (B). These are expected signs and symptoms of non-Hodgkin's lymphoma (A and C). (D) is a normal side effect of cyclophosphamide.

The nurse is caring for a client who develops ventricular fibrillation. Which action should the nurse take first? A.Administer epinephrine. B.Defibrillate immediately. C.Bolus with isotonic fluid. D.Notify the health care provider.

B Rationale: Defibrillation is the first and most effective emergency treatment for ventricular fibrillation (B). The others may follow the first action (A, C, and D).

A nurse working in the emergency department admits a client with full-thickness burns to 50% of the body. Assessment findings indicate high-pitched wheezing, heart rate of 120 beats/min, and disorientation. Which action should the nurse take first? A.Insert a large-bore IV for fluid resuscitation. B.Prepare to assist with maintaining the airway. C.Cleanse the wounds using sterile technique. D.Administer an analgesic for pain.

B Rationale: High-pitched wheezing indicates laryngeal stridor, a sign of laryngeal edema associated with lung injury. Airway management is the first priority of care (B). (A, C, and D) are all appropriate interventions in managing the client with a burn but are not as critical as establishing an airway.

A client at 32 weeks of gestation is hospitalized with preeclampsia, and magnesium sulfate is prescribed to control the symptoms. Before the next dose of MgSO4 is given, which assessment finding indicates that the patient is at risk for toxicity? A.Deep tendon reflexes—decrease to 2+ B.100 mL of urine output in 4 hours C.Respiratory rate decreases to 16 breaths/min D.Serum magnesium level, 7.5 mg/dL

B Rationale: Magnesium sulfate, a central nervous system (CNS) depressant, helps prevent seizures, so (A) is a positive sign that the medication is having a desired effect. The minimum urine output expected for a repeat dose of magnesium sulfate is 30 mL/hr, so 100 mL of urine in 4 hours can lead to poor excretion of magnesium, with a possible cumulative effect (B). A decreased respiratory rate (C) indicates that the drug is effective. A respiratory rate below 12 breaths/min indicates toxic effects. The therapeutic level of magnesium sulfate for a PIH client is 4 to 8 mg/dL (D).

When caring for a postsurgical client who has undergone multiple blood transfusions, which serum laboratory finding is of most concern to the nurse? A.Sodium level, 137 mEq/L B.Potassium level, 5.5 mEq/L C.Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) level, 18 mg/dL D.Calcium level, 10 mEq/L

B Rationale: Multiple blood transfusions are a risk factor for hyperkalemia. A serum potassium level higher than 5.0 mEq/L indicates hyperkalemia (B). The others are normal findings (A, C, and D).

The nurse is caring for a client on the medical unit. Which task can be delegated to unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP)? A.Assess the need to change a central line dressing. B.Obtain a fingerstick blood glucose level. C.Answer a family member's questions about the client's plan of care. D.Teach the client side effects to report related to the current medication regimen.

B Rationale: Obtaining a fingerstick blood glucose level is a simple treatment and is an appropriate skill for UAP to perform (B). (A, C, and D) are skills that cannot be delegated to UAP.

The nurse is caring for a client who is experiencing severe pain. The expected outcome the nurse writes for the client reads, "The client will state my pain is less than 2 within 45 minutes after pain medication has been administered." Formulating the expected outcome is an example of which step in the nursing process? A.Assessment B.Planning C.Implementation D.Evaluation

B Rationale: Planning (B) allows the nurse to set goals for care and elicit the expected outcome by identifying appropriate nursing actions. Assessment, implementation, and evaluation are part of the care for the client but are not the appropriate actions for formulating the expected outcome (A, C, and D).

The nurse administers regular insulin (human), 8 units subcutaneously, to a client at 8:00 am, 30 minutes before breakfast. At what time is the client most at risk for a hypoglycemic reaction? A.9:30 am B.10:30 am C.12:00 pm D.3:00 pm

B Rationale: Regular insulin is short-acting and peaks between 2 and 3 hours after administration (B). The client is most at risk for a hypoglycemic reaction during the peak times. (A, C, and D) are not high-risk times for the client to experience hypoglycemia because they do not fall within the peak time.

The family of a male adult with schizophrenia does not want the client to be involved in decisions regarding his treatment. The nurse should inform the family that the client has a right to be involved in his treatment planning based on which law? A.Social Security Act of 1990 B.American with Disabilities Act of 1990 C.Medicaid Act of 1965 D.Mental Health Act of 1946

B Rationale: The Americans with Disabilities Act (B) guarantees the client the right to participate in treatment planning. (A) is a federal insurance program that provides benefits to retired persons, the unemployed, and the disabled. (C) is a program for eligible individuals and/or families with low income and resources. (D) provides for public education regarding psychiatric illnesses.

A client with human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) develops a painful blistering skin rash on the right lateral abdominal area. Which drug should the nurse expect to administer to treat this condition? A.Levofloxacin (Levaquin) B.Acyclovir sodium (Zovirax) C.Fluconazole (Diflucan) D.Esomeprazole (Nexium)

B Rationale: The clinical manifestations listed are consistent with herpes zoster (shingles). Acyclovir sodium is an antiviral used to treat herpes zoster or shingles (B). Levofloxacin is an antibiotic and may be used to treat pneumonia or other infections in the HIV client (A). Fluconazole is an antifungal and is used to treat candidiasis in the HIV client (C). Esomeprazole is a protein pump inhibitor used for gastroesophageal reflux disease (D).

Which nursing intervention should be implemented postoperatively in an infant with spina bifida after repair of a meningocele? A.Limit fluids to prevent infection to the surgical site. B.Place the infant in the prone position. C.Provide a low-residue diet to limit bowel movements. D.Cover sac with a moist sterile dressing.

B Rationale: The infant should be placed in the prone position to alleviate pressure on the surgical site, which is in the sacrum (B). Fluids should be increased postoperatively to prevent dehydration (A). A high-fiber diet should be implemented to prevent constipation (C). After the repair, the sac is no longer exposed, so (D) does not apply.

When caring for a client with a tracheostomy, which intervention should the nurse delegate to the unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP)? A.Teach the family about signs and symptoms of hypoxia. B.Take the vital signs and obtain an O2 saturation level. C.Evaluate the need for tracheal suctioning. D.Revise the plan of care to include tracheostomy care.

B Rationale: The nurse may delegate obtaining vital signs and O2 saturation; however, the nurse is responsible for following up on any reported data (B). (A, C, and D) are all part of the nursing process and should not be delegated under the nurse's scope of practice.

A couple expresses concern and fear prior to having an amniocentesis to determine fetal lung maturity. To assist them in coping with this situation, which intervention is best for the nurse to implement? A.Explain that harm to the fetus is highly unlikely. B.Answer all their questions regarding the procedure. C.Encourage them to verbalize their feelings. D.Show them a video about the procedure.

B Rationale: The nurse should allay their concerns by providing information about the procedure and answering questions (B). This action assists the couple in coping with the situation. (A) may offer false reassurance. (C) alone does not resolve the couple's fears. Although (D) may be helpful, it is a passive activity, and the nurse's availability to answer questions is likely to be most helpful in calming their fears.

A client who is first day postoperative after a mastectomy becomes increasingly restless and agitated. Vital signs are temperature, 100° F; pulse, 98 beats/min; respirations, 24/breaths/min; and blood pressure, 120/80 mm Hg. Which intervention should the nurse implement first? A.Administer a PRN dose of a prescribed analgesic. B.Assess the incision for any drainage or redness C.Instruct the UAP to take vital signs hourly. D.Assist the client to a more comfortable position.

B Rationale: The nurse's priority is to observe for possible hemorrhage (B). The client is at high risk for hypovolemic shock and is exhibiting early symptoms of shock. Remember, in early shock the blood pressure may be stable or increase slightly as a compensatory mechanism. If there is no obvious indication of bleeding, the client should then be assessed for the need of an analgesic (A, C, and D) should be implemented.

The nurse in the emergency department is caring for a client with type 1 diabetes mellitus in diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). Which action should the nurse take first? A.Administer regular insulin IV. B.Start an IV infusion of normal saline. C.Check serum electrolyte levels. D.Give a potassium supplement.

B Rationale: The patient in DKA experiences severe dehydration and must be rehydrated before insulin is administered (B). The other actions will follow rehydration (A, C, and D).

The nurse prepares to administer 3 units of regular insulin and 20 units of NPH insulin subcutaneously to a client with an elevated blood glucose level. Which procedure is correct? A.Using one syringe, first insert air into the regular vial and then insert air into the NPH vial. B.Using one syringe, add the regular insulin into the syringe and then add the NPH insulin. C.Avoid combining the two insulins because incompatibility could cause an adverse reaction. D.Administer the regular insulin subcutaneously and then give the NPH IV to prevent a separate stick.

B Rationale: The regular or "clear" insulin should be withdrawn into the syringe first, followed by the NPH (B). Air should first be injected into the NPH vial and then air should be inserted into the regular vial (A). NPH and regular insulin are compatible, and combining will reduce the number of injections (C). The insulin is ordered subcutaneously and NPH cannot be given IV (D).

The charge nurse observes a student nurse enter the room of a client who is prescribed airborne precautions. The application of which personal protective equipment by the student indicates a correct understanding of this precaution? A.Surgical mask, clean gloves, and gown B.Properly fitted N95 respirator or mask C.Sterile gloves and gown D.Goggles, clean gloves, and gown

B Rationale: The use of personal protective equipment (PPE) for airborne precautions includes a properly prefitted N95 respirator or mask (B). (A, C and D) do not provide the appropriate respiratory equipment for airborne precautions. A surgical mask is used for preventing transmission of droplet precautions.

The nurse prepares to administer ophthalmic drops to a client prior to cataract surgery. List the steps in the order that they should be implemented from first step to final step. A. Drop prescribed number of drops into conjunctival sac. B. Wash hands and apply clean gloves. C. Place dominant hand on the client's forehead. D. Ask the client to close the eye gently. A. C, B, A, D B. B, C, A, D C. A, B, D, C D. A, C, B, D

B Rationale: Washing hands and applying gloves prior to procedure initiation prevents the spread of infection (B). Placing the dominant hand on the client's forehead (C) stabilizes the hand so the nurse can hold the dropper 1 to 2 cm above the conjunctival sac and drop the prescribed number of drops (A); asking the client to close the eye gently helps distribute the medication (D).

A client with rhabdomyolysis tells the nurse about falling while going to the bathroom and lying on the floor for 24 hours before being found. Which current client finding is indicative of renal complications? A.3+ protein in the urine B.Blood urea nitrogen >25 mg/dL C.Blood pH >7.45 D.Urine output, 2500 mL/day

B Rhabdomyolysis is characterized by destruction of muscles that release myoglobin, causing myoglobinuria, which places the client at risk for acute renal failure, so an increased blood urea nitrogen (BUN) level (B) indicates a decrease in renal function. Blood in the urine from the accompanying breakdown of red blood cells contributes to proteinuria (A), an expected finding. Metabolic acidosis is the potential complication, not alkalosis (C). During the diuretic phase of acute renal failure, there can be a normal output volume (D) (approximately 2000 mL/day), which can result from IV fluid hydration.

The nurse calls the primary health care provider to report the status of a postsurgical client. Place the statements in the correct SBAR communication format. A. "Mr. Jones is experiencing pain of a 7 on a scale of 1 to 10. Vital signs are B/P 150/88, HR 90, and RR 26, with an O2 sat of 95%." B. "This is Mary Smith, RN, calling about Mr. Jones in room 325 at Memorial Hospital." C. "Mr. Jones had an open cholecystectomy yesterday and reports inadequate pain control with his current medication regimen since the surgery." D. "Would you like to make a change in his pharmacologic regimen?" A. C, B, A, D B. B, C, A, D C. A, B, C, D D. A, C, D, B

B SBAR: S = Situation and includes introduction of the nurse and client/setting (B). B = Background and includes the presenting complaint and relevant history (C). A = Assessment and includes current vital signs and other information (A). R = Recommendations and includes an explanation of why you are calling or a suggestion about which action should be taken (D).

The nurse is developing a health risk assessment protocol for use in a well-baby clinic in a low-income neighborhood. Which information is most important for the nurse to include in the assessment? A.Hearing acuity B.Immunization history C.Weight and length D.Head circumference

B The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention indicate that vaccines are among the most widely used, effective, and safe medical products in use today. Assessing the infant immunization histories in clients from disadvantaged socioeconomic groups (B) is the most effective method for determining these infants' susceptibilities to vaccine-preventable diseases. Assessment of (A, C, and D) provides valuable information but does not supply information about infants' susceptibilities to vaccine-preventable diseases, which are major causes of infant mortality and morbidity.

The RN is caring for a client who is in skeletal traction. Which activity should the RN assign to the PN? A.Assess skeletal pins for infection. B.Assist the client with toileting. C.Establish thrombus prevention care. D.Evaluate pain management plan.

B The PN can implement nursing care, such as (B). The PN assists the RN in the development of a teaching plan and reinforces information to the client according to the plan. (A, C, and D) are outside the scope of PN practice, but the PN can assist the RN in gathering data, implementing nursing care, and contributing to the plan of care under the supervision of the RN.

When assisting a client who has undergone a right above-knee amputation with positioning in bed, which action should the nurse include? A.Keep the residual limb elevated during positioning. B.Instruct the client to grasp the overhead trapeze bar. C.Maintain alignment with an abduction pillow. D.Use pillow support to prevent turning to a prone position.

B The client will gain upper body strength and independence by using the overhead trapeze bar for positioning (B). Elevation of the residual limb is controversial (A) because a flexion contracture of the hip may result, so it is not necessary to maintain elevation during positioning. (C) is used for alignment following some hip surgeries. A prone position (D) should be encouraged to stretch the flexor muscles and prevent flexion contracture of the hip.

A client who is on the outpatient surgical unit is preparing for discharge after a myringotomy with placement of ventilating tubes. Which response by the client indicates that further teaching is necessary? A."I will avoid coughing, sneezing, and forceful nose blowing." B."Swimming can begin on the tenth postoperative day." C."Any mild discomfort can be managed with acetaminophen." D."Drainage from my ears is expected after the surgery."

B The purpose of the ventilating tubes in the tympanic membrane is to equalize pressure and drain fluid collection from the middle ear. The tube's patency allows air and water to enter the middle ear, so the client should be reeducated if the client swims (B) or allows water to enter the external ear. (A, C, and D) reflect correct responses.

Six hours following thoracic surgery, a client has the following arterial blood gas (ABG) findings: pH, 7.50; Paco2, 30 mm Hg; HCO3, 25 mEq/L; Pao2, 96 mm Hg. Which intervention should the nurse implement based on these results? A.Increase the oxygen flow rate from 4 to 10 L/min per nasal cannula. B.Assess the client for pain and administer pain medication as prescribed. C.Encourage the client to take short shallow breaths for 5 minutes. D.Prepare to administer sodium bicarbonate IV over 30 minutes.

B These ABGs reveal respiratory alkalosis (B), and treatment depends on the underlying cause. Because the client is only 6 hours postoperative, he or she should be assessed for pain because treating the pain will correct the underlying problem. A Pao2 of 96 mm Hg does not indicate the need for an increase in oxygen administration (A). The Paco2 indicates mild hyperventilation, so (C) is not indicated. In addition, it is very difficult to change one's breathing pattern. The use of sodium bicarbonate (D) is indicated for the treatment of metabolic acidosis, not respiratory alkalosis.

The health care provider prescribes 1000 mL of Ringer's lactate solution with 30 units of oxytocin (Pitocin) to infuse over 4 hours for a client who has just delivered a 10-lb infant by cesarean section. The tubing has been changed to a 20 gtt/mL administration set. The nurse should set the flow rate at how many gtt/min? A.42 B.83 C.125 D.250

B Use the following calculation (B): 20 gtt/mL × (1000 mL/4 hr) × (1 hr/60 min) = 83 gtt/min

A 2-day postpartum mother who is breastfeeding asks, "Why do I feel this tingling in my breasts after the baby sucks for a few minutes?" Which information should the nurse provide? A.This feeling occurs during feeding with a breast infection. B.This sensation occurs as breast milk moves to the nipple. C.The baby does not have good latch-on. D.The infant is not positioned correctly.

B When the mother's milk comes in, usually 2 to 3 days after delivery, women often report they feel a tingling sensation in their nipples (B) when let-down occurs. (A, C, and D) provide inaccurate information.

Which instruction(s) should the nurse include in the discharge teaching plan of a male client who has had a myocardial infarction and who has a new prescription for nitroglycerin (NTG)? (Select all that apply.) A.Keep the medication in your pocket so that it can be accessed quickly. B.Call 911 if chest pain is not relieved after one nitroglycerin. C.Store the medication in its original container and protect it from light. D.Activate the emergency medical system after three doses of medication. E.Do not use within 1 hour of taking sildenafil citrate (Viagra).

B,C Rationale: Emergency action should be taken if chest pain is not relieved after one nitroglycerin tablet (B). The medication should be kept in the original container to protect from light (C). Keeping the medication in the shirt pocket provides an environment that is too warm (A). The newest guidelines recommend calling 911 after one nitroglycerin tablet if chest pain is not relieved (D). Nitroglycerin and other nitrates should never be taken with Viagra (E).

The nurse is planning the care for a client who is admitted with syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion (SIADH). Which intervention(s) should the nurse include in this client's plan of care? (Select all that apply.) A.Salt-free diet B.Quiet environment C.Deep tendon reflex assessments D.Neurologic checks E.Daily weights

B,C,D,E Rationale: Correct responses are (B, C, D, and E). SAIDH results in water retention and dilutional hyponatremia, which causes neurologic changes when serum sodium levels are less than 115 mEq/L. The nurse should maintain a quiet environment (B) to prevent overstimulation and assess deep tendon reflexes (C) and perform neurologic checks (D) to monitor for neurologic deterioration. Daily weights (E) should be monitored to assess for fluid overload. (A) would contribute to dilutional hyponatremia.

The nurse is caring for a client with an ischemic stroke who has a prescription for tissue plasminogen activator (t-PA) IV. Which action(s) should the nurse expect to implement? (Select all that apply.) A.Administer aspirin with tissue plasminogen activator (t-PA). B.Complete the National Institute of Health Stroke Scale (NIHSS). C.Assess the client for signs of bleeding during and after the infusion. D.Start t-PA within 6 hours after the onset of stroke symptoms. E.Initiate multidisciplinary consult for potential rehabilitation.

B,C,E Rationale: Neurologic assessment, including the NIHSS, is indicated for the client receiving t-PA. This includes close monitoring for bleeding during and after the infusion; if bleeding or other signs of neurologic impairment occur, the infusion should be stopped (B, C, and E). Aspirin is contraindicated with t-PA because it increases the risk for bleeding (A). The administration of t-PA within 6 hours of symptoms is concurrent with a diagnosis of a myocardial infarction and within 4.5 hours of symptoms is concurrent for a stroke (D).

Which intervention(s) should the nurse implement when administering a new prescription of amitriptyline HCl (Elavil) to a client with a depressive disorder? (Select all that apply.) A.Explain that therapeutic effects should be achieved within 1 to 3 days. B.Administer at bedtime to minimize sedative effects. C.Give 1 hour after the administration of isocarboxazid (Marplan). D.Take blood pressure prior to and after administration. E.Assess for adverse reactions such as dry mouth and blurred vision.

B,D,E Rationale: The drug causes sedation, so it should be given at bedtime (B). Cardiovascular adverse reactions include orthostatic hypotension; therefore, the blood pressure should be assessed (D). This drug can cause anticholinergic effects such as dry mouth, blurred vision, constipation, and urinary retention (E). The drug takes 2 to 6 weeks to achieve therapeutic effects (A). All monoamine oxidase (MAO) inhibitors such as isocarboxazid should be discontinued 1 to 3 weeks prior to the administration of Elavil (C).

Which intervention(s) should be performed by the nurse when caring for a woman in the fourth stage of labor? (Select all that apply.) A.Maintain bed rest for the first 6 hours after delivery. B.Palpate and massage the fundus to maintain firmness. C.Have client empty bladder if fundus is above umbilicus. D.Check perineal pad for color and consistency of lochia. E.Apply ice pack or witch hazel compresses to the perineum.

B,D,E Rationale: The fundus should be palpated and massaged frequently to prevent hemorrhage (B). The lochia should be assessed to detect for hemorrhage (D) and ice packs and witch hazel can decrease edema and discomfort (E). Bed rest is only recommended for the first 2 hours (A). A full bladder is suspected if the fundus is deviated to the right or left of the umbilicus (C).

The nurse recognizes which behavior(s) in a client as warning sign(s) of an impending suicide attempt? (Select all that apply.) A.Reports feelings of sadness B.Mood changes from depressed to happy C.Begins giving away possessions D.Becomes compliant with medication regimen E.Independently joins a support group

BC Feelings of elation and giving away possessions are common characteristics of those who have made a plan to commit suicide (B and C). Feelings of sadness are signs of depression but not impending suicide (A). (D and E) are not typically indicative of impending suicide.

475. During the transfer of a client who had major abdominal surgery this morning, the post anesthesia care unit (PACU) nurse reports that the client, who is awake and responsive continues to report pain and nausea after receiving morphine 2 mg IV and ondansetron 4 mg IV 45 mints ago. Which elements of SBAR communication are missing from the report given by the PACU nurse? (Select all that apply)

Background Assessment Recommendation

18. Which breakfast selection indicates that the client understands the nurse's instructions about the dietary management of osteoporosis?

Bagel with jelly and skim milk

49. A client receiving chemotherapy has severe neutropenia. Which snack is best for the nurse to recommend to the client?

Baked apples topped with dried raisins

277. The nurse is evaluating the diet teaching of a client with hypertension. What dinner selection indicates that the client understands the dietary recommendation for hypertension?

Baked pork chop, applesauce, corn on the cob, 2% milk, and key-lime pie

After receiving report, the nurse prioritizes the client care assignment. Which client should the nurse assess first?

Based on Maslow's hierarchy of needs and the need to address airway, breathing, and circulation (ABCs), the client with a new onset of difficulty breathing (A) should be assessed first. (B, C and D) do not have the priority of (A).

159. An adult male reports the last time he received penicillin he developed a severe maculopapular rash all over his chest. What information should the nurse provide the client about future antibiotic prescriptions?

Be alert for possible cross-sensitivity to cephalosporin agents.

514. A male client has received a prescription for orlistat for weight and nutrition management. In addition to the medication, the client states he plans to take a multivitamin. What teaching should the nurse provide?

Be sure to take the multivitamin and the medication at least two hours apart for best absorption and effectiveness.

288. The nurse is planning care for a client who admits having suicidal thoughts. Which client behavior indicates the highest risk for the client acting on these suicidal thoughts?

Begin to show signs of improvement in affect

505. The nurse is administering a 750 ml cleansing enema to an adult client. After approximately150 ml of enema has informed, the client states, 'stop I can't hold anymore." What action should the nurse take?

Clamp the tubing and instruct the client to breathe deeply before continuing.

62. After changing to a new brand of laundry detergent, an adult male reports that he has a fine itchy rash. Which assessment finding warrants immediate intervention by the nurse?

Bilateral Wheezing.

488. A client has a prescription for lorazepam 2mg for alcohol withdrawal symptoms. Which finding... the client?

Blood pressure 149/101

445. After a routine physical examination, the healthcare admits a woman with a history of Systemic Lupus Erythematous (SLE) to the hospital because she has 3+ pitting ankle edema and blood in her urine. Which assessment finding warrants immediate intervention by the nurse?

Blood pressure 170/98

The nurse performs tracheostomy suctioning on a comatose client. Place the interventions in order from first to last. A. Gently insert the catheter without suction using sterile technique. B. Hyperoxygenate using a manual reservoir-equipped resuscitation bag (MRB). C. Check the suction regulator and adjust suction pressure to 120 to 150 mm Hg. D. Apply suction intermittently while withdrawing the catheter. A. B, C, A, D B. A, C, B, D C. C, B, A, D D. D, C, B, A

C Equipment should be set up and adjusted prior to beginning the procedure (C). Hyperoxygenation using an MRB should be completed prior to inserting the catheter (B). After preoxygenation, the catheter can be inserted (A) and suction can be applied intermittently (D).

474. Which information is more important for the nurse to obtain when determining a client's risk for (OSAS)?

Body mass index

148. A client is receiving mesalamine 800 mg PO TID. Which assessment is most important for the nurse to perform to assess the effectiveness of the medication?

Bowel patterns

The nurse is planning a community teaching program regarding the use of folic acid to prevent neural tube birth defects. Which community group is likely to benefit most from this program? A.Parents of children with spina bifida B.High school girls in a health class C.Individuals interested in having children D.Postpartum women attending a baby care class

C Folic acid is needed early in pregnancy to prevent neural tube defects; the group most likely to be considering pregnancy is (C). Parents with children who already have a neural tube defect such as spina bifida (A) are not as invested in the content as (C). High school age students (B) may have interest in the topic but as a group are less likely to anticipate the likelihood that problems could occur in their lives than (C). (D) may be interested if planning future pregnancies, but have higher learning priorities during the postpartum period.

582. A client admitted to the emergency center had inspiratory and expiratory wheezing, nasal flaring, and thick, tenacious sputum secretions observed during the physical examination. Based on these assessment findings, what classification of pharmacologic agents should the nurse anticipate administering?

Bronchodilators

A client with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) is hospitalized after a recent discharge. Which nursing intervention is most important in reducing the client's stress associated with repeated hospitalization? A.Allow the client to discuss the seriousness of the illness. B.Ensure that the client is provided with information about medications. C.Encourage as much independence in decision making as possible. D.Include the client in planning the course of treatment.

C Hospitalization compromises an individual's sense of control and independence, which contributes to stress, so allowing the client as much independence in decisions as possible (C) helps reduce stress experienced with repeated hospitalization. (A, B, and D) are important components in stress reduction, but the isolation and dependence associated with hospitalization alter the client's sense of control and affect the client's cognitive ability to understand (B) and participate (D) in the hospitalized plan of care.

9. During a home visit, the nurse observed an elderly client with diabetes slip and fall. What action should the nurse take first?

Check the client for lacerations or fractures

The nurse is preparing assignments for the day shift. Which client should be assigned to the staff RN rather than a PN? A.A client with an admitting diagnosis of menorrhagia who is now 24 hours post-vaginal hysterectomy B.A client admitted with a myocardial infarction 4 days ago who was transferred from the intensive care unit (ICU) the previous day C.A client admitted during the night with depression following a suicide attempt with an overdose of acetaminophen (Tylenol) D.A 4-year-old admitted the previous evening with gastrointestinal rotavirus who is receiving IV fluids and a clear liquid diet

C (C) requires communication skills and assessment skills beyond the educational level of a PN or UAP. Establishing a therapeutic, one on one relationship with a depressed client is beyond the scope of practice for a PN. In addition, Tylenol is extremely hepatotoxic and careful assessment is essential. (A, B, and D) could all be cared for by a PN under the supervision of the RN.

When caring for a postpartum client, which intervention is best for the nurse to implement to promote increased peripheral vascular activity? A.Encourage the client to turn from side to side every 2 hours. B.Elevate the foot of the client's bed at least 6 inches. C.Encourage the client to ambulate every 3 hours. D.Teach the client how to perform leg exercises while in bed.

C Ambulation is the best way to increase peripheral vascular activity (C). (A, B, and D) will increase peripheral vascular activity but are not as effective as ambulation.

A comatose client is admitted to the critical care unit and a central venous catheter is inserted by the health care provider. What is the priority nursing assessment before initiating IV fluids? A.Pain scale B.Vital signs C.Breath sounds D.Level of consciousness

C Before administering IV fluids through a central line, the nurse must first ensure that the catheter did not puncture the vessel or lungs. A chest radiograph should be obtained STAT, and the nurse should auscultate the client's breath sounds (C). (A, B, and D) are important assessment data but are not specifically related to insertion of a central venous catheter.

Which instruction should the nurse provide to a client whose vision is being tested with a Snellen chart? A.Stand on a line drawn 10 feet from the chart. B.Read each sentence slowly and carefully. C.Cover one eye while reading the chart with the other. D.Begin by identifying the first line that is hard to read.

C Each eye should be tested separately (C) because visual acuity can vary from one eye to the other. A Snellen chart scores vision in comparison with what a person with normal vision can read at a distance of 20 feet (A). The Snellen chart is comprised of letters, not sentences (B). The client should be instructed to begin at or near the top of the chart with the line that can be easily read, moving down until a line is reached that cannot be read (D)

The nurse is teaching the parents of a 10-year-old child with rheumatoid arthritis measures to help reduce the pain associated with the disease. Which instruction should the nurse provide to these parents? A.Administer a nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drug (NSAID) to the child prior to getting the child out of bed in the morning. B.Apply ice packs to edematous or tender joints to reduce pain and swelling. C.Warm the child with an electric blanket prior to getting the child out of bed. D.Immobilize swollen joints during acute exacerbations until function returns.

C Early morning stiffness and pain are common symptoms of rheumatoid arthritis. Warming the child (C) in the morning helps reduce these symptoms. Although moist heat is best, an electric blanket could also be used to help relieve early morning discomfort. (A) on an empty stomach is likely to cause gastric discomfort. Warm (not cold) packs or baths are used to minimize joint inflammation and stiffness (B). (D) is contraindicated, because joints should be exercised, not immobilized.

The nurse would be correct in withholding a dose of digoxin in a client with congestive heart failure without specific instruction from the health care provider if which finding was documented? A.Serum digoxin level is 1.5 ng/mL B.Blood pressure is 104/68 mm Hg C.Serum potassium level is 2.5 mEq/L D.Apical pulse is 68/min

C Hypokalemia (C) can precipitate digitalis toxicity in persons receiving digoxin, which will increase the chance of dangerous dysrhythmias (normal potassium level is 3.5 to 5.5 mEq/L). The therapeutic range for digoxin is 0.8 to 2 ng/mL (toxic levels ≥2 ng/mL); (A) is within this range. (B) would not warrant the nurse withholding the digoxin. The nurse should withhold the digoxin if the apical pulse is less than 60/min (D).

A client has been receiving levofloxacin (Levaquin), 500 mg IV piggyback q24h for 7 days. The UAP reports to the nurse that the client has had three loose foul-smelling stools this morning. Which intervention is most important for the nurse to implement? A.Perform a digital evaluation for fecal impaction. B.Administer a PRN dose of psyllium (Metamucil). C.Obtain a stool specimen for culture and sensitivity. D.Instruct the UAP to obtain incontinent pads for the client.

C Long-term use of levofloxacin (Levaquin) can cause foul-smelling diarrhea because of Clostridium difficile infection or associated colitis, so it is most important to obtain a stool specimen (C). Impaction is unlikely, so (A) is of less priority and may not be necessary. (B) is a bulk-forming agent that may be used for constipation or diarrhea. Treatment of the diarrhea and client comfort (D) are important interventions but of less priority than determining the cause of the client's diarrhea.

Which assessment is most important for the nurse to implement when seeing a client with multiple myeloma? A.Inspection of the skin B.Breath sound auscultation C.Pain scale measurement D.Mobility limitations

C Multiple myeloma is a tumor that causes bone marrow changes, which most commonly manifest as pain, so measurement of the client's pain is the highest priority (C). (A, B, and D) are part of the complete assessment but do not have the priority of (C) for this client.

Which assessment finding indicates that nystatin (Mycostatin) swish and swallow, prescribed for a client with oral candidiasis, has been effective? A.The client denies dysphagia. B.The client is afebrile with warm and dry skin. C.The oral mucosa is pink and intact. D.There is no reflux following food intake.

C Mycostatin swish and swallow is prescribed for its local effect on the oral mucosa, reducing the white curdlike lesions in the mouth and larynx (C). The ability to swallow (A) does not indicate that the medication has been effective. (B and D) do not reflect effectiveness of the local medication.

A client hospitalized for meningitis is demonstrating nuchal rigidity. Which symptom is this client likely to be exhibiting? A.Hyperexcitability of reflexes B.Hyperextension of the head and back C.Inability to flex the chin to the chest D.Lateral facial paralysis

C Nuchal rigidity (neck stiffness) is a characteristic of meningeal irritation and is elicited by attempting to flex the neck and place the chin to the chest (C). Although (A, B, and D) may occur in meningitis, (A) describes exaggerated spinal nerve reflex responses, (B) describes opisthotonus, and (D) may be related to cranial nerve pathology of the trigeminal nerve.

A male client is admitted for observation after being hit on the head with a baseball bat. Six hours after admission, the client attempts to crawl out of bed and asks the nurse why there are so many bugs in his bed. His vital signs are stable, and the pulse oximeter reading is 98% on room air. Which intervention should the nurse perform first? A.Administer oxygen per nasal cannula at 2 L/min. B.Plan to check his vital signs again in 30 minutes. C.Notify the health care provider of the change in mental status. D.Ask the client why he thinks there are bugs in the bed.

C One of the earliest signs of increased intracranial pressure (ICP) is a change in mental status (C). It is important to act early and quickly when symptoms of increased ICP occur. Because his oxygen saturation is normal, the administration of oxygen (A) is not the top priority. Vital signs should be monitored frequently (B), but the client's confusion should be reported immediately. (D) is not a useful intervention.

A 50-year-old man arrives at the clinic with complaints of pain on ejaculation. Which action should the nurse implement? A.Teach the client testicular self-examination (TSE). B.Assess for the presence of blood in the urine. C.Ask about scrotal pain or blood in the semen. D.Inquire about a history of kidney stones.

C Orchitis is an acute testicular inflammation resulting from recurrent urinary tract infection, recurrent sexually transmitted disease (STD), or an indwelling urethral urinary catheter causing pain on ejaculation, scrotal pain, blood in the semen, and penile discharge, so the nurse should determine the presence of other symptoms (C). Although all men should practice TSE, the client's symptoms are suggestive of an inflammatory syndrome rather than testicular cancer (A). Although hematuria (B) is associated with renal disease or calculi (D), the client's pain is associated with ejaculate, not urine.

The nurse should encourage a laboring client to begin pushing at which point? A.When the cervix is completely effaced B.When the client describes the need to have a bowel movement C.When the cervix is completely dilated D.When the anterior or posterior lip of the cervix is palpable

C Pushing begins with the second stage of labor, when the cervix is completely dilated at 10 cm (C). If pushing begins before the cervix is completely dilated (A, B, and D), the cervix can become edematous and may never dilate completely, necessitating an operative delivery. The most effective pushing occurs when the cervix is completely dilated and the woman feels the urge to push (Ferguson's reflex).

Which finding should be reported to the primary health care provider when caring for a client who has a continuous bladder irrigation after a transurethral resection of the prostate gland (TURP)? A.The client reports a continuous feeling of needing to void. B.Urinary drainage is pink 24 hours after surgery. C.The hemoglobin level is 8.4 g/dL 3 days postoperatively. D.Sterile saline is being used for bladder irrigation.

C Rationale: A hemoglobin level of 8.4 g/dL is abnormally low and may indicate hemorrhage (C). The others are all expected findings after a TURP (A, B, and D).

Which intervention should be included in the plan of care for a client admitted to the hospital with ulcerative colitis? A.Administer stool softeners. B.Place the client on fluid restriction. C.Provide a low-residue diet. D.Add a milk product to each meal.

C Rationale: A low-residue diet (C) will help decrease symptoms of diarrhea, which are clinical manifestations of ulcerative colitis. (A, B, and D) are contraindicated and could worsen the condition.

The nurse prepares to administer digoxin (Lanoxin), 0.125 mg PO, to an adult client with heart failure and notes that the digoxin serum level in the laboratory report is 1 ng/mL. Which action should the nurse take? A.Discontinue the digoxin. B.Notify health care provider. C.Administer the digoxin. D.Reverify the digoxin level.

C Rationale: A therapeutic range for digoxin is 0.5 to 2 ng/mL (C). The digoxin should be continued to maintain a therapeutic range (C). The others actions are not indicated for a therapeutic range (A, B, and D).

A 45-year-old female client is admitted to the psychiatric unit for evaluation. Her husband states that she has been reluctant to leave home for the last 6 months. The client has not gone to work for a month, has been terminated from her job, and has not left the house since that time. This client is displaying symptoms of which disorder? A.Claustrophobia B.Acrophobia C.Agoraphobia D.Necrophobia

C Rationale: Agoraphobia (C) is the fear of crowds or of being in an open place. (A) is the fear of being in closed places. (B) is the fear of high places. (D) is an abnormal fear of death or bodies after death. A phobia is an unrealistic fear associated with severe anxiety.

An adult client with a medical diagnosis of substance abuse and schizophrenia was recently switched from oral fluphenazine HCl (Prolixin) to IM fluphenazine decanoate (Prolixin Decanoate) because of medication noncompliance. What should the nurse teach the client and family about this change in medication regimen? A.Long-acting medication is more effective than daily medication. B.A client with substance abuse must not take any oral medications. C.There will continue to be a risk of alcohol and drug interaction. D.Support groups are only helpful for substance abuse treatment.

C Rationale: Alcohol enhances the side effects of Prolixin. The half-life of Prolixin PO is 8 hours, whereas the half-life of the Prolixin Decanoate IM is 2 to 4 weeks. Therefore, the side effects of drinking alcohol are far more severe when the client drinks alcohol after taking the long-acting Prolixin Decanoate IM (C). (A, B, and D) provide incorrect information.

While assessing a client with recurring chest pain, the unit secretary notifies the nurse that the client's health care provider is on the telephone. What action should the nurse instruct the unit secretary to implement? A.Transfer the call into the room of the client. B.Instruct the secretary to explain reason for the call. C.Ask another nurse to take the phone call. D.Ask the health care provider to see the client on the unit.

C Rationale: Another nurse should be asked to take the phone call (C), which allows the nurse to stay at the bedside to complete the assessment of the client's chest pain. (A and B) should not be done during an acute change in the client's condition. Requesting the health care provider (D) to come to the unit is premature until the nurse completes assessment of the client's status.

The charge nurse reviews the charting of a graduate nurse. Which indicates a need for further education on documentation? A.Uses descriptive words such as "gurgling" to describe breath sounds B.Records temperature 30 minutes before and after giving acetaminophen C.Charts some actions in advance of performing them D.Includes the client's response to an intervention

C Rationale: Charting actions prior to implementing them is an example of fraudulent charting and the graduate nurse should receive further education (C). (A, B, and D) are appropriate charting examples.

404. A nurse who is working in the emergency department triage area is presented with four clients at the same time. The client presented with which symptoms requires the most immediate intervention by the nurse?

Chest discomfort one hour after consuming a large, spicy meal

When caring for a hospitalized child with type 1 diabetes mellitus, which intervention can the nurse delegate to the unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP)? A.Teach the signs and symptoms of hypoglycemia. B.Assess for polydipsia, polyphasia, and polyuria. C.Check the blood glucose level every 4 hours. D.Evaluate the need for a snack between meals.

C Rationale: Checking the blood glucose level is a low-risk task that can be safely delegated to the UAP in most circumstances (C). Teaching, assessment, and evaluation are all within the scope of practice of the RN and should not be delegated to the UAP (A, B, and D).

A client exhibits symptoms of alcohol intoxication. The blood alcohol level is 200 mg (0.2%). Which measurement tool is best for the nurse to use during the initial assessment of this client? A.CAGE questionnaire for alcoholism B.Addiction Severity Index C.Glasgow Coma Scale D.DSM multiaxial evaluation

C Rationale: Evaluation of level of consciousness, which is the purpose of the Glasgow Coma Scale (C), has the highest priority. (A) is useful in helping clients recognize their alcoholism. (B and D) are comprehensive assessments that should be completed after the acute phase is resolved.

A 12-year-old boy complains to the nurse that he is "short" (4'5" [53 inches]). His twin sister is 5 inches taller than he is (4'10" [58 inches]). Based on these findings, what conclusion should the nurse reach? A.The boy is not growing as normally expected. B.The girl is experiencing a period of unexpected growth. C.A normal growth spurt occurs in girls 1 to 2 years earlier than boys. D.Male-female twins are not identical; therefore, their growth cannot be compared.

C Rationale: Girls experience a growth spurt at 9.5 to 14.5 years of age and boys at 10.5 to 16 years of age (C). There are insufficient data to support (A); growth trends must be assessed to reach such a conclusion. (B) is not unexpected. The fact that the children are twins has less to do with their growth than the fact that they are male and female (D).

A client is admitted with a diagnosis of leukemia. This condition is manifested by which of the following? A.Fever, elevated white blood count, elevated platelets B.Fatigue, weight loss and anorexia, elevated red blood cells C.Hyperplasia of the gums, elevated white blood count, weakness D.Hypocellular bone marrow aspirate, fever, decreased hemoglobin level

C Rationale: Hyperplastic gums, weakness, and elevated white blood count are classic signs of leukemia (C). (A, B, and D) state incorrect information for symptoms of leukemia.

The nurse assesses a client who is taking indomethacin (Indocin) for arthritic pain. Which of the following is most important to report to the primary health care provider? A.Takes medication with milk B.Blood pressure, 104/64 mm Hg C.Elevated liver enzyme levels D.Hemoglobin level, 13 g/dL

C Rationale: Indomethacin is an antiinflammatory drug and can cause liver damage. Elevated liver enzyme levels indicate a complication with the drug (C). This medication should be taken with food or milk to reduce gastrointestinal (GI) side effects (A). (B and D) are normal findings.

When administering an intramuscular injection, which factor is most important to ensure the best medication absorption? A.Compress the syringe plunger quickly. B.Select a small-gauge needle. C.Inject the needle at a 90-degree angle. D.Select a small-diameter syringe.

C Rationale: Injecting the needle at a 90-degree angle allows the medication to be injected into the muscle so that appropriate absorption can occur (C). Too rapid injection of the medication (A) may be painful and may cause medication leakage and reduced absorption. (B) will reduce injection discomfort but will not affect absorption. A syringe barrel that is too small (D) increases the pressure during the injection and may traumatize tissue without improving medication absorption.

287. A preeclamptic client who delivered 24h ago remains in the labor and delivery recovery room. She continues to receive magnesium sulfate at 2 grams per hour. Her total input is limited to 125 ml per hour, and her urinary output for the last hour was 850 ml. What intervention should the nurse implement?

Continue with the plan of care for this client

A client is admitted to a mental health unit because of mild depression. When asked, he denies suicidal ideation, but the nurse reads in the psychosocial assessment that there were attempts to overdose on aspirin 5 years earlier. Which intervention is most important for the nurse to implement? A.Orient the client to activities on the unit. B.Document suicide precautions on the shift report. C.Assign the client to a semiprivate room. D.Obtain a verbal no-suicide contract with the client.

C Rationale: It is most important to prevent the risk of self-harm from social isolation, so the client should be assigned to a semiprivate room (C). (A) does not have the priority of (C). (B and D) can be implemented if the client admits suicidal ideation. However, based on the fact that this client is mildly depressed and that he attempted suicide 5 years ago using a method that is usually nonlethal (aspirin overdose), it is most important to prevent social isolation.

The nurse is caring for a client with heart failure who develops respiratory distress and coughs up pink frothy sputum. Which action should the nurse take first? A.Draw arterial blood gases. B.Notify the primary health care provider. C.Position in a high Fowler's position with the legs down. D.Obtain a chest X-ray.

C Rationale: Positioning the patient in a high Fowler's position with dangling feet will decrease further venous return to the left ventricle (C). The other actions should be performed after the change in position (A, B, and D).

Which disaster management intervention by the nurse is an example of primary prevention? A.Emergency department triage B.Follow-up care for psychological problems C.Education of rescue workers in first aid D.Treatment of clients who are injured

C Rationale: Primary prevention is aimed at preventing disease or injury. Training rescue workers prior to a disaster is an example of minimizing or preventing injury (C). (A) is an example of secondary prevention. (B) is an example of tertiary prevention. (D) is an example of secondary prevention.

The nurse prepares to administer digoxin, 0.125 mg IV, to an adult client with atrial fibrillation. Which client datum requires the nurse to withhold the medication? A.The apical heart rate is 64 beats/min. B.The serum digoxin level is 1.5 ng/mL. C.The client reports seeing yellow-green halos. D.The potassium level is 4.0 mEq/L.

C Rationale: Reports of yellow-green halos and blurred vision are a sign of digoxin toxicity (C). The others are normal findings (A, B, and C).

When assessing the laboratory findings of a 38-year-old client with tuberculosis who is taking rifampin (Rifadin), which laboratory finding would be most important to report to the primary health care provider immediately? A.Orange-colored urine B.Potassium level, 4.9 mEq/L C.Elevated liver enzyme levels D.Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) level, 12 mg/dL

C Rationale: Rifampin can cause hepatoxicity, so elevated liver enzyme levels need to be closely monitored and reported to the health care provider (C). Orange discoloration of the urine is an expected side effect of this medication (A). The potassium level (B) is normal. A BUN level of 12 mg/dL is within defined parameters (D).

A client in an acute psychiatric setting asks the nurse if their conversations will remain confidential. How should the nurse respond? A."The Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) prevents me from repeating what you say." B."You can be assured that I will keep all of our conversations confidential because it is important that you can trust me." C."For your safety and well-being, it may be necessary to share some of our conversations with the health care team." D."I am legally required to document all of our conversations in the electronic medical record."

C Rationale: Some information, such as a suicide plan, must be shared with other team members for the client's safety and optimal therapy (C). HIPAA does not prevent a member of the health care team from repeating all conversations, particularly if safety is an issue (A). Ensuring a client that a conversation will remain confidential puts the nurse at risk, particularly if safety is an issue (B). Although pertinent information should be documented, the nurse is not legally required to document all conversations with a client (D).

A client is receiving substitution therapy during withdrawal from benzodiazepines. Which expected outcome statement has the highest priority when planning nursing care? A.Client will not demonstrate cross addiction. B.Codependent behaviors will be decreased. C.Excessive CNS stimulation will be reduced. D.The client will demonstrate an increased level of consciousness.

C Rationale: Substitution therapy with another CNS depressant is intended to decrease the excessive CNS stimulation that can occur during benzodiazepine withdrawal (C). (A, B, and D) are all appropriate outcome statements for the client described but do not have the priority of (C).

Which clinical manifestation in the client with hyperthyroidism is most important to report to the health care provider? A.Nervousness B.Increased appetite C.Apical heart rate of 130 beats/min D.Insomnia

C Rationale: The apical heart rate of 130 beats/min is a critical finding that could lead to heart failure or other cardiac disorders (C). (A, B, and D) are all expected findings that should also be reported but are not as critical.

Which vital sign in a pediatric client is most important to report to the primary health care provider? A.Newborn with a heart rate of 140 beats/min B.Three-year-old with a respiratory rate of 28 breaths/min C.Six-year-old with a heart rate of 130 beats/min D.Twelve-year-old with a respiratory rate of 16 breaths/min

C Rationale: The normal heart rate for a 6- to 10-year-old is 70 to 110 beats/min (C). The others are all within normal range for those ages (A, B, and D).

The nurse reviews the comprehensive metabolic panel for a client with an electrolyte imbalance. Which data requires the most immediate intervention by the nurse? A.Potassium level, 3.9 mEq/dL B.Creatinine level,1.1 mg/dL C.Sodium level, 125 mEq/L D.Calcium level, 9 mg/dL

C Rationale: The normal serum sodium level is 135 to 145 mEq/L (C). This value indicates hyponatremia. Symptoms of hyponatremia include nausea and vomiting, headache, confusion, and seizures, which can be severe and need immediate attention. (A, B, and D) are all within normal parameters.

The nurse assesses a pressure ulcer on a client's heel and notes full-thickness tissue loss, with some visible subcutaneous fat. How should the nurse stage this pressure ulcer? A.Stage I B.Stage II C.Stage III D.Stage IV

C Rationale: The statement above describes a stage III ulcer which is defined as full-thickness tissue loss in which subcutaneous fat may be exposed but without exposure of bone, tendon, or muscle (C). A stage I ulcer includes intact skin with nonblanchable redness of a localized area (A). A stage II ulcer is described by partial-thickness loss of dermis, including a shallow open ulcer with a pinkish red wound bed (B). Full-thickness tissue loss with exposed bone, tendon, or muscle and slough or eschar is indicative of a stage IV ulcer (D).

The nurse hears a series of long-duration, discontinuous, low-pitched sounds on auscultation of a client's lower lung fields. Which documentation of this finding is correct? A.Fine crackles B.Wheezes C.Course crackles D.Stridor

C Rationale: This sound is caused by air passing through airways that are intermittently occluded by mucus (C). Fine crackles are a series of short-duration, discontinuous, high-pitched sounds (A). Wheezes are continuous, high-pitched, musical or squeaking-type sounds (B). Stridor is a continuous croupy sound of constant pitch and indicates partial obstruction of the airway (D).

Which of the following cardiac rhythms is represented in the image? A.Normal sinus rhythm B.Sinus tachycardia C.Ventricular fibrillation D.Atrial fibrillation

C Rationale: Ventricular fibrillation (C) is a life-threatening arrhythmia characterized by irregular undulations of varying amplitudes. (A, B, and D) are not represented in the image.

Which information is most concerning to the nurse when caring for an older client with bilateral cataracts? A.States having difficulty with color perception B.Presents with opacity of the lens upon assessment C.Complains of seeing a cobweb-type structure in the visual field D.Reports the need to use a magnifying glass to see small print

C Rationale: Visualization of a cobweb- or hairnet-type structure is a sign of a retinal detachment, which constitutes a medical emergency. Clients with cataracts are at increased risk for retinal detachment (C). Distorted color perception (A), opacity of the lens (B), and gradual vision loss (D) are expected signs and symptom of cataracts, but do not need immediate attention.

The nurse formulates a nursing diagnosis of pain related to muscle spasms for a client with extreme lower back pain associated with acute lumbosacral strain. Which is the best intervention for the nurse to implement? A.Perform range-of-motion exercises on the lower extremities every 4 hours. B.Place a small firm pillow under the upper back to flex the lumbar spine gently. C.Rest in bed with the head of the bed elevated 20 degrees and flex the knees. D.Position in reverse Trendelenburg with the feet firmly against the foot of the bed.

C Resting in bed with the head of the bed elevated 20 degrees and flexing the knees reduces stress on the lower back muscles (C). Range-of-motion exercises can result in paravertebral muscle spasms and increased pain (A). Bending the knees, rather than (B), reduces stress on the lower back. (D) places stress on the lower back and increases the client's pain.

A registered nurse (RN) delivers telehealth services to clients via electronic communication. Which nursing action creates the greatest risk for professional liability and has the potential for a malpractice lawsuit? A.Participating in telephone consultations with clients B.Identifying oneself by name and title to clients in telehealth communications C.Sending medical records to health care providers via the Internet D.Answering a client-initiated health question via electronic mail

C Sending medical records over the Internet, even with the latest security protection, creates the greatest risk for liability because of the high potential of breaching client confidentiality and the amount of information being transferred (C). Client confidentiality is protected by federal wiretapping laws making telephone consultation (A) a private and protected form of communication. By stating one's name and credentials in telehealth communication (B), one is taking responsibility for the encounter. E-mail initiated by the client (D) poses less risk than sending records via the Internet.

The only RN on a surgical unit is performing an admission assessment on a client scheduled for surgery in 2 hours. The UAP reports to the RN that an unresponsive male client with a continuous feeding tube has just vomited. Which action should the RN delegate to the UAP? A.Obtain the remainder of the preoperative admission information. B.Check the vomiting client for signs of tube feeding aspiration. C.Position the client who has vomited on his side and obtain vital signs. D.Teach the preoperative client coughing and deep breathing exercises.

C The UAP can be assigned to perform tasks that do not require the judgment of the nurse, such as positioning the client and obtaining vital signs (C). (A and B) involve assessment, which should be performed by a nurse. (D) involves initial client teaching, which should be performed by the nurse.

Until the census on the obstetrics (OB) unit increases, an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) who usually works in labor and delivery and the newborn nursery is assigned to work on the postoperative unit. Which client would be best for the charge nurse to assign to this UAP? A.An adolescent who was readmitted to the hospital because of a postoperative infection B.A woman with a new colostomy who requires discharge teaching C.A woman who had a hip replacement and may be transferred to the home care unit D.A man who had a cholecystectomy and currently has a nasogastric tube set to intermittent suction

C The charge nurse will be responsible for providing a report to the home care unit if the transfer occurs (A). The client is infected and an employee who works on an OB unit should be assigned to clean cases in case the employee is required to return to the OB unit (B). This requires the skills of a registered nurse (RN) to do discharge teaching and provide emotional support (D). This may require skills beyond the level of this UAP.

A client with chronic renal insufficiency (CRI) is taking 25 mg of hydrochlorothiazide (HCTZ) PO and 40 mg of furosemide (Lasix) PO daily. Today, at a routine clinic visit, the client's serum potassium level is 4 mEq/L. What is the most likely cause of this client's potassium level? A.The client is noncompliant with his medications. B.The client recently consumed large quantities of pears or nuts. C.The client's renal function has affected his potassium level. D.The client needs to be started on a potassium supplement.

C The client has a normalized potassium level despite diuretic use (C). The kidney automatically secretes 90% of potassium consumed, but in chronic renal insufficiency (CRI), less potassium is excreted than normal. Therefore, the two potassium-wasting drugs, a thiazide diuretic and loop diuretic, are not likely to affect potassium levels. The normal potassium level is 3.5 to 5 mEq/L, and with a potassium level of 4 mEq/L, there is no reason to believe that the client is noncompliant with his treatment (A). Pears and nuts do not affect the serum potassium level (B). There is no need for a potassium supplement (D) because the client's potassium level is within the normal range.

The nurse is assessing a client using the Snellen chart and determines that the client's visual acuity is the same as in a previous examination, which was recorded as 20/100. When the client asks the meaning of this, which information should the nurse provide? A.This visual acuity result is five times worse that of a normal finding. B.This line should be seen clearly when the client wears corrective lenses. C.A client with normal vision can read at 100 feet what this client reads at 20 feet. D.This client can see at 100 feet what a client with normal vision can see at 20 feet.

C The interpretation of the client's visual acuity is compared to the Snellen scale of 20/20, which indicates that the letter size on the Snellen chart is seen clearly and read by a client with normal vision at 20 feet. A finding of 20/100 means that this client can read at 20 feet what a person with normal vision can read at 100 feet (C). (A, B, and D) are inaccurate.

Which action by the nurse is consistent with culturally competent care? A.Treating each client the same regardless of race or religion B.Ensuring that all Native American clients have access to a shaman C.Understanding one's own world view in addition to the client's D.Including the family in the plan of care for older clients

C The nurse should understand his or her own values and views to prevent those values from being imparted to others, in addition to understanding the client's cultural views (C). Treating every client the same or assuming that all clients share the same values does not exhibit cultural competence or sensitivity (A, B, and D).

A nurse-manager of a long-term care facility learns that the nursing administrator plans to remove the television from the residents' day room because night shift staff members are sitting around watching television. How should the nurse-manager respond to this situation? A.Advocate for the rights of the staff to watch television once their assignments are complete. B.Confront the administrator about making a decision that will negatively affect the residents. C.Offer to develop an alternate solution so that the residents can continue to watch television. D.Remind the administrator that watching television helps the night shift staff remain awake.

C The role of the nurse-manager in the mediation process is to assess the problem, analyze the information, and reframe it in a manner that might provide compromise (C). The staff do not have the right to watch television (A) while being paid to work. (B) challenges the administrator and is likely to alienate the administrator, causing anger and shutting off further communication. (D) is not a sound rationale for the use of the television.

A 77-year-old female client states that she has never been so large around the waist and that she has frequent periods of constipation. Colon disease has been ruled out with a flexible sigmoidoscopy. Which information should the nurse provide to this client? A.As women age, they often become rounder in the middle because they do not exercise properly. B.Further assessment is indicated because loss of abdominal muscle tone and constipation do not occur with aging. C.With age, more fatty tissue develops in the abdomen and decreased intestinal movement can cause constipation. D.Because there is no evidence of a diseased colon, there is no need to worry about abdominal size

C With aging, the abdominal muscles weaken as fatty tissue is deposited around the trunk and waist. Slowing peristalsis also affects the emptying of the colon, resulting in constipation (C). (A) is not the primary reason for the changes in body structure. (B) is not indicated because loss of muscle tone and constipation are age-related changes. (D) dismisses the client's concerns and does not help her understand the changes that she is experiencing.

Two days after swallowing 30 tablets of alprazolam (Xanax), a client with a history of depression is hemodynamically stable but wants to leave the hospital against medical advice. Which nursing action(s) is(are) most likely to maintain client safety? (Select all that apply.) A.Direct the client to sign a liability release form. B.Restrict the client's ability to leave the unit. C.Explain the benefits of remaining in the hospital. D.Instruct the client to take medications as prescribed. E.Provide the client with names of local support groups. F.Notify the health care provider of the client's intention.

CDF Correct responses are (C, D, and F). To maintain safety and to provide information, the nurse should explain the potential benefits of continuing treatment in the hospital (C) and the need to take prescribed medications (D). This client, who is very likely self-destructive, should remain on the unit and the health care provider should be notified (F). Signing a release form (A) before leaving the hospital does not contribute to safety. The nurse may ask the client not to leave the hospital (B), but pressuring clients is unethical behavior. (E) may be helpful at a later time in this client's treatment program.

276. The mother of the 12- month-old with cystic fibrosis reports that her child is experiencing increasing congestion despite the use of chest physical therapy (CPT) twice a day, and has also experiences a loss of appetite. What instruction should the nurse provide?

CPT should be performed more frequently, but at least an hour before meals.

574. Which statement is accurate regarding the pathological changes in the pulmonary system associated with acute (adult) respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS)?

Capillary hydrostatic pressure exceeds colloid osmotic pressure, producing interstitial edema

32. After a third hospitalization 6 months ago, a client is admitted to the hospital with ascites and malnutrition. The client is drowsy but responding to verbal stimuli and reports recently spitting up blood. What assessment finding warrants immediate intervention by the nurse?

Capillary refill of 8 seconds

Which nurse follows a client from admission through discharge or resolution of illness and coordinates the client's care between healthcare providers?

Case manager.

549. A postpartal client complains that she has the urge to urinate every hour but is only able to void a small amount. What interventions provides the nurse with the most useful information?

Catheterize for residual urine after next voiding

The nurse is monitoring neurological vital signs for a male client who lost consciousness after falling and hitting his head. Which assessment finding is the earliest and most sensitive indication of altered cerebral function?

Change in level of consciousness. Neurological vital signs include serial assessments of TPR, blood pressure, and components of the Glasgow coma scale (GCS), which includes verbal, musculoskeletal, and pupillary responses. A change in the client's level of consciousness (D), as indicated by responses to commands during the GCS, is the first and the most sensitive sign of change in cerebral function. (A, B, and C) are late signs of altered cerebral function.

289. When assessing a multigravida the first postpartum day, the nurse finds a moderate amount of lochia rubra, with the uterus firm, and three fingerbreadths above the umbilicus. What action should the nurse implement first?

Check for a destined bladder

459. The nurse is preparing to administer an infusion of amino acid-dextrose total parenteral nutrition (TPN) through a central venous catheter (CVC) line. Which action should the nurse implement first?

Check the TPN solution for cloudiness

During a well-woman exam, a sexually active female client asks the nurse about a recent vaginal infection and says she is afraid she has another sexually transmitted infection. The client discloses her history of previous STI. Which condition should the nurse identify as the most prevalent STI in the United States among women?

Chlamydia. Chlamydia (B) is the most common and fastest spreading sexually transmitted infection (STI) in American women, with an estimated 3 million new cases each year

224. The charge nurse in a critical care unit is reviewing clients' conditions to determine who is stable enough to be transferred. Which client status report indicates readiness for transfer from the critical care unit to a medical unit?

Chronic liver failure with a hemoglobin of 10.1 and slight bilirubin elevation

20. A mother brings her 6-year-old child, who has just stepped on a rusty nail, to the pediatrician's office. Upon inspection, the nurse notes that the nail went through the shoe and pierced the bottom of the child's foot. Which action should the nurse implement first?

Cleanse the foot with soap and water and apply an antibiotic ointment

88. The nurse is completing a head to be assessment for a client admitted for observation after falling out of a tree. Which finding warrants immediate intervention by the nurse?

Clear fluid leaking from the nose.

169. When evaluating a client's rectal bleeding, which findings should the nurse document?

Color characteristics of each stool.

81. Based on the information provided in this client's medical record during labor, which should the nurse implement? (Click on each chart tab for additional information. Please be sure to scroll to the bottom right corner of each tab to view all information contained in the client's medical record.)

Continue to monitor the progress of labor.

458. A nurse is conducting a physical assessment of a young adult. Which information provides the best indication of the individual nutritional status?

Condition of hair, nails, and skin

460. A newly admitted client vomits into an emesis basin as seen in the picture. The nurse should consult with the healthcare provider before administering which of the client's prescribes medications?

Clopidogrel (Plavix), an antiplatelet agent, given orally Methylprednisolone (solu-medrol), a corticosteroid, to be given IV Enoxaparin (lovenox), a low-molecular weight heparin to be given subcutaneous

After eye drops are instilled, which instruction should the nurse provide to the client?

Close your eyelids.

583. The home health nurse is assessing a male client who has started peritoneal dialysis (PD) 5 days ago. Which assessment finding warrants immediate intervention by the nurse?

Cloudy dialysate output and rebound abdominal pain

623. A 7-year-old boy is brought to the clinic because of facial edema. He reports that he has been voiding small amounts of dark, cloudy, tea-colored urine. The parents state that their son had a sore throat 2 weeks earlier, but it has resolved. After assessing the child's vital signs and weight, what intervention should the nurse implement next?

Collect a urine specimen for routine urinalysis

204. A male client is admitted for the removal of an internal fixation that was inserted for the fracture ankle. During the admission history, he tells the nurse he recently received vancomycin (vancomycin) for a methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) wound infection. Which action should the nurse take? (Select all that apply.)

Collect multiple site screening culture for MRSA Place the client on contact transmission precautions Continue to monitor for client sign of infection.

359. A primigravida a 40-weeks gestation with preeclampsia is admitted after having a seizure in the hot tub at a midwife's birthing center. Based on documentation in the medical record, which action should the nurse implement? (Click on each chart tab for additional information. Please be sure to scroll to the bottom right corner of each tab to view all information contained in the client's medical record.)

Continue to monitor the client's blood pressure hourly

426. A male client was transferred yesterday from the emergency department to the telemetry unit because he had ST depression and resolved chest pain. When his EKG monitor alarms for ventricular tachycardia (VT), what action should the nurse take first?

Determine the client's responsiveness and respirations

452. A 12-lead electrocardiogram (ECG) indicates a ST elevations in leads V1 to V4, for a client who reports having chest pain. The healthcare provider prescribe tissue plasminogen activator (t-PA). Prior to initiating the infusion, which interventions is most important for the nurse to implement?

Complete pre-infusion checklist

221. An older male client with type 2 diabetes mellitus reports that has experiences legs pain when walking short distances, and that the pain is relieved by rest. Which client behavior indicates an understanding of healthcare teaching to promote more effective arterial circulation?

Completely stop cigarette/ cigar smoking.

412. The nurse is changing a client's IV tubing and closes the roller clamp on the new tubing setup when the bag of solution is....which action should the nurse take to ensure adequate filling of the drip chamber?

Compress the drip chamber

630. An adult female client is admitted to the psychiatric unit because of a complex handwashing ritual she performs daily that takes two hours or longer to complete. She worries about staying clean and refuses to sit on any of the chairs in the day area. This client's handwashing is an example of which clinical behavior?

Compulsion

The nurse is caring for a client who is the daughter of a local politician. When the nurse approaches a man who is reading the names on the hall doors, he identifies himself as a reporter for the local newspaper and requests information about the client's status. Which standard of nursing practice should the nurse use to respond?

Confidentiality.

200. A client with Alzheimer's disease (AD) is receiving trazodone (Desyrel), a recently prescribed atypical antidepressant. The caregiver tells the home health nurse that the client's mood and sleep patterns are improved, but there is no change in cognitive ability. How should the nurse respond to this information?

Confirm the desired effect of the medication has been achieved.

106. The nurse is caring for a client receiving continuous IV fluids through a single lumen central venous catheter (CVC). Based on the CVC care bundle, which action should be completed daily to reduce the risk for infection?

Confirm the necessity for continued use of the CVC.

A male client diagnosed with antisocial personality disorder is morbidly obese and is placed on a low fat, low calorie diet. At dinner the nurse notes that he is trying to get other clients on the unit to give him part of their meals. What intervention should the nurse implement?

Confront the client about the consequences of the behavior.

105. A client who sustained a head injury following an automobile collision is admitted to the hospital. The nurse include the client's risk for developing increased intracranial pressure (ICP) in the plan of care. Which signs indicate to the nurse that ICP has increased?

Confusion and papilledema

329. A client is admitted with acute pancreatitis. The client admits to drinking a pint of bourbon daily. The nurse medicates the client for pain and monitors vital signs q2 hours. Which finding should the nurse report immediately to the healthcare provider?

Confusion and tremors

149. While in the medical records department, the nurse observes several old medical records with names visible in waste container. What action should the nurse implement?

Contact the medical records department supervisor.

473. A client with end-stage liver failure is declared brain dead. The family wants to discontinue feeding and donate any viable organs. Which action should the nurse take?

Contact the regional organ procurement agency

489. A client with end-stage liver failure is declared brain dead. The family wants to discontinue feeding and donate any viable organs. Which action should the nurse take?

Contact the regional organ procurement agency

116. The nurse is developing an educational program for older clients who are being discharged with new antihypertensive medications. The nurse should ensure that the educational materials include which characteristics? Select all that apply

Contains a list with definitions of unfamiliar terms Uses common words with few Syllables Uses pictures to help illustrate complex ideas

552. A 6-year-old child with acute infectious diarrhea is placed on a rehydration therapy...Which action should the nurse instruct the parents to take if the child begins to vomit?

Continue giving ORS frequently in small amounts

553. A client is receiving oxytocin (Pitocin) to augment early labor. Which assessment is most important time the infusion rate is increases?

Contraction pattern

604. The nurse is assessing the thorax and lungs of a client who is having respiratory difficulty. Which finding is most indicative of respiratory distress?

Contractions of the sternocleidomastoid muscle

175. The nurse is caring for a client who is entering the second stage of labor. Which action should the nurse implement first?

Convey to the client that birth is imminent.

When meeting with the client and the family, which nursing intervention demonstrates the nurse's role as collaborator of care?

Coordinating and educating about multidisciplinary services.

322. A client with osteoporosis related to long-term corticosteroid therapy receives a prescription for calcium carbonate. Which client's serum laboratory values requires intervention by the nurse?

Creatinine 4 mg/dl (354 micromol/L SI)

484. The nurse is assessing the emotional status of a client with Parkinson's disease. Which client finding is most helpful in planning goals to meet the client's emotional needs?

Cries frequently during the interview

140. A client with a chronic health problem has difficulty ambulating short distance due to generalized weakness, but is able to bear weight on both legs. To assist with ambulation and provide the greatest stability, what assistive device is best for this client?

Crutches with 4 point gait.

390. While caring for a client's postoperative dressing, the nurse observes purulent drainage at the wound. Before reporting this finding to the healthcare provider, the nurse should review which of the client's laboratory values?

Culture for sensitive organisms.

326. A client exposed to tuberculosis is scheduled to begin prophylactic treatment with isoniazid. Which information is most important for the nurse to note before administering the initial dose?

Current diagnosis of hepatitis B.

496. A client is admitted with a wound on the right hand and associated cellulitis. In assessing the client's hand, which finding required most immediate follow-up by the nurse?

Cyanotic nailbeds

A child with nephrotic syndrome is receiving prednisone (Deltasone). Which choice of breakfast foods at a fast food restaurant indicates that the mother understands the dietary guidelines necessary for her child? A.French toast sticks and orange juice B.Sausage egg muffin and grape juice C.Canadian bacon slices and hot chocolate D.Toasted oat cereal and low-fat milk

D A child receiving a corticosteroid for nephrotic syndrome should follow a low-sodium, low-fat, and low-sugar diet. Based on these guidelines, the best breakfast choice is (D). (A) is high in fat and sugar. (B and C) are high in fat and sodium.

A client with schizophrenia tells the nurse, "The world is coming to an end. All the violence in the Middle East is soon going to destroy the entire world!" How should the nurse respond? A."Let's play some dominoes for a few minutes." B."I don't think the violence means the world is ending." C."The news makes you have upsetting thoughts." D."Listening to the news seems to be frightening you."

D A client's delusional statements are best addressed by identifying the feeling associated with the delusion (D). Distraction (A) may be helpful but ignores the feelings that the client is experiencing. Delusional clients often argue with statements that contradict their belief system (B). The client is unlikely to understand the relationship between the news and the thoughts experienced (C).

An older client who resides in a long-term care facility is hearing-impaired. How should the nurse modify interventions for this client? A.Turn off the client's television and speak very loudly. B.Communicate in writing whenever it is possible. C.Speak very slowly while exaggerating each word. D.Face the client and speak in a normal tone of voice.

D A hearing-impaired client frequently relies on lip reading and body language to determine what is being said, so (D) should be implemented. (A and C) may distort the sounds and facial expressions, which alters the client's ability to interpret the verbal message. Communicating in writing is another option that could be used if verbal or body language is ineffective (B).

A client with hepatic failure tells the nurse about recent use of acetaminophen (Tylenol). How should the nurse respond to this client's statement? A.Bleeding precautions should be implemented. B.Tylenol is indicated for minor aches and pains. C.Acetaminophen reduces inflammation. D.The drug is hepatotoxic and contraindicated.

D Acetaminophen is hepatotoxic and can cause further complications for a client with impaired liver function, so its use is contraindicated (D). Although bleeding (A) is a risk in clients with liver disease caused by decreased production of clotting components, this drug significantly increases this risk and is contraindicated. Although (B) is an indicated use for this drug, it remains contraindicated in patients with hepatic failure. (C) is inaccurate.

A client who is admitted with emphysema is having difficulty breathing. In which position should the nurse place the client? A.High Fowler's position without a pillow behind the head B.Semi-Fowler's position with a single pillow behind the head C.Right side-lying position with the head of the bed elevated 45 degrees D.Sitting upright and forward with both arms supported on an over the bed table

D Adequate lung expansion is dependent on deep breaths that allow the respiratory muscles to increase the longitudinal and anterior-posterior size of the thoracic cage. Sitting upright and leaning forward with the arms supported on an over the bed table (D) allows the thoracic cage to expand in all four directions and reduces dyspnea. A high Fowler's position does not allow maximum expansion of the posterior lobes of the lungs (A). A semi-Fowler's position restricts expansion of the anterior-posterior diameter of the thoracic cage (B). Positioning a client on the right side with the head of the bed elevated (C) does not facilitate lung expansion.

The nurse administers atropine sulfate ophthalmic drops preoperatively to the right eye of a client scheduled for cataract surgery. Which response by the client indicates that the drug was effective? A.The pupils become equal and reactive to light. B.The right pupil constricts within 30 minutes. C.Bilateral visual accommodation is restored. D.The right pupil dilates after drop installation.

D Atropine (Isopto Atropine) is a mydriatic drug, which causes pupil dilation and paralysis in preparation for surgery or examination (D). (A, B, and C) do not describe the therapeutic effects of atropine sulfate ophthalmic drops prior to cataract surgery.

The nurse assesses a client while the UAP measures the client's vital signs. The client's vital signs change suddenly, and the nurse determines that the client's condition is worsening. The nurse is unsure of the client's resuscitative status and needs to check the client's medical record for any advanced directives. Which action should the nurse implement? A.Ask the UAP to check for the advanced directive while the nurse completes the assessment. B.Assign the UAP to complete the assessment while the nurse checks for the advanced directive. C.Check the medical record for the advanced directive and then complete the client assessment. D.Call for the charge nurse to check the advanced directive while continuing to assess the client.

D Because the client's condition is worsening, the nurse should remain with the client and continue the assessment while calling for help from the charge nurse to determine the client's resuscitative status (D). (A and B) are tasks that must be completed by a nurse and cannot be delegated to the UAP. (C) is contraindicated.

The nurse is preparing a client for surgery scheduled in 2 hours. A UAP is helping the nurse. Which task is important for the nurse to perform, rather than the UAP? A.Remove the client's nail polish and dentures. B.Assist the client to the restroom to void. C.Obtain the client's height and weight. D.Offer the client emotional support.

D By using therapeutic techniques to offer support (D), the nurse can determine any client concerns that need to be addressed. (A, B, and C) are all actions that can be performed by the UAP under the supervision of the nurse.

A mother of a 12-year-old boy states that her son is short and she fears that he will always be shorter than his peers. She tells the nurse that her grown daughter only grew 2 inches after she was 12 years of age. To provide health teaching, which question is most important for the nurse to ask this mother? A."Is your son's short stature a social embarrassment to him or the family?" B."What types of foods do both your children eat now and what did they eat when they were infants?" C."Did any significant trauma occur with the birth of your son?" D."Did your daughter also start her menstrual period at 12 years of age?"

D Girls are expected to mature sexually and grow physically sooner than boys. Furthermore, girls only grow an average of 2 inches after menses begins (D). (A) is not appropriate at this time. The mother is worried that something is wrong with her son physically. (B) has less to do with stature than growth and development. (C) is not related to growth hormone deficiencies, which are idiopathic (without known causes).

In conducting a routine assessment, which question should the nurse ask to determine a client's risk for open-angle glaucoma? A."Have you ever been told that you have hardening of the arteries?" B."Do you frequently experience eye pain?" C."Do you have high blood pressure or kidney problems?" D."Does anyone in your family have glaucoma?"

D Glaucoma has a definite genetic link, so clients should be screened for a positive family history, especially an immediate family member (D). (A and C) are not related to glaucoma. Glaucoma rarely causes pain (B), which is why screening is so important.

The nurse is assisting a father to change the diaper of his 2-day-old infant. The father notices several bluish-black pigmented areas on the infant's buttocks and asks the nurse, "What did you do to my baby?" Which response is best for the nurse to provide? A."What makes you think we did anything to your baby?" B."Are you or any of your blood relatives of Asian descent?" C."Those are stork bites and will go away in about 2 years." D."Those are Mongolian spots and will gradually fade in 1 or 2 years."

D Mongolian spots (D) are areas of bluish-black or gray-blue pigmentation seen primarily on the dorsal area and buttocks of infants of Asian or African decent or dark-skinned babies. (A) is a defensive answer. Although Mongolian spots occur more frequently in those of Asian and African decent, (B) does not respond to the father's concern. Telangiectatic nevi, frequently referred to as stork bites (C), appear reddish-purple or red and are usually on the face or head and neck area.

Which situation demonstrates proper application of client confidentiality requirements for the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA)? A.Clients' names are not used while they are in a public waiting room. B.Nurses should not recommend any community self-help groups by specific name, such as Alcoholics Anonymous. C.Clients must pick up their filled prescriptions from a pharmacy in person with a photo identification card. D.Old medical records are kept in a locked file cabinet in the department.

D Past medical records must be "secured" and "reasonably protected" from inadvertent viewing (D). A locked room or file cabinet can serve this purpose, and when any protected health information (PHI) is discarded, it must be shredded. A person's name only (without their diagnosis or treatment) is not considered confidential or PHI (A). Nurses may suggest categories of community resources, with examples, such as Alcoholics Anonymous (B), but cannot market a specific program in which they have a financial interest. Others can pick up a client's filled prescriptions (C).

The nurse is caring for a client with respiratory distress whose arterial blood gas (ABG) results are as follows: pH, 7.33; Pco2,50 mm Hg; Po2, 70 mm Hg; HCO3, 26 mEq/L. How should the nurse interpret these results? A.Metabolic acidosis B.Respiratory alkalosis C.Metabolic alkalosis D.Respiratory acidosis

D Rationale: A pH <7.25 and Pco2 >45 mm Hg with a normal HCO3 indicates respiratory acidosis (D). The others are incorrect analyses of the ABGs (A, B, and C).

A client comes to the obstetric clinic for her first prenatal visit and complains of feeling nauseated every morning. The client tells the nurse, "I'm having second thoughts about wanting to have this baby." Which response is best for the nurse to make? A."It's normal to feel ambivalent about a pregnancy when you are not feeling well." B."I think you should discuss these feelings with your health care provider." C."How does the father of your child feel about your having this baby?" D."Tell me about these second thoughts you are having about this pregnancy."

D Rationale: Although ambivalence is normal during the first trimester, (D) is the best nursing response at this time. It is reflective and keeps the lines of communication open. (A) is not the best response because it offers false reassurance. (B) dismisses the client's feelings. The nurse should use communication skills that encourage this type of discussion, not shift responsibility to the care provider. (C) may eventually be discussed, but it is not the most important information to obtain at this time.

The nurse is caring for a client with deep vein thrombosis who is on a continuous IV heparin infusion. The activated partial prothrombin time (aPTT) is 120 seconds. Which action should the nurse take? A.Increase the rate of the heparin infusion using a nomogram. B.Decrease the heparin infusion rate and give vitamin K IM. C.Continue the heparin infusion at the current prescribed rate. D.Stop the heparin drip and prepare to administer protamine sulfate.

D Rationale: An aPTT more than 100 seconds is a critically high value; therefore, the heparin should be stopped. The antidote for heparin is protamine sulfate (D). Increasing the rate would increase the risk for hemorrhage (A). The infusion should be stopped, and vitamin K is the antidote for warfarin (Coumadin) (B). Keeping the infusion at the current rate would increase the risk for hemorrhage (C).

A nurse implements an education program to reduce hospital readmissions for clients with heart failure. Which statement by the client indicates that teaching has been effective? A."I will not take my digoxin if my heart rate is higher than 100 beats/min." B."I should weigh myself once a week and report any increases." C."It is important to increase my fluid intake whenever possible." D."I should report an increase of swelling in my feet or ankles."

D Rationale: An increase in edema indicates worsening right-sided heart failure and should be reported to the primary health care provider (D). Digitalis should be held when the heart rate is lower than 60 beats/min (A). The client with heart failure should weigh himself or herself daily and report a gain of 2 to 3 lb (B). An increase in fluid can worsen heart failure (C).

The nurse is caring for a client with chronic renal failure (CRF) who is receiving dialysis therapy. Which nursing intervention has the greatest priority when planning this client's care? A.Palpate for pitting edema. B.Provide meticulous skin care. C.Administer phosphate binders. D.Monitor serum potassium levels.

D Rationale: Clients with CRF are at risk for electrolyte imbalances, and imbalances in potassium can be life threatening (D). One sign of fluid retention is pitting edema (A), but it is an expected symptom of renal failure and is not as high a priority as (D). (B and C) are common nursing interventions for CRF but not as high a priority as (D).

Which monitored pattern of fetal heart rate alerts the nurse to seek immediate intervention by the health care provider? A.Accelerations in response to fetal movement B.Early decelerations in the second stage of labor C.Fetal heart rate of 130 beats/min between contractions D.Late decelerations with absent variability and tachycardia

D Rationale: Late decelerations indicate uteroplacental insufficiency and can be indicative of complications. When occurring with absent variability and tachycardia, the situation is ominous (D). 130 beats/min is an expected heart rate (C). The others are not as critical (A and B).

The nurse walks into the room and observes the client experiencing a tonic-clonic seizure. Which intervention should the nurse implement first? A.Restrain the client to protect from injury. B.Flex the neck to ensure stabilization. C.Use a tongue blade to open the airway. D.Turn client on the side to aid ventilation.

D Rationale: Maintaining airway during a seizure is priority for safety (D). (A, B, and C) are contraindicated during a seizure and may cause further injury to the client.

A client is receiving propylthiouracil (PTU) prior to thyroid surgery. Which diagnostic test results indicate that the medication is producing the desired effect? A.Increased hemoglobin and hematocrit levels B.Increased serum calcium level C.Decreased white blood cell (WBC) count D.Decreased triiodothyronine (T3) and thyroxine (T4) levels

D Rationale: Propylthiouracil (PTU) is an adjunct therapy used to control hyperthyroidism by inhibiting the production of thyroid hormones (D). It is often prescribed in preparation for thyroidectomy or radioactive iodine therapy. It is does not affect (A). (B) must be monitored after surgery in case the parathyroid glands were removed, but preoperative PTU does not increase the serum calcium level. If the client has an infection preoperatively, antibiotics will be given and (C) monitored.

When assessing safety for the older adult, which of the following is of highest priority to the nurse? A.The client has a cataract in the right eye. B.The client is not married and lives alone. C.The client lives in a two-story building. D.The client reports a history of repeated falls.

D Rationale: Risk assessment for falls is a critical element in caring for the older adult. (A, B, and C) are important components in assessing client risk, but a history of prior falls puts the older client at very high risk for falling again (D).

476. The nurse is triaging victims of a tornado at an emergency shelter. An adult woman who has been wandering and crying comes to the nurse. What action should the nurse take?

Delegate care of the crying client to an unlicensed assistant

An older client calls the clinic and complains of feeling very weak and dizzy. Further assessment by the nurse indicates that the client self-administered an enema of 3 L of tap water because of constipation. What is the most likely cause of the client's symptoms? A.Mucosal bleeding B.Sodium retention C.Fluid volume depletion D.Water intoxication

D Rationale: Tap water is a hypotonic fluid that can leave the intestine and enter the interstitial fluid by osmosis, ultimately causing systemic water intoxication (D). This is manifested by weakness, dizziness, pallor, diaphoresis, and respiratory distress. Excessive use of enemas can cause mucosal irritation, which might result in some bleeding (A), but the client would not experience weakness and dizziness unless she was hemorrhaging. (B and C) can occur with the use of a hypertonic rather than hypotonic solution.

An adult female who presents at the mental clinic trembling and crying becomes distressed when the nurse attempts to conduct an assessment. She complains about the number of questions that are being asked, which she is convinced are going to cause her to have a heart attack. What action should the nurse take? A.Take the client's blood pressure and reassure her that questioning will not cause a heart attack. B.Explain that treatment is based on information obtained in the assessment. C.Encourage the client to relax so that she can provide the information requested. D.Empower the client to share her story of why she is here at the mental health clinic.

D Rationale: The client is exhibiting signs of moderate anxiety, which include voice tremors, shakiness, somatic complaints, and selective inattention. (D) is the best method for addressing this client's level of anxiety by creating a shared understanding of the client's concerns. Although assessment of her blood pressure (A) might be a worthwhile intervention, reassuring her that questioning will not cause a heart attack (A) is argumentative. (B) suggests that treatment cannot be provided without the information, which is manipulative. Asking the client to relax (C) is likely to increase her anxiety.

Which intervention is most important when caring for a client immediately after electroconvulsive therapy (ECT)?A.Reorient the client to surroundings. B.Assess blood pressure every 15 minutes. C.Determine if muscle soreness is present. D.Maintain a patent airway.

D Rationale: The client is typically unconscious immediately following ECT, and nausea is a common side effect. The nurse should take measures to prevent aspiration and maintain a patent airway (D). Patients may be confused after ECT (A), but reorientation is not as high a priority as the airway. Although vital signs should be assessed, the airway is a higher priority (B). Muscle soreness is an expected finding after ECT (C).

The nurse enters the examination room of a client who has been told by her health care provider that she has advanced ovarian cancer. Which response by the nurse is likely to be most supportive for the client? A."I know many women who have survived ovarian cancer." B."Let's talk about the treatments of ovarian cancer." C."In my opinion I would suggest getting a second opinion." D."Tell me about what you are feeling right now."

D Rationale: The most therapeutic action for the nurse is to be an active listener and to encourage the client to explore her feelings (D). Giving false reassurance or personal suggestions are not therapeutic communication for the client (A, B, and C).

The outpatient clinic nurse is reviewing phone messages from last night. Which client should the nurse call back first? A.An 18-year-old woman who had a positive pregnancy test and wants advice on how to tell her parents B.A woman with type 1 diabetes who has just discovered she is pregnant and is worried about her fingerstick glucose C.A women at 24 weeks of gestation crying about painful genital lesions on the vulva and urinary frequency D.A women at 30 weeks of gestation who has been diagnosed with mild preeclampsia and is unable to relieve her heartburn

D Rationale: The women with epigastric pain should be called first (D). One of the cardinal signs of eclampsia, a life-threatening complication of pregnancy, is epigastric pain. (A, B, and C) are less serious and should be called after (D).

126. An infant who is admitted for surgical repair of a ventricular septal defect (VSD) is irritable and diaphoretic with jugular vein distention. Which prescription should the nurse administer first?

Digoxin.

The nurse prepares to administer amoxicillin clavulanate potassium (Augmentin) to a child weighing 15 kg. The prescription is for 15 mg/kg every 12 hours by mouth. How many milliliters should the nurse administer when supplied as below? A.0.5 B.1.8 C.5 D.9

D Rationale:15 mg/kg × 15 kg = 225 mg to be administered Supply = 125 mg/5 mL (5 mL/125 mg) × 225 mg = 9 mL or (225 mg/125 mg) × 5 ml = 9 mL

A client with small cell carcinoma of the lung has also developed syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH). Which outcome finding is the priority for this client? A.Reduced peripheral edema B.Urinary output of at least 70 mL/hr C.Decrease in urine osmolarity D.Serum sodium level of 137 mEq/L

D Syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) results from an abnormal production or sustained secretion of antidiuretic hormone, causing fluid retention, hyponatremia, and central nervous system (CNS) fluid shifts. The client's normalization of the serum sodium level (normal is 135 to 145 mEq/L) (D) is the most important outcome because sudden and severe hyponatremia caused by fluid overload can result in heart failure. Fluid retention of SIADH contributes to daily weight gain, which can predispose to peripheral edema (A), but the higher priority outcome is the effect on serum electrolyte levels. Although (B and C) are findings associated with resolving SIADH, they do not have the priority of (D).

A nurse is planning patient care and wants to verify the steps for a specific client procedure. Which action should the nurse take? A.Review the plan and the steps in performing the procedure with another nurse. B.Look up the specific procedure in a medical surgical nursing text on the unit. C.Discuss the client's prescribed procedure with an available health care provider. D.Consult the agency's policies and procedures manual and follow the guidelines.

D The agency's policies and procedures manual (D) should be consulted to verify the agency's approved protocol for the client's procedure, which is adapted to follow current standards of care. (A and B) may be resources, but client care should be implemented according to the agency's published policies and procedures. (C) is not practical.

97. A female client with acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) is chemically paralyzed and sedated while she is on as assist-control ventilator using 50% FIO2. Which assessment finding warrants immediate intervention by the nurse?

Diminished left lower lobe sounds

A male client with Parkinson's disease has been taking the antiparkinsonian agent amantadine HCl (Symmetrel) for 4 months. He tells the home health nurse, "The medicine doesn't seem to be working anymore." Which information should the nurse provide to this client? A.The dosage probably needs to be increased. B.The medication needs to be changed immediately. C.The medication needs to be taken more frequently. D.The effects of this drug tend to decrease after 3 months.

D The beneficial effects of Symmetrel usually decrease in 3 to 6 months (D). It must be discontinued gradually if necessary (B). Sometimes it is discontinued for a period of time and then resumed at a higher dosage, and although (A) is partially correct, (D) is more correct. Sometimes Symmetrel is given with other antiparkinsonian medications as an adjunct, but (C) would have little effect.

Which client is best to assign to a graduate PN who is being oriented to a renal unit? A.A client who is 1 day postoperative after placement of an arteriovenous (AV) shunt B.A client who is receiving continuous ambulatory peritoneal dialysis C.A client with continuous bladder irrigation for hematuria D.A client with renal calculi whose urine needs to be strained

D The client with renal calculi (kidney stones) (D) is the most stable client for a PN who is being oriented. Straining urine and the administration of pain medication are tasks that can be safely performed with minimal risk of problems. (A, B, and C) require careful assessment from an experienced nurse because of the potential for significant complications.

The nurse is monitoring a client who is receiving bedside conscious sedation with midazolam hydrochloride (Versed). In assessing the client, the nurse determines that the client has slurred speech with diplopia. Based on this finding, what action should the nurse take? A.Open the airway with a chin lift-head tilt maneuver. B.Obtain a fingerstick glucose reading. C.Administer flumazenil (Romazicon). D.Continue to monitor the client.

D The desired level III in conscious sedation includes slurred speech, glazed eyes, and marked diplopia. Because this is the desired outcome of the medication regimen, no action is needed but continuing to monitor the client (D). The airway is open if the client is able to talk (A). There are no signs of hypoglycemia (B). No reversal is necessary for the benzodiazepine (Versed) without signs of oversedation, such as respiratory depression (C).

Which pathophysiologic response supports the contraindication for opioids, such as morphine, in clients with increased intracranial pressure (ICP)? A.Sedation produced by opioids is a result of a prolonged half-life when the ICP is elevated. B.Higher doses of opioids are required when cerebral blood flow is reduced by an elevated ICP. C.Dysphoria from opioids contributes to altered levels of consciousness with an elevated ICP. D.Opioids suppress respirations, which increases Pco2 and contributes to an elevated ICP.

D The greatest risk associated with opioids such as morphine (D) is respiratory depression that causes an increase in Pco2, which increases ICP and masks the early signs of intracranial bleeding in head injury. (A, B, and C) do not support the risks associated with opioid use in a client with increased ICP.

A nurse who has recently completed orientation is beginning work in the labor and delivery unit for the first time. When making assignments, which client should the charge nurse assign to this new nurse? A.A primigravida who is 8 cm dilated after 14 hours of labor B.A client scheduled for a repeat cesarean birth at 38 weeks' gestation C.A client being induced for fetal demise at 20 weeks' gestation D.A multiparous client who is dilated 5 cm and 50% effaced

D The new nurse should be assigned the least complicated client to gain experience and confidence, as well as protect client safety. Of the clients available for assignment, (D) is progressing well and is the least complicated. (A, B and C) have actual or potential complications and should be assigned to a more experienced nurse.

A client has been on a mechanical ventilator for several days. What should the nurse use to document and record this client's respirations? A.The respiratory settings on the ventilator B.Only the client's spontaneous respirations C.The ventilator-assisted respirations minus the client's independent breaths D.The ventilator setting for respiratory rate and the client-initiated respirations

D The nurse should count the client's respirations, and document both the respiratory rate set by the ventilator and the client's independent respiratory rate (D). Never rely strictly on (A). Although the client's spontaneous breaths will be shallow and machine-assisted breaths will be deep, it is important to record machine-assisted breaths as well as the client's spontaneous breaths to get an overall respiratory picture of the client (B and C).

According to Erikson, which client should the nurse identify as having difficulty completing the developmental stage of older adults? A.A 60-year-old man who tells the nurse that he is feeling fine and really does not need any help from anyone B.A 78-year-old widower who has come to the mental health clinic for counseling after the recent death of his wife C.An 81-year-old woman who states that she enjoys having her grandchildren visit but is usually glad when they go home D.A 75-year-old woman who wishes her friends were still alive so she could change some of the choices she made over the years

D The older woman who wishes she could change the choices she has made in her lifetime is expressing despair and is still searching for integrity (D). The nurse uses Erikson stages of development over the life span to assess an older client's adjustment to aging and plans teaching strategies to assist the clients attain integrity versus despair. (A, B, and C) are normal developmental tasks of older adults.

A female client arrives for an annual well-woman checkup and cervical Pap test and tells the nurse that she has been using an over-the-counter (OTC) vaginal cream for the past 2 days to treat an infection. Which initial response should the nurse make? A.Ask the client to describe the symptoms of the vaginal infection. B.Assess if the client has been sexually active recently. C.Tell the client to reschedule the examination in 1 week. D.Inform the client that the scheduled Pap test cannot be done today.

D The over-the-counter (OTC) vaginal cream interferes with obtaining a cervical cellular sample, alters cytology analysis, and masks bacterial or sexually transmitted disease infections, so the Pap test should be postponed (D). Although (A, B, and C) are indicated, the client needs further teaching for the return visit to perform the Pap smear test.

A client with hemiplegia who is on bed rest is turned to the supine position, and the nurse determines that the client's hips are externally rotated. Which intervention is most important for the nurse to implement? A.Request a prescription for a bed board to provide increased back support. B.Reposition the client so that both feet are supported by the bed board. C.Move the trapeze bar to allow the client to pull with the upper extremities. D.Place trochanter rolls on the lateral aspects of the client's thighs.

D Trochanter rolls (D) should be placed on the lateral aspects of the thighs to prevent external rotation of the hips when the client is in a supine position. Although (A, B, and C) are supportive equipment used to maintain proper positioning of the client who is immobile, it is most important to maintain the lower extremities in the aligned anatomical position. A bed board (A) provides increased back support, especially with a soft mattress. The footboard (B) maintains the feet in dorsiflexion and prevents foot drop. The trapeze bar (C) allows the client to participate while turning in the bed, during transfers in and out of bed, or performing upper arm exercises.

The charge nurse of a medical surgical unit is alerted to an impending disaster requiring implementation of the hospital's disaster plan. Specific facts about the nature of this disaster are not yet known. Which instruction should the charge nurse give to the other staff members at this time? A.Prepare to evacuate the unit, starting with the bedridden clients. B.UAPs should report to the emergency center to handle transports. C.The licensed staff should begin counting wheelchairs and IV poles on the unit. D.Continue with current assignments until more instructions are received.

D When faced with an impending disaster, hospital personnel may be alerted but should continue with current client care assignments until further instructions are received (D). Evacuation is typically a response of last resort that begins with clients who are most able to ambulate (A). (B) is premature and is likely to increase the chaos if incoming casualties are anticipated. (C) is poor utilization of personnel.

The nurse expects a clinical finding of cyanosis in an infant with which condition(s)? (Select all that apply.) A.Ventricular septal defect (VSD) B.Patent ductus arteriosis (PDA) C.Coarctation of the aorta D.Tetralogy of Fallot E.Transposition of the great vessels

D,E Rationale: Both tetralogy of Fallot and transposition of the great vessels are classified as cyanotic heart disease, in which unoxygenated blood is pumped into the systemic circulation, causing cyanosis (D and E). The others are all abnormal cardiac conditions, but are classified as acyanotic and involve left-to-right shunts, increased pulmonary blood flow, or obstructive defects. (A, B, and C).

Two unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) are arguing on the unit about who deserves to take a break first. What is the most important basic guideline that the nurse should follow in resolving the conflict?

Dealing with the issues which are concrete, not personalities (A) which include emotional reactions, is one of seven important key behaviors in managing conflict. (B, C, and D) do not resolve the conflict when diverse opinions are expressed emotionally.

599. Following insertion of a LeVeen shunt in a client with cirrhosis of the liver, which assessment finding indicates to the nurse that the shunt is effective?

Decrease abdominal girth

220. A client with hyperthyroidism is receiving propranolol (Inderal). Which finding indicates that the medication is having the desired effect?

Decrease in pulse rate

174. An increased number of elderly persons are electing to undergo a new surgical procedure which cures glaucoma. What effect is the nurse likely to note as a result of this increases in glaucoma surgeries?

Decrease prevalence of glaucoma in the population.

The nurse is preparing to administer atropine, an anticholinergic, to a client who is scheduled for a cholecystectomy. The client asks the nurse to explain the reason for the prescribed medication. What response is best for the nurse to provide?

Decrease the risk of bradycardia during surgery.

208. The nurse is preparing to administer a histamine 2-receptor antagonist to a client with peptic ulcer disease. What is the primary purpose of this drug classification?

Decreases the amount of HCL secretion by the parietal cells in the stomach

213. An elderly male client is admitted to the mental health unit with a sudden onset of global disorientation and is continuously conversing with his mother, who died 50 years ago. The nurse reviews the multiple prescriptions he is currently taking and assesses his urine specimen, which is cloudy, dark yellow, and has foul odor. These findings suggest that his client is experiencing which condition?

Delirium

358. When administering an immunization in an adult client, the nurse palpates and administer the injection one inch below the acromion process into the center of the muscle mass. The nurse should document that the vaccine was administered at what site?

Deltoid

Which approach should the nurse use when preparing a toddler for a procedure?

Demonstrate the procedure using a doll.

A client assigned to a female practical nurse (PN) needs total morning care and sterile wound packing with a wet to dry dressing. The PN tells the nurse that she has never performed a wound packing. Which intervention should the charge nurse implement?

Demonstrate the wound care procedure to the PN while the PN assists

A 63-year-old female client whose husband died one month ago is seen in the psychiatric clinic. Her daughter tells the nurse that her mother is eating poorly, sleeps very little at night, and continues to set the table for her deceased husband. What nursing problem best describes this problem?

Denial related to the loss of a loved one.

135. A client with hyperthyroidism is being treated with radioactive iodine (I-131). Which explanation should be included in preparing this client for this treatment?

Describe radioactive iodine as a tasteless, colorless medication administered by the healthcare provider

4. An adolescent with major depressive disorder has been taking duloxetine (Cymbalta) for the past 12 days. Which assessment finding requires immediate follow-up?

Describes life without purpose

Which assessment finding should make the nurse suspect that a 21-year-old male client is taking anabolic steroids?

Describes working hard to develop muscles.

136. After a colon resection for colon cancer, a male client is moaning while being transferred to the Postanesthesia Care Unit (PACU). Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

Determine client's pulse, blood pressure, and respirations

431. A young couple who has been unsuccessful in conceiving a child for over a year is seen in the family planning clinic. During an initial visit, which intervention is most important for the nurse to implement?

Determine current sexual practice

108. A new mother tells the nurse that she is unsure if she will be able to transition into parenthood. What action should the nurse take?

Determine if she can ask for support from family, friend, or the baby's father.

375. The nurse is preparing an intravenous (IV) fluid infusion using an IV pump. Within 30 seconds of turning on the machine, the pump's alarm beeps "occlusion". What action should the nurse implement first?

Determine if the clamp on the IV tubing is released

385. A client with persistent low back pain has received a prescription for electronic stimulator (TENS) unit. After the nurse applies the electrodes and turns on the power, the client reports feeling a tingling sensation. How should the nurse respond?

Determine if the sensation feels uncomfortable.

187. A client arrives on the surgical floor after major abdominal surgery. What intervention should the nurse perform first?

Determine the client's vital sign.

554. An infant is placed in a radiant warmer immediately after birth. At one hour of age, the nurse finds the infant tachypneic, and hypotonic. What is the first action that the nurse should take?

Determine the infant's blood sugar level

319. A young boy who is in a chronic vegetative state and living at home is readmitted to the hospital with pneumonia and pressure ulcers. The mother insists that she is capable of caring for her son and which action should the nurse implement next?

Determine the mother's basic skill level in providing care.

370. A mother runs into the emergency department with s toddler in her arms and tells the nurse that her child got into some cleaning products. The child smells of chemicals on hands, face, and on the front of the child's clothes. After ensuring the airway is patent, what action should the nurse implement first?

Determine type of chemical exposure.

66. The nurse is preparing to administer an oral antibiotic to a client with unilateral weakness, ptosis, mouth drooping and, aspiration pneumonia. What is the priority nursing assessment that should be done before administering this medication?

Determine which side of the body is weak.

487. The nurse is presenting information about fetal development to a group of parents with...when discussing cephalocaudal fetal development, which information should the nurse gives the parents?

Development progress from head to rump

581. The charge nurse of the Intensive Care Unit is making assignments for the permanent staff and one RN who was floated from a medical unit. The client with which condition is the best to assign to the float nurse?

Diabetic ketoacidosis and titrated IV insulin infusion

Prenatal diagnostic testing is recommended for a couple expecting their first child who have a family history of congenital disorders. The couple tells the nurse that they are opposed to abortion for religious reasons. Which concept should the nurse consider when responding to this couple?

Diagnostic testing may indicate a fetal problem that could be treated prior to delivery.

470. The nurse reviews the signs of hypoglycemia with the parents of a child with Type I diabetes mellitus. The parents correctly understand signs of hypoglycemia if they include which symptoms?

Diaphoresis

527. A female client reports she has not had a bowel movement for 3 days, but now is defecating frequent small amount of liquid stool. Which action should the nurse implement?

Digitally check the client for a fecal impaction

61. A female client reports she has not had a bowel movement for 3 days, but now is defecating frequent small amount of liquid stool. Which action should the nurse implement?

Digitally check the client for a fecal impaction

328. During a routine clinic visit, an older female adult tells the nurse that she is concerned that the flu season is coming soon, but is reluctant to obtain the vaccination. What action should the nurse take first?

Discuss the concerns expressed by the client about the vaccination.

461. A client diagnosed with bipolar disorder is going home on a week-end pass. Which suggestions should give the client's family to help them prepare for the visit?

Discuss the importance of continuing the usual at-home activities

371. The nurse assigned unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) to apply antiembolism stockings to a client. The nurse and UAP enters the room, the nurse observes the stockings that were applying by the UAP. The UAP states that the client requested application of the stockings as seen on the picture, for increased comfort. What action should the nurse take?

Discussed effective use of the stockings with the client on UAP

73. A client in the emergency center demonstrates rapid speech, flight of ideas, and reports sleeping only three hours during the past 48h. Based on these finding, it is most important for the nurse to review the laboratory value for which medication?

Divalproex.

292. The nurse is preparing to administer 1.6 ml of medication IM to a 4 month old infant. Which action should the nurse include?

Divide the medication into two injection with volumes under 1ml

567. A woman just received the Rubella vaccine after a delivery of a normal new born, has two children at home, ages 13 months and 3 years. Which instruction is most important to provide to the client?

Do not get pregnant for at least 3 months

7. In assessing an adult client with a partial rebreather mask, the nurse notes that the oxygen reservoir bag does not deflate completely during inspiration and the client's respiratory rate is 14 breaths / minute. What action should the nurse implement?

Document the assessment data

601. During the initial newborn assessment, the nurse finds that a newborn's heart rate is irregular. Which intervention should the nurse implement?

Document the finding in the infant's record.

111. An Unna boot is applied to a client with a venous stasis ulcer. One week later, when the Unna boot is removed during a follow-up appointment, the nurse observes that the ulcer site contains bright red tissue. What action should the nurse take in response to this finding?

Document the ongoing wound healing.

374. To prevent infection by auto contamination during the acute phase of recovery from multiple burns, which intervention is most important for the nurse to implement?

Dress each wound separately.

578. A client in her first trimester of pregnancy complains of nausea. Which complementary therapy should the nurse recommend?

Drink chamomile tea at breakfast and in the evening.

An 80-year-old client is given morphine sulphate for postoperative pain. Which concomitant medication should the nurse question that poses a potential development of urinary retention in this geriatric client?

Drugs with anticholinergic properties, such as tricyclic antidepressants (C), can exacerbate urinary retention associated with opioids in the older client. Although tricyclic antidepressants and antihistamines with opioids can exacerbate urinary retention, the concurrent use of (A and B) with opioids do not. Nonsteroidal antiinflammatory agents (D) can increase the risk for bleeding, but do not increase urinary retention with opioids (D).

366. A client with chronic alcoholism is admitted with a decreased serum magnesium level. Which snack option should the nurse recommend to this client?

Dry roasted almonds.

189. The nurse is planning a class for a group of clients with diabetes mellitus about blood glucose monitoring. In teaching the class as a whole, the nurse should emphasize the need to check glucose levels in which situation?

During acute illness

589. The nurse assesses a 78-year-old male client who has left sides heart failure. Which symptoms would the nurse expect this client to exhibit?

Dyspnea, cough, and fatigue.

The parents of a 14-year-old boy express concern about their son's behavior, which ranges from clean-cut and personable to "grungy" and sullen. They have tried talking with him and disciplining him, but he continues to demonstrate confusing behaviors. Which information is best for the nurse to provide?

Early adolescence is a developmental stage of normal experimentation.

The nurse identifies a client's needs and formulates the nursing problem of, "Imbalanced nutrition: less than body requirements, related to mental impairment and decreased intake, as evidenced by increasing confusion and weight loss of more than 30 pounds over the last 6 months." Which short-term goal is best for this client?

Eat 50% of six small meals each day by the end of one week.

77. A client is being discharged with a prescription for warfarin (Coumadin). What instruction should the nurse provide this client regarding diet?

Eat approximated the same amount of leafy green vegetables daily so the amount of vitamin K consumed is consistent.

59. Which instruction should the nurse provide a pregnant client who is complaining of heartburn?

Eat small meal throughout the day to avoid a full stomach.

622. A male client with cancer, who is receiving antineoplastic drugs, is admitted to the...what findings is most often manifest this condition?

Ecchymosis and hematemesis

113. The nurse note a visible prolapse of the umbilical cord after a client experiences spontaneous rupture of the membranes during labor. What intervention should the nurse implement immediately?

Elevate the presenting part off the cord.

432. The nurse administers an oral antiviral to a client with shingles. Which finding is most important for the nurse report to the health care provider?

Elevated liver function tests

290. A 12 year old client who had an appendectomy two days ago is receiving 0.9% normal saline at 50 ml/hour. The client's urine specific gravity is 1.035. What action should the nurse implement?

Encourage popsicles and fluids of choice

386. A female client is extremely anxious after being informed that her mammogram was abnormal and needs to be repeated. Client is tearful and tells the nurse her mother died of breast cancer. What action should the nurse take?

Encourage the client to continue expressing her fears and concerns.

517. An adult woman who is seen in the clinic with possible neuropathic pain of the right leg rates her pain as a 7 on a 10 point scale. What action should the nurse take?

Encourage the client to describe the pain.

147. A resident of a long-term care facility, who has moderate dementia, is having difficulty eating in the dining room. The client becomes frustrated when dropping utensils on the floor and then refuses to eat. What action should the nurse implement?

Encourage the client to eat finger foods.

Following major abdominal surgery, a male client's arterial blood gas analysis reveals Pa02 95 mmHg and PaC02 50 mmHg. He is receiving oxygen by nasal cannula at 4 liters/minute and is reluctant to move in bed or deep breathe. Based on this information, what action should the nurse implement at this time?

Encourage the use of an incentive spirometer.

471. One day following a total knee replacement, a male client tells the nurse that he is unable to transfer because it is too painful. What action should the nurse implement?

Encourage use of analgesics before position change

134. After administering an antipyretic medication. Which intervention should the nurse implement?

Encouraging liberal fluid intake

110. An elderly female is admitted because of a change in her level of sensorium. During the evening shift, the client attempts to get out bed and falls, breaking her left hip. Buck's skin traction is applied to the left leg while waiting for surgery. Which intervention is most important for the nurse to include in this client's plan care?

Ensure proper alignment of the leg in traction.

181. In assessing a client twelve hours following transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP), the nurse observes that the urinary drainage tubing contains a large amount of clear pale pink urine and the continuous bladder irrigation is infusing slowly. What action should the nurse implement?

Ensure that no dependent loops are present in the tubing.

355. A nurse is planning to teach infant care and preventive measures for sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS) to a group of new parents. What information is most important for the nurse to include?

Ensure that the infant's crib mattress is firm

281. Before leaving the room of a confused client, the nurse notes that a half bow knot was used to attach the client's wrist restraints to the movable portion of the client's bed frame. What action should the nurse take before leaving the room?

Ensure that the knot can be quickly released.

531. The nurse plans to use an electronic digital scale to weight a client who is able to stand. Which intervention should the nurse implement to ensure that measurement of the client's weight is accurate?

Ensure that the scale is calibrated before a weight is obtained

298. In monitoring tissue perfusion in a client following an above the knee amputation (aka), which action should the nurse include in the plan of care?

Evaluate closet proximal pulse.

205. A vacuum-assistive closure (VAC) device is being use to provide wound care for a client who has stage III pressure ulcer on a below-the- knee (BKA) residual limb. Which intervention should the nurse implement to ensure maximum effectiveness of the device?

Ensure the transparent dressing has no tears that might create vacuum leaks

84. Which type of Leukocyte is involved with allergic responses and the destruction of parasitic worms?

Eosinophils

144. A client admitted to the psychiatric unit diagnosed with major depression wants to sleep during the day, refuses to take a bath, and refuses to eat. Which nursing intervention should the nurse implement first?

Establish a structured routine for the client to follow.

222. A community health nurse is concerned about the spread of communicable diseases among migrant farm workers in a rural community. What action should the nurse take to promote the success of a healthcare program designed to address this problem?

Establish trust with community leaders and respect cultural and family values

502. The nurse manager is conducting an in-services education program on the fire evacuation of the newborn recovery. What intervention should the nurse manager disseminate to the staff?

Evacuate each infant with mother via wheelchair

352. A client who is admitted to the intensive care unit with syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) has developed osmotic demyelination. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

Evaluate swallow

313. The nurse ends the assessment of a client by performing a mental status exam. Which statement correctly describes the purpose of the mental status exam?

Evaluate the client's mood, cognition and orientation.

512. A young adult male was admitted 36 hours ago for a head injury that occurred as the result of a motorcycle accident. In the last 4 hours, his urine output has increased to over 200 ml/H. Before reporting the finding to the healthcare provider, which intervention should the nurse implement?

Evaluate the urine osmolality and the serum osmolality values.

411. The nurse ask the parent to stay during the examination of a male toddler's genital area. Which intervention should the nurse implement?

Examine the genitalia as the last part of the total exam.

587. The nurse is developing a plan of care for a middle-aged woman who is diagnosed with type 2 diabetes mellitus (DM). To lower her blood glucose and increase her serum high-density lipoprotein (HDL) levels, which instruction is most important for the nurse to provide?

Exercise at least three times weekly

526. A 2-year-old girl is brought to the clinic for a routine assessment and all findings are within the normal limits. However, the mom expresses concern over her daughter's protruding abdomen and tells the nurse that she is worry that her child is becoming overweight. How should the nurse respond to the mother's comment?

Explain that a protruding abdomen is typical for toddlers

369. A young adult woman visits the clinic and learns that she is positive for BRCA1 gene mutation and asks the nurse what to expect next. How should the nurse respond?

Explain that counseling will be provided to give her information about her cancer risk

101. When performing postural drainage on a client with Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease (COPD), which approach should the nurse use?

Explain that the client may be placed in five positions

364. The nurse discovers that an elderly client with no history of cardiac or renal disease has an elevated serum magnesium level. To further investigate the cause of this electrolyte imbalance, what information is most important for the nurse to obtain from the client's medical history?

Frequency of laxative use for chronic constipation

335. An adult male was diagnosed with stage IV lung cancer three weeks ago. His wife approaches the nurse and asks how she will know that her husband's death is imminent because their two adult children want to be there when he dies. What is the best response by the nurse?

Explain that the client will start to lose consciousness and his body system will slow down

586. A client who is schedule for an elective inguinal hernia repair today in day surgery is seem eating in the waiting area. What action should be taken by the nurse who is preparing to administer the preoperative medications?

Explain that vomiting can occur during surgery Withhold the preoperative medication

171. An adult male is admitted to the emergency department after falling from a ladder. While waiting to have a computed tomography (CT) scan, he requests something for a severe headache. When the nurse offers him a prescribed does of acetaminophen, he asks for something stronger. Which intervention should the nurse implement?

Explain the reason for using only non-narcotics.

70. An adult female client tells the nurse that though she is afraid her abusive boyfriend might one day kill her, she keeps hoping that he will change. What action should the nurse take first?

Explore client's readiness to discuss the situation.

323. A clinical trial is recommended for a client with metastatic breast cancer, but she refuses to participate and tells her family that she does not wish to have further treatments. The client's son and daughter ask the nurse to try and convince their mother to reconsider this decision. How should the nurse respond?

Explore the client's decision to refuse treatment and offer support

602. Which assessment finding indicates to the nurse a client's readiness for pulmonary function tests?

Expresses an understanding of the procedure.

217. When development a teaching plan for a client newly diagnosed type 1 diabetes, the nurse should explain that an increase thirst is an early sing of diabetes ketoacidosis (DKA), which action should the nurse instruct the client to implement if this sign of DKA occur?

Give a dose of regular insulin per sliding scale

177. Diagnostic studies indicate that the elderly client has decreased bone density. In providing client teaching, which area of instruction is most important for the nurse to include?

Fall prevention measures.

568. Following a motor vehicle collision (MCV), a male adult in severe pain is brought to the emergency department via ambulance. His injured left leg is edematous, ecchymotic around the impact of injury on the thigh, and shorter than his right leg. Based on these findings, the client is at greatest risk for which complication?

Fat embolism

165. The nurse is evaluating a client's symptoms, and formulates the nursing diagnosis, "high risk for injury due to possible urinary tract infection." Which symptoms indicate the need for this diagnosis?

Fever and dysuria.

278. A client with type 2 diabetes mellitus is admitted for frequent hyperglycemic episodes and a glycosylated hemoglobin (HbA1c) of 10%. Insulin glargine 10 units subcutaneously once a day at bedtime and a sliding scale with insulin aspart q6h are prescribed. What action should the nurse include in this client's plan of care?

Fingerstick glucose assessment q6h with meals Review with the client proper foot care and prevention of injury Coordinate carbohydrate controlled meals at consistent times and intervals Teach subcutaneous injection technique, site rotation and insulin management

A female client tells the nurse that she does not know which day of the month is best to do breast self-exams (BSE). Which instruction should the nurse provide?

Five to seven days after menses cease. Due to the effect of cyclic ovarian changes on the breast, the best time for breast self-examination (BSE) is 5 to 7 days after menstruation stops (D) because physiologic alterations in breast size and activity reach their minimal level after menses.

530. The nurse caring for a client with dysphagia is attempting to insert an NG tube, but the client will not swallow and is not gagging. What action should the nurse implement to facilitate the NGT passage into the esophagus?

Flex the client's head with chin to the chest and insert.

25. The pathophysiological mechanism are responsible for ascites related to liver failure? (Select all that apply)

Fluid shifts from intravascular to interstitial area due to decreased serum protein Increased hydrostatic pressure in portal circulation increases fluid shifts into abdomen Increased circulating aldosterone levels that increase sodium and water retention

The nurse is teaching staff in a long-term facility home the principles of caring for clients with essential hypertension. Which comment should the nurse include in the inservice presentation about the care of clients with hypertension?

Frequent blood pressure checks, including readings taken by automated machines, are recommended.

16. The nurse is assisting the mother of a child with phenylketonuria (PKU) to select foods that are in keeping with the child's dietary restrictions. Which foods are contraindicated for this child?

Foods sweetened with aspartame

344. When conducting diet teaching for a client who was diagnosed with nutritional anemia in pregnancy, which foods should the nurse encourage the client to eat? (Select all that apply)

Fortified whole wheat cereals, whole-grain pasta, brown rice Spinach, kale, dried raisins and apricots

Which action should the nurse implement when administering a prescription drug that should be given on an empty stomach?

Give one hour before or two hours after a meal.

380. A client with C-6 spinal cord injury rehabilitation. In the middle of the night the client reports a severe, pounding headache, and has observable piloerection or "goosebumps". The nurse should asses for which trigger?

Full bladder

5. A 60-year-old female client with a positive family history of ovarian cancer has developed an abdominal mass and is being evaluated for possible ovarian cancer. Her Papanicolau (Pap) smear results are negative. What information should the nurse include in the client's teaching plan?

Further evaluation involving surgery may be needed

211. A neonate with a congenital heart defect (CHD) is demonstrating symptoms of heart failure (HF). Which interventions should the nurse include in the infant's plan of care?

Give O2 at 6 L/nasal cannula for 3 repeated oximetry screens below 90% Evaluate heart rate for effectiveness of cardio tonic medications Use high energy formula 30 calories/ounce at Q3 hours feeding via soft nipples Ensure Interrupted and frequent rest periods between procedures.

600. When finding a client sitting on the floor, the nurse calls for help from the unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP). Which task should the nurse ask the UAP to do?

Get a blood pressure cuff.

71. In caring for a client with Cushing syndrome, which serum laboratory value is most important for the nurse to monitor?

Glucose

31. A female client reports that her hair is becoming coarse and breaking off, that the outer part of her eyebrows have disappeared, and that her eyes are all puffy. Which follow-up question is best for the nurse to ask?

Have you noticed any changes in your fingernails?

389. A female client presents in the Emergency Department and tells the nurse that she was raped last night. Which question is most important for the nurse to ask?

Has she taken a bath since the raped occurred?

551. Artificial rupture of the membrane of a laboring reveals meconium-stained fluid, what is... the priority?

Have a meconium aspirator available at delivery

282. Oral antibiotics are prescribed for an 18-month-old toddler with severe otitis media. An antipyrine and benzocaine-otic also prescribed for pain and inflammation. What instruction should the nurse emphasize concerning the installation of the antipyrine/benzocaine otic solution?

Have the child lie with the ear up for one to two minute after installation.

565. An older woman who has difficulty hearing is being discharged from day surgery following a cataract extraction & lens implantation. Which intervention is most important for the nurse to implement to ensure the client's compliance with self-care?

Have the client vocalize the instructions provided.

A male client, who has been smoking 1 pack of cigarettes every day for the last 20 years, is scheduled for surgery and will be unable to smoke after surgery. During preoperative teaching, the client asks the nurse what symptoms he may expect after surgery from nicotine withdrawal. Which response is best for the nurse to provide?

Headache and hyperirritability are common.

155. After six days on a mechanical ventilator, a male client is extubated and place on 40% oxygen via face mask. He is awake and cooperative, but complaining of a severe sore throat. While sipping water to swallow a medication, the client begins coughing, as if strangled. What intervention is most important for the nurse to implement?

Hold oral intake until swallow evaluation is done.

321. In assessing a client at 34-weeks' gestation, the nurse notes that she has a slightly elevated total T4 with a slightly enlarged thyroid, a hematocrit of 28%, a heart rate of 92 beats per minute, and a systolic murmur. Which finding requires follow-up?

Hematocrit of 28%.

376. A client with arthritis has been receiving treatment with naproxen and now reports ongoing stomach pain, increasing weakness, and fatigue. Which laboratory test should the nurse monitor?

Hemoglobin

209. The healthcare provider prescribes acarbose (Precose), an alpha-glucosidase inhibitor, for a client with Type 2 diabetes mellitus. Which information provides the best indicator of the drug's effectiveness?

Hemoglobin A1C (HbA1C) reading less than 7%

439. During a well-baby, 6-month visit, a mother tells the nurse that her infant has had fewer ear infections than her 10-year-old daughter. The nurse should explain that which vaccine is likely to have made the difference in the siblings' incidence of otitis media?

Hemophilic Influenza Type B (HiB) vaccine

503. An adult man reports that he recently experienced an episode of chest pressure and breathlessness when he was jogging in the neighborhood. He expresses concern because both of his deceased parents had heart disease and his father was a diabetic. He lives with his male partner, is a vegetarian, and takes atenolol which maintain his blood pressure at 138/74. Which risk factors should the nurse explore further with the client? Select all that apply

History of hypertension. Family heath history.

The nurse is preparing to administer a high volume saline enema to a client. Which information is most important for the nurse to obtain prior to administering the enema?

History of inflammatory bowel disorders.

170. The nurse is auscultating a client's lung sounds. Which description should the nurse use to document this sound?

High pitched or fine crackles.

300. A client who underwent an uncomplicated gastric bypass surgery is having difficult with diet management. What dietary instruction is most important for the nurse to explain to the client?

Plan volume-controlled evenly-space meal thorough the day

330. The nurse is teaching a mother of a newborn with a cleft lip how to bottle feed her baby using medela haberman feeder, which has a valve to control the release of milk and a slit nipple opening. The nurse discusses placing the nipple's elongated tip in the back of the oral cavity. What instructions should the nurse provide the mother about feedings?

Hold the newborn in an upright position

591. The nurse plans to administer a schedule dose of metoprolol (Toprol SR) at 0900 to a client with hypertension. At 0800, the nurse notes that client's telemetry pattern shows a second degree heart block with a ventricular rate of 50. What action should the nurse take?

Hold the scheduled dose of Tropol and notify the healthcare provider of the telemetry pattern.

377. The nurse assesses a child in 90-90 traction. Where should did nurse assess for signs of compartment syndrome?

Hot Spot

449. The first paddle has been placed on the chest of a client who needs defibrillation. Where should the nurse place the second paddle? (Mark the location where the second paddle should be placed on the image).

Hot Spot

518. A client has both primary IV infusion and a secondary infusion of medication. An infusion pump is not available. The nurse needs to determine the current rate of infusion of the primary IV. Where should the nurse observe to determine the rate of infusion?

Hot Spot

117. During the admission assessment, the nurse auscultates heart sounds for a client with no history of cardiovascular disease. Where should the nurse listen when assessing the client's point of maximal impulse (PMI) (Click the chosen location. To change, click on a new location)

Hot spot

A client who is taking clonidine (Catapres, Duraclon) reports drowsiness. Which additional assessment should the nurse make?

How long has the client been taking the medication? Drowsiness can occur in the early weeks of treatment with clonidine and with continued use becomes less intense, so the length of time the client has been on the medication (A) provides information to direct additional instruction. (B, C, and D) are not relevant.

202. A group of nurse-managers is asked to engage in a needs assessment for a piece of equipment that will be expensed to the organization's budget. Which question is most important to consider when analyzing the cost-benefit for this piece of equipment?

How many departments can use this equipment?

504. A client with severe full-thickness burns is scheduled for an allografting procedure. Which information should the nurse provide the client?

Human source grafts require monitoring for signs of graft rejection

179. An older male client with history of diabetes mellitus, chronic gout, and osteoarthritis comes to the clinic with a bag of medication bottles. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

Identify pills in the bag.

During a client assessment, the client says, "I can't walk very well." Which action should the nurse implement first?

Identify the problem.

Which finding should the nurse identify as an early clinical manifestation of neonatal encephalopathy related to hyperbilirubinemia?

Hyperbilirubinemia causes severe brain damage, encephalopathy (kernicterus), that results from the deposition of unconjugated bilirubin in brain cells. Prodromal clinical manifestations of central nervous system involvement include decreased activity, a loss of interest in feeding, and lethargy or irritability (C).

492. A male client is admitted with burns to his face and neck. Which position should the nurse place the client to prevent contract?

Hyperextended with neck supported by a rolled towel.

613. A nurse is caring for a client with Diabetes Insipidus. Which assessment finding warrants immediate intervention by the nurse?

Hypernatremia

The nurse is assessing a client and identifies a bruit over the thyroid. This finding is consistent with which interpretation?

Hyperthyroidism (D) is an enlargement of the thyroid gland, often referred to as a goiter, and a bruit may be auscultated over the goiter due to an increase in glandular vascularity which increases as the thyroid gland becomes hyperactive. A bruit is not common with (A, B, and C).

490. A male client who was hit by a car while dodging through traffic is admitted to the emergency department with intracranial pressure (ICP). A computerized tomography (CT) scan reveals an intracranial bleed. After evacuation of hematoma, postoperative prescription include: intubation with controlled mechanical ventilation to PaCO2...what is the pathophysiological basis for this ventilator settings?

Hypocapnea reduces ICP

327. The nurse walks into a client's room and notices bright red blood on the sheets and on the floor by the IV pole. Which action should the nurse take first?

Identify the source and amount of bleeding.

60. A client is admitted to the intensive care unit with diabetes insipidus due to a pituitary gland tumor. Which potential complication should the nurse monitor closely?

Hypokalemia

A client is admitted with a medical diagnosis of Addisonian crisis. When completing the admission assessment, the nurse expects this client to exhibit which clinical manifestations?

Hypotension, rapid weak pulse, and rapid respiratory rate.

572. A male client arrives at the clinic with a severe sunburn and explains that he did not use sun screen because it was an overcast day. Large blisters are noted over his back and chest and his shirt is soaked with serosanguinous fluid. Which assessment finding warrants immediate intervention by the nurse?

Hypotension.

453. The nurse is evaluating the health teaching of a female client with condyloma acuminate. Which statement by the client indicates that teaching has been effective?

I need to have regular pap smears

164. When implementing a disaster intervention plan, which intervention should the nurse implement first?

Identify a command center where activities are coordinated

306. The nurse is assessing a client's nailbeds. Witch appearance indicates further follow-up is needed for problems associated with chronic hypoxia?

Image

570. The nurse prepares to insert an oral airway by first measuring for the correct sized airway. Which picture shows the correct approach to airway size measurement?

Image

304. An adult client is exhibit the maniac stage of bipolar disorder is admitted to the psychiatric unit. The client has lost 10 pounds in the last two weeks and has no bathed in a week "I'm trying to start a new business and "I'm too busy to eat". The client is oriented to time, place, person but not situation. Which nursing problem has the greatest priority?

Imbalance nutrition

The nurse is planning a wellness program aimed at primary prevention in the community. Which action should the nurse implement?

Immunizations that decrease occurrences of many contagious diseases Primary prevention involves health promotion and disease prevention activities to decrease the occurrence of illness and enhance general health and quality of life, such as immunization (A).

Which nursing intervention is an example of a competent performance criterion for an occupational and environmental health nurse?

Implements health programs for construction workers.

The nurse manager is assisting a nurse with improving organizational skills and time management. Which nursing activity is the priority in pre-planning a schedule for selected nursing activities in the daily assignment?

In developing organizational skills, medication administration is based on a prescribed schedule that is time-sensitive in the delivery of nursing care and should be the priority in scheduling nursing activities in a daily assignment. Although suctioning a client's tracheostomy takes precedence in providing care, the client's PRN need is less amenable to a preselected schedule. (B and C) can be scheduled around time-sensitive delivery of care.

102. A client presents in the emergency room with right-sided facial asymmetry. The nurse asks the client to perform a series of movements that require use of the facial muscles. What symptoms suggest that the client has most likely experience a Bell's palsy rather than a stroke?

Inability to close the affected eye, raise brow, or smile

The nurse determines that a client's body weight is 105% above the standardized height-weight scale. Which related factor should the nurse include in the nursing problem, "Imbalanced nutrition: more than body requirements?"

Inadequate lifestyle changes in diet and exercise.

318. Assessment by the home health nurse of an older client who lives alone indicates that client has chronic constipations. Daily medications include furosemide for hypertension and heart failure and laxatives. To manage the client's constipation, which suggestions should the nurse provide? (Select all that apply)

Include oatmeal with stewed pruned for breakfast as often as possible. Increase fluid intake by keeping water glass next to recliner. Recommend seeking help with regular shopping and meal preparation.

206. The nurse is developing the plan of care for a client with pneumonia and includes the nursing diagnosis of "Ineffective airway clearance related to thick pulmonary secretions." Which intervention is most important for the nurse to include in the client's plan of care?

Increase fluid intake to 3,000 ml/daily

275. An older adult female admitted to the intensive care unit (ICU) with a possible stroke is intubated with ventilator setting of tidal volume 600, PlO2 40%, and respiratory rate of 12 breaths/minute. The arterial blood gas (ABG) results after intubation are PH 7.31. PaCO2 60, PaO2 104, SPO2 98%, HCO3 23. To normalize the client's ABG finding, which action is required?

Increase ventilator rate.

In planning the care of a 3-year-old child with diabetes insipidus, it is most important for the nurse to caution the parents to be alert for which condition?

Increased thirst. (A) is a primary factor in monitoring effectiveness of treatment for diabetes insipidus. A child with diabetes insipidus does not want to eat, and only wants to drink; in fact he or she may even drink water from toilets and vases. The anterior fontanel usually closes at about 18 months of age; therefore, (B) is not an appropriate measure of dehydration for a 3-year-old. The skin of a child with diabetes insipidus is usually warm and dry, not (C). (D) is not characteristic of diabetes insipidus, but is characteristic of hypothyroidism, Cushing syndrome, or nephrotic syndrome.

The nurse is planning a teaching program about prenatal care for a diverse ethnic group of clients. Which factor is most influential for the acceptance of the healthcare practices?

Individual beliefs.

63. The nurse should teach the parents of a 6 year-old recently diagnosed with asthma that the symptom of acute episode of asthma are due to which physiological response?

Inflammation of the mucous membrane & bronchospasm

40. A woman with an anxiety disorder calls her obstetrician's office and tells the nurse of increased anxiety since the normal vaginal delivery of her son three weeks ago. Since she is breastfeeding, she stopped taking her antianxiety medications, but thinks she may need to start taking them again because of her increased anxiety. What response is best for the nurse to provide this woman?

Inform her that some antianxiety medications are safe to take while breastfeeding

387. The psychiatric nurse is talking to a newly admitted client when a male client diagnosed with antisocial behavior intrudes on the conversation and tells the nurse, "I have to talk to you right now! It is very important!" how should the nurse respond to this client?

Inform him that the nurse is busy admitting a new client and will talk to him later.

10. At 0600 while admitting a woman for a schedule repeat cesarean section (C-Section), the client tells the nurse that she drank a cup a coffee at 0400 because she wanted to avoid getting a headache. Which action should the nurse take first?

Inform the anesthesia care provider

50. Which action should the school nurse take first when conducting a screening for scoliosis?

Inspect for symmetrical shoulder height.

603. A young adult male is admitted to the emergency department with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). His pH is 7.25, HCO3 is 12 mEq/L or 12 mmol/L (SI), and blood glucose is 310 mg/dl or 17.2 mmol/L (SI). Which action should the nurse implement?

Infuse sodium chloride 0.9% (normal saline)

338. What action should the school nurse implement to provide secondary prevention to a school-age children?

Initiate a hearing and vision screening program for first-graders

422. After placement of a left subclavian central venous catheter (CVC), the nurse receives report of the x-ray findings that indicate the CVC tip is in the client's superior vena cava. Which action should the nurse implement?

Initiate intravenous fluid as prescribed

198. A client experiencing withdrawal from the benzodiazepines alprazolam (Xanax) is demonstrating severe agitation and tremors. What is the best initial nursing action?

Initiate seizure precautions

301. If the nurse is initiating IV fluid replacement for a child who has dry, sticky mucous membranes, flushed skin, and fever of 103.6 F. Laboratory finding indicate that the child has a sodium concentration of 156 mEq/L. What physiologic mechanism contributes to this finding?

Insensible loss of body fluids contributes to the hemoconcentration of serum solutes

349. The nurse is preparing a client who had a below-the-knee (BKA) amputation for discharge to home. Which recommendations should the nurse provide this client? (Select all that apply)

Inspect skin for redness Use a residual limb shrinker Wash the stump with soap and water

577. An adult male who was admitted two days ago following a cerebrovascular accident (CVA) is confused and experiencing left-side weakness. He has tried to get out of bed several times, but is unable to ambulate without assistance. Which intervention is most important for the nurse to implement?

Install a bed exit safety monitoring device

548. A male infant born at 28-weeks gestation at an outlying hospital is being prepared for transport to a respiration are 92 breaths/minute and his heart rate is 156 beats/minute. Which drug is the transport administration to this infant?

Instill beractant 100 mg/kg in endotracheal tube.

3. The nurse observes an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) positioning a newly admitted client who has a seizure disorder. The client is supine and the UAP is placing soft pillows along the side rails. What action should the nurse implement?

Instruct the UAP to obtain soft blankets to secure to the side rails instead of pillows.

468. During a left femoral artery aortogram, the healthcare provider inserts an arterial sheath and initiate. Through the sheath to dissolve an occluded artery. Which interventions should the nurse implement?

Instruct the client to keep the left leg straight Observe the insertion site for a hematoma Circle first noted drainage on the dressing

542. During a left femoral artery aortogram, the healthcare provider inserts an arterial sheath and initiate...through the sheath to dissolve an occluded artery. Which interventions should the nurse implement?

Instruct the client to keep the left leg straight Observe the insertion site for a hematoma Circle first noted drainage on the dressing

146. The mother of a 7-month-old brings the infant to the clinic because the skin in the diaper area is excoriated and red, but there are no blisters or bleeding. The mother reports no evidence of watery stools. Which nursing intervention should the nurse implement?

Instruct the mother to change the child's diaper more often.

576. During the intraoperative phase of care, the circulating nurse observes that the client is not adequately client's privacy. What is the best initial nursing action for the nurse to implement?

Instruct the scrub nurse to re-drape the client

337. A child newly diagnosed with sickle cell anemia (SCA) is being discharged from the hospital. Which information is most important for the nurse to provide the parents prior to discharge?

Instructions about how much fluid the child should drink daily

156. The nurse is interacting with a female client who is diagnosed with postpartum depression. Which finding should the nurse document as an objective signs of depression? (Select all that apply)

Interacts with a flat affect. Avoids eye contact. Has a disheveled appearance.

442. Which medication should the nurse anticipate administering to a client who is diagnosed with myxedema coma?

Intravenous administration of thyroid hormones

545. An infant born to a heroin-addicted mother is admitted to the neonatal care unit. What behaviors can...to exhibit?

Irritability and a high-pitched cry

480. The nurse is teaching a client about the antiulcer medications ranitidine which was... statement best describes the action of this drug?

It blocks the effects of histamine, causing decreased secretion of acid

36. The client with which type of wound is most likely to need immediate intervention by the nurse?

Laceration

120. The nurse caring for a client with acute renal fluid (ARF) has noted that the client has voided 800 ml of urine in 4 hours. Based on this assessment, what should the nurse anticipate that client will need?

Large amounts of fluid and electrolyte replacement.

401. A young adult female presents at the emergency center with acute lower abdominal pain. Which assessment finding is most important for the nurse to report to the healthcare provider?

Last menstrual period was 7 weeks ago

419. A client with Alzheimer's disease falls in the bathroom. The nurse notifies the charge nurse and completes a fall follow-up assessment. What assessment finding warrants immediate intervention by the nurse?

Left forearm hematoma

357. A client is receiving lactulose (Portalac) for signs of hepatic encephalopathy. To evaluate the client's therapeutic response to this medication, which assessment should the nurse obtain?

Level of consciousness

550. During a 26-week gestation prenatal exam, a client reports occasional dizziness...What intervention is best for the nurse to recommend to this client?

Lie on the left or right side when sleeping or resting

11. After placing a stethoscope as seen in the picture, the nurse auscultates S1 and S2 heart sounds. To determine if an S3 heart sound is present, what action should the nurse take first?

Listen with the bell at the same location

76. The nurse is developing a teaching program for the community. What population characteristic is most influential when choosing strategies for implementing a teaching plan?

Literacy level

500. The nurse is assessing a middle-aged adult who is diagnosed with osteoarthritis. Which factor in this client's history is a contributor to the osteoarthritis?

Long distance runner since high school.

621. The daughter of an older female client tells the clinic nurse that she is no longer able to care for her mother since her mother has lost the ability to perform activities of daily living (ADLs) due to aging. Which options should the nurse discuss with the daughter?

Long-term care facility Home health agency

A male client who lives in an area endemic with Lyme disease asks the nurse what to do if he thinks he may have been exposed. Which response should the nurse provide?

Look for early signs of a lesion that increases in size with a red border, clear center. The client should look for the early signs of localized Lyme disease known as erythema migrans, a skin lesion that slowly expands to form a large round lesion with a bright red border and clear center (B) at the site of the tick bite.

166. A client is admitted with metastatic carcinoma of the liver, ascites, and bilateral 4+ pitting edema of both lower extremities. When the client complains that the antiembolic stocking are too constricting, which intervention should the nurse implement?

Maintain both lower extremities elevated on pillows.

78. A client who had a small bowel resection acquired methicillin resistant staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) while hospitalized. He treated and released, but is readmitted today because of diarrhea and dehydration. It is most important for the nurse to implement which intervention.

Maintain contact transmission precaution

444. A client who had an emergency appendectomy is being mechanically ventilated, and soft wrist restrain are in place to prevent self extubation. Which outcome is most important for the nurse to include in the client's plan of care?

Maintain effective breathing patterns

610. A 16-year-old male is admitted to the pediatric intensive care unit after being involved in a house fire. He has full thickness burns to his lower torso and extremities. Before a dressing change to his legs, which intervention is most important for the nurse to implement?

Maintain strict aseptic technique.

617. What is the nurse's priority goal when providing care for a 2-year-old child experience...

Manage the airway

448. A nurse is planning discharge care for a male client with metastatic cancer. The client tells the nurse that he plans to return to work despite pain, fatigue, and impending death. Which goals is most important to include in this client's plan of care?

Marinating pain level below 4 when implementing outpatient pain clinic strategies.

The nurse identifies bright-red drainage, about 6 cm in diameter, on the dressing of a client who is one day post abdominal surgery. Which action should the nurse take next?

Mark the drainage on the dressing and take vital signs. Drainage on a surgical dressing should be described by type, amount, color, consistency, and odor, and the surgeon should be notified of any excessive or abnormal drainage and significant changes in vital signs. To determine that the drainage on an abdominal surgical dressing is usual and not an indication of hemorrhage, marking the 6 cm drainage on the dressing (A) assists in determining an increase in the amount which is supported with any changes in vital signs that indicates possible internal bleeding. (B) is premature. Removing the initial dressing may disturb the surgical site and increase the risk of hemorrhage and infection (C). (D) is compared with the previous amount of drainage marked on the dressing, so (A) is necessary.

544. A client delivers a viable infant, but begins to have excessive uncontrolled vaginal...notifying the health care provider of the clients' condition, what information is most....

Maternal blood pressure

184. A client at 30 week gestation is admitted due to preterm labor. A prescription of terbutaline sulfate 8.35 mg is gives subcutaneously. Based on which finding should the nurse withhold the next dose of this drug?

Maternal pulse rate of 162 beats per min

379. A client with acute renal failure (ARF) is admitted for uncontrolled type 1 diabetes Mellitus and hyperkalemia. The nurse administers an IV dose of regular insulin per sliding scale. Which intervention is the most important for the nurse to include in this client's plan of care?

Monitor the client's cardiac activity via telemetry.

345. A client with type 2 diabetes mellitus is admitted for antibiotic treatment for a leg ulcer. To monitor the client for the onset of hyperosmolar hyperglycemic nonketotic syndrome (HHNS), what actions should the nurse take? (Select all that apply)

Measure blood glucose Monitor vital signs Assessed level of consciousness

68. The nurse is caring for a client who had gastric bypass surgery yesterday. Which intervention is most important for the nurse to implement during the first 24 postoperative hours?

Measure hourly urinary output.

373. While changing a client's chest tube dressing, the nurse notes a crackling sensation when gentle pressure is applied to the skin at the insertion site. What is the best action for the nurse to take?

Measure the area of swelling and crackling.

339. While assisting a client who recently had a hip replacement into a bed pan, the nurse notices that there is a small amount of bloody drainage on the surgical dressing, the client's skin is warm to the touch, and there is a strong odor from the urine. Which action should the nurse take?

Measure the client's oral temperature

46. A female client has been taking a high dose of prednisone, a corticosteroid, for several months. After stopping the medication abruptly, the client reports feeling "very tired". Which nursing intervention is most important for the nurse to implement?

Measure vital signs

605. After receiving lactulose, a client with hepatic encephalopathy has several loose stools. What action should the nurse implement?

Monitor mental status.

12. A 66-year-old woman is retiring and will no longer have a health insurance through her place of employment. Which agency should the client be referred to by the employee health nurse for health insurance needs?

Medicare

173. Ten years after a female client was diagnosed with multiple sclerosis (MS), she is admitted to a community palliative care unit. Which intervention is most important for the nurse to include in the client's plan of care?

Medicate as needed for pain and anxiety.

479. Which intervention should the nurse include in the plan of care for a client with leukocytosis?

Monitor temperature regularly

A work group is to be formed to determine a care map for a new surgical intervention that is being conducted at the hospital. Which group is likely to be most effective in developing the new care map?

Multidisciplinary group.

121. Which intervention should the nurse include in the plan of care for a child with tetanus?

Minimize the amount of stimuli in the room

564. The nurse is assessing a first day postpartum client. Which finding is most indicative of a postpartum infection?

Moderate amount of foul-smelling lochia.

161. A client with cirrhosis of the liver is admitted with complications related to end stage liver disease. Which intervention should the nurse implement? (Select all that apply.)

Monitor abdominal girth. Report serum albumin and globulin levels. Note signs of swelling and edema.

37. The nurse is planning care for a client admitted with a diagnosis of pheochromocytoma. Which intervention has the highest priority for inclusion in this client's plan of care?

Monitor blood pressure frequently

429. The nurse is preparing a client for discharge from the hospital following a liver transplant. Which instruction is most important for the nurse to include in this client's discharge teaching plan?

Monitor for an elevated temperature

A client is admitted to the hospital for alcohol dependency. What is the priority nursing intervention during the first 48 hours following admission?

Monitor for increased blood pressure and pulse.

612. A client with acute pancreatitis is complaining of pain and nausea. Which interventions should the nurse implement (Select all that apply)

Monitor heart, lung, and kidney function. Notify healthcare provider of serum amylase and lipase levels. Review client's abdominal ultrasound findings.

562. A male client is returned to the surgical unit following a left nephrectomy and is medicated with morphine. His dressing has a small amount of bloody drainage, and a Jackson-Pratt bulb surgical drainage device is in place. Which interventions is most important for the nurse to include in this clients plan of care?

Monitor urine output hourly.

273. While monitoring a client during a seizure, which interventions should the nurse implement? (Select all that apply)

Move obstacle away from client Monitor physical movements Observe for a patent airway Record the duration of the seizure

435. An older female who ambulate with a quad-cane prefer to use a wheel chair because she has a halting and unsteady gait at times. Which interventions should the nurse implement? (Select all that apply)

Move personal items within client's reach Lower bed to the lower possible position Give directions to call for assistance Assist client to the bathroom in 2 hours.

481. A client with superficial burns to the face, neck, and hands resulting from a house fire...which assessment finding indicates to the nurse that the client should be monitored for carbon monoxide...?

Mucous membranes cherry red color

196. An older client is admitted to the intensive care unit with severe abdominal pain, abdominal distention, and absent bowel sound. The client has a history of smoking 2 packs of cigarettes daily for 50 years and is currently restless and confused. Vital signs are: temperature 96`F, heart rate 122 beats/minute, respiratory rate 36 breaths/minute, mean arterial pressure(MAP) 64 mmHg and central venous pressure (CVP) 7 mmHg. Serum laboratory findings include: hemoglobin 6.5 grams/dl, platelets 6o, 000, and white blood cell count (WBC) 3,000/mm3. Based on these findings this client is at greatest risk for which pathophysiological condition?

Multiple organ dysfunction syndrome (MODS)

191. The nurse is auscultating is auscultating a client's heart sounds. Which description should the nurse use to document this sound? (Please listen to the audio file to select the option that applies.)

Murmur

26. The nurse is auscultating a client's heart sounds. Which description should the nurse use to document this sound? (Please listen to the audio first to select the option that applies)

Murmur

592. A client who developed syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) associated with small carcinoma of the lung is preparing for discharge. When teaching the client about self-management with demeclocycline (Declomycin), the nurse should instruct the client to report which condition to the health care provider?

Muscle cramping

279. Which problem reported by a client taking lovastatin requires the most immediate fallow up by the nurse?

Muscle pain

425. The nurse is interviewing a client with schizophrenia. Which client behavior requires immediate intervention?

Muscle spasms of the back and neck

367. The nurse is preparing a teaching plan for an older female client diagnosed with osteoporosis. What expected outcome has the highest priority for this client?

Names 3 home safety hazards to be resolve immediately.

598. The nurse should observe most closely for drug toxicity when a client receives a medication that has which characteristic?

Narrow therapeutic index.

A dyspneic male client refuses to wear an oxygen face mask because he states it is "smothering" him. What oxygen delivery system is best for this client?

Nasal cannula.

87. One day following an open reduction and internal fixation of a compound fracture of the leg, a male client complains of "a tingly sensation" in his left foot. The nurse determines the client's left pedal pulses are diminished. Based on these finding, what is the client's greatest risk?

Neurovascular and circulation compromise related to compartment syndrome.

55. A client is admitted to isolation with the diagnosis of active tuberculosis. Which infection control measures should the nurse implement?

Negative pressure environment

558. A client is admitted to isolation with the diagnosis of active tuberculosis (TB). Which infection control measures should the nurse implement?

Negative pressure environment

180. A male client who was diagnosed with viral hepatitis A 4 weeks ago returns to the clinic complaining of weakness and fatigue. Which finding is most important for the nurse to report to the healthcare provider?

New onset of purple skin lesions.

347. After receiving report, the nurse can most safely plan to assess which client last? The client with...

No postoperative drainage in the Jackson-Pratt drain with the bulb compressed

188. A client is admitted to the emergency department with a respiratory rate of 34 breaths per minute and high pitched wheezing on inspiration and expiration, the medical diagnosis is severe exacerbation of asthma. Which assessment finding, obtained 10 min after the admission assessment, should the nurse report immediately to the emergency department healthcare provider?

No wheezing upon auscultation of the chest.

451. The nurse is caring for several clients on a telemetry unit. Which client should the nurse assess first? The client who is demonstrating

Normal sinus rhythm and complaining of chest pain

82. An unlicensed assistive personnel UAP leaves the unit without notifying the staff. In what order should the unit manager implement this intervention to address the UAPs behavior? (Place the action in order from first on top to last on bottom.)

Note date and time of the behavior. Discuss the issue privately with the UAP. Plan for scheduled break times. Evaluate the UAP for signs of improvement.

294. An older adult client with heart failure (HF) develops cardiac tamponade. The client has muffled, distant, heart sounds, and is anxious and restless. After initiating oxygen therapy and IV hydration, which intervention is most important for the nurse to implement?

Notify healthcare provider to prepare for pericardiocentesis

522. The nurse is caring for a toddler with a severe birth anomaly that is dying. The parents... holding the child as death approaches. Which intervention is most important for the nurse?

Notify nursing supervisor and hospital chaplain of the child's impending death.

537. While removing an IV infusion from the hand of a client who has AIDS, the nurse is struck with the needle. After washing the puncture site with soap & water, which action should the nurse take?

Notify the employee health nurse.

132. Two days after admission a male client remembers that he is allergic to eggs, and informs the nurse of the allergy. Which actions should the nurse implement? (Select all that apply)

Notify the food services department of the allergy. Enter the allergy information in the client's record. Add egg allergy to the client's allergy arm band.

485. When changing a diaper on a 2-day-old infant, the nurse observes that the baby's legs are... this finding, what action should the nurse take next?

Notify the healthcare provider

118. An older male adult resident of long-term care facility is hospitalized for a cardiac catheterization that occurred yesterday. Since the procedure was conducted, the client has become increasingly disoriented. The night shift nurse reports that he attempted to remove the sandbag from his femoral artery multiple times during the night. What actions should the nurse take? (Select all that apply.)

Notify the healthcare provider of the client's change in mental status. Include q2 hour's reorientation in the client's plan of care.

320. After the risk and benefits of having a cardiac catheterization are reviewed by the healthcare provider, an older adult with unstable angina is scheduled for the procedure. When the nurse presents the consent form for signature, the client asks how the wires will keep a heart heating during the procedure. What action should the nurse take?

Notify the healthcare provider of the client's lack of understanding.

383. Four hours after surgery, a client reports nausea and begins to vomit. The nurse notes that the client has a scopolamine transdermal patch applied behind the ear. What action should the nurse take?

Notify the healthcare provider of the vomiting.

A female client tells the nurse that her home pregnancy test is positive and her last menstrual period (LMP) was February 14. The client wants to know the expected date of birth (EDB). How should the nurse respond?

November 21. Using Nägele's rule to calculate EDB, subtract 3 months and add 7 days to the first day of the last normal menstrual period.

395. An adult client with schizophrenia begin treatment three days ago with the Antipsychotic risperidone. The client also received prescription for trazodone as needed for sleep and clonazepam as needed for severe anxiety. When the client reports difficulty with swallowing, what action should the nurse take?

Obtain a prescription for an anticholinergic medication

142. A client with leukemia undergoes a bone marrow biopsy. The client's laboratory values indicate the client has thrombocytopenia. Based on this data, which nursing assessment is most important following the procedure?

Observe aspiration site.

436. In evaluating the effectiveness of a postoperative client's intermittent pneumatic compression devices, which assessment is most important for the nurse to complete?

Observe both lower extremities for redness and swelling

274. A male client with a long history of alcoholism is admitted because of mild confusion and fine motor tremors. He reports that he quit drinking alcohol and stopped smoking cigarettes one month ago after his brother died of lung cancer. Which intervention is most important for the nurses to include in the client's plan of care?

Observe for changes in level of consciousness.

368. The nurse is teaching a male adolescent recently diagnosed with type 1diabetes mellitus (DM) about self-injecting insulin. Which approach is best for the nurse to use to evaluate do you effectiveness of the teaching?

Observe him as he demonstrates self-injection technique in another diabetic adolescent

400. A client with myasthenia Gravis (MG) is receiving immunosuppressive therapy. Review recent laboratory test results show that the client's serum magnesium level has decreased below the normal range. In addition to contacting the healthcare provider, what nursing action is most important?

Observe rhythm on telemetry monitor

441. The nurses observes that a postoperative client with a continuous bladder irrigation has a large blood clot in the urinary drainage tubing. What actions should the nurse perform first?

Observe the amount of urine in the client's urinary drainage bag

53. A client with a peripherally inserted central catheter (PICC) line has a fever. What client assessment is most important for the nurse to perform?

Observe the antecubital fossa for inflammation.

456. The nurse notes an increase in serosanguinous drainage from the abdominal surgical wound from an obese client. What action should the nurse implement?

Observe the wound for dehiscence

A female client reports to the nurse that her sleep was interrupted by "thoughts of anger toward my husband." What type of thoughts is the client having?

Obsessive

15. An elderly client seems confused and reports the onset of nausea, dysuria, and urgency with incontinence. Which action should the nurse implement?

Obtain a clean catch mid-stream specimen

509. The father of 4-year-old has been battling metastatic lung cancer for the past 2 years. After discussing the remaining options with his healthcare provider, the client requests that all treatment stop and that no heroic measures be taken to save his life. When the client is transferred to the palliative care unit, which action is most important for the nurse working on the palliative care unit to take in facilitating continuity of care?

Obtain a detailed report from the nurse transferring the client.

23. A client with a history of heart failure presents to the clinic with a nausea, vomiting, yellow vision and palpitations. Which finding is most important for the nurse to assess to the client?

Obtain a list of medications taken for cardiac history

466. An older male who is admitted for end stage of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) tells the nurse .... The client provides the nurse with a living will and DNR. What action should the nurse implement?

Obtain a prescription for DNR

463. A client with pneumonia has an IV of lactated ringer's solution infusing at 30ml/hr current labor....sodium level of 155 mEq/L, a serum potassium level of 4mEq/L.... what nursing intervention is most important?

Obtain a prescription to increase the IV rate

555. A toddler with a history of an acyanotic heart defect is admitted to the pediatric intensive...rate of 60 breaths/ minute, and a heart rate of 150 beats/minute. What action should the nurse take?

Obtain a pulse oximeter reading

353. A client with possible acute kidney injury (AKI) is admitted to the hospital and mannitol is prescribed as a fluid challenge. Prior to carrying out this prescription, what intervention should the nurse implement?

Obtain vital signs and breath sounds.

348. The nurse instructs an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) to turn an immobilized elderly client with an indwelling urinary catheter every two hours. What additional action should the nurse instruct the UAP to take each time the client is turned?

Offer the client oral fluids

563. The family of a client who just died arrives on the nursing unit after receiving telephone notification of the death. Several family members state they would like to view the body. How should the nurse respond?

Offer to go with the family members to view the body.

332. A young adult female college student visits the health clinic in early winter to obtain birth control pills. The clinic nurse asks if the student has received an influenza vaccination. The student stated she did not receive vaccination because she has asthma. How should the nurse respond?

Offer to provide the influenza vaccination to the student while she is at the clinic

99. Following a motor vehicle collision, an adult female with a ruptured spleen and a blood pressure of 70/44, had an emergency splenectomy. Twelve hours after the surgery, her urine output is 25 ml/hour for the last two hours. What pathophysiological reason supports the nurse's decision to report this finding to the healthcare provider?

Oliguria signals tubular necrosis related to hypoperfusion

A client is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of Type 2 diabetes mellitus and influenza. Which categories of illness should the nurse develop goals for the client's plan of care?

One chronic and one acute illness.

494. The nurse prepares an intravenous solution and tubing for a client with a saline lock, as seen in the video. Which nurse takes next

Open the roller clamp on the tubing.

403. The nurse is assessing a postpartum client who is 36 hours post-delivery. Which finding should the nurse report to the healthcare provider?

Oral temperature of 100.6 F

593. In determine the client position for insertion of an indwelling urinary catheter, it is most important for the nurse to recognize which client condition?

Orthopnea

407. A client on a long-term mental health unit repeatedly takes own pulse regardless of the circumstance. What action should the nurse implement?

Overlook the client's behavior.

Two hours after the vaginal delivery of a 7-pound, 3-ounce infant, a client's fundus is 3 cm above the umbilicus, boggy, and located to the right of midline. Which action should the nurse take first?

Palpate above the symphysis for the bladder. Two hours after giving birth, the uterus should be firm, in the midline, and below the umbilicus. If the fundus is high, dextroverted and boggy, urinary retention is likely distending the bladder, so palpating for a full bladder above the symphysis (B) should be implemented first.

152. A client has an intravenous fluid infusing in the right forearm. To determine the client's distal pulse rate most accurately, which action should the nurse implement?

Palpate at the radial pulse site with the pads of two or three fingers.

557. To obtain an estimate of a client's systolic B/P. What action should the nurse take first?

Palpate the client's brachial pulse

291. An older male client arrives at the clinic complaining that his bladder always feels full. He complains of weak urine flow, frequent dribbling after voiding, and increasing nocturia with difficulty initiating his urine stream. Which action should the nurse implement?

Palpate the client's suprapubic area for distention

22. A 26-year-old female client is admitted to the hospital for treatment of a simple goiter, and levothyroxine sodium (Synthroid) is prescribed. Which symptoms indicate to the nurse that the prescribed dosage is too high for this client? The client experiences

Palpitations and shortness of breath

The nurse is developing a series of childbirth preparation classes for primigravida women and their significant others. What is the priority expected outcome for these classes?

Participants can identify at least three coping strategies to use during labor.

398. A native-American male client diagnosed with pneumonia, states that in addition to his prescribed medical treatment of IV antibiotics he wishes to have a spiritual cleaning performed. Which outcome statement indicates that the best plan of care was followed?

Participated actively in all treatments regimens

423. The nurse has received funding to design a health promotion project for African-American women who are at risk for developing breast cancer. Which resource is most important in designing this program?

Participation of community leaders in planning the program

311. At 40 week gestation, a laboring client who is lying is a supine position tells the nurse that she has finally found a comfortable position. What action should the nurse take?

Place a wedge under the client's right hip.

539. The nurse is caring for a client immediately after inserting a PICC line. Suddenly, the client becomes anxious and tachycardiac, and loud churning is heard over the pericardium upon auscultation. What action should the nurse take first?

Place client in Trendelenburg position on the left side.

315. When conducting diet teaching for a client who is on a postoperative soft diet, which foods should eat? (Select all that apply)

Pasta, noodles, rice. Egg, tofu, ground meat. Mashed, potatoes, pudding, milk.

541. The nurse is preparing dose # 7 of an IV piggyback infusion of tobramycin for a 73-year-ol client with... Infected pseudomonas aeruginosa. Which assessment data warrants further intervention by the nurse?

Peak and through levels has not been drawn since the tobramycin was started

588. A client who has been in active labor for 12 hours suddenly tells the nurse that she has a strong urge to have a bowel movement. What action should the nurse take?

Perform a sterile vaginal exam

133. The rapid response team's detects return of spontaneous circulation (ROSC) after 2 min of continuous chest compressions. The client has a weak, fast pulse and no respiratory effort, so the healthcare provider performs a successful oral, intubation. What action should the nurse implement?

Perform bilateral chest auscultation.

Lasix 20 mg PO is prescribed for a client at 0600. The medication is available in a scored tablet of 40 mg. Before breaking the tablet, what action should the nurse take?

Perform hand hygiene

535. After applying an alcohol-based hand rub to the palms of the hand and rubbing the hand together, what action should the nurse do next?

Place one hand on top of the other and interlace the fingers

447. In assessing a pressure ulcer on a client's hip, which action should the nurse include?

Photograph the lesion with a ruler placed next to the lesion

409. The charge nurse observes the practical nurse (PN) apply sterile gloves in preparation for performing a sterile dressing change. Which action by the PN requires correction by the charge nurse?

Picking up the second glove

391. The nurse is demonstrating correct transfer procedures to the unlicensed assisted personnel (UAP) working on a rehabilitation unit. The UAPs ask the nurse how to safely move a physically disabled client from the wheelchair to a bed. What action should the nurse recommended?

Place a client's locked wheelchair on the client's strong side next to the bed.

483. The nurse delegates to an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) denture care for a client with...daily leaving. When making this assignment, which instruction is most important for the nurse to do?

Place a washcloth in the sink while cleaning the dentures

158. In caring for the body of a client who just died, which tasks can be delegate to the unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP)? (Select all that apply.)

Place personal religious artifacts on the body. Attach identifying name tags to the body. Follow cultural beliefs in preparing the body.

35. A client with cervical cancer is hospitalized for insertion of a sealed internal cervical radiation implant. While providing care, the nurse finds the radiation implant in the bed. What action should the nurse take?

Place the implant in a lead container using long-handled forceps

405. The nurse is planning to assess a client's oxygen saturation to determine if additional oxygen is needed via nasal cannula. The client has a bilateral below-the-knee amputation and pedal pulses that are weak and threaty. What action should the nurse take?

Place the oximeter clip on the ear lobe to obtain the oxygen saturation reading

515. Which intervention should the nurse implement for a client with a superficial (first degree) burn?

Place wet cloths on the burned areas for short periods of time.

525. A health care provider continuously dismisses the nursing care suggestions made by staff nurses. As a result...dealing with the healthcare provider. What action should the nurse-manager implement?

Plan an interdisciplinary staff meeting to develop strategies to enhance client care

299. The leg of a client who is receiving hospice care have become mottled in appearance. When the nurse observes the unlicensed assistive personal (UAP) place a heating pad on the mottled areas, what action should the nurse take?

Remove the heating pads and place a soft blanket over the client's leg and feet.

296. The nurse is caring for a one week old infant who has a ventriculoperitoneal (VP) shunt that was placed 2 days after birth. Which findings are an indication of a postoperative complication?

Poor feeding and vomiting Leakage of CSF from the incisional site Abdominal distention

92. The nurse finds a client at 33 weeks gestation in cardiac arrest. What adaptation to cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) should the nurse implement?

Position a firm wedge to support pelvis and thorax at 30 degree tilt.

293. A client who had a below the knee amputation is experiencing severe phantom limb pain (PLP) and ask the nurse if mirror therapy will make the pain stop. Which response by the nurse is likely to be most helpful?

Research indicates that mirror therapy is effective in reducing phantom limb pain

168. The nurse is teaching a postmenopausal client about osteoporosis prevention. The client reports that she smokes 2 packs of cigarettes a day and takes 750 mg calcium supplements daily. What information should the nurse include when teaching this client about osteoporosis prevention?

Postmenopausal women need an intake of at least 1,500 mg of calcium daily.

302. During a Woman's Health fair, which assignment is the best for the Practical Nurse (PN) who is working with a register nurse (RN)

Prepare a woman for a bone density screening

215. The nurse is planning preoperative teaching plan of a 12-years old child who is scheduled for surgery. To help reduce the child anxiety, which action is the best for the nurse to implement?

Provide a family tour of the preoperative unit one week before the surgery is scheduled.

491. During a cardiopulmonary resuscitation of an intubated client, the nurse detects a palpable pulse throughout the two minutes cycle chest compression and absent breath sounds over the left lung. What action should the nurse implement?

Prepare for the endotracheal tube to be repositioned

214. Following an esophagogastroduodenoscopy (EGD) a male client is drowsy and difficult to arouse, and his respiration are slow and shallow. Which action should the nurse implement? Select all that apply.

Prepare medication reversal agent Check oxygen saturation level Apply oxygen via nasal cannula

482. A female client who was mechanically ventilated for 7 days is extubated. Two hours later...productive cough, and her respirations are rapids and shallow. Which intervention is most important?

Prepare the client for intubation

285. A client with coronary artery disease who is experiencing syncopal episodes is admitted for an electrophysiology study (EPS) and possible cardiac ablation therapy. Which intervention should the nurse delegate to the unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP)?

Prepare the skin for procedure.

The clinic nurse identifies an elevation in the results of the triple marker screening test for a client who is in the first trimester of pregnancy. Which action should the nurse prepare the client for?

Preparing for other diagnostic testing. The triple marker screen measures maternal serum levels for alpha-fetoprotein (AFP), human chorionic gonadotropin (HCG), and estriol, which screens for indications of possible fetal defects. An elevated result may be a false indicator, so other tests are indicated (B).

The nurse is preparing a client for a scheduled surgical procedure. What client statement should the nurse report to the healthcare provider?

Recalls drinking a glass of juice after midnight. The risk of aspiration while under general anesthesia is increased when the stomach is not empty prior to a surgical procedure, so the client's intake of juice (B) after midnight should be reported the healthcare provider. Preoperative fear and anxiety (A) are common and should be further explored by the nurse. (C) should be communicated using allergy identification tags on the client's records and bracelets on the client's wrist. (D) is a common and expected side effect of perioperative medications.

An older client who has been bedridden for a month is admitted with a pressure ulcer on the left trochanter area. The nurse determines that the ulcer extends into the subcutaneous tissue. At which stage should the nurse document this finding?

Pressure ulcers develop over skin surfaces usually covering bony prominences and are caused by external pressure that impedes blood flow, causing ischemia of the skin and underlying tissue. The stage of the pressure area is determined by the depth of tissue damage, and this client's lesion should be documented as a Stage 3 (C) because it is a full thickness tissue loss with visible subcutaneous fat that does not expose bone, tendon, or muscle. (A) is a nonblanchable pressure point over intact skin. (B) is a partial thickness ulcer, such as a ruptured blister or shallow open ulcer with a pink wound bed. (D) is a full thickness tissue loss with exposed bone, tendon or muscle, slough or eschar, and often includes undermining and tunneling.

What nursing delivery of care provides the nurse to plan and direct care of a group of clients over a 24-hour period?

Primary nursing (B) is a model of delivery of care where a nurse is accountable for planning care for clients around the clock. Functional nursing (D) is a care delivery model that provides client care by assignment of functions or tasks. Team nursing (A) is a care delivery model where assignments to a group of clients are provided by a mixed-staff team. Case management (C) is the delivery of care that uses a collaborative process of assessment, planning, facilitation, and advocacy for options and services to meet an individual's health needs and promote quality cost-effective outcomes.

115. A client who is newly diagnosed with type 2 diabetes mellitus (DM) receives a prescription for metformin (Glucophage) 500 mg PO twice daily. What information should the nurse include in this client's teaching plan? (Select all that apply.)

Recognize signs and symptoms of hypoglycemia. Report persist polyuria to the healthcare provider. Take Glucophage with the morning and evening meal.

The nurse is caring for a client who is one day postoperative after a left total knee arthroplasty (TKA). Which intervention should the nurse include in the plan of care?

Progressive leg exercises to obtain 90-degree flexion

90. While assessing a radial artery catheter, the client complains of numbness and pain distal to the insertion site. What interventions should the nurse implement?

Promptly remove the arterial catheter from the radial artery.

218. The nurse is teaching a group of clients with rheumatoid arthritis about the need to modify daily activities. Which goal should the nurse emphasize?

Protect joint function

A client with osteoarthritis is given a new prescription for a nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drug (NSAID). The client asks the nurse, "How is this medication different from the acetaminophen I have been taking?" Which information about the therapeutic action of NSAIDs should the nurse provide?

Provide antiinflammatory response.

186. A client with a cervical spinal cord injury (SCI) has Crutchfield tongs and skeletal traction applied as a method of closed reduction. Which intervention is most important for the nurse to include in the client's a plan of care?

Provide daily care of tong insertion sites using saline and antibiotic ointment

584. A client's telemetry monitor indicates ventricular fibrillation (VF). What should the nurse do first?

Provide immediate defibrillation

341. A client with emphysema is being discharged from the hospital. The nurse enters the client's room to complete discharge teaching. The client reports feeling a little short of breath and is anxious about going home. What is the best course of action?

Provide only necessary information in short, simple explanations with written instructions to take home

280. While assessing a client's chest tube (CT), the nurse discovers bubbling in the water seal chamber of the chest tube collection device. The client's vital signs are: blood pressure of 80/40 mmHg, heart rate 120 beats/minutes, respiratory rate 32 breaths/minutes, oxygen saturation 88%. Which interventions should the nurse implement?

Provide supplemental oxygen Auscultate bilateral lung fields Reinforce occlusive CT dressing

197. A man expresses concern to the nurse about the care his mother is receiving while hospitalized. He believes that her care is not based on any ethical standards and ask what type of care he should expect from a public hospital. What action should the nurse take?

Provide the man and his mother with a copy of the Patient's Bill of Rights

611. While performing a skin inspection for a female adult client, the nurse observes a rash that is well circumscribed, has silvery scales and plaques, and is located on the elbows and knees. These assessment findings are likely to indicate which condition?

Psoriasis

585. In conducting a health assessment, the nurse determines that both parents of a child with asthma smoke cigarettes. What recommendation is best to the nurse to recommend to the parents?

avoid smoking in the house

The nurse is assessing an older client and determines that the client's left upper eyelid droops, covering more of the iris than the right eyelid. Which description should the nurse use to document this finding?

Ptosis is the term to describe an eyelid droop that covers a large portion of the iris (A), which may result from oculomotor nerve or eyelid muscle disorder.

363. A low-risk primigravida at 28-weeks gestation arrives for her regular antepartal clinic visit. Which assessment finding should the nurse consider within normal limits for this client?

Pulse increase of 10 beats/minute

The nurse is assessing a client and identifies the presence of petechiae. Which documentation best describes this finding?

Purplish-red pinpoint lesions of the skin.

620. The nurse is preparing a 50 ml dose of 50% dextrose IV for a client with insulin...medication?

Push the undiluted Dextrose slowly through the currently infusion IV

138. A male client with cirrhosis has ascites and reports feeling short of breath. The client is in semi Fowler position with his arms at his side. What action should the nurse implement?

Raise the head of the bed to a Fowler's position and support his arms with a pillow

91. A client is admitted with an epidural hematoma that resulted from a skateboarding accident. To differentiate the vascular source of the intracranial bleeding, which finding should the nurse monitor?

Rapid onset of decreased level of consciousness.

In caring for a pregnant woman with gestational diabetes, the nurse should be alert to which finding? A.A consistent fasting blood sugar level between 80 and 85 mg/dL B.A 2-hour postprandial level greater than 120 mg/dL C.Client reports taking a 30-minute walk after dinner D.Client describes eating pattern of four to six meals daily

Rationale: Two-hour postprandial levels greater than 120 mg/dL may indicate the need for the initiation of insulin to maintain adequate blood glucose levels; consequently, a value greater than 120 mg/dL (B) should be assessed further. Fasting blood sugars between 80 and 85 mg/dL are normal (A). (C and D) are healthy behaviors for a women with gestational diabetes.

114. A client who had a right hip replacement 3 day ago is pale has diminished breath sound over the left lower lung fields, a temperature of 100.2 F, and an oxygen saturation rate of 90%. The client is scheduled to be transferred to a skilled nursing facility (SNF) tomorrow for rehabilitative critical pathway. Based on the client's symptoms, what recommendation should the nurse give the healthcare provider?

Reassess readiness for SNF transfer.

629. The nurse is assessing a client with a small bowel obstruction who was hospitalized 24 hours ago. Which assessment finding should the nurse report immediately to the healthcare provider?

Rebound tenderness in the upper quadrants

What information best supports the nurse's explanation for promoting the use of alternative or complementary therapies?

Recognizes the value of a client's input into their own health care. Alternative and complementary therapies offer human-centered care based on philosophies that recognize the value of the client's input and honor cultural and individual beliefs, values, and desires (C).

350. When assessing the surgical dressing of a client who had abdominal surgery the previous day, the nurse observes that a small amount of drainage is present on the dressing and the wound's Hemovac suction device is empty with the plug open. How should the nurse respond?

Recompress the wound suction device and secure to plug

524. Which interventions should the nurse include in a long-term plan of care for a client with COPD?

Reduce risk factors for infection

44. Which intervention should the nurse include in a long-term plan of care for a client with Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease (COPD)?

Reduce risks factors for infection

201. A client with diabetic peripheral neuropathy has been taking pregabalin (Lyrica) for 4 days. Which finding indicates to the nurse that the medication is effective?

Reduced level of pain

579. When gathering for a group therapy session at 1400 hours, a female client complains to the nurse that a smoking break has not been allowed all day. The nurse responds that 15 minute breaks were called over the unit intercom after breakfast and after lunch. The nurse is using what communication technique in responding to the client?

Reflection

During the physical assessment, which finding should the nurse recognize as a normal finding?

Regular pulsation at the epigastric area when the client is supine Recognizing normal findings in the physical exam is a necessity. The regular and recurrent expansion and contraction of an artery produced by waves of pressure caused by the ejection of blood from the left ventricle as it contracts is a normal finding (A). (B, C, and D) are abnormal findings that require further assessment.

143. An 18-year-old female client is seen at the health department for treatment of condylomata acuminate (perineal warts) caused by the human papillomavirus (HPV). Which intervention should the nurse implement?

Reinforce the importance of annual papanicolaou (Pap) smears.

624. The nurse observes an adolescent client prepare to administer a prescribed corticosteroid medication using a metered dose inhaler as seen in the picture. What action should the nurse take?

Remind the client to hold his breath after inhaling the medication

176. To evaluate the effectiveness of male client's new prescription for ezetimibe, which action should the clinic nurse implement?

Remind the client to keep his appointments to have his cholesterol level checked.

122. Suicide precautions are initiated for a child admitted to the mental health unit following an intentional narcotic overdose. After a visitor leaves, the nurse finds a package of cigarettes in the client's room. Which intervention is most important for the nurse to implement?

Remove cigarettes for the client's room

58. A female client with breast cancer who completed her first chemotherapy treatment today at an out-patient center is preparing for discharge. Which behavior indicates that the client understands her care needs

Rented movies and borrowed books to use while passing time at home

107. During an annual physical examination, an older woman's fasting blood sugar (FBS) is determined to be 140 mg/dl or 7.8 mmol/L (SI). Which additional finding obtained during a follow-up visit 2 weeks later is most indicative that the client has diabetes mellitus (DM)?

Repeated fasting blood sugar (FBS) is 132 mg/dl or 7.4 mmol/L (SI).

618. The nurse is preparing to discharge an older adult female client who is at risk for hy...nurse include with this client's discharge teaching?

Report any muscle twitching or seizures Take vitamin D with calcium daily Low fat yogurt is a good source of calcium Keep a diet record to monitor calcium intake

93. When preparing a client for discharge from the hospital following a cystectomy and a urinary diversion to treat bladder cancer, which instruction is most important for the nurse to include in the client's discharge teaching plan?

Report any signs of cloudy urine output.

627. A client with hypertension receives a prescription for enalapril, an angiotensin...instruction should the nurse include in the medication teaching plan?

Report increased bruising of bleeding

342. An older adult male who had an abdominal cholecystectomy has become increasingly confused and disoriented over the past 24 hours. He is found wandering into another client's room and is return to his room by the unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP). What actions should the nurse take? (Select all that apply).

Report mental status change to the healthcare provider Assess the client's breath sounds and oxygen saturation Review the client's most recent serum electrolyte values

513. A female client is taking alendronate, a bisphosphate, for postmenopausal osteoporosis. The client tells the nurse that she is experiencing jaw pain. How should the nurse respond?

Report the client's jaw pain to the healthcare provider.

A nurse-manager sees a colleague taking drugs from the unit. What action should the nurse-manager take?

Report the incident to the immediate supervisor.

162. During discharge teaching, the nurse discusses the parameters for weight monitoring with a client who was recently diagnosed with heart failure (HF). Which information is most important for the client to acknowledge?

Report weight gain of 2 pounds (0.9kg) in 24 hours

153. A child is admitted to the pediatric unit diagnosed with sickle cell crisis. When the nurse walks into the room, the unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) is encouraging the child to stay in bed in the supine position. Which action should the nurse implement?

Reposition the client with the head of the bed elevated.

316. The nurse is preparing a 4-day-old I infant with a serum bilirubin level of 19 mg/dl (325 micromol/L) for discharge from the hospital. When teaching the parents about home phototherapy, which instruction should the nurse include in the discharge teaching plan?

Reposition the infant every 2 hours.

96. The nurse enters a client's room and observes the client's wrist restraint secured as seen in the picture. What action should the nurse take?

Reposition the restraint tie onto the bedframe.

8. During shift report, the central electrocardiogram (EKG) monitoring system alarms. Which client alarm should the nurse investigate firs?

Respiratory apnea of 30 seconds

65. The nurse is assessing a 3-month-old infant who had a pylorotomy yesterday. This child should be medicated for pain based on which findings? Select all that apply:

Restlessness Clenched Fist Increased pulse rate Increased respiratory rate.

283. An older adult male is admitted with complications related to chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). He reports progressive dyspnea that worsens on exertion and his weakness has increased over the past month. The nurse notes that he has dependent edema in both lower legs. Based on these assessment findings, which dietary instruction should the nurse provide?

Restrict daily fluid intake.

A female client makes routine visits to a neighborhood community health center. The nurse notes that this client often presents with facial bruising, particularly around the eyes. The nurse discusses prevention of domestic violence with the client even though the client does not admit to being battered. What level of prevention has the nurse applied in this situation?

Secondary prevention (B) attempts to halt the progression of the disease process, in this case, an escalation in the battering, by educating the client about prevention strategies. The nurse has identified client injuries that create a suspicion of battering and domestic violence.

286. Fallowing an outbreak of measles involving 5 students in an elementary school, which action is most important for the school nurse to take?

Restrict unvaccinated children from attending school until measles outbreak is resolved.

195. When assessing and adult male who presents as the community health clinic with a history of hypertension, the nurse note that he has 2+ pitting edema in both ankles. He also has a history of gastroesophageal reflex disease (GERD) and depression. Which intervention is the most important for the nurse to implement?

Review the client's use of over the counter (OTC) medications.

1. Following discharge teaching, a male client with duodenal ulcer tells the nurse the he will drink plenty of dairy products, such as milk, to help coat and protect his ulcer. What is the best follow-up action by the nurse?

Review with the client the need to avoid foods that are rich in milk and cream

The nurse is assessing the laboratory results for a client who is admitted with renal failure and osteodystrophy. Which findings are consistent with this client's clinical picture?

Serum potassium of 5.5 mEq and total calcium of 6 mg/dl. In renal failure, normal serum electrolyte balance is altered because the kidneys fail to activate vitamin D, calcium absorption is impaired, and serum calcium decreases, which stimulates the release of PTH causing resorption of calcium and phosphate from the bone. A decreased tubular excretion and a decreased glomerular filtration rate results in hypocalcemia, hyperphosphatemia, and hyperkalemia (C). (A) is reflective of a non-renal cause, such as dehydration or liver pathology. (B) is more indicative of infection. Renal failure causes anemia and hyperphosphatemia, not (D).

A 6-year-old child is alert but quiet when brought to the emergency center with periorbital ecchymosis and ecchymosis behind the ears. The nurse suspects potential child abuse and continues to assess the child for additional manifestations of a basilar skull fracture. What assessment finding would be consistent with a basilar skull fracture?

Rhinorrhoea or otorrhoea with Halo sign. Raccoon eyes (periorbital ecchymosis) and Battle's sign (ecchymosis behind the ear over the mastoid process) are both signs of a basilar skull fracture, so the nurse should assess for possible meningeal tears that manifest as a Halo sign with CSF leakage from the ears or nose (D). (A) is consistent with orbital fractures. (B) occurs with wrenching traumas of the shoulder or arm fractures. (C) occurs with blunt abdominal injuries.

469. A client whose wrists are sutured from a recent suicide attempt is been transferred from a medical unit. Which nursing diagnosis is of the highest priority?

Risk for self-directed violence related to impulsive actions

394. The healthcare provider prescribes a low-fiber diet for a client with ulcerative colitis. Which food selection would indicate to the nurse the client understands they prescribed diet?

Roasted turkey canned vegetables

A client is being admitted to the medical unit from the emergency department after having a chest tube inserted. What equipment should be brought to this client's room?

Rubber-tipped clamps.

When documenting assessment data, which statement should the nurse record in the narrative nursing notes?

S1 murmur auscultated in supine position.

69. When preparing to discharge a male client who has been hospitalized for an adrenal crisis, the client expresses concern about having another crisis. He tells the nurse that he wants to stay in the hospital a few more days. Which intervention should the nurse implement?

Schedule an appointment for an out-patient psychosocial assessment.

609. A male client recently released from a correctional facility arrives at the clinic with a cough, fever, and chills. His history reveals active tuberculosis (TB) 10 years ago. What action should the nurse implement? (Select all that apply)

Schedule the client for the chest radiograph Obtain sputum for acid fast bacillus (AFB) testing Place a mask on the client until he is moved to isolation.

303. An adult client present to the clinic with large draining ulcers on both lower legs that are characteristics of Kaposi's sarcoma lesions. The client is accompanied by two family member. Which action should the nurse take?

Send family to the waiting area while the client's history is taking

47. A male client reports the onset of numbness and tingling in his fingers and around his mouth. Which lab is important for the nurse to review before contacting the health care provider?

Serum calcium

614. In caring for a client receiving the amino glycoside antibiotic gentamicin, it is most important for the nurse to monitor which diagnostic test?

Serum creatinine

74. A male client who is admitted to the mental health unit for treatment of bipolar disorder has a slightly slurred speech pattern and an unsteady gait. Which assessment finding is most important for the nurse to report to the healthcare provider?

Serum lithium level of 1.6 mEq/L or mmol/l (SI)

An Insulin infusion for a client with diabetes mellitus who is experiencing hyperglycemic hyperosmolar...in addition to the client's glucose, which laboratory value is most important for the nurse to monitor?

Serum potassium

83. A client with intestinal obstructions has a nasogastric tube to low intermittent suction and is receiving an IV of lactated ringer's at 100 ml/H. which finding is most important for the nurse to report to the healthcare provider?

Serum potassium level of 3.1 mEq/L or mmol/L (SI)

178. A young adult client is admitted to the emergency room following a motor vehicle collision. The client's head hit the dashboard. Admission assessment include: Blood pressure 85/45 mm Hg, temperature 98.6 F, pulse 124 beat/minute and respirations 22 breath/minute. Based on these data, the nurse formulates the first portion of nursing diagnosis as " Risk of injury" What term best expresses the "related to" portion of nursing diagnosis?

Shock

193. A client refuses to ambulate, reporting abdominal discomfort and bloating caused by "too much gas buildup" the client's abdomen is distended. Which prescribed PRN medication should the nurse administer?

Simethicone (Mylicon)

56. A school nurse is called to the soccer field because a child has a nose bleed (epistaxis). In what position should the nurse place the child?

Sitting up and leaning forward

The scope of professional nursing practice is determined by rules promulgated by which organization?

State's Board of Nursing.

100. A nurse-manager is preparing the curricula for a class for charge nurses. A staffing formula based on what data ensures quality client care and is most cost-effective?

Skills of staff and client acuity

510. The nurse is making a home visit to a male client who is in the moderate stage of Alzheimer's diseases. The client's wife is exhausted and tells the nurse that the family plans to take turns caring for the client in their home, each keeping him for two weeks at a time. How should the nurse respond?

Suggest enrolling the client in adult daycare instead of rotating among family.

The nurse is caring for critically ill clients. Which client should be monitored for the development of neurogenic shock? A client with

Spinal cord injuries (C) place the client at high risk for the development of neurogenic distributive shock. The development to watch for in (A) is cardiogenic shock, in (B) is hemorrhagic shock, and in (D) is hypovolemic shock.

438. A nurse stops at the site of a motorcycle accident and finds a young adult male lying face down in the road in a puddle of water. It is raining, no one is available to send for help, and the cell phone is in the car about 50 feet away. What action should the nurse take first?

Stabilize the victim's neck and roll over to evaluate his status

When engaging in planned change on the unit, what should the nurse-manager establish first?

Staff members are aware of the need for change.

41. An older male client with a history of type 1 diabetes has not felt well the past few days and arrives at the clinic with abdominal cramping and vomiting. He is lethargic, moderately, confused, and cannot remember when he took his last dose of insulin or ate last. What action should the nurse implement first?

Start an intravenous (IV) infusion of normal saline

Following an emergency Cesarean delivery, the nurse encourages the new mother to breastfeed her newborn. The client asks why she should breastfeed now. Which information should the nurse provide?

Stimulate contraction of the uterus.

A client is brought into the emergency department following a sudden cardiac arrest. A full code is started. Five minutes later the family arrives with a durable power of attorney signed by the client requesting that no extraordinary measures be taken, including intubation, to save the client's life. What action should the nurse take?

Stop the code immediately.

109. A client who was admitted yesterday with severe dehydration is complaining of pain a 24 gauge IV with normal saline is infusing at a rate of 150 ml/hour. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

Stop the normal saline infusion.

21. The mother of an adolescent tells the clinic nurse, "My son has athlete's foot, I have been applying triple antibiotic ointment for two days, but there has been no improvement." What instruction should the nurse provide?

Stop using the ointment and encourage complete drying of the feet and wearing clean socks.

127. The nursing staff on a medical unit includes a registered nurse (RN), practical nurse (PN), and an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP). Which task should the charge nurse assign to the RN?

Supervise a newly hired graduate nurse during an admission assessment.

507. The nursing staff on a medical unit includes a registered nurse (RN), practical nurse (LPN), and unlicensed assistant personnel (UAP). Which task should the charge nurse assign to the RN?

Supervised a newly hired graduate nurse during an admission assessment

628. When administering ceftriaxone sodium (Rocephin) intravenously to a client before...most immediate intervention by the nurse?

Stridor

410. A male client reports to the clinic nurse that he has been feeling well and is often "dizzy" his blood pressure is elevated. Based on this findings, this client is at a greatest risk for which pathophysiological condition?

Stroke

2. A male client with hypertension, who received new antihypertensive prescriptions at his last visit returns to the clinic two weeks later to evaluate his blood pressure (BP). His BP is 158/106 and he admits that he has not been taking the prescribed medication because the drugs make him "feel bad". In explaining the need for hypertension control, the nurse should stress that an elevated BP places the client at risk for which pathophysiological condition?

Stroke secondary to hemorrhage

Which intervention should the nurse include in the plan of care for a female client with severe postpartum depression who is admitted to the inpatient psychiatric unit?

Supervised and guided visits with infant.

A primipara with a breech presentation is in the transition phase of labor. The nurse visualizes the perineum and sees the umbilical cord extruding from the introitus. In which position should the nurse place the client?

Supine with the foot of the bed elevated.

151. While visiting a female client who has heart failure (HF) and osteoarthritis, the home health nurse determines that the client is having more difficulty getting in and out of the bed than she did previously. Which action should the nurse implement first?

Submit a referral for an evaluation by a physical therapist.

The school nurse is reviewing health risks associated with extracurricular activities of grade-school children. Regular participation in which activity places the child at highest risk for developing external otitis?

Swimming lessons in an indoor pool.

94. For the past 24 hours, an antidiarrheal agent, diphenoxylate, has been administered to a bedridden, older client with infectious gastroenteritis. Which finding requires the nurse to take further action?

Tented skin turgor.

534. While attempting to stablish risk reduction strategies in a community, the nurse notes that the regional studies have indicated....persons with irreversible mental deficiencies due to hypothyroidism. The nurse should seek funding to implement which screening measure?

T4 levels in newborns

137. The nurse is caring for a group of clients with the help of a licensed practical nurse (LPN) and an experienced unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP). Which procedures can the nurse delegate to the UAP? (Select all that apply)

Take postoperative vital signs for a client who has an epidual following knee arthroplasty Collect a sputum specimen for a client with a fever of unknown origin Ambulate a client who had a femoral-popliteal bypass graft yesterday

During the assessment of a 21-year-old female client with bipolar disorder, the client tells the nurse that she has not taken her medication for three years, her mother will not let her return home, and she does not have transportation or a job. Which client goal is most important for this client?

Taking medication, with community follow-up.

478. A male client returns to the mental health clinic for assistance with his anxiety reaction that is manifested by a rapid heartbeat, sweating, shaking, and nausea while driving over the bay bridge. What action I the treatment plan should the nurse implement?

Teach client to listen to music or audio books while driving

167. A client with muscular dystrophy is concerned about becoming totally dependent and is reluctant to call the nurse to assist with activities of daily living (ADLs). To achieve maximum mobility and independence, which intervention is most important for the nurse to include in the client's plan of care?

Teach family proper range of motion exercises.

396. One year after being discharged from the burn trauma unit, a client with a history of 40% full-thickness burns is admitted with bone pain and muscle weakness. Which intervention should the nurse include in the clients plan of care?

Teach need for dietary and supplementary vitamin D3

573. A client with polycystic kidney disease (PKD) receiving antibiotics for an infected cyst is experiencing severe pain. What action should the nurse implement?

Teach the client how to use a dry heating pad over the painful area

6. A client who recently underwear a tracheostomy is being prepared for discharge to home. Which instructions is most important for the nurse to include in the discharge plan?

Teach tracheal suctioning techniques

190. A 350-bed acute care hospital declares an internal disaster because the emergency generators malfunctioned during a city-wide power failure. The UAPs working on a general medical unit ask the charge nurse what they should do first. What instruction should the charge nurse provide to these UAPs?

Tell all their assigned clients to stay in their rooms.

The nurse attempts to notify the healthcare provider about a client who is exhibiting an extrapyramidal reaction to psychotropic medications. When the receptionist for the answering service offers to take a message, which nursing action is best for the nurse to take?

Tell the receptionist to have the healthcare provider return the phone call.

89. A client with multiple sclerosis (MS) has decreased motor function after taking a hot bath (Uhthoff's sign). Which pathophysiological mechanism supports this response?

Temporary vasodilation

42. A client who received multiple antihypertensive medications experiences syncope due to a drop in blood pressure to 70/40. What is the rationale for the nurse's decision to hold the client's scheduled antihypertensive medication?

The additive effect of multiple medications has caused the blood pressure to drop too low

A client with asthma receives a prescription for high blood pressure during a clinic visit. Which prescription should the nurse anticipate the client to receive that is least likely to exacerbate asthma?

The best antihypertensive agent for clients with asthma is metoprolol (Lopressor) (C), a beta2 blocking agent which is also cardioselective and less likely to cause bronchoconstriction. Pindolol (A) is a beta2 blocker that can cause bronchoconstriction and increase asthmatic symptoms. Although carteolol (B) is a beta blocking agent and an effective antihypertensive agent used in managing angina, it can increase a client's risk for bronchoconstriction due to its nonselective beta blocker action. Propranolol (D) also blocks the beta2 receptors in the lungs, causing bronchoconstriction, and is not indicated in clients with asthma and other obstructive pulmonary disorders.

467. A client who is recently diagnosed with type 2 diabetes mellitus (DM) ask the nurse how this type of diabetes leads to high blood sugar. What Pathophysiology mechanism should the nurse explain about the occurrence of hyperglycemia in those who have type 2 DM?

The body cells develop resistance to the action of insulin.

A male client is angry and is leaving the hospital against medical advice (AMA). The client demands to take his chart with him and states the chart is "his" and he doesn' t want any more contact with the hospital. How should the nurse respond?

The chart is the property of the facility, but the client has a legal right to the information in it, even if he is leaving AMA, so a copy of the record (D) should be provided. The client does not lose his legal rights to his medical record if he leaves AMA (A). The medical record is confidential, but the hospital protects the client's privacy by not allowing unauthorized access to the record, so the hospital may provide the client with a copy (B). The hospital must maintain records of the care provided and should not release the original record (C).

The nurse is assessing a child's weight and height during a clinic visit prior to starting school. The nurse plots the child's weight on the growth chart and notes that the child's weight is in the 95th percentile for the child's height. What action should the nurse take?

The child is overweight for height, so assessment of the child's daily diet (C) should be determined. The child does not need (A or B), both of which will increase the child's weight. Poor nutrition (D) is commonly seen in underweight children, not overweight.

486. A school-aged child was recently diagnosed with celiac disease. Which instruction should the nurse give the classroom teacher?

The child should avoid eating homemade cookies and cupcakes during parties

A child with Tetrology of Fallot suffers a hypercyanotic episode. Which immediate action by the nurse can lessen the symptoms of this "TET spell?"

The child should be placed on his or her back in the knee-to-chest position (B) to increase blood vessel resistance. The increased pressure reduces the rush of blood through the septal hole and improves blood circulation.

427. A client with a large pleural effusion undergoes a thoracentesis. Following the procedure, which assessment finding warrants immediate intervention by the nurse?

The client has asymmetrical chest wall expansion

A 16-year-old male client is admitted to the hospital after falling off a bike and sustaining a fractured bone. The healthcare provider explains the surgery needed to immobilize the fracture. Which action should be implemented to obtain a valid informed consent?

The client is a minor and cannot legally sign his own consent unless he is an emancipated minor, so the consent should be obtained from the guardian for this client, which is the custodial parent (B). (A) is not a legal option. A stepparent is not a legal guardian for a minor unless the child has been adopted by the stepparent (C). The non-custodial parent does not need to co-sign this form (D).

33. After the nurse witnesses a preoperative client sign the surgical consent form, the nurse signs the form as a witness. What are the legal implications of the nurse's signature on the client's surgical consent form? (Select all that apply)

The client voluntarily grants permission for the procedure to be done The client is competent to sign the consent without impairment of judgment The client understands the risks and benefits associated with the procedure

596. A 35 years old female client has just been admitted to the post anesthesia recovery unit following a partial thyroidectomy. Which statement reflects the nurse's accurate understanding of the expected outcome for the client following this surgery?

The client will be restricted from eating seafood

160. A client with a prescription for "do not resuscitate" (DNR) begins to manifest signs of impending death. After notifying the family of the client's status, what priority action should the nurse implement?

The client's need for pain medication should be determined.

223. The nurse performs a prescribed neurological check at the beginning of the shift on a client who was admitted to the hospital with a subarachnoid brain attack (stroke). The client's Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score is 9. What information is most important for the nurse to determine?

The client's previous GCS score

The nurse is conducting a drug education class for junior high school students. Which statement, provided by one of the student participants, best describes the primary characteristic of addiction?

Wanting the drug is all that matters to an addict.

416. A client with bipolar disorder began taking valproic acid (Depakote) 250 mg PO three times daily two months ago. Which finding provides the best indication that the medication regimen is effective?

The family reports a great reduction in client's maniac behavior

39. When assessing a mildly obese 35-year-old female client, the nurse is unable to locate the gallbladder when palpating below the liver margin at the lateral border of the rectus abdominal muscle. What is the most likely explanation for failure to locate the gallbladder by palpation?

The gallbladder is normal

619. The husband of a client with advanced ovarian cancer wants his wife to have every treatment available. When the husband leaves, the client tells the nurse that she has had enough chemotherapy and wants to stop all treatments but knows her husband will sign the consent form for more treatment. The nurse's response should include which information?

The husband cannot sign the consent for the client, her signature is required The client's specific wishes should be discussed with her healthcare provider The healthcare team will formulate a plan of care to keep the client comfortable

A client with chronic osteomyelitis is scheduled for surgery to treat the infection which has not responded to three months of intravenous antibiotic therapy. The client asks the nurse why surgery is necessary. Which is the best response for the nurse to provide?

The infection has walled off into an area of infected bone creating a barrier to antibiotics. A sequestrum (dead bone) is separated from the living bone and has no blood supply, so neither antibiotics nor white blood cells can reach the infected area (D). (A and B) do not address the encasement of the necrotic tissue. Although a sinus tract may occur, (C) does not address the purpose of the surgery.

408. A client is discharged with automated peritoneal dialysis (PD) to be used nightly...which instructions should the nurse include?

Wash hands before cleaning exit site

508. Following breakfast, the nurse is preparing to administer 0900 medications to clients on a medical floor. Which medication should be held until a later time?

The mucosal barrier, sucralfate (Carafate), for a client diagnosed with peptic ulcer disease.

343. A client is admitted to a medical unit with the diagnosis of gastritis and chronic heavy alcohol abuse. What should the nurse administered to prevent the development of Wernicke's syndrome?

Thiamine (Vitamin B1)

The nurse is caring for a client who is unable to void. The plan of care establishes an objective for the client to ingest at least 1000 mL of fluid between 7:00 am and 3:30 pm. Which client response should the nurse document that indicates a successful outcome?

The nurse should evaluate the client's outcome by observing the client's performance of each expected behavior, so drinking 240 mL of fluid five or six times during the shift (D) indicates a fluid intake of 1200 to 1440 mL, which meets the objective of at least 1000 mL during the designated period. (A) uses the term "adequate," which is not quantified. (B) is not the objective, which establishes an intake of at least 1000 mL. (C) is not an evaluation of the specific fluid intake.

157. A client in the postanesthesia care unit (PACU) has an eight (8) on the Aldrete postanesthesia scoring system. What intervention should nurse implement?

Transfer the client to the surgical floor.

48. What explanation is best for the nurse to provide a client who asks the purpose of using the log-rolling technique for turning?

The technique is intended to maintain straight spinal alignment.

580. A female client with rheumatoid arthritis (RA) comes to the clinic complaining of joint pain and swelling. The client has been taking prednisone (Deltasone) and ibuprofen (Motrin Extra Strength) every day. To assist the client with self-management of her pain, which information should the nurse obtain?

Therapeutic exercise included in daily routine.

A nurse is answering questions about breast cancer at a hospital-sponsored community health fair. A woman asks the nurse to explain the use of tamoxifen (Nolvadex). Which response should the nurse provide?

This anti-estrogen drug inhibits malignancy growth. Tamoxifen (Nolvadex) is used in postmenopausal women with breast cancer to prevent and treat recurrent cancer and inhibit the growth-stimulating effects (C) of estrogen by blocking estrogen receptor sites on malignant cells. A side effect of tamoxifen is hot flashes (A), which is related to the decreased estrogen. Tamoxifen is used for women with estrogen receptor-positive breast cancer, not all women (B), and is classified as a hormonal agent, not (D), used to suppress malignant cell growth.

The nurse is assessing a client who complains of weight loss, racing heart rate, and difficulty sleeping. The nurse determines the client has moist skin with fine hair, prominent eyes, lid retraction, and a staring expression. These findings are consistent with which disorder?

This client is exhibiting symptoms associated with hyperthyroidism or Grave's disease (A), which is an autoimmune condition affecting the thyroid. (B, C, and D) are not associated with these symptoms.

528. A client admitted with an acute coronary syndrome (ACS) receives eptifibatide, a glycoprotein (GP) IIB IIIA inhibitor, which important finding places the client at greatest risk?

Unresponsive to painful stimuli

351. A mother brings her 4-month-old son to the clinic with a quarter taped over his umbilicus, and tells the nurse the quarter is supposed to fix her child's hernia. Which explanations should the nurse provide?

This hernia is a normal variation that resolves without treatment.

569. A 2-year-old is bleeding from a laceration on the right lower extremity that occurred as the result of a motor vehicle collision. The nurse is selecting supplies to start an IV access. Which assessment finding is most significant in the nurse's selection of catheter size?

Thready brachial pulse.

308. The RN is assigned to care for four surgical clients. After receiving report, which client should the nurse see first? The client who is

Three days postoperative colon resection receiving transfusion of packed RBCs.

72. Azithromycin is prescribed for an adolescent female who has lower lobe pneumonia and recurrent chlamydia. What information is most important for the nurse to provide to this client?

Use two forms of contraception while taking this drug.

312. A client with a history of diabetes and coronary artery disease is admitted with shortness of breath, anxiety, and confusion. The client's blood pressure is 80/60 mmHg, heart rate 120 beats/minute with audible third and fourth heart sounds, and bibasilar crackles. The client's average urinary output is 5 ml/hour. Normal saline is infusing at 124 ml/hour with a secondary infusion of dopamine at mcg/kg/minute per infusion pump. With intervention should the nurse implement?

Titrate the dopamine infusion to raise the BP.

38. When caring for a client who has acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS), the nurse elevates the head of the bed 30 degrees. What is the reason for this intervention?

To reduce abdominal pressure on the diaphragm

13. A client who is taking an oral dose of a tetracycline complains of gastrointestinal upset. What snack should the nurse instruct the client to take with the tetracycline?

Toasted wheat bread and jelly

Prior to transferring a client to a chair using a mechanical lift, what is the most important client characteristic the nurse should assess?

Tolerance of exertion.

446. The nurse is explaining the need to reduce salt intake to a client with primary hypertension. What explanation should the nurse provide?

Too much salt can cause the kidneys to retain fluid

333. A client with eczema is experiencing severe pruritus. Which PRN prescriptions should the nurse administer? (Select all that apply)

Topical corticosteroid. Oral antihistamine

362. A client who is admitted to the intensive care unit with a right chest tube attached to a THORA-SEAL chest drainage unit becomes increasingly anxious and complain of difficulty breathing. The nurse determine the client is tachypneic with absent breath sounds in the client's right lungs fields. Which additional finding indicates that the client has developed a tension pneumothorax?

Tracheal deviation toward the left lung.

331. Following and gunshot wound, an adult client a hemoglobin level of 4 grams/dl (40 mmol/L SI). The nurse prepares to administer a unit of blood for an emergency transfusion. The client has AB negative blood type and the blood bank sends a unit of type A Rh negative, reporting that there is not type AB negative blood currently available. Which intervention should the nurse implement?

Transfuse Type A negative blood until type AB negative is available.

493. A male client is discharged from the intensive care unit following a myocardial infarction, and the healthcare provider low-sodium diet. Which lunch selection indicates to the nurse that this client understands the dietary restrictions?

Turkey salad sandwich.

547. A client with gestational diabetes is undergoing a non-stress test (NST) at 34-week gestation... is 144 beats/minute. The client is instructed to mark the fetal monitor by pressing a button each time the baby moves. After 20 minutes, the nurse evaluates the fetal monitor strip. What...

Two FHR accelerations of 15 beats/minute x 15 seconds are recorded

543. A client with HIV and pulmonary coccidioidomycosis is receiving amphotericin B. which assessment finding should the nurse report to the healthcare provider?

Urinary output of 25mL per hour

207. The nurse plans to collect a 24- hour urine specimen for a creatinine clearance test. Which instruction should the nurse provide to the adult male client?

Urinate at specific time, discard the urine, and collect all subsequent urine during the next 24 hours.

616. A client who is at 36 weeks gestations is admitted with severe preclampsia. After a 6 gram loading dose of magnesium sulfate is administered, an intravenous infusion of magnesium sulfate at a rate of 2 grams/hour is initiated. Which assessment finding warrants immediate intervention by the nurse?

Urine output 20 ml/hour

Which information should the nurse provide a client who has undergone cryosurgery for Stage 1A cervical cancer?

Use a sanitary napkin instead of a tampon. Clients should avoid the use of tampons for 3 to 6 weeks (D) after the procedure to reduce the risk of infection. A heavy, watery vaginal discharge is expected during this time, so (A) is unnecessary. Sexual intercourse should be avoided for up to 6 weeks, so (B) is inaccurate. (C) is not a side effect of the procedure but may indicate human papillomavirus or a cancerous lesion and should be reported.

477. A client in septic shock has a double lumen central venous catheter with one liter of 0.9% Normal Saline Solution infusing at 1 ml/hour through one lumen and TPN infusing at 50 ml/hr. through one port. The nurse prepared newly prescribed IV antibiotic that should take 45 mints to infuse. What intervention should the nurse implement?

Use a secondary port of the Normal Saline solution to administer the antibiotic.

The nurse plans to suction a male client who has just undergone right pneumonectomy for cancer of the lung. Secretions can be seen around the endotracheal tube and the nurse auscultates rattling in the lungs. What safety factors should the nurse consider when suctioning this client?

Use a soft-tip rubber suction catheter and avoid deep vigorous suctioning.

131. A 4-year-old with acute lymphocytic leukemia (ALL) is receiving a chemotherapy (CT) protocol that includes methotrexate (Mexate, Trexal, MIX), an antimetabolite. Which information should the nurse provide the parents about caring for their child?

Use sunblock or protective clothing when outdoors.

Prior to a cardiac catheterization, which activity should the nurse have the client practice?

Valsalva's maneuver and coughing.

145. A client with history of bilateral adrenalectomy is admitted with a week, irregular pulse, and hypotension. Which assessment finding warrants immediate intervention by the nurse?

Ventricular arrhythmias.

194. The public nurse health received funding to initiate primary prevention program in the community. Which program the best fits the nurse's proposal?

Vitamin supplements for high-risk pregnant women.

392. A client who is experiencing musculoskeletal pain receives a prescription for ketorolac 15mg IM q6 hours. The medication is depended in a 39mg/ml pre-filled syringe. Which action should the nurse implement when giving the medication?

Waste 0.5 ml from the pre-filled syringe and inject the medication in the ventrogluteal site.

397. When teaching a group of school-age children how to reduce the risk of Lyme disease which instruction should the camp nurse include?

Wear long sleeves and pants

The nurse is developing a teaching plan for an adolescent with a Milwaukee brace. Which instruction should the nurse include?

Wear the brace over a T-shirt 23 hours per day. Idiopathic scoliosis is an abnormal lateral curvature of the spine in adolescent females. Early treatment uses a Milwaukee brace that places pressure against the lateral spinal curvature, under the neck, and against the iliac crest, so it should be worn for 23 hours per day over a T-shirt (D) which reduces friction and chafing of the skin. (A, B, and C) reduce the effectiveness of the brace.

172. The nurse is managing the care of a client with Cushing's syndrome. Which interventions should the nurse delegate to the unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP)? (Select all that apply)

Weigh the client and report any weight gain. Report any client complaint of pain or discomfort. Note and report the client's food and liquid intake during meals and snacks.

615. The nurse weighs a 6-month-old infant during a well-baby check-up and determines that the baby's weight has tripled compared to the birth weight of 7 pounds 8 ounces. The mother asks if the baby is gaining enough weight. What response should the nurse offer?

What food does your baby usually eat in a normal day?

A male client with a history of chronic back pain that was managed with opiate analgesics calls the nurse after having back surgery. The client reports that the back pain is finally gone, but after stopping the pain medication, the client has been having severe diarrhea and painful muscle cramps. Which assessment information should the nurse obtain next?

When did the symptoms begin after the last dose of opiate analgesic? Moderate to severe opiate withdrawal manifests with moderate to severe vomiting, diarrhea, muscle cramps, and elevated blood pressures greater than 110 systolic or 70 diastolic. The onset of withdrawal for opiate analgesics typically coincides with the time of the next habitual drug dose at 4-6 hours and may last as long as 7 to 14 days, so determining the time of the last dose (D) pinpoints the relationship of opiate dependency and withdrawal symptoms.

54. The nurse administers an antibiotic to a client with respiratory tract infection. To evaluate the medication's effectiveness, which laboratory values should the nurse monitor? Select all that apply

White blood cell (WBC) count Sputum culture and sensitivity

272. Which client should the nurse assess frequently because of the risk for overflow incontinence? A client

Who is confused and frequently forgets to go to the bathroom

317. When planning care for a client with acute pancreatitis, which nursing intervention has the highest priority?

Withhold food and fluid intake.

The nurse obtains the pulse rate of 89 beats/minute for an infant before administering digoxin (Lanoxin). Which action should the nurse take?

Withhold the medication and contact the healthcare provider. Bradycardia is an early sign of digoxin toxicity, so if the infant's pulse rate is less than 100 beats/minute, digoxin should be withheld and the healthcare provider should be notified (D). Assessing the respiratory rate (A) is not indicated before administering Lanoxin. (B and C) place the infant at further risk for digoxin toxicity.

182. The healthcare provider prescribes the antibiotic Cefdinir (cephalosporin) 300mg PO every 12 h for a client with postoperative wound infections. Which feeds should the nurse encourage this client to eat?

Yogurt and/or buttermilk.

85. The healthcare provider prescribes the antibiotic cephradine 500mg PO every 6 hours for a client with a postoperative wound infection. Which foods should the nurse encourage this client to eat?

Yogurt and/or buttermilk.

499. When conducting diet teaching for a client who was diagnosed with hypoparathyroidism, which foods should the nurse encourage the client to eat?

Yogurt. Processed cheese.

Which statement by the community health nurse is most helpful to an adult who is in a crisis situation?

You seem to be more tense these days. Would you like to talk about the problem and how you are dealing with it?

A young adult female arrives at the emergency center with a black right eye and is bleeding from the left side of her head. She reports that her boyfriend has been abusing her physically. The nurse performs a history and physical examination. How should the nurse document these findings?

Young adult female presents with periorbital ecchymosis on right side, 3 cm laceration on left parietal area, approximately 1 cm deep with tissue bridging. States her boyfriend is abusive

533. An African-American man come into the hypertension screening booth at a community fair. The nurse finds that is blood pressure is 170/94 mmHg. The client tells the nurse that he has never been treated for high blood pressure. What response should the nurse make?

Your blood pressure is a little high. You need to have it rechecked within one week

420. The nurse is triaging clients in an urgent care clinic. The client with which symptoms should be referred to the health care provider immediately?

headache, photophobia, and nuchal rigidity

415. In planning strategies to reduce a client's risk for complications following orthopedic surgery, the nurse recognizes which pathology as the underlying cause of osteomyelitis?

infectious process

421. An adult male is brought to the emergency department by ambulance following a motorcycle accident. He was not wearing a helmet and presents with periorbital bruising and bloody drainage from both ears. Which assessment finding warrants immediate intervention by the nurse?

nausea and projectile vomit

Which documentation indicates that the nurse correctly evaluated a pain medication's effectiveness after administration? The client

reports decrease in pain.