Explanations from Incorrect EAQ Questions

The appearance of ulcers (called chancres) is the first sign of primary syphilis. These chancres commonly appear on the skin and mucous membranes such as the lips, hands, genitalia, nipples, mouth, anus, and rectum. Primary syphilis is a highly infectious stage that may be manifested by large, firm, and painless lymph nodes. The secondary stage of syphilis is characterized by patchy alopecia on the scalp and facial hair and is associated with a headache and sore throat. The presence of gummas on the mucous membranes such as the mouth is the manifestation of the tertiary stage of syphilis.

During an assessment, a nurse suspects that a client is in the primary stage of syphilis. Which findings support the nurse's conclusion? Select all that apply.

Fluphenazine is a high-potency medication used for schizophrenia. Loxapine and perphenazine are medium-potency medications used to treat schizophrenia. Thioridazine is a low-potency medication used to treat schizophrenia.

Which drug is a high-potency medication used to treat schizophrenia?

Chlorpromazine is an antipsychotic drug contraindicated in clients with blood dyscrasias. Duloxetine is an antidepressant drug contraindicated in clients with uncontrolled angle-closed glaucoma. Bupropion is an antidepressant drug contraindicated in clients with anorexia nervosa. Mirtazapine is an antidepressant drug contraindicated in clients who have allergic reactions due to drugs and concurrent use of monoamine oxidase inhibitors.

Which drug is contraindicated in clients with blood dyscrasias?

Orem's self-care deficit theory focuses on the client's self-care needs. According to Roy's theory, the goal of nursing is to help a person adapt to changes in physiological needs, self-concept, role function, and interdependent relations during health and illness. Watson's theory of transpersonal caring defines the outcome of nursing activity with regards to the humanistic aspects of life. The major concept of Leininger's theory is cultural diversity, with the goal of nursing care being to provide the client with culturally specific nursing care.

Which nursing theory focuses on the client's self-care needs?

Needle biopsy is an ambulatory surgical procedure. A fine needle is used to aspirate the contents of thyroid nodules to study the composition and ascertain the need for further surgical interventions. Mass spectrometry is an assay in which several different hormone concentrations can be simultaneously analyzed. Computed tomography scans are useful for evaluation of ovaries, adrenal glands, and the pancreas. The average blood glucose level over 2 to 3 months is revealed by a glycosylated hemoglobin test.

Which procedure is preferred to find out the composition of a thyroid nodule and ascertain the need for further surgical intervention in a client?

The primary causes of adrenal insufficiency are hemorrhage, tuberculosis, and acquired immune deficiency syndrome. Pituitary tumors and postpartum pituitary necrosis are the secondary cases of adrenal insufficiency.

. What are the primary causes of adrenal insufficiency? Select all that apply.

Somatostatin is a hormone produced by the pancreas that inhibits the release of insulin and glucagon. Oxytocin is a hormone produced by the posterior pituitary gland that acts on the uterus and mammary glands. Prolactin is a hormone produced by the anterior pituitary gland that targets the ovaries and mammary glands in women and testes in men. Calcitonin is a hormone produced by the thyroid gland that interacts with bone tissue. (got it right)

. Which hormone is released from the pancreas?

Because the cervix is closed, this is considered a threatened abortion. The lifeless products of conception are retained in a missed abortion. Once the cervix is dilated the abortion is inevitable. Portions of the products of conception will have to be passed for a diagnosis of incomplete abortion.

A client at 12 weeks' gestation arrives in the prenatal clinic complaining of cramping and vaginal spotting. A pelvic examination reveals that the cervix is closed. Which probable diagnosis should the nurse expect?

Acute dystonic reactions such as tremors, dyskinesia, and akathisia are observable side effects of fluphenazine therapy. There is a decrease, not an increase, in salivation with fluphenazine therapy. Rambling speech is not a side effect of this drug; nor is reluctance to converse.

A client has been receiving fluphenazine for several months. The nurse will assess the client for which side effects? Select all that apply.

Urinary tract infections, which can be caused by Escherichia coli, can predispose a client to developing osteomyelitis. Sickle cell disease also predisposes clients to osteomyelitis, but Salmonella is the causative microorganism. Intravenous drug use can predispose a client to osteomyelitis by increasing the risk of Salmonella infections. Insertion of indwelling prosthetic devices such as joint replacements can predispose a client to osteomyelitis by increasing the risk of Staphylococcus epidermidis infection.

A client has recently developed osteomyelitis. The client's laboratory reports show strains of Escherichia coli. What might be a possible reason for this condition?

Polymixin should be applied every 2-8 hours to keep the affected area moist. PolyMem, a dressing material containing silver granules, should be left in place for 7 days. Collagenase with polysporin powder can be applied once a day and can be used with barrier dressing such as xeroform. Acticoat should not be used with oil-based products.

A client with burns is prescribed polymixin by the primary healthcare provider. Which action should the nurse take?

Blackheads are noninflammatory open comedones. For such a condition, topical clindamycin is the drug of choice, and it is also safe for use during pregnancy. Tretinoin, isotretinoin, and doxycycline are contraindicated during pregnancy.

A pregnant adolescent seeks treatment for blackheads. Which drug would be safe for the adolescent?

Modafinil is a unique nonamphetamine stimulant used to treat shift-work sleep disorder (SWSD). This drug promotes wakefulness in clients suffering from excessive sleepiness associated with SWSD. Caffeine is a central nervous stimulant used to promote wakefulness, but this drug is not as effective in the treatment of SWSD. Atomoxetine is a nonstimulant used to treat attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD). Methylphenidate is considered the first choice drug for the treatment of attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD).

After assessing a client, the nurse suspects that the client has shift-work sleep disorder (SWSD). Which medication would be prescribed to the client?

Antianxiety medications have the potential for physiologic and psychological dependence; the nurse should teach the client about both the advantages and disadvantages of taking this drug. Physiologic or psychological dependence may develop, even when the dosage is controlled. Tolerance does develop and can lead to dependence.

An antianxiety medication is prescribed for an extremely anxious client. The client says, "I'm afraid to take this medication because I heard they're addictive." The nurse teaches the client that antianxiety medications have what properties?

Placing the infant flat will prevent complications from too-rapid reduction of intracranial fluid; placing the infant on the unaffected side will prevent pressure on the shunt valve. Placing the infant on the affected side will put pressure on the shunt valve, which may cause it to become obstructed, interfering with the outflow of cerebrospinal fluid. Raising the head of the bed will allow a too-rapid reduction in cerebrospinal fluid, which may cause the cerebral cortex to pull away from the dura, resulting in a subdural hematoma. Placing the infant on the affected side will put pressure on the shunt valve. Elevating the head to 90 degrees will permit too rapid a reduction in cerebrospinal fluid.

An infant with a diagnosis of hydrocephalus has just had a ventriculoperitoneal shunt inserted. In what position should the nurse place the infant?

Humidified cool air and hydration are essential to facilitating improvement in the child's physical status. Postural drainage is not effective with this disorder; oxygen is used only if the infant has severe dyspnea and hypoxia. Bronchodilators are not used, because the bronchial tree is not in spasm; cough suppressants are ineffective. Corticosteroids are ineffective; antibiotics are also ineffective, because the causative agent is viral.

An infant with bronchiolitis caused by respiratory syncytial virus (RSV) is admitted to the pediatric unit. What does the nurse expect the prescribed treatment to include?

Mastery of the concept of conservation of volume occurs between the ages of 9 and 12 years

At which age should the nurse assess the school-age client for mastery of the concept of conservation of volume?

Glaucoma is one of the side effects of imipramine, and the client should be taught about the symptoms. Tolerance is not an issue with tricyclic antidepressants such as imipramine. The other actions are true of monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs); imipramine is not an MAOI.

Imipramine, 75 mg three times per day, is prescribed for a client. What nursing action is appropriate when this medication is being administered?

1st gen antipsychotics have a higher risk of tardive dyskinesia (& other extrapyramidal reactions) compared to 2nd gen atypical antipsychotics

Loxapine & halopuridol are examples of 1st gen

When viewing family as context, the nurse mainly focuses on the client's comfort, hygiene, and nutritional needs. Family as context means focusing on the health and development of a client. When viewing family as a system, the nurse mainly focuses on assessing the resources available to the family. Family as system includes both family as context and family as a client. When viewing family as a client, the client's family comfort and nutritional needs are focused on, and the nurse determines the family's needs for rest and their stage of coping.

The nurse is assisting with the end-of-life care of an older adult. Which activity is performed when the nurse views family as context?

Correct1 Hypertension and bradycardia

The nurse is caring for a client with a spinal cord injury. Which assessment findings alert the nurse that the client is developing autonomic hyperreflexia (autonomic dysreflexia)?

Passive antibodies received from the mother will be diminished by age 8 weeks and will no longer interfere with the development of active immunity to most communicable diseases. The spleen does not produce antibodies. Infants often are exposed to infectious diseases. The viruses in immunizations are inactivated or attenuated; they may cause irritability and fever but will not cause the related disease.

The parent of a newborn asks a nurse why, except for hepatitis B vaccine, the immunization schedule does not start until the infant is 2 months old. How should the nurse respond?

The subcutaneous layer provides insulation and acts as an energy reservoir and mechanical shock absorber. The epidermal layer prevents systemic dehydration. The dermal layer provides cells for wound healing.

What are the functions of a client's subcutaneous layer of skin? Select all that apply.

Correct1 1 to 2 hours

What is the maximum amount of time the nurse should allow an older adult with a cerebrovascular accident (also known as "brain attack") to remain in one position?

Uveal tract

What is the middle layer of the eyeball?

Delusions are protective and can be abandoned only when the individual feels secure and adequate. Helping the client feel accepted by the staff is the only response directed at building the client's security and reducing anxiety. Protecting the client from environmental stress is almost impossible. A client cannot be argued out of a delusion. The client is unable to explain the reason for the feelings.

What should a nurse do when caring for a client whose behavior is characterized by pathologic suspicion?

Antiepileptic drugs are used to suppress mania associated with bipolar disorder (BPD). The three important antiepileptic drugs used to treat BPD are divalproex sodium, carbamazepine, and lamotrigine. Lithium is a mood stabilizing agent used to treat BPD, but it is not an antiepileptic drug. Quetiapine and ziprasidone are atypical antipsychotic drugs, which are used along with mood stabilizing agents to treat BPD.

Which antiseizure drugs are used to stabilize a client's mood by suppressing mania associated with bipolar disorder (BPD)? Select all that apply.

Bupropion is contraindicated in clients with eating and seizure disorders. Trazodone is contraindicated in clients with a known allergic reaction to this drug. Amitriptyline is contraindicated in clients who are pregnant and have known allergic reactions to this drug. Lithium citrate is contraindicated in clients with renal or cardiovascular disease.

Which drug is contraindicated in clients with eating and seizure disorders?

Isotretinoin is used for nodulocystic acne and may provide lasting remission. Imiquimod is a topical immunomodulator used to treat plantar warts. Clindamycin is a topical antibiotic used to treat acne vulgaris to suppress new lesions and minimize scarring. Corticosteroids are contraindicated because use of corticosteroids may cause flare-ups in clients with acne.

Which drug is prescribed for the client to treat severe nodulocystic acne?

Duloxetine is an antidepressant drug used to treat both generalized anxiety disorder and depression. Fluoxetine is used to treat depression. Bupropion is used to treat depression and also aid in smoking cessation. Mirtazapine is used in the treatment of depression and also helpful in reducing the adverse sexual side effects in the male client receiving selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors therapy.

Which drug is used to treat both generalized anxiety disorder and depression?

Serotonin reuptake inhibitors and serotonin/epinephrine reuptake inhibitors may lead to bruxism. Levomilnacipran is a serotonin/epinephrine reuptake inhibitor that may cause bruxism. Vilazodone is an atypical antidepressant that does not cause bruxism. Isocarboxazid is a monoamine oxidase inhibitor that does not cause bruxism. Clomipramine is a tricyclic antidepressant that does not cause bruxism.

Which drug may lead to bruxism?

Duloxetine is an antidepressant drug used in the treatment of generalized anxiety disorder. A contraindication is that it can worsen uncontrolled angle-closure glaucoma. Lithium carbonate is used to treat manic episodes but is contraindicated in clients with renal disease. Buspirone is an antidepressant drug contraindicated in clients with known allergic reactions to this drug. Chlorpromazine is an antipsychotic drug contraindicated in clients with blood dyscrasias.

Which drug worsens uncontrolled angle-closure glaucoma when used for the treatment of generalized anxiety disorder?

Ketoconazole and erythromycin increase clozapine levels in the blood by inhibiting P450 isoenzymes. Rifampin and phenytoin reduce clozapine levels in the blood by inducing cytochrome P450 isoenzymes. Bromocriptine is a direct dopamine receptor agonist that activates dopamine receptors.

Which drugs may cause an increase in the serum clozapine level? Select all that apply.

Water-soluble hormones have receptors on the surface of a target cell. Adrenaline is a water-soluble hormone. Lipid-soluble hormones have receptors inside the target cell. Estrogen, aldosterone, and hydrocortisone are lipid-soluble hormones.

Which hormone does the nurse state binds to the receptor site on the surface of a target cell?

Dermatophytosis is a fungal infection in which single or multiple patches appear on the skin. Furuncle is a bacterial infection in which small, tender, erythematous nodules filled with pus appear on the skin. Folliculitis is a bacterial infection in which erythematous pustules appear singly or in groups on the skin. Herpes zoster is a viral infection in which lesions are present on an erythematous base.

Which infection is caused due to fungus?

The Transtheoretical Model of Change model defines the changing patterns in an individual in five stages based on beliefs of readiness to change. They are precontemplation, contemplation, preparation, action, and maintenance. In the contemplation stage, the client recognizes the beneficial effects of the change and thinks about the change within 6 months. In the action stage, the client does not think; instead, he or she actively starts making changes. In the preparation stage, the client sets goals and intends to change in the next 60 days. In the maintenance stage, the client sustains the changed action for 6 months and follows preventive measures to prevent relapse.

While communicating with a client, the nurse determines that the client has realized the harmful effects of alcohol consumption and plans to stop drinking within 6 months. To what stage of Transtheoretical Model of Change does the nurse correlate the client's behavior?

The presence of glucose indicates that the drainage is cerebrospinal fluid (CSF); a sterile dressing prevents microbial contamination. Positioning the client so that the unaffected ear is dependent may cause retention of CSF and increase intracranial pressure. Pressure will promote retention of CSF and increase intracranial pressure. Attempts to clean the ear may cause microbial contamination; clean cotton balls are not sterile.

A client is admitted to the hospital for observation after an accident. The client is oriented to person, place, and time, and vital signs are within normal ranges. When performing an assessment, the nurse observes a clear, watery drainage oozing from the client's ear. What should be the nurse's first action?

A hypertensive crisis is not associated with extrapyramidal tract symptoms. Akathisia, characterized by restlessness and twitching or crawling sensations in the muscles, is an extrapyramidal side effect. Opisthotonos, characterized by hyperextension and arching of the back, is an extrapyramidal side effect. Oculogyric crisis, characterized by the uncontrolled upward movement of the eyes, is an extrapyramidal side effect.

A client is receiving haloperidol for agitation, and the nurse is monitoring the client for side effects. Which response identified by the nurse is unrelated to an extrapyramidal tract effect?

The Achilles tendon attaches the calf muscle to the heel. An inflammation to the Achilles tendon, Achilles tendonitis, may lead to pain in the posterior leg upon movement that worsens at rest. A frequent, audible crackling sound with palpable grating that accompanies movement is crepitus. Chronic joint inflammation and destruction resulting in stiffness is ankylosis. A contracture is a condition in which the muscles and joints become rigid due to fibrosis of the supporting soft tissues.

A client reports pain in the posterior part of the leg while walking that worsens upon rest. Which musculoskeletal abnormality is present in the client?

Potential adverse effects of the antipsychotic medication haloperidol include pseudoparkinsonism and urinary retention related to extrapyramidal syndrome. Tremors, ataxia (loss of control of body movement), and paresthesias are adverse effects of selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs), but not haloperidol. Likewise, endocrine effects such as a new Type 2 Diabetes mellitus diagnosis and syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) are not known to occur with haloperidol, but they are adverse effects of SSRIs.

A client with an organic mental disorder becomes increasingly agitated and abusive. The primary healthcare provider prescribes haloperidol. For which potential adverse effects will the nurse monitor this client?

Autonomy refers to the freedom of making choices and the responsibility for making those choices. A professional nurse can make independent decisions and plan nursing care for a client within the scope of the nursing practice. Authority refers to the legitimate power to give commands and make final decisions specific to a given position. Responsibility refers to duties and activities an individual is employed to perform. Accountability refers to individuals being answerable for their actions.

A nurse developed and implemented a discharge teaching plan based on the specific needs of a hospitalized client. Which element of decision-making does the primary nurse exhibit in this situation?

The sympathetic nervous system constricts the smooth muscle of blood vessels in the skin when a person is under stress, thereby causing skin pallor. The sympathetic system stimulates, rather than inhibits, secretion by the sweat glands. Constriction of pupils is not under sympathetic control; the parasympathetic system constricts the pupils. The parasympathetic system (vagus nerve) slows the pulse, and the sympathetic system increases it.

A nurse is caring for an anxious, fearful client. Which client response indicates sympathetic nervous system control?

Muscle coordination and perception are developed enough at 6 months for the infant to roll over. If unaware of this ability, the parent may leave the infant unattended for a moment to reach for something, making it possible for the infant to roll off an elevated surface. Sitting up unsupported is accomplished by most infants at 7 to 8 months. Crawling takes place around 9 months of age. Standing by holding on to furniture is accomplished by most infants between 8 and 10 months of age.

A nurse is teaching a parent how to prevent accidents while caring for a 6-month-old infant. What ability should be emphasized with regard to the infant's motor development?

The risk of stillbirth is very high in women who discontinue asthma medication during pregnancy. Down syndrome is a genetic disorder that is caused by the presence of an extra chromosome 21. Ebstein anomaly is a cardiac birth defect that is caused by lithium use during pregnancy. Intravenous administration of chloramphenicol during pregnancy may cause gray baby syndrome.

A woman with chronic asthma discontinues her medication during pregnancy. Which condition is likely to occur in the newborn?

Selegiline is a selective monoamine oxidase-B inhibitor. Phenelzine, isocarboxazid, and tranylcypromine are nonselective monoamine oxidase-A and monoamine oxidase-B inhibitors.

Which antidepressant drug is a selective monoamine oxidase-B inhibitor?

The temporal lobe consists of Wernicke's area of speech, which helps in the processing of words into coherent thought and in understanding written or spoken words. The limbic lobe is involved in regulating emotional patterns, learning, and memory. The frontal lobe is involved in reasoning, concentration, and abstraction. The parietal lobe helps in understanding sensory input, such as texture, size, shape, and spatial relationships.

Which area of the client's cerebral lobe is linked to Wernicke's area of speech?

Cellulitis is accompanied by lymphadenopathy. Occasional papules are present in folliculitis. Herpes simplex viral infections evolve the vesicles into pustules. Isolated erythematous pustules occur in folliculitis bacterial infections.

Which clinical manifestation is associated with cellulitis?

Pregnancy is contraindicated for ginseng herbal therapy. Schizophrenia, bipolar depression, and Alzheimer disease are contraindicated for St. John's Wort herbal therapy.

Which condition contraindicates the use of ginseng herbal therapy?

Psoriasis is a dermatologic problem treated by using intralesional corticosteroids. Cellulitis, erysipelas, and carbuncles are treated by using systemic antibiotics such as synthetic sulfur.

Which dermatologic problem is treated by using intralesional corticosteroids?

Citalopram (SSRI) is an example of a second-generation antidepressant drug. Doxepin, protriptyline, and trimipramine are examples of first-generation antidepressant drugs (ALL TCA's)

Which is a second-generation antidepressant drug?

Selegiline is a monoamine oxidase-B inhibitor used to treat Parkinson disease. Phenelzine, isocarboxazid, and tranylcypromine are nonselective inhibitors of both type A and B used in the treatment of depression.

Which monoamine oxidase inhibitor is used to treat Parkinson disease?

Benzodiazepines stimulate gamma-aminobutyric acid receptors, which reduces neuron excitability and produces an overall inhibitory effect. Apart from its indication in the treatment of depression, benzodiazepines are also prescribed for ethanol withdrawal, insomnia, and muscle spasms. Benzodiazepines are the drug of choice in acute and chronic anxiety disorders. Benzodiazepines act by depressing activity in the brainstem and limbic system.

Which statement about primary anxiolytic drugs requires correction?

The clinical symptoms of monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs) generally appears after 12 hours of ingestion. Circulatory collapse is associated with MAOI toxicity. Mydriasis, bradycardia, and hyperthermia are not associated with an isocarboxazid overdose.

Which toxic effect would the nurse find in a client who has overdosed on isocarboxazid?

A lesion with a wavy border indicates a serpiginous lesion. A lesion that is ringlike with raised borders around a flat, clear center indicates an annular lesion. A circular lesion indicates a circinate lesion. A lesion that merges with another and appears confluent indicates a coalesced lesion.

While assessing the skin of a client, the nurse observes a lesion that has a wavy border. Which type of lesion is present in the client?

Isotretinoin a potent and effective oral agent that is used to treat severe cystic acne when other treatments do not respond. It causes many multiple side effects that include aggressive behaviors and suicidal ideations. Minocycline is a systemic antibiotic that is more expensive and causes fewer gastrointestinal side effects. Celecoxib and meclofenamate are nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory agents that cause nausea, vomiting, and indigestion as side effects.

While caring for a client receiving medication therapy for acne, the nurse observes aggressive behaviors and suicidal ideations. Which medication may be responsible for the client's condition?

Drains usually are inserted into the splenic bed to facilitate removal of fluid that may lead to abscess formation. Splenectomy has a low mortality rate (5%) except when multiple injuries are present (15% to 40%). Bleeding occurs more commonly with splenic repair than with removal. Educating the client about the risks associated with surgery is the responsibility of the primary healthcare provider. There is no need to frighten the client unnecessarily.

A client is injured in a motor vehicle accident and is admitted to the critical care unit. Twelve hours later the client complains of increased abdominal pain in the left upper quadrant. A ruptured spleen is diagnosed, and an emergency splenectomy is scheduled. What should the nurse emphasize when preparing the client for surgery?

Tachycardia, hyperpyrexia, and tachypnea are indications of neuroleptic malignant syndrome, which is a life-threatening complication. Restraint of any type may worsen the client's anxiety and result in struggling and increased agitation. Photosensitivity occurs most commonly when clients are taking large doses and are spending time outdoors in the sun, but it is not life threatening. Tardive dyskinesia results from prolonged large doses of phenothiazines in susceptible clients, but it is not life threatening.

A client is started on chlorpromazine. To prevent life-threatening complications from the administration of this medication to an anxious, restless client, it is important that the nurse take which action? A: monitor clients VS

Torticollis is an acute dystonia that involves muscle spasms of the head and neck. Torticollis develops within 1 to 5 days after beginning therapy with a conventional antipsychotic. Tardive dyskinesia is involuntary repetitious tonic muscular spasms that involve the face, tongue, lips, limbs, and trunk. Tardive dyskinesia takes several months to years to develop after the start of therapy with a conventional antipsychotic. Pseudoparkinsonism is an extrapyramidal tract response that includes masklike facies, shuffling gait, pill-rolling tremors, stooped posture, and drooling. Pseudoparkinsonism develops within several days to 1 month after the start of therapy with a conventional antipsychotic. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome is a severe, potentially fatal (10%) response to conventional antipsychotics. It is believed to be caused by an acute reduction in brain dopamine activity, precipitating hyperthermia, tachycardia, tachypnea, unstable blood pressure, hypertonicity, dyskinesia, incontinence, decreased level of consciousness, and pulmonary congestion. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome can occur during the first week of therapy but often occurs later during therapy.

A client who has been taking a conventional antipsychotic for several days comes to the clinic complaining of neck spasms. The figure illustrates the client's physical status observed by the nurse. What extrapyramidal side effect has the client developed?

Clozapine is a second-generation antipsychotic drug. Myocarditis is a very rare side effect caused by clozapine. Seizures, sedation, and akathisia are common side effects of clozapine.

Which adverse effect is least likely to occur in a client who is prescribed clozapine?

A silver scaly plaque on the skin is due to psoriasis and is most commonly seen on the elbows and scalp. Hyperpigmented areas that vary in form and color are due to nevi. Spontaneously occurring raised or irregular-shaped wheals of varying size are usually due to urticaria. Non-inflammatory lesions, including open comedones and closed comedones, are due to acne vulgaris.

Which benign condition shows silver scaly plaques on the skin?

Clozapine is an atypical antipsychotic drug that is contraindicated in clients with bone marrow depression. Clozapine should be used with caution in clients with seizures. First-generation antipsychotics should be used with caution in clients with glaucoma. Ziprasidone is contraindicated in clients with a history of dysrhythmias.

Which client condition is contraindicated for prescribing clozapine?