FedEx FOM Rev 50 Quiz
18. [7901] In the event of an Emergency, the PIC and the aircraft Dispatcher must ensure the intended airport is listed in C070. A. An Emergency airport by its nature need not be listed in C070. B. Only for Domestic operations. C. Only for Flag operations. D. Only for Supplemental operations. Reference: FOM Chapt 02, 2.35
A
19. [7902] You are dispatched from KMEM to KFNT under domestic rules (both C070 airports). Enroute to KFNT, your dispatcher wants this flight to be rerouted to KALB (not a C070 airport) due to an aircraft down for MX. Is this reroute legal to perform? A. No. While operating under Flag or Domestic rules, except in the case of an emergency, scheduled flights will use only those airports listed in FedEx OpSpecs C070. B. Yes. While operating under Flag or Domestic rules, FedEx aircraft are allowed to use any airport necessary to complete the operation. Reference: FOM Chapt 02, 2.35
A
24. [7636] What is required to operate into a special airport when the visibility is less than 3 miles or the ceiling is less than 1000 FT above the lowest MEA, MOCA or initial approach altitude for the planned instrument approach? A. Either the Captain or the F/O must have made a takeoff and landing at that airport within the preceding 12 months, or the Captain must have reviewed (within the preceding 12 months) for that airport the FAA approved special airport qualification pages. B. Either the Captain or the F/O must have made a takeoff and landing at that airport within the preceding 6 months. C. Both the Captain and the F/O must have made a takeoff and landing at that airport within the preceding 6 months. D. Both the Captain and the F/O must have made a takeoff and landing at that airport within the preceding 12 months. Reference: FOM Chapt 03, 3.29
A
25. [7904] FDX90 PVG-ANC was dispatched with FAI as the alternate. The weather forecast for ANC is at CAT II minimums and FAI is above alternate minimums. The aircraft is NOT CAT II. Is this flight legal to depart PVG based upon the current forecast? A. Yes. B. No. Reference: FOM Chapt 03, 3.35
A
31. [7908] You are dispatching from MEM to BNA under domestic rules. BNA weather forecast indicates a 27 knot crosswind at your ETA for the intended landing runway. Is an alternate required? A. Yes. The forecast conditions require an alternate per the company restrictions (FOM 3.37). B. No. Company imposed restrictions can be waived and do not apply in this circumstance. Reference: FOM Chapt 03, 3.37
A
33. [7910] While operating AFW to IND, weather conditions did not require a destination alternate. While taxiing out at AFW the Dispatcher notifies the Captain that weather conditions at IND are now 2SM and 9OVC. Is the flight legal to continue? A. Yes. Alternate requirements are for dispatch release planning purposes only and do not apply once the flight has blocked out. B. No. Any time alternate requirements are not met the flight is not legal to depart. Reference: FOM Chapt 03, 3.37
A
34. [7911] You are dispatching from CDG-MXP. The lowest minimums for the LOC 17L are 560 feet with 1200m visibility. What are the lowest forecast weather conditions for which you do not need to list an alternate? A. For at least 1 hour before to 1 hour after ETA, the weather can be no lower than 2100 feet and 4800m. B. For at least 1 hour before to 1 hour after ETA, the weather can be no lower than 2000 feet and 4400m. C. For at least 1 hour before to 1 hour after ETA, the weather can be no lower than 2100 feet and 4400m. D. For at least 1 hour before to 1 hour after ETA, the weather can be no lower than 2000 feet and 4800m. Reference: FOM Chapt 03, 3.37
A
35. [7912] For domestic operations, marginal conditions are defined as: A. Destination airport is at applicable minimums for the anticipated approach and the first alternate is at alternate derived minimums at the ETA. B. Destination airport is forecast to be below minimums for the anticipated approach at ETA. C. Destination airport is forecast is less than 1000 feet overcast and 3 miles visibility at the ETA. D. Destination airport is forecast is less than 800 feet overcast and 2 miles visibility at the ETA. Reference: FOM Chapt 03, 3.37
A
38. [7915] Enroute on a planned re-dispatch under flag rules with no ALT required and two hours from the planned re-dispatch point your EFOB exceeds MINREQ. DEST FT indicates 2SM and 10BKN at ETA, may we re-dispatch as planned without listing an ALT? A. No - FOM 11.13 & 3.37 Re-dispatch Enroute. If a reanalysis of the WX conditions at the destination require an ALT for the second flight plan, one must be added. If the flight is 6 hours or less, FOM 3.37 can be used to determine ALT airport requirements. B. Yes - FOM 11.13 & 3.37 Re-dispatch Enroute. Since the flight has already dispatched, it is legal to continue to the destination based on the extended overwater exemption. Reference: FOM Chapt 03, 3.37
A
4. [7889] A Domestic air carrier: A. operates within the 48 contiguous states and the District of Columbia with a payload capacity of more than 7,500 lbs. B. can operate worldwide. C. operates within the 48 contiguous states and the state of Alaska with a payload capacity of more than 7,500 lbs. D. operates within the 48 contiguous states and the District of Columbia. Reference: FOM Chapt 01, 1.07
A
40. [7644] A takeoff alternate must meet the same weather requirements as the ____. A. Destination alternate. B. Non-precision approach minimums for the alternate airport. C. Destination weather. D. Departure weather. Reference: FOM Chapt 03, 3.41
A
42. [7919] FOD is defined as: A. non-regulatory fuel that is protected during dispatch planning of a flight with a minimum FOD on the Release of 55 minutes. B. a value derived from a table located in the Dispatch Handbook. C. fuel that must be onboard the aircraft upon arrival at destination. D. fuel required to climb from 200 feet to 1500 feet on a missed approach. Reference: FOM Chapt 03, 3.47
A
43. [7920] Missed approach fuel (MAF) will appear on: A. Domestic dispatch release with no alternate airport listed. B. Domestic dispatch release with an alternate airport listed. C. Supplemental flight release with no alternate airport listed. D. Supplemental flight release with an alternate airport listed. Reference: FOM Chapt 03, 3.47
A
47. [7924] When MAF appears in the fuels column of a Dispatch Release, one can assume: A. No alternate has been planned. B. An alternate has been planned. C. A remark on the release will explain the reason for MAF fuel inclusion. D. Weather at destination is marginal. Reference: FOM Chapt 03, 3.47
A
5. [7890] A Flag air carrier: A. operates between any points within the states of Alaska, Hawaii, possession of the U.S., or the 48 contiguous states, and any points outside of these utilizing aircraft with a payload capacity of more than 7,500 pounds. B. operates within the continents of North and South America utilizing aircraft with a payload capacity of more than 7,500 pounds. C. operates within the continents of North and South America utilizing aircraft with a payload capacity of more than 10,000 pounds. D. operates within and outside of the 48 contiguous states and the District of Columbia utilizing aircraft with a payload capacity of more than 7,500 pounds. Reference: FOM Chapt 01, 1.07
A
53. [7667] What is required when departing an airport without an operating control tower or from an airport without an operating terminal radar service? A. Fly a SID that does not require ATC vectors or fly the appropriate Obstacle Departure Procedure, if available. B. The Duty Officer or GOC will obtain a clearance for the flight crew and relay it via ACARS, SELCAL or AGRIS. C. RNAV procedures must be used. D. FedEx Express may only operate from a non-tower airport provided there are no MEL / CDL items listed on the Release. Reference: FOM Chapt 04, 4.31
A
55. [7671] When must the Captain make the takeoff? A. When the RVR is less than 1600 FT. B. When the RVR is at-or-above 2400 FT. C. When the RVR is less than 4000 FT. D. When a takeoff alternate is required. Reference: FOM Chapt 04, 4.51
A
63. [7689] What would prevent the flight crew from accepting a LAHSO clearance? A. If the performance software medium braking distance is greater than LAHSO LDG distance AVBL. B. If the performance software LO braking distance is greater than LAHSO LDG distance AVBL. C. If the autobrakes are inoperative. D. If the weather is less than 2000 FT / 3 miles. Reference: FOM Chapt 06, 6.25
A
64. [7690] If the landing data provided by the performance software In-flight Landing Performance module gives a total landing distance of 7,000 FT: A. The performance software assumes touchdown 1500 FT beyond the runway threshold, therefore the actual rollout distance on the runway surface is 5500 FT. B. The performance software assumes touchdown 2000 FT beyond the runway threshold, therefore the actual rollout distance on the runway surface is 5000 FT. C. The performance software assumes touchdown 1000 FT beyond the runway threshold, therefore the actual rollout distance on the runway surface is 6000 FT. D. The performance software does not consider touchdown beyond the threshold, therefore the actual rollout will be increased by the amount of runway overflown. Reference: FOM Chapt 06, 6.27
A
66. [7694] What is required if the Captain has not previously operated into an airport? A. The initial approach must be an instrument approach, however radar vectors with altitude assignments to final approach course are acceptable. B. The weather must be greater than 1000 FT / 3 miles. C. The Captain must review the Special Qualifications Airport Page. D. The approach must be monitored. Reference: FOM Chapt 06, 6.41
A
69. [7703] For arriving aircraft, which of the following is allowed inside the silhouette? A. Aircraft chocks. B. Movable aircrew stairs. C. Movable ground power unit. D. Aircraft tug (as long as it is manned). Reference: FOM Chapt 06, 6.75
A
72. [7712] What is the definition of severe wind shear? A. Any shear that results in airspeed changes greater than 15 knots, vertical speed changes greater than 500 fpm, or pitch attitude changes greater than 5 degrees. B. Any shear that results in airspeed changes greater than 15 knots, vertical speed changes greater than 500 fpm, or pitch attitude changes greater than 10 degrees. C. Any shear that results in airspeed changes greater than 15 knots, vertical speed changes greater than 1000 fpm, or pitch attitude changes greater than 5 degrees. D. Any shear that results in airspeed changes greater than 10 knots, vertical speed changes greater than 500 fpm, or pitch attitude changes greater than 5 degrees. Reference: FOM Chapt 08, 8.19
A
73. [7717] As a general rule, what do the maximum and minimum times on the holdover chart represent? A. The maximum time applies to light precipitation, and the minimum time applies to moderate precipitation. B. The maximum time applies to light precipitation, and the minimum time applies to heavy precipitation. C. The maximum time applies to heavy precipitation, and the minimum time applies to light precipitation. D. The holdover time regardless of precipitation. Reference: FOM Chapt 08, 8.45
A
77. [7934] What are the Emergency Fuels for each aircraft? A. 727 - 7,000; 757 - 5,000; 777 - 9,000; Airbus - 7,000; MD11 - 11,000 B. 727 - 5,000; 757 - 6,000; 777 - 9,000; Airbus - 7,000; MD11 - 11,000 C. 727 - 6,000; 757 - 4,000; 777 - 8,000; Airbus - 6,000; MD11 - 10,000 D. 727 - 5,000; 757 - 5,000; 777 - 9,000; Airbus - 7,000; MD11 - 11,000 Reference: FOM Chapt 09, 9.07
A
89. [7941] Supplemental operations flight time limitations are: A. 1000 hours in any calendar year and 100 hours in any 30 consecutive days B. 1200 hours in any calendar year and 32 hours in any 7 consecutive days C. 1000 hours in any 12 month period and 30 hours in any 7 consecutive days D. 1400 hours in any calendar year and 32 hours in any 7 consecutive days Reference: FOM Append B, B-6
A
94. [7743] If a maintenance problem occurs after push-back, crews should: A. Immediately notify Ramp Tower. B. Contact Maintenance immediately. C. Immediately return to the gate to allow other aircraft to pass. D. Consult the MEL prior to calling Ramp Tower to determine if it is necessary to return to the gate. Reference: FOM Append J, J-1
A
12. [7894] Under Domestic/Flag operations, responsibility for preflight planning, delay and dispatch release of a flight is: A. Shared by the PIC and the Director of Operations B. Shared by the PIC and the dispatcher C. Solely that of the Flight Operations Duty Officer D. Solely that of the PIC E. Shared by the PIC and the Duty Officer Reference: FOM Chapt 02, 2.25
B
2. [7887] A Provisional Airport: A. can only be used by an air carrier if an alternate airport is not available. B. is an airport approved for use by an air carrier for the purpose of providing scheduled service to a community when the regular airport serving the community is not available. C. is an airport for use by an air carrier if the airport's ARFF capabilities are not fully met at the time of dispatch. D. is an airport for use by an air carrier pending its formal approval for use by the FAA. Reference: FOM Chapt 01, 1.07
B
20. [7622] The sterile cockpit must be observed during critical phases of flight. Critical phases of flight are: A. Not applicable when a Check Airman is conducting a line check. B. All ground operations involving taxi, takeoff and landing and all other flight operations conducted below 10,000 FT except cruise flight. Critical phase of flight also includes 1000 FT prior to reaching the assigned altitude during climb or descent. C. Cruise altitude below 10,000 FT. D. All operations conducted within RVSM airspace. Reference: FOM Chapt 02, 2.71
B
22. [7630] Capts and FO's are required a minimum of ___hrs of Part 121 Line Operating Flt Time (including IOE Flt Time) for consolidation of knowledge & skills within ___days after satisfactory completion of a type rating or initial proficiency check. A. 100; 150 B. 100; 120 C. 75; 120 D. 100; 100 Reference: FOM Chapt 03, 3.13
B
23. [7634] In RVSM airspace operate TCAS in TA/RA mode, but limit climb and descent rates to _________fpm when operating within ________nm and __________ft vertically of other aircraft. A. 2000, 5, 2000. B. 1000, 5, 2000. C. 1000, 5, 1000. D. 1000, 5, 3000. Reference: FOM Chapt 03, 3.25
B
27. [7639] When flight planning, what may be accomplished when forecasts reflect visibility in fractions of a mile rather than RVR? A. The flight crew may use the RVR visibility conversion table with the Duty Officers approval. B. The flight crew may use the RVR visibility conversion table. C. Dispatch must be delayed until an RVR forecast is available. D. The flight crew may use the RVR visibility conversion table provided no conditional wording is listed within the forecast. Reference: FOM Chapt 03, 3.35
B
29. [7906] When dispatched under domestic operations, which weather conditions could exist at the destination airport that would not require an alternate to be listed on the flight release? A. If the destination airport is reporting that the visibility will be at least 2 miles and the ceiling will at least 3000 feet above airport elevation from one hour before and one hour after the ETA. B. If the destination airport is reporting that the visibility will be at least 3 miles and the ceiling will at least 2000 feet above airport elevation from one hour before and one hour after the ETA. C. For domestic operations an alternate airport is always required to be listed on the flight release. D. If the destination airport is reporting that the visibility will be at least 3 miles and the ceiling will at least 2000 feet above airport elevation from two hours before and two hours after the ETA. Reference: FOM Chapt 03, 3.37
B
32. [7909] KMEM-KSFO is dispatched with KSFO at destination minimums. The only legal alternate that allows you to carry the requested freight is at alternate minimums. Can you dispatch this flight with only one alternate? A. Yes. A second alternate is only required when using Exemption 3585. B. No. FOM 3.37 Alternate Airport: General Weather Requirements/Domestic Operations - Marginal Conditions. C. Yes. There is no requirement in this circumstance for an alternate per FOM 3.37. D. Yes. FOM 3.37 Alternate Airport: General Weather Requirements/Domestic Operations - Marginal Conditions. Reference: FOM Chapt 03, 3.37
B
36. [7913] You are en route from MEM-VCP (Campinas, Brazil) with GIG (Rio De Janeiro) as the alternate. A new forecast shows VCP at minimums for the anticipated approach and GIG is at alternate minimums. Are these considered marginal conditions? A. No. Marginal conditions do not apply to Domestic or Flag operations, however they do apply to Supplemental operations. B. No. Marginal conditions do not apply to Flag operations. C. Yes. Marginal conditions apply in all FedEx operations. D. Yes. Marginal conditions apply in both Domestic and Flag operations. Reference: FOM Chapt 03, 3.37
B
41. [7918] To comply with the FARs, when released under domestic operations and an alternate airport is not required, the flight must have enough fuel to: A. Fly to the destination airport, thereafter to fly for 60 minutes at normal cruising fuel consumption. B. Fly to the destination airport, thereafter to fly for 45 minutes at normal cruising fuel consumption. C. Fly to the destination airport, thereafter to fly for 30 minutes at normal cruising fuel consumption. D. Fly to the destination airport, thereafter to fly for a period of 10% of the original flight time to destination, thereafter fly for an additional 30 minutes at normal cruising fuel consumption. Reference: FOM Chapt 03, 3.47
B
45. [7922] Missed Approach Fuel (MAF) is: A. Maximum allowable fuel for takeoff B. Missed approach fuel to comply with FAR 121.647 Factors for computing fuel required. C. Minimum available fuel at touchdown. D. Minimum alternate fuel Reference: FOM Chapt 03, 3.47
B
51. [7657] After reviewing the ARD, maintenance is performed on the aircraft prior to blockout. May the flight legally depart without a new ARD? A. Yes, provided the time and initials of the Dispatcher is recorded in the remarks section of the Release. B. Yes, provided a discrepancy or check is recorded on the AML page, corrective action is accomplished and signed by the mechanic. This AML page and the existing ARD become the airworthiness release. C. No, the flight cannot depart. A new ARD must be delivered prior to block out. D. Yes, provided the mechanic removes any AML pages not accounted for on the ARD. Reference: FOM Chapt 04, 4.07
B
57. [7928] Time permitting, Captains will report the following occurrences to the aircraft Dispatcher: A. aircraft deviates more than 100 nautical miles from the flight planned route. B. All answers are correct. C. any conditions that affect flight safety. D. en route equipment failures that may cause a delay at the next station. Reference: FOM Chapt 05, 5.23
B
6. [7891] A Supplemental air carrier: A. operates charter or all-cargo operations utilizing aircraft with a payload capacity of more than 7,500 pounds under FAR Part 121 within the 48 contiguous states and the District of Columbia. B. operates charter or all-cargo operations utilizing aircraft with a payload capacity of more than 7,500 pounds under FAR Part 121 anywhere in the world. C. operates charter or all-cargo operations utilizing aircraft with a payload capacity of less than 7,500 pounds under FAR Part 121 anywhere in the world. D. operates charter or all-cargo operations utilizing aircraft with a payload capacity of more than 7,500 pounds under FAR Part 121 within the 48 contiguous states and the District of Columbia, Canada, and Mexico. Reference: FOM Chapt 01, 1.07
B
76. [7933] The Captain should advise ATC "MINIMUM FUEL" when: A. The total fuel remaining is equal to or less than 7000 lbs. B. The fuel supply has reached a state where upon reaching the destination he cannot accept any undue delay. C. The total fuel remaining is equal to or less than 9000 lbs. D. The fuel supply has reached the value stated on the dispatch release. Reference: FOM Chapt 09, 9.07
B
79. [7725] What is required if unknown or suspected hazardous odors / fumes are discovered? A. The flight crew should don their respective oxygen masks and descend below 10,000 feet before removing them. B. All aboard should don their respective oxygen masks (and goggles if appropriate) at 100% oxygen using positive pressure flow if necessary to purge smoke and fumes. The aircraft should then be ventilated and landed in accordance with current directives. C. The Captain shall immediately designate a crewmember to investigate the source. D. The flight crew should don their oxygen masks only if the fumes are causing discomfort. Reference: FOM Chapt 09, 9.21
B
83. [7737] Which statement is correct concerning FFDO authority? A. The FFDO has complete authority over the operation of the aircraft. B. The FFDO has limited law enforcement authority which does not supersede PIC authority. C. The PIC may direct and interfere with the FFDO during law enforcement duties. D. FFDO's may operate internationally. Reference: FOM Chapt 13, 13.19
B
88. [7940] According to FAR 121.481, the maximum flight hours during any seven consecutive days under Flag operations is: A. 28 B. 32 C. 30 D. No limit Reference: FOM Append B, B-6
B
93. [7742] If the PYLD figure on the Release ends in "10" (e.g. 125010), then the payload has been: A. Adjusted to include ballast fuel. B. Limited by GOC. C. Adjusted to include late bulk freight. D. Adjusted to include MFWF. Reference: FOM Append C, C-8
B
10. [7617] During times when various priorities of safety, legality, and reliability appear to be in conflict: A. It is the Captain's duty to remain focused on safety, and the F/O's duty to remain focused on reliability. B. It is the Captain's duty to keep GOC and the Duty Officer informed of any situation that might compromise reliability. C. It is the responsibility of all crewmembers in general, and the Captain in particular, to ensure that safety remains the primary focus. D. The Captain will ensure the schedule remains a priority. Reference: FOM Chapt 02, 2.03
C
11. [7619] A separate Flight Safety Report is required for each of the following events: A. Aircraft-to-ground communication failure, Bird/Wildlife strike, AML entry, TCAS TA. B. Aircraft structural damage or tail strike, Bird/Wildlife strike, Fuel dumping, Fuel service form discrepancy. C. Aircraft structural damage or tail strike, Bird/Wildlife strike, GPWS/Windshear escape maneuver, Route manual chart deficiency. D. Aircraft slide deployment, Bird/Wildlife strike, Exercise of Captain's emergency authority, Return to gate for maintenance. Reference: FOM Chapt 02, 2.15
C
15. [7898] C-070 airport definitions apply to the following types of operations: A. Supplemental B. Flag only C. Domestic and Flag D. Domestic only Reference: FOM Chapt 02, 2.35
C
21. [7623] When should the Runway Turn off, Taxi and Logo Lights be illuminated to make the aircraft more conspicuous to aircraft on final approach? A. Only for ground movement during night operations. B. When taxiing across any active runway. C. When entering a runway after being cleared for takeoff, or when taxiing to line up and wait. D. When the aircraft is moving under its own power. Reference: FOM Chapt 02, 2.83
C
3. [7888] A hurricane has damaged a Gulf coast airport where regularly scheduled service operates. A close by airport is activated and takes over this service for a period of time. The interim airport would be listed in C070 as a: A. Refueling B. Alternate C. Provisional D. Interim Reference: FOM Chapt 01, 1.07
C
30. [7907] Regardless of ceiling and visibility, if dispatched under flag operations an alternate airport must be listed on the dispatch release if: A. The control tower is closed at the ETA. B. The official braking action is expected to be "poor" at the ETA. C. All answers are correct. D. The destination airport has only one suitable runway, except for re-release. Reference: FOM Chapt 03, 3.37
C
49. [7651] What is required if a flight is designated as a "FLEX ROUTE"? A. Fly the scheduled route but do not block out more than 30 minutes early. B. Fly the scheduled route and check in with GOC over each fix and provide updates. C. Fly the scheduled route and time. D. Leave on time and request direct when possible. Reference: FOM Chapt 03, 3.49
C
56. [7672] What action should be taken if an engine failure occurs after the aircraft has departed the EO SID track? A. Return to the EO Departure Procedure. B. Fly the published SID. C. If IMC, obtain radar vectors from ATC for terrain clearance or if VMC, avoid terrain visually. D. Turn on the terrain mode of the radar and use it for navigation. Reference: FOM Chapt 04, 4.59
C
60. [7682] Approach briefings are meant to enhance communications, promote effective teamwork and ensure situational awareness. Therefore the briefings: A. Are only required if Terrain / CFIT risk are present or if the EGPWS is used. B. Are not required when flying a visual approach. C. Should be "brief and to the point". Brief only items that are unique to the planned arrival or approach, and that affect the safe/legal operation of the aircraft under the prevailing conditions. D. Must include ALL of the items listed in the FOM. Reference: FOM Chapt 06, 6.07
C
61. [7683] Which of the following will help reduce the chance of an overrun hazard? A. Excess Airspeed. B. Landing beyond the intended touch down point. C. Assessing the required landing distance to account for slippery or contaminated runway conditions or any other changed conditions existing at the time of landing. D. A non-stabilized approach. Reference: FOM Chapt 06, 6.10
C
62. [7688] Where can the flight crew find LAHSO procedures? A. The APC page. B. The AGC page. C. The AOI page. D. The associated IAC page. Reference: FOM Chapt 06, 6.25
C
65. [7692] A visual approach may be requested as an extension to an IFR clearance, provided: A. The flight crew can maintain visual contact with all traffic. B. The airport is not a Special Qualifications Airport. C. Visibility no lower 3 SM, ceiling 1000 FT or greater, maintains basic cloud clearance, within 35 NM of destination arpt, visual contact is maintained with traffic to follow or has and can maintain visual contact with the arpt throughout app and lndg. D. The weather is greater than 1000 FT / 3 miles, and the flight operates within 35 NM of the destination airport. Reference: FOM Chapt 06, 6.35
C
70. [7707] At or above FL 200 avoid strong storms by at least: A. 10 NM on the upwind side, 5 NM on the downwind side or 1 NM for every knot of wind and 5000 FT vertical clearance for overflight. B. 5 NM on the upwind side, 10 NM on the downwind side or 1 NM for every knot of wind and 5000 FT vertical clearance for overflight. C. 20 NM on the upwind side, 20 NM on the downwind side or 1 NM for every knot of wind whichever seems appropriate considering the severity of the storm and 5000 FT vertical clearance for overflight. D. 20 NM on the upwind side, 20 NM on the downwind side or 1 NM for every 10 knots of wind and 5000 FT vertical clearance for overflight. Reference: FOM Chapt 08, 8.13
C
71. [7711] What is the primary means of defense against windshear? A. Communication with ATC. B. Weather radar. C. Avoidance. D. Effective CRM. Reference: FOM Chapt 08, 8.19
C
78. [7935] You are 200 miles from landing and notice your current fuel total is 1000 lbs. above the amount given for your aircraft type in the Emergency Fuel Limit Table. You should: A. Emergency fuel does not apply in flag/domestic operations. B. Wait until you are at emergency fuel before notifying ATC. C. Declare an emergency, since emergency fuel is based on predicted fuel at touchdown. D. Wait until top of descent per the FOM. Reference: FOM Chapt 09, 9.07
C
8. [7893] Scheduled operations between any point within Alaska or Hawaii or any point within the 48 contiguous states or the DC and any point outside these, or between any point outside the U.S. and another point outside the U.S. defines: A. Charter Operations B. Domestic Operations C. Flag Operations D. Supplemental Operations Reference: FOM Chapt 01, 1.07
C
81. [7732] The Captain (PIC) is designated as the In-flight Security Coordinator (ISC). The ISC must prior to each flight, or series of flights with the same crewmembers, brief the following: A. Only Cockpit and Document security. B. Any pertinent security issues and information with the ramp manager. C. Operational Security, Law Enforcement, Cockpit Security, Document Security and review pertinent security information with the Ground Security Coordinator (GSC). D. All hazardous cargo documents. Reference: FOM Chapt 13, 13.3
C
84. [7738] What is required of the flight crew in any hijack situation? A. Send an ACARS message to GOC. B. Discussing the hijacking with the media is allowed with the approval of GOC. C. The flight crew shall protect the integrity of the flight deck and will use appropriate measures and available resources to thwart any attempted hijack. Once on the ground, the airplane must stay there. D. Select the transponder to 7500 for 3 minutes then select 7700 for the remainder of the flight. Reference: FOM Chapt 13, 13.25
C
86. [7937] Domestic operations duty limitations for less than 9 scheduled block hours are: A. 14 hours B. 9.5 hours C. 16 hours D. 15 hours Reference: FOM Append B, B-5
C
87. [7939] Flag flight hour limitations are: A. 1000 hours in any calendar year and 120 hours in any 30 consecutive days. B. 1200 hours during any 12 month period and 32 hours in any 7 consecutive days. C. 1000 hours during any 12 calendar month period and 32 hours in any 7 consecutive days. D. 1000 hours in any calendar year and 32 hours in any 7 consecutive days. Reference: FOM Append B, B-6
C
91. [7944] FAR 121.647 describes the need for which fuel? A. ALTN B. TOTAL C. CONT D. EXTRA Reference: FOM Append C, C-6
C
26. [7637] When considering the winds for release, which of the following is controlling? A. Steady state wind when both the latest reported and forecast winds are beyond limits, however gusts are controlling for planning purposes. B. Steady state winds are always controlling but gusts are advisory only. C. Steady state wind when either the latest reported or forecast winds are beyond limits. D. Steady state wind when both the latest reported and forecast winds are beyond limits, however gusts are not controlling for planning purposes but are controlling for the actual takeoff and landing. Reference: FOM Chapt 03, 3.35
D
28. [7905] In order for no alternate airport to be listed on the Dispatch Release for domestic operations, for a period between 1 hour before and 1 hour after the ETA, the weather at the destination airport must be: A. greater than 2000/3. B. equal to or better than circling minimums. C. a ceiling of NLT1500 feet above the lowest circling MDA or abv the lowest published instrument appr minimum or 2000 feet above the apt elevation, whichever is grtr, and a vis of at least 3 miles, or 2 miles more than the lowest applicable vis minimums. D. equal to or better than 2000/3. Reference: FOM Chapt 03, 3.37
D
37. [7914] You have been re-dispatched under Flag rules. Under what circumstances may either leg be released without listing an alternate? A. If one or both of these flight plans is not more than five hours, the flight may be dispatched without an alternate on one or both legs. B. Only the initial flight plan is not required to list an alternate airport, WX forecast permitting. However, a destination alternate must always be listed for the re-dispatch release. C. If one or both of these flight plans is not more than three hours, the flight may be dispatched without an alternate on one or both legs. D. If one or both flights are less than six hours, it's legal to use FOM 3.37 for ALT requirements. Upon reanalysis of the second flight plan, if the weather improves, it's legal to remove an ALT for the planned destination, if previously required. Reference: FOM Chapt 03, 3.37
D
39. [7643] A takeoff alternate is required when the departure airport weather is: A. Below 1000 FT / 3 miles. B. Below circling minimums. C. Below destination minimums. D. Below landing minimums. Reference: FOM Chapt 03, 3.41
D
44. [7921] Current minimum FOD requirements for planning are: A. None are correct. B. 55 minutes or a minimum of 15,000 lbs. for an MD10/11. C. 55 minutes of a minimum of 9,000 lbs. for an A300/310. D. 55 minutes. Reference: FOM Chapt 03, 3.47
D
46. [7923] When is MAF designated on the Dispatch Release in the fuels column? A. required on all flights. B. only when two or more alternates are required. C. charter flight only. D. only when no alternate is listed. Reference: FOM Chapt 03, 3.47
D
48. [7926] FOD is defined as: A. calculated at the destination. B. calculated at the alternate. C. must be onboard the aircraft upon arrival at destination. D. calculated at the maximum landing weight at 1500 feet above the airport. Reference: FOM Chapt 03, 3.47
D
50. [7653] Which of the following are all required amendments to the flight release prior to takeoff? A. Release is more than three hours old, MEL/CDL performance penalty fuel, additional late jumpseater, LMC freight, CAT status change. B. Release is more than three hours old, MEL/CDL performance penalty fuel, additional late jumpseater, de/anti-icing fluid type and concentration. C. MEL/CDL performance penalty fuel, additional late jumpseater, deteriorating weather forecast at destination. D. MEL/CDL performance penalty fuel, additional late jumpseater, fuel uplift, CAT status change. Reference: FOM Chapt 03, 3.49
D
52. [7666] Briefing information for an airport with non-tower operations may be supplied as: A. Briefing information is not required if the FOM is reviewed. B. Route manual insert; Photocopy of information placed in the trip folder; Information relayed from GOC with authority of the Duty Officer; Fax copy of information. C. Not required if either the Captain or F/O has operated into or out of the airport within the last 12 months. D. FedEx tailored APC page; Photocopy of information placed in the trip folder; Information relayed from GOC with authority of the Duty Officer. Reference: FOM Chapt 04, 4.31
D
54. [7670] Intersection or shortened runway takeoffs are: A. Authorized only for runways which are at least 7500 FT. B. Prohibited for FedEx Express wide body aircraft. C. Is only authorized if approved by the Director of Operations or his representative (Duty Officer). D. Authorized when airport performance data is calculated by the performance software using the available runway length. Reference: FOM Chapt 04, 4.49
D
59. [7930] The following will be reported to the aircraft dispatcher: A. All answers are correct. B. Aircraft deviates more than 100 nautical miles from the flight planned route, cruise altitude varies by 2000 feet or more from the flight plan, ATC holding (include EFC and estimated time and fuel on board when diversion will be required). C. Any condition that affects flight safety, Enroute equipment failures that cause a delay the next station, a revised ETA that differs by more than 10 minutes from reported ETA. D. Diversion, fuel dump, declaration of emergency. Reference: FOM Chapt 05, 5.23
D
67. [7697] When the airport is IMC, the aircraft is considered stable at 1000 FT above airport elevation when the airspeed is: A. Vref plus or minus 10 kts. B. No greater than Vapp + 20 kts and no less than Vref. C. No greater than Vref + 10 kts and no less than Vref. D. In accordance with the CFM with a variance of no greater than +10 knots and no less than -5 knots. Reference: FOM Chapt 06, 6.45
D
68. [7698] Once the decision has been made to descend below the minimum altitude for the approach, what important factor must be considered? A. The decision to continue should be based on instrumentation only. B. The decision to continue should be based on visual cues only. C. Since the flight crew has made the decision to land, no further decisions are necessary. D. The descent below the minimums for the approach is not a commitment to land. When a safe landing cannot be assured, the pilots must be prepared to execute a missed approach. Reference: FOM Chapt 06, 6.49
D
7. [7892] Domestic operations are defined as: A. scheduled operations between the 48 contiguous states or the District of Columbia. B. any operations within the 50 United States. C. scheduled operations within the 50 United States. D. scheduled operations solely within the 48 contiguous States of the United States or the District of Columbia with airplanes having a payload capacity of more than 7500 lbs. Reference: FOM Chapt 01, 1.07
D
80. [7726] What altitude should be maintained if a communications failure occurs in IFR weather conditions and IFR conditions persist after the failure? A. Maintain the last assigned altitude and wait for VFR conditions. B. Only the altitude/flight level assigned in the last ATC clearance. C. Proceed to the higher of the MSA / MOCA for the route segment being flown. D. The highest of the altitude/flight level assigned in the last ATC clearance received, the MEA specified for IFR operations, or the altitude/flight level ATC had advised may be expected in a further clearance. Reference: FOM Chapt 09, 9.23
D
82. [7736] FedEx Express policy does not permit personal firearms or weapons in or on company property, aircraft, vehicles or buildings: A. Unless authorization has been obtained from the Director of Operations or his representative. B. Except U.S. Secret Service Agents whose weapons must be empty and stowed in a suitable container. C. Under any circumstances. D. Unless authorized by Corporate Security. Reference: FOM Chapt 13, 13.17
D
85. [7936] Domestic operations flight hour limitations are: A. 1000 hours in any 12 month period B. 1200 hours in any calendar year C. 1400 hours in any calendar year D. 1000 hours in any calendar year Reference: FOM Append B, B-5
D
9. [7616] Any crewmember who observes a nonstandard procedure that has not been explained shall immediately: A. Record all deviations which are not standard and contact the Duty Officer. B. Assume control of the aircraft by stating "I have the aircraft". C. File a "Flight Safety Report". D. Communicate this deviation to the other crewmembers. Reference: FOM Chapt 02, 2.03
D
1. [7886] Refueling airports may serve to load and discharge cargo. Circle your choice: (True) or (False) Reference: FOM Chapt 01, 1.07
FALSE
14. [7897] Ops Specs C-070 classifies airports as Regular, Alternate, Company, and Refueling. Circle your choice: (True) or (False) Reference: FOM Chapt 02, 2.35
FALSE
74. [7931] Under domestic or flag rules, the aircraft Dispatcher may not exercise emergency authority. Circle your choice: (True) or (False) Reference: FOM Chapt 09, 9.03
FALSE
90. [7942] If a flight is dispatched under domestic or flag operations the flight release will state "MEM FEDEX IFR FLIGHT RELEASE": Circle your choice: (True) or (False) Reference: FOM Append C, C-2
FALSE
92. [7945] ADJ fuel is always included in FOD calculation. Circle your choice: (True) or (False) Reference: FOM Append C, C-6
FALSE
13. [7895] Either the PIC or the Aircraft Dispatcher may delay flight departure, but the decision to cancel a flight is the functional responsibility of GOC. Circle your choice: (True) or (False) Reference: FOM Chapt 02, 2.25
TRUE
16. [7899] In order to plan a flight under Domestic/Flag rules, the destination airport must be authorized for the aircraft type planned. Circle your choice: (True) or (False) Reference: FOM Chapt 02, 2.35
TRUE
17. [7900] When operating under domestic or flag rules, FDX is required to operate into airports listed in Ops Specs paragraph C070 except when emergency authority is invoked. Circle your choice: (True) or (False) Reference: FOM Chapt 02, 2.35
TRUE
58. [7929] A report to the aircraft Dispatcher is required when holding, including EFC, estimated time and FOB when diversion will be required. Circle your choice: (True) or (False) Reference: FOM Chapt 05, 5.23
TRUE
75. [7932] The Captain will declare "EMERGENCY FUEL" and report fuel remaining in minutes to ATC when predicted fuel at touchdown is equal to or less than the amount specified in the Emergency Fuel Limit Table. Circle your choice: (True) or (False) Reference: FOM Chapt 09, 9.07
TRUE
95. [7896] Inflight communications are satisfied fleetwide by ACARS and SATCOM. Anytime these methods of communication are unavailable, Atlanta Radio, ARINC and AGRIS (B-727) can be used as backup communications. Circle your choice: (True) or (False) Reference: FOM Append L, L-1
TRUE