FINAL

*32. Match the following actions with the appropriate responsibility regarding the delegation of nursing interventions: 1. UAP's statement, "I'll notify you of Mr. Smith's BP as soon as I take it so you can decide whether he gets his medication." 2. RN discusses the way the LPN handled a patient complaint 3. RN initially observes a newly hired LPN is changing a simple dressing a. Appropriate supervision b. Evaluation and reassessment c. Effective communication

1. C. Effective communication 2. B. Evaluation and reassessment 3. A. appropriate supervision

Ans: A, D, E One characteristic of violent families is social isolation. Members of these families keep to themselves and usually do not invite others into the home or tell them what is happening. If the client reports that the father was abusive during childhood, that would support the suspicion that the client is a victim of abuse. The abusive family member almost always holds a position of power and control over the victim. The abuser exerts not only physical power but also economic and social control. Substance abuse, especially alcoholism, has been associated with family violence.

1. The nurse is collecting assessment data on a client who is suspected to be a victim of violence. Which assessment data would support the suspicion that the client is a victim of abuse? Select all that apply. A) The client has few friends. B) The client holds a dominant role in the family. C) The client is in charge of the family finances. D) There is a moderate amount of alcohol use in the home. E) The client reports that the father was abusive during childhood.

Ans: C Intimate partner violence is the mistreatment or misuse of one person by another in the context of an emotionally intimate relationship. The relationship may be spousal, between partners, boyfriend, girlfriend, or an estranged relationship. Ninety to ninety- five percent of domestic violence victims are women. By deduction, this means that 5% to 10% of domestic violence victims are men. The abuse can be emotional or psychological, physical, sexual, or a combination (which is common). All abuse is harmful.

10. The client is talking to the nurse about her intimate relationships. Which one of the following statements regarding intimate partner violence is true? A) Males are never the victim in intimate partner violence. B) It is common for abusers to use one type of abuse only. C) Intimate partner violence can exist with former partners. D) Psychological abuse is not as harmful as physical abuse.

Ans: A Sixty-four percent of child maltreatment victims suffered neglect; 16% were physically abused; 8.8% were sexually abused; 6.6% were psychologically or emotionally abused; and 2.2% were medically neglected. Also, 15% suffered ìotherî types of maltreatment such as abandonment, physical threats, and congenital drug addiction.

11. The nurse is involved in a community education program for new parents and plans to include information on child abuse. The nurse will teach the parents that the most common form of child abuse is which of the following? A) Neglect B) Physical abuse C) Sexual abuse D) Emotional abuse

Ans: D Elders are often reluctant to report abuse, even when they can, because the abuse usually involves family members whom the elder wishes to protect. Victims also often fear losing their support and being moved to an institution.

12. A coherent elderly woman has been financially and emotionally abused by her adult children for the past several years, but has failed to report the abuse to anyone. Which is the most likely reason that the woman neglects to report the abuse? A) She cannot claim abuse if there is no evidence of physical harm. B) Laws do not provide protection against abuse when the suspect(s) is/are family members. C) She has no financial resources to hire legal representation against her children. D) She is emotionally close to her children and does not want to bring them harm.

Ans: A Only 20% of rapes are committed by strangers. A phenomenon called date rape (acquaintance rape) may occur on a first date, on a ride home from a party, or when the two people have known each other for some time. It is more prevalent near college and university campuses. The highest incidence is in girls and women 16 to 24 years of age. Rape most commonly occurs in a woman's neighborhood, often inside or near her home. Most rapes are premeditated.

13. A school nurse is educating a group of adolescent girls about rape and sexual assault. The nurse evaluates the students' understanding when they report which of the following as a high-risk factor regarding the incidence of rape? A) The highest incidence of rape occurs in adolescents and young adult women. B) Most rapes are committed by strangers. C) Most rapes are random acts of violence. D) A victim is at highest risk in unfamiliar neighborhoods.

Ans: A, B, C, E One third of abusive men are likely to have come from violent homes. Women who grew up in violent homes are 50% more likely to expect or accept violence in their own relationships. Dependency on the abuser is a common trait found in victims of domestic violence. The victim may believe that he or she caused the abuse, but this is not accurate. It is critical for the nurse to demonstrate acceptance after hearing about the abuse so that the victim may begin to gain self-acceptance.

14. Which of the following are common behavioral and emotional responses to abuse? Select all that apply. A) One third of abusive men are likely to have come from violent homes. B) Women who grew up in violent homes are 50% more likely to expect or accept violence in their own relationships. C) Dependency on the abuser is a common trait found in victims of domestic violence. D) The victim caused the abuse. E) It is critical for the nurse to demonstrate acceptance after hearing about the abuse so that the victim may begin to gain self-acceptance

Ans:B Encourage the client to talk about his or her experience(s); be accepting and nonjudgmental of the client's accounts and perceptions. Retelling the experience can help the client to identify the reality of what has happened and help to identify and work through related feelings. Do not imply that the client is responsible for the abuse.

15. A woman is in treatment for an anxiety disorder. Her history reveals that she was sexually abused repeatedly by her husband. Which of the following interventions would be appropriate in relation to this piece of data? A) Avoid discussing the abuse so not to upset her B)Encourage her to talk about her feeling related to the abuse C)Request an anxiolytic to reduce her anxiety levels D)Help her explore her role in perpetuating the abuse

Ans: C Warning signs of abused/neglected children include serious injuries such as fractures, burns, or lacerations with no reported history of trauma; delay in seeking treatment for a significant injury; the child or a parent giving a history inconsistent with severity of injury; inconsistencies or changes in the child's history during the evaluation by either the child or the adult; unusual injuries for the child's age and level of development, such as a fractured femur in a 2-month-old or a dislocated shoulder in a 2-year-old; high incidence of urinary tract infections; bruised, red, or swollen genitalia; tears or bruising of the rectum or vagina; and evidence of old injuries not reported, such as scars, fractures not treated, and multiple bruises that the parent/caregiver cannot explain adequately.

16. The pediatric nurse is caring for a 15-month-old child recently admitted to the hospital for a fractured femur. Which of the following data obtained during the assessment would raise the nurse's suspicion that the child has suffered physical abuse? A) The parents appearing overprotective of the child B) Bruises over the child's bony prominences C) The injury occurring several days before the parents sought treatment D) Both parents reporting the exact same details pertaining to the injurious event

Ans: A In the emergency setting, the nurse is an essential part of the team in providing emotional support to the victim. The nurse should allow the woman to proceed at her own pace and not rush her through any interview or examination procedures. Giving back to the victim as much control as possible is important. Ways to do so include allowing her to make decisions, when possible, about whom to call, what to do next, what she would like done, and so on.

17. A woman has just presented at the emergency department after being raped. The initial nursing action would be to A) provide emotional support. B) refer her to a rape crisis hotline. C) encourage her to file charges immediately. D) perform a nursing history and physical as quickly as possible.

Ans: D Many of the examination procedures, such as a pelvic exam, may cause the woman to feel violated again. The client needs emotional support and evidence collection as well as physical care. It would not be appropriate for the nurse to make decisions for this client.

18. The nurse is working in the emergency department with a woman who was raped 1 hour ago. Which of the following is most important for the nurse to remember when planning care? A) The client should set aside any angry feelings until physical care is completed. B) Evidence collection according to procedures is not as important as treating the client's injuries. C) The nurse will need to make decisions for this client. D) The woman may feel threatened by some of the procedures.

Ans: A If the client is injured, she may need immediate medical attention; if she is in a safe place, she can talk to the nurse on the phone. All other questions can wait until the client's safety is ensured.

19. A young woman telephones the emergency department and loudly tells the nurse, ìI've been raped! Please help me!î Which of the following is the priority for the nurse to determine? A) If the client was in a safe place, her condition, and if transportation is available B) If the client knew her assailant, knew her location, and had notified the police C) If the client has insurance, if she could get to the hospital by herself, and if pregnancy is a possibility D) If the client had bathed, douched, or changed clothes

Ans: B Battered immigrant women face legal, social, and economic problems different from US citizens who are battered and from people of other cultural, racial, and ethnic origins who are not battered: The battered woman may come from a culture that accepts domestic violence. She may believe she has less access to legal and social services than do US citizens. If she is not a citizen, she may be forced to leave the United States if she seeks legal sanctions against her husband or attempts to leave him. She is isolated by cultural dynamics that do not permit her to leave her husband; economically, she may be unable to gather the resources to leave, work, or go to school. Language barriers may interfere with her ability to call 911, learn about her rights or legal options, and obtain shelter, financial assistance, or food. The nurse must treat the whole person and encourage the client to share the details in order to protect the client's safety and well- being.

2. A young female immigrant presents in the rural health clinic with facial bruising and a fractured nose. The client is reluctant to give details of the nature of her injuries. Which of the following should be a consideration in providing care for this client? A) Most views regarding domestic violence are universal across cultures. B) She may fear deportation if she seeks public assistance. C) Immigrants have expedited access to public legal services. D) The nurse should ignore the details and focus on treatment.

Ans: C Feedback: In some instances, the parent feels the need to have children to replace his or her own faulty and disappointing childhood; the parent wants to feel the love between child and parent that he or she missed as a child. The reality of the tremendous emotional, physical, and financial demands that comes with raising children usually shatters these unrealistic expectations. When the parent's unrealistic expectations are not met, abuse often follows. Having a support system and a sense of discipline can contribute to effective parenting. Financial worries may be a concern, but relying on a baby to meet emotional needs is a high-risk dynamic for child abuse

20. The nurse is discussing expectations of raising a child with a pregnant teenager expecting her first baby. The father will not be a participant in the parenting. Which of the following statements made by the expectant mother would be of greatest concern to the nurse? A) ìI am going to rely on my sisters for a lot of help raising my baby.î B) ìI was raised with very strict discipline.î C) ìMy child will love me unlike my parents ever did.î D) ìI am not sure how I am going to pay for all the things my child will need.î

Ans: C Feedback: Warning signs of relationship violence include gets jealous for no reason; tells you with whom you may be friends or how you should dress, or tries to control other elements of your life; does not view you as an equal: sees himself as smarter or socially superior; is angry or threatening to the point that you have changed your life or yourself so you would not anger him.

21. The nurse at a university health services clinic has been asked to meet with a freshman class of women about warning signs of relationship violence. The nurse points out which of the following danger signs the students should be alert for in a date? A) Dislikes your fiends B) Acts indifferent to your life choices C) Is excessively jealous D) Views you as superior to himself

Ans: D Feedback: In tension building, the abuser attempts to establish complete control over all the person's actions. It is more appropriate for the nurse to listen to the client, rather than to judge whether the client is overreacting. This may or may not require a restraining order. The student's boyfriend is insecure and needs reassurance, but that is not the only concern.

23. A female college student comes to the counseling center and tells the nurse she is afraid of her boyfriend. She states, ìHe is so jealous and overprotective; he wants to know where I am and who I'm with every minute.î Which of the following is most likely true of the situation? A) The student is overreacting. B) This is a situation requiring a restraining order. C) The student's boyfriend is simply insecure and needs reassurance. D) This is characteristic of the tension-building phase of the violence cycle

Ans: D Feedback: Statistics indicate that violence increases when the victim attempts to leave or end the relationship. It is not appropriate for the nurse to offer advice such as this. It is not the victim's fault whether the victim stays or not. ìIf you leave, maybe he'll see that he has to change his behavior,î is not appropriate as it minimizes the situation.

23. The nurse is working with a client at the battered women's shelter who is in a violent and abusive relationship. The client is considering a separation and asks the nurse, ìWhat do you think about that?î Which is the best response by the nurse? A) ìBatterers never change, so it would be best for you to leave.î B) ìIf you don't leave, he'll think you're going to continue to endure his abuse.î C) ìIf you leave, maybe he'll see that he has to change his behavior.î D) ìYou may be in more physical danger after you leave him.î

Ans: A Feedback: The nurse should not assume the bruises were caused by abuse; the client's explanation is an important step in the assessment of potential abuse. A nurse must assess for abuse prior to getting the supervisor and physician involved. Reporting abuse would be initiated after a thorough assessment

24. The nurse is assessing an elderly female in the emergency department. There are many bruises present on her body in varying stages of healing. After documenting the bruising in the assessment, what should the nurse do next? A) Ask the client when and how the bruises occurred B) Call the nursing supervisor immediately C) Follow the facility's policy and procedures for reporting abuse D) Notify the physician that abuse is suspected

Ans: A Feedback: Nurses may believe that a woman who stays in an abusive relationship might deserve or enjoy the abuse or that abuse between husband and wife is private. The nurse may also feel horror or revulsion. Because clients often watch for the nurse's reaction, containing these feelings and focusing on the client's needs are important. The nurse must be prepared to listen to the client's story, no matter how disturbing, and support and validate the client's feelings with comments such as ìThat must have been terrifyingî or ìSounds like you were afraid for your life.î The nurse must remember that he or she cannot fix or change things; the nurse's role is to listen and convey acceptance and support for the client.

25. A nurse is working with a client who has a history of repeated abusive intimate relationships. The nurse has difficulty understanding why a woman would repeatedly enter into relationships with abusive partners. When working with this client, the nurse can best maintain a therapeutic relationship through which of the following approaches? A) Keeping focused on the client's feelings about her life situation B) Honestly asking the client why she repeats the cycles of victimization C) Convincing the client to develop a self-rescue plan D) Not prying into the details of the client's private life

Ans: A, C, D, B Feedback: The tension-building phase begins; there may be arguments, stony silence, or complaints from the husband. The tension ends in another violent episode after which the abuser once again feels regret and remorse and promises to change. This cycle continually repeats itself. Each time, the victim keeps hoping the violence will stop.

26. The school nurse is teaching a health class about recognizing the signs of abusive relationships. The nurse describes the cycle of violence. The nurse would document effective teaching if the students identify the cycle of violence to be which of the following patterns? Select the order in which the events occur. A. Tension building B. Honeymoon period C. Violent behavior D. Period of remorse

Ans: D Feedback: Elder abuse may develop gradually as the burden of care exceeds the caregiver's physical or emotional resources. Relieving the caregiver's stress and providing additional resources may help to correct the abusive situation and keep the caregiving relationship intact.

27. The community health nurse meets with the family members of an elderly client. The nurse includes which of the following in the plan of care as a preventive measure to guard against elder abuse? A) Reassure the primary caregiver that he or she in the best position to provide care to the elder B) Teach the primary caregiver skills to meet all of the elder's needs C) Assist in the transfer of legal authority for elder care to the primary caregiver D) Provide the primary caregiver with additional resources to meet the elder's needs

Ans: B The intergenerational transmission process shows that patterns of violence are perpetuated from one generation to the next through role modeling and social learning. Not all persons exposed to family violence, however, become abusive or violent as adults.

3. Which of the following is the best explanation for why family violence tends to occur over multiple generations of families? A) A tendency toward violence is hereditary. B) Family violence may be perpetuated between generations of families by role modeling and social learning. C) All persons who have become victims of family violence will grow up to perpetrate family violence. D) Family violence does not tend to have an intergenerational transmission process.

Ans: A, B, C, D Research studies have identified some common characteristics of violent families regardless of the type of abuse that exists. They include social isolation, abuse of power and control, alcohol and other drug abuse, intergenerational transmission. The victim does not instigate abuse.

4. Which of the following are common characteristics of violent families regardless of the type of abuse that exists? Select all that apply. A) Abuse of power and control B) Alcohol and other drug abuse C) Intergenerational transmission D) Social isolation E) Victim instigates

Ans: A, B, D, E Dependency is the trait most commonly found in abused wives who stay with their husbands. Women often cite personal and financial dependency as a reason why they find leaving an abusive relationship extremely difficult. The victim may suffer from low self-esteem and defines her success as a person by her ability to remain loyal to her marriage and ìmake it work.î Some women internalize the criticism they receive and mistakenly believe they are to blame. Women also fear their abuser will kill them if they try to leave. An abuser often has feelings of low self-esteem and poor problem-solving and social skills and may interpret any attempts at defense or any behavior of the abused person as abuse of the perpetrator.

5. Which of the following are common reasons why abused women remain with the abusive partner? Select all that apply. A) The abused person is personally and financially dependent on the abuser. B) The abused person has low self-esteem and defines her success as a person by the ability to make the relationship work. C) The abused person is convinced that she has been abusive toward the abuser at some point and that the abuse is her fault. D) The abused person believes that she is unable to function without her husband. E) The abused person is afraid that the abuser will kill her if she tries to leave.

Ans: A, B, C The perpetrator often believes that the partner is his own property. The perpetrator is often irrationally jealous, even of his own children if the partner pays any attention to them. The perpetrator is emotionally immature and needy. The perpetrator does not respect his partner because if he did, he would not believe that the partner is his own property to do with as he wishes. The perpetrator wants to maintain control over his partner and is therefore not intimidated by the partner but by the thought of the partner not being available.

6. Which of the following are typical characteristics of the perpetrator of intimate partner abuse? Select all that apply. A) The perpetrator often believes that the partner is his own property. B) The perpetrator is often irrationally jealous, even of his own children. C) The perpetrator is emotionally immature and needy. D) The perpetrator respects his partner. E) The perpetrator is intimidated by his partner.

Ans: A Nightmares and flashbacks are common in people who were abused as children regardless of their current age. The client may have ill effects irrespective of the age. The client will likely have low self-esteem. The client will likely have difficulty relating to anyone, including the nurse.

7. The nurse is caring for a 16-year-old boy with a history of sexual abuse. What might the nurse expect to assess with this client? A) The client will experience long-term emotional trauma. B) The client will have no ill effects due to his age. C) The client will have high self-esteem. D) The client will easily share his concerns with the nurse.

Ans: C Children who have sexual knowledge not expected at their age have often been sexually abused. A child who has been sexually abused by an adult may feel more comfortable with peers than with adults. Learning problems, shyness, and wearing dirty and threadbare clothing may be related to many situations other than sexual abuse.

8. Which of the following behaviors would first alert the school nurse or teacher to suspect sexual abuse in a 7-year-old child? A) The child has a preference for associating with peers, rather than adults. B) The child has learning problems and shyness. C) The child tells sexually explicit stories to peers. D) The child wears dirty and threadbare clothing

Ans: C An abusive husband often believes his wife belongs to him (like property) and becomes increasingly violent and abusive if she shows any sign of independence, such as getting a job or threatening to leave. Typically, the abuser has strong feelings of inadequacy and low self-esteem as well as poor problem-solving and social skills. He is emotionally immature, needy, irrationally jealous, and possessive. By bullying and physically punishing the family, the abuser often experiences a sense of power and control. Therefore, the violent behavior often is rewarding and boosts his self-esteem. A typical pattern of abuse exists: Usually, the initial episode of battering or violence is followed by a period of the abuser expressing regret, apologizing, and promising it will never happen again.

9. Which characteristic of the abuser should the nurse look for when completing the family assessment of a victim on intimate partner violence? A) Encourages the partner to have a life outside the intimate relationship B) An inflated sense of self-esteem C) Needy and possessive of the partner D) An ability to feel remorse for the abuse

A female patient tells the nurse that she thinks she has a vaginal infection because she has noted inflammation of her vulva and the presence of a frothy, yellow-green discharge. The nurse recognizes that the clinical manifestations described are typical of what vaginal infection? A) Trichomonas vaginalis B) Candidiasis C) Gardnerella D) Gonorrhea

A

A female patient with HIV has just been diagnosed with condylomata acuminata (genital warts). What information is most appropriate for the nurse to tell this patient? A) This condition puts her at a higher risk for cervical cancer; therefore, she should have a Papanicolaou (Pap) test annually. B) The most common treatment is metronidazole (Flagyl), which should eradicate the problem within 7 to 10 days. C) The potential for transmission to her sexual partner will be eliminated if condoms are used every time they have sexual intercourse. D) The human papillomavirus (HPV), which causes condylomata acuminata, cannot be transmitted during oral sex.

A

A nurse is caring for a pregnant patient with active herpes. The teaching plan for this patient should include which of the following? A) Babies delivered vaginally may become infected with the virus. B) Recommended treatment is excision of the herpes lesions. C) Pain generally does not occur with a herpes outbreak during pregnancy. D) Pregnancy may exacerbate the mothers symptoms, but poses no risk to the infant.

A

A nurse practitioner is examining a patient who presented at the free clinic with vulvar pruritus. For which assessment finding would the practitioner look that may indicate the patient has an infection caused by Candida albicans? A) Cottage cheese-like discharge B) Yellow-green discharge C) Gray-white discharge D) Watery discharge with a fishy odor

A

A patient comes to the free clinic complaining of a gray-white discharge that clings to her external vulva and vaginal walls. A nurse practitioner assesses the patient and diagnoses Gardnerella vaginalis. What would be the most appropriate nursing action at this time? A) Advise the patient that this is an overgrowth of normal vaginal flora. B) Discuss the effect of this diagnosis on the patients fertility. C) Document the vaginal discharge as normal. D) Administer acyclovir as ordered.

A

A patient with trichomoniasis comes to the walk-in clinic. In developing a care plan for this patient the nurse would know to include what as an important aspect of treating this patient? A) Both partners will be treated with metronidazole (Flagyl). B) Constipation and menstrual difficulties may occur. C) The patient should perform Kegel exercises 30 to 80 times daily. D) Care will involve hormone therapy to control the pain.

A

The nurse is caring for a 63-year-old patient with ovarian cancer. The patient is to receive chemotherapy consisting of Taxol and Paraplatin. For what adverse effect of this treatment should the nurse monitor the patient? A) Leukopenia B) Metabolic acidosis C) Hyperphosphatemia D) Respiratory alkalosis

A

The nurse is caring for a patient who has just been told that her ovarian cancer is terminal and that no curative options remain. What would be the priority nursing care for this patient at this time? A) Provide emotional support to the patient and her family. B) Implement distraction and relaxation techniques. C) Offer to inform the patients family of this diagnosis. D) Teach the patient about the importance of maintaining a positive attitude.

A

You are caring for a patient who has been diagnosed with genital herpes. When preparing a teaching plan for this patient, what general guidelines should be taught? A) Thorough handwashing is essential. B) Sun bathing assists in eradicating the virus. C) Lesions should be massaged with ointment. D) Self-infection cannot occur from touching lesions during a breakout.

A

21. A patient with suspected adrenal insufficiency has been ordered an adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) stimulation test. Administration of ACTH caused a marked increase in cortisol levels. How should the nurse interpret this finding? A) The patients pituitary function is compromised. B) The patients adrenal insufficiency is not treatable. C) The patient has insufficient hypothalamic function. D) The patient would benefit from surgery

A Feedback: An adrenal response to the administration of a stimulating hormone suggests inadequate production of the stimulating hormone. In this case, ACTH is produced by the pituitary and, consequently, pituitary hypofunction is suggested. Hypothalamic function is not relevant to the physiology of this problem. Treatment exists, although surgery is not likely indicated.

3. A patient with thyroid cancer has undergone surgery and a significant amount of parathyroid tissue has been removed. The nurse caring for the patient should prioritize what question when addressing potential complications? A) Do you feel any muscle twitches or spasms? B) Do you feel flushed or sweaty? C) Are you experiencing any dizziness or lightheadedness? D) Are you having any pain that seems to be radiating from your bones?

A Feedback: As the blood calcium level falls, hyperirritability of the nerves occurs, with spasms of the hands and feet and muscle twitching. This is characteristic of hypoparathyroidism. Flushing, diaphoresis, dizziness, and pain are atypical signs of the resulting hypocalcemia.

35. A patient with Cushing syndrome as a result of a pituitary tumor has been admitted for a transsphenoidal hypophysectomy. What would be most important for the nurse to monitor before, during, and after surgery? A) Blood glucose B) Assessment of urine for blood C) Weight D) Oral temperature

A Feedback: Before, during, and after this surgery, blood glucose monitoring and assessment of stools for blood are carried out. The patients blood sugar is more likely to be volatile than body weight or temperature. Hematuria is not a common complication.

28. Following an addisonian crisis, a patients adrenal function has been gradually regained. The nurse should ensure that the patient knows about the need for supplementary glucocorticoid therapy in which of the following circumstances? A) Episodes of high psychosocial stress B) Periods of dehydration C) Episodes of physical exertion D) Administration of a vaccine

A Feedback: During stressful procedures or significant illnesses, additional supplementary therapy with glucocorticoids is required to prevent addisonian crisis. Physical activity, dehydration and vaccine administration would not normally be sufficiently demanding such to require glucocorticoids.

23. A nurse works in a walk-in clinic. The nurse recognizes that certain patients are at higher risk for different disorders than other patients. What patient is at a greater risk for the development of hypothyroidism? A) A 75-year-old female patient with osteoporosis B) A 50-year-old male patient who is obese C) A 45-year-old female patient who used oral contraceptives D) A 25-year-old male patient who uses recreational drugs

A Feedback: Even though osteoporosis is not a risk factor for hypothyroidism, the condition occurs most frequently in older women.

1. The nurse is caring for a patient diagnosed with hypothyroidism secondary to Hashimotos thyroiditis. When assessing this patient, what sign or symptom would the nurse expect? A)Fatigue B) Bulging eyes C) Palpitations D) Flushed skin

A Feedback: Symptoms of hypothyroidism include extreme fatigue, hair loss, brittle nails, dry skin, voice huskiness or hoarseness, menstrual disturbance, and numbness and tingling of the fingers. Bulging eyes, palpitations, and flushed skin would be signs and symptoms of hyperthyroidism.

32. The nurse providing care for a patient with Cushing syndrome has identified the nursing diagnosis of risk for injury related to weakness. How should the nurse best reduce this risk? A) Establish falls prevention measures. B) Encourage bed rest whenever possible. C) Encourage the use of assistive devices. D) Provide constant supervision.

A Feedback: The nurse should take action to prevent the patients risk for falls. Bed rest carries too many harmful effects, however, and assistive devices may or may not be necessary. Constant supervision is not normally required or practicable.

10. You are developing a care plan for a patient with Cushing syndrome. What nursing diagnosis would have the highest priority in this care plan? A) Risk for injury related to weakness B) Ineffective breathing pattern related to muscle weakness C) Risk for loneliness related to disturbed body image D) Autonomic dysreflexia related to neurologic changes

A Feedback: The nursing priority is to decrease the risk of injury by establishing a protective environment. The patient who is weak may require assistance from the nurse in ambulating to prevent falls or bumping corners or furniture. The patients breathing will not be affected and autonomic dysreflexia is not a plausible risk. Loneliness may or may not be an issue for the patient, but safety is a priority.

13. A patient presents at the walk-in clinic complaining of diarrhea and vomiting. The patient has a documented history of adrenal insufficiency. Considering the patients history and current symptoms, the nurse should anticipate that the patient will be instructed to do which of the following? A) Increase his intake of sodium until the GI symptoms improve. B) Increase his intake of potassium until the GI symptoms improve. C) Increase his intake of glucose until the GI symptoms improve. D) Increase his intake of calcium until the GI symptoms improve.

A Feedback: The patient will need to supplement dietary intake with added salt during episodes of GI losses of fluid through vomiting and diarrhea to prevent the onset of addisonian crisis. While the patient may experience the loss of other electrolytes, the major concern is the replacement of lost sodium.

31. A patient is undergoing testing for suspected adrenocortical insufficiency. The care team should ensure that the patient has been assessed for the most common cause of adrenocortical insufficiency. What is the most common cause of this health problem? A) Therapeutic use of corticosteroids B) Pheochromocytoma C) Inadequate secretion of ACTH D) Adrenal tumor

A Feedback: Therapeutic use of corticosteroids is the most common cause of adrenocortical insufficiency. The other options also cause adrenocortical insufficiency, but they are not the most common causes.

14. A patient was treated in the emergency department and critical care unit after ingesting bleach. What possible complication of the resulting gastritis should the nurse recognize? A) Esophageal or pyloric obstruction related to scarring B) Uncontrolled proliferation of H. pylori C) Gastric hyperacidity related to excessive gastrin secretion D) Chronic referred pain in the lower abdomen

A Feedback: A severe form of acute gastritis is caused by the ingestion of strong acid or alkali, which may cause the mucosa to become gangrenous or to perforate. Scarring can occur, resulting in pyloric stenosis (narrowing or tightening) or obstruction. Chronic referred pain to the lower abdomen is a symptom of peptic ulcer disease, but would not be an expected finding for a patient who has ingested a corrosive substance. Bacterial proliferation and hyperacidity would not occur.

16. A patient is one month postoperative following restrictive bariatric surgery. The patient tells the clinic nurse that he has been having "trouble swallowing" for the past few days. What recommendation should the nurse make? A) Eating more slowly and chewing food more thoroughly B) Taking an OTC antacid or drinking a glass of milk prior to each meal C) Chewing gum to cause relaxation of the lower esophageal sphincter D) Drinking at least 12 ounces of liquid with each meal

A Feedback: Dysphagia may be prevented by educating patients to eat slowly, to chew food thoroughly, and to avoid eating tough foods such as steak or dry chicken or doughy bread. After bariatric procedures, patients should normally not drink beverages with meals. Medications or chewing gum will not alleviate this problem.

12. A patient presents to the walk-in clinic complaining of vomiting and burning in her mid-epigastria. The nurse knows that in the process of confirming peptic ulcer disease, the physician is likely to order a diagnostic test to detect the presence of what? A) Infection with Helicobacter pylori B) Excessive stomach acid secretion C) An incompetent pyloric sphincter D) A metabolic acid-base imbalance

A Feedback: H. pylori infection may be determined by endoscopy and histologic examination of a tissue specimen obtained by biopsy, or a rapid urease test of the biopsy specimen. Excessive stomach acid secretion leads to gastritis; however, peptic ulcers are caused by colonization of the stomach by H. pylori. Sphincter dysfunction and acid-base imbalances do not cause peptic ulcer disease.

2. A patient comes to the clinic complaining of pain in the epigastric region. What assessment question during the health interview would most help the nurse determine if the patient has a peptic ulcer? A) "Does your pain resolve when you have something to eat?" B) "Do over-the-counter pain medications help your pain?" C) "Does your pain get worse if you get up and do some exercise?" D) "Do you find that your pain is worse when you need to have a bowel movement?"

A Feedback: Pain relief after eating is associated with duodenal ulcers. The pain of peptic ulcers is generally unrelated to activity or bowel function and may or may not respond to analgesics.

40. A patient has come to the clinic complaining of pain just above her umbilicus. When assessing the patient, the nurse notes Sister Mary Joseph's nodules. The nurse should refer the patient to the primary care provider to be assessed for what health problem? A) A GI malignancy B) Dumping syndrome C) Peptic ulcer disease D) Esophageal/gastric obstruction

A Feedback: Palpable nodules around the umbilicus, called Sister Mary Joseph's nodules, are a sign of a GI malignancy, usually a gastric cancer. This would not be a sign of dumping syndrome, peptic ulcer disease, or esophageal/gastric obstruction.

38. A patient with gastritis required hospital treatment for an exacerbation of symptoms and receives a subsequent diagnosis of pernicious anemia due to malabsorption. When planning the patient's continuing care in the home setting, what assessment question is most relevant? A) "Does anyone in your family have experience at giving injections?" B) "Are you going to be anywhere with strong sunlight in the next few months?" C) "Are you aware of your blood type?" D) "Do any of your family members have training in first aid?"

A Feedback: Patients with malabsorption of vitamin B12 need information about lifelong vitamin B12 injections; the nurse may instruct a family member or caregiver how to administer the injections or make arrangements for the patient to receive the injections from a health care provider. Questions addressing sun exposure, blood type and first aid are not directly relevant.

28. Diagnostic imaging and physical assessment have revealed that a patient with peptic ulcer disease has suffered a perforated ulcer. The nurse recognizes that emergency interventions must be performed as soon as possible in order to prevent the development of what complication? A) Peritonitis B) Gastritis C) Gastroesophageal reflux D) Acute pancreatitis

A Feedback: Perforation is the erosion of the ulcer through the gastric serosa into the peritoneal cavity without warning. Chemical peritonitis develops within a few hours of perforation and is followed by bacterial peritonitis. Gastritis, reflux, and pancreatitis are not acute complications of a perforated ulcer.

8. A nurse in the postanesthesia care unit admits a patient following resection of a gastric tumor. Following immediate recovery, the patient should be placed in which position to facilitate patient comfort and gastric emptying? A) Fowler's B) Supine C) Left lateral D) Left Sim's

A Feedback: Positioning the patient in a Fowler's position postoperatively promotes comfort and facilitates emptying of the stomach following gastric surgery. Any position that involves lying down delays stomach emptying and is not recommended for this type of patient. Supine positioning and the left lateral (left Sim's) position do not achieve this goal.

3. A patient with a diagnosis of peptic ulcer disease has just been prescribed omeprazole (Prilosec). How should the nurse best describe this medication's therapeutic action? A) "This medication will reduce the amount of acid secreted in your stomach." B) "This medication will make the lining of your stomach more resistant to damage." C) "This medication will specifically address the pain that accompanies peptic ulcer disease." D) "This medication will help your stomach lining to repair itself."

A Feedback: Proton pump inhibitors like Prilosec inhibit the synthesis of stomach acid. PPIs do not increase the durability of the stomach lining, relieve pain, or stimulate tissue repair.

29. A nurse is performing the admission assessment of a patient whose high body mass index (BMI) corresponds to class III obesity. In order to ensure empathic and patient-centered care, the nurse should do which of the following? A) Examine one's own attitudes towards obesity in general and the patient in particular. B) Dialogue with the patient about the lifestyle and psychosocial factors that resulted in obesity. C) Describe one's own struggles with weight gain and weight loss to the patient. D) Elicit the patient's short-term and long-term goals for weight loss.

A Feedback: Studies suggest that health care providers, including nurses, harbor negative attitudes towards obese patients. Nurses have a responsibility to examine these attitudes and change them accordingly. This is foundational to all other areas of assessing this patient.

11. A patient who experienced an upper GI bleed due to gastritis has had the bleeding controlled and the patient's condition is now stable. For the next several hours, the nurse caring for this patient should assess for what signs and symptoms of recurrence? A) Tachycardia, hypotension, and tachypnea B) Tarry, foul-smelling stools C) Diaphoresis and sudden onset of abdominal pain D) Sudden thirst, unrelieved by oral fluid administration

A Feedback: Tachycardia, hypotension, and tachypnea are signs of recurrent bleeding. Patients who have had one GI bleed are at risk for recurrence. Tarry stools are expected short-term findings after a hemorrhage. Hemorrhage is not normally associated with sudden thirst or diaphoresis.

35. A patient has received a diagnosis of gastric cancer and is awaiting a surgical date. During the preoperative period, the patient should adopt what dietary guidelines? A) Eat small, frequent meals with high calorie and vitamin content. B) Eat frequent meals with an equal balance of fat, carbohydrates, and protein. C) Eat frequent, low-fat meals with high protein content. D) Try to maintain the pre-diagnosis pattern of eating.

A Feedback: The nurse encourages the patient to eat small, frequent portions of nonirritating foods to decrease gastric irritation. Food supplements should be high in calories, as well as vitamins A and C and iron, to enhance tissue repair.

A medical nurse is providing end-of-life care for a patient with metastatic bone cancer. The nurse notes that the patient has been receiving oral analgesics for her pain with adequate effect, but is now having difficulty swallowing the medication. What should the nurse do? A) Request the physician to order analgesics by an alternative route. B) Crush the medication in order to aid swallowing and absorption. C) Administer the patient's medication with the meal tray. D) Administer the medication rectally.

A A change in medication route is indicated and must be made by a physician's order. Many pain medications cannot be crushed and given to a patient. Giving the medication with a meal is not going to make it any easier to swallow. Rectal administration may or may not be an option.

5. Mandatory overtime and reduction in RN staff have resulted in decreased client satisfaction and a sentinel event. Management is unwilling to discuss a change in staffing, and collective bargaining interest is sparked. A nurse is approached to sign a union authorization card. If signed, the card: a. authorizes the union to serve as his or her legal representative. b. indicates that the person is requesting additional information about collective bargaining. c. indicates the nurse desires to share information about grievances. d. gives permission for union dues to be deducted from pay.

A A signature on a union authorization card indicates that the nurse gives the union the right to serve as legal representation. DIF: Comprehension REF: pp. 259-260

A nurse who sits on the hospital's ethics committee is reviewing a complex case that has many of the hallmarks of assisted suicide. Which of the following would be an example of assisted suicide? A) Administering a lethal dose of medication to a patient whose death is imminent B) Administering a morphine infusion without assessing for respiratory depression C) Granting a patient's request not to initiate enteral feeding when the patient is unable to eat D) Neglecting to resuscitate a patient with a "do not resuscitate" order

A Assisted suicide refers to providing another person the means to end his or her own life. This is not to be confused with the ethically and legally supported practices of withholding or withdrawing medical treatment in accordance with the wishes of the terminally ill individual. The other listed options do not fit this accepted definition of assisted suicide.

One aspect of the nurse's comprehensive assessment when caring for the terminally ill is the assessment of hope. The nurse is assessing a patient with liver failure for the presence of hope. What would the nurse identify as a hope-fostering category? A) Uplifting memories B) Ignoring negative outcomes C) Envisioning one specific outcome D) Avoiding an actual or potential threat

A Hope is a multidimensional construct that provides comfort as a person endures life threats and personal challenges. Uplifting memories are noted as a hope-fostering category, whereas the other listed options are not identified as such.

An adult oncology patient has a diagnosis of bladder cancer with metastasis and the patient has asked the nurse about the possibility of hospice care. Which principle is central to a hospice setting? A) The patient and family should be viewed as a single unit of care. B) Persistent symptoms of terminal illness should not be treated. C) Each member of the interdisciplinary team should develop an individual plan of care. D) Terminally ill patients should die in the hospital whenever possible.

A Hospice care requires that the patient and family be viewed as a single unit of care. The other listed principles are wholly inconsistent with the principles of hospice care.

The nurse in a pediatric ICU is caring for a child who is dying of sickle cell anemia. The child's mother has been unable to eat or sleep and can talk only about her impending loss and the guilt she feels about the child's pain and suffering. What intervention has the highest priority? A) Allowing the patient to express her feelings without judging her B) Helping the patient to understand the phases of the grieving process C) Reassuring the patient that the child's death is not her fault D) Arranging for genetic counseling to inform the patient of her chances of having another child with the disease

A Listening to the patient express her feelings openly without judging her is the highest priority. The nurse should not impose his or her own values on the patient. The nurse should also help the patient to understand the grieving process and use all the support systems that are available to assist her in coping with this situation. Genetic counseling may be appropriate at a later time.

The nurse is assessing a 73-year-old patient who was diagnosed with metastatic prostate cancer. The nurse notes that the patient is exhibiting signs of loss, grief, and intense sadness. Based on this assessment data, the nurse will document that the patient is most likely in what stage of death and dying? A) Depression B) Denial C) Anger D) Resignation

A Loss, grief, and intense sadness indicate depression. Denial is indicated by the refusal to admit the truth or reality. Anger is indicated by rage and resentment. Acceptance is indicated by a gradual, peaceful withdrawal from life.

A patient on the medical unit is dying and the nurse has determined that the family's psychosocial needs during the dying process need to be addressed. What is a cause of many patient care dilemmas at the end of life? A) Poor communication between the family and the care team B) Denial of imminent death on the part of the family or the patient C) Limited visitation opportunities for friends and family D) Conflict between family members

A Many dilemmas in patient care at the end of life are related to poor communication between team members and the patient and family, as well as to failure of team members to communicate with each other effectively. Regardless of the care setting, the nurse can ensure a proactive approach to the psychosocial care of the patient and family. Denial of death may be a response to the situation, but it is not classified as a need. Visitation should accommodate wishes of the family member as long as patient care is not compromised.

7. Physical therapists are represented by a union, nurses are represented by a separate union, and pharmacists have yet another union within a single agency. This type of union representation is known as: a. occupational unionism. b. industrial unionisms. c. union shop. d. power sharing.

A Occupational unionism indicates separate unions for each occupation in an agency. DIF: Comprehension REF: p. 257

A patient who is receiving care for osteosarcoma has been experiencing severe pain since being diagnosed. As a result, the patient has been receiving analgesics on both a scheduled and PRN basis. For the past several hours, however, the patient's level of consciousness has declined and she is now unresponsive. How should the patient's pain control regimen be affected? A) The patient's pain control regimen should be continued. B) The pain control regimen should be placed on hold until the patient's level of consciousness improves. C) IV analgesics should be withheld and replaced with transdermal analgesics. D) The patient's analgesic dosages should be reduced by approximately one half.

A Pain should be aggressively treated, even if dying patients become unable to verbally report their pain. There is no need to forego the IV route. There is no specific need to discontinue the pain control regiment or to reduce it.

The nurse is caring for a patient who has been recently diagnosed with late stage pancreatic cancer. The patient refuses to accept the diagnosis and refuses to adhere to treatment. What is the most likely psychosocial purpose of this patient's strategy? A) The patient may be trying to protect loved ones from the emotional effects of the illness. B) The patient is being noncompliant in order to assert power over caregivers. C) The patient may be skeptical of the benefits of the Western biomedical model of health. D) The patient thinks that treatment does not provide him comfort.

A Patients who are characterized as being in denial may be using this strategy to preserve important interpersonal relationships, to protect others from the emotional effects of their illness, and to protect themselves because of fears of abandonment. Each of the other listed options is plausible, but less likely.

14. A group of nurses are assembling outside a hospital protesting the use of foreign nurses after several nurses were terminated due to what the hospital called recurring "decreased census." The nurses carry signs with messages asking potential patients to seek care elsewhere. The local newspaper picked up the story, and the hospital is receiving negative press. The nurses are participating in: a. picketing. b. collective bargaining. c. a strike. d. arbitration.

A Picketing is a form of protest in which people (called picketers) congregate outside a place of work or location where an event is taking place. Often this is done in an attempt to dissuade others from going in ("crossing the picket line"), but it can also be done to draw public attention to a cause. DIF: Comprehension REF: p. 257

2. A nurse has been asked to serve as the charge nurse on the evening shift. The agency where the nurse is employed is considering unionization. If the charge nurse position is accepted, this nurse: a. can be represented by the union because charge nurses are not considered part of the management team. b. is part of the management team, so union participation would be a conflict of interest. c. can file a grievance that will be arbitrated automatically by the union. d. is ineligible for collective bargaining activities that deal with unfair labor practices.

A Serving as charge nurse is part of a nurse's professional role and not a management function. DIF: Comprehension REF: pp. 263-264

After contributing to the care of several patients who died in the hospital, the nurse has identified some lapses in the care that many of these patients received toward the end of their lives. What have research studies identified as a potential deficiency in the care of the dying in hospital settings? A) Families' needs for information and support often go unmet. B) Patients are too sedated to achieve adequate pain control. C) Patients are not given opportunities to communicate with caregivers. D) Patients are ignored by the care team toward the end of life.

A Studies have demonstrated that the health care system continues to be challenged when meeting seriously ill patients' needs for pain and symptom management and their families' needs for information and support. Oversedation, lack of communication, and lack of care are not noted to be deficiencies to the same degree.

A medical nurse is providing palliative care to a patient with a diagnosis of end-stage chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). What is the primary goal of this nurse's care? A) To improve the patient's and family's quality of life B) To support aggressive and innovative treatments for cure C) To provide physical support for the patient D) To help the patient develop a separate plan with each discipline of the health care team

A The goal of palliative care is to improve the patient's and the family's quality of life. The support should include the patient's physical, emotional, and spiritual well-being. Each discipline should contribute to a single care plan that addresses the needs of the patient and family. The goal of palliative care is not aggressive support for curing the patient. Providing physical support for the patient is also not the goal of palliative care. Palliative care does not strive to achieve separate plans of care developed by the patient with each discipline of the health care team.

You are caring for a 50-year-old man diagnosed with multiple myeloma; he has just been told by the care team that his prognosis is poor. He is tearful and trying to express his feelings, but he is having difficulty. What should you do first? A) Ask if he would like you to sit with him while he collects his thoughts. B) Tell him that you will leave for now but will be back shortly. C) Offer to call pastoral care or a member of his chosen clergy. D) Reassure him that you can understand how he is feeling.

A The most important intervention the nurse can provide is listening empathetically. Seriously ill patients and their families need time and support to cope with the changes brought about by serious illness and the prospect of impending death. The nurse who is able to listen without judging and without trying to solve the patient's and family's problems provides an invaluable intervention. The patient needs to feel that people are concerned with his situation. Leaving him does not show acceptance of his feelings. Offering to call pastoral care may be helpful for some patients, but should be done after you have spent time with the patient. Telling the patient that you understand how he is feeling is inappropriate because it does not help him express his feelings.

The nurse is caring for a patient who has terminal lung cancer and is unconscious. Which assessment finding would most clearly indicate to the nurse that the patient's death is imminent? A) Mottling of the lower limbs B) Slow, steady pulse C) Bowel incontinence D) Increased swallowing

A The time of death is generally preceded by a period of gradual diminishment of bodily functions in which increasing intervals between respirations, weakened and irregular pulse, and skin color changes or mottling may be observed. The patient will not be able to swallow secretions, so suctioning, frequent and gentle mouth care, and, possibly, the administration of a transdermal anticholinergic drug. Bowel incontinence may or may not occur.

C) physical injuries

A client has not been to work in three days. When she returns to work, she is wearing dark glasses. Facial and body bruises are visible. Her supervisor takes her to the occupational nurse. Which assessment is the priority for the nurse? A) coping mechanisms B) emotional distress C) physical injuries D) psychological trauma

C) emotional abuse

A community health nurse visits a home and finds a child who stayed home from school to care for a younger sibling. The nurse observes that the house is cluttered and dirty. When asked about the parents, the child states he does not think his father likes him because he calls him "stupid." The nurse suspects which type of abuse? A) physical abuse B) sexual abuse C) emotional abuse D) economic abuse

The nurse uses cognitive-behavioral approaches to assist the client with bulimia toward recovery. Which statement by the nurse would be consistent with this approach? A) ìIs there any way you can look at that sandwich as fuel for your body? B) ìYou have to eat in moderation for good nutrition. C) ìYou seem to have a really hard time controlling your eating patterns. D) ìIs this your way of showing your family that you can make decisions?

A) "Is there any way you can look at that sandwich as fuel for your body? CBT has been found to be the most effective treatment for bulimia. This outpatient approach often requires a detailed manual to guide treatment. Strategies designed to change the client's thinking (cognition) and actions (behavior) about food focus on interrupting the cycle of dieting, binging, and purging and altering dysfunctional thoughts and beliefs about food, weight, body image, and overall self-concept.

Which of the following statements by the nurse would be most appropriate to a colleague who very quietly and numbly tells the nurse that she had arrived at the scene of an automobile-pedestrian accident and unsuccessfully performed CPR on a victim 3 days ago? The nurse and her colleague are sitting in the break room and no one else is present. A) "Tell me what you saw." B) "That is horrible!" C) "Why did you perform CPR?" D) "I know how you feel; the same thing happened to me several years ago and I never recovered."

A) "Tell me what you saw." Feedback: One of the most effective ways of avoiding pathologic responses to trauma is effectively dealing with the trauma soon after it occurs. Describing what the colleague saw may be very helpful to him or her. "That is horrible," is a judgment and is not likely to be helpful. "Why did you perform CPR," might make the colleague feel defensive. "I know how you feel; the same thing happened to me several years ago and I never recovered," is nonsupportive and robs the colleague of any hope that he or she will recover.

Three years after the death of her father in an ICU, the infection prevention nurse was visiting an ICU in a different hospital to complete a chart review. At one point, the nurse looked at a bed where the patient who had the same diagnosis as her father had and saw her father's facial features on the patient and had a sense of panic. In a few moments, the nurse realized that the patient in the bed was not her father. Which of these manifestations of PTSD was this nurse experiencing? A) A flashback B) Emotional numbing C) Hyperarousal D) A dream

A) A flashback Feedback: This nurse was experiencing a flashback where similar circumstances triggered a sensation that the stressful experience were happening again.

8 A nurse is collecting assessment data from a premenopausal patient who states that she does not have menses. What term should the nurse use to document the absence of menstrual flow? A) Amenorrhea B) Dysmenorrhea C) Menorrhagia D) Metrorrhagia

A) Amenorrhea Feedback: Amenorrhea refers to absence of menstrual flow, whereas dysmenorrhea is painful menstruation. Menorrhagia, also called hypermenorrhea, is defined as prolonged or excessive bleeding at the time of the regular menstrual flow. Metrorrhagia refers to vaginal bleeding between regular menstrual periods.

34 A woman presents at the ED with sharp, colicky pain in her right abdomen that radiates to her right shoulder. She tells the nurse that she has been spotting lightly for the past few days. The patient is subsequently diagnosed with an ectopic pregnancy. What major nursing diagnosis most likely relates to this patient's needs? A) Anxiety related to potential treatment options and health outcomes B) Chronic sorrow related to spontaneous abortion C) Chronic pain related to genitourinary trauma D) Impaired tissue integrity related to keloid scarring

A) Anxiety related to potential treatment options and health outcomes Feedback: It is highly likely that the woman diagnosed with an ectopic pregnancy will experience intense anxiety. Pain and sorrow are also plausible, but are unlikely to become chronic. Impaired tissue integrity and keloid scarring are atypical.

A client who has an eating disorder is becoming dependent on the nurse for direction in food choices. Which approach by the nurse would demonstrate the nurse's self- awareness? A) Approach the client with an adult-like objectivity. B) Give the support and direction that the client is seeking. C) Give approval for positive changes seen in the client. D) Take care of the needs that the client is neglecting.

A) Approach the client with an adult-like objectivity. Avoid sounding parental when teaching about nutrition or why laxative use is harmful. Presenting information factually without chiding the client will obtain more positive results. Be empathetic and nonjudgmental, although this is not easy. Remember the client's perspective and fears about weight and eating. Do not label clients as ìgoodî when they avoid purging or eat an entire meal. Otherwise, clients will believe they are ìbadî on days when they purge or fail to eat enough food.

Which of the following are events that a person may experience, witness, or be confronted by that may trigger posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD)? Select all that apply. A) Being a survivor of a tsunami that resulted in thousands of deaths B) Being stranded at the office during a typical winter storm that was anticipated C) Being a marine in a combat situation where the entire platoon was wiped out except for one person D) Being hidden in a closet and hearing the entire family murdered by someone who broke into the home E) Watching televised segments of the moment when the plane hit the second tower on 9/11

A) Being a survivor of a tsunami that resulted in thousands of deaths C) Being a marine in a combat situation where the entire platoon was wiped out except for one person D) Being hidden in a closet and hearing the entire family murdered by someone who broke into the home E) Watching televised segments of the moment when the plane hit the second tower on 9/11 Feedback: Examples of events that may cause PTSD include someone experiencing, witnessing, or being confronted by a traumatic event such as a natural disaster, combat, or an assault. The person with PTSD was exposed to an event that posed actual or threatened death or serious injury and responded with intense fear, helplessness, or terror. Being a survivor of a tsunami that resulted in thousands of deaths, being a marine in a combat situation where the entire platoon was wiped out except for one person, and being hidden in a closet and hearing the entire family murdered by someone who broke into the house would be situations where the person was exposed to an event that posed actual or threatened death or serious injury and responded with intense fear, helplessness, or terror.

A 15-year-old female is admitted for treatment of anorexia nervosa. Which is a characteristic of anorexia nervosa? A) Body weight less than normal for age, height, and overall physical health B) Amenorrhea for at least two cycles C) Absence of hunger feelings D) Erosion of dental enamel

A) Body weight less than normal for age, height, and overall physical health Anorexia nervosa is a life-threatening eating disorder characterized by the client's refusal or inability to maintain a minimally normal body weight, intense fear of gaining weight or becoming fat, significantly disturbed perception of the shape or size of the body, and steadfast inability or refusal to acknowledge the seriousness of the problem or even that one exists. Clients with anorexia have a body weight that is less than the minimum expected weight, considering their age, height, and overall physical health. In addition, clients have a preoccupation with food and food-related activities and can have a variety of physical manifestations. Physical problems or anorexia nervosa include amenorrhea, constipation, overly sensitive to cold, lanugo hair on body, hair loss, dry skin, dental caries, pedal edema, bradycardia, enlarged parotid glands, hypothermia, and electrolyte imbalance. These clients do not lose their appetites. They still experience hunger but ignore it and signs of physical weakness and fatigue. Dental erosion is characteristic of bulimia nervosa.

A man is discovered wandering the street, looking confused and stepping out into traffic. When emergency responders approach the man, he cannot recall his name or where he lives. The responders transport the man to the mental health crisis unit for further evaluation. Which of the following are the man most likely suffering from? Select all that apply. A) Depersonalization disorder B) Dissociative identity disorder C) Repressed memories D) Dissociative amnesia E) False memory syndrome

A) Depersonalization disorder B) Dissociative identity disorder D) Dissociative amnesia Feedback: With dissociative amnesia, the client cannot remember important personal information. With dissociative personality disorder, the client displays two or more distinct identities or personality states that recurrently take control of his or her behavior. With depersonalization disorder, the client has persistent or recurring feeling of being detached from his or her mental processes or body (depersonalization) or sensation of being in a dream-like state where the environment seems foggy or unreal (derealization). The client is not psychotic or out of touch with reality. Repressed memories are when a person is unable to consciously recall memories of childhood abuse. False memory syndrome can occur during psychotherapy when the client is encouraged to imagine false memories of childhood sexual abuse.

10 A patient who is in the first trimester of pregnancy has experienced an incomplete abortion. The obstetric nurse should prepare the patient for what possible intervention? A) Dilation and evacuation B) Several days of bed rest C) Administration of hydromorphone D) IV administration of clomiphene

A) Dilation and evacuation Feedback: If only some of the tissue is passed, the abortion is referred to as incomplete. An emptying or evacuation procedure (D&C, or dilation and evacuation [D&E]) or administration of oral misoprostol (Cytotec) is usually required to remove the remaining tissue. Bed rest will not necessarily result in the passing of all the tissue. Clomiphene and hydromorphone are of no therapeutic benefit.

Which of the following should be an action of a nurse who is having feelings of judgment regarding a client's contributory behavior to an automobile accident that resulted in deaths? A) Discussing the nurse's personal feelings with a peer or a counselor B) Acknowledging the judgment regarding the client's contributory behavior to the client C) Sharing the client's horror and encouraging him or her to avoid thinking about it D) Letting the client know that he or she is now traumatized beyond repair

A) Discussing the nurse's personal feelings with a peer or a counselor Feedback: When the traumatized client causes a car accident that injured or killed others, it may be more challenging to provide unconditional support and withhold judgment of the client's contributory behavior. Remaining nonjudgmental of the client is important, but does not happen automatically. The nurse may need to deal with personal feelings by talking to a peer or counselor. If the nurse is overwhelmed by the violence or death in a situation, the client's feelings of being victimized to traumatized beyond repair are confirmed. Conveying empathy and validating client's feelings and experiences in a calm, yet caring professional, manner are more helpful than sharing the client's horror.

Which of the following would be most supportive for family and friends of a client with an eating disorder? A) Emotional support, love, and attention. B) Focus on food intake, calories, and weight. C) Unlimited access to unhealthy foods that the client enjoys. D) Positive reinforcement for weight gain.

A) Emotional support, love, and attention. The nurse explains to family and friends that they can be most helpful by providing emotional support, love, and attention. They can express concern about the client's health, but it is rarely helpful to focus on food intake, calories, and weight. Eating disorders can be viewed on a continuum with clients with anorexia eating too little or starving themselves, clients with bulimia eating chaotically, and clients with obesity eating too much.

1 A school nurse is presenting information on human development and sexuality. When describing the role of hormones in sexual development, which hormone does the nurse teach the class is the most important one for developing and maintaining the female reproductive organs? A) Estrogen B) Progesterone C) Androgens D) Follicle-stimulating hormone

A) Estrogen Feedback: Estrogens are responsible for developing and maintaining the female reproductive organs. Progesterone is the most important hormone for conditioning the endometrium in preparation for implantation of the fertilized ovum. Androgens, secreted by the ovaries in small amounts, are involved in the early development of the follicle and affect the female libido. Follicle-stimulating hormone is responsible for stimulating the ovaries to secrete estrogen.

The nurse understands that which biologic factors may influence the development of an eating disorder? Select all that apply. A) Family history of eating disorders B) Dysfunction of the hypothalamus C) Norepinephrine imbalances D) First-degree relatives with psychotic disorder E) Decreased serotonin levels

A) Family history of eating disorders B) Dysfunction of the hypothalamus C) Norepinephrine imbalances E) Decreased serotonin levels Studies of anorexia nervosa and bulimia nervosa have shown that these disorders tend to run in families, or it may directly involve a dysfunction of the hypothalamus. A family history of mood or anxiety disorders (e.g., obsessive-compulsive disorder) places a person at risk for an eating disorder. Low norepinephrine levels are seen in clients during periods of restricted food intake. Also, low epinephrine levels are related to the decreased heart rate and blood pressure seen in clients with anorexia. Low levels of serotonin as well as low platelet levels of monoamine oxidase have been found in clients with bulimia and the binge and purge subtype of anorexia nervosa.

When preparing a client with bulimia for discharge, the nurse suggests that the client and family continue with family therapy on an outpatient basis. Which of the following is the rationale for this suggestion? A) Family members often need to learn role independence and autonomy. B) Family members need to learn to monitor for signs of client relapse. C) Family relationships need to be strengthened due to a lifetime of disengagement. D) Family members often feel jealous of the attention the client has been receiving in treatment.

A) Family members often need to learn role independence and autonomy. Dysfunctional relationships with significant others often are a primary issue for clients with eating disorders. In addition, support groups in the community or via the internet can offer support, education, and resources to clients and their families or significant others.

27 The nurse is working with a couple who have been unable to conceive despite more than 2 years of trying to get pregnant. The couple has just learned that in vitro fertilization (IVF) was unsuccessful and they are both tearful. What nursing diagnosis is most likely to apply to this couple? A) Hopelessness related to failed IVF B) Acute confusion related to reasons for failed IVF C) Compromised family coping related to unsuccessful IVF D) Moral distress related to unsuccessful IVF

A) Hopelessness related to failed IVF Feedback: Although further assessment is undoubtedly necessary, it is likely that the couple will be experiencing hopelessness at the news that a potentially promising intervention has failed. Acute confusion denotes a cognitive deficit, not a sense of despair. Sadness at this news is not necessarily suggestive of impaired coping. Moral distress is unlikely because this is not a situation involving morality.

40 A 21-year-old woman has sought care because of "heavy periods" and has subsequently been diagnosed with menorrhagia. The nurse should recognize which of the following as the most likely cause of the patient's health problem? A) Hormonal disturbances B) Cervical or uterine cancer C) Pelvic inflammatory disease D) A sexually transmitted infection (STI)

A) Hormonal disturbances Feedback: Menorrhagia is prolonged or excessive bleeding at the time of the regular menstrual flow. In young women, the cause is usually related to endocrine disturbance. In later life, it usually results from inflammatory disturbances, tumors of the uterus, or hormonal imbalance. STIs, pelvic inflammatory disease, and cancer are less likely causes.

The nurse is teaching a client with bulimia to use self-monitoring techniques. Which client statement would let the nurse know that this has been effective? A) ìI am learning to recognize events and emotions that trigger my binges and am working on responses other than binging and purging.î B) ìI am beginning to understand how my lack of self-control is hurting me.î C) ìI am keeping a record of everything I eat and how I am feeling every day.î D) ìI am getting more comfortable confronting people when I have conflict with them.

A) I am learning to recognize events and emotions that trigger my binges and am working on responses other than binging and purging. Self-monitoring is a cognitive-behavioral technique designed to help clients with bulimia. The nurse encourages clients to keep a diary of all food eaten throughout the day, including binges, and to record moods, emotions, thoughts, circumstances, and interactions surrounding eating and binging or purging episodes. In this way, clients begin to see connections between emotions and situations and eating behaviors. The nurse can then help clients to develop ways to manage emotions such as anxiety by using relaxation techniques or distraction with music or another activity.

Which of the following is true about the use of touch with a client with dissociative identity disorder? A) It is best not to touch the client without his or her permission. B) Make sure the client knows the touch is friendly and supportive. C) Touch the client only if you are in his or her direct line of vision. D) Touching will convey a sense of security to the client.

A) It is best not to touch the client without his or her permission. Feedback: Clients interpret touch differently, so it is important to assess each client's comfort with being touched; these clients often have a history of abuse, so permission should be given before touch is used.

18 An adolescent is brought to the clinic by her mother because of abnormal uterine bleeding. The nurse should understand that the most likely cause of this dysfunctional bleeding pattern is what? A) Lack of ovulation B) Chronic vaginitis C) A sexually transmitted infection D) Ectopic pregnancy

A) Lack of ovulation Feedback: Dysfunctional uterine bleeding can occur at any age, but is most common at opposite ends of the reproductive life span. It is usually secondary to anovulation (lack of ovulation) and is common in adolescents. It is not suggestive of vaginitis, an STI, or ectopic pregnancy.

Which factors may contribute to the frequency of eating disorders in adolescents? Select all that apply. A) Media portrayal of slimness as an ideal B) Body dissatisfaction in adolescent females C) Stress-free existence of adolescents D) Body image disturbance E) Seeking autonomy F) Seeking to develop a unique identity

A) Media portrayal of slimness as an ideal B) Body dissatisfaction in adolescent females D) Body image disturbance E) Seeking autonomy F) Seeking to develop a unique identity Two essential tasks of adolescence are the struggle to develop autonomy and the establishment of a unique identity. In families in which enmeshment exists, adolescents begin to control their eating through severe dieting and thus gain control over their weight. Adolescent girls who express body dissatisfaction are most likely to experience adverse outcomes. The need to develop a unique identity, or a sense of who one is as a person, is another essential task of adolescence. It coincides with the onset of puberty, which initiates many emotional and physiologic changes. Self-doubt and confusion can result if the adolescent does not measure up to the person she or he wants to be. Advertisements, magazines, and movies that feature thin models reinforce the cultural belief that slimness is attractive. Body image disturbance occurs when there is an extreme discrepancy between one's body image and the perceptions of others and extreme dissatisfaction with one's body image.

38 The nurse is working with a patient who expects to begin menopause in the next few years. What educational topic should the nurse prioritize when caring for a healthy woman approaching menopause? A) Patient teaching and counseling regarding healthy lifestyles B) Referrals to local support groups C) Nutritional counseling regarding osteoporosis prevention D) Drug therapy options

A) Patient teaching and counseling regarding healthy lifestyles Feedback: The individual woman's evaluation of herself and her worth, now and in the future, is likely to affect her emotional reaction to menopause. Patient teaching and counseling regarding healthy lifestyles, health promotion, and health screening are of paramount importance. This broad goal of fostering healthy lifestyles transcends individual topics such as drug treatment, support groups, and osteoporosis prevention.

23 A 15-year-old girl is brought to the clinic by her mother to see her primary care provider. The mother states that her daughter has not started to develop sexually. The physical examination shows that the patient has no indication of secondary sexual characteristics. What diagnosis should the nurse suspect? A) Primary amenorrhea B) Dyspareunia C) Vaginal atrophy D) Secondary dysmenorrhea

A) Primary amenorrhea Feedback: Primary amenorrhea (delayed menarche) refers to the situation in which young women older than 16 years of age have not begun to menstruate but otherwise show evidence of sexual maturation, or in which young women have not begun to menstruate and have not begun to show development of secondary sex characteristics by 14 years of age. In secondary dysmenorrhea, pelvic pathology such as endometriosis, tumor, or pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) contributes to symptoms. Dyspareunia is painful intercourse and vaginal atrophy would not contribute to the delayed onset of puberty.

A client is seeking counseling due to difficulty coping with being a victim of a violent attack 16 months ago. The initial medical diagnosis is to rule out posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD). Which would the nurse assess for when determining the major elements of PTSD? Select all that apply. A) Reexperiencing the trauma through dreams or recurrent and intrusive thoughts B) Showing emotional numbing such as feeling detached from others C) Being on guard, irritable, or experiencing hyperarousal D) Feeling mildly anxious E) Occurs 2 weeks after the trauma

A) Reexperiencing the trauma through dreams or recurrent and intrusive thoughts B) Showing emotional numbing such as feeling detached from others C) Being on guard, irritable, or experiencing hyperarousal Feedback: The three major elements of PTSD are reexperiencing the trauma through dreams or recurrent and intrusive thoughts, showing emotional numbing such as feeling detached from others, and being on guard, irritable, or experiencing hyperarousal. Feeling mildly anxious is not a major element of PTSD as the person is likely to feel very anxious. Occurring 2 weeks after the trauma would likely be acute stress disorder as PTSD symptoms occur 3 months or more after the trauma.

30 A couple has come to the infertility clinic because they have been unable to get pregnant even though they have been trying for over a year. Diagnostic tests are planned for the woman to ascertain if ovulation is regular and whether her endometrium is adequately supported for implantation. What test would the nurse expect to have ordered for this woman? A) Serum progesterone B) Abdominal CT C) Oocyte viability test D) Urine testosterone

A) Serum progesterone Feedback: Diagnostic studies performed to determine if ovulation is regular and whether the progestational endometrium is adequate for implantation may include a serum progesterone level and an ovulation index. None of the other listed tests is used to investigate infertility.

A fireman survived a fire after escaping a blaze. Several other firefighters were trapped in the burning building and died. After working with this firefighter in counseling, the nurse evaluates which of the following as positive outcomes for this client? Which will the nurse evaluate as positive outcomes for this client? Select all that apply. A) The client will verbalize feelings of stress related to returning to work. B) The client will express guilt openly through nondestructive means. C) The client will identify a social support system within the community. D) The client will report nightmares and flashbacks of the fire.

A) The client will verbalize feelings of stress related to returning to work. B) The client will express guilt openly through nondestructive means. C) The client will identify a social support system within the community. Feedback: Treatment outcomes for clients who have survived trauma or abuse may include verbalizing feelings, expressing emotions nondestructively, and establishing a social support system in the community. An absence of stress is an unrealistic outcome. Reporting symptoms of PTSD such as nightmares and flashbacks does not indicate positive treatment outcomes.

The police find a woman wandering around a parking lot, singing very loudly. They bring her to the hospital; she has no knowledge of what she has been doing for the past 12 hours and is dressed in unfamiliar clothing. This is an example of A) dissociation. B) manipulation. C) psychosis. D) regression.

A) dissociation. Feedback: The client experienced a temporary alteration in conscious awareness. This situation is not an example of manipulation. The woman is not experiencing psychosis. Regression occurs when there is a retreat to an earlier stage of development and comfort.

Following a recent history of dyspareunia and lower abdominal pain, a patient has received a diagnosis of pelvic inflammatory disease (PID). When providing health education related to self-care, the nurse should address which of the following topics? Select all that apply. A) Use of condoms to prevent infecting others B) Appropriate use of antibiotics C) Taking measures to prevent pregnancy D) The need for a Pap smear every 3 months E) The importance of weight loss in preventing symptoms

A, B

39. A nurse is presenting a class at a bariatric clinic about the different types of surgical procedures offered by the clinic. When describing the implications of different types of surgeries, the nurse should address which of the following topics? Select all that apply. A) Specific lifestyle changes associated with each procedure B) Implications of each procedure for eating habits C) Effects of different surgeries on bowel function D) Effects of various bariatric surgeries on fertility E) Effects of different surgeries on safety of future immunizations

A, B, C Feedback: Different bariatric surgical procedures entail different lifestyle modifications; patients must be well informed about the specific lifestyle changes, eating habits, and bowel habits that may result from a particular procedure. Bariatric surgeries do not influence the future use of immunizations or fertility, though pregnancy should be avoided for 18 months after bariatric surgery.

19 The nurse is planning the sexual assessment of a new adolescent patient. The nurse should include what assessment components? Select all that apply. A) Physical examination findings B) Laboratory results C) Health history D) Interpersonal skills E) Understanding of menopause

A, B, C Feedback: A sexual assessment includes both subjective and objective data. Health and sexual histories, physical examination findings, and laboratory results are all part of the database. A sexual assessment would not normally include the patient's interpersonal skills. It is not likely to necessary to assess an adolescent's understanding of menopause.

A public health nurse is participating in a campaign aimed at preventing cervical cancer. What strategies should the nurse include is this campaign? Select all that apply. A) Promotion of HPV immunization B) Encouraging young women to delay first intercourse C) Smoking cessation D) Vitamin D and calcium supplementation E) Using safer sex practices

A, B, C, E

20 By initiating an assessment about sexual concerns what does the nurse convey to the patient? Select all that apply. A) That sexual issues are valid health issues B) That it is safe to talk about sexual issues C) That sexual issues are only a minor aspect a person's identity D) That changes or problems in sexual functioning should be discussed E) That changes or problems in sexual functioning are highly atypical

A, B, D Feedback: By initiating an assessment about sexual concerns, the nurse communicates to the patient that issues about changes or problems in sexual functioning are valid and significant health issues. The nurse communicates that it is safe to talk about sexual issues and that changes or challenges in sexual function are not unusual.

A nurse who provides care on an acute medical unit has observed that physicians are frequently reluctant to refer patients to hospice care. What are contributing factors that are known to underlie this tendency? Select all that apply. A) Financial pressures on health care providers B) Patient reluctance to accept this type of care C) Strong association of hospice care with prolonging death D) Advances in "curative" treatment in late-stage illness E) Ease of making a terminal diagnosis

A, B, D Physicians are reluctant to refer patients to hospice, and patients are reluctant to accept this form of care. Reasons include the difficulties in making a terminal prognosis (especially for those patients with noncancer diagnoses), the strong association of hospice with death, advances in "curative" treatment options in late-stage illness, and financial pressures on health care providers that may cause them to retain rather than refer hospice-eligible patients.

18. Mandatory overtime and reduction in RN staff have resulted in decreased client satisfaction and a sentinel event. Management is unwilling to discuss a change in staffing, and collective bargaining interest is sparked. During the pre-election period, what actions by management are prohibited? (select all that apply) a. Seek individuals to spy on coworkers who are possible union supporters. b. Photograph employees participating in information sessions about unionization. c. Visit managers outside work to gain their perception of popularity of unionization. d. Threaten that, should the union win, the company will relocate when there is no intention to relocate. e. Require employees to declare their position on unionization prior to pick up paychecks.

A, B, D, E During the pre-election period, management may not solicit spying. During the pre-election period, management may not photograph employees engaged in union activities. During the pre-election period, management may not lie about what will happen if the union is the victor in an election. During the pre-election period, management may not question employees about their preferences regarding union activity. DIF: Comprehension REF: p. 261

16. A hospital refused to purchase a better grade of utility gloves, even after learning that the cheaper utility gloves are easily punctured during routine use. This unsafe situation led nurses to seek unionization. During the pre-election phase for unionization, which actions by union representatives are prohibited by the National Labor Relations Board? (select all that apply) a. Scheduling a meeting in the agency's cafeteria to determine employees' interest in unionization b. Distributing nondocumented information that female nurses receive lower annual performance evaluations than do male nurses c. Distributing information about the benefits of unionization and grievances in a public parking garage located across from the hospital d. Suggesting to workers the likelihood of job loss should the union not win the election e. Signing authorization cards for employees who are on leave

A, B, D, E Union representatives must meet in nonwork areas. Union representatives must not spread rumors of prejudices. Neither the union nor employers can spread falsehood about potential job loss or repercussion in the event of unionization. Union representatives cannot sign cards for employees. DIF: Application REF: p. 259

26 The nurse is assessing a 53-year-old woman who has been experiencing dysmenorrhea. What questions should the nurse include in an assessment of the patient's menstrual history? Select all that apply. A) "Do you ever experience bleeding after intercourse?" B) "How long is your typical cycle?" C) "Did you have any sexually transmitted infections in early adulthood?" D) "When did your mother and sisters get their first periods?" E) "Do you experience cramps or pain during your cycle?"

A, B, E Feedback: Menstrual history addresses such factors as the length of cycles, duration and amount of flow, presence of cramps or pain, and bleeding between periods or after intercourse. Family members' menarche and prior STIs are not likely to affect the patient's current cycles.

33. A patient with Cushing syndrome has been hospitalized after a fall. The dietician consulted works with the patient to improve the patients nutritional intake. What foods should a patient with Cushing syndrome eat to optimize health? Select all that apply. A) Foods high in vitamin D B) Foods high in calories C) Foods high in protein D) Foods high in calcium E) Foods high in sodium

A, C, D Feedback: Foods high in vitamin D, protein, and calcium are recommended to minimize muscle wasting and osteoporosis. Referral to a dietitian may assist the patient in selecting appropriate foods that are also low in sodium and calories.

11. The nurse is performing a shift assessment of a patient with aldosteronism. What assessments should the nurse include? Select all that apply. A) Urine output B) Signs or symptoms of venous thromboembolism C) Peripheral pulses D) Blood pressure E) Skin integrity

A, D Feedback: The principal action of aldosterone is to conserve body sodium. Alterations in aldosterone levels consequently affect urine output and BP. The patients peripheral pulses, risk of VTE, and skin integrity are not typically affected by aldosteronism.

A patient with end-stage liver disease has developed hypervolemia. What nursing interventions would be most appropriate when addressing the patient's fluid volume excess? Select all that apply. A. Administering diuretics B. Administering calcium channel blockers C. Implementing fluid restrictions D. Implementing a 1500 kcal/day restriction E. Enhancing patient positioning

A. Administering diuretics B. Administering calcium channel blockers E. Enhancing patient positioning Rationale: Administering diuretics, implementing fluid restrictions, and enhancing patient positioning can optimize the management of fluid volume excess. Calcium channel blockers and calorie restriction do not address this problem.

A patient's physician has ordered a liver panel in response to the patient's development of jaundice. When reviewing the results of this laboratory testing, the nurse should expect to review what blood tests? Select all that apply. A. Alanine aminotransferase (ALT) B. C-reactive protein (CRP) C. Gamma-glutamyl transferase (GGT) D. Aspartate aminotransferase (AST) E. B-type natriuretic peptide (BNP)

A. Alanine aminotransferase (ALT) C. Gamma-glutamyl transferase (GGT) D. Aspartate aminotransferase (AST) Rationale: Liver function testing includes GGT, ALT, and AST. CRP addresses the presence of generalized inflammation and BNP is relevant to heart failure; neither is included in a liver panel.

A nurse is caring for a patient with hepatic encephalopathy. While making the initial shift assessment, the nurse notes that the patient has a flapping tremor of the hands. The nurse should document the presence of what sign of liver disease? A. Asterixis B. Constructional apraxia C. Fector hepaticus D. Palmar erythema

A. Asterixis Rationale: The nurse will document that a patient exhibiting a flapping tremor of the hands is demonstrating asterixis. While constructional apraxia is a motor disturbance, it is the inability to reproduce a simple figure. Fector hepaticus is a sweet, slightly fecal odor to the breath and not associated with a motor disturbance. Skin changes associated with liver dysfunction may include palmar erythema, which is a reddening of the palms, but is not a flapping tremor.

A 55-year-old female patient with hepatocellular carcinoma (HCC) is undergoing radiofrequency ablation. The nurse should recognize what goal of this treatment? A. Destruction of the patient's liver tumor B. Restoration of portal vein patency C. Destruction of a liver abscess D. Reversal of metastasis

A. Destruction of the patient's liver tumor Rationale: Using radiofrequency ablation, a tumor up to 5 cm in size can be destroyed in one treatment session. This technique does not address circulatory function or abscess formation. It does not allow for the reversal of metastasis.

A group of nurses have attended an inservice on the prevention of occupationally acquired diseases that affect healthcare providers. What action has the greatest potential to reduce a nurse's risk of acquiring hepatitis C in the workplace? A. Disposing of sharps appropriately and not recapping needles B. Performing meticulous hand hygiene at the appropriate moments in care C. Adhering to the recommended schedule of immunizations D. Wearing an N95 mask when providing care for patients on airborne precautions

A. Disposing of sharps appropriately and not recapping needles Rationale: HCV is blood-borne. Consequently, prevention of needle stick injuries are paramount. Hand hygiene, immunizations and appropriate use of masks are important aspects of overall infection control, but these actions do not directly mitigate the risk of HCV.

A nurse is caring for a patient with cancer of the liver whose condition has required the insertion of a percutaneous biliary drainage system. The nurse's most recent assessment reveals the presence of dark green fluid in the collection container. What is the nurse's best response to this assessment finding? A. Document the presence of normal bile output. B. Irrigate the drainage system with normal saline as ordered. C. Aspirate a sample of the drainage for culture. D. Promptly report this assessment finding to the primary care provider.

A. Document the presence of normal bile output. Rationale: Bile is usually a dark green or brownish-yellow color, so this would constitute an expected assessment finding, with no other action necessary.

During a health education session, a participant has asked about the hepatitis E virus. What prevention measure should the nurse recommend for preventing infection with this virus? A. Following proper hand-washing techniques B. Avoiding chemicals that are toxic to the liver C. Wearing a condom during sexual contact D. Limiting alcohol intake

A. Following proper hand-washing techniques Rationale: Avoiding contact with the hepatitis E virus through good hygiene, including hand-washing, is the major method of prevention. Hepatitis E is transmitted by the fecaloral route, principally through contaminated water in areas with poor sanitation. Consequently, none of the other listed preventative measure is indicated.

A triage nurse in the emergency department is assessing a patient who presented with complaints of general malaise. Assessment reveals the presence of jaundice and increased abdominal girth. What assessment question best addresses the possible etiology of this patient's presentation? A. How many alcoholic drinks do you typically consume in a week? B. To the best of your knowledge, are your immunizations up to date? C. Have you ever worked in an occupation where you might have been exposed to toxins? D. Has anyone in your family ever experienced symptoms similar to yours?

A. How many alcoholic drinks do you typically consume in a week? Rationale: Signs or symptoms of hepatic dysfunction indicate a need to assess for alcohol use. Immunization status, occupational risks, and family history are also relevant considerations, but alcohol use is a more common etiologic factor in liver disease.

A nurse educate is teaching a group of recent nursing graduates about their occupational risks for contracting hepatitis B. What preventative measures should the educator promote? Select all that apply. A. Immunizations B. Use of standard precautions C. Consumption of vitamin-rich diet D. Annual vitamin K injections E. Annual vitamin B12 injections

A. Immunizations B. Use of standard precautions Rationale: People who are at high risk, including nurses and other health care personnel exposed to blood or blood products, should receive active immunization. The consistent use of standard precautions is also highly beneficial. Vitamin supplementation is unrelated to an individual's risk of HBV.

A nurse on a solid organ transplant unit is planning the care of a patient who will soon be admitted upon immediate recovery following liver transplantation. What aspect of nursing care is the nurse's priority? A. Implementation of infection-control measures B. Close monitoring of skin integrity and color C. Frequent assessment of the patient's psychosocial status D. Administration of antiretroviral medications

A. Implementation of infection-control measures Rationale: Infection control is paramount following liver transplantation. This is a priority over skin integrity and psychosocial status, even though these are valid areas of assessment and intervention. Antiretrovirals are not indicated.

A patient with a liver mass is undergoing a percutaneous liver biopsy. What action should the nurse perform when assisting with this procedure? A. Position the patient on the right side with a pillow under the costal margin after the procedure B. Administer 1 unit of albumin 90 minutes before the procedure as ordered C. Administer at least 1 unit of packed red blood cells as ordered the day before the scheduled procedure D. Confirm that the patient's electrolyte levels have been assessed prior to the procedure

A. Position the patient on the right side with a pillow under the costal margin after the procedure. Rationale: Immediately after a percutaneous liver biopsy, assist the patient to turn onto the right side and place a pillow under the costal margin. Prior administration of albumin or PRBC's is unnecessary. Coagulation tests should be performed, but electrolyte analysis is not necessary.

A patient is being discharged after a liver transplant and the nurse is performing discharge education. When planning the patient's continuing care, the nurse should prioritize which of the following risk diagnoses? A. Risk for infection related to immunosuppressant use B. Risk for injury related to decreased hemostasis C. Risk for unstable blood glucose related to impaired gluconeogensis D. Risk for contamination related to accumulation of ammonia

A. Risk for infection related to immunosuppressant use Rationale: Infection is the leading cause of death after liver transplantation. Pulmonary and fungal infections are common; susceptibility to infection is increased by the immunosuppressive therapy that is needed to prevent rejection. This risk exceeds the threats of injury and unstable blood glucose. The diagnosis of risk for contamination related to environmental toxin exposure.

A patient has developed hepatic encephalopathy secondary to cirrhosis and is receiving care on the medical unit. The patient's current medication regimen includes lactulose (Cephulac) four times daily. What desired outcome should the nurse relate to this pharmacologic intervention? A. Two to 3 soft bowel movements daily B. Significant increase in appetite and food intake C. Absence of nausea and vomiting D. Absence of blood or mucus in stool

A. Two to 3 soft bowel movements daily Rationale: Lactulose (Cephulac) is administered to reduce serum ammonia levels. Two or three soft stools per day are desirable; this indicates that lactulose is performing as intended. Lactulose does not address the patient's appetite, symptoms of nausea and vomiting, or the development of blood and mucus in the stool.

*32. Match the nursing model most utilized in the following nursing care settings? 1. Functional 2. Case Management 3. Team 4. Total a. Emergency department b. Medical surgical unit c. Critical care d. Home health

ANS: 1. Functional -- a. Emergency Dept 2. Case Management-- d. Home health 3. Team-- b. Medical-surgical unit 4. Total -- c. Critical care

Quality is defined by the ____________.

ANS: patient Quality is based on the perspective of the consumer or, in this instance, the patient.

While taking a shower, a patient pushes the emergency light. When the nurse arrives, the patient complains of feeling dizzy and unsteady. The nurse turns to reach for the patient's walker and the patient falls, hitting the right side of the face resulting in loss of vision in the right eye. This scenario represents a _______ event.

ANS: sentinel A sentinel event is an occurrence that results in death or serious illness and requires immediate investigation.

*25. A _____________ is a measurable condition that results from interventions that can be either positive or negative in nature.

ANS: *patient outcome* Patient outcome is a measurable condition that results from interventions by the health care team; a change in a person's health after treatment; outcomes may be positive such as improved mobility or improved lab values or negative such as infections, falls, or death. p. 366

*27. The active process of directing, guiding, and influencing the outcome of an individual's performance of an activity or task is referred to as ___________________.

ANS: *supervision* Supervision is the active process of directing, guiding, and influencing the outcome of an individual's performance of an activity or task. p. 352

The staff on a nursing unit notes that patient satisfaction varies from month to month. They plot the degree of patient satisfaction each month for 1 year to determine when the periods of greatest dissatisfaction are occurring. The staff uses which type of graph? a. Time plot b. Pareto chart c. Flowchart d. Cause-and-effect diagram

ANS: A A run plot, or time plot, graphs data in time order to identify any changes that occur over time.

The surgical team arrives in the operating room and one member states, "Everyone stop. Let's identify the patient and operative site. Now does anyone have any questions or concerns?" This process is known as: a. time-out. b. a critical pathway. c. special cause variation. d. lean methodology.

ANS: A A time-out occurs in the operating room to ensure the entire surgical team identifies the patient, operative site, and possible concerns or questions about the procedure.

3. Nurses on a unit provide personal hygiene, administer medications, educate the patient and family about treatments, and provide emotional support. These nurses provide patient care based on which nursing delivery system? a. Total patient care b. Partnership nursing c. Team nursing d. Functional nursing

ANS: A In total patient care nurses provide all aspects of patient care. p. 370

*30. When considering supervisory responsibilities, the registered nurse (RN) must recognize that: a. When two RNs work together to move a client, neither nurse is in a supervisory position. b. Supervision is required only when staff is new to the unit, the patient, or the task. c. All supervision is done with the RN being immediately available to the staff. d. A charge nurse is actually supervising only the LPNs and UAPs on the unit.

ANS: A One RN is working with another RN in a collegial relationship, and neither RN is in the position of supervising the other. Each RN is responsible and accountable for his or her own practice. However, the RN in a supervisory or management position (e.g., team leader, charge nurse, nurse manager), as defined by the health care organization, will be in a position to supervise other RNs. Appropriate supervision is a responsibility of any delegation of task, not just when the staff is unfamiliar with the patient, the task, or the unit. Supervision may be categorized as on-site, in which the nurse is physically present or immediately available while the activity is being performed, or off-site, in which the nurse has the ability to provide direction through various means of written, verbal, and electronic communication.REF: pp. 361-362

1. The task of completing and signing the initial assessment on a newly admitted patient who is about to undergo minimally invasive procedures on an outpatient basis can be delegated to: A. The registered nurse (RN). B. The licensed practical/vocational nurse (LPN/LVN). C. Unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP). D. All levels of staff, because the information is about the past and cannot change.

ANS: A Only the RN can perform and sign the admission assessment, although some components such as monitoring vital signs may be delegated. p. 357

16. A nurse groups patients with criteria such as: "high risk for falls", "infection protocols", and "special communication needs" to determine the mix and number of staff needed on a telemetry unit. The nurse is using: A. a patient classification system to determine safe staffing levels. B. diagnostic-related groups for Medicare billing. C. case management to coordinate care. D. clinical pathways to determine care.

ANS: A Patient classification systems group patients according to care needs to determine safe staffing levels. p. 367

According to the Quality Chasm report: a. health care providers should be proactive rather than reactive to patient needs. b. common needs rather than individual preferences should be the priority. c. medical information should be confined to the primary care provider. d. specialized providers or case managers should control health care decisions.

ANS: A Quality is based on predicting patient needs rather than reacting to needs.

A team of experienced nurses work together to develop algorithms that are converted into checklists to ensure standardization of commonly performed procedures. The focus of this team is primarily on which Institute of Medicine (IOM) competency? a. Safety b. Timely c. Equitable d. Patient-centered care

ANS: A Standardization contributes to safety and improves individual performance of care providers.

3. Which task is most likely to be considered in a state's practice act as appropriate to delegate to an LPN/LVN if the patient 's condition is stable and competence in the task has been established? A. Administer an enema for an elective surgery patient. B. Administer an antiarrhythmic medication IV while interpreting the patient's rhythm on the cardiac monitor. C. Develop a plan of care for a stable patient admitted for observation after a head injury. D. Teach a patient how to instill eye drops for glaucoma.

ANS: A The RN who is delegating must consider the following: (1) the delegatee's current workload and the complexity of the task, (2) whether the staff member is familiar with the patient population and with the task to be performed, and (3) whether the RN is able to provide the appropriate level of supervision. The delegation decision-making tree would also support the delegation of this task. pp. 357-358, Box 20-3

19. A nurse is concerned about the risk of delegating tasks to licensed practical nurses and unlicensed assistive personnel. What is the best way for the nurse to determine competency of an inexperienced delegatee? A. Actually observe the delegatee perform the assigned task. B. Ask the delegatee how many times he/she has performed the task. C. Ask the patient if the care provided was satisfactory. D. Ask other nurses if they feel the delegatee is competent.

ANS: A The best way for the nurse to determine the competency of LPNs or UAPs is to observe them perform the task. p. 361

Regardless of the term used to describe high-quality health care, the focus of quality is: a. what the consumer needs and wants. b. economical care. c. having the greatest technologic advancement. d. services equally distributed among populations.

ANS: A The customer determines quality on the basis of his or her unique perception of high-quality care.

16. The RN instructs the LPN to "Give an enema to the patient in room 327 who is being discharged but is complaining of being constipated. Then be sure to document on the medication administration record when given." Which of the five rights was missing in this situation? The right of: A. direction and communication. B. task. C. person. D. circumstances.

ANS: A The directions were not clear. The RN did not specify which type of enema to give and what outcome to expect. And the RN gave no instructions related to reporting back. p. 360

10. The nurse manager is planning staffing levels and realizes that the first step is to: a. know the intensity of care needed by patients according to physical and psychosocial factors. b. examine the educational level of the staff. c. assess the skill level of caregivers. d. review the budget to determine the financial consequences of past staffing patterns.

ANS: A The nurse manager must determine the number and mix of health care providers according to the wide range of care requirements of individual patients. p. 367

4. A patient is admitted with hypotension, shortness of breath, flushing, and hives. All levels of staff have been trained to assess vital signs. Given budget restrictions and proper delegation rules, to which care provider would the RN delegate the task of obtaining the initial blood pressure reading? A. RN B. LPN/LVN C. Unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) D. Use the blood pressure obtained in the ambulance, because it was assessed via electronic monitoring.

ANS: A The patient's condition is not stable; therefore, the skills of an RN are required. pp. 357-358, Box 20-3

21. Which statement made by an RN regarding delegation indicates the need for additional teaching? *select all that apply* A. Unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) can assess vital signs during the first 5 minutes for a patient who is receiving a blood transfusion because a reaction at this time is unlikely. B. An LPN/LVN can administer a PPD (tuberculin skin test) if there is no history of a positive PPD. C. When dopamine is ordered continuously, the LPN/LVN can administer dopamine at a low dose for the purpose of increasing renal perfusion. D. UAPs can transfer a patient who is being discharged home from the wheelchair to the bed if they have received training and demonstrated competency. E. Responsibility can be delegated to the UAP, but the delegator retains accountability.

ANS: A, B, C The statement "UAPs can assess vital signs during the first 5 minutes for a patient who is receiving a blood transfusion because a reaction at this time is unlikely" indicates the need for further teaching because the patient is at highest risk of a reaction during the first few minutes of a blood transfusion; thus the assessment skills of an RN are required. The statement "an LPN/LVN can administer a PPD (tuberculin skin test) if there is no history of a positive PPD" indicates the need for further teaching because administration of intradermal medication requires the skill of an RN. Dopamine is a vasoactive drug that can have a profound effect on a patient's blood pressure and cardiac output; administration requires the assessment and evaluation skills of an RN. pp. 357-358, Box 20-3

An interdisciplinary team is evaluating the hospital's care of patients admitted with a myocardial infarction (heart attack) compared to national standards. The team analyzes the hospital's clinical indicator, which would be: (select all that apply) a. aspirin order within 24 hours of discharge. b. patient teaching related to stopping smoking completed prior to discharge. c. beta blocker administered upon arrival. d. support of employer to modify stress in workplace. e. patient's willingness to adhere to a strict cardiac diet after discharge.

ANS: A, B, C Clinical indicators are measurable items that reflect the quality of care provided and demonstrate the degree to which desired clinical outcomes are accomplished. National benchmarks are established according to guidelines related to quality care for patients admitted with heart attack and include: aspirin within 24 hours of admission, angiotensin receptor blocker at discharge, stop smoking instruction given, and beta blocker administered upon arrival and discharge. These are all measurable.

*26. What factors will be focal considerations when a facility begins developing its own set of clinical pathways? (Select all that apply.) a. The facility's most commonly treated diagnoses b. The most costly diagnoses treated by the facility's staff c. Accepted standards of specialized nursing care d. Dietary and physical therapy are viewed as principal contributors e. Physician input as a primary source of decision making

ANS: A, B, C Clinical pathways most often are developed for the health care facility's most common or costly diagnoses. Clinical pathways should also be based on accepted standards of practice as recommended by specialty nursing organizations. The success of clinical pathway development and implementation depends on input and support from all disciplines, including physicians, involved in using the pathway and caring for the patient. pp. 374-375

23. A nurse responsible for staffing a medical-surgical unit must consider: (select all that apply) a. the patient census. b. physical layout of the unit. c. complexity of care required. d. educational level of all staff. e. task preferences of the nurses.

ANS: A, B, C, D The primary considerations for staffing a specific nursing unit are the number of patients; the level of intensity of care required by those patients (commonly referred to as patient acuity); contextual issues, such as architecture, geography of the environment, and available technology; level of preparation and experience of the staff members providing the care; and the quality of the nurses' work life. pp. 367-368

23. Which functions can be delegated only to another RN with appropriate experience and training? *select all that apply* A. Assessment of skin integrity on the third day of hospitalization B. Evaluation of patient teaching related to turning, coughing, and deep breathing exercises C. Nursing judgment related to withholding medication based on vital signs D. RNs do not delegate to other RNs, they delegate only to licensed practical nurses or unlicensed assistive personnel E. Formulation of nursing diagnosis "potential for fall"

ANS: A, B, C, E Activities like assessing skin integrity—which include the core of the nursing process and require specialized knowledge, judgment, and/or skill—can be delegated only to another RN. Activities like evaluating patient teaching—which include the core of the nursing process and require specialized knowledge, judgment, and/or skill—can be delegated only to another RN. Activities like deciding to withhold medication based on vital signs—which include the core of the nursing process and require specialized knowledge, judgment, and/or skill—can be delegated only to another RN. Activities like formulating a nursing diagnosis—which include the core of the nursing process and require specialized knowledge, judgment, and/or skill—can be delegated only to another RN. pp. 361-362

*25. Which situations demonstrate effective delegation by the RN to the LPN? *Select all that apply* A. RN asks the LPN, "Do you have any concerns about your assignment for today?" B. LPN asks, "Where will you be if I need help with the dressing I've been assigned?" C. RN adjusts the LPN's assignments when a patient's condition becomes unstable D. LPN states, "I'll do whatever is necessary to keep my patients free of pain." E. RN assumes responsibility for ambulating a patient when he reports, "I'm feeling dizzy."

ANS: A, B, C, E The RN is responsible for communicating effectively with the LPN concerning responsibilities and accountability regarding patient care. *Asking the LPN if she/he has any concerns demonstrates effective communication*. Appropriate supervision is demonstrated by the LPN's when a question about support is asked. Evaluation and reassessment is demonstrated by the RN adjusting assignments and assuming a responsibility when the patients' conditions change. The LPN's statement about doing whatever is necessary demonstrates a possible risk for actions outside the established job description, competency, and standard of care on the part of the LPN. p. 360, Box 20-4

22. Which factors would be considered in the first steps in developing an effective patient classification system? (select all that apply) a. Planned procedures b. Ethnic diversity of patients c. Clinical competency of staff d. Educational level of nurses e. Age of patients

ANS: A, B, E The first step in developing a patient classification system is to understand the intensity of care needs, which requires identifying specific patient characteristics and care requirements. p. 368

A patient with complicated diabetes is scheduled for a below the knee amputation at 7 AM. The surgical team adheres to the 2012 National Patient Safety Goals by implementing which protocols? (select all that apply) a. The surgical team asks the patient to verify his or her name, type of surgery, and limb to be removed. b. Ask each member of the surgical team to provide a copy of licensure and, if applicable, certification to patient and family. c. The surgical team uses the chart number and name/hospital number to ensure they have the correct patient. d. Mark the procedure site with "X" and again ask the patient to verify correct site. e. After arrival in the operating room, perform a "time-out" for final identification of patient and operative site along with agreement of what procedure is scheduled.

ANS: A, C, D, E The 2012 National Patient Safety Goal includes universal precautions to ensure patient safety and prevent sentinel events. Methods to identify patient and surgical procedure are required.

*24. Which statements reflect common nurse practice acts policies? *Select all that apply* A. Only nursing tasks can be delegated, not nursing practice B. The LPN practices professional nursing C. The RN can delegate only what is within the scope of nursing practice D. The RN must evaluate patient outcomes resulting from the delegated activity E. The LPN works under the supervision and direction of the RN

ANS: A, C, D, E The common policies reflected in nurse practice acts include: only nursing tasks can be delegated, not nursing practice, the RN can delegate only what is within the scope of nursing practice, the LPN or LVN works under the direction and supervision of the RN, the RN must evaluate patient outcomes resulting from the delegated activity. The LPN or LVN and UAP do not practice professional nursing. REF: p. 355, Box 20-1

21. While participating in a task force to proactively plan for nursing care delivery over the next 20 years, a nurse learns that dramatic changes will occur as a result of: (select all that apply.) A. the increase in the number of minimally invasive procedures being performed for disease treatment. B. care provided for patients over an extended period in acute care settings. C. the reduction in the number of nurses and other health care professionals who are available to provide care. D. the widespread illiteracy and decreased self-efficacy of the aging patient population. E. the need to focus on social and environmental influences, educational level, and individual characteristics and values of the patient. F. the devaluing of nursing as a means of improving patient outcomes.

ANS: A, C, E Invasive surgical procedures are being replaced by laparoscopic procedures. The demand for nurses and other health care professionals cannot keep pace with the increased need for health care required by the growing older population. Care will focus on the unique lifestyles and values of a diverse population. p. 376

*32. When considering nursing care what events are associated with the term "churning" and responsible for up to 70% of nursing care on a typical 20 bed medical-surgical unit (Select all that apply.) a. Seven patients have been written discharge orders by their physicians b. Five patients will have initial visits from physical therapy staff c. Twelve patients have needs that require assistance with bathing and elimination d. Five patients will be admitted for scheduled surgeries tomorrow AM e. Two patients are in the ER department with orders to be admitted as soon as a bed is available

ANS: A, D, E Fast-paced patient turnover in acute care settings; the rapid discharge and admission cycle is now referred to as "churning" and is estimated to range from 25% to 70% on a typical medical-surgical unit. The remaining options reflect standard unit care. p. 376

7. A patient is admitted with pneumonia. The case manager refers to a plan of care that specifically identifies dates when supplemental oxygen should be discontinued, positive-pressure ventilation with bronchodilators should be changed to self-administered inhalers, and antibiotics should be changed from intravenous to oral treatment, on the basis of assessment findings. This plan of care is referred to as a: a. patient classification system. b. clinical pathway. c. patient-centered plan of care. d. diagnosis-related group (DRG).

ANS: B A clinical pathway is a plan that specifies the timing and sequencing of major patient care activities and interventions by the interdisciplinary team for a particular diagnosis, procedure, or health condition. pp. 374-375

Patients with heart failure have extended lengths of stay and are often readmitted shortly after they have been discharged. To improve quality of care, a type of "road map" that included all elements of care for this disease and that standardized treatment by guiding daily care was implemented. This road map is referred to as a(n): a. benchmark. b. critical pathway. c. algorithm. d. case management.

ANS: B A critical pathway determines the best order and timing of interventions provided by health care team members for a particular diagnosis.

A nurse is assisting with the delivery of twins. The first infant is placed on the scale to be weighed. The physician requests an instrument stat. The nurse turns to hand the instrument to the physician, and the infant falls off the scale. When evaluating the incident, the nurse and her manager list contributory factors such as the need for two nurses when multiple births are known, and the location of the scale so far from the delivery field. These nurses are performing a(n): a. standardization of care. b. root cause analysis. c. process variation. d. analysis of a deployment flowchart.

ANS: B A root cause analysis is a process by which factors that underlie variation in performance, including the occurrence or possible occurrence of a sentinel event, are identified. The purpose of root cause analysis is to identify improvements that can be implemented to prevent future occurrences.

A nurse is removing a saturated dressing from an abdominal incision and must cut the tape to remove the dressing. The nurse accidentally cuts the sutures holding the incision, and evisceration occurs. In quality improvement, this incident is best identified as a: a. root cause. b. sentinel event. c. variation in performance. d. causal factor.

ANS: B A sentinel event is an unexpected occurrence that could result in serious physical or psychological injury to the patient, including the possibility of returning to surgery and a prolonged length of stay.

A nurse is preparing to administer a medication by using the vastus lateralis site and is unfamiliar with the process. A step-by-step reference that shows how to complete the process is called a: a. deployment flowchart. b. top-down flowchart. c. Pareto chart. d. control plot.

ANS: B A top-down flowchart shows the sequence of steps in a job or process such as medication administration.

6. A patient is admitted with coronary artery disease and is scheduled for coronary artery bypass grafting (CABG). According to the clinical pathway the patient should be extubated and discharged from critical care the day after surgery. During surgery the patient's oxygen saturation decreased drastically as a result of chronic tobacco abuse. Subsequently, the patient remained on the ventilator an additional 2 days postoperatively. According to the clinical practice guideline for CABG, this situation represents a: a. patient outcome. b. variance. c. goal. d. standard.

ANS: B A variance is a deviation from the planned path. p. 375

7. An RN delegates to the unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) the task of performingblood pressure checks for a group of patients on a nursing unit. The UAP accepts the task and is responsible for: A. delegating the task to another UAP if he or she does not have the time or skill to complete the task. B. keeping the RN informed of any abnormal blood pressure readings. C. calling the physician when the patient's vital signs are not within established parameters. D. informing the dietary department to initiate a low-sodium diet for patients who are hypertensive.

ANS: B After accepting the assignment, the UAP is responsible for completing the task and reporting any patient concerns to the RN. p. 354

*29. The most basic factor contributing to the effective supervision of unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) is the nurse's: A. ability to communicate effectively with others. B. confidence in his or her ability to delegate appropriately. C. experience managing other members of the health care team. D. ability to teach UAPs the necessary skills for their assigned tasks.

ANS: B Because RNs are becoming increasingly responsible for delegation and supervision in today's health care system, it is imperative that they have confidence in their delegation skills and understand the legal responsibility that they assume when delegating to and supervising licensed personnel and UAP. RNs must know what aspects of nursing and health care can be delegated. Although the other options support their supervision of UAP, the basic component is appropriate delegation. p. 353-354

19. A nurse plans care knowing when specific recovery milestones are expected. The nurse is providing care via: a. patient classification systems. b. clinical pathways. c. functional nursing. d. case management.

ANS: B Clinical pathways plans patient care activities and interprofessional interventions and desired patient outcomes within a specified time period for a particular diagnosis or health condition. p. 366

4. A hospital converts to a system of care delivery in which RNs, LPNs, and unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) are responsible for implementing a specific task, such as medication administration or personal hygiene, for the entire nursing unit. This type of delivery system is: a. total patient care. b. functional nursing. c. team nursing. d. primary nursing.

ANS: B In functional nursing members of the team are assigned specific tasks such as assessment or medication administration. pp. 370-371

*29. The implementation of a "Medication Nurse" is an example of what nursing care delivery model? a. Total patient care b. Functional c. Primary d. Team

ANS: B In the functional nursing method of patient care delivery, staff members are assigned to complete certain tasks for a group of patients rather than care for specific patients. In total patient care, nurses are responsible for planning, organizing, and performing all care for specific clients. In team nursing, the RN functions as a team leader and coordinates a small group (generally no more than four or five) of ancillary personnel to provide care to a small group of patients. In primary nursing, the RN, or "primary" nurse, assumes 24-hour responsibility for planning, directing, and evaluating the patient's care from admission through discharge. pp. 370-371

A hospital is concerned that the number of medication errors has increased significantly in the past year. A project revealed four causes of medication errors. The above chart was used to help staff and administration know where to focus efforts to reduce errors. Which process improvement tool is used in this situation? a. Run chart b. Pareto chart c. Flowcharts d. Cause-and-effect diagrams

ANS: B Pareto charts are used to prioritize areas to reduce medication errors. Eighty percent of all errors were caused by interruptions, so this should be the area of priority.

9. A nurse manager is mentoring a novice nurse manager in determining staffing needs. The mentor explains, "We must determine the acuity level of the patient by: a. assessing patient satisfaction with nursing care." b. quantifying the amount and intensity of care required." c. examining the skill mix and educational preparation of the staff." d. determining the number of hospital days required by the patients."

ANS: B Patient acuity is measured by determining the amount and intensity of care required. p. 367

18. A patient has decided to stop hemodialysis because his renal failure progresses and he wishes to spend more time with family. Palliative care will continue, and the approach will be discussed with the patient and family as needed and at change of shift. The care delivery model in this situation is termed: a. partnership. b. patient-centered. c. case management. d. total patient care.

ANS: B Patient-centered care models entail the health care team partnering with the patient and family to ensure that patients' wants, needs, and preferences are the priority while allowing the patient and family to participate in decisions and educational needs. p. 373

8. The nurse manager determines that four RNs, five LPN/LVNs, and two unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) are required per shift to meet the needs of the patient population on the unit, according to acuity and census. The nurse manager is concerned with: a. assignments. b. staffing. c. output. d. productivity.

ANS: B Staffing is the activity of determining that an adequate number and mix of health care team members are available to provide safe, high-quality patient care. p. 367

Nurses working on an orthopedic unit use personal digital assistants (PDAs) to review medications prior to administration to reduce potential drug interactions. Software is also installed that provides video clips of common procedures performed by nurses. Nurses on this unit are best demonstrating which QSEN competencies? a. Patient-centered care b. Informatics c. Teamwork d. Quality improvement

ANS: B Technology (PDA) is used to aid decision making and reduce errors.

14. A task force is considering factors that contribute to high-quality safe staffing. Which statement reflects an understanding of the American Nurses Association's (ANA) recommendations? a. Because patient needs remain constant on a daily shift, staffing needs at the beginning of the shift should be sufficient to provide safe, high-quality care. b. Staffing should allow time for the RN to apply the nursing process so decisions result in high-quality, safe patient outcomes. c. Patient acuity levels affect staffing by increasing the need for unlicensed personnel to provide routine basic care rather than increasing RNs in staff mix. d. RN staffing is not cost-effective; thus is it important for staffing models to limit the number of RNs assigned per shift.

ANS: B The ANA recommends that nurses have time to exercise professional judgment. p. 367

A nonprofit organization that distributes to governmental agencies, the public, business, and health care professionals knowledge related to health care for the purpose of improving health is the: a. Institute for Safe Medication Practices. b. Institute of Medicine. c. National Committee for Quality Assurance. d. The Joint Commission.

ANS: B The Institute of Medicine is a nonprofit organization whose mission is to advance and disseminate to the government, the corporate sector, the professions, and the public scientific information that will improve human health.

11. An RN delegates to an experienced LPN/LVN the task of administering oral medications to a group of patients. The LPN/LVN accepts the assignment, and the RN knows that the LPN/LVN has had the training and has acquired the skills needed to complete the task. The RN then observes the LPN/LVN recording a patient's medication administration just before entering the patient's room. The priority intervention by the RN is to: A. check the patient's drug packages to ensure that the correct drugs were given. B. stop the LPN/LVN immediately and discuss the possible consequences of his actions in a nonjudgmental manner. C. contact the nurse manager and ask that the LPN/LVN's license is suspended. D. call the pharmacy and ask for replacement medications for the patients.

ANS: B The LPN/LVN has the competency but violated one of the rights of medication administration and is practicing unsafe care. The RN's responsibility requires that he or she intervene and identify concerns with the LPN/LVN. p. 363

15. A nursing unit is comparing team nursing to the partnership model and finds that: a. with the partnership model, an RN does not have to be part of the mix. b. leadership abilities of the RN is a major determinant of effectiveness of care for both models. c. the RN teaches the LPN/LVN or unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) how to apply the nursing process in team nursing. d. with team nursing the RN cares for the patient while the team members work with the family or significant others.

ANS: B The RN leads regardless of whether partnership model or team nursing is practiced. p. 371 |p. 372

6. A student nurse is concerned about delegation practices and wonders why hospitals employ unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) and LPN/LVNs. The student nurse refers to the National Council of State Boards of Nursing and learns that the role of these personnel is to: A. supplement the staffing pattern when an RN is not available. B. aid the RN by performing appropriately delegated care tasks. C. replace the RN when the health care facility provides long-term care. D. provide patient teaching, allowing more direct care to be provided by the RN.

ANS: B The UAP and LPN/LVN can increase productivity of the RN by performing those tasks that fall within their scope of practice. p. 353

5. The nurse who is responsible for following the patient from admission through discharge or resolution of illness while working with a broad range of health care providers is called a: a. nurse manager. b. case manager. c. coordinator of patient-centered care delivery. d. team leader in team nursing care delivery.

ANS: B The case manager, in collaboration with an interdisciplinary team, oversees the use of health care services by clients throughout a course of illness. p. 373

Each month data on admission assessments that are based on the following standard are entered: "All patients will be assessed by an RN within 2 hours of admission." The target goal for this standard is 97% compliance. Data are displayed on a graph that shows number and time of admission assessments and compliance variation limits. This pictorial representation is: a. Pareto chart. b. control chart. c. deployment chart. d. top-down flowchart.

ANS: B The control chart is a run chart that has a centerline and added statistical control limits that help to detect specific types of change needed to improve a process.

12. A patient is admitted for a hysterectomy, and the RN develops and implements the plan of care but also delegates to the LPN/LVN the responsibility of administering oral medications. While off duty, this RN receives a call requesting a change in the plan of care because the patient has developed deep vein thrombosis. The nurse who originally planned the care is practicing which type of nursing care delivery? a. Modular b. Primary c. Team d. Functional

ANS: B The primary nurse assumes 24-hour responsibility for planning, directing, and evaluating the patient's care from admission through discharge but may delegate or provide primary care during the shift when present. p. 372

17. Which of the following situations would be appropriate for the supervisory level of initial direction and/or periodic inspection? A. Experienced RNs work together to provide care for a group of patients newly diagnosed with meningitis. B. The RN assigns the LPN tasks within her scope of practice and checks back during the shift to ensure the tasks are completed correctly. C. A new graduate nurse is assigned care to a male patient with a hematocrit of 11.0 g of hemoglobin per deciliter and is receiving a blood transfusion. The charge nurse checks on the patient status every 15 to 30 minutes and asks the graduate to explain "next steps." D. No supervision is necessary since both are registered nurses.

ANS: B When a working relationship is established and competencies of the delegate established, the delegator may check in during intermittently during the shift. p. 361

*33. What are the primary foci for nurses caring for patients currently being admitted to acute care facilities that make traditional nursing models less effective? (Select all that apply.) a. Rescue b. Stabilization c. Prevention d. Transition e. Rehabilitation

ANS: B, D Because acute care settings now admit only the most seriously ill or injured individuals with a focus on stabilization and transition, the traditional models of nursing care may no longer apply. In the past, nurses provided care based on comprehensive knowledge of the patients' needs, which were learned by caring for the patients over an extended period. Now nurses may have an entirely new group of patients to care for every shift or even more than once during a shift. The remaining options while concerns are not typically the focus of the acute care nurse. p. 376

A nurse educator is explaining to licensed staff that health care is no longer safe and describes The Quality and Safety for Nursing (QSEN) recommended competencies for educating nursing professionals. These include: (select all that apply) a. advanced health assessment techniques. b. patient-centered care. c. prescriptive pharmacology content. d. quality improvement. e. safety.

ANS: B, D, E Patient-centered care is a recommended competency, along with teamwork and collaboration, evidence-based practice, and informatics. Quality improvement is a recommended competency, along with patient-centered care, teamwork and collaboration, evidence-based practice, and informatics. Safety is a recommended competency, along with patient-centered care, teamwork and collaboration, evidence-based practice, and informatics.

*26. Which statement made by the RN demonstrates a lack of effective delegation to a LPN? *Select all that apply.* A. "Have you ever cared for a postoperative patient who experienced a total mastectomy?" B. "If you begin that complex dressing change while I'm off the floor, get someone to help you." C. "Don't change the patient's catheter until you are sure the correct one has arrived on the unit." D. "Which mandatory competency testing session are you planning to attend?" E. "Remember the patient is depressed so don't say anything to make her more sad."

ANS: B, E Not being available to provide effective supervision and addressing the issue in such a general manner is not a demonstration of effective delegation. Assigning a patient whose emotional state is unstable is not reflective of effective delegation. Evaluating the staff member's competency to perform a task or care for a patient with a particular set of needs and the requirement of mandatory competency testing is a factor in effective delegation. It is necessary to assure that the staff member has the resources including supplies to accomplish the assigned task.REF: p. 360, Box 20-4

Nurses, physicians, and social workers finalize the plan of care and coordinate discharge for a homeless person who will need wound care and follow up over the next 4 weeks. Each member contributes based on his or her area of expertise but also recognize other members' strengths. Which of the QSEN competencies are being demonstrated? a. Quality improvement b. Evidence-based practice c. Teamwork and collaboration d. Patient-centered care

ANS: C An interdisciplinary team is working to prevent hand-off errors on discharge.

Which of the following occurrences would be classified as a sentinel event? a. A postpartum patient who elects to breastfeed only twice daily develops mastitis. b. A newly diagnosed diabetic patient self-injects insulin in the abdominal area rather than the upper thigh as instructed by the patient educator. c. A nurse assisting with the delivery of twins places the "Twin 1" name tag on the second-born twin, causing the first-born twin to undergo surgery that was scheduled for the other twin. d. A nurse administers 3 units of regular insulin rather than 3 units of NPH insulin subcutaneously, resulting in a drop in the patient's serum glucose from 160 to 100 mg.

ANS: C Any procedure performed on a wrong person or organ constitutes a sentinel event.

Institute for Healthcare Improvement (IHI) proposed a process for quality improvement with steps known as "PDCA." When explaining the steps to a group of nurses interested in improving the process of medication reconciliation for heart failure patients with high rates of recidivism, the instructor states: a. P stands for process. Following a top-down flowchart provides the steps for reviewing patient medications taken at home compared to those prescribed during hospitalization. b. D stand for deviation, which is an alteration in the expected drugs ordered. c. C is for check if the process for change worked. Was there an improvement in accurate reconciliation? And what was learned? A stands for algorithm, which includes all steps of the process. d. A stands for algorithm, which includes all steps of the process.

ANS: C C stands for check if the change improved the process and what was learned.

*30. An emergency department nurse will likely provide care according to which care delivery model? a. Team b. Primary c. Functional d. Total care

ANS: C Emergency departments often use functional approaches to care because emphasis is on efficient assessment and immediate treatment. The team model is often used in medical-surgical units while the primary care model can be used in long-term care facilities. Some aspects of home health nursing function under the total care model. p. 375

*28. Which factor has the greatest impact on whether safe delegation of nursing tasks is possible? a. The level of competency displayed by the unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) b. Whether the client is experiencing an acute or a chronic medical health issue c. Whether the client's physical condition is considered stable at the time d. The degree of trust shared between the nurse and the client

ANS: C Generally the more stable the patient, the more likely delegation is to be safe. However, it is also important to remember many tasks that can be delegated may also carry with them a nursing responsibility. The other options are to be considered but they are not as impactful as is the physical condition of the client at the time tasks are being delegated. p. 355

13. When deciding which staffing option to use on a nursing unit that will open soon, the manager realizes that: a. continuity of care is enhanced and errors are reduced when nurses provide care over longer shifts and consecutive workdays, such as 12-hour shifts on 3 consecutive days per week. b. the use of part-time nurses provides the variability needed to meet diverse patient needs. c. satisfaction of the staff equates to satisfaction of patients. d. nurses provide the same level of care, regardless of the work environment.

ANS: C High nurse satisfaction is generally equated with high patient satisfaction and positive patient outcomes. p. 368

14. A nurse moves from California to Arkansas and due to having 20 years of experience as a registered nurse is immediately placed in charge of the telemetry unit. The staffing consists of LPNs and two unlicensed assistive personnel. The RN is unsure of the scope of practice of the LPNs and reviews the nurse practice act for Arkansas, which lacks clarity on some tasks. The RN should: A. query the state nursing association to determine their stance on the role of LPNs. B. ask the LPNs on the unit to list what tasks they routinely performed. C. contact the state board of nursing to determine legal scope of practice for LPNs. D. refer to California's nurse practice act because the scope of LPNs/LVNs is consistent across the United States.

ANS: C If the nurse practice act lacks clarity, the state board of nursing can provide guidance. pp. 354-355

2. Customer satisfaction is primarily based on: a. access to modern, up-to-date facilities. b. availability of an extensive menu selection. c. personal interactions with employees. d. having to undergo fewer invasive procedures.

ANS: C Interactions between employees and patients/families actually affect clinical outcomes, functional status, and even physiologic measures of health. p. 369

*27. The nurse responsible for unit staffing recognize that client care is most affected positively by: a. A mix of high- and low-acuity client needs. b. Units that implement the job-sharing model. c. Nurses who report high levels of job satisfaction. d. Nursing staff that hold advanced nursing degrees.

ANS: C Nurses who are satisfied with their work generally provide higher-quality, more cost-effective care. Staffing systems should consider the quality of work life for the nursing staff as important as the quality of patient outcomes. Although the other options are factors to be considered, they are all influenced by whether the staff is satisfied with their work environment. pp. 368

10. An RN is counseled by the nurse manager regarding inappropriate delegation when the: A. RN instructs the nursing assistant to greet ambulatory surgery patients and show them to their rooms. B. nursing assistant informs the RN that she has not been trained to collect a sputum specimen and the RN states, "I will show you this time and you can show me the next time." C. RN assigns the float LPN/LVN the task of completing a plan of care for a stable patient who was admitted for routine replacement of a feeding tube. D. LPN/LVN who has demonstrated competence is asked to perform a dressing change for a patient before she is discharged home.

ANS: C Only an RN can initiate and complete a new plan of care; this does not fall within the scope of practice of the LPN/LVN. The RN has violated one of the five rights of delegation. p. 357

The number of IV site infections has more than doubled on a nursing unit. The staff determine common causes include the site is cleaned using inconsistent methods, dressing frequently becomes wet when patient showers, IV tubing is not changed every 48 hours per protocol, and inadequate hand washing of RN prior to insertion. A bar graph demonstrates the frequency in descending order, with 80% of infections being attributed to inadequate hand washing. The quality tool used is a: a. cause-and-effect diagram. b. run chart. c. Pareto chart. d. flowchart.

ANS: C Pareto charts are bar graphs that show causes contributing to a problem in descending order so the leading cause is easily recognized.

*28. When considering clinical pathways, the nurse recognizes that an outcome is: a. The result of a collaborative intervention of the healthcare team. b. An event that can prevent or help a patient reach wellness. c. The end result of interventions provided by the health care team. d. An unexpected event that determines a need to change the plan of care

ANS: C Patient outcomes are the end result of interventions by the health care team. Interprofessional intervention is the collaborative effort by all disciplines. Variance is any event that may alter the patient's progress through the clinical pathway. Triggers alert the caregiver that an unexpected event has occurred and a change in the plan of care may be indicated. p. 374-375

15. An RN makes the following assignments at the beginning of the shift. Which assignment would be considered high-risk delegation? A. A novice RN is assigned a patient with diabetes mellitus requiring mixing of regular and NPH insulin. B. An LPN is assigned an older adult with pneumonia and who requires dressing changes on a foot wound. C. An unlicensed assistive person is assigned the task of assisting a patient with late stages of Huntington's disease to ambulate a short distance in the hallway. D. A float RN from the oncology unit is assigned a patient with a white blood cell count of 4000 mm3

ANS: C Risk of falling is great in later stages of Huntington's disease due to chorea movements. pp. 359-360

11. A hospital is concerned with nurse retention and realizes that job satisfaction is a major influence. To enhance employee satisfaction related to staffing, the management team: a. negotiates for additional agency nurses. b. hires more part-time employees. c. includes participatory management into staffing decisions. d. uses "float" nurses to cover vacancies.

ANS: C Staffing methods that include staff participation and enhance staff autonomy have been demonstrated to play a major part in ensuring employee satisfaction. p. 368

A nurse is asked to "float" to a telemetry floor and is to place a patient on telemetry monitor. The nurse is unfamiliar with placement of EKG leads and would consult which type of chart to learn the correct placement?

ANS: C The Pareto chart is used to prioritize interventions that caused the majority of the problems.

*33. After first having a strong understanding of the standards of practice that govern delegation, the registered nurse must know the: a. patient care tasks that are being considered for delegation. b. expected outcomes of the care to be delegated. c. the condition and needs of the patient whose care is being delegated. d. skill and knowledge level of the staff member who is being delegated to

ANS: C The RN must then know the client whose care is being delegated. The client's condition and stability must be determined before tasks and outcomes can be determined or consideration be given to the skill level of the staff being delegated to. p. 358

20. Care delivery using the team-based approach is used on a telemetry nursing unit. The team consists of one registered nurse (RN), two licensed practical nurses (LPNs), and one unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP). Staff have been charged to improve quality of care while ensuring cost containment. Which assignments would meet both criteria? A. The RN administers all medications to all patients. B. The LPN performs sterile dressings and IV tubing changes on all central lines. C. The experienced UAP places telemetry electrodes and attaches to cardiac monitor. D. The RN administers an enema to a stable patient who has an order "administer a fleet enema PRN when no bowel movement in 2 days."

ANS: C The UAP, when properly trained, can place patients on telemetry. This meets quality and cost containment goals because the LPN and RN have higher salaries. pp. 353-354

A patient is ordered a low-protein, low-calorie diet but the patient's family brings fish, lentils, and unleavened bread for a meal to observe a cultural practice. The nurse works with the dietitian to adjust the next few meals to accommodate for this variance. This situation would represent: a. a sentinel event. b. an adverse event. c. patient-centered care. d. the communication technique of "call-out."

ANS: C The nurse and dietitian are respecting patient values, preferences, and expressed needs.

2. An RN recently relocated to another region of the country and immediately assumed the role of charge nurse. When determining the appropriate person to whom to delegate, the RN knows that: A. the role of the LPN/LVN is the same from state to state. B. the LPN/LVN can be taught to perform all the duties of an RN if approved by the employer and if additional on-the-job training is provided. C. he or she must review the state's nurse practice act for LPN/LVNs, because each state defines the role and scope of practice of the LPN/LVN. D. The Joint Commission has certified and established roles for the LPN/LVN.

ANS: C The scope of practice of the LPN/LVN varies significantly from state to state; RNs should know the LPN/LVN nurse practice act in the state in which they practice and should understand the legal scope of practice of the LPN/LVN. p. 354

9. An LPN/LVN has transferred to a nursing unit and arrives for the first day. The RN checks with the LPN/LVN often throughout the shift to provide support and determine if assistance is needed. The RN is providing which level of supervision? A. There is no supervision because at times the LPN/LVN is not with the RN. B. Periodic inspection is being used. Because the LPN/LVN is licensed, the RN is relieved of the need to evaluate care. C. Continual supervision is being provided until the RN determines competency. D. Initial supervision is being provided because this is the LPN/LVN's first day on the unit.

ANS: C This level of supervision is required when the working relationship is new, the task is complex, or the delegatee is inexperienced or has not demonstrated an acceptable level of competence. p. 362

22. A nursing administrator who is considering the feasibility of an all-RN staff reviews the report, Keeping Patients Safe: Transforming the Work Environment of Nurses (2003) and determines that RNs: *select all that apply* A. are more costly and less efficient than LPNs. B. have little or no effect by being proactive but instead are reactive to patient care errors. C. have a positive effect on patient outcomes when managing patient care. D. are effective overseers of patients' overall health condition. E. lack the training to be effective delegators.

ANS: C, D RNs are effective at coordinating care that results in improved patient outcomes. RNs are valuable monitors of a patient's health status—a practice that results in improved patient outcomes. p. 353

18. A registered nurse (RN) is assigned as charge nurse for the first time. She knows to consult the state board of nursing to determine scope of practice for licensed practical nurses (LPN) and unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP). She also realizes there are common policies which exist in most state practice acts that include: A. the RN is held accountable for the decision to delegate, but responsibility rests only with the delegatee. B. the RN may only delegate tasks that are not in the scope of practice of the LPN if the delegatee is certain they are competent to perform the task. C. since the LPN is licensed, they practice professional nursing. D. to determine what tasks can be safely delegated, the RN must first assess the patient.

ANS: D The stability of the patient must be determined prior to delegation. Even routine tasks such as taking vital signs that are often delegated may need to be performed by the RN when the patient's condition is critical. pp. 354-355, Box 20-1

An organization's emergency preparedness task force meets to discuss how it should react in case of a terrorist attack and develops a disaster evacuation plan that details how each department will assist individuals in reaching safety. This type of diagram is referred to as a: a. Pareto chart. b. control chart. c. top-down flowchart. d. deployment chart.

ANS: D A deployment flowchart would show the detailed steps involved in the process and the people or departments that are to be involved at each step to assist individuals in reaching safety.

During the night, a patient fell in the bathroom and sustained a hip injury. The patient was very upset because of being unable to attend a granddaughter's wedding in 2 days. The team looked at the process and determined that the patient had been medicated with a narcotic, had urinary urgency so had not taken the time to put on shoes, failed to turn on the light because the door to the hall let in some light, and stumbled over a towel that had been placed to collect water leaks caused by construction that was in progress to replace damaged sinks. Which factor was a special cause variation? a. Failure to take time to put on shoes due to urgency b. Unsteady gait due to narcotic administration c. Poor lighting that led to decreased vision d. Improper construction that caused the leak and towel placement

ANS: D A special cause variation is an uncommon variation that is unstable and unpredictable, is not under statistical control, and is related to a clearly identified single source, which in this scenario is the construction project.

12. Which statement related to delegation is correct? A. The practice of unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) is defined in the nurse practice act. B. Nursing practice can be delegated only when the LPN/LVN and UAP have received adequate training. C. Supervision is not required when routine tasks are delegated to a competent individual. D. The RN must be knowledgeable about the laws and regulations that govern nursing practice, as well as those that have no clearly defined parameters, such as for UAP.

ANS: D Accountability remains with the RN, and he or she is responsible for knowing what tasks can be delegated and what is defined as nursing practice. p. 354

1. Accrediting agencies such as The Joint Commission address staffing by: A. imposing maximum staffing levels. B. requiring a specific staff mix. C. stipulating nurse-patient ratios. D. looking for evidence that patients receive satisfactory care.

ANS: D Accrediting agencies do not address minimum staffing levels; however, they do look for evidence that patients receive adequate care, and this can occur only with adequate staffing. p. 369

Which of the following statements concerning the Institute of Medicine (IOM) competencies is correct? a. Each competency is mutually exclusive. b. The competencies focus on individual efforts to reduce errors. c. Physicians lead the team to achieve each competency. d. The competencies address both individual and system approaches to transform care.

ANS: D Errors and increased health care costs result from both the actions of health care workers and the nature of the system in which they deliver care.

20. An orthopedic unit is considering different types of care delivery models and staff have an opportunity to ask questions about how the models differ. The nurse manager provides an overview and uses the above visual to demonstrate which model of care delivery? a. Team b. Partnership c. Primary d. Functional

ANS: D Functional care delivery models assign tasks to each provider. In the above visual, the LPN is responsible for oral medication administration, the unlicensed assistive personnel provide hygiene, and the RN is assigned to task that require the nursing process. pp. 370-371

A group of nurses is presenting the importance of high-quality care during a system-wide meeting of medical-surgical nurses. They point out a finding of the Quality Chasm that: a. being insured has little effect on a person's longevity and the quality of care received. b. lobbyists for the drug companies are able to gain permission for the use of new drugs within 1 year of their discovery. c. although a greater number of lawsuits stem from medication errors, more people actually die from human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) and acquired immunodeficiency disease syndrome (AIDS). d. medication-related errors place a tremendous financial burden on the U.S. health care system.

ANS: D Medication-related errors for hospitalized patients cost roughly $2 billion annually.

17. A nurse makes patient care assignments as follows: RN1 has rooms 200-210; RN2 has rooms 211-221; RN3 has rooms 222-232. The two unlicensed assistive personnel have half the rooms, with one assigned to 200-215 and the second to 216-232. The care delivery model used in this situation is: a. team. b. primary. c. partnership. d. modular.

ANS: D Modular (or geographic) assignments are based on a geographic location in the nursing unit. p. 372

8. Which task is appropriate for the RN to delegate to the unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) provided the delegatee has had experience and training? A. Evaluate the ability of a patient to swallow ice after a gastroscopy. B. Assist a patient who has a postoperative hip replacement to ambulate with a walker for the first time. C. Change the disposable tracheotomy cannula for a new postoperative tracheotomy patient if secretions are thick and tenacious. D. Obtain a sterile urine sample from a patient with a Foley catheter that is connected to a closed drainage system.

ANS: D Obtaining a sterile urine sample from a patient with a Foley catheter that is connected to a closed drainage system is not an invasive procedure, and risk to the patient is minimal, making the task appropriate for delegation. pp. 357-358, Box 20-3

5. A nurse is delegating to the newly hired nursing unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) the task of assisting with oral hygiene, knowing that this assignment "does not require decisions based on the nursing process." The nurse is correctly using which of the five rights of delegation? A. Supervision B. Communication C. Person D. Circumstance

ANS: D Right circumstance involves the delegation of tasks that do not require independent nursing judgments. p. 360

*31. Which statement made by an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) would cause the registered nurse team leader the most concern? a. "The nurse will follow up to make sure the client is well cared for." b. "I wonder who I can ask about how to use this new electronic thermometer." c. "I've only been working on this unit for a month and things are still new to me." d. "It's good to know that the nurse is really the one responsible for the client's care."

ANS: D The UAP is responsible for his or her own actions. A belief that the nurse is fully responsible is a concern and needs immediate attention by the nurse. It is true that the nurse will follow up and evaluate the client's care. The statements concerning being new and asking for help are appropriate. REF: p. 354

*24. When considering staffing needs, the registered nurse (RN) is primarily concerned with: a. The number of available licensed staff. b. The history of staff absenteeism. c. The availability of support staff. d. Client acuity.

ANS: D The primary considerations for staffing a specific nursing unit are the number of patients followed by the level of intensity of care required by those patients (commonly referred to as patient acuity). Knowing only the number of patients that require care is an ineffective way to plan staffing because of the wide range of care requirements needed by individual patients. The other options may in some degree affect the delivery of care but not to the degree that client acuity does. p. 367

13. During orientation, an RN learns that LPN/LVNs in the facility receive additional training to perform some tasks such as hanging continuously infusing intravenous fluids that have no additives. It is important for the RN to understand that: A. the health care facility can override the state practice act by having all LPN/LVNs and unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) participate in on-site training. B. LPN/LVNs are licensed, and accountability for their own practice rests with each LPN/LVN. C. UAPs cannot be held responsible for their own actions or inactions. D. the nurse practice act and state regulations related to delegation override the organization's policies.

ANS: D The state's nurse practice act is the deciding factor regarding what can legally be delegated. p. 355

B) physical abuse

An elderly client with dementia lives with her daughter. During the day the client attends a Day Center. The nurse notices the client is unkempt and smells of urine. Upon examining the client, the nurse notes bruising on her arms and back. From the nurse's observations, which of the following is the type of abuse suspected? A) psychological abuse B) physical abuse C) financial abuse D) sexual abuse

The nurse is caring for a patient who has been admitted for the treatment of AIDS. In the morning, the patient tells the nurse that he experienced night sweats and recently coughed up some blood. What is the nurse's most appropriate action? A) Assess the patient for additional signs and symptoms of Kaposi's sarcoma. B) Review the patient's most recent viral load and CD4+ count. C) Place the patient on respiratory isolation and inform the physician. D) Perform oral suctioning to reduce the patient's risk for aspiration.

Ans: C Feedback: These signs and symptoms are suggestive of tuberculosis, not Kaposi's sarcoma; prompt assessment and treatment is necessary. There is no indication of a need for oral suctioning and the patient's blood work will not reflect the onset of this opportunistic infection.

A client with dependent personality disorder has a goal to increase her problem-solving skills. Which client behavior would indicate progress toward meeting that goal? A) Asking questions B) Being polite C) Controlling emotional outbursts D) Requesting assistance appropriately

Ans: A

The nurse is teaching a client with paranoid personality disorder to validate ideas with another person before taking action on him. Which is the best rationale for this intervention? A) It will assist the client to start basing decisions and actions on reality. B) It will help the client understand the origins of his or her paranoid thinking. C) It will help the client learn to trust other people. D) It will teach the client to differentiate when his or her suspicions are true.

Ans: A

The nurse is teaching a client with schizoid personality to function more comfortably with others in the community. Which nursing intervention would be effective to improve the client's social skills? A) Teach the client to make necessary requests in writing or over the phone. B) Accompany the client during initial interactions in the community. C) Suppress the display of any unusual behaviors in public. D) Assist in developing an explanation for bizarre behaviors to offer to others in the community.

Ans: A

Upon admission, a client with a personality disorder identified the following as areas of concern for which the client would like help. According to studies, which will most likely be addressed by the health-care team? A) Psychological distress B) Self-care C) Sexual expression D) Budgeting

Ans: A

Which disorder is characterized by pervasive mistrust and suspiciousness of others? A) Paranoid personality disorder B) Schizoid personality disorder C) Histrionic personality disorder D) Dependent personality disorder

Ans: A

A patient is admitted to the medical unit with a diagnosis of intestinal obstruction. When planning this patients care, which of the following nursing diagnoses should the nurse prioritize? • Ineffective Tissue Perfusion Related to Bowel Ischemia • Imbalanced Nutrition: Less Than Body Requirements Related to Impaired Absorption • Anxiety Related to Bowel Obstruction and Subsequent Hospitalization • Impaired Skin Integrity Related to Bowel Obstruction

Ans: A Feedback: When the bowel is completely obstructed, the possibility of strangulation and tissue necrosis (i.e., tissue death) warrants surgical intervention. As such, this immediate physiologic need is a nursing priority. Nutritional support and management of anxiety are necessary, but bowel ischemia is a more immediate threat. Skin integrity is not threatened.

A man tells the nurse that his father died of prostate cancer and he is concerned about his own risk of developing the disease, having heard that prostate cancer has a genetic link. What aspect of the pathophysiology of prostate cancer would underlie the nurse's response? A) A number of studies have identified an association of BRCA-2 mutation with an increased risk of prostate cancer. B) HNPCC is a mutation of two genes that causes prostate cancer in men and it is autosomal dominant. C) Studies have shown that the presence of the TP53 gene strongly influences the incidence of prostate cancer. D) Recent research has demonstrated that prostate cancer is the result of lifestyle factors and that genetics are unrelated.

Ans: A Feedback: A number of studies have identified an association of BRCA-2 mutation with an increased risk of prostate cancer. HPNCC is a form of colon cancer. The TP53 gene is associated with breast cancer.

A hospital patient is immunocompromised because of stage 3 HIV infection and the physician has ordered a chest radiograph. How should the nurse most safely facilitate the test? A) Arrange for a portable x-ray machine to be used. B) Have the patient wear a mask to the x-ray department. C) Ensure that the radiology department has been disinfected prior to the test. D) Send the patient to the x-ray department, and have the staff in the department wear masks.

Ans: A Feedback: A patient who is immunocompromised is at an increased risk of contracting nosocomial infections due to suppressed immunity. The safest way the test can be facilitated is to have a portable x-ray machine in the patient's room. This confers more protection than disinfecting the radiology department or using masks.

A patient with HIV infection has begun experiencing severe diarrhea. What is the most appropriate nursing intervention to help alleviate the diarrhea? A) Administer antidiarrheal medications on a scheduled basis, as ordered. B) Encourage the patient to eat three balanced meals and a snack at bedtime. C) Increase the patient's oral fluid intake. D) Encourage the patient to increase his or her activity level.

Ans: A Feedback: Administering antidiarrheal agents on a regular schedule may be more beneficial than administering them on an as-needed basis, provided the patient's diarrhea is not caused by an infectious microorganism. Increased oral fluid may exacerbate diarrhea; IV fluid replacement is often indicated. Small, more frequent meals may be beneficial, and it is unrealistic to increase activity while the patient has frequent diarrhea.

A nurse is planning the care of a patient with AIDS who is admitted to the unit withPneumocystis pneumonia (PCP). Which nursing diagnosis has the highest priority for this patient? A) Ineffective Airway Clearance B) Impaired Oral Mucous Membranes C) Imbalanced Nutrition: Less than Body Requirements D) Activity Intolerance

Ans: A Feedback: Although all these nursing diagnoses are appropriate for a patient with AIDS, Ineffective Airway Clearance is the priority nursing diagnosis for the patient with Pneumocystis pneumonia (PCP). Airway and breathing take top priority over the other listed concerns.

A nurse is providing care for a patient who has recently been admitted to the postsurgical unit from PACU following a transuretheral resection of the prostate. The nurse is aware of the nursing diagnosis of Risk for Imbalanced Fluid Volume. In order to assess for this risk, the nurse should prioritize what action? A) Closely monitoring the input and output of the bladder irrigation system B) Administering parenteral nutrition and fluids as ordered C) Monitoring the patient's level of consciousness and skin turgor D) Scanning the patient's bladder for retention every 2 hours

Ans: A Feedback: Continuous bladder irrigation effectively reduces the risk of clots in the GU tract but also creates a risk for fluid volume excess if it becomes occluded. The nurse must carefully compare input and output, and ensure that these are in balance. Parenteral nutrition is unnecessary after prostate surgery and skin turgor is not an accurate indicator of fluid status. Frequent bladder scanning is not required when a urinary catheter is in situ.

A patient with HIV has a nursing diagnosis of Risk for Impaired Skin Integrity. What nursing intervention best addresses this risk? A) Utilize a pressure-reducing mattress. B) Limit the patient's physical activity. C) Apply antibiotic ointment to dependent skin surfaces. D) Avoid contact with synthetic fabrics.

Ans: A Feedback: Devices such as alternating-pressure mattresses and low-air-loss beds are used to prevent skin breakdown. Activity should be promoted, not limited, and contact with synthetic fabrics does not necessary threaten skin integrity. Antibiotic ointments are not normally used unless there is a break in the skin surface.

A patient has just returned to the floor following a transurethral resection of the prostate. A triple-lumen indwelling urinary catheter has been inserted for continuous bladder irrigation. What, in addition to balloon inflation, are the functions of the three lumens? A) Continuous inflow and outflow of irrigation solution B) Intermittent inflow and continuous outflow of irrigation solution C) Continuous inflow and intermittent outflow of irrigation solution D) Intermittent flow of irrigation solution and prevention of hemorrhage

Ans: A Feedback: For continuous bladder irrigation, a triple-lumen indwelling urinary catheter is inserted. The three lumens provide for balloon inflation and continuous inflow and outflow of irrigation solution.

Since the emergence of HIV/AIDS, there have been significant changes in epidemiologic trends. Members of what group currently have the greatest risk of contracting HIV? A) Gay, bisexual, and other men who have sex with men B) Recreational drug users C) Blood transfusion recipients D) Health care providers

Ans: A Feedback: Gay, bisexual, and other men who have sex with men remain the population most affected by HIV and account for 2% of the population but 61% of the new infections. This exceeds the incidence among drug users, health care workers, and transfusion recipients.

A clinic nurse is caring for a patient admitted with AIDS. The nurse has assessed that the patient is experiencing a progressive decline in cognitive, behavioral, and motor functions. The nurse recognizes that these symptoms are most likely related to the onset of what complication? A) HIV encephalopathy B) B-cell lymphoma C) Kaposi's sarcoma D) Wasting syndrome

Ans: A Feedback: HIV encephalopathy is a clinical syndrome characterized by a progressive decline in cognitive, behavioral, and motor functions. The other listed complications do not normally have cognitive and behavioral manifestations.

An HIV-infected patient presents at the clinic for a scheduled CD4+ count. The results of the test are 45 cells/mL, and the nurse recognizes the patient's increased risk for Mycobacterium aviumcomplex (MAC disease). The nurse should anticipate the administration of what drug? A) Azithromycin B) Vancomycin C) Levofloxacin D) Fluconazole

Ans: A Feedback: HIV-infected adults and adolescents should receive chemoprophylaxis against disseminatedMycobacterium avium complex (MAC disease) if they have a CD4+ count less than 50 cells/µL. Azithromycin (Zithromax) or clarithromycin (Biaxin) are the preferred prophylactic agents. Vancomycin, levofloxacin, and fluconazole are not prophylactic agents for MAC.

A patient who is postoperative day 12 and recovering at home following a laparoscopic prostatectomy has reported that he is experiencing occasional dribbling of urine. How should the nurse best respond to this patient's concern? A) Inform the patient that urinary control is likely to return gradually. B) Arrange for the patient to be assessed by his urologist. C) Facilitate the insertion of an indwelling urinary catheter by the home care nurse. D) Teach the patient to perform intermittent self-catheterization.

Ans: A Feedback: It is important that the patient know that regaining urinary control is a gradual process; he may continue to dribble after being discharged from the hospital, but this should gradually diminish (usually within 1 year). At this point, medical follow-up is likely not necessary. There is no need to perform urinary catheterization.

A nurse is addressing the incidence and prevalence of HIV infection among older adults. What principle should guide the nurse's choice of educational interventions? A) Many older adults do not see themselves as being at risk for HIV infection. B) Many older adults are not aware of the difference between HIV and AIDS. C) Older adults tend to have more sex partners than younger adults. D) Older adults have the highest incidence of intravenous drug use.

Ans: A Feedback: It is known that many older adults do not see themselves as being at risk for HIV infection. Knowledge of the relationship between HIV infection and AIDS is not known to affect the incidence of new cases. The statements about sex partners and IV drug use are untrue.

A patient who has AIDS is being treated in the hospital and admits to having periods of extreme anxiety. What would be the most appropriate nursing intervention? A) Teach the patient guided imagery. B) Give the patient more control of her antiretroviral regimen. C) Increase the patient's activity level. D) Collaborate with the patient's physician to obtain an order for hydromorphone.

Ans: A Feedback: Measures such as relaxation and guided imagery may be beneficial because they decrease anxiety, which contributes to weakness and fatigue. Increased activity may be of benefit, but for other patients this may exacerbate feelings of anxiety or loss. Granting the patient control has the potential to reduce anxiety, but the patient is not normally given unilateral control of the ART regimen. Hydromorphone is not used to treat anxiety.

A 22-year-old male is being discharged home after surgery for testicular cancer. The patient is scheduled to begin chemotherapy in 2 weeks. The patient tells the nurse that he doesn't think he can take weeks or months of chemotherapy, stating that he has researched the adverse effects online. What is the most appropriate nursing action for this patient at this time? A) Provide empathy and encouragement in an effort to foster a positive outlook. B) Tell the patient it is his decision whether to accept or reject chemotherapy. C) Report the patient's statement to members of his support system. D) Refer the patient to social work.

Ans: A Feedback: Patients may be required to endure a long course of therapy and will need encouragement to maintain a positive attitude. It is certainly the patient's ultimate decision to accept or reject chemotherapy, but the nurse should focus on promoting a positive outlook. It would be a violation of confidentiality to report the patient's statement to members of his support system and there is no obvious need for a social work referral.

A patient has experienced occasional urinary incontinence in the weeks since his prostatectomy. In order to promote continence, the nurse should encourage which of the following? A) Pelvic floor exercises B) Intermittent urinary catheterization C) Reduced physical activity D) Active range of motion exercises

Ans: A Feedback: Pelvic floor muscles can promote the resumption of normal urinary function following prostate surgery. Catheterization is normally unnecessary, and it carries numerous risks of adverse effects. Increasing or decreasing physical activity is unlikely to influence urinary function.

A 35-year-old man is seen in the clinic because he is experiencing recurring episodes of urinary frequency, dysuria, and fever. The nurse should recognize the possibility of what health problem? A) Chronic bacterial prostatitis B) Orchitis C) Benign prostatic hyperplasia D) Urolithiasis

Ans: A Feedback: Prostatitis is an inflammation of the prostate gland that is often associated with lower urinary tract symptoms and symptoms of sexual discomfort and dysfunction. Symptoms are usually mild, consisting of frequency, dysuria, and occasionally urethral discharge. Urinary incontinence and retention occur with benign prostatic hyperplasia or hypertrophy. The patient may experience nocturia, urgency, decrease in volume and force of urinary stream. Urolithiasis is characterized by excruciating pain. Orchitis does not cause urinary symptoms.

To decrease glandular cellular activity and prostate size, an 83-year-old patient has been prescribed finasteride (Proscar). When performing patient education with this patient, the nurse should be sure to tell the patient what? A) Report the planned use of dietary supplements to the physician. B) Decrease the intake of fluids to prevent urinary retention. C) Abstain from sexual activity for 2 weeks following the initiation of treatment. D) Anticipate a temporary worsening of urinary retention before symptoms subside.

Ans: A Feedback: Some herbal supplements are contraindicated with Proscar, thus their planned use should be discussed with the physician or pharmacist. The patient should maintain normal fluid intake. There is no need to abstain from sexual activity and a worsening of urinary retention is not anticipated.

A public health nurse is teaching a health class for the male students at the local high school. The nurse is teaching the boys to perform monthly testicular self-examinations. What point would be appropriate to emphasize? A) Testicular cancer is a highly curable type of cancer. B) Testicular cancer is very difficult to diagnose. C) Testicular cancer is the number one cause of cancer deaths in males. D) Testicular cancer is more common in older men.

Ans: A Feedback: Testicular cancer is highly curable, particularly when it's treated in its early stage. Self-examination allows early detection and facilitates the early initiation of treatment. The highest mortality rates from cancer among men are with lung cancer. Testicular cancer is found more commonly in younger men.

A nurse is teaching a 53-year-old man about prostate cancer. What information should the nurse provide to best facilitate the early identification of prostate cancer? A) Have a digital rectal examination and prostate-specific antigen (PSA) test done yearly. B) Have a transrectal ultrasound every 5 years. C) Perform monthly testicular self-examinations, especially after age 60. D) Have a complete blood count (CBC), blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine assessment performed annually.

Ans: A Feedback: The incidence of prostate cancer increases after age 50. The digital rectal examination, which identifies enlargement or irregularity of the prostate, and the PSA test, a tumor marker for prostate cancer, are effective diagnostic measures that should be done yearly. Testicular self-examinations won't identify changes in the prostate gland due to its location in the body. A transrectal ultrasound and CBC with BUN and creatinine assessment are usually done after diagnosis to identify the extent of disease and potential metastases.

A nurse is assessing the skin integrity of a patient who has AIDS. When performing this inspection, the nurse should prioritize assessment of what skin surfaces? A) Perianal region and oral mucosa B) Sacral region and lower abdomen C) Scalp and skin over the scapulae D) Axillae and upper thorax

Ans: A Feedback: The nurse should inspect all the patient's skin surfaces and mucous membranes, but the oral mucosa and perianal region are particularly vulnerable to skin breakdown and fungal infection.

A 29-year-old patient has just been told that he has testicular cancer and needs to have surgery. During a presurgical appointment, the patient admits to feeling devastated that he requires surgery, stating that it will leave him emasculated and a shell of a man. The nurse should identify what nursing diagnosis when planning the patient's subsequent care? A) Disturbed Body Image Related to Effects of Surgery B) Spiritual Distress Related to Effects of Cancer Surgery C) Social Isolation Related to Effects of Surgery D) Risk for Loneliness Related to Change in Self-Concept

Ans: A Feedback: The patient's statements specifically address his perception of his body as it relates to his identity. Consequently, a nursing diagnosis of Disturbed Body Image is likely appropriate. This patient is at risk for social isolation and loneliness, but there's no indication in the scenario that these diagnoses are present. There is no indication of spiritual element to the patient's concerns.

The nurse's plan of care for a patient with stage 3 HIV addresses the diagnosis of Risk for Impaired Skin Integrity Related to Candidiasis. What nursing intervention best addresses this risk? A) Providing thorough oral care before and after meals B) Administering prophylactic antibiotics C) Promoting nutrition and adequate fluid intake D) Applying skin emollients as needed

Ans: A Feedback: Thorough mouth care has the potential to prevent or limit the severity of this infection. Antibiotics are irrelevant because of the fungal etiology. The patient requires adequate food and fluids, but these do not necessarily prevent candidiasis. Skin emollients are not appropriate because candidiasis is usually oral.

A nurse is providing care for a patient who has a diagnosis of irritable bowel syndrome (IBS). When planning this patients care, the nurse should collaborate with the patient and prioritize what goal? A. Patient will accurately identify foods that trigger symptoms. B. Patient will demonstrate appropriate care of his ileostomy. C. Patient will demonstrate appropriate use of standard infection control precautions. D. Patient will adhere to recommended guidelines for mobility and activity.

Ans: A Feedback: A major focus of nursing care for the patient with IBS is to identify factors that exacerbate symptoms. Surgery is not used to treat this health problem and infection control is not a concern that is specific to this diagnosis. Establishing causation likely is more important to the patient than managing physical activity.

A nurse is caring for a patient admitted with symptoms of an anorectal infection; cultures indicate that the patient has a viral infection. The nurse should anticipate the administration of what drug? • Acyclovir (Zovirax) • Doxycycline (Vibramycin) • Penicillin (penicillin • Metronidazole (Flagyl)

Ans: A Feedback: Acyclovir (Zovirax) is often given to patients with viral anorectal infections. Doxycycline (Vibramycin) and penicillin (penicillin G) are drugs of choice for bacterial infections. Metronidazole (Flagyl) is used for other infections with a bacterial etiology; it is ineffective against viruses.

A 35-year-old male patient presents at the emergency department with symptoms of a small bowel obstruction. In collaboration with the primary care provider, what intervention should the nurse prioritize? • Insertion of a nasogastric tube • Insertion of a central venous catheter • Administration of a mineral oil enema • Administration of a glycerin suppository and an oral laxative

Ans: A Feedback: Decompression of the bowel through a nasogastric tube is necessary for all patients with small bowel obstruction. Peripheral IV access is normally sufficient. Enemas, suppositories, and laxatives are not indicated if an obstruction is present.

A teenage patient with a pilonidal cyst has been brought for care by her mother. The nurse who is contributing to the patients care knows that treatment will be chosen based on what risk? • Risk for infection • Risk for bowel incontinence • Risk for constipation • Risk for impaired tissue perfusion

Ans: A Feedback: Pilonidal cysts frequently develop into an abscess, necessitating surgical repair. These cysts do not contribute to bowel incontinence, constipation, or impaired tissue perfusion.

A nurse is presenting an educational event to a local community group. When speaking about colorectal cancer, what risk factor should the nurse cite? • High levels of alcohol consumption • History of bowel obstruction • History of diverticulitis • Longstanding psychosocial stress

Ans: A Feedback: Risk factors include high alcohol intake; cigarette smoking; and high-fact, high-protein, low-fiber diet. Diverticulitis, obstruction, and stress are not noted as risk factors for colorectal cancer.

The nurse is providing care for a patient whose inflammatory bowel disease has necessitated hospital treatment. Which of the following would most likely be included in the patients medication regimen? • Anticholinergic medications 30 minutes before a meal • Antiemetics on a PRN basis • Vitamin B12 injections to prevent pernicious anemia • Beta adrenergic blockers to reduce bowel motility

Ans: A Feedback: The nurse administers anticholinergic medications 30 minutes before a meal as prescribed to decrease intestinal motility and administers analgesics as prescribed for pain. Antiemetics, vitamin B12 injections and beta blockers do not address the signs, symptoms, or etiology of inflammatory bowel disease.

A nurse is preparing to provide care for a patient whose exacerbation of ulcerative colitis has required hospital admission. During an exacerbation of this health problem, the nurse would anticipate that the patients stools will have what characteristics? • Watery with blood and mucus • Hard and black or tarry • Dry and streaked with blood • Loose with visible fatty streaks

Ans: A Feedback: The predominant symptoms of ulcerative colitis are diarrhea and abdominal pain. Stools may be bloody and contain mucus. Stools are not hard, dry, tarry, black or fatty in patients who have ulcerative colitis.

12. A patient with cancer of the bladder has just returned to the unit from the PACU after surgery to create an ileal conduit. The nurse is monitoring the patient's urine output hourly and notifies the physician when the hourly output is less than what? A) 30 mL B) 50 mL C) 100 mL D) 125 mL

Ans: A Feedback: A urine output below 30 mL/hr may indicate dehydration or an obstruction in the ileal conduit, with possible backflow or leakage from the ureteroileal anastomosis.

39. The nurse has tested the pH of urine from a patient's newly created ileal conduit and obtained a result of 6.8. What is the nurse's best response to this assessment finding? A) Obtain an order to increase the patient's dose of ascorbic acid. B) Administer IV sodium bicarbonate as ordered. C) Encourage the patient to drink at least 500 mL of water and retest in 3 hours. D) Irrigate the ileal conduit with a dilute citric acid solution as ordered.

Ans: A Feedback: Because severe alkaline encrustation can accumulate rapidly around the stoma, the urine pH is kept below 6.5 by administration of ascorbic acid by mouth. An increased pH may suggest a need to increase ascorbic acid dosing. This is not treated by administering bicarbonate or citric acid, nor by increasing fluid intake.

18. The nurse is working with a patient who has been experiencing episodes of urinary retention. What assessment finding would suggest that the patient is experiencing retention? A) The patient's suprapubic region is dull on percussion. B) The patient is uncharacteristically drowsy. C) The patient claims to void large amounts of urine 2 to 3 times daily. D) The patient takes a beta adrenergic blocker for the treatment of hypertension.

Ans: A Feedback: Dullness on percussion of the suprapubic region is suggestive of urinary retention. Patients retaining urine are typically restless, not drowsy. A patient experiencing retention usually voids frequent, small amounts of urine and the use of beta-blockers is unrelated to urinary retention.

19. A patient with kidney stones is scheduled for extracorporeal shock wave lithotripsy (ESWL). What should the nurse include in the patient's post-procedure care? A) Strain the patient's urine following the procedure. B) Administer a bolus of 500 mL normal saline following the procedure. C) Monitor the patient for fluid overload following the procedure. D) Insert a urinary catheter for 24 to 48 hours after the procedure.

Ans: A Feedback: Following ESWL, the nurse should strain the patient's urine for gravel or sand. There is no need to administer an IV bolus after the procedure and there is not a heightened risk of fluid overload. Catheter insertion is not normally indicated following ESWL.

21. A patient is undergoing diagnostic testing for a suspected urinary obstruction. The nurse should know that incomplete emptying of the bladder due to bladder outlet obstruction can cause what? A) Hydronephrosis B) Nephritic syndrome C) Pylonephritis D) Nephrotoxicity

Ans: A Feedback: If voiding dysfunction goes undetected and untreated, the upper urinary system may become compromised. Chronic incomplete bladder emptying from poor detrusor pressure results in recurrent bladder infection. Incomplete bladder emptying due to bladder outlet obstruction, causing high-pressure detrusor contractions, can result in hydronephrosis from the high detrusor pressure that radiates up the ureters to the renal pelvis. This problem does not normally cause nephritic syndrome or pyelonephritis. Nephrotoxicity results from chemical causes.

37. The nurse who is leading a wellness workshop has been asked about actions to reduce the risk of bladder cancer. What health promotion action most directly addresses a major risk factor for bladder cancer? A) Smoking cessation B) Reduction of alcohol intake C) Maintenance of a diet high in vitamins and nutrients D) Vitamin D supplementation

Ans: A Feedback: People who smoke develop bladder cancer twice as often as those who do not smoke. High alcohol intake and low vitamin intake are not noted to contribute to bladder cancer.

5. The nurse on a urology unit is working with a patient who has been diagnosed with oxalate renal calculi. When planning this patient's health education, what nutritional guidelines should the nurse provide? A) Restrict protein intake as ordered. B) Increase intake of potassium-rich foods. C) Follow a low-calcium diet. D) Encourage intake of food containing oxalates.

Ans: A Feedback: Protein is restricted to 60 g/d, while sodium is restricted to 3 to 4 g/d. Low-calcium diets are generally not recommended except for true absorptive hypercalciuria. The patient should avoid intake of oxalate-containing foods and there is no need to increase potassium intake.

2. A 42-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of occasional urinary incontinence when she sneezes. The clinic nurse should recognize what type of incontinence? A) Stress incontinence B) Reflex incontinence C) Overflow incontinence D) Functional incontinence

Ans: A Feedback: Stress incontinence is the involuntary loss of urine through an intact urethra as a result of sudden increase in intra-abdominal pressure. Reflex incontinence is loss of urine due to hyperreflexia or involuntary urethral relaxation in the absence of normal sensations usually associated with voiding. Overflow incontinence is an involuntary urine loss associated with overdistension of the bladder. Functional incontinence refers to those instances in which the function of the lower urinary tract is intact, but other factors (outside the urinary system) make it difficult or impossible for the patient to reach the toilet in time for voiding.

9. The nurse and urologist have both been unsuccessful in catheterizing a patient with a prostatic obstruction and a full bladder. What approach does the nurse anticipate the physician using to drain the patient's bladder? A) Insertion of a suprapubic catheter B) Scheduling the patient immediately for a prostatectomy C) Application of warm compresses to the perineum to assist with relaxation D) Medication administration to relax the bladder muscles and reattempting catheterization in 6 hours

Ans: A Feedback: When the patient cannot void, catheterization is used to prevent overdistention of the bladder. In the case of prostatic obstruction, attempts at catheterization by the urologist may not be successful, requiring insertion of a suprapubic catheter. A prostatectomy may be necessary, but would not be undertaken for the sole purpose of relieving a urethral obstruction. Delaying by applying compresses or administering medications could result in harm.

25. A female patient has been prescribed a course of antibiotics for the treatment of a UTI. When providing health education for the patient, the nurse should address what topic? A) The risk of developing a vaginal yeast infection as a consequent of antibiotic therapy B) The need to expect a heavy menstrual period following the course of antibiotics C) The risk of developing antibiotic resistance after the course of antibiotics D) The need to undergo a series of three urine cultures after the antibiotics have been completed

Ans: A Feedback: Yeast vaginitis occurs in as many as 25% of patients treated with antimicrobial agents that affect vaginal flora. Yeast vaginitis can cause more symptoms and be more difficult and costly to treat than the original UTI. Antibiotics do not affect menstrual periods and serial urine cultures are not normally necessary. Resistance is normally a result of failing to complete a prescribed course of antibiotics.

27. A patient has a recent diagnosis of chronic pancreatitis and is undergoing diagnostic testing to determine pancreatic islet cell function. The nurse should anticipate what diagnostic test? A) Glucose tolerance test B) ERCP C) Pancreatic biopsy D) Abdominal ultrasonography

Ans: A Feedback: A glucose tolerance test evaluates pancreatic islet cell function and provides necessary information for making decisions about surgical resection of the pancreas. This specific clinical information is not provided by ERCP, biopsy, or ultrasound.

One evening, a client with schizophrenia leaves his room and begins marching in the hall. When approached by the nurse, the client says, "God says I'm supposed to guard the area." Which of the following responses would be best? A) "I understand you hear a voice. You and I are the only ones in the hall, and I don't hear a voice." B) "The voices are part of your illness, and they will leave in time." C) "This guarding responsibility can make you tired. You rest for now, and I'll guard a while." D) "You are just imagining these things. Do not pay any attention to the voices."

Ans: A Feedback: Acknowledging that the client hears a voice validates that the client's experience is real to him, while presenting reality. "The voices are part of your illness, and they will leave in time," is not appropriate to the client's statement. "This guarding responsibility can make you tired. You rest for now, and I'll guard a while," reinforces the client's delusion. "'You are just imagining these things. Do not pay any attention to the voices," does not deal with the patient in a serious manner.

9. The nurse is discussing the principles of 12-step programs for recovery with a client. Which statement is consistent with the principles of 12-step programs? A) The client will need to abstain from all substances for successful recovery. B) Once sober, the person can safely return to life as it was before becoming addicted. C) The prognosis for recovery is enhanced with the aid of maintenance medications. D) Recovery requires adherence to a plan of achieving long-term goals.

Ans: A Feedback: Alcoholics Anonymous (AA) developed the 12-step program model for recovery, which is based on the philosophy that total abstinence is essential and that alcoholics need the help and support of others to maintain sobriety. Key slogans reflect the ideas in the 12 steps, such as ìone day at a timeî (approach sobriety one day at a time), ìeasy does itî (don't get frenzied about daily life and problems), and ìlet go and let Godî (turn your life over to a higher power). Page 5

23. The nurse is coleading a family therapy group with a client addicted to alcohol. Which statement made by the wife indicates the need for additional education regarding alcoholism as a family illness? A) ìI have to call in sick for my husband when he is too hung over to go to work.î B) ìLast time he got arrested, I just let him sit in jail.î C) ìWe have separated our finances so that I will not go broke.î D) ìI take my kids with me to Al-anon meetings every week.î

Ans: A Feedback: Alcoholism (and other substance abuse) often is called a family illness. One type of codependent behavior is called enabling, which is a behavior that seems helpful on the surface but actually perpetuates the substance use. Family members should be referred to Al-anon 12-step self-help groups. Page 11

31. A patient has just returned to the postsurgical unit from post-anesthetic recovery after breast surgery for removal of a malignancy. What is the most likely major nursing diagnosis to include in this patients immediate plan of care? A) Acute pain related to tissue manipulation and incision B) Ineffective coping related to surgery C) Risk for trauma related to post-surgical injury D) Chronic sorrow related to change in body image

Ans: A Feedback: Although many patients experience minimal pain, it is still important to assess for this postsurgical complication. Sorrow and ineffective coping are possible, but neither is likely to be evident in the immediate postoperative period. There is minimal risk of trauma.

7. A patient has been scheduled for an ultrasound of the gallbladder the following morning. What should the nurse do in preparation for this diagnostic study? A) Have the patient refrain from food and fluids after midnight. B) Administer the contrast agent orally 10 to 12 hours before the study. C) Administer the radioactive agent intravenously the evening before the study. D) Encourage the intake of 64 ounces of water 8 hours before the study.

Ans: A Feedback: An ultrasound of the gallbladder is most accurate if the patient fasts overnight, so that the gallbladder is distended. Contrast and radioactive agents are not used when performing ultrasonography of the gallbladder, as an ultrasound is based on reflected sound waves.

Which of the following statements about the assessment of persons with anxiety and anxiety disorders is most accurate? A) When an elder person has an onset of anxiety for the first time in his or her life, it is possible that the anxiety is associated with another condition. B) Panic attacks are the most common late-life anxiety disorders. C) An elder person with anxiety may be experiencing ruminative thoughts. D) Agoraphobia that occurs in late life may be related to trauma experienced or anticipated.

Ans: A Feedback: Anxiety that starts for the first time in late life is frequently associated with another condition such as depression, dementia, physical illness, or medication toxicity or withdrawal. Phobias, particularly agoraphobia, and GAD are the most common late-life anxiety disorders. Most people with late-onset agoraphobia attribute the start of the disorder to the abrupt onset of a physical illness or as a response to a traumatic event such as a fall or mugging. Ruminative thoughts are common in late-life depression and can take the form of obsessions such as contamination fears, pathologic doubt, or fear of harming others.

The nurse observes a client with schizophrenia sitting alone, laughing occasionally, and turning his head as if listening to another person. The nurse assesses this behavior to indicate that the client is experiencing auditory hallucinations and says, A) "Are you hearing something?" B) "It's a beautiful day, isn't it?" C) "Would you like to go to your room to talk?" D) "Would you like to take some of your PRN medication?"

Ans: A Feedback: Asking the client if he is hearing something validates the nurse's assessment and focuses on the client's experience. The other choices do not address the situation of the client experiencing auditory hallucinations at the present time.

25. A client calls the emergency department of the local hospital reporting that after 16 years of heavy drinking, he is tired and wants to quit ìcold turkey.î What would be the best response by the nurse? A) ìIt is not safe to stop drinking suddenly without medicine.î B) ìYou sound really motivated. Come in and we will help you find a treatment center.î C) ìAfter a few days of rest, you should feel much better as long as you do not drink anything.î D) ìYou will likely feel anxious and get a severe headache. Treat these symptoms with acetaminophen and rest, and come in if they do not get better in 3 to 5 days.î

Ans: A Feedback: Because alcohol withdrawal can be life threatening, detoxification needs to be accomplished under medical supervision. If the client's withdrawal symptoms are mild and he or she can abstain from alcohol, he or she can be treated safely at home. For more severe withdrawal or for clients who cannot abstain during detoxification, a short admission of 3 to 5 days is the most common setting. Some psychiatric units also admit clients for detoxification, but this is less common. Page 12

A client who has suspicion has been placed in a room with a roommate. The night nurse reports that this client has been awake for the past 3 nights. The likely explanation for his wakefulness is which of the following? A) He is fearful of what his roommate might do to him while he sleeps. B) He is a light sleeper and unaccustomed to a roommate. C) He is watching for an opportunity to escape. D) He is worrying about his family problems.

Ans: A Feedback: Clients who have suspicion trust no one and believe others are going to harm them. Being fearful of his roommate, being a light sleeper and unaccustomed to a roommate, and worrying about family problems would not be the most likely reasons why this client has been awake for the past three nights. The other explanations are not as likely.

24. A nurse is teaching a group of women about the potential benefits of breast self-examination (BSE). The nurse should teach the women that effective BSE is dependent on what factor? A) Womens knowledge of how their breasts normally look and feel B) The rapport that exists between the woman and her primary care provider C) Synchronizing womens routines around BSE with the performance of mammograms D) Womens knowledge of the pathophysiology of breast cancer

Ans: A Feedback: Current practice emphasizes the importance of breast self-awareness, which is a womans attentiveness to the normal appearance and feel of her breasts. BSE does not need to be synchronized with the performance of mammograms. Rapport between the patient and the care provider is beneficial, but does not necessarily determine the effectiveness of BSE. The woman does not need to understand the pathophysiology of breast cancer to perform BSE effectively.

A client states, "I will just die if I don't get this job." The nurse then asks the client, "What will be the worst that will happen if you don't get the job?" The nurse is using this response to A) appraise his situation more realistically. B) assist the client to make alternative plans for the future. C) assess if the client has health problems compounded by stress. D) clarify the client's meaning.

Ans: A Feedback: Decatastrophizing involves the therapist's use of questions to more realistically appraise the situation. The therapist may ask, "What is the worst that could happen? Is that likely? Could you survive that? Is that as bad as you imagine?"

24. An adult patient has been admitted to the medical unit for the treatment of acute pancreatitis. What nursing action should be included in this patient's plan of care? A) Measure the patient's abdominal girth daily. B) Limit the use of opioid analgesics. C) Monitor the patient for signs of dysphagia. D) Encourage activity as tolerated.

Ans: A Feedback: Due to the risk of ascites, the nurse should monitor the patient's abdominal girth. There is no specific need to avoid the use of opioids or to monitor for dysphagia, and activity is usually limited.

30. A patient has just been told she needs to have an incisional biopsy of a right breast mass. During preoperative teaching, how could the nurse best assess this patient for specific educational, physical, or psychosocial needs she might have? A) By encouraging her to verbalize her questions and concerns B) By discussing the possible findings of the biopsy C) By discussing possible treatment options if the diagnosis is cancer D) By reviewing her medical history

Ans: A Feedback: During the preoperative visit, the nurse assesses the patient for any specific educational, physical, or psychosocial needs that she may have. This can be accomplished by encouraging her to verbalize her fears, concerns, and questions. Reviewing her medical history may be beneficial, but it is not the best way to ascertain her needs. Discussing possible findings of the biopsy and possible treatment options is the responsibility of the treating physician.

19. The nurse is reviewing the physicians notes from the patient who has just left the clinic. The nurse learns that the physician suspects a malignant breast tumor. On palpation, the mass most likely had what characteristic? A) Nontenderness B) A size of 5 mm C) Softness and a regular shape D) Mobility

Ans: A Feedback: Generally, the lesions are nontender, fixed rather than mobile, and hard with irregular borders. Small size is not suggestive of malignancy.

35. A patient has had a total mastectomy with immediate reconstruction. The patient asks the nurse when she can take a shower. What should the nurse respond? A) Not until the drain is removed B) On the second postoperative day C) Now, if you wash gently with soap and water D) Seven days after your surgery

Ans: A Feedback: If immediate reconstruction has been performed, showering may be contraindicated until the drain is removed.

4. A patient's abdominal ultrasound indicates cholelithiasis. When the nurse is reviewing the patient's laboratory studies, what finding is most closely associated with this diagnosis? A) Increased bilirubin B) Decreased serum cholesterol C) Increased blood urea nitrogen (BUN) D) Decreased serum alkaline phosphatase level

Ans: A Feedback: If the flow of blood is impeded, bilirubin, a pigment derived from the breakdown of red blood cells, does not enter the intestines. As a result, bilirubin levels in the blood increase. Cholesterol, BUN, and alkaline phosphatase levels are not typically affected.

26. Which individual is at highest risk for committing suicide? A) A 71-year-old male, alcohol user, independent minded B) A 16-year-old female, diabetic, two best friends C) A 47-year-old male, schizophrenic, unemployed D) A 57-year-old female, depression, active in church

Ans: A Feedback: In the United States, men commit approximately 72% of suicides, which is roughly three times the rate of women, although women are four times more likely than men to attempt suicide. Adults older than age 65 years compose 10% of the population but account for 25% of suicides. Suicide is the second leading cause of death (after accidents) among people 15 to 24 years of age. Clients with psychiatric disorders, especially depression, bipolar disorder, schizophrenia, substance abuse, posttraumatic stress disorder, and borderline personality disorder, are at increased risk for suicide. Chronic medical illnesses associated with increased risk for suicide include cancer, HIV or AIDS, diabetes, cerebrovascular accidents, and head and spinal cord injury. Environmental factors that increase suicide risk include isolation, recent loss, lack of social support, unemployment, critical life events, and family history of depression or suicide.

8. A patient who came to the clinic after finding a mass in her breast is scheduled for a diagnostic breast biopsy. During the nurses admission assessment, the nurse observes that the patient is distracted and tense. What is it important for the nurse to do? A) Acknowledge the fear the patient is likely experiencing. B) Describe the support groups that exist in the community. C) Assess the patients stress management skills. D) Document a nursing diagnosis of ineffective coping.

Ans: A Feedback: In the breast cancer diagnostic phase it is appropriate to acknowledge the patients feelings of fear, concern, and apprehension. This must precede interventions such as referrals, if appropriate. Assessment of stress management skills made be necessary, but the nurse should begin by acknowledging the patients feelings. Fear is not necessarily indicative of ineffective coping.

Which of the following best explains the etiology of anxiety disorders from an interpersonal perspective? A) Anxiety is learned in childhood through interactions with caregivers. B) Anxiety is learned throughout life as a response to life experiences. C) Anxiety stems from an unconscious attempt to control awareness. D) Anxiety results from conforming to the norms of a cultural group.

Ans: A Feedback: Interpersonal theory proposes that caregivers can communicate anxiety to infants or children through inadequate nurturing, agitation when holding or handling the child, and distorted messages. In adults, anxiety arises from the person's need to conform to the norms and values of his or her cultural group. Psychoanalytic theories describe reducing anxiety through the use of defense mechanisms. Defense mechanisms are cognitive distortions that a person uses unconsciously to maintain a sense of being in control of a situation, to lessen discomfort, and to deal with stress.

34. A client is readmitted to the detox unit for the fourth time in 3 years. The nurse states in the morning report, ìNot again! Why should we keep trying to help this guy? He obviously doesn't want it.î What does this statement reflect? A) The nurse lacks the self-awareness to work effectively with this addicted client. B) The nurse understands the cycle of remission and relapse characteristic of addiction. C) The nurse has repressed negative emotions from past experiences with addiction. D) The nurse is trying to conceal his or her own addictions.

Ans: A Feedback: Many clients experience periodic relapses. For some, being sober is a lifelong struggle. The nurse may become cynical or pessimistic when clients return for multiple attempts at substance use treatment. Such thoughts as ìhe deserves health problems if he keeps drinkingî or ìshe should expect to get hepatitis or HIV infection if she keeps doing intravenous drugsî are signs that the nurse has some self-awareness problems that prevent him or her from working effectively with clients and their families. It is not appropriate to assume that the nurse is trying to conceal his or her own addictions. Page 16

37. A patient with ongoing back pain, nausea, and abdominal bloating has been diagnosed with cholecystitis secondary to gallstones. The nurse should anticipate that the patient will undergo what intervention? A) Laparoscopic cholecystectomy B) Methyl tertiary butyl ether (MTBE) infusion C) Intracorporeal lithotripsy D) Extracorporeal shock wave therapy (ESWL)

Ans: A Feedback: Most of the nonsurgical approaches, including lithotripsy and dissolution of gallstones, provide only temporary solutions to gallstone problems and are infrequently used in the United States. Cholecystectomy is the preferred treatment.

A client experiences panic attacks when confronted with riding in elevators. The therapist is teaching the client ways to relax while incrementally exposing the client to getting on an elevator. This technique is called A) systematic desensitization. B) flooding. C) cognitive restructuring. D) exposure therapy.

Ans: A Feedback: One behavioral therapy often used to treat phobias is systematic (serial) desensitization, in which the therapist progressively exposes the client to the threatening object in a safe setting until the client's anxiety decreases. Flooding is a form of rapid desensitization in which a behavioral therapist confronts the client with the phobic object (either a picture or the actual object) until it no longer produces anxiety. Cognitive restructuring involves challenging the client's irrational beliefs. Exposure therapy is similar to flooding.

36. A patient with a cholelithiasis has been scheduled for a laparoscopic cholecystectomy. Why is laparoscopic cholecystectomy preferred by surgeons over an open procedure? A) Laparoscopic cholecystectomy poses fewer surgical risks than an open procedure. B) Laparoscopic cholecystectomy can be performed in a clinic setting, while an open procedure requires an OR. C) A laparoscopic approach allows for the removal of the entire gallbladder. D) A laparoscopic approach can be performed under conscious sedation.

Ans: A Feedback: Open surgery has largely been replaced by laparoscopic cholecystectomy (removal of the gallbladder through a small incision through the umbilicus). As a result, surgical risks have decreased, along with the length of hospital stay and the long recovery period required after standard surgical cholecystectomy. Both approaches allow for removal of the entire gallbladder and must be performed under general anesthetic in an operating theater.

A college freshman is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of schizophrenia. Friends reported that she had been in her room for 2 days in a trance-like state, not eating nor speaking to anyone. Which of the following is the highest priority for this client? A) Assessing fluid intake and output B) Completing an assessment of mental status C) Obtaining more data about her college experiences D) Providing for adequate rest

Ans: A Feedback: Physiologic homeostasis is a priority for this client. Completing an assessment of mental status, obtaining data about college experiences, and providing adequate rest are not the highest priority.

3. Which of the following groups could benefit most from prevention programs? A) Children, prior to first use B) Adults who have already engaged in substance abuse C) Older adults D) Infants

Ans: A Feedback: Poor outcomes have been associated with an earlier age at onset and longer periods of substance use. Children who have not yet used substances may be easily influenced because of their age and the fact that they have not already become addicted. Adults who have already engaged in substance abuse will not benefit as greatly from prevention programs as will children. Older adults will not benefit as greatly from prevention programs as will children. Infants will not benefit from prevention programs as they do not have self-efficacy.

13. A client with mania is demonstrating hypersexual behavior by blowing kisses to other clients, making suggestive remarks, and removing some articles of clothing. Which nursing intervention would be most appropriate at this time? A) Accompany the client to his or her room to get dressed. B) Put the client in seclusion for his or her own protection. C) Tell other clients to ignore the behavior because it is harmless. D) Tell the client that the behaviors have to stop right now.

Ans: A Feedback: Redirecting the client to appropriate behavior without confrontation is most effective. Seclusion is not an appropriate intervention for this situation. Ignoring the behavior is not indicated. The client is in the manic phase; telling him or her to stop the behavior may make the behaviors escalate.

A client with schizophrenia reads the advice column in the newspaper daily. When asked why the client is so interested in the advice column, the client replies, "This person is my guide and tells me what I must do every day." The nurse would best describe this type of thinking as which of the following? A) Referential delusion B) Grandiose delusion C) Thought insertion D) Personalization

Ans: A Feedback: Referential delusions or ideas of reference involve the client's belief that television broadcasts, music, or newspaper articles have special meaning for him or her. Grandiose delusions are characterized by the client's claim to association with famous people or celebrities, or the client's belief that he or she is famous or capable of great feats. Thought insertion is the belief that others are placing thoughts in their mind against their will. Personalization is not a psychotic characteristic of schizophrenia.

All of the following are included in the plan of care for a client with schizophrenia. Which nursing intervention should the nurse perform first when caring for this client? A) Observe for signs of fear or agitation B) Maintain reality through frequent contact C) Encourage to participate in the treatment milieu D) Assess community support systems

Ans: A Feedback: Safety for both the client and the nurse is the priority when providing care for the client with schizophrenia. The nurse must observe for signs of building agitation or escalating behavior such as increased intensity of pacing, loud talking or yelling, and hitting or kicking objects. The nurse must then institute interventions to protect the client, nurse, and others in the environment.

6. A 37-year-old male patient presents at the emergency department (ED) complaining of nausea and vomiting and severe abdominal pain. The patient's abdomen is rigid, and there is bruising to the patient's flank. The patient's wife states that he was on a drinking binge for the past 2 days. The ED nurse should assist in assessing the patient for what health problem? A) Severe pancreatitis with possible peritonitis B) Acute cholecystitis C) Chronic pancreatitis D) Acute appendicitis with possible perforation

Ans: A Feedback: Severe abdominal pain is the major symptom of pancreatitis that causes the patient to seek medical care. Pain in pancreatitis is accompanied by nausea and vomiting that does not relieve the pain or nausea. Abdominal guarding is present and a rigid or board-like abdomen may be a sign of peritonitis. Ecchymosis (bruising) to the flank or around the umbilicus may indicate severe peritonitis. Pain generally occurs 24 to 48 hours after a heavy meal or alcohol ingestion. The link with alcohol intake makes pancreatitis a more likely possibility than appendicitis or cholecystitis.

A client is learning to cope with anxiety and stress. The expected outcome is that the client will A) change reactions to stressors. B) ignore situations that cause stress. C) limit major stressors in his or her life. D) avoid anxiety at all costs.

Ans: A Feedback: Stress and anxiety in life are unavoidable; managing the effects of stress is a reasonable goal for treatment. It is not possible or desirable to avoid anxiety at all costs as anxiety is a warning that the client is not dealing with stress effectively. Learning to heed this warning and to make needed changes is a healthy way to deal with the stress of daily events.

39. A patient who has had a lumpectomy calls the clinic to talk to the nurse. The patient tells the nurse that she has developed a tender area on her breast that is red and warm and looks like someone drew a line with a red marker. What would the nurse suspect is the womans problem? A) Mondor disease B) Deep vein thrombosis (DVT) of the breast C) Recurrent malignancy D) An area of fat necrosis

Ans: A Feedback: Superficial thrombophlebitis of the breast (Mondor disease) is an uncommon condition that is usually associated with pregnancy, trauma, or breast surgery. Pain and redness occur as a result of a superficial thrombophlebitis in the vein that drains the outer part of the breast. The mass is usually linear, tender, and erythematous. Fat necrosis is a condition of the breast that is often associated with a history of trauma. The scenario described does not indicate a recurrent malignancy. DVTs of the breast do not occur.

6. A client is admitted for major depression. What should the nurse expect to find during assessment? A) Anhedonia, feelings of worthlessness, and difficulty focusing B) Depressed mood, guilt, and pressured speech C) Changes in sleep pattern, tired, and grandiose mood D) Difficulty focusing, feelings of helplessness, and flight of ideas

Ans: A Feedback: Symptoms of major depressive disorder include depressed mood; anhedonism (decreased attention to and enjoyment from previously pleasurable activities); unintentional weight change of 5% or more in a month; change in sleep pattern; agitation or psychomotor retardation; tiredness; worthlessness or guilt inappropriate to the situation (possibly delusional); difficulty thinking, focusing, or making decisions; or hopelessness, helplessness, and/or suicidal ideation. Grandiose mood, pressured speech, and flight of ideas are associated with mania.

5. A concerned family member tells the nurse, ìI am concerned about my brother. He has been acting very different lately.î Knowing the family has a history of bipolar disorder, the nurse inquires further about this. Which behavior during the past week might indicate that the brother has bipolar disorder? A) Taking unnecessary risks B) Sleeping more C) Intense focus D) Showing low self-esteem

Ans: A Feedback: The diagnosis of a manic episode or mania requires at least 1 week of unusual and incessantly heightened, grandiose, or agitated mood in addition to three or more of the following symptoms: exaggerated self-esteem; sleeplessness; pressured speech; flight of ideas; reduced ability to filter extraneous stimuli; distractibility; increased activities with increased energy; and multiple, grandiose, high-risk activities involving poor judgment and severe consequences, such as spending sprees, sex with strangers, and impulsive investments.

19. A nurse is assisting with serving dinner trays on the unit. Upon receiving the dinner tray for a patient admitted with acute gallbladder inflammation, the nurse will question which of the following foods on the tray? A) Fried chicken B) Mashed potatoes C) Dinner roll D) Tapioca pudding

Ans: A Feedback: The diet immediately after an episode of acute cholecystitis is initially limited to low-fat liquids. Cooked fruits, rice or tapioca, lean meats, mashed potatoes, bread, and coffee or tea may be added as tolerated. The patient should avoid fried foods such as fried chicken, as fatty foods may bring on an episode of cholecystitis.

When teaching a client with generalized anxiety disorder, which is the highest priority for the nurse to teach the client to avoid? A) Caffeine B) High-fat foods C) Refined sugars D) Sodium

Ans: A Feedback: The effects of caffeine are similar to some anxiety symptoms, and, therefore, caffeine ingestion will worsen anxiety. The other types of foods are also potentially harmful to physical as well as psychological health, but the worst offender is caffeine.

30. A client who is depressed states, ìI think my family would be better off without me. They don't need to worry.î Which would be the most appropriate response by the nurse? A) ìAre you planning to commit suicide?î B) ìWhat do you think they are worried about?î C) ìWhere are you going?î D) ìYou don't mean that. Your family loves you.î

Ans: A Feedback: The nurse never ignores any hint of suicidal ideation regardless of how trivial or subtle it seems and the client's intent or emotional status. Asking clients directly about thoughts of suicide is important.

12. A client who is manic states, ìWhat time is it? I have to see the doctor. Is breakfast here yet? I've got to see the doctor first. Can I get my cereal out of the kitchen?î Which would be the most appropriate response by the nurse? A) ìPlease slow down. I'm not sure what you need first.î B) ìYou will have to be quiet and have breakfast after the doctor comes.î C) ìAre you hungry?î D) ìYour thoughts seem to be racing this morning.î

Ans: A Feedback: The speech of manic clients may be pressured: rapid, circumstantial, rhyming, noisy, or intrusive with flights of ideas. The nurse must keep channels of communication open with clients, regardless of speech patterns. The nurse can say, ìPlease speak more slowly. I'm having trouble following you.î This puts the responsibility for the communication difficulty on the nurse rather than on the client.

5. The nurse is assessing a client's risk factors for developing a substance abuse disorder. Which family characteristics would the nurse identify as a significant risk factor? A) One parent who is an alcoholic B) Parents who practiced strict discipline C) Overprotective parents D) Being raised in an urban area

Ans: A Feedback: The strongest indication of risk factors comes from studies that indicate children of alcoholic parents are four times as likely to develop alcoholism that of nonalcoholic parents. Some theorists also believe that inconsistency in the parent's behavior, poor role modeling, and lack of nurturing pave the way for the child to adopt a similar style of maladaptive coping, stormy relationships, and substance abuse. Others hypothesize that even children who abhorred their family lives are likely to abuse substances as adults because they lack adaptive coping skills and cannot form successful relationships. Urban areas where drugs and alcohol are readily available also have high crime rates, high unemployment, and substandard school systems that contribute to high rates of cocaine and opioid use and low rates of recovery.

Which of the following theories about anxiety is based upon intrapsychic theories? A) A person's innate anxiety is the stimulus for behavior. B) Anxiety is generated from problems in interpersonal relationships. C) A nurse can help the client to achieve health by attending to interpersonal and physiologic needs. D) Anxiety is learned through experiences.

Ans: A Feedback: Theories of anxiety can be classified as intrapsychic/psychoanalytic theories, interpersonal theories, and behavioral theories. Freud's intrapsychic theory views a person's innate anxiety as the stimulus for behavior. Interpersonal theories include Sullivan's theory that anxiety is generated from problems in interpersonal relationships and Peplau's belief that humans exist in interpersonal and physiologic realms. Behavioral theorists view anxiety as being learned through experiences.

14. The client with mania attempts to hit the nurse. Which is the best response by the nurse? A) ìDo not swing at me again. If you cannot control yourself, we will help you.î B) ìIf you do that one more time, you will be put in seclusion immediately.î C) ìStop that. I didn't do anything to provoke an attack.î D) ìWhy do you continue that kind of behavior? You know I won't let you do it.î

Ans: A Feedback: This response firmly states behavioral expectations and lets the client know his behavior will be safely controlled if he is unable to do so. The other choices are not appropriate responses to this situation.

The client with schizophrenia tells the nurse that rats have started to eat his brain. The best response by the nurse would be, A) "Have you discussed this with your physician?" B) "How could that be possible?" C) "You cannot have rats in your brain." D) "You look OK to me."

Ans: A Feedback: This sounds like a new symptom, so talking with the physician is important; the client may need to have his medication reevaluated. "How could that be possible," puts the client on the defensive. "You cannot have rats in your brain," refers to the response as being unbelievable. "You look OK to me," is inappropriate and not therapeutic.

27. Which is a possible explanation for the increased risk of suicide in persons who have had a relative who committed suicide? A) The relative's suicide offers a sense of ìpermissionî or acceptance of suicide as a method of escaping a difficult situation. B)Many people with depression who have suicidal ideation lack the energy to implement suicide plans, but antidepressant treatment can actually give clients with depression the energy to act on suicidal ideation. C) Suicide is more likely to occur in April when natural energy from increased sunlight may give the client the energy to act on suicidal ideation. D) The relative's suicide caused the family members to realize that suicide is emotionally harmful to the ones left behind and vow not to consider suicide.

Ans: A Feedback: Those with a relative who committed suicide are at increased risk for suicide: the closer the relationship, the greater the risk. One possible explanation is that the relative's suicide offers a sense of ìpermissionî or acceptance of suicide as a method of escaping a difficult situation. Treatment with antidepressants and spring increase in sunlight and energy may give a person with suicidal ideation the energy to act on it. If a relative commits suicide, the family members may recognize that suicide is emotionally harmful to the ones left behind and vow not to consider suicideóthis does not increase the risk of suicide.

9. A patient has been referred to the breast clinic after her most recent mammogram revealed the presence of a lump. The lump is found to be a small, well-defined nodule in the right breast. The oncology nurse should recognize the likelihood of what treatment? A) Lumpectomy and radiation B) Partial mastectomy and radiation C) Partial mastectomy and chemotherapy D) Total mastectomy and chemotherapy

Ans: A Feedback: Treatment for breast cancer depends on the disease stage and type, the patients age and menopausal status, and the disfiguring effects of the surgery. For this patient, lumpectomy is the most likely option because the nodule is well-defined. The patient usually undergoes radiation therapy afterward. Because a lumpectomy is possible, mastectomy would not be the treatment of choice.

14. A new mother who is breastfeeding calls the clinic to speak to a nurse. The patient is complaining of pain in her left breast and describes her breast as feeling doughy. The nurse tells her to come into the clinic and be checked. The patient is diagnosed with acute mastitis and placed on antibiotics. What comfort measure should the nurse recommend? A) Apply cold compresses as ordered. B) Avoid wearing a bra until the infection clears. C) Avoid washing the breasts. D) Perform gentle massage to stimulate neutrophil migration.

Ans: A Feedback: Treatment of mastitis consists of antibiotics and local application of cold compresses to relieve discomfort. A broad-spectrum antibiotic agent may be prescribed for 7 to 10 days. The patient should wear a snug bra and perform personal hygiene carefully. Massage is not recommended.

27. A patient is to undergo an ultrasound-guided core biopsy. The patient tells the nurse that a friend of hers had a stereotactic core biopsy. She wants to understand the differences between the two procedures. What would be the nurses best response? A) An ultrasound-guided core biopsy is faster, less expensive, and does not use radiation. B) An ultrasound-guided core biopsy is a little more expensive, but it doesnt use radiation and it is faster. C) An ultrasound-guided core biopsy is a little more expensive, and it also uses radiation but it is faster. D) An ultrasound-guided core biopsy takes more time, and it also uses radiation, but it is less expensive.

Ans: A Feedback: Ultrasound-guided core biopsy does not use radiation and is also faster and less expensive than stereotactic core biopsy.

18. A client with bipolar disorder is admitted to the psychiatric unit. The client is talking loudly, walking back and forth rapidly, and exhibiting a short attention span. Which nursing intervention should occur first? A) Decrease the client's environmental stimuli. B) Give the client feedback about his behavior. C) Introduce the client to other staff on the unit. D) Tell the client about hospital rules and policies.

Ans: A Feedback: When the client is agitated, decreasing stimuli is the priority. Answer choices D, B, and C are not priority interventions.

18. A client with a history of heavy alcohol use, whose last drink was 24 hours ago, is seen in the emergency department. The client is oriented but is tremulous, weak, and sweaty and has some gastrointestinal (GI) symptoms. Which of the following is typical of these symptoms? A) Alcohol withdrawal syndrome B) Continuing intoxication C) Delirium tremens D) WernickeñKorsakoff syndrome

Ans: A Feedback: Withdrawal from alcohol produces shakiness, weakness, diaphoresis, and GI symptoms. These are not symptoms of continuing intoxication. Delirium tremens produce hypertension, delusions, hallucinations, and agitated behavior. Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome is a type of dementia caused by long-term, excessive alcohol intake that results in a chronic thiamine or vitamin B6 deficiency.

Which of the following interventions by the nurse will increase the client's sense of security? A) Allowing the client to perform the rituals B) Distracting the client from rituals with other activities C) Encouraging the client to talk about the purpose of the rituals D) Stopping the client from performing the rituals

Ans: A The client performs rituals to decrease anxiety and will feel most secure when performing the rituals. The other choices would not promote a sense of security of the client

Which of the following is the most important variable in determining the likelihood of success in improving life for a client with OCD? A) The client must be willing to make changes in his or her behavior. B) The client must acknowledge that the behavior is not in his or her control. C) The client must allow the nurse to decide the appropriate intervention for him or her. D) The client must be willing to try all new relaxation techniques.

Ans: A The most important variable is that the client is willing to make changes in his or her behavior. The nurse must not interrupt the client from performing rituals as this will cause anxiety, and the client will need to begin the ritual again. The client and nurse together must determine which interventions will be used. The client will likely need to use relaxation techniques but should have input into deciding which ones

A person suffering from schizophrenia has little emotional expression when interacting with others. The nurse would document the client's affect as which of the following? Select all that apply. A) Flat B) Blunt C) Bright D) Inappropriate E) Pleasant

Ans: A, B Feedback: Clients with schizophrenia are often described as having blunted affect (few observable facial expressions) or flat affect (no facial expression). The client may exhibit an inappropriate expression or emotions incongruent with the context of the situation. It is not likely that the affect of a person with schizophrenia would be pleasant.

Which are important in the limit-setting technique to deal with manipulative behavior? Select all that apply. A) Stating the behavioral limit B) Identifying the consequences if the limit is exceeded C) Identifying the expected or desired behavior D) Providing choices E) Allowing flexibility

Ans: A, B, C

22. The nurse is assessing a patient admitted with renal stones. During the admission assessment, what parameters would be priorities for the nurse to address? Select all that apply. A) Dietary history B) Family history of renal stones C) Medication history D) Surgical history E) Vaccination history

Ans: A, B, C Feedback: Dietary and medication histories and family history of renal stones are obtained to identify factors predisposing the patient to stone formation. When caring for a patient with renal stones it would not normally be a priority to assess the vaccination history or surgical history, since these factors are not usually related to the etiology of kidney stones.

36. A patient has been discharged home after a total mastectomy without reconstruction. The patient lives alone and has a home health referral. When the home care nurse performs the first scheduled visit this patient, what should the nurse assess? Select all that apply. A) Adherence to the exercise plan B) Overall psychological functioning C) Integrity of surgical drains D) Understanding of cancer E) Use of the breast prosthesis

Ans: A, B, C Feedback: Patients who have difficulty managing their postoperative care at home may benefit from a home health care referral. The home care nurse assesses the patients incision and surgical drain(s), adequacy of pain management, adherence to the exercise plan, and overall physical and psychological functioning. It is unnecessary to assess the patients understanding of cancer at this stage of recovery. Prostheses may be considered later in the recovery process.

Which of the following are important for the nurse to remember when teaching relaxation and behavioral techniques to a client with OCD? Select all that apply. A) It is important to teach the client to use relaxation techniques when the client's anxiety is low. B) The nurse may teach the client about relaxation techniques when the client is experiencing anxiety. C) The client must be willing to engage in exposure and response prevention. D) The client must be forced to use relaxation techniques. E) It is unnecessary to assess the baseline of ritualistic behaviors in the client with OCD

Ans: A, B, C The intervention should take place when the client's anxiety is low, so he or she can learn more effectively. The nurse may teach the client about relaxation techniques when the client is experiencing anxiety. The client must be willing to engage in exposure and response prevention. The client cannot be forced to use relaxation techniques. It is necessary to assess the baseline of frequency and duration of anxiety and ritualistic behaviors in the client with OCD.

The nurse correctly identifies that which of OCDs self-soothing behaviors may involve self-destruction of the body of a person who has OCD? Select all that apply. A) Dermatillomania B) Trichotillomania C) Onychophagia D) Kleptomania E) Oniomania

Ans: A, B, C Dermatillomania, or skin-picking, is a self-soothing behavior; that is, the behavior is an attempt of people to soothe or comfort themselves, not that picking itself is necessarily a positive sensation. Trichotillomania, or chronic, repetitive hair pulling, is a self-soothing behavior that can cause distress and functional impairment. Onychophagia, or nail biting, is a self-soothing behavior. Kleptomania, or compulsive stealing, and oniomania, or compulsive buying, are reward-seeking behaviors.

The student nurse correctly identifies that which of the following are characteristics of hoarding disorder? Select all that apply. A) Excessive acquisition of animals or apparently useless things B) Cluttered living spaces that become uninhabitable C) Significant distress or impairment for the individual D) Obsessive cleaning of environment E) Disposing of articles that are of no value

Ans: A, B, C Hoarding involves excessive acquisition of animals or apparently useless things; cluttered living spaces that become uninhabitable; and significant distress or impairment for the individual. Obsessive cleaning of the environment and disposing of articles that are of no value are not characteristics of hoarding

23. A patient with pancreatic cancer has been scheduled for a pancreaticoduodenectomy (Whipple procedure). During health education, the patient should be informed that this procedure will involve the removal of which of the following? Select all that apply. A) Gallbladder B) Part of the stomach C) Duodenum D) Part of the common bile duct E) Part of the rectum

Ans: A, B, C, D Feedback: A pancreaticoduodenectomy (Whipple procedure or resection) is used for potentially resectable cancer of the head of the pancreas (Fig. 50-7). This procedure involves removal of the gallbladder, a portion of the stomach, duodenum, proximal jejunum, head of the pancreas, and distal common bile duct. The rectum is not affected.

2. Which statements are important reasons for why the problem of substance abuse must be addressed? Select all that apply. A) Increasing numbers of infants are suffering the physiologic and emotional consequences of prenatal exposure to alcohol or drugs. B) Chemical abuse results in increased violence. C) Drug abuse costs business and industry an estimated $102 billion annually. D) Alcohol abuse is a too frequent cause of or contributor to death. E) Substance abuse is decreasing.

Ans: A, B, C, D Feedback: Increasing numbers of infants are suffering the physiologic and emotional consequences of prenatal exposure to alcohol or drugs. Chemical abuse results in increased violence. Drug abuse costs business and industry an estimated $102 billion annually. Alcohol abuse is a too frequent cause of or contributor to death. Substance use/abuse and related disorders are a national health problem.

Which of the following questions would best help the nurse to evaluate the effectiveness of antipsychotic medications for a client who has schizophrenia? Select all that apply. A) Have the symptoms you were experiencing disappeared? B) If the symptoms have not disappeared, are you able to carry out your daily life despite the persistence of some psychotic symptoms? C) Are you committed to taking the medication as prescribed? D) Are you satisfied with your quality of life? E) Do you have access to community agencies that will help you to live successfully in this community?

Ans: A, B, C, D Feedback: The client's perception of the success of treatment plays a part in evaluation. In a global sense, evaluation of the treatment of schizophrenia is based on the following: • Have the client's psychotic symptoms disappeared? If not, can the client carry out his or her daily life despite the persistence of some psychotic symptoms? • Does the client understand the prescribed medication regimen? Is he or she committed to adherence to the regimen? • Does the client believe that he or she has a satisfactory quality of life? The question, "Do you have access to community agencies that will help you to live successfully in this community?" is an appropriate question to ask to evaluate the plan of care but does not directly relate to antipsychotic medications.

35. Which reasons make it necessary for the nurse to examine his or her beliefs and attitudes about substance abuse? Select all that apply. A) The nurse may be overly harsh and critical of the client. B) The nurse may unknowingly act out old family roles and engage in enabling behavior. C) The nurse or close friends and family of the nurse may abuse substances. D) The nurse may have different attitudes about various substances of abuse. E) The nurse is not likely to have had any experience with substance abuse.

Ans: A, B, C, D Feedback: The nurse must examine his or her beliefs and attitudes about substance abuse. A history of substance abuse in the nurse's family can strongly influence his or her interaction with clients. The nurse may be overly harsh and critical. Conversely, the nurse may unknowingly act out old family roles and engage in enabling behavior. Examining one's own substance use or use by close friends and family may be difficult and unpleasant but is necessary if the nurse is to have therapeutic relationships with clients. The nurse also might have different attitudes about various substances of abuse. Health-care professionals also have higher rates of alcoholism than the general population. With the pervasive nature of substance abuse nationally, odds are great that nurses and other health professionals have been affected by substance abuse in their lives.

34. Which may contribute to a staff person being less effective in dealing with a person who is at increased risk for suicide? Select all that apply. A) Negative societal view of suicide B) Feeling inadequate and anxious about suicide and/or his or her own mortality C) Having personally considered suicide but decided against it and not having dealt with the associated anxiety D) Being unaware of his or her own feelings and beliefs about suicide E) Implementing nursing interventions to decrease the risk of suicide

Ans: A, B, C, D Feedback: Some health-care professionals consider suicidal people to be failures, immoral, or unworthy of care. These negative attitudes may result from several factors. They may reflect society's negative view of suicide. Health-care professionals may feel inadequate and anxious dealing with suicidal clients, or they may be uncomfortable about their own mortality. Many people have had thoughts about ìending it all,î even if for a fleeting moment when life is not going well. The scariness of remembering such flirtations with suicide causes anxiety. If this anxiety is not resolved, the staff person can demonstrate avoidance, demeaning behavior, and superiority to suicidal clients. Therefore, to be effective, the nurse must be aware of his or her own feelings and beliefs about suicide.

31. Which are general warning signs of substance abuse that a nurse should be alert for in coworkers? Select all that apply. A) Poor work performance B) Frequent absenteeism C) Unusual behavior D) Slurred speech E) Isolation from peers F) Substance abuse is not a problem in health professionals

Ans: A, B, C, D, E Feedback: General warning signs of abuse include poor work performance, frequent absenteeism, unusual behavior, slurred speech, and isolation from peers. Physicians, dentists, and nurses have far higher rates of dependence on controlled substances, than other professionals of comparable educational achievement. One reason is thought to be the ease of obtaining controlled substances. Health-care professionals also have higher rates of alcoholism than the general population.

A nurse is performing the admission assessment of a patient who has AIDS. What components should the nurse include in this comprehensive assessment? Select all that apply. A) Current medication regimen B) Identification of patient's support system C) Immune system function D) Genetic risk factors for HIV E) History of sexual practices

Ans: A, B, C, E Feedback: Nursing assessment includes numerous focuses, including identification of medication use, support system, immune function and sexual history. HIV does not have a genetic component.

Which of the following are cognitive-behavioral therapy techniques that may be used effectively with anxious clients? Select all that apply. A) Positive reframing B) Decatastrophizing C) Assertiveness training D) Humor E) Unlearning

Ans: A, B, C, E Feedback: Positive reframing means turning negative messages into positive messages. Decatastrophizing involves the therapist's use of questions to more realistically appraise the situation. Assertiveness training helps the person take more control over life situations. Positive reframing, decatastrophizing, and assertiveness training are cognitive-behavioral therapy techniques. Humor is not a cognitive-behavioral therapy technique. Unlearning is the theory underlying behavioral therapy.

The nurse is planning the type of approach that will be most effective in developing a therapeutic relationship with the client. The nurse should use a matter-of-fact approach with clients with which types of personality disorders? Select all that apply. A) Paranoid B) Antisocial C) Schizotypal D) Narcissistic E) Avoidant

Ans: A, B, D

A nurse is caring for a patient who has been admitted to the hospital with diverticulitis. Which of the following would be appropriate nursing diagnoses for this patient? Select all that apply. A. Acute Pain Related to Increased Peristalsis and GI Inflammation B. Activity Intolerance Related to Generalized Weakness C. Bowel Incontinence Related to Increased Intestinal Peristalsis D. Deficient Fluid Volume Related to Anorexia, Nausea, and Diarrhea E. Impaired Urinary Elimination Related to GI Pressure on the Bladder

Ans: A, B, D Feedback: Patients with diverticulitis are likely to experience pain and decreased activity levels, and are at risk of fluid volume deficit. The patient is unlikely to experience fecal incontinence and urinary function is not directly influenced.

The nurse knows that which of the following are stages in Selye's general adaptation syndrome? Select all that apply. A) Alarm reaction stage B) Resistance stage C) Coping stage D) Exhaustion stage E) Panic stage

Ans: A, B, D Feedback: The stages in Selye's general adaptation syndrome include the alarm reaction stage, the resistance stage, and the exhaustion stage. Selye did not identify either a coping stage or a panic stage.

A nurse is completing a nutritional status of a patient who has been admitted with AIDS-related complications. What components should the nurse include in this assessment? Select all that apply. A) Serum albumin level B) Weight history C) White blood cell count D) Body mass index E) Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) level

Ans: A, B, D, E Feedback: Nutritional status is assessed by obtaining a dietary history and identifying factors that may interfere with oral intake, such as anorexia, nausea, vomiting, oral pain, or difficulty swallowing. In addition, the patient's ability to purchase and prepare food is assessed. Weight history (i.e., changes over time); anthropometric measurements; and blood urea nitrogen (BUN), serum protein, albumin, and transferrin levels provide objective measurements of nutritional status. White cell count is not a typical component of a nutritional assessment.

The nurse is leading a workshop on sexual health for men. The nurse should teach participants that organic causes of erectile dysfunction include what? Select all that apply. A) Diabetes B) Testosterone deficiency C) Anxiety D) Depression E) Parkinsonism

Ans: A, B, E Feedback: Organic causes of ED include cardiovascular disease, endocrine disease (diabetes, pituitary tumors, testosterone deficiency, hyperthyroidism, and hypothyroidism), cirrhosis, chronic renal failure, genitourinary conditions (radical pelvic surgery), hematologic conditions (Hodgkin disease, leukemia), neurologic disorders (neuropathies, parkinsonism, spinal cord injury, multiple sclerosis), trauma to the pelvic or genital area, alcohol, smoking, medications, and drug abuse. Anxiety and depression are considered to be psychogenic causes.

The nursing student correctly identifies which of the following statements are true of the etiology of OCD? Select all that apply. A) The cognitive model for OCD etiology focuses on childhood and environmental experiences of growing up. B) The etiology of OCD is not definitively explained at this time. C) OCD is caused by immune dysfunction. D) The primary etiology of OCD is genetics. E) Cognitive models may partially explain why people develop OCD.

Ans: A, B, E Different studies of the etiology of OCD show promise, but have yet to definitively explain how or why people develop OCD. Cognitive models of OCD have been long accepted as a partial explanation for OCD. The cognitive model focuses on childhood and environmental experiences of growing up. Heritable, genetic factors are a significant influence on thinking, and environmental influences are not solely responsible. Immune dysfunction may play a role in the etiology of OCD

Which of the following are reasons that the nurse must understand why and how anxiety behaviors work? Select all that apply. A) To provide better care for the client B) To help understand the role anxiety plays in performing nursing responsibilities C) To help the nurse to mask his or her own feelings of anxiety D) So the nurse can identify that his or her own needs are more important than the clients E) To help nurses to function at a high level

Ans: A, B, E Feedback: Nurses must understand why and how anxiety behaviors work, not just for client care but to help understand the role anxiety plays in performing nursing responsibilities. Nurses are expected to function at a high level and to avoid allowing their own feelings and needs to hinder the care of their clients, but as emotional beings, nurses are just as vulnerable to stress and anxiety as others, and they have needs of their own.

Which nursing interventions are most important in a plan of care for a client with histrionic personality disorder? Select all that apply. A) Teach social skills. B) Assist the client to eliminate passive behavior. C) Provide factual feedback about behavior. D) Try to meet the client's needs for attention. E) Acceptance of the behavior.

Ans: A, C

Which techniques are important for nurses caring for clients with personality disorders to use in order to effectively provide care? Select all that apply. A) Discuss feelings of anger or frustration with colleagues to help them recognize and cope with their own feelings. B) Considering the client to be a personal friend. C) Employ ongoing communication with team members to remain firm and consistent about expectations for clients. D) Solving the problems of the client. E) Understanding that behavior changes in clients with personality disorders can occur quickly.

Ans: A, C

27. The nurse is coleading a family therapy group for clients and families of drug-addicted individuals. The family of a cocaine addict is angry and cannot understand why the client cannot just stop using. The nurse guides the group to discuss their understanding of the nature of addiction. Which statements would the nurse identify as an accurate understanding of the nature of addiction? Select all that apply. A) It is a medical illness that is progressive. B) The client will eventually be cured. C) Relapses and remissions are part of the illness. D) Clients can learn to get control over the substance.

Ans: A, C Feedback: Alcoholism (and other substance abuse) often is called a family illness. All those who have a close relationship with a person who abuses substances suffer emotional, social, and sometimes physical anguish. Client and family members need facts about the substance, its effects, and recovery. The nurse must dispel myths and misconceptions such as, ìIt's a matter of will power,î ìI can't be an alcoholic if I only drink beer or if I only drink on weekends,î ìI can learn to use drugs socially,î or ìI'm okay now I could handle using once in a while.î Page 13

3. A patient's assessment and diagnostic testing are suggestive of acute pancreatitis. When the nurse is performing the health interview, what assessment questions address likely etiologic factors? Select all that apply. A) "How many alcoholic drinks do you typically consume in a week?" B) "Have you ever been tested for diabetes?" C) "Have you ever been diagnosed with gallstones?" D) "Would you say that you eat a particularly high-fat diet?" E) "Does anyone in your family have cystic fibrosis?"

Ans: A, C Feedback: Eighty percent of patients with acute pancreatitis have biliary tract disease such as gallstones or a history of long-term alcohol abuse. Diabetes, high-fat consumption, and cystic fibrosis are not noted etiologic factors.

Which techniques would be most effective for a client who has situational phobias? Select all that apply. A) Flooding B) Reminding the person to calm down C) Systematic desensitization D) Assertiveness training E) Decatastrophizing

Ans: A, C Feedback: Systematic desensitization is when the therapist progressively exposes the client to a threatening object in a safe setting until the client's anxiety decreases. Flooding is a form of rapid desensitization in which the behavior therapist confronts the client with the phobic object until it no longer produces anxiety. Systematic desensitization and flooding are behavioral therapies used in the treatment of phobias. Assertiveness training would help the person to take more control over life situations. Decatastrophizing helps the client to realistically appraise the situation. These are both used for general anxiety. When a person is exposed to a phobic object, the person is not likely in control. Reminding a person to calm down is not at all an effective way to manage anxiety.

Of the following personality disorders, which are most likely related to lack of caring about others? Select all that apply. A) Schizotypal personality disorder B) Borderline personality disorder C) Antisocial personality disorder D) Narcissistic personality disorder E) Obsessiveñcompulsive personality disorder

Ans: A, C, D

28. Which time periods during antidepressant therapy are persons most likely to commit suicide? Select all that apply. A) After starting antidepressant therapy but not having reached the therapeutic level B) After having reached the therapeutic level of antidepressants and maintained it for several years C) If the client has made a choice to discontinue antidepressant therapy without medical supervision and is becoming gradually more depressed D) If the client does not adhere to the medication regimen and takes antidepressant medications irregularly E) Prior to initiating antidepressant therapy but before the depression results in lack of energy

Ans: A, C, D, E Feedback: After starting antidepressant therapy but not having reached the therapeutic level, the client is still troubled with depression and may have the energy to execute any suicide ideation. If the client has made the choice to discontinue antidepressant therapy without medical supervision and is becoming gradually more depressed does not adhere to the medication regimen and takes antidepressant medications irregularly, or prior to initiating antidepressant therapy but before the depression results in lack of energy, the client may be motivated to commit suicide because of the depression that is not effectively treated by a therapeutic level of antidepressant medications and yet still have enough energy to execute any suicide ideation. After having reached the therapeutic level of antidepressant medications and having maintained it for several years, the client is not likely at an increased risk for suicide.

Which of the following statements about the use of defense mechanisms in persons with anxiety disorders are accurate? Select all that apply. A) Defense mechanisms are a human's attempt to reduce anxiety. B) Persons are usually aware when they are using defense mechanisms. C) Defense mechanisms can be harmful when overused. D) Defense mechanisms are cognitive distortions. E) The use of defense mechanisms should be avoided. F) Defense mechanisms can control the awareness of anxiety.

Ans: A, C, D, F Feedback: Freud described defense mechanisms as the human's attempt to control awareness of and to reduce anxiety. Defense mechanisms are cognitive distortions that a person uses unconsciously to maintain a sense of being in control of a situation, to lessen discomfort, and to deal with stress. Because defense mechanisms arise from the unconscious, the person is unaware of using them. Some people overuse defense mechanisms, which stops them from learning a variety of appropriate methods to resolve anxiety-producing situations. The dependence on one or two defense mechanisms also can inhibit emotional growth, lead to poor problem-solving skills, and create difficulty with relationships.

When performing discharge planning for a client who has schizophrenia, the nurse anticipates barriers to adhering to the medication regimen. The nurse assesses which of the following as improving the likelihood that the client will follow the prescribed medication regimen? Select all that apply. A) Short-term memory intact B) History of missing appointments C) Receives monthly disability checks D) Walking is primary mode of transportation E) States location of pharmacy nearest his residence

Ans: A, C, E Feedback: Sometimes clients intend to take their medications as prescribed but have difficulty remembering when and if they did so. They may find it difficult to adhere to a routine schedule for medications. Clients may have practical barriers to medication compliance, such as inadequate funds to obtain expensive medications, lack of transportation or knowledge about how to obtain refills for prescriptions, or inability to plan ahead to get new prescriptions before current supplies run out.

A client with schizophrenia has returned to the clinic because of an increase in symptoms. The client reports he stopped taking his meds because he did not like the side effects. The nurse educates the client about managing uncomfortable side effects. Which of the following is included in the teaching plan? Select all that apply. A) Suck on hard candy as desired B) Spend at least 30 minutes outside in the sun daily C) Use stool softeners as needed D) Decrease the amount of daily fluid intake E) Maintain a balanced calorie-controlled diet

Ans: A, C, E Feedback: Unwanted side effects are frequently reported as the reason clients stop taking medications. Interventions, such as eating a proper diet and drinking enough fluids, using a stool softener to avoid constipation, sucking on hard candy to minimize dry mouth, or using sunscreen to avoid sunburn, can help to control some of these uncomfortable side effects.

When a client is experiencing a panic attack while in the recreation room, what interventions are the nurse's first priorities? Select all that apply. A) Provide a safe environment. B) Request a prescription for an antianxiety agent. C) Offer the client therapy to calm down D) Ensure the client's privacy. E) Engage the client in recreational activities.

Ans: A, D Feedback: During a panic attack, the nurse's first concern is to provide a safe environment and to ensure the client's privacy. If the environment is overstimulating, the client should move to a less stimulating place. Decreasing external stimuli will help lower the client's anxiety level. The client's safety is priority. Anxious behavior can be escalated by external stimuli. In a large area, the client can feel lost and panicked, but a smaller room can enhance a sense of security. An antianxiety agent may be helpful, but it is not the priority. It would likely be stimulating to engage the client in recreational activities.

A 76-year-old with a diagnosis of penile cancer has been admitted to the medical floor. Because the incidence of penile cancer is so low, the staff educator has been asked to teach about penile cancer. What risk factors should the educator cite in this presentation? Select all that apply. A) Phimosis B) Priapism C) Herpes simplex infection D) Increasing age E) Lack of circumcision

Ans: A, D, E Feedback: Several risk factors for penile cancer have been identified, including lack of circumcision, poor genital hygiene, phimosis, HPV, smoking, ultraviolet light treatment of psoriasis on the penis, increasing age (two-thirds of cases occur in men older than 65 years of age), lichen sclerosus, and balanitis xerotica obliterans. Priapism and HSV are not known risk factors.

The nurse is educating a client and family about managing panic attacks after discharge from treatment. The nurse includes which of the following in the discharge teaching? Select all that apply. A) Continued development of positive coping skills B) Weaning off of medications as necessary C) Lessening the amount of daily responsibilities D) Continued practice of relaxation techniques E) Development of a regular exercise program

Ans: A, D, E Feedback: Client/family education for panic disorder includes reviewing breathing control and relaxation techniques, discussing positive coping strategies, encouraging regular exercise, emphasizing the importance of maintaining prescribed medication regimen and regular follow-up, describing time management techniques such as creating "to do" lists with realistic estimated deadlines for each activity, crossing off completed items for a sense of accomplishment, saying "no," and stressing the importance of maintaining contact with community and participating in supportive organizations. Medication should be adhered to as prescribed. Daily responsibilities cannot be avoided, rather should be successfully accomplished.

A client with borderline personality disorder says to the nurse, ìI feel so comfortable talking with you. You seem to have a special way about you that really helps me. Which would be the most appropriate response by the nurse? A) I'm glad you feel comfortable with me. B) I'm here to help you just as all the staffs are. C) You feel others don't understand you? D) I cannot be your friend. We need to be clear on that.

Ans: B

A female client with borderline personality was formerly cooperative with the treatment regimen. Suddenly, the client believes the staff is working against her and is refusing all interaction and participation in treatment. The nurse feels very frustrated by this client's behavior. What is the best action for the nurse to take regarding personal frustration with this client? A) Discuss the feelings of frustration with the client in a one-to-one interaction. B) Discuss the frustration with a colleague or supervisor in a private setting. C) Set aside the frustration and focus on reassessing the client's needs. D) Research the client's diagnosis further to better understand the client's behaviors.

Ans: B

A person with temperament traits of high harm avoidance would most likely suffer from which personality disorder? A) Schizoid B) Avoidant C) Narcissistic D) Antisocial

Ans: B

The nurse is caring for a patient who is undergoing diagnostic testing for suspected malabsorption. When taking this patients health history and performing the physical assessment, the nurse should recognize what finding as most consistent with this diagnosis? • Recurrent constipation coupled with weight loss • Foul-smelling diarrhea that contains fat • Fever accompanied by a rigid, tender abdomen • Bloody bowel movements accompanied by fecal incontinence

Ans: B Feedback: The hallmarks of malabsorption syndrome from any cause are diarrhea or frequent, loose, bulky, foulsmelling stools that have increased fat content and are often grayish (steatorrhea). Constipation and bloody bowel movements are not suggestive of malabsorption syndromes. Fever and a tender, rigid abdomen are associated with peritonitis.

A patient is beginning an antiretroviral drug regimen shortly after being diagnosed with HIV. What nursing action is most likely to increase the likelihood of successful therapy? A) Promoting appropriate use of complementary therapies B) Addressing possible barriers to adherence C) Educating the patient about the pathophysiology of HIV D) Teaching the patient about the need for follow-up blood work

Ans: B Feedback: ART is highly dependent on adherence to treatment, and the nurse should proactively address this. Blood work is necessary, but this will not have a direct bearing on the success or failure of treatment. Complementary therapies are appropriate, but are not the main factor in successful treatment. The patient may or may not benefit from teaching about HIV pathophysiology.

A hospital nurse has experienced percutaneous exposure to an HIV-positive patient's blood as a result of a needlestick injury. The nurse has informed the supervisor and identified the patient. What action should the nurse take next? A) Flush the wound site with chlorhexidine. B) Report to the emergency department or employee health department. C) Apply a hydrocolloid dressing to the wound site. D) Follow up with the nurse's primary care provider.

Ans: B Feedback: After initiating the emergency reporting system, the nurse should report as quickly as possible to the employee health services, the emergency department, or other designated treatment facility. Flushing is recommended, but chlorhexidine is not used for this purpose. Applying a dressing is not recommended. Following up with the nurse's own primary care provider would require an unacceptable delay.

A patient who is scheduled for an open prostatectomy is concerned about the potential effects of the surgery on his sexual function. What aspect of prostate surgery should inform the nurse's response? A) Erectile dysfunction is common after prostatectomy as a result of hormonal changes. B) All prostatectomies carry a risk of nerve damage and consequent erectile dysfunction. C) Erectile dysfunction after prostatectomy is expected, but normally resolves within several months. D) Modern surgical techniques have eliminated the risk of erectile dysfunction following prostatectomy.

Ans: B Feedback: All prostatectomies carry a risk of impotence because of potential damage to the pudendal nerves. If this damage occurs, the effects are permanent. Hormonal changes do not affect sexual functioning after prostatectomy.

A patient presents to the emergency department with paraphimosis. The physician is able to compress the glans and manually reduce the edema. Once the inflammation and edema subside, what is usually indicated? A) Needle aspiration of the corpus cavernosum B) Circumcision C) Abstinence from sexual activity for 6 weeks D) Administration of vardenafil

Ans: B Feedback: Circumcision is usually indicated after the inflammation and edema subside. Needle aspiration of the corpus cavernosum is indicated in priapism; abstinence from sexual activity for 6 weeks is not indicated. Vardenafil is Levitra and would not be used for paraphimosis

A physician explains to the patient that he has an inflammation of the Cowper glands. Where are the Cowper glands located? A) Within the epididymis B) Below the prostate, within the posterior aspect of the urethra C) On the inner epithelium lining the scrotum, lateral to the testes D) Medial to the vas deferens

Ans: B Feedback: Cowper glands lie below the prostate, within the posterior aspect of the urethra. This gland empties its secretions into the urethra during ejaculation, providing lubrication. The Cowper glands do not lie within the epididymis, within the scrotum, or alongside the vas deferens.

A nurse is performing an admission assessment on a patient with stage 3 HIV. After assessing the patient's gastrointestinal system and analyzing the data, what is most likely to be the priority nursing diagnosis? A) Acute Abdominal Pain B) Diarrhea C) Bowel Incontinence D) Constipation

Ans: B Feedback: Diarrhea is a problem in 50% to 60% of all AIDS patients. As such, this nursing diagnosis is more likely than abdominal pain, incontinence, or constipation, though none of these diagnoses is guaranteed not to apply.

A patient has come into contact with HIV. As a result, HIV glycoproteins have fused with the patient's CD4+ T-cell membranes. This process characterizes what phase in the HIV life cycle? A) Integration B) Attachment C) Cleavage D) Budding

Ans: B Feedback: During the process of attachment, glycoproteins of HIV bind with the host's uninfected CD4+ receptor and chemokine coreceptors, which results in fusion of HIV with the CD4+ T-cell membrane. Integration, cleavage, and budding are steps that are subsequent to this initial phase of the HIV life cycle.

A nurse is assessing a 28-year-old man with HIV who has been admitted with pneumonia. In assessing the patient, which of the following observations takes immediate priority? A) Oral temperature of 100°F B) Tachypnea and restlessness C) Frequent loose stools D) Weight loss of 1 pound since yesterday

Ans: B Feedback: In prioritizing care, the pneumonia would be assessed first by the nurse. Tachypnea and restlessness are symptoms of altered respiratory status and need immediate priority. Weight loss of 1 pound is probably fluid related; frequent loose stools would not take short-term precedence over a temperature or tachypnea and restlessness. An oral temperature of 100°F is not considered a fever and would not be the first issue addressed.

A patient with HIV will be receiving care in the home setting. What aspect of self-care should the nurse emphasize during discharge education? A) Appropriate use of prophylactic antibiotics B) Importance of personal hygiene C) Signs and symptoms of wasting syndrome D) Strategies for adjusting antiretroviral dosages

Ans: B Feedback: Infection control is of high importance in patients living with HIV, thus personal hygiene is paramount. This is a more important topic than signs and symptoms of one specific complication (wasting syndrome). Drug dosages should never be independently adjusted. Prophylactic antibiotics are not normally prescribed unless the patient's CD4 count is below 50.

A patient who has AIDS has been admitted for the treatment of Kaposi's sarcoma. What nursing diagnosis should the nurse associate with this complication of AIDS? A) Risk for Disuse Syndrome Related to Kaposi's Sarcoma B) Impaired Skin Integrity Related to Kaposi's Sarcoma C) Diarrhea Related to Kaposi's Sarcoma D) Impaired Swallowing Related to Kaposi's Sarcoma

Ans: B Feedback: Kaposi's sarcoma (KS) is a disease that involves the endothelial layer of blood and lymphatic vessels. This malignancy does not directly affect swallowing or bowel motility and it does not constitute a risk for disuse syndrome.

A man comes to the clinic complaining that he is having difficulty obtaining an erection. When reviewing the patient's history, what might the nurse note that contributes to erectile dysfunction? A) The patient has been treated for a UTI twice in the past year. B) The patient has a history of hypertension. C) The patient is 66 years old. D) The patient leads a sedentary lifestyle.

Ans: B Feedback: Past history of infection and lack of exercise do not contribute to impotence. With advancing age, sexual function and libido and potency decrease somewhat, but this is not the primary reason for impotence. Vascular problems cause about half the cases of impotence in men older than 50 years; hypertension is a major cause of such problems.

A 55-year-old man presents at the clinic complaining of erectile dysfunction. The patient has a history of diabetes. The physician orders tadalafil (Cialis) to be taken 1 hour before sexual intercourse. The nurse reviews the patient's history prior to instructing the patient on the use of this medication. What disorder will contraindicate the use of tadalafil (Cialis)? A) Cataracts B) Retinopathy C) Hypotension D) Diabetic nephropathy

Ans: B Feedback: Patients with cataracts, hypotension, or nephropathy will be allowed to take tadalafil (Cialis) and sildenafil (Viagra) if needed. However, tadalafil (Cialis) and sildenafil (Viagra) are usually contraindicated with diabetic retinopathy.

A 75-year-old male patient is being treated for phimosis. When planning this patient's care, what health promotion activity is most directly related to the etiology of the patient's health problem? A) Teaching the patient about safer sexual practices B) Teaching the patient about the importance of hygiene C) Teaching the patient about the safe use of PDE-5 inhibitors D) Teaching the patient to perform testicular self-examination

Ans: B Feedback: Poor hygiene often contributes to cases of phimosis. This health problem is unrelated to sexual practices, the use of PDE-5 inhibitors, or testicular self-examination.

A 35-year-old father of three tells the nurse that he wants information on a vasectomy. What would the nurse tell him about ejaculate after a vasectomy? A) There will be no ejaculate after a vasectomy, though the patient's potential for orgasm is unaffected. B) There is no noticeable decrease in the amount of ejaculate even though it contains no sperm. C) There is a marked decrease in the amount of ejaculate after vasectomy, though this does not affect sexual satisfaction. D) There is no change in the quantity of ejaculate after vasectomy, but the viscosity is somewhat increased.

Ans: B Feedback: Seminal fluid is manufactured predominantly in the seminal vesicles and prostate gland, which are unaffected by vasectomy, thus no noticeable decrease in the amount of ejaculate occurs (volume decreases approximately 3%), even though it contains no spermatozoa. The viscosity of ejaculate does not change.

A patient has been prescribed sildenafil. What should the nurse teach the patient about this medication? A) Sexual stimulation is not needed to obtain an erection. B) The drug should be taken 1 hour prior to intercourse. C) Facial flushing or headache should be reported to the physician immediately. D) The drug has the potential to cause permanent visual changes

Ans: B Feedback: The patient must have sexual stimulation to create the erection, and the drug should be taken 1 hour before intercourse. Facial flushing, mild headache, indigestion, and running nose are common side effects of Viagra and do not normally warrant reporting to the physician. Some visual disturbances may occur, but these are transient.

A patient is in the primary infection stage of HIV. What is true of this patient's current health status? A) The patient's HIV antibodies are successfully, but temporarily, killing the virus. B) The patient is infected with HIV but lacks HIV-specific antibodies. C) The patient's risk for opportunistic infections is at its peak. D) The patient may or may not develop long-standing HIV infection.

Ans: B Feedback: The period from infection with HIV to the development of HIV-specific antibodies is known as primary infection. The virus is not being eradicated and infection is certain. Opportunistic infections emerge much later in the course of the disease.

A patient has returned to the floor from the PACU after undergoing a suprapubic prostatectomy. The nurse notes significant urine leakage around the suprapubic tube. What is the nurse's most appropriate action? A) Cleanse the skin surrounding the suprapubic tube. B) Inform the urologist of this finding. C) Remove the suprapubic tube and apply a wet-to-dry dressing. D) Administer antispasmodic drugs as ordered.

Ans: B Feedback: The physician should be informed if there is significant leakage around a suprapubic catheter. Cleansing the skin is appropriate but does not resolve the problem. Removing the suprapubic tube is contraindicated because it is unsafe. Administering drugs will not stop the leakage of urine around the tube.

A patient with HIV is admitted to the hospital because of chronic severe diarrhea. The nurse caring for this patient should expect the physician to order what drug for the management of the patient's diarrhea? A) Zithromax B) Sandostatin C) Levaquin D) Biaxin

Ans: B Feedback: Therapy with octreotide acetate (Sandostatin), a synthetic analogue of somatostatin, has been shown to be effective in managing chronic severe diarrhea. Zithromax, Levaquin, and Biaxin are not used to treat chronic severe diarrhea.

A public health nurse is preparing an educational campaign to address a recent local increase in the incidence of HIV infection. The nurse should prioritize which of the following interventions? A) Lifestyle actions that improve immune function B) Educational programs that focus on control and prevention C) Appropriate use of standard precautions D) Screening programs for youth and young adults

Ans: B Feedback: Until an effective vaccine is developed, preventing HIV by eliminating and reducing risk behaviors is essential. Educational interventions are the primary means by which behaviors can be influenced. Screening is appropriate, but education is paramount. Enhancing immune function does not prevent HIV infection. Ineffective use of standard precautions apply to very few cases of HIV infection.

A nurse is working with a patient who was diagnosed with HIV several months earlier. The nurse should recognize that a patient with HIV is considered to have AIDS at the point when the CD4+ T-lymphocyte cell count drops below what threshold? A) 75 cells/mm3 of blood B) 200 cells/mm3 of blood C) 325 cells/mm3 of blood D) 450 cells/mm3 of blood

Ans: B Feedback: When CD4+ T-cell levels drop below 200 cells/mm3 of blood, the person is said to have AIDS.

A patient with a diagnosis of colon cancer is 2 days postoperative following bowel resection and anastomosis. The nurse has planned the patients care in the knowledge of potential complications. What assessment should the nurse prioritize? • Close monitoring of temperature • Frequent abdominal auscultation • Assessment of hemoglobin, hematocrit, and red blood cell levels • Palpation of peripheral pulses and leg girth

Ans: B Feedback: After bowel surgery, it is important to frequently assess the abdomen, including bowel sounds and abdominal girth, to detect bowel obstruction. The resumption of bowel motility is a priority over each of the other listed assessments, even though each should be performed by the nurse.

A nurse caring for a patient with colorectal cancer is preparing the patient for upcoming surgery. The nurse administers cephalexin (Keflex) to the patient and explains what rationale? • To treat any undiagnosed infections • To reduce intestinal bacteria levels • To reduce bowel motility • To reduce abdominal distention postoperatively

Ans: B Feedback: Antibiotics such a kanamycin (Kantrex), neomycin (Mycifradin), and cephalexin (Keflex) are administered orally the day before surgery to reduce intestinal bacterial. Preoperative antibiotics are not given to treat undiagnosed infections, reduce motility, or prevent abdominal distention.

A nurse is providing care for a patient whose recent colostomy has contributed to a nursing diagnosis of Disturbed Body Image Related to Colostomy. What intervention best addresses this diagnosis? A. Encourage the patient to conduct online research into colostomies. B. Engage the patient in the care of the ostomy to the extent that the patient is willing. C. Emphasize the fact that the colostomy was needed to alleviate a much more serious health problem. D. Emphasize the fact that the colostomy is temporary measure and is not permanent.

Ans: B Feedback: For some patients, becoming involved in the care of the ostomy helps to normalize it and enhance familiarity. Emphasizing the benefits of the intervention is unlikely to improve the patients body image, since the benefits are likely already known. Online research is not likely to enhance the patients body image and some ostomies are permanent.

A patient has had an ileostomy created for the treatment of irritable bowel disease and the patient is now preparing for discharge. What should the patient be taught about changing this device in the home setting? • Apply antibiotic ointment as ordered after cleaning the stoma. • Apply a skin barrier to the peristomal skin prior to applying the pouch. • Dispose of the clamp with each bag change. • Cleanse the area surrounding the stoma with alcohol or chlorhexidine

Ans: B Feedback: Guidelines for changing an ileostomy appliance are as follows. Skin should be washed with soap and water, and dried. A skin barrier should be applied to the peristomal skin prior to applying the pouch. Clamps are supplied one per box and should be reused with each bag change. Topical antibiotics are not utilized, but an antifungal spray or powder may be used.

During a patients scheduled home visit, an older adult patient has stated to the community health nurse that she has been experiencing hemorrhoids of increasing severity in recent months. The nurse should recommend which of the following? • Regular application of an OTC antibiotic ointment • Increased fluid and fiber intake • Daily use of OTC glycerin suppositories • Use of an NSAID to reduce inflammation

Ans: B Feedback: Hemorrhoid symptoms and discomfort can be relieved by good personal hygiene and by avoiding excessive straining during defecation. A high-residue diet that contains fruit and bran along with an increased fluid intake may be all the treatment that is necessary to promote the passage of soft, bulky stools to prevent straining. Antibiotics, regular use of suppositories, and NSAIDs are not recommended, as they do not address the etiology of the health problem.

A nursing instructor is discussing hemorrhoids with the nursing class. Which patients would the nursing instructor identify as most likely to develop hemorrhoids? • A 45-year-old teacher who stands for 6 hours per day • A pregnant woman at 28 weeks gestation • A 37-year-old construction worker who does heavy lifting • A 60-year-old professional who is under stress

Ans: B Feedback: Hemorrhoids commonly affect 50% of patients after the age of 50. Pregnancy may initiate hemorrhoids or aggravate existing ones. This is due to increased constipation during pregnancy. The significance of pregnancy is greater than that of standing, lifting, or stress in the development of hemorrhoids.

A nurse caring for a patient with a newly created ileostomy assesses the patient and notes that the patient has had not ostomy output for the past 12 hours. The patient also complains of worsening nausea. What is the nurses priority action? • Facilitate a referral to the wound-ostomy-continence (WOC) nurse. • Report signs and symptoms of obstruction to the physician. • Encourage the patient to mobilize in order to enhance motility. • Contact the physician and obtain a swab of the stoma for culture.

Ans: B Feedback: It is important to report nausea and abdominal distention, which may indicate intestinal obstruction. This requires prompt medical intervention. Referral to the WOC nurse is not an appropriate short-term response, since medical treatment is necessary. Physical mobility will not normally resolve an obstruction. There is no need to collect a culture from the stoma, because infection is unrelated to this problem.

A nurse is caring for a patient with constipation whose primary care provider has recommended senna (Senokot) for the management of this condition. The nurse should provide which of the following education points? • Limit your fluid intake temporarily so you dont get diarrhea. • Avoid taking the drug on a long-term basis. • Make sure to take a multivitamin with each dose. • Take this on an empty stomach to ensure maximum effect.

Ans: B Feedback: Laxatives should not be taken on an ongoing basis in order to reduce the risk of dependence. Fluid should be increased, not limited, and there is no need to take each dose with a multivitamin. Senna does not need to be taken on an empty stomach.

A patient admitted with inflammatory bowel disease asks the nurse for help with menu selections. What menu selection is most likely the best choice for this patient? • Spinach • Tofu • Multigrain bagel • Blueberries

Ans: B Feedback: Nutritional management of inflammatory bowel disease requires ingestion of a diet that is bland, lowresidue, high-protein, and high-vitamin. Tofu meets each of the criteria. Spinach, multigrain bagels, and blueberries are not low-residue.

A nurse at an outpatient surgery center is caring for a patient who had a hemorrhoidectomy. What discharge education topics should the nurse address with this patient? • The appropriate use of antibiotics to prevent postoperative infection • The correct procedure for taking a sitz bath • The need to eat a low-residue, low-fat diet for the next 2 weeks • The correct technique for keeping the perianal region clean without the use of water

Ans: B Feedback: Sitz baths are usually indicated after perianal surgery. A low-residue, low-fat diet is not necessary and water is used to keep the region clean. Postoperative antibiotics are not normally prescribed.

An older adult who resides in an assisted living facility has sought care from the nurse because of recurrent episodes of constipation. Which of the following actions should the nurse first perform? A. Encourage the patient to take stool softener daily. B. Assess the patients food and fluid intake. C. Assess the patients surgical history. D. Encourage the patient to take fiber supplements.

Ans: B Feedback: The nurse should follow the nursing process and perform an assessment prior to interventions. The patients food and fluid intake is more likely to affect bowel function than surgery.

A 16-year-old presents at the emergency department complaining of right lower quadrant pain and is subsequently diagnosed with appendicitis. When planning this patients nursing care, the nurse should prioritize what nursing diagnosis? A. Imbalanced Nutrition: Less Than Body Requirements Related to Decreased Oral Intake B. Risk for Infection Related to Possible Rupture of Appendix C. Constipation Related to Decreased Bowel Motility and Decreased Fluid Intake D. Chronic Pain Related to Appendicitis

Ans: B Feedback: The patient with a diagnosis of appendicitis has an acute risk of infection related to the possibility of rupture. This immediate physiologic risk is a priority over nutrition and constipation, though each of these concerns should be addressed by the nurse. The pain associated with appendicitis is acute, not chronic.

A patient admitted with acute diverticulitis has experienced a sudden increase in temperature and complains of a sudden onset of exquisite abdominal tenderness. The nurses rapid assessment reveals that the patients abdomen is uncharacteristically rigid on palpation. What is the nurses best response? A. Administer a Fleet enema as ordered and remain with the patient. B. Contact the primary care provider promptly and report these signs of perforation. C. Position the patient supine and insert an NG tube. D. Page the primary care provider and report that the patient may be obstructed.

Ans: B Feedback: The patients change in status is suggestive of perforation, which is a surgical emergency. Obstruction does not have this presentation involving fever and abdominal rigidity. An enema would be strongly contraindicated. An order is needed for NG insertion and repositioning is not a priority.

The nursing student understands correctly when identifying which objective is appropriate for all clients with anxiety disorders? A) The client will experience reduced anxiety and accept the fact that underlying conflicts cannot be treated. B) The client will experience reduced anxiety and develop alternative responses to anxiety-provoking situations. C) The client will experience reduced anxiety and learn to control primitive impulses. D) The client will experience reduced anxiety and strive for insight through psychoanalysis.

Ans: B Feedback: A primary client outcome is improved adaptive coping skills.

42. A patient has undergone the creation of an Indiana pouch for the treatment of bladder cancer. The nurse identified the nursing diagnosis of disturbed body image. How can the nurse best address the effects of this urinary diversion on the patient's body image? A) Emphasize that the diversion is an integral part of successful cancer treatment. B) Encourage the patient to speak openly and frankly about the diversion. C) Allow the patient to initiate the process of providing care for the diversion. D) Provide the patient with detailed written materials about the diversion at the time of discharge.

Ans: B Feedback: Allowing the patient to express concerns and anxious feelings can help with body image, especially in adjusting to the changes in toileting habits. The nurse may have to initiate dialogue about the management of the diversion, especially if the patient is hesitant. Provision of educational materials is rarely sufficient to address a sudden change and profound change in body image. Emphasizing the role of the diversion in cancer treatment does not directly address the patient's body image.

30. A patient with a sacral pressure ulcer has had a urinary catheter inserted. As a result of this new intervention, the nurse should prioritize what nursing diagnosis in the patient's plan of care? A) Impaired physical mobility related to presence of an indwelling urinary catheter B) Risk for infection related to presence of an indwelling urinary catheter C) Toileting self-care deficit related to urinary catheterization D) Disturbed body image related to urinary catheterization

Ans: B Feedback: Catheters create a high risk for UTIs. Because of this acute physiologic threat, the patient's risk for infection is usually prioritized over functional and psychosocial diagnoses.

10. The nurse has implemented a bladder retraining program for an older adult patient. The nurse places the patient on a timed voiding schedule and performs an ultrasonic bladder scan after each void. The nurse notes that the patient typically has approximately 50 mL of urine remaining in her bladder after voiding. What would be the nurse's best response to this finding? A) Perform a straight catheterization on this patient. B) Avoid further interventions at this time, as this is an acceptable finding. C) Place an indwelling urinary catheter. D) Press on the patient's bladder in an attempt to encourage complete emptying.

Ans: B Feedback: In adults older than 60 years of age, 50 to 100 mL of residual urine may remain after each voiding because of the decreased contractility of the detrusor muscle. Consequently, further interventions are not likely warranted.

35. A patient has been successfully treated for kidney stones and is preparing for discharge. The nurse recognizes the risk of recurrence and has planned the patient's discharge education accordingly. What preventative measure should the nurse encourage the patient to adopt? A) Increasing intake of protein from plant sources B) Increasing fluid intake C) Adopting a high-calcium diet D) Eating several small meals each day

Ans: B Feedback: Increased fluid intake is encouraged to prevent the recurrence of kidney stones. Protein intake from all sources should be limited. Most patients do not require a low-calcium diet, but increased calcium intake would be contraindicated for all patients. Eating small, frequent meals does not influence the risk for recurrence.

32. A nurse on a busy medical unit provides care for many patients who require indwelling urinary catheters at some point during their hospital care. The nurse should recognize a heightened risk of injury associated with indwelling catheter use in which patient? A) A patient whose diagnosis of chronic kidney disease requires a fluid restriction B) A patient who has Alzheimer's disease and who is acutely agitated C) A patient who is on bed rest following a recent episode of venous thromboembolism D) A patient who has decreased mobility following a transmetatarsal amputation

Ans: B Feedback: Patients who are confused and agitated risk trauma through the removal of an indwelling catheter which has the balloon still inflated. Recent VTE, amputation, and fluid restriction do not directly create a risk for injury or trauma associated with indwelling catheter use.

8. The clinic nurse is preparing a plan of care for a patient with a history of stress incontinence. What role will the nurse have in implementing a behavioral therapy approach? A) Provide medication teaching related to pseudoephedrine sulfate. B) Teach the patient to perform pelvic floor muscle exercises. C) Prepare the patient for an anterior vaginal repair procedure. D) Provide information on periurethral bulking.

Ans: B Feedback: Pelvic floor muscle exercises (sometimes called Kegel exercises) represent the cornerstone of behavioral intervention for addressing symptoms of stress, urge, and mixed incontinence. None of the other listed interventions has a behavioral approach.

14. The nurse is teaching a health class about UTIs to a group of older adults. What characteristic of UTIs should the nurse cite? A) Men over age 65 are equally prone to UTIs as women, but are more often asymptomatic. B) The prevalence of UTIs in men older than 50 years of age approaches that of women in the same age group. C) Men of all ages are less prone to UTIs, but typically experience more severe symptoms. D) The prevalence of UTIs in men cannot be reliably measured, as men generally do not report UTIs.

Ans: B Feedback: The antibacterial activity of the prostatic secretions that protect men from bacterial colonization of the urethra and bladder decreases with aging. The prevalence of infection in men older than 50 years of age approaches that of women in the same age group. Men are not more likely to be asymptomatic and are not known to be reluctant to report UTIs.

38. Resection of a patient's bladder tumor has been incomplete and the patient is preparing for the administration of the first ordered instillation of topical chemotherapy. When preparing the patient, the nurse should emphasize the need to do which of the following? A) Remain NPO for 12 hours prior to the treatment. B) Hold the solution in the bladder for 2 hours before voiding. C) Drink the intravesical solution quickly and on an empty stomach. D) Avoid acidic foods and beverages until the full cycle of treatment is complete.

Ans: B Feedback: The patient is allowed to eat and drink before the instillation procedure. Once the bladder is full, the patient must retain the intravesical solution for 2 hours before voiding. The solution is instilled through the meatus; it is not consumed orally. There is no need to avoid acidic foods and beverages during treatment.

3. A nurse is caring for a female patient whose urinary retention has not responded to conservative treatment. When educating this patient about self-catheterization, the nurse should encourage what practice? A) Assuming a supine position for self-catheterization B) Using clean technique at home to catheterize C) Inserting the catheter 1 to 2 inches into the urethra D) Self-catheterizing every 2 hours at home

Ans: B Feedback: The patient may use a "clean" (nonsterile) technique at home, where the risk of cross-contamination is reduced. The average daytime clean intermittent catheterization schedule is every 4 to 6 hours and just before bedtime. The female patient assumes a Fowler's position and uses a mirror to help locate the urinary meatus. The nurse teaches her to catheterize herself by inserting a catheter 7.5 cm (3 inches) into the urethra, in a downward and backward direction.

4. A 52-year-old patient is scheduled to undergo ileal conduit surgery. When planning this patient's discharge education, what is the most plausible nursing diagnosis that the nurse should address? A) Impaired mobility related to limitations posed by the ileal conduit B) Deficient knowledge related to care of the ileal conduit C) Risk for deficient fluid volume related to urinary diversion D) Risk for autonomic dysreflexia related to disruption of the sacral plexus

Ans: B Feedback: The patient will most likely require extensive teaching about the care and maintenance of a new urinary diversion. A diversion does not create a serious risk of fluid volume deficit. Mobility is unlikely to be impaired after the immediate postsurgical recovery. The sacral plexus is not threatened by the creation of a urinary diversion.

11. The nurse is caring for a patient recently diagnosed with renal calculi. The nurse should instruct the patient to increase fluid intake to a level where the patient produces at least how much urine each day? A) 1,250 mL B) 2,000 mL C) 2,750 mL D) 3,500 mL

Ans: B Feedback: Unless contraindicated by renal failure or hydronephrosis, patients with renal stones should drink at least eight 8-ounce glasses of water daily or have IV fluids prescribed to keep the urine dilute. A urine output exceeding 2 L a day is advisable.

23. A nurse who provides care in a long-term care facility is aware of the high incidence and prevalence of urinary tract infections among older adults. What action has the greatest potential to prevent UTIs in this population? A) Administer prophylactic antibiotics as ordered. B) Limit the use of indwelling urinary catheters. C) Encourage frequent mobility and repositioning. D) Toilet residents who are immobile on a scheduled basis.

Ans: B Feedback: When indwelling catheters are used, the risk of UTI increases dramatically. Limiting their use significantly reduces an older adult's risk of developing a UTI. Regular toileting promotes continence, but has only an indirect effect on the risk of UTIs. Prophylactic antibiotics are not normally administered. Mobility does not have a direct effect on UTI risk.

10. Which characteristic of the 12-step program distinguishes it from other programs? A) The philosophy that it is possible to reduce the use of substances without abstaining. B) It is a self-help group that does not necessarily use health professionals as leaders. C) Persons who use this program are independent in their sobriety. D) Infrequent attendance is usually successful.

Ans: B Feedback: Alcoholics Anonymous (AA) was founded in the 1930s by alcoholics. This self-help group developed the 12-step program model for recovery, which is based on the philosophy that total abstinence is essential and that alcoholics need the help and support of others to maintain sobriety. Regular attendance at meetings is emphasized.

32. The nurse is working in an intensive care unit and observes that some clients do not respond to injections of diazepam (Valium) when the injections are given by a particular nurse. This nurse returns from lunch exhibiting slurred speech and euphoria. Which is the best action for the nurse to take? A) Ask other nurses if they have noticed anything unusual. B) Call the manager and report the observations. C) Observe the nurse as injections are prepared and administered. D) Tell the nurse, ìI know you've been stealing Valium.î

Ans: B Feedback: Any suspicions should be communicated to someone in a supervisory position so that effective action can be taken. Page 15

A nurse is working with a client to develop assertive communication skills. The nurse documents achievement of treatment outcomes when the client makes a statement such as, A) "I'm sorry. I'm not picking this up very quickly." B) "I feel upset when you interrupt me." C) "You are pushing me too hard." D) "I'm not going to let people push me around anymore."

Ans: B Feedback: Assertiveness training helps the person take more control over life situations. Techniques help the person negotiate interpersonal situations and foster self- assurance. They involve using "I" statements to identify feelings and to communicate concerns or needs to others.

During the nursing assessment, a client describes constantly hearing voices mumbling in the background. The client denies that the voices are telling him to do anything harmful. The nurse documents that the client is experiencing which of the following? A) Command hallucinations B) Auditory hallucinations C) Olfactory hallucinations D) Gustatory hallucinations

Ans: B Feedback: Auditory hallucinations, the most common type, involve hearing sounds, most often voices, talking to or about the client. Command hallucinations are voices demanding that the client take action, often to harm self or others, and are considered dangerous. Olfactory hallucinations involve smells or odors. Gustatory hallucinations involve a taste lingering in the mouth or the sense that food tastes like something else.

11. A 42 year-old patient tells the nurse that she has found a painless lump in her right breast during her monthly self-examination. She says that she is afraid that she has cancer. Which assessment finding would most strongly suggest that this patients lump is cancerous? A) Eversion of the right nipple and mobile mass B) A nonmobile mass with irregular edges C) A mobile mass that is soft and easily delineated D) Nonpalpable right axillary lymph nodes

Ans: B Feedback: Breast cancer tumors are typically fixed, hard, and poorly delineated with irregular edges. A mobile mass that is soft and easily delineated is most commonly a fluid-filled benign cyst. Axillary lymph nodes may or may not be palpable on initial detection of a cancerous mass. Nipple retraction, not eversion, may be a sign of cancer.

22. A client who has been discharged home on Celexa (citalopram) calls the nurse complaining that the medication causes her to feel too drowsy. The nurse should make which of the following suggestions? A) Make an appointment to change to a different medication. B) Take the medication at night. C) Be patient while this early side effect subsides. D) Skip a dose if drowsiness is excessive.

Ans: B Feedback: Citalopram (Celexa) causes drowsiness, sedation, insomnia, nausea, vomiting, weight gain, constipation, and diarrhea. Nursing implications for drowsiness and sedation include instructing the client to administer the dose at 6 PM or later.

33. A peer reports for work looking unkempt and disheveled. Her movements are uncoordinated, and her breath smells like mouthwash. Another nurse suspects this peer is intoxicated. What should be the action of the nurse who suspects that a peer is intoxicated? A) Immediately call the supervisor to report the peer's behavior. B) Ask the peer if she feels alright and express concern. C) Give the peer some information about the hospital's employee assistance program. D) Ignore the situation until someone else validates the observations.

Ans: B Feedback: Client safety is a priority the impaired nurse should not be caring for clients. After client safety is ensured, the nurse should call the supervisor to handle the situation. It is not the nurse's responsibility to give out information on the hospital's employee assistance program. It is not appropriate to ignore the situation.

21. A client asks the nurse why he has to go to therapy and cannot just take his prescribed antidepressant medication. Which would be the most therapeutic nursing intervention? A) Stating, ìThe effects of medications will not last forever. You will need to eventually learn to function without them.î B) Stating, ìMedications help your brain function better, but the therapy helps you achieve lasting behavior change.î C) Stating, ìBoth are recommended. Since your insurance covers both, that is the best plan for you.î D) Asking, ìDo you have reservations about going to therapy?î

Ans: B Feedback: Clients and family should know that treatment outcomes are best when psychotherapy and antidepressants are combined. Psychotherapy helps clients to explore anger, dependence, guilt, hopelessness, helplessness, object loss, interpersonal issues, and irrational beliefs. The goal is to reverse negative views of the future, improve self- image, and help clients gain competence and self-mastery.

14. A client is being discharged from treatment for addiction to cocaine. Which statement made by the client would cause the most concern for the nurse? A) ìI am going to take up a new hobby. It's time to start something new.î B) ìI can still hang out with my old friends. I am just not going to use.î C) ìI'm not very comfortable with being alone yet.î D) ìShooting baskets helps me not think about getting high.î

Ans: B Feedback: Clients are likely to have exercised poor judgment. They may still believe they can control the substance use. The nurse can help clients to find ways to relieve stress or anxiety that do not involve substance use. Relaxing, exercising, listening to music, or engaging in activities may be effective. Clients also may need to develop new social activities or leisure pursuits if most of their friends or habits of socializing involved the use of substances. Acknowledging difficulties shows insight into the changes needed for recovery. Assuming that old friends will not be a relapse trigger shows a lack of understanding of the relapse dynamics associated with former leisure activities.

The nurse is working with a client with schizophrenia, disorganized type. It is time for the client to get up and eat breakfast. Which of the following statements by the nurse would be most effective in helping the client prepare for breakfast? A) "I'll expect you in the dining room in 20 minutes." B) "It's time to put your dress on now." C) "Stay right there and I'll get your clothes for you." D) "Why don't you stay here and I'll get your tray for you."

Ans: B Feedback: Clients with schizophrenia may have significant self-care deficits. The client needs clear direction, with tasks broken into small steps, to begin to participate in her own self-care. The other choices do not support the client effectively. "I'll expect you in the dining room in 20 minutes," is authoritarian and does not allow the client dignity. "Stay right here, and I'll get your clothes for you," is also authoritarian and does not allow the client dignity. "Why don't you stay here and I'll get your tray for you," is kinder but it robs the client of the opportunity to do for himself or herself as much as possible.

7. The nurse is talking with the friend of a client with alcoholism. The friend tells the nurse that his relationship with the client was codependent and enabling. Which is an example of codependent behavior? A) The friend called Alcoholics Anonymous when the client expressed a need to stop drinking. B) The friend called the client every night to make sure he got home safely and went looking for him if he was not at home. C) The friend confronted the client on the effect of his drinking on their relationship. D) The friend refused to go out drinking with the client to celebrate the client's birthday.

Ans: B Feedback: Codependent behavior appears helpful on the surface but actually prolongs the drinking behavior. The other choices are not examples of codependent behavior.

The client with schizophrenia believes the student nurses are there to spy on the clients. The client is suffering from which of the following symptoms? A) Hallucinations B) Delusions C) Anhedonia D) Ideas of reference

Ans: B Feedback: Delusions are fixed false beliefs that have no basis in reality. Hallucinations are false sensory perceptions or perceptual experiences that do not exist in reality. Ideas of reference are false impressions that external events have special meaning for the person. Anhedonia is feeling no joy or pleasure from life or any activities or relationships.

9. A client who is depressed begins to cry and states, ìI'm just really sick of feeling this way. Nothing ever seems to go right in my life.î Which would be the most appropriate response by the nurse? A) ìDon't cry. Try to look at the positive side of things.î B) ìYou are feeling really sad right now. It's a hard time.î C) ìHang in there. Your medication will start helping in a few days.î D) ìNothing ever goes right?î

Ans: B Feedback: Do not cut off interactions with cheerful remarks or platitudes. Do not belittle the client's feelings. Accept the client's verbalizations of feelings as real, and give support for expressions of emotions, especially those that may be difficult for the client (like anger). Allow (and encourage) the client to cry. It is important that the nurse does not attempt to ìfixî the client's difficulties

A client who suffers from frequent panic attacks describes the attack as feeling disconnected from himself. The nurse notes in the client's chart that the client reports experiencing A) hallucinations. B) depersonalization. C) derealization. D) denial.

Ans: B Feedback: During a panic attack, the client may describe feelings of being disconnected from himself or herself (depersonalization) or sensing that things are not real (derealization). Denial is not admitting reality. Hallucinations involve sensing something that is not there.

18. A nurse is examining a patient who has been diagnosed with a fibroadenoma. The nurse should recognize what implication of this patients diagnosis? A) The patient will be scheduled for radiation therapy. B) The patient might be referred for a biopsy. C) The patients breast mass is considered an age-related change. D) The patients diagnosis is likely related to her use of oral contraceptives.

Ans: B Feedback: Fibroadenomas are firm, round, movable, benign tumors. These masses are nontender and are sometimes removed for biopsy and definitive diagnosis. They are not considered to be an age-related change, even though they are benign. Radiation therapy is unnecessary and fibroadenomas do not result from oral contraceptive use.

22. The nurse is caring for a patient who has just returned from the ERCP removal of gallstones. The nurse should monitor the patient for signs of what complications? A) Pain and peritonitis B) Bleeding and perforation C) Acidosis and hypoglycemia D) Gangrene of the gallbladder and hyperglycemia

Ans: B Feedback: Following ERCP removal of gallstones, the patient is observed closely for bleeding, perforation, and the development of pancreatitis or sepsis. Blood sugar alterations, gangrene, peritonitis, and acidosis are less likely complications.

31. A visitor comes to see a client who is suicidal. Upon entering the unit, the nurse notices that the visitor has brought the client a can of his favorite soda. Which action should the nurse take at his time? A) Confiscate the soda can as a restricted item. B) Pour the soda into a plastic cup. C) Ask the visitor to place the soda can at the nurse's desk until he or she leaves. D) Ask the visitor not to bring outside items on the unit in the future.

Ans: B Feedback: For clients who are suicidal, staff members remove any item they can use to commit suicide, such as sharp objects, shoelaces, belts, lighters, matches, pencils, pens, and even clothing with drawstrings. The client could access the soda can and commit self-harm.

1. A community health nurse is planning a substance abuse prevention program. Which group would be the best target audience for the nurse to plan a program? A) Teenagers in a high school health class B) School-age children in an after-school program C) Parents attending a parentñteacher association meeting D) Elementary school teachers and counselors

Ans: B Feedback: Forty-three percent of all Americans have been exposed to alcoholism in their families. Children of alcoholics are four times more likely than the general population to develop problems with alcohol. Many adult people in treatment programs as adults report having had their first drink of alcohol as a young child, when they were younger than age 10. With the increasing rates of use being reported among young people today, this problem could spiral out of control unless great strides can be made through programs for prevention, early detection, and effective treatment.

25. A 60-year-old man presents at the clinic complaining that his breasts are tender and enlarging. The patient is subsequently diagnosed with gynecomastia. The patient should be assessed for the possibility of what causative factor? A) Age-related physiologic changes B) Medication adverse effects C) Poor nutrition D) Fluid overload

Ans: B Feedback: Gynecomastia can also occur in older men and usually presents as a firm, tender mass underneath the areola. In these patients, gynecomastia may be diffuse and related to the use of certain medications. It is unrelated to fluid overload or nutrition and is not considered an age-related change.

14. A patient has had a laparoscopic cholecystectomy. The patient is now complaining of right shoulder pain. What should the nurse suggest to relieve the pain? A) Aspirin every 4 to 6 hours as ordered B) Application of heat 15 to 20 minutes each hour C) Application of an ice pack for no more than 15 minutes D) Application of liniment rub to affected area

Ans: B Feedback: If pain occurs in the right shoulder or scapular area (from migration of the CO2 used to insufflate the abdominal cavity during the procedure), the nurse may recommend use of a heating pad for 15 to 20 minutes hourly, walking, and sitting up when in bed. Aspirin would constitute a risk for bleeding.

The student nurse correctly identifies that which one of the following statements applies to the parasympathetic nervous system? A) It is activated during the alarm reaction stage. B) It is activated during the resistance stage. C) It is activated during the exhaustion stage. D) It is commonly referred to as the fight, flight, or freeze response.

Ans: B Feedback: In the alarm reaction stage, stress stimulates the body to send messages to the hypothalamus to the glands, which stimulates the sympathetic nervous system. Sympathetic nerve fibers "charge up" the vital signs at any hint of danger to prepare the body's defenses—fight, flight, or freeze. The adrenal glands release adrenaline (epinephrine), which causes the body to take in more oxygen, dilate the pupils, and increase arterial pressure and heart rate while constricting the peripheral vessels and shunting blood from the gastrointestinal and reproductive systems and increasing glycogenolysis to release free glucose for the heart, muscles, and central nervous system. When the danger has passed, parasympathetic nerve fibers reverse this process and return the body to normal operating conditions until the next sign of threat reactivates the sympathetic nervous system. During the resistance stage of the generalized anxiety syndrome, if the threat has ended, the parasympathetic nervous system is stimulated and the body responses relax. If the threat persists, the body will eventually enter the exhaustion stage when the body stores are depleted as a result of the continual arousal of the physiologic responses and little reserve capacity.

28. A patient at high risk for breast cancer is scheduled for an incisional biopsy in the outpatient surgery department. When the nurse is providing preoperative education, the patient asks why an incisional biopsy is being done instead of just removing the mass. What would be the nurses best response? A) An incisional biopsy is performed because its known to be less painful and more accurate than other forms of testing. B) An incisional biopsy is performed to confirm a diagnosis and so that special studies can be done that will help determine the best treatment. C) An incisional biopsy is performed to assess the potential for recovery from a mastectomy. D) An incisional biopsy is performed on patients who are younger than the age of 40 and who are otherwise healthy.

Ans: B Feedback: Incisional biopsy surgically removes a portion of a mass. This is performed to confirm a diagnosis and to conduct special studies that will aid in determining treatment. Incisional biopsies cannot always remove the whole mass, nor is it always beneficial to the patient to do so. The procedure is not chosen because of the potential for pain, the possibility of recovery from mastectomy, or the patients age.

22. A 42-year-old man has come to the clinic for an annual physical. The nurse notes in the patients history that his father was treated for breast cancer. What should the nurse provide to the patient before he leaves the clinic? A) A referral for a mammogram B) Instructions about breast self-examination (BSE) C) A referral to a surgeon D) A referral to a support group

Ans: B Feedback: Instructions about BSE should be provided to men if they have a family history of breast cancer, because they may have an increased risk of male breast cancer. It is not within the scope of the practice of a nurse to refer a patient for a mammogram or to a surgeon; these actions are not necessary or recommended. In the absence of symptoms or a diagnosis, referral to a support group is unnecessary.

A client with schizophrenia is seen sitting alone and talking out loud. Suddenly, the client stops and turns as if listening to someone. The nurse approaches and sits down beside the client. Which of the following is the best initial response by the nurse? A) "You must be pretty bored to be sitting here talking to an invisible person." B) "I don't hear or see anyone else; what are you hearing and seeing?" C) "I can tell you are hearing voices, but they are not real." D) "How long have you known the person you are talking to?"

Ans: B Feedback: Intervening when the client experiences hallucinations requires the nurse to focus on what is real and to help shift the client's response toward reality. Initially, the nurse must determine what the client is experiencing—that is, what the voices are saying or what the client is seeing. In command hallucinations, the client hears voices directing him or her to do something, often to hurt self or someone else. For this reason, the nurse must elicit a description of the content of the hallucination so that health-care personnel can take precautions to protect the client and others as necessary. The nurse might say, "I don't hear any voices; what are you hearing?" "How long have you known the person you are talking to?" would reinforce the client's hallucination.

Which of the following would be key points for the nurse to remember when working with persons who are suffering from anxiety disorders? A) It is important for the nurse to "fix" the client's problems. B) Remember to practice techniques to manage stress and anxiety in your own life. C) If you have any uncomfortable feelings, do not tell anyone about them. D) Remember that only people who suffer from anxiety disorders have stress that can interfere with daily life and work.

Ans: B Feedback: It is critical for the nurse to remember to practice techniques to manage stress and anxiety in his or her own life. Remember that everyone occasionally suffers from stress and anxiety that can interfere with daily life and work. It is important for the nurse to avoid falling into the pitfall of trying to "fix" the client's problems. It is important that the nurse should discuss any uncomfortable feelings with a more experienced nurse for suggestions on how to deal with his or her feelings toward these clients.

1. A 45-year-old woman comes into the health clinic for her annual check-up. She mentions to the nurse that she has noticed dimpling of the right breast that has occurred in a few months. What assessment would be most appropriate for the nurse to make? A) Evaluate the patients milk production. B) Palpate the area for a breast mass. C) Assess the patients knowledge of breast cancer. D) Assure the patient that this likely an age-related change.

Ans: B Feedback: It would be most important for the nurse to palpate the breast to determine the presence of a mass and to refer the patient to her primary care provider. Edema and pitting of the skin may result from a neoplasm blocking lymphatic drainage, giving the skin an orange-peel appearance (peau dorange), a classic sign of advanced breast cancer. Evaluation of milk production is required in lactating women. There is no indication of lactation in the scenario. The patients knowledge of breast cancer is relevant, but is not a time-dependent priority. This finding is not an age-related change.

17. The nurse is performing a comprehensive health history of a patient who is in her 50s. The nurse should identify what risk factor that may increase this patients risk for breast cancer? A) The patient breastfed each of her children. B) The patient gave birth to her first child at age 38. C) The patient experienced perimenopausal symptoms starting at age 46. D) The patient experienced menarche at age 13.

Ans: B Feedback: Late age at first pregnancy is a risk factor for breast cancer. None of the other listed aspects of the patients health history is considered to be a risk factor for breast cancer.

17. A nurse is exploring treatment options with a client addicted to heroin. Which information regarding the use of methadone is important for the nurse to include? A) Unlike heroin, methadone is nonaddicting. B) Methadone will meet the physical need for opiates without producing cravings for more. C) Methadone will produce a high similar to heroin. D) People taking methadone run the same risks associated with IV drug use as those taking heroin.

Ans: B Feedback: Methadone, a potent synthetic opiate, is used as a substitute for heroin in some maintenance programs. The client takes one daily dose of methadone, which meets the physical need for opiates but does not produce cravings for more. Methadone does not produce the high associated with heroin. The client has essentially substituted his or her addiction to heroin for an addiction to methadone however, methadone is safer because it is legal, controlled by a physician, and available in tablet form. The client avoids the risks of intravenous drug use, the high cost of heroin (which often leads to criminal acts), and the questionable content of street drugs. Page 9

A student is preparing to give a class presentation. A few minutes before the presentation is to begin, the student seems nervous and distracted. The student is looking at and listening to the peer speaker and occasionally looking at note cards. When the peer speaker asks a question of the group, the student is able to answer correctly. The professor understands that the student is likely experiencing which level of stress? A) Mild B) Moderate C) Severe D) Panic

Ans: B Feedback: Moderate anxiety is the disturbing feeling that something is definitely wrong; the person becomes nervous or agitated. In moderate anxiety, the person can still process information, solve problems, and learn new things with assistance from others. He or she has difficulty concentrating independently but can be redirected to the topic. Mild anxiety is a sensation that something is different and warrants special attention. Sensory stimulation increases and helps the person focus attention to learn, solve problems, think, act, feel, and protect himself or herself. As the person progresses to severe anxiety and panic, more primitive survival skills take over, defensive responses ensue, and cognitive skills decrease significantly. A person with severe anxiety has trouble thinking and reasoning.

10. A nurse is caring for a patient who has been scheduled for endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP) the following day. When providing anticipatory guidance for this patient, the nurse should describe what aspect of this diagnostic procedure? A) The need to protect the incision postprocedure B) The use of moderate sedation C) The need to infuse 50% dextrose during the procedure D) The use of general anesthesia

Ans: B Feedback: Moderate sedation, not general anesthesia, is used during ERCP. D50 is not administered and the procedure does not involve the creation of an incision.

19. The nurse observes a client sitting alone at a table, looking sad and preoccupied. The nurse sits down and says, ìI saw you sitting alone and thought I might keep you company.î The client turns away from the nurse. Which would be the most therapeutic nursing intervention? A) Move to another chair closer to the client and say, ìThe staff is here to help you.î B) Move to a chair a little further away and say, ìWe can just sit together quietly.î C) Remain in place and say, ìHow are you feeling today?î D) Say, ìI'll visit with you a little later,î and leave the client alone for a while.

Ans: B Feedback: Moving away gives the client more personal space; staying with the client indicates acceptance and genuine interest. It is not necessary for the nurse to talk to the client the entire time; rather, silence can convey that clients are worthwhile even if they are not interacting.

30. A nurse suspects a coworker is signing out narcotics for clients and is using them herself. Which action should be taken by the nurse who has these suspicions? A) Ignore suspicions and leave it to the supervisor to intervene. B) Report the observations to the supervisor. C) Follow behind the coworker to ensure client comfort and safety. D) Confront the coworker about suspicions.

Ans: B Feedback: Nurses have an ethical responsibility to report suspicious behavior to a supervisor and, in some states, a legal obligation as defined in the state's nurse practice act. Nurses should not try to handle such situations alone by warning the coworker this often just allows the coworker to continue to abuse the substance without suffering any repercussions. Page 14

9. A patient with chronic pancreatitis had a pancreaticojejunostomy created 3 months ago for relief of pain and to restore drainage of pancreatic secretions. The patient has come to the office for a routine postsurgical appointment. The patient is frustrated that the pain has not decreased. What is the most appropriate initial response by the nurse? A) "The majority of patients who have a pancreaticojejunostomy have their normal digestion restored but do not achieve pain relief." B) "Pain relief occurs by 6 months in most patients who undergo this procedure, but some people experience a recurrence of their pain." C) "Your physician will likely want to discuss the removal of your gallbladder to achieve pain relief." D) "You are probably not appropriately taking the medications for your pancreatitis and pain, so we will need to discuss your medication regimen in detail."

Ans: B Feedback: Pain relief from a pancreaticojejunostomy often occurs by 6 months in more than 85% of the patients who undergo this procedure, but pain returns in a substantial number of patients as the disease progresses. This patient had surgery 3 months ago; the patient has 3 months before optimal benefits of the procedure may be experienced. There is no obvious indication for gallbladder removal and nonadherence is not the most likely factor underlying the pain.

19. A client with alcohol dependence is admitted to the hospital with pancreatitis. Which intervention should be included in the client's plan of care? A) Fluid restriction of 1000 mL per 24 hours B) Glucometer checks b.i.d. C) High-protein diet D) Protective isolation precautions

Ans: B Feedback: Pancreatitis can cause elevated serum glucose levels. The other choices are not necessarily appropriate.

32. A 52-year-old woman has just been told she has breast cancer and is scheduled for a modified mastectomy the following week. The nurse caring for this patient knows that she is anxious and fearful about the upcoming procedure and the newly diagnosed malignancy. How can the nurse most likely alleviate this patients fears? A) Provide written material on the procedure that has been scheduled for the patient. B) Provide the patient with relevant information about expected recovery. C) Give the patient current information on breast cancer survival rates. D) Offer the patient alternative treatment options

Ans: B Feedback: Providing the patient with realistic expectations about the healing process and expected recovery can help alleviate fears. Offering the patient alternative treatment options is not within the nurses normal scope of practice. Addressing survival rates may or may not be beneficial for the patient. Written material is rarely sufficient to meet patients needs.

8. When interviewing the family members of a client being treated for substance abuse problems, which behavior would alert the nurse to the possibility of codependency? A) Being flexible but angry B) Blaming themselves for the family's problems C) Expressing thoughts and feelings openly D) Taking pleasure in self-accomplishments

Ans: B Feedback: Self-blame is an example of maladaptive coping or codependent behavior. The other choices do not correlate with codependency behaviors.

33. The nursing instructor is conducting a preconference with a group of nursing students on a psychiatric unit. Which statement made by a student reflects the greatest barrier to being able to provide professional care to the client who is suicidal? A) ìI just don't understand why anyone would want to kill themselves.î B) ìI think suicide is wrong and selfish.î C) ìI get frustrated when my client negates all the positives I try to point out.î D) ìI can see how much my client is hurting inside.î

Ans: B Feedback: Some health-care professionals consider suicidal people to be failures, immoral, or unworthy of care. These negative attitudes may result from several factors. They may reflect society's negative view of suicide: many states still have laws against suicide, although they rarely enforce these laws. If this anxiety is not resolved, the staff person can demonstrate avoidance, demeaning behavior, and superiority to suicidal clients. Therefore, to be effective, the nurse must be aware of his or her own feelings and beliefs about suicide.

31. A patient has been diagnosed with acute pancreatitis. The nurse is addressing the diagnosis of Acute Pain Related to Pancreatitis. What pharmacologic intervention is most likely to be ordered for this patient? A) Oral oxycodone B) IV hydromorphone (Dilaudid) C) IM meperidine (Demerol) D) Oral naproxen (Aleve)

Ans: B Feedback: The pain of acute pancreatitis is often very severe and pain relief may require parenteral opioids such as morphine, fentanyl (Sublimaze), or hydromorphone (Dilaudid). There is no clinical evidence to support the use of meperidine for pain relief in pancreatitis. Opioids are preferred over NSAIDs.

21. A client is readmitted to the substance abuse program for the second time in 6 months for alcohol abuse. On admission, he tells the nurse, ìI am so ashamed.î What should the nurse reply? A) ìI really thought you would make it.î B) ìTell me what has happened since your last admission.î C) ìYou have nothing to be ashamed of.î D) ìWhy did you start drinking again?î

Ans: B Feedback: This is a therapeutic communication technique designed to help the client talk about himself and his current situation.

The nurse enters the room of a client with schizophrenia the day after he has been admitted to an inpatient setting and says, "I would like to spend some time talking with you." The client stares straight ahead and remains silent. The best response by the nurse would be, A) "I can see you want to be alone. I'll come back another time." B) "You don't need to talk right now. I'll just sit here for a few minutes." C) "I've got some other things I can do now. I hope you'll feel like talking later." D) "You would feel better if you would tell me what you're thinking."

Ans: B Feedback: This response indicates acceptance of the client and shows genuine interest in him, building rapport and trust. Initially, the client may tolerate only 5 or 10 minutes of contact at one time. Establishing a therapeutic relationship takes time, and the nurse must be patient. The nurse must maintain nonverbal communication with the client, especially when verbal communication is not very successful. This involves spending time with the client, perhaps through fairly length periods of silence. The presence of the nurse is a contact with reality for the client and also can demonstrate the nurse's genuine interest and caring to the client. The other choices are not consistent with what is therapeutic for the client.

38. A nurse is caring for a patient with gallstones who has been prescribed ursodeoxycholic acid (UDCA). The patient askshow this medicine is going to help his symptoms. The nurse should be aware of what aspect of this drug's pharmacodynamics? A) It inhibits the synthesis of bile. B) It inhibits the synthesis and secretion of cholesterol. C) It inhibits the secretion of bile. D) It inhibits the synthesis and secretion of amylase.

Ans: B Feedback: UDCA acts by inhibiting the synthesis and secretion of cholesterol, thereby desaturating bile. UDCA does not directly inhibit either the synthesis or secretion of bile or amylase.

35. A patient is admitted to the unit with acute cholecystitis. The physician has noted that surgery will be scheduled in 4 days. The patient asks why the surgery is being put off for a week when he has a "sick gallbladder." What rationale would underlie the nurse's response? A) Surgery is delayed until the patient can eat a regular diet without vomiting. B) Surgery is delayed until the acute symptoms subside. C) The patient requires aggressive nutritional support prior to surgery. D) Time is needed to determine whether a laparoscopic procedure can be used.

Ans: B Feedback: Unless the patient's condition deteriorates, surgical intervention is delayed just until the acute symptoms subside (usually within a few days). There is no need to delay surgery pending an improvement in nutritional status, and deciding on a laparoscopic approach is not a lengthy process.

18. A patient with gallstones has been prescribed ursodeoxycholic acid (UDCA). The nurse understands that additional teaching is needed regarding this medication when the patient states: A) "It is important that I see my physician for scheduled follow-up appointments while taking this medication." B) "I will take this medication for 2 weeks and then gradually stop taking it." C) "If I lose weight, the dose of the medication may need to be changed." D) "This medication will help dissolve small gallstones made of cholesterol."

Ans: B Feedback: Ursodeoxycholic acid (UDCA) has been used to dissolve small, radiolucent gallstones composed primarily of cholesterol. This drug can reduce the size of existing stones, dissolve small stones, and prevent new stones from forming. Six to 12 months of therapy is required in many patients to dissolve stones, and monitoring of the patient is required during this time. The effective dose of medication depends on body weight.

12. A nurse is preparing a plan of care for a patient with pancreatic cysts that have necessitated drainage through the abdominal wall. What nursing diagnosis should the nurse prioritize? A) Disturbed Body Image B) Impaired Skin Integrity C) Nausea D) Risk for Deficient Fluid Volume

Ans: B Feedback: While each of the diagnoses may be applicable to a patient with pancreatic drainage, the priority nursing diagnosis is Impaired Skin Integrity. The drainage is often perfuse and destructive to tissue because of the enzyme contents. Nursing measures must focus on steps to protect the skin near the drainage site from excoriation. The application of ointments or the use of a suction apparatus protects the skin from excoriation.

The student nurse correctly identifies that which one of the following statements is true regarding clients with OCD? A) Since the client is aware that his or her behavior is bizarre, the client should just stop the behavior. B) Clients with OCD seem normal on the outside but suffer from overwhelming fear and anxiety. C) Once a person is successfully treated for OCD, he or she has been cured. D) Persons with OCD must avoid stress.

Ans: B Most times, clients with OCD seem normal on the outside but suffer from overwhelming fear and anxiety. OCD is often chronic in nature, with symptoms that wax and wane over time. Just because the client has some success in managing thoughts and rituals, it does not mean he or she will never need professional help in the future. It is not likely possible for persons with OCD to avoid stress.

Which of the following is essential for the nurse to communicate to the client with OCD and to the client's family? A) The client's diagnosis should be kept secret from everyone outside the immediate family and friends. B) The importance of medication compliance and that it may be necessary for medication to be changed to find the one that works best. C) It is important for the client to avoid following a routine. D) It is helpful for others to give unsolicited advice about other activities the client with OCD can engage in.

Ans: B Teaching about the importance of medication compliance to combat OCD is essential. It is neither possible nor desirable to keep the client's diagnosis a secret. To accomplish tasks efficiently, the client initially may need additional time to allow for rituals. When the client has completed the ritual or the tie allotted has passed, the client must then engage in the expected activity. At home, the client can continue to follow a daily routine or written schedule that helps him or her to stay on tasks and accomplish activities and responsibilities. It is not helpful for others to give unsolicited advice about other activities the client with OCD can engage in as this will add to the guilt and shame that people with OCD experience

Which of the following statements about the typical history of illness that would be assessed in a client who has OCD is consistent with OCD? A) OCD usually requires hospitalization. B) OCD treatment is usually outpatient. C) OCD only affects the client's ability to perform ADLs and work, not his or her leisure life. D) Most people seek treatment as soon as they observe the symptom

Ans: B The client usually seeks treatment only when obsessions become too overwhelming or when compulsions interfere with daily life (work, ADLs, or leisure) or both. Clients are hospitalized only when they have become completely unable to carry out their daily routines. Most treatment is outpatient. The client often reports that rituals began many years before; some begin as early as childhood. The more responsibility the client has as he or she gets older, the more the rituals interfere with the ability to fulfill these responsibilities

Which of the following is an important part of therapeutic communication for clients who have OCD? A) To encourage the client to keep the obsession secret. B) To encourage the client to discuss his or her obsession with the nurse. C) The nurse must have the same obsession as the client. D) The nurse must instruct the client to discuss the obsession

Ans: B The nurse encourages the client to talk about the feelings and to describe them in as much detail as the client can tolerate. Because many clients try to hide their rituals and to keep obsessions secret, discussing these thoughts, behaviors, and resulting feelings with the nurse is an important step. It is not necessary for the nurse to have the same obsession as the client

Before eating a meal, a client with obsessive/compulsive disorder must wash her hands for 14 minutes, comb her hair for 114 strokes, and switch the light off and on 44 times. When evaluating the progress of the client, what is the most important treatment objective for this client? A) Allow ample time for completion of all rituals before each meal. B) Gradually decrease the amount of time spent for performing rituals. C) Increase the client's acceptance of the need for medication to control rituals. D) Omit one ritualistic behavior every 4 days until all rituals are eliminated.

Ans: B Treatment has been effective when OCD symptoms no longer interfere with the client's ability to carry out responsibilities. When obsessions occur, the client manages resulting anxiety without engaging in complicated or time-consuming rituals. He or she reports regained control over his or her life and the ability to tolerate and manage anxiety with minimal disruption. Ritualistic behaviors may be decreased gradually over time

17. A client with mania is in the dining room at lunchtime and is observed taking food from other clients' trays. The nurse's intervention should be based on which rationale? A) As soon as lunch is over, the client will calm down. B) Other clients need to be protected from the intrusive behavior. C) The client's behavior is not an imminent threat to anyone's physical safety. D) The client needs food and fluids in any way possible.

Ans: B Feedback: The nurse must set limits on this intrusive behavior because other clients have the right to be protected. The client is in the manic phase; the client may not calm down after lunch. The behavior could be an imminent threat to individual safety for many reasons, infection control included. The client's need for food and fluids does not supersede any of the other clients' needs for food and fluids.

The nurse is aware that a person who repeatedly seeks cosmetic surgery to correct a perceived flaw in his or her appearance may have which of the following disorders? A) Hoarding disorder B) Body dysmorphic disorder C) Pyromania D) Body identity integrity disorder

Ans: B Feedback: Body dysmorphic disorder is a preoccupation with imagined or slight defect in physical appearance that causes significant distress for the individual and interferes with functioning in daily life. Elective cosmetic surgery is sought repeatedly to ìfix the flaw,î yet after surgery, the person is still dissatisfied or finds another flaw in appearance. It becomes a vicious cycle. Hoarding disorder is a progressive, debilitating, compulsive disorder that involves excessive acquisition of animals or apparently useless things; cluttered living spaces that become uninhabitable; and significant distress or impairment for the individual. Pyromania is the desire to start fires. Body identity integrity disorder is the term given to people who feel alienated from a part of their body and desire amputation

A clinic nurse is providing preprocedure education for a man who will undergo a vasectomy. Which of the following measures will enhance healing and comfort? Select all that apply. A) Abstaining from sexual intercourse for at least 14 days postprocedure B) Wearing a scrotal support garment C) Using sitz baths D) Applying a heating pad intermittently E) Staying on bed rest for 48 to 72 hours post-procedure

Ans: B, C Feedback: Applying ice bags intermittently to the scrotum for several hours after surgery can reduce swelling and relieve discomfort, and is preferable to the application of heat. The nurse advises the patient to wear snug, cotton underwear or a scrotal support for added comfort and support. Sitz baths can also enhance comfort. Extended bed rest is unnecessary, and sexual activity can usually be resumed in 1 week.

Which of the following are interpersonal theories regarding the etiologies of major anxiety disorders? Select all that apply. A) Sigmund Freud's theory B) Henry Stack Sullivan's theory C) Hildegard Peplau's theory D) Pavlov's theory

Ans: B, C Feedback: Theories of anxiety can be classified as intrapsychic/psychoanalytic theories, interpersonal theories, and behavioral theories. Freud's intrapsychic theory views a person's innate anxiety as the stimulus for behavior. Interpersonal theories include Sullivan's theory that anxiety is generated from problems in interpersonal relationships and Peplau's belief that humans exist in interpersonal and physiologic realms. Behavioral theorists view anxiety as being learned through experiences.

24. A client is being discharged on lithium. The nurse encourages the client to follow which health maintenance recommendations? Select all that apply. A) Weigh self weekly at the same time of day. B) Drink a 2-L bottle of decaffeinated fluid daily. C) Do not alter dietary salt intake. D) See the doctor if you get the flu. E) Restrict involvement in intense exercise.

Ans: B, C, D Feedback: Clients should drink adequate water (approximately 2 L/day) and continue with the usual amount of dietary table salt. Having too much salt in the diet because of unusually salty foods or the ingestion of salt-containing antacids can reduce receptor availability for lithium and increase lithium excretion, so the lithium level will be too low. If there is too much water, lithium is diluted, and the lithium level will be too low to be therapeutic. Drinking too little water or losing fluid through excessive sweating, vomiting, or diarrhea increases the lithium level, which may result in toxicity. Monitoring daily weights and the balance between intake and output and checking for dependent edema can be helpful in monitoring fluid balance. The physician should be contacted if the client has diarrhea, fever, flu, or any condition that leads to dehydration.

29. A patient is being discharged home from the ambulatory surgery center after an incisional biopsy of a mass in her left breast. What are the criteria for discharging this patient home? Select all that apply. A) Patient must understand when she can begin ambulating B) Patient must have someone to accompany her home C) Patient must understand activity restrictions D) Patient must understand care of the biopsy site E) Patient must understand when she can safely remove her urinary catheter

Ans: B, C, D Feedback: Prior to discharge from the ambulatory surgical center or the office, the patient must be able to tolerate fluids, ambulate, and void. The patient must have somebody to accompany her home and would not be discharged with urinary catheter in place.

Which of the following are central components of a psychiatric rehabilitation and recovery program? Select all that apply. A) Working with clients to have an improved quality of life according to society's point of view B) Working with clients to manage their own lives C) Working with clients to make effective treatment decisions D) Working with clients to have an improved quality of life according to his or her point of view. E) Working with clients to diagnose their problem early

Ans: B, C, D Feedback: Psychiatric rehabilitation has the goal of recovery for clients with major mental illness that goes beyond symptom control and medication management. Working with clients to manage their own lives, make effective treatment decisions, and have an improved quality of life—from the client's point of view—are central components of such programs.

Which challenges are posed when working with clients with personality disorders? Select all that apply. A) Clients with personality disorders are obviously unable to function more effectively. B) It can take a long time to change their behaviors, attitudes, or coping skills. C) The nurse can easily but mistakenly believe the client simply lacks motivation or the willingness to make changes. D) Clients with personality disorders challenge the ability of therapeutic staff to work as a team. E) Team members may have differing opinions about individual clients.

Ans: B, C, D, E

The nurse reviews current literature and identifies that which of the following are included in current studies of biologic theories regarding the etiology of schizophrenia? Select all that apply. A) That there is a particular pathologic structure associated with the disease. B) That genetics is the cause of schizophrenia. C) Persons with schizophrenia have decreased brain volume and abnormal brain function in the frontal and temporal areas of persons with schizophrenia. D) The brain activity of persons with schizophrenia differs from people who do not have schizophrenia. E) That the etiology of schizophrenia may be related to the body's response to exposure of a virus.

Ans: B, C, D, E Feedback: In the first half of the 20th century, studies focused on trying to find a particular pathologic structure associated with the disease, largely through autopsy. Such a site was not discovered. The biologic theories of schizophrenia focus on genetic factors, neuroanatomic and neurochemical factors (structure and function of the brain), and immunovirology (the body's response to exposure to a virus).

The parents of a young adult male who has schizophrenia ask how they can recognize when their son is beginning to relapse. The nurse teaches the family to look for which of the following? Select all that apply. A) Excessive sleeping B) Fatigue C) Irritability D) Increased inhibition E) Negativity

Ans: B, C, E Feedback: Teaching the client and family members to prevent or manage relapse is an essential part of a comprehensive plan of care. This includes providing facts about schizophrenia, identifying the early signs of relapse, and teaching health practices to promote physical and psychological well-being. Early signs of relapse include impaired cause-and-effect reasoning, impaired information processing, poor nutrition, lack of sleep, lack of exercise, fatigue, poor social skills, social isolation, loneliness, interpersonal difficulties, lack of control, irritability, mood swings, ineffective medication management, low self-concept, looking and acting different, hopeless feelings, loss of motivation, anxiety and worry, disinhibition, increased negativity, neglecting appearance, and forgetfulness.

Which of the following would be appropriate outcomes for a client with OCD? Select all that apply. A) The client will stop engaging in the compulsive activity. B) The client will spend less time performing rituals. C) The client will complete daily routine activities within a realistic time frame. D) The client will conceal the behavior from all persons to avoid anxiety. E) The client will demonstrate effective use of behavior therapy techniques

Ans: B, C, E Outcomes for clients with OCD include the following: ï The client will complete daily routine activities within a realistic time frame. ï The client will demonstrate effective use of relaxation techniques. ï The client will discuss feelings with another person. ï The client will demonstrate effective use of behavior therapy techniques. ï The client will spend less time performing rituals.

An adult patient has been diagnosed with diverticular disease after ongoing challenges with constipation. The patient will be treated on an outpatient basis. What components of treatment should the nurse anticipate? Select all that apply. A. Anticholinergic medications B. Increased fiber intake C. Enemas on alternating days D. Reduced fat intake E. Fluid reduction

Ans: B, D Feedback: Patients whose diverticular disease does not warrant hospital treatment often benefit from a high-fiber, low-fat diet. Neither enemas nor anticholinergics are indicated, and fluid intake is encouraged.

3. Which statements about the etiology of bipolar disorder do most psychoanalytical theories subscribe to? Select all that apply. A) Norepinephrine levels may be increased in mania. B) Manic episodes are a ìdefenseî against underlying depression. C) Acetylcholine seems to be implicated in mania. D) The id takes over the ego and acts as an undisciplined hedonistic being (child).

Ans: B, D Feedback: Most psychoanalytic theories of mania view manic episodes as a ìdefenseî against underlying depression, with the id taking over the ego and acting as an undisciplined hedonistic being (child). Norepinephrine levels may be increased in mania, and acetylcholine seems to be implicated in mania, but these are neurochemical theories.

4. Which variables represent the highest risk for developing major depressive disorder? Select all that apply. A) Male gender B) Mood disorder in first-degree relatives C) Substance abuse D) Divorced E) Older adult

Ans: B, D Feedback: Major depression is twice as common in women and has a 1.5 to 3 times greater incidence in first-degree relatives than in the general population. Incidence of depression decreases with age in women and increases with age in men. Single and divorced people have the highest incidence. Depression in prepubertal boys and girls occurs at an equal rate.

Which of the following are features of the thinking of a person who has OCD according to the cognitive model? Select all that apply. A) The person with OCD employs a minimalist approach to all aspects of his or her life. B) The person with OCD believes one's thoughts are overly important and has a need to control those thoughts as they overestimate the threat posed by their thoughts. C) The person with OCD is always aware that his or her behavior is related to OCD. D) The person with OCD is concerned with perfectionism and has an intolerance of uncertainty. E) The person with OCD has an inflated personal responsibility

Ans: B, D, E The cognitive model describes the person's thinking as (1) believing one's thoughts are overly important; that is, ìIf I think it, it will happen,î and therefore having a need to control those thoughts; (2) perfectionism and the intolerance of uncertainty; and (3) inflated personal responsibility (from a strict moral or religious upbringing) and overestimation of the threat posed by one's thoughts. The person with OCD would not employ a minimalist approach to all aspects of his or her lifeóhe or she is likely to perform some tasks at extreme levels. The persons with OCD may not always be aware that their behavior is related to OCD

A client with antisocial personality disorder is begging to use the phone to call his wife,even though it is against the unit rules. The client begs, It is just this once, and she will be so hurt if I don't call her. Which would be the most appropriate response by the nurse? A) Only to help your wife, you can call this time. B) I will get in trouble with my supervisor if I let you call. C) You may not use the phone to call your wife. D) You cannot call because you need to focus on your recovery while you are here, not your wife.

Ans: C

A nurse is teaching a client with borderline personality disorder to reshape thinking patters. Which is an example of a cognitive restructuring technique that would be helpful for this client? A) When negative thoughts begin, tell yourself ìstop.î B) Learn to look at situations realistically rather than assuming the worst. C) Recognize negative thoughts and replace them with positive ones. D) Express needs using I statements.

Ans: C

What would the nurse expect to assess in a client with narcissistic personality disorder? A) Genuine concern for others B) Mistrust of others C) Grandiose and superior self-concept D) Dependence on others for decision making

Ans: C

When establishing a relationship with a client who has borderline personality disorder, which is most important for the nurse to do? A) Aggressively confront the client about boundary violations. B) Limit interactions to 10 minutes at a time. C) Respect the client's boundaries at all times. D) Tell the client the relationship will last as long as the client wishes.

Ans: C

Which of the following is a psychosocial explanation for the development of personality disorders? A) Highly self-directed people reflect uncooperativeness and intolerance. B) Cooperative people become increasingly helpless over time. C) Failure to complete a developmental task jeopardizes future personality development. D) Self-transcendence contributes to self-consciousness and materialism.

Ans: C

Which term describes the extent to which a person considers himself to be an integral part of the universe? A) Cooperativeness B) Self-directedness C) Self-transcendence D) Character

Ans: C

Which would most likely be a type of behavior that would be manifested by a client who has histrionic personality disorder? A) Insisting that others follow the rules of the unit B) Wondering why others are being friendly to her C) Having a tantrum if not getting enough attention D) Getting others to make decisions for her

Ans: C

An adolescent is identified as having a collection of fluid in the tunica vaginalis of his testes. The nurse knows that this adolescent will receive what medical diagnosis? A) Cryptorchidism B) Orchitis C) Hydrocele D) Prostatism

Ans: C Feedback: A hydrocele refers to a collection of fluid in the tunica vaginalis of the testes. Cryptorchidism is the most common congenital defect in males, characterized by failure of one or both of the testes to descend into the scrotum. Orchitis is an inflammation of the testes (testicular congestion) caused by pyogenic, viral, spirochetal, parasitic, traumatic, chemical, or unknown factors. Prostatism is an obstructive and irritative symptom complex that includes increased frequency and hesitancy in starting urination, a decrease in the volume and force of the urinary stream, acute urinary retention, and recurrent urinary tract infections.

A nurse is caring for a patient hospitalized with AIDS. A friend comes to visit the patient and privately asks the nurse about the risk of contracting HIV when visiting the patient. What is the nurse's best response? A) Do you think that you might already have HIV? B) Don't worry. Your immune system is likely very healthy. C) AIDS isn't transmitted by casual contact. D) You can't contract AIDS in a hospital setting.

Ans: C Feedback: AIDS is commonly transmitted by contact with blood and body fluids. Patients, family, and friends must be reassured that HIV is not spread through casual contact. A healthy immune system is not necessarily a protection against HIV. A hospital setting does not necessarily preclude HIV infection.

A nurse is providing an educational event to a local men's group about prostate cancer. The nurse should cite an increased risk of prostate cancer in what ethnic group? A) Native Americans B) Caucasian Americans C) African Americans D) Asian Americans

Ans: C Feedback: African American men have a high risk of prostate cancer; furthermore, they are more than twice as likely to die from prostate cancer as men of other racial or ethnic groups.

A nurse would identify that a colleague needs additional instruction on standard precautions when the colleague exhibits which of the following behaviors? A) The nurse wears face protection, gloves, and a gown when irrigating a wound. B) The nurse washes the hands with a waterless antiseptic agent after removing a pair of soiled gloves. C) The nurse puts on a second pair of gloves over soiled gloves while performing a bloody procedure. D) The nurse places a used needle and syringe in the puncture-resistant container without capping the needle.

Ans: C Feedback: Gloves must be changed after contact with materials that may contain high concentration of microorganisms, even when working with the same patient. Each of the other listed actions adheres to standard precautions.

A patient with AIDS is admitted to the hospital with AIDS-related wasting syndrome and AIDS-related anorexia. What drug has been found to promote significant weight gain in AIDS patients by increasing body fat stores? A) Advera B) Momordicacharantia C) Megestrol D) Ranitidine

Ans: C Feedback: Megestrol acetate (Megace), a synthetic oral progesterone preparation, promotes significant weight gain. In patients with HIV infection, it increases body weight primarily by increasing body fat stores. Advera is a nutritional supplement that has been developed specifically for people with HIV infection and AIDS. Momordicacharantia (bitter melon) is given as an enema and is part of alternative treatment for HIV/AIDS. Ranitidine prevents ulcers.

A nurse is performing an admission assessment on a 40-year-old man who has been admitted for outpatient surgery on his right knee. While taking the patient's family history, he states, My father died of prostate cancer at age 48. The nurse should instruct him on which of the following health promotion activities? A) The patient will need PSA levels drawn starting at age 55. B) The patient should have testing for presence of the CDH1 and STK11 genes. C) The patient should have PSA levels drawn regularly. D) The patient should limit alcohol use due to the risk of malignancy.

Ans: C Feedback: PSA screening is warranted by the patient's family history and should not be delayed until age 55. The CDH1 and STK11 genes do not relate to the risk for prostate cancer. Alcohol consumption by the patient should be limited. However, this is not the most important health promotion intervention.

A nurse practitioner is assessing a 55-year-old male patient who is complaining of perineal discomfort, burning, urgency, and frequency with urination. The patient states that he has pain with ejaculation. The nurse knows that the patient is exhibiting symptoms of what? A) Varicocele B) Epididymitis C) Prostatitis D) Hydrocele

Ans: C Feedback: Perineal discomfort, burning, urgency, frequency with urination, and pain with ejaculation is indicative of prostatitis. A varicocele is an abnormal dilation of the pampiniform venous plexus and the internal spermatic vein in the scrotum (the network of veins from the testis and the epididymis that constitute part of the spermatic cord). Epididymitis is an infection of the epididymis that usually descends from an infected prostate or urinary tract; it also may develop as a complication of gonorrhea. A hydrocele is a collection of fluid, generally in the tunica vaginalis of the testis, although it also may collect within the spermatic cord.

An uncircumcised 78-year-old male has presented at the clinic complaining that he cannot retract his foreskin over his glans. On examination, it is noted that the foreskin is very constricted. The nurse should recognize the presence of what health problem? A) Bowen's disease B) Peyronie's disease C) Phimosis D) Priapism

Ans: C Feedback: Phimosis is the term used to describe a condition in which the foreskin is constricted so that it cannot be retracted over the glans. Bowen's disease is an in situ carcinoma of the penis. Peyronie's disease is an acquired, benign condition that involves the buildup of fibrous plaques in the sheath of the corpus cavernosum. Priapism is an uncontrolled, persistent erection of the penis from either neural or vascular causes, including medications, sickle cell thrombosis, leukemic cell infiltration, spinal cord tumors, and tumor invasion of the penis or its vessels.

A nurse is caring for a 33-year-old male who has come to the clinic for a physical examination. He states that he has not had a routine physical in 5 years. During the examination, the physician finds that digital rectal examination (DRE) reveals stoney hardening in the posterior lobe of the prostate gland that is not mobile. The nurse recognizes that the observation typically indicates what? A) A normal finding B) A sign of early prostate cancer C) Evidence of a more advanced lesion D) Metastatic disease

Ans: C Feedback: Routine repeated DRE (preferably by the same examiner) is important, because early cancer may be detected as a nodule within the gland or as an extensive hardening in the posterior lobe. The more advanced lesion is stony hard and fixed. This finding is not suggestive of metastatic disease.

The nurse care plan for a patient with AIDS includes the diagnosis of Risk for Impaired Skin Integrity. What nursing intervention should be included in the plan of care? A) Maximize the patient's fluid intake. B) Provide total parenteral nutrition (TPN). C) Keep the patient's bed linens free of wrinkles. D) Provide the patient with snug clothing at all times.

Ans: C Feedback: Skin surfaces are protected from friction and rubbing by keeping bed linens free of wrinkles and avoiding tight or restrictive clothing. Fluid intake should be adequate, and must be monitored, but maximizing fluid intake is not a goal. TPN is a nutritional intervention of last resort.

A nursing student is learning how to perform sexual assessments using the PLISSIT model. According to this model, the student should begin an assessment by doing which of the following? A) Briefly teaching the patient about normal sexual physiology B) Assuring the patient that what he says will be confidential C) Asking the patient if he is willing to discuss sexual functioning D) Ensuring patient privacy

Ans: C Feedback: The PLISSIT (permission, limited information, specific suggestions, intensive therapy) model of sexual assessment and intervention may be used to provide a framework for nursing interventions. By beginning with the patient's permission, the nurse establishes a patient-centered focus.

A patient was tested for HIV using enzyme immunoassay (EIA) and results were positive. The nurse should expect the primary care provider to order what test to confirm the EIA test results? A) Another EIA test B) Viral load test C) Western blot test D) CD4/CD8 ratio

Ans: C Feedback: The Western blot test detects antibodies to HIV and is used to confirm the EIA test results. The viral load test measures HIV RNA in the plasma and is not used to confirm EIA test results, but instead to track the progression of the disease process. The CD4/CD8 ratio test evaluates the ratio of CD4 and CD8 cells but is not used to confirm results of EIA testing.

A nurse is assessing a patient who presented to the ED with priapism. The student nurse is aware that this condition is classified as a urologic emergency because of the potential for what? A) Urinary tract infection B) Chronic pain C) Permanent vascular damage D) Future erectile dysfunction

Ans: C Feedback: The ischemic form of priapism, which is described as nonsexual, persistent erection with little or no cavernous blood flow, must be treated promptly to prevent permanent damage to the penis. Priapism has not been indicated in the development of UTIs, chronic pain, or erectile dysfunction.

The mother of two young children has been diagnosed with HIV and expresses fear of dying. How should the nurse best respond to the patient? A) Would you like me to have the chaplain come speak with you? B) You'll learn much about the promise of a cure for HIV. C) Can you tell me what concerns you most about dying? D) You need to maintain hope because you may live for several years.

Ans: C Feedback: The nurse can help the patient verbalize feelings and identify resources for support. The nurse should respond with an open-ended question to help the patient to identify fears about being diagnosed with a life-threatening chronic illness. Immediate deferral to spiritual care is not a substitute for engaging with the patient. The nurse should attempt to foster hope, but not in a way that downplays the patient's expressed fears.

A patient with a recent diagnosis of HIV infection expresses an interest in exploring alternative and complementary therapies. How should the nurse best respond? A) Complementary therapies generally have not been approved, so patients are usually discouraged from using them. B) Researchers have not looked at the benefits of alternative therapy for patients with HIV, so we suggest that you stay away from these therapies until there is solid research data available. C) Many patients with HIV use some type of alternative therapy and, as with most health treatments, there are benefits and risks. D) You'll need to meet with your doctor to choose between an alternative approach to treatment and a medical approach.

Ans: C Feedback: The nurse should approach the topic of alternative or complementary therapies from an open-ended, supportive approach, emphasizing the need to communicate with care providers. Complementary therapies and medical treatment are not mutually exclusive, though some contraindications exist. Research supports the efficacy of some forms of complementary and alternative treatment.

A patient's primary infection with HIV has subsided and an equilibrium now exists between HIV levels and the patient's immune response. This physiologic state is known as which of the following? A) Static stage B) Latent stage C) Viral set point D) Window period

Ans: C Feedback: The remaining amount of virus in the body after primary infection is referred to as the viral set point, which results in a steady state of infection that lasts for years. This is not known as the static or latent stage. The window period is the time a person infected with HIV tests negative even though he or she is infected.

A nurse is assessing a patients stoma on postoperative day 3. The nurse notes that the stoma has a shiny appearance and a bright red color. How should the nurse best respond to this assessment finding? A. Irrigate the ostomy to clear a possible obstruction. B. Contact the primary care provider to report this finding. C. Document that the stoma appears healthy and well perfused. D. Document a nursing diagnosis of Impaired Skin Integrity.

Ans: C Feedback: A healthy, viable stoma should be shiny and pink to bright red. This finding does not indicate that the stoma is blocked or that skin integrity is compromised.

A patients screening colonoscopy revealed the presence of numerous polyps in the large bowel. What principle should guide the subsequent treatment of this patients health problem? A. Adherence to a high-fiber diet will help the polyps resolve. B. The patient should be assured that these are a normal, age-related physiologic change. C. The patients polyps constitute a risk factor for cancer. D. The presence of polyps is associated with an increased risk of bowel obstruction.

Ans: C Feedback: Although most polyps do not develop into invasive neoplasms, they must be identified and followed closely. They are very common, but are not classified as a normal, age-related physiologic change. Diet will not help them resolve and they do not typically lead to obstructions.

An older adult has a diagnosis of Alzheimers disease and has recently been experiencing fecal incontinence. However, the nurse has observed no recent change in the character of the patients stools. What is the nurses most appropriate intervention? • Keep a food diary to determine the foods that exacerbate the patients symptoms. • Provide the patient with a bland, low-residue diet. • Toilet the patient on a frequent, scheduled basis. • Liaise with the primary care provider to obtain an order for loperamide.

Ans: C Feedback: Because the patients fecal incontinence is most likely attributable to cognitive decline, frequent toileting is an appropriate intervention. Loperamide is unnecessary in the absence of diarrhea. Specific foods are not likely to be a cause of, or solution to, this patients health problem.

A patients health history is suggestive of inflammatory bowel disease. Which of the following would suggest Crohns disease, rather that ulcerative colitis, as the cause of the patients signs and symptoms? A. A pattern of distinct exacerbations and remissions B. Severe diarrhea C. An absence of blood in stool D. Involvement of the rectal mucosa

Ans: C Feedback: Bloody stool is far more common in cases of UC than in Crohns. Rectal involvement is nearly 100% in cases of UC (versus 20% in Crohns) and patients with UC typically experience severe diarrhea. UC is also characterized by a pattern of remissions and exacerbations, while Crohns often has a more prolonged and variable course.

A nurse is planning discharge teaching for a 21-year-old patient with a new diagnosis of ulcerative colitis. When planning family assessment, the nurse should recognize that which of the following factors will likely have the greatest impact on the patients coping after discharge? • The familys ability to take care of the patients special diet needs • The familys ability to monitor the patients changing health status • The familys ability to provide emotional support • The familys ability to manage the patients medication regimen

Ans: C Feedback: Emotional support from the family is key to the patients coping after discharge. A 21-year-old would be expected to self-manage the prescribed medication regimen and the family would not be primarily responsible for monitoring the patients health status. It is highly beneficial if the family is willing and able to accommodate the patients dietary needs, but emotional support is paramount and cannot be solely provided by the patient alone.

A nurse is working with a patient who has chronic constipation. What should be included in patient teaching to promote normal bowel function? • Use glycerin suppositories on a regular basis. • Limit physical activity in order to promote bowel peristalsis. • Consume high-residue, high-fiber foods. • Resist the urge to defecate until the urge becomes intense.

Ans: C Feedback: Goals for the patient include restoring or maintaining a regular pattern of elimination by responding to the urge to defecate, ensuring adequate intake of fluids and high-fiber foods, learning about methods to avoid constipation, relieving anxiety about bowel elimination patterns, and avoiding complications. Ongoing use of pharmacologic aids should not be promoted, due to the risk of dependence. Increased mobility helps to maintain a regular pattern of elimination. The urge to defecate should be heeded.

A patients colorectal cancer has necessitated a hemicolectomy with the creation of a colostomy. In the 4 days since the surgery, the patient has been unwilling to look at the ostomy or participate in any aspects of ostomy care. What is the nurses most appropriate response to this observation? • Ensure that the patient knows that he or she will be responsible for care after discharge. • Reassure the patient that many people are fearful after the creation of an ostomy. • Acknowledge the patients reluctance and initiate discussion of the factors underlying it. • Arrange for the patient to be seen by a social worker or spiritual advisor.

Ans: C Feedback: If the patient is reluctant to participate in ostomy care, the nurse should attempt to dialogue about this with the patient and explore the factors that underlie it. It is presumptive to assume that the patients behavior is motivated by fear. Assessment must precede referrals and emphasizing the patients responsibilities may or may not motivate the patient.

A nurse is working with a patient who is learning to care for a continent ileostomy (Kock pouch). Following the initial period of healing, the nurse is teaching the patient how to independently empty the ileostomy. The nurse should teach the patient to do which of the following actions? • Aim to eventually empty the pouch every 90 minutes. • Avoid emptying the pouch until it is visibly full. • Insert the catheter approximately 5 cm into the pouch. • Aspirate the contents of the pouch using a 60 mL piston syringe.

Ans: C Feedback: To empty a Kock pouch, the catheter is gently inserted approximately 5 cm to the point of the valve or nipple. The length of time between drainage periods is gradually increased until the reservoir needs to be drained only every 4 to 6 hours and irrigated once each day. It is not appropriate to wait until the pouch is full, and this would not be visible. The contents of the pouch are not aspirated.

20. The nurse is caring for a patient who has undergone creation of a urinary diversion. Forty-eight hours postoperatively, the nurse's assessment reveals that the stoma is a dark purplish color. What is the nurse's most appropriate response? A) Document the presence of a healthy stoma. B) Assess the patient for further signs and symptoms of infection. C) Inform the primary care provider that the vascular supply may be compromised. D) Liaise with the wound-ostomy-continence (WOC) nurse because the ostomy appliance around the stoma may be too loose.

Ans: C Feedback: A healthy stoma is pink or red. A change from this normal color to a dark purplish color suggests that the vascular supply may be compromised. A loose ostomy appliance and infections do not cause a dark purplish stoma.

36. A patient who has recently undergone ESWL for the treatment of renal calculi has phoned the urology unit where he was treated, telling the nurse that he has a temperature of 101.1ºF (38.4ºC). How should the nurse best respond to the patient? A) Remind the patient that renal calculi have a noninfectious etiology and that a fever is unrelated to their recurrence. B) Remind the patient that occasional febrile episodes are expected following ESWL. C) Tell the patient to report to the ED for further assessment. D) Tell the patient to monitor his temperature for the next 24 hours and then contact his urologist's office.

Ans: C Feedback: Following ESWL, the development of a fever is abnormal and is suggestive of a UTI; prompt medical assessment and treatment are warranted. It would be inappropriate to delay further treatment.

31. A patient has had her indwelling urinary catheter removed after having it in place for 10 days during recovery from an acute illness. Two hours after removal of the catheter, the patient informs the nurse that she is experiencing urinary urgency resulting in several small-volume voids. What is the nurse's best response? A) Inform the patient that urgency and occasional incontinence are expected for the first few weeks post-removal. B) Obtain an order for a loop diuretic in order to enhance urine output and bladder function. C) Inform the patient that this is not unexpected in the short term and scan the patient's bladder following each void. D) Obtain an order to reinsert the patient's urinary catheter and attempt removal in 24 to 48 hours.

Ans: C Feedback: Immediately after the indwelling catheter is removed, the patient is placed on a timed voiding schedule, usually every 2 to 3 hours. At the given time interval, the patient is instructed to void. The bladder is then scanned using a portable ultrasonic bladder scanner; if the bladder has not emptied completely, straight catheterization may be performed. An indwelling catheter would not be reinserted to resolve the problem and diuretics would not be beneficial. Ongoing incontinence is not an expected finding after catheter removal.

28. A nurse is working with a female patient who has developed stress urinary incontinence. Pelvic floor muscle exercises have been prescribed by the primary care provider. How can the nurse best promote successful treatment? A) Clearly explain the potential benefits of pelvic floor muscle exercises. B) Ensure the patient knows that surgery will be required if the exercises are unsuccessful. C) Arrange for biofeedback when the patient is learning to perform the exercises. D) Contact the patient weekly to ensure that she is performing the exercises consistently.

Ans: C Feedback: Research shows that written or verbal instruction alone is usually inadequate to teach an individual how to identify and strengthen the pelvic floor for sufficient bladder and bowel control. Biofeedback-assisted pelvic muscle exercise (PME) uses either electromyography or manometry to help the individual identify the pelvic muscles as he or she attempts to learn which muscle group is involved when performing PME. This objective assessment is likely superior to weekly contact with the patient. Surgery is not necessarily indicated if behavioral techniques are unsuccessful.

15. A patient has been admitted to the postsurgical unit following the creation of an ileal conduit. What should the nurse measure to determine the size of the appliance needed? A) The circumference of the stoma B) The narrowest part of the stoma C) The widest part of the stoma D) Half the width of the stoma

Ans: C Feedback: The correct appliance size is determined by measuring the widest part of the stoma with a ruler. The permanent appliance should be no more than 1.6 mm (1/8 inch) larger than the diameter of the stoma and the same shape as the stoma to prevent contact of the skin with drainage.

1. A female patient has been experiencing recurrent urinary tract infections. What health education should the nurse provide to this patient? A) Bathe daily and keep the perineal region clean. B) Avoid voiding immediately after sexual intercourse. C) Drink liberal amounts of fluids. D) Void at least every 6 to 8 hours.

Ans: C Feedback: The patient is encouraged to drink liberal amounts of fluids (water is the best choice) to increase urine production and flow, which flushes the bacteria from the urinary tract. Frequent voiding (every 2 to 3 hours) is encouraged to empty the bladder completely because this can significantly lower urine bacterial counts, reduce urinary stasis, and prevent reinfection. The patient should be encouraged to shower rather than bathe.

6. The nurse is caring for a patient who underwent percutaneous lithotripsy earlier in the day. What instruction should the nurse give the patient? A) Limit oral fluid intake for 1 to 2 days. B) Report the presence of fine, sand like particles through the nephrostomy tube. C) Notify the physician about cloudy or foul-smelling urine. D) Report any pink-tinged urine within 24 hours after the procedure.

Ans: C Feedback: The patient should report the presence of foul-smelling or cloudy urine since this is suggestive of a UTI. Unless contraindicated, the patient should be instructed to drink large quantities of fluid each day to flush the kidneys. Sand like debris is normal due to residual stone products. Hematuria is common after lithotripsy.

34. A patient with a recent history of nephrolithiasis has presented to the ED. After determining that the patient's cardiopulmonary status is stable, what aspect of care should the nurse prioritize? A) IV fluid administration B) Insertion of an indwelling urinary catheter C) Pain management D) Assisting with aspiration of the stone

Ans: C Feedback: The patient with kidney stones is often in excruciating pain, and this is a high priority for nursing interventions. In the short term, this would supersede the patient's need for IV fluids or for catheterization. Kidney stones cannot be aspirated.

13. The nurse is caring for a patient with an indwelling urinary catheter. The nurse is aware that what nursing action helps prevent infection in a patient with an indwelling catheter? A) Vigorously clean the meatus area daily. B) Apply powder to the perineal area twice daily. C) Empty the drainage bag at least every 8 hours. D) Irrigate the catheter every 8 hours with normal saline.

Ans: C Feedback: To reduce the risk of bacterial proliferation, the nurse should empty the collection bag at least every 8 hours through the drainage spout, and more frequently if there is a large volume of urine. Vigorous cleaning of the meatus while the catheter is in place is discouraged, because the cleaning action can move the catheter, increasing the risk of infection. The spout (or drainage port) of any urinary drainage bag can become contaminated when opened to drain the bag. Irrigation of the catheter opens the closed system, increasing the likelihood of infection.

Which of the following is the desired outcome for a client with OCD? A) That the client will no longer experience any signs or symptoms of OCD B) That the client will no longer experience anxiety C) That the OCD symptoms no longer interfere with the client's responsibilities D) To relieve the client with OCD of any responsibilities

Ans: C Treatment has been effective when OCD symptoms no longer interfere with the client's ability to carry out responsibilities. The client will likely continue to experience signs or symptoms of OCD and anxiety, but the client will be able to manage the resulting anxiety without engaging in complicated or time-consuming rituals. It is not possible or desirable to relieve the client with OCD of any responsibilities

3. A woman aged 48 years comes to the clinic because she has discovered a lump in her breast. After diagnostic testing, the woman receives a diagnosis of breast cancer. The woman asks the nurse when her teenage daughters should begin mammography. What is the nurses best advice? A) Age 28 B) Age 35 C) Age 38 D) Age 48

Ans: C Feedback: A general guideline is to begin screening 5 to 10 years earlier than the age at which the youngest family member developed breast cancer, but not before age 25 years. In families with a history of breast cancer, a downward shift in age of diagnosis of about 10 years is seen. Because their mother developed breast cancer at age 48 years, the daughters should begin mammography at age 38 to 43 years.

The nurse is assessing for negative symptoms of schizophrenia in a newly admitted client. The nurse would note which behavior as indicative of a negative symptom? A) Difficulty staying on subject when responding to assessment questions B) Belief of owning a transportation device allowing for travel to the center of the Earth C) Hesitant to answer the nurse's questions during the assessment interview D) Mimicking the postural changes made by the nurse during the assessment interview

Ans: C Feedback: A negative symptom of schizophrenia is alogia, or the tendency to speak very little or to convey little substance of meaning (poverty of content). Associative looseness (fragmented or poorly related thoughts and ideas), delusions (fixed false beliefs that have no basis in reality), and echopraxia (imitation of the movements and gestures of another person whom the client is observing) are all positive symptoms.

37. A patient has just been diagnosed with breast cancer and the nurse is performing a patient interview. In assessing this patients ability to cope with this diagnosis, what would be an appropriate question for the nurse to ask this patient? A) What is your level of education? B) Are you feeling alright these days? C) Is there someone you trust to help you make treatment choices? D) Are you concerned about receiving this diagnosis?

Ans: C Feedback: A trusted ally to assist in making treatment choices is beneficial to the patients coping ability. It is condescending and inappropriate to ask if the patient is feeling alright these days or is concerned about the diagnosis. The patients education level is irrelevant.

21. For which of the following population groups would an annual clinical breast examination be recommended? A) Women over age 21 B) Women over age 25 C) Women over age 40 D) All post-pubescent females with a family history of breast cancer

Ans: C Feedback: Annual clinical breast examination is recommended for women aged 40 years and older. Younger women may have examinations less frequently.

6. A client reports drinking one to two drinks when drinking behavior first began. Now the client reports drinking at least six drinks with every episode in order to ìhave a good time.î Which term would best describe this phenomenon? A) Dependence B) Intoxication C) Tolerance D) Withdrawal

Ans: C Feedback: As the person continues to drink, he or she often develops a tolerance for alcohol that is, he or she needs more alcohol to produce the same effect. Intoxication is use of a substance that results in maladaptive behavior. Withdrawal syndrome refers to the negative psychological and physical reactions that occur when use of a substance ceases or dramatically decreases. Substance dependence also includes problems associated with addiction such as tolerance, withdrawal, and unsuccessful attempts to stop using the substance.

A client with schizophrenia is reluctant to take his prescribed oral medication. The most therapeutic response by the nurse to this refusal is, A) "I can see that you're uncomfortable now, so we can wait until tomorrow." B) "If you refuse these pills, you'll have to get an injection." C) "What is it about the medicine that you don't like?" D) "You know you have to take this medicine for your own good."

Ans: C Feedback: Asking the client why he does not like his medication explores the client's reason for refusal, which is the first step in resolving the issue. The nurse must determine the barriers to compliance for each client. Threatening the client with an injection is assault. Waiting until tomorrow puts off the inevitable. Telling him it is for his own good is not the most therapeutic response in order to get the client to take his medication.

11. A patient has undergone a laparoscopic cholecystectomy and is being prepared for discharge home. When providing health education, the nurse should prioritize which of the following topics? A) Management of fluid balance in the home setting B) The need for blood glucose monitoring for the next week C) Signs and symptoms of intra-abdominal complications D) Appropriate use of prescribed pancreatic enzymes

Ans: C Feedback: Because of the early discharge following laparoscopic cholecystectomy, the patient needs thorough education in the signs and symptoms of complications. Fluid balance is not typically a problem in the recovery period after laparoscopic cholecystectomy. There is no need for blood glucose monitoring or pancreatic enzymes.

32. A patient has just been diagnosed with chronic pancreatitis. The patient is underweight and in severe pain and diagnostic testing indicates that over 80% of the patient's pancreas has been destroyed. The patient asks the nurse why the diagnosis was not made earlier in the disease process. What would be the nurse's best response? A) "The symptoms of pancreatitis mimic those of much less serious illnesses." B) "Your body doesn't require pancreatic function until it is under great stress, so it is easy to go unnoticed." C) "Chronic pancreatitis often goes undetected until a large majority of pancreatic function is lost." D) "It's likely that your other organs were compensating for your decreased pancreatic function."

Ans: C Feedback: By the time symptoms occur in chronic pancreatitis, approximately 90% of normal acinar cell function (exocrine function) has been lost. Late detection is not usually attributable to the vagueness of symptoms. The pancreas contributes continually to homeostasis and other organs are unable to perform its physiologic functions.

25. A community health nurse is caring for a patient whose multiple health problems include chronic pancreatitis. During the most recent visit, the nurse notes that the patient is experiencing severe abdominal pain and has vomited 3 times in the past several hours. What is the nurse's most appropriate action? A) Administer a PRN dose of pancreatic enzymes as ordered. B) Teach the patient about the importance of abstaining from alcohol. C) Arrange for the patient to be transported to the hospital. D) Insert an NG tube, if available, and stay with the patient.

Ans: C Feedback: Chronic pancreatitis is characterized by recurring attacks of severe upper abdominal and back pain, accompanied by vomiting. The onset of these acute symptoms warrants hospital treatment. Pancreatic enzymes are not indicated and an NG tube would not be inserted in the home setting. Patient education is a later priority that may or may not be relevant.

1. Which best explains the neurochemical processes responsible for depression? A) Increased activity of dopamine B) Decreased glucocorticoid activity C) Decreased serotonin and norepinephrine activity D) Potentiating of the kindling process

Ans: C Feedback: Deficits of serotonin, its precursor tryptophan, or a metabolite (5-hydroxyindole acetic acid, or 5-HIAA) of serotonin found in the blood or cerebrospinal fluid occur in people with depression. Norepinephrine levels may be deficient in depression and increased in mania. Elevated glucocorticoid activity is associated with the stress response, and evidence of increased cortisol secretion is apparent in about 40% of clients with depression. Kindling is the process by which seizure activity in a specific area of the brain is initially stimulated.

33. A nurse is explaining that each breast contains 12 to 20 cone-shaped lobes. The nurse should explain that each lobe consists of what elements? A) Modified tendons and ligaments B) Connective tissue and smooth muscle C) Lobules and ducts D) Endocrine glands and sebaceous glands

Ans: C Feedback: Each breast contains 12 to 20 cone-shaped lobes, which are made up of glandular elements (lobules and ducts) and separated by fat and fibrous tissue that binds the lobes together. These breast lobes do not consist of tendons, ligaments, endocrine glands, or smooth muscle.

34. A patient is admitted to the ICU with acute pancreatitis. The patient's family asks what causes acute pancreatitis. The critical care nurse knows that a majority of patients with acute pancreatitis have what? A) Type 1 diabetes B) An impaired immune system C) Undiagnosed chronic pancreatitis D) An amylase deficiency

Ans: C Feedback: Eighty percent of patients with acute pancreatitis have biliary tract disease or a history of long-term alcohol abuse. These patients usually have had undiagnosed chronic pancreatitis before their first episode of acute pancreatitis. Diabetes, an impaired immune function, and amylase deficiency are not specific precursors to acute pancreatitis.

5. A nurse who provides care in a walk-in clinic assesses a wide range of individuals. The nurse should identify which of the following patients as having the highest risk for chronic pancreatitis? A) A 45-year-old obese woman with a high-fat diet B) An 18-year-old man who is a weekend binge drinker C) A 39-year-old man with chronic alcoholism D) A 51-year-old woman who smokes one-and-a-half packs of cigarettes per day

Ans: C Feedback: Excessive and prolonged consumption of alcohol accounts for approximately 70% to 80% of all cases of chronic pancreatitis.

24. A nurse is working with a couple seeking counseling for marital discord. The history indicates the husband was treated for substance abuse 4 years ago and attends AA meetings occasionally. Which statement made by the recovering husband should alert the nurse for the need for further education? A) ìI still need to go to AA meetings even though I have been sober for years.î B) ìAfter all these years, I just don't have the will power to stop if I started using again.î C) ìShe gets upset when I hang out with my old buddies on the weekends.î D) ìI wish I could be able to handle just one beer with dinner.î

Ans: C Feedback: Family members and friends should be aware that clients who begin to revert to old behaviors, return to substance-using acquaintances, or believe they can ìhandle myself nowî are at high risk for relapse, and loved ones need to take action. The nurse must dispel myths and misconceptions such as, ìIt's a matter of will power,î ìI can't be an alcoholic if I only drink beer or if I only drink on weekends,î ìI can learn to use drugs socially,î or ìI'm okay now I could handle using once in a while.î

10. A 23-year-old woman comes to the free clinic stating I think I have a lump in my breast. Do I have cancer? The nurse instructs the patient that a diagnosis of breast cancer is confirmed by what? A) Supervised breast self-examination B) Mammography C) Fine-needle aspiration D) Chest x-ray

Ans: C Feedback: Fine-needle aspiration and biopsy provide cells for histologic examination to confirm a diagnosis, although falsenegative and falsepositive findings are possibilities. A breast self-examination, if done regularly, is the most reliable method for detecting breast lumps early, but is not diagnostic of cancer. Mammography is used to detect tumors that are too small to palpate. Chest x-rays can be used to pinpoint rib metastasis. Neither test is considered diagnostic of breast cancer, however.

11. Which meal would the nurse provide to best meet the nutritional needs of a client who is manic? A) Peanut butter sandwich, chips, cola B) Fried chicken, mashed potatoes, milk C) Ham sandwich, cheese slices, milk D) Spaghetti, garlic bread, salad, tea

Ans: C Feedback: Finger foods, or things clients can eat while moving around, are the best options to improve nutrition. Such foods should be as high in calories and protein as possible.

13. The nurse is caring for a patient who has just had a radical mastectomy and axillary node dissection. When providing patient education regarding rehabilitation, what should the nurse recommend? A) Avoid exercise of the arm for next 2 months. B) Keep cuticles clipped neatly. C) Avoid lifting objects heavier than 10 pounds. D) Use a sling until healing is complete.

Ans: C Feedback: Following an axillary dissection, the patient should avoid lifting objects greater than 5 to 10 pounds, cutting the cuticles, and undergoing venipuncture on the affected side. Exercises of the hand and arm are encouraged and the use of a sling is not necessary.

A client asks how his prescribed alprazolam (Xanax) helps his anxiety disorder. The nurse explains that antianxiety medications such as alprazolam affect the function of which neurotransmitter that is believed to be dysfunctional in anxiety disorders? A) Serotonin B) Norepinephrine C) GABA D) Dopamine

Ans: C Feedback: Gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA) is the amino acid neurotransmitter believed to be dysfunctional in anxiety disorders. GABA reduces anxiety, and norepinephrine increases it; researchers believe that a problem with the regulation of these neurotransmitters occurs in anxiety disorders. Serotonin is usually implicated in psychosis and mood disorders. Dopamine is indicated in psychosis.

A client diagnosed with schizophrenia is laughing and talking while sitting alone. Which of the following is the best response by the nurse? A) State, "Can you share your joke with me?" B) To sit with the client quietly until the client is ready to talk C) State, "Tell me what's happening." D) State, "You look lonely here. Let's join the others in the day room."

Ans: C Feedback: Having the client tell the nurse what is happening explores what the client is experiencing and engages the client in reality interaction. Answer choices A, B, and C are not appropriate responses by the nurse in this situation.

26. A student nurse is caring for a patient who has a diagnosis of acute pancreatitis and who is receiving parenteral nutrition. The student should prioritize which of the following assessments? A) Fluid output B) Oral intake C) Blood glucose levels D) BUN and creatinine levels

Ans: C Feedback: In addition to administering enteral or parenteral nutrition, the nurse monitors serum glucose levels every 4 to 6 hours. Output should be monitored but in most cases it is not more important than serum glucose levels. A patient on parenteral nutrition would have no oral intake to monitor. Blood sugar levels are more likely to be unstable than indicators of renal function.

The student nurse correctly identifies that according to Selye (1956, 1974), which stage of reaction to stress stimulates the body to send messages from the hypothalamus to the glands and organs to prepare for potential defense needs? A) Resistance B) Exhaustion C) Alarm reaction D) Autonomic

Ans: C Feedback: In the alarm reaction stage, stress stimulates the body to send messages from the hypothalamus to the glands and organs to prepare for potential defense needs. In the resistance stage, the digestive system reduces function to shunt blood to areas needed for defense. The exhaustion stage occurs when the person has responded negatively to anxiety and stress. There is no autonomic stage.

The nurse is preparing a client with schizophrenia for discharge. The nurse asks the client, "How are you going to care for yourself at home?" The purpose of the nurse's question is to assess the client's A) self concept. B) judgment. C) insight. D) social support system.

Ans: C Feedback: Insight refers to the client's degree of self-awareness and realistic view of life. It can be severely impaired in schizophrenia. Over time, some clients can learn about the illness, anticipate problems, and seek appropriate assistance as needed. Judgment refers to appropriate decision-making ability and is based on the ability to interpret the environment correctly. At times, lack of judgment is so severe that clients cannot meet their needs for safety and protection and place themselves in harm's way.

29. The family of a patient in the ICU diagnosed with acute pancreatitis asks the nurse why the patient has been moved to an air bed. What would be the nurse's best response? A) "Air beds allow the care team to reposition her more easily while she's on bed rest." B) "Air beds are far more comfortable than regular beds and she'll likely have to be on bed rest a long time." C) "The bed automatically moves, so she's less likely to develop pressure sores while she's in bed." D) "The bed automatically moves, so she is likely to have less pain."

Ans: C Feedback: It is important to turn the patient every 2 hours; use of specialty beds may be indicated to prevent skin breakdown. The rationale for a specialty bed is not related to repositioning, comfort, or ease of movement.

A client is currently experiencing a panic attack. Which of the following is the most appropriate response by the nurse? A) "Just try to relax." B) "There is nothing here to harm you." C) "You are safe. Take a deep breath." D) "What are you feeling right now?"

Ans: C Feedback: Nursing interventions for panic disorder include providing a safe environment and ensuring the client's privacy during a panic attack, remaining with the client during a panic attack, helping the client to focus on deep breathing, talking to the client in a calm, reassuring voice, teaching the client to use relaxation techniques, helping the client to use cognitive restructuring techniques, and the engaging client to explore how to decrease stressors and anxiety-provoking situations.

7. During a recent visit to the clinic a woman presents with erythema of the nipple and areola on the right breast. She states this started several weeks ago and she was fearful of what would be found. The nurse should promptly refer the patient to her primary care provider because the patients signs and symptoms are suggestive of what health problem? A) Peau dorange B) Nipple inversion C) Pagets disease D) Acute mastitis

Ans: C Feedback: Pagets disease presents with erythema of the nipple and areola. Peau dorange, which is associated with breast cancer, is caused by interference with lymphatic drainage, but does not cause these specific signs. Nipple inversion is considered normal if long-standing; if it is associated with fibrosis and is a recent development, malignancy is suspected. Acute mastitis is associated with lactation, but it may occur at any age.

30. A patient is receiving care in the intensive care unit for acute pancreatitis. The nurse is aware that pancreatic necrosis is a major cause of morbidity and mortality in patients with acute pancreatitis. Consequently, the nurse should assess for what signs or symptoms of this complication? A) Sudden increase in random blood glucose readings B) Increased abdominal girth accompanied by decreased level of consciousness C) Fever, increased heart rate and decreased blood pressure D) Abdominal pain unresponsive to analgesics

Ans: C Feedback: Pancreatic necrosis is a major cause of morbidity and mortality in patients with acute pancreatitis because of resulting hemorrhage, septic shock, and multiple organ dysfunction syndrome (MODS). Signs of shock would include hypotension, tachycardia and fever. Each of the other listed changes in status warrants intervention, but none is clearly suggestive of an onset of pancreatic necrosis.

A client says to the nurse, "I just can't talk in front of the group. I feel like I'm going to pass out." The nurse assesses the client's anxiety to be at which level? A) Mild B) Moderate C) Severe D) Panic

Ans: C Feedback: Physiologic responses to severe anxiety include headache, nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, trembling, rigid stance, vertigo, pale, tachycardia, and chest pain.

15. During report, the nurse learns that a client with mania has not slept since admission 2 days ago. On entering the day room, the nurse finds this client dancing to loud music. Which would be the most appropriate statement by the nurse? A) ìDo you think you could sit still for a few minutes so we can talk?î B) ìHow are you ever going to get any rest if you keep that music on?î C) ìLet's go to the conference room and talk for a while.î D) ìTurn the radio down so we can hear ourselves talk.î

Ans: C Feedback: Redirecting the client to a quieter, smaller room will decrease external stimuli and promote calmness, so the client will eventually rest and sleep.

12. The nurse is assessing the drinking history of a client being admitted for alcohol abuse. Which statement would the nurse expect the client to make? A) ìI really need some help. My drinking is tearing my family apart.î B) ìI have tried so many times to stop drinking. It is so hard.î C) ìI don't really have a problem with alcohol. I've just been having a streak of bad luck lately.î D) ìI have no intention to stop drinking. I like the way it makes me feel.î

Ans: C Feedback: Substance use typically includes the use of defense mechanisms, especially denial. Clients may deny directly having any problems or may minimize the extent of problems or actual substance use. During assessment of thought process and content, clients are likely to minimize their substance use, blame others for their problems, and rationalize their behavior. They may believe that they could quit ìon their ownî if they wanted to, and they continue to deny or minimize the extent of the problem. Upon admission, the nurse would not expect the client have the insight to know how badly help is needed, or to express powerlessness over alcohol. The client would have some motivation for treatment if admission was underway. Often the motivation is external, such as pressure from family or employers.

Which of the following attitudes would be best for the nurse when the client who has schizophrenia acts as though the nurse is not trustworthy or that his or her integrity is being questioned? A) That the client is correct and the nurse is not trustworthy B) That the client wants to insult the nurse C) That the client's behavior is a part of the illness D) That the nurse's actions have failed

Ans: C Feedback: Suspicious or paranoid behavior on the client's part may make the nurse feel as though he or she is not trustworthy or that his or her integrity is being questioned. The nurse must recognize this type of behavior as part of the illness and not interpret or respond to it as a personal affront. The nurse must not take responsibility for the success or failure of treatment efforts or view the client's status as a personal success or failure.

29. A client will be taking disulfiram (Antabuse) after discharge from an alcohol treatment program. Which statement would indicate that teaching has been effective? A) ìAntabuse is safe to take with any over-the-counter cold medication.î B) ìAntabuse will block my cravings for alcohol, so I'll have less desire to drink.î C) ìDrinking alcohol while taking Antabuse can cause dangerous symptoms.î D) ìIf I drink while taking Antabuse, it will make me vomit before the alcohol affects me.î

Ans: C Feedback: Taking alcohol in any form while taking Antabuse causes a severe adverse reaction. Antabuse is not safe to take with OTC medications. It does not block cravings for alcohol. Antabuse does not restrict the effect of alcohol on the body.

21. A nurse is creating a care plan for a patient with acute pancreatitis. The care plan includes reduced activity. What rationale for this intervention should be cited in the care plan? A) Bed rest reduces the patient's metabolism and reduces the risk of metabolic acidosis. B) Reduced activity protects the physical integrity of pancreatic cells. C) Bed rest lowers the metabolic rate and reduces enzyme production. D) Inactivity reduces caloric need and gastrointestinal motility.

Ans: C Feedback: The acutely ill patient is maintained on bed rest to decrease the metabolic rate and reduce the secretion of pancreatic and gastric enzymes. Staying in bed does not release energy from the body to fight the disease.

A client states, "I am dead. I have come back from the dead." An appropriate response by the nurse is, A) "What is it like to feel dead?" B) "No you did not die. People don't come back from the dead." C) "Show me what you did in art therapy this morning." D) "I'll get your medicine and you'll feel better."

Ans: C Feedback: The client experiencing delusions utterly believes them and cannot be convinced they are false or untrue. It is the nurse's responsibility to present and maintain reality by making simple statements. The nurse must avoid openly confronting the delusion or arguing with the client about it. The nurse also must avoid reinforcing the delusional belief by "playing along" with what the client says.

The nurse is teaching about postoperative wound care. As the wound is uncovered, the client begins mumbling, breathing rapidly, and trying to get out of bed, and the client does not respond when the nurse calls his name. Which of the following should be the nurse's first action? A) Ask the client to describe his feelings. B) Proceed with wound care quickly. C) Replace the dressing on the wound. D) Get the assistance of another nurse.

Ans: C Feedback: The client has severe anxiety; the priority is to lower the client's anxiety level. The first action should be to replace the dressing on the wound to decrease the client's level of anxiety and to prevent contamination of the wound before a new dressing can be applied. The other choices could be done after replacing the dressing on the wound.

15. A client is being discharged on disulfiram (Antabuse). Which instruction for Antabuse should the client receive? A) Take disulfiram with food to avoid stomach upset. B) Skip the daily dose of disulfiram on days when consumption of alcoholic beverages is likely. C) Read products labels carefully to avoid all products containing alcohol. D) Disulfiram will prevent the desire to drink alcoholic beverages.

Ans: C Feedback: The client must avoid a wide variety of products that contain alcohol such as cough syrup, lotions, mouthwash, perfume, aftershave, vinegar, and vanilla and other extracts. The client must read product labels carefully, because any product containing alcohol can produce symptoms. Ingestion of alcohol may cause unpleasant symptoms for 1 to 2 weeks after the last dose of disulfiram. Page 8

8. A patient who had surgery for gallbladder disease has just returned to the postsurgical unit from postanesthetic recovery. The nurse caring for this patient knows to immediately report what assessment finding to the physician? A) Decreased breath sounds B) Drainage of bile-colored fluid onto the abdominal dressing C) Rigidity of the abdomen D) Acute pain with movement

Ans: C Feedback: The location of the subcostal incision will likely cause the patient to take shallow breaths to prevent pain, which may result in decreased breath sounds. The nurse should remind patients to take deep breaths and cough to expand the lungs fully and prevent atelectasis. Acute pain is an expected assessment finding following surgery; analgesics should be administered for pain relief. Abdominal splinting or application of an abdominal binder may assist in reducing the pain. Bile may continue to drain from the drainage tract after surgery, which will require frequent changes of the abdominal dressing. Increased abdominal tenderness and rigidity should be reported immediately to the physician, as it may indicate bleeding from an inadvertent puncture or nicking of a major blood vessel during the surgical procedure.

A student nurse is having a first experience in an inpatient psychiatric unit and is frightened by the behaviors of the clients with schizophrenia. The student should take which of the following actions to deal with fear? A) Express fear to the psychiatrist during rounds B) Pretend to not be afraid C) Stay in an open area while talking with the clients D) Insist that the instructor accompanies the student at all times.

Ans: C Feedback: The nurse also may be genuinely frightened or threatened if the client's behavior is hostile or aggressive. The nurse must acknowledge these feelings and take measures to ensure his or her safety. This may involve talking to the client in an open area rather than in a more isolated location or having an additional staff person present rather than being alone with the client. If the nurse pretends to be unafraid, the client may sense the fear anyway and feel less secure, leading to a greater potential for the client to lose personal control. It is not possible for the instructor to accompany the student at all times.

A client who has schizophrenia is having a conversation with the nurse suddenly stops talking in the middle of a sentence. The client is experiencing which type of thought disruption? A) Thought withdrawal B) Thought insertion C) Thought blocking D) Thought broadcasting

Ans: C Feedback: The nurse can assess thought content by evaluating what the client actually says. For example, clients may suddenly stop talking in the middle of a sentence and remain silent for several seconds to 1 minute (thought blocking). They also may state that they believe others can hear their thoughts (thought broadcasting), that others are taking their thoughts (thought withdrawal), or that others are placing thoughts in their mind against their will (thought insertion).

The nurse is teaching a client with an anxiety disorder ways to manage anxiety. The nurse suggests which of the following schedules for practicing stress management techniques? A) Practice the techniques each morning and night as part of a daily routine. B) Use the techniques as needed when experiencing severe anxiety. C) Practice the techniques when relatively calm. D) Expect to practice the techniques when meeting with a therapist.

Ans: C Feedback: The nurse can teach the client relaxation techniques to use when he or she is experiencing stress or anxiety, including deep breathing, guided imagery and progressive relaxation, and cognitive restructuring techniques. For any of these techniques, it is important for the client to learn and to practice them when he or she is relatively calm.

39. A nurse is providing discharge education to a patient who has undergone a laparoscopic cholecystectomy. During the immediate recovery period, the nurse should recommend what foods? A) High-fiber foods B) Low-purine, nutrient-dense foods C) Low-fat foods high in proteins and carbohydrates D) Foods that are low-residue and low in fat

Ans: C Feedback: The nurse encourages the patient to eat a diet that is low in fats and high in carbohydrates and proteins immediately after surgery. There is no specific need to increase fiber or avoid purines. A low-residue diet is not indicated.

4. A woman scheduled for a simple mastectomy in one week is having her preoperative education provided by the clinic nurse. What educational intervention will be of primary importance to prevent hemorrhage in the postoperative period? A) Limit her intake of green leafy vegetables. B) Increase her water intake to 8 glasses per day. C) Stop taking aspirin. D) Have nothing by mouth for 6 hours before surgery.

Ans: C Feedback: The nurse should instruct the patient to stop taking aspirin due to its anticoagulant effect. Limiting green leafy vegetables will decrease vitamin K and marginally increase bleeding. Increasing fluid intake or being NPO before surgery will have no effect on bleeding.

15. When planning discharge teaching with a patient who has undergone a total mastectomy with axillary dissection, the nurse knows to instruct the patient that she should report what sign or symptom to the physician immediately? A) Fatigue B) Temperature greater than 98.5F C) Sudden cessation of output from the drainage device D) Gradual decline in output from the drain

Ans: C Feedback: The patient should report sudden cessation of output from the drainage device, which could indicate an occlusion. Gradual decline in output is expected. A temperature of 100.4F or greater should also be reported to rule out postoperative infection, but a temperature of 98.5F is not problematic. Fatigue is expected during the recovery period.

28. A patient has been admitted to the hospital for the treatment of chronic pancreatitis. The patient has been stabilized and the nurse is now planning health promotion and educational interventions. Which of the following should the nurse prioritize? A) Educating the patient about expectations and care following surgery B) Educating the patient about the management of blood glucose after discharge C) Educating the patient about postdischarge lifestyle modifications D) Educating the patient about the potential benefits of pancreatic transplantation

Ans: C Feedback: The patient's lifestyle (especially regarding alcohol use) is a major determinant of the course of chronic pancreatitis. The disease is not often managed by surgery and blood sugar monitoring is not necessarily indicated for every patient after hospital treatment. Transplantation is not an option.

2. The nurse leading an educational session is describing self-examination of the breast. The nurse tells the womens group to raise their arms and inspect their breasts in a mirror. A member of the womens group asks the nurse why raising her arms is necessary. What is the nurses best response? A) It helps to spread out the fat that makes up your breast. B) It allows you to simultaneously assess for pain. C) It will help to observe for dimpling more closely. D) This is what the American Cancer Society recommends.

Ans: C Feedback: The primary reason for raising the arms is to detect any dimpling. To elicit skin dimpling or retraction that may otherwise go undetected, the examiner instructs the patient to raise both arms overhead. Citing American Cancer Society recommendations does not address the womans question. The purpose of raising the arms is not to elicit pain or to redistribute adipose tissue.

29. Which client is at highest risk for carrying out a suicide plan? A) A client who plans to take a bottle of sleeping pills. B) A client who says, ìMy life is over.î C) A client who has a private gun collection. D) A client who says, ìI'm going to jump off the next bridge I see.î

Ans: C Feedback: When a client admits to having suicidal thoughts, the next step is to determine potential lethality, including a specific plan and lethality of means. Specific and positive answers to lethality assessment questions increase the client's likelihood of committing suicide.

The nurse is providing education to a group of persons from several community agencies about hoarding by elder persons. Which of the following is important for the nurse to emphasize? A) Treatment will likely start to be effective in the short term. B) If the person had help to clean up his or her environment, the hoarding would be cured. C) It is not beneficial to tell the client that his or her thoughts and rituals interfere with his or her life or that his or her ritual actions really have no lasting effect on anxiety. D) One agency should be able to address all of the client's needs.

Ans: C Treatment for hoarding in older adults may need to continue over a long period of time to reach successful outcomes. Most persons who are hoarders will not seek assistance to clean up their environment because they feel ashamed. If the environment were to be cleaned up and no other intervention employed, the person would continue to hoard. It is not beneficial to tell the clients that their thoughts and rituals interfere with their life or that their ritual actions really have no lasting effect on anxiety-they already know that. Multiple community agencies may be needed to deal with hoarding in the older adult

Which of the following treatment modalities is most effective for OCD? A) Behavioral techniques B) Medication C) Behavioral techniques and medication D) Ignoring it

Ans: C F Behavioral techniques and medication are the most effective treatment modalities for OCD. This would be more effective than either behavioral techniques or medication alone. It is not appropriate to ignore OCD as it will only get worse until the client is unable to engage in activities of daily living.

25. The nurse is teaching a 70-year-old man about his depression. Which statement by the client would indicate that teaching has been effective? A) ìAll old people get depressed at times.î B) ìI'm glad I'll feel better in 2 or 3 days.î C) ìI never knew depression could just happen for no specific reason.î D) ìWhen I reduce the stress in my life, the depression will go away.î

Ans: C Feedback: Depression can be endogenous, with no external cause or event. Clients must understand that depression is an illness, not a lack of willpower or motivation. Major depression typically involves 2 or more weeks of a sad mood or lack of interest in life activities with at least four other symptoms of depression.

8. The nurse is planning care for a client with major depression. Which is an appropriate expected outcome? A) The client will avoid causing harm to others. B) The client will be free from stress. C) The client will independently carry out activities of daily living. D) The client will not experience agitation.

Ans: C Feedback: Expected outcomes for the depressed client include the following: ï The client will not injure himself or herself. ï The client will independently carry out activities of daily living (showering, changing clothing, grooming). ï The client will establish a balance of rest, sleep, and activity. ï The client will establish a balance of adequate nutrition, hydration, and elimination. ï The client will evaluate self-attributes realistically. ï The client will socialize with staff, peers, and family/friends. ï The client will return to occupation or school activities. ï The client will comply with the antidepressant regimen. ï The client will verbalize symptoms of a recurrence. Avoiding agitation and harm to others are outcomes more appropriate for a client with mania. It is unrealistic to be completely free from stress.

33. A patient has been admitted to the medical unit with a diagnosis of ureteral colic secondary to urolithiasis. When planning the patient's admission assessment, the nurse should be aware of the signs and symptoms that are characteristic of this diagnosis? Select all that apply. A) Diarrhea B) High fever C) Hematuria D) Urinary frequency E) Acute pain

Ans: C, D, E Feedback: Stones lodged in the ureter (ureteral obstruction) cause acute, excruciating, colicky, wavelike pain, radiating down the thigh and to the genitalia. Often, the patient has a desire to void, but little urine is passed, and it usually contains blood because of the abrasive action of the stone. This group of symptoms is called ureteral colic. Diarrhea is not associated with this presentation and a fever is usually absent due to the noninfectious nature of the health problem.

11. Which slogans would be used in a 12-step program? Select all that apply. A) ìPull yourself together.î B) ìGet control of your problem.î C) ìOne day at a time.î D) ìEasy does it.î E) ìLet go and let God.î

Ans: C, D, E Feedback: Before the illness of addiction was fully understood, most of the society and even the medical community viewed chemical dependency as a personal problem the user was advised to ìpull yourself togetherî and ìget control of your problem.î Key slogans in AA reflect the ideas in the 12 steps, such as ìOne day at a timeî (approach sobriety one day at a time), ìeasy does itî (don't get frenzied about daily life and problems, and ìlet go and let Godî (turn your life over to a higher power). Page 6

A nursing student appears to cooperate with the group but does not complete agreed upon tasks at the appropriate time repeatedly and then display negativity. The nursing student may be showing signs of which personality disorder or behavior? A) Paranoid B) Borderline C) Narcissistic D) Passive-aggressive behavior

Ans: D

The nurse is talking to a client with schizoid personality disorder about finding a job.Which suggestion by the nurse would be most helpful? A) Being a loner really limits your employment opportunities. B) Maybe your friend could see if there is a night position available at the convenience store. C) Perhaps working part-time at a fast-food restaurant would be something you could do. D) There is a job posting at the hospital for a file clerk in medical records.

Ans: D

The nurse teaches an antisocial client to take a time-out in his room when challenged by another person instigating an argument. What is the main reason for the time-out? A) It allows time for the instigator to leave the area. B) It allows adequate space between the client and the instigating individual. C) It prevents the client from experiencing negative consequences of behavior. D) It allows an opportunity for the client to regain control of emotions.

Ans: D

When planning care for a client with passive-aggressive personality disorder, the nurse will need to include interventions for which behavior? A) Avoidance of anxiety-provoking situations B) Compulsive needs for perfection and praise C) Dependence on others for decisions D) Procrastination and intentional inefficiency

Ans: D

Which is the main reason why the periodic team meetings are important when caring for a client with antisocial personality? A) The team needs to consider updating treatment recommendations as the client improves. B) Rotating team members need to be apprised of the care planned for the client. C) Staff frustrations in caring for the client need to be processed. D) Team consistency is important to prevent manipulation by the client.

Ans: D

Which of the following is a realistic outcome for the care of a person with a personality disorder? A) Outcomes that focus on satisfaction with daily life B) Outcomes that focus on the client's perception of others C) Outcomes that focus on increased client insight D) Outcomes that focus on change in behavior

Ans: D

Which thought process would cause a client with antisocial personality disorder to want to do everything for himself? A) Belief in his own self-worth B) Inability to delay gratification C) Rewards for competitive behavior D) Sense of mistrust of others

Ans: D

A patient has been diagnosed with a small bowel obstruction and has been admitted to the medical unit. The nurses care should prioritize which of the following outcomes? • Preventing infection • Maintaining skin and tissue integrity • Preventing nausea and vomiting • Maintaining fluid and electrolyte balance

Ans: D Feedback: All of the listed focuses of care are important for the patient with a small bowel obstruction. However, the patients risk of fluid and electrolyte imbalances is an immediate threat to safety, and is a priority in nursing assessment and interventions.

A patient has been diagnosed with AIDS complicated by chronic diarrhea. What nursing intervention would be appropriate for this patient? A) Position the patient in the high Fowler's position whenever possible. B) Temporarily eliminate animal protein from the patient's diet. C) Make sure the patient eats at least two servings of raw fruit each day. D) Obtain a stool culture to identify possible pathogens.

Ans: D Feedback: A stool culture should be obtained to determine the possible presence of microorganisms that cause diarrhea. Patients should generally avoid raw fruit when having diarrhea. There is no need to avoid animal protein or increase the height of the patient's bed.

A patient has returned to the floor after undergoing a transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP). The patient has a continuous bladder irrigation system in place. The patient tells you he is experiencing bladder spasms and asks what you can do to relieve his discomfort. What is the most appropriate nursing action to relieve the discomfort of the patient? A) Apply a cold compress to the pubic area. B) Notify the urologist promptly. C) Irrigate the catheter with 30 to 50 mL of normal saline as ordered. D) Administer a smooth-muscle relaxant as ordered.

Ans: D Feedback: Administering a medication that relaxes smooth muscles can help relieve bladder spasms. Neither a cold compress nor catheter irrigation will alleviate bladder spasms. In most cases, this problem can be relieved without the involvement of the urologist, who will normally order medications on a PRN basis.

A patient has just been diagnosed with prostate cancer and is scheduled for brachytherapy next week. The patient and his wife are unsure of having the procedure because their daughter is 3 months pregnant. What is the most appropriate teaching the nurse should provide to this family? A) The patient should not be in contact with the baby after delivery. B) The patient's treatment poses no risk to his daughter or her infant. C) The patient's brachytherapy may be contraindicated for safety reasons. D) The patient should avoid close contact with his daughter for 2 months.

Ans: D Feedback: Brachytherapy involves the implantation of interstitial radioactive seeds under anesthesia. The surgeon uses ultrasound guidance to place about 80 to 100 seeds, and the patient returns home after the procedure. Exposure of others to radiation is minimal, but the patient should avoid close contact with pregnant women and infants for up to 2 months.

A nurse is planning the postoperative care of a patient who is scheduled for radical prostatectomy. What intraoperative position will place the patient at particular risk for the development of deep vein thrombosis postoperatively? A) Fowler's position B) Prone position C) Supine position D) Lithotomy position

Ans: D Feedback: Elastic compression stockings are applied before surgery and are particularly important for prevention of deep vein thrombosis if the patient is placed in a lithotomy position during surgery. During a prostatectomy, the patient is not placed in the supine, prone, or Fowler's position.

A patient has presented at the clinic with symptoms of benign prostatic hyperplasia. What diagnostic findings would suggest that this patient has chronic urinary retention? A) Hypertension B) Peripheral edema C) Tachycardia and other dysrhythmias D) Increased blood urea nitrogen (BUN)

Ans: D Feedback: Hypertension, edema, and tachycardia would not normally be associated with benign prostatic hyperplasia. Azotemia is an accumulation of nitrogenous waste products, and renal failure can occur with chronic urinary retention and large residual volumes.

A patient's current antiretroviral regimen includes nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NRTIs). What dietary counseling will the nurse provide based on the patient's medication regimen? A) Avoid high-fat meals while taking this medication. B) Limit fluid intake to 2 liters a day. C) Limit sodium intake to 2 grams per day. D) Take this medication without regard to meals.

Ans: D Feedback: Many NRTIs exist, but all of them may be safely taken without regard to meals. Protein, fluid, and sodium restrictions play no role in relation to these drugs.

An 18-year-old pregnant female has tested positive for HIV and asks the nurse if her baby is going to be born with HIV. What is the nurse's best response? A) There is no way to know that for certain, but we do know that your baby has a one in four chance of being born with HIV. B) Your physician is likely the best one to ask that question. C) If the baby is HIV positive there is nothing that can be done until it is born, so try your best not to worry about it now. D) It's possible that your baby could contract HIV, either before, during, or after delivery.

Ans: D Feedback: Mother-to-child transmission of HIV-1 is possible and may occur in utero, at the time of delivery, or through breast-feeding. There is no evidence that the infant's risk is 25%. Deferral to the physician is not a substitute for responding appropriately to the patient's concern. Downplaying the patient's concerns is inappropriate.

A patient confides to the nurse that he cannot engage in sexual activity. The patient is 27 years old and has no apparent history of chronic illness that would contribute to erectile dysfunction. What does the nurse know will be ordered for this patient to assess his sexual functioning? A) Sperm count B) Ejaculation capacity tests C) Engorgement tests D) Nocturnal penile tumescence tests

Ans: D Feedback: Nocturnal penile tumescence tests may be conducted in a sleep laboratory to monitor changes in penile circumference during sleep using various methods to determine number, duration, rigidity, and circumference of penile erections; the results help identify whether the erectile dysfunction is caused by physiologic and/or psychological factors. A sperm count would be done if the patient was complaining of infertility. Ejaculation capacity tests and engorgement tests are not applicable for assessment in this circumstance.

A 16-year-old has come to the clinic and asks to talk to a nurse. The nurse asks the teen what she needs and the teen responds that she has become sexually active and is concerned about getting HIV. The teen asks the nurse what she can do keep from getting HIV. What would be the nurse's best response? A) There's no way to be sure you won't get HIV except to use condoms correctly. B) Only the correct use of a female condom protects against the transmission of HIV. C) There are new ways of protecting yourself from HIV that are being discovered every day. D) Other than abstinence, only the consistent and correct use of condoms is effective in preventing HIV.

Ans: D Feedback: Other than abstinence, consistent and correct use of condoms is the only effective method to decrease the risk of sexual transmission of HIV infection. Both female and male condoms confer significant protection. New prevention techniques are not commonly discovered, though advances in treatment are constant.

A patient has been diagnosed with erectile dysfunction; the cause has been determined to be psychogenic. The patient's interdisciplinary plan of care should prioritize which of the following interventions? A) Penile implant B) PDE-5 inhibitors C) Physical therapy D) Psychotherapy

Ans: D Feedback: Patients with erectile dysfunction from psychogenic causes are referred to a health care provider or therapist who specializes in sexual dysfunction. Because of the absence of an organic cause, medications and penile implants are not first-line treatments. Physical therapy is not normally effective in the treatment of ED.

A patient has come into the free clinic asking to be tested for HIV infection. The patient asks the nurse how the test works. The nurse responds that if the testing shows that antibodies to the AIDS virus are present in the blood, this indicates what? A) The patient is immune to HIV. B) The patient's immune system is intact. C) The patient has AIDS-related complications. D) The patient has been infected with HIV.

Ans: D Feedback: Positive test results indicate that antibodies to the AIDS virus are present in the blood. The presence of antibodies does not imply an intact immune system or specific immunity to HIV. This finding does not indicate the presence of AIDS-related complications.

A 57-year-old male comes to the clinic complaining that when he has an erection his penis curves and becomes painful. The patient's diagnosis is identified as severe Peyronie's disease. The nurse should be aware of what likely treatment modality? A) Physical therapy B) Treatment with PDE-5 inhibitors C) Intracapsular hydrocortisone injections D) Surgery

Ans: D Feedback: Surgical removal of mature plaques is used to treat severe Peyronie's disease. There is no potential benefit to physical therapy and hydrocortisone injections are not normally used. PDE-5 inhibitors would exacerbate the problem.

A public health nurse has been asked to provide a health promotion session for men at a wellness center. What should the nurse inform the participants about testicular cancer? A) It is most common among men over 55. B) It is one of the least curable solid tumors. C) It typically does not metastasize. D) It is highly responsive to treatment.

Ans: D Feedback: Testicular cancer is most common among men 15 to 35 years of age and produces a painless enlargement of the testicle. Testicular cancers metastasize early but are one of the most curable solid tumors, being highly responsive to chemotherapy.

The nurse is addressing condom use in the context of a health promotion workshop. When discussing the correct use of condoms, what should the nurse tell the attendees? A Attach the condom prior to erection. B) A condom may be reused with the same partner if ejaculation has not occurred. C) Use skin lotion as a lubricant if alternatives are unavailable. D) Hold the condom by the cuff upon withdrawal.

Ans: D Feedback: The condom should be unrolled over the hard penis before any kind of sex. The condom should be held by the tip to squeeze out air. Skin lotions, baby oil, petroleum jelly, or cold cream should not be used with condoms because they cause latex deterioration/condom breakage. The condom should be held during withdrawal so it does not come off the penis. Condoms should never be reused.

A patient is 24 hours postoperative following prostatectomy and the urologist has ordered continuous bladder irrigation. What color of output should the nurse expect to find in the drainage bag? A) Red wine colored B) Tea colored C) Amber D) Light pink

Ans: D Feedback: The urine drainage following prostatectomy usually begins as a reddish pink, then clears to a light pink 24 hours after surgery.

During the admission assessment of an HIV-positive patient whose CD4+ count has recently fallen, the nurse carefully assesses for signs and symptoms related to opportunistic infections. What is the most common life-threatening infection? A) Salmonella infection B) Mycobacterium tuberculosis C) Clostridium difficile D) Pneumocystis pneumonia

Ans: D Feedback: There are a number of opportunistic infections that can infect individuals with AIDS. The most common life-threatening infection in those living with AIDS is Pneumocystis pneumonia (PCP), caused by P. jiroveci (formerly carinii). Other opportunistic infections may involve Salmonella,Mycobacterium tuberculosis, and Clostridium difficile.

A nurse is talking with a patient who is scheduled to have a hemicolectomy with the creation of a colostomy. The patient admits to being anxious, and has many questions concerning the surgery, the care of a stoma, and necessary lifestyle changes. Which of the following nursing actions is most appropriate? • Reassure the patient that the procedure is relatively low risk and that patients are usually successful in adjusting to an ostomy. • Provide the patient with educational materials that match the patients learning style. • Encourage the patient to write down these concerns and questions to bring forward to the surgeon. • Maintain an open dialogue with the patient and facilitate a referral to the wound-ostomycontinence (WOC) nurse.

Ans: D Feedback: A wound-ostomy-continence (WOC) nurse is a registered nurse who has received advanced education in an accredited program to care for patients with stomas. The enterostomal nurse therapist can assist with the selection of an appropriate stoma site, teach about stoma care, and provide emotional support. The surgeon is less likely to address the patients psychosocial and learning needs. Reassurance does not address the patients questions, and education may or may not alleviate anxiety.

A nurse is caring for an older adult who has been experiencing severe Clostridium difficile-related diarrhea. When reviewing the patients most recent laboratory tests, the nurse should prioritize which of the following? • White blood cell level • Creatinine level • Hemoglobin level • Potassium level

Ans: D Feedback: In elderly patients, it is important to monitor the patients serum electrolyte levels closely. Diarrhea is less likely to cause an alteration in white blood cell, creatinine, and hemoglobin levels.

A patient has been experiencing disconcerting GI symptoms that have been worsening in severity. Following medical assessment, the patient has been diagnosed with lactose intolerance. The nurse should recognize an increased need for what form of health promotion? • Annual screening colonoscopies • Adherence to recommended immunization schedules • Regular blood pressure monitoring • Frequent screening for osteoporosis

Ans: D Feedback: Persons with lactose intolerance often experience hypocalcemia and a consequent risk of osteoporosis related to malabsorption of calcium. Lactose intolerance does not create an increased need for screening for colorectal cancer, immunizations, or blood pressure monitoring.

A patient has been experiencing occasional episodes of constipation and has been unable to achieve consistent relief by increasing physical activity and improving his diet. What pharmacologic intervention should the nurse recommend to the patient for ongoing use? • Mineral oil enemas • Bisacodyl (Dulcolax) • Senna (Senokot) • Psyllium hydrophilic mucilloid (Metamucil)

Ans: D Feedback: Psyllium hydrophilic mucilloid (Metamucil) is a bulk-forming laxative that is safe for ongoing use. None of the other listed laxatives should be used on an ongoing basis because of the risk of dependence.

A nurse is teaching a group of adults about screening and prevention of colorectal cancer. The nurse should describe which of the following as the most common sign of possible colon cancer? • Development of new hemorrhoids • Abdominal bloating and flank pain • Unexplained weight gain • Change in bowel habits

Ans: D Feedback: The most common presenting symptom associated with colorectal cancer is a change in bowel habits. The passage of blood is the second most common symptom. Symptoms may also include unexplained anemia, anorexia, weight loss, and fatigue. Hemorrhoids and bloating are atypical.

Which of the following is the most plausible nursing diagnosis for a patient whose treatment for colon cancer has necessitated a colonostomy? • Risk for Unstable Blood Glucose Due to Changes in Digestion and Absorption • Unilateral Neglect Related to Decreased Physical Mobility • Risk for Excess Fluid Volume Related to Dietary Changes and Changes In Absorption • Ineffective Sexuality Patterns Related to Changes in Self-Concept

Ans: D Feedback: The presence of an ostomy frequently has an effect on sexuality; this should be addressed thoughtfully in nursing care. None of the other listed diagnoses reflects the physiologic changes that result from colorectal surgery.

A patients large bowel obstruction has failed to resolve spontaneously and the patients worsening condition has warranted admission to the medical unit. Which of the following aspects of nursing care is most appropriate for this patient? • Administering bowel stimulants as ordered • Administering bulk-forming laxatives as ordered • Performing deep palpation as ordered to promote peristalsis • Preparing the patient for surgical bowel resection

Ans: D Feedback: The usual treatment for a large bowel obstruction is surgical resection to remove the obstructing lesion. Administration of laxatives or bowel stimulants are contraindicated if the bowel is obstructed. Palpation would be painful and has no therapeutic benefit.

40. A patient is postoperative day 3 following the creation of an ileal conduit for the treatment of invasive bladder cancer. The patient is quickly learning to self-manage the urinary diversion, but expresses concern about the presence of mucus in the urine. What is the nurse's most appropriate response? A) Report this finding promptly to the primary care provider. B) Obtain a sterile urine sample and send it for culture. C) Obtain a urine sample and check it for pH. D) Reassure the patient that this is an expected phenomenon.

Ans: D Feedback: Because mucous membrane is used in forming the conduit, the patient may excrete a large amount of mucus mixed with urine. This causes anxiety in many patients. To help relieve this anxiety, the nurse reassures the patient that this is a normal occurrence after an ileal conduit procedure. Urine testing for culture or pH is not required.

7. A female patient's most recent urinalysis results are suggestive of bacteriuria. When assessing this patient, the nurse's data analysis should be informed by what principle? A) Most UTIs in female patients are caused by viruses and do not cause obvious symptoms. B) A diagnosis of bacteriuria requires three consecutive positive results. C) Urine contains varying levels of healthy bacterial flora. D) Urine samples are frequently contaminated by bacteria normally present in the urethral area.

Ans: D Feedback: Because urine samples (especially in women) are commonly contaminated by the bacteria normally present in the urethral area, a bacterial count exceeding 105colonies/mL of clean-catch, midstream urine is the measure that distinguishes true bacteriuria from contamination. A diagnosis does not require three consecutive positive results and urine does not contain a normal flora in the absence of a UTI. Most UTIs have a bacterial etiology.

27. An older adult has experienced a new onset of urinary incontinence and family members identify this problem as being unprecedented. When assessing the patient for factors that may have contributed to incontinence, the nurse should prioritize what assessment? A) Reviewing the patient's 24-hour food recall for changes in diet B) Assessing for recent contact with individuals who have UTIs C) Assessing for changes in the patient's level of psychosocial stress D) Reviewing the patient's medication administration record for recent changes

Ans: D Feedback: Many medications affect urinary continence in addition to causing other unwanted or unexpected effects. Stress and dietary changes could potentially affect the patient's continence, but medications are more frequently causative of incontinence. UTIs can cause incontinence, but these infections do not result from contact with infected individuals.

17. A nurse's colleague has applied an incontinence pad to an older adult patient who has experienced occasional episodes of functional incontinence. What principle should guide the nurse's management of urinary incontinence in older adults? A) Diuretics should be promptly discontinued when an older adult experiences incontinence. B) Restricting fluid intake is recommended for older adults experiencing incontinence. C) Urinary catheterization is a first-line treatment for incontinence in older adults with incontinence. D) Urinary incontinence is not considered a normal consequence of aging.

Ans: D Feedback: Nursing management is based on the premise that incontinence is not inevitable with illness or aging and that it is often reversible and treatable. Diuretics cannot always be safely discontinued. Fluid restriction and catheterization are not considered to be safe, first-line interventions for the treatment of incontinence.

16. A patient being treated in the hospital has been experiencing occasional urinary retention. What nursing action should the nurse take to encourage a patient who is having difficulty voiding? A) Use a slipper bedpan. B) Apply a cold compress to the perineum. C) Have the patient lie in a supine position. D) Provide privacy for the patient.

Ans: D Feedback: Nursing measures to encourage normal voiding patterns include providing privacy, ensuring an environment and body position conducive to voiding, and assisting the patient with the use of the bathroom or bedside commode, rather than a bedpan, to provide a more natural setting for voiding. Most people find supine positioning not conducive to voiding.

24. A gerontologic nurse is assessing a patient who has numerous comorbid health problems. What assessment findings should prompt the nurse to suspect a UTI? Select all that apply. A) Food cravings B) Upper abdominal pain C) Insatiable thirst D) Uncharacteristic fatigue E) New onset of confusion

Ans: D Feedback: The most common subjective presenting symptom of UTI in older adults is generalized fatigue. The most common objective finding is a change in cognitive functioning. Food cravings, increased thirst, and upper abdominal pain necessitate further assessment and intervention, but none is directly suggestive of a UTI.

41. The nurse is collaborating with the wound-ostomy-continence (WOC) nurse to teach a patient how to manage her new ileal conduit in the home setting. To prevent leakage or skin breakdown, the nurse should encourage which of the following practices? A) Empty the collection bag when it is between one-half and two-thirds full. B) Limit fluid intake to prevent production of large volumes of dilute urine. C) Reinforce the appliance with tape if small leaks are detected. D) Avoid using moisturizing soaps and body washes when cleaning the peristomal area.

Ans: D Feedback: The patient is instructed to avoid moisturizing soaps and body washes when cleaning the area because they interfere with the adhesion of the pouch. To maintain skin integrity, a skin barrier or leaking pouch is never patched with tape to prevent accumulation of urine under the skin barrier or faceplate. Fluids should be encouraged, not limited, and the collection bag should not be allowed to become more than one-third full.

29. A patient has a flaccid bladder secondary to a spinal cord injury. The nurse recognizes this patient's high risk for urinary retention and should implement what intervention in the patient's plan of care? A) Relaxation techniques B) Sodium restriction C) Lower abdominal massage D) Double voiding

Ans: D Feedback: To enhance emptying of a flaccid bladder, the patient may be taught to double void. After each voiding, the patient is instructed to remain on the toilet, relax for 1 to 2 minutes, and then attempt to void again in an effort to further empty the bladder. Relaxation does not affect the neurologic etiology of a flaccid bladder. Sodium restriction and massage are similarly ineffective.

26. An adult patient has been hospitalized with pyelonephritis. The nurse's review of the patient's intake and output records reveals that the patient has been consuming between 3 L and 3.5 L of oral fluid each day since admission. How should the nurse best respond to this finding? A) Supplement the patient's fluid intake with a high-calorie diet. B) Emphasize the need to limit intake to 2 L of fluid daily. C) Obtain an order for a high-sodium diet to prevent dilutional hyponatremia. D) Encourage the patient to continue this pattern of fluid intake.

Ans: D Feedback: Unless contraindicated, 3 to 4 L of fluids per day is encouraged to dilute the urine, decrease burning on urination, and prevent dehydration. No need to supplement this fluid intake with additional calories or sodium.

16. A patient has been treated in the hospital for an episode of acute pancreatitis. The patient has acknowledged the role that his alcohol use played in the development of his health problem, but has not expressed specific plans for lifestyle changes after discharge. What is the nurse's most appropriate response? A) Educate the patient about the link between alcohol use and pancreatitis. B) Ensure that the patient knows the importance of attending follow-up appointments. C) Refer the patient to social work or spiritual care. D) Encourage the patient to connect with a community-based support group.

Ans: D Feedback: After the acute attack has subsided, some patients may be inclined to return to their previous drinking habits. The nurse provides specific information about resources and support groups that may be of assistance in avoiding alcohol in the future. Referral to Alcoholics Anonymous as appropriate or other support groups is essential. The patient already has an understanding of the effects of alcohol, and follow-up appointments will not necessarily result in lifestyle changes. Social work and spiritual care may or may not be beneficial.

2. A 55-year-old man has been newly diagnosed with acute pancreatitis and admitted to the acute medical unit. How should the nurse most likely explain the pathophysiology of this patient's health problem? A) "Toxins have accumulated and inflamed your pancreas." B) "Bacteria likely migrated from your intestines and became lodged in your pancreas." C) "A virus that was likely already present in your body has begun to attack your pancreatic cells." D) "The enzymes that your pancreas produces have damaged the pancreas itself."

Ans: D Feedback: Although the mechanisms causing pancreatitis are unknown, pancreatitis is commonly described as the autodigestion of the pancreas. Less commonly, toxic substances and microorganisms are implicated as the cause of pancreatitis.

An anxiolytic agent, lorazepam (Ativan), has been prescribed for the client. Which of the following statements by the client would indicate to the nurse that client education about this medication has been effective? A) "My anxiety will be eliminated if I take this medication as prescribed." B) "This medication presents no risk of addiction or dependence." C) "I will probably always need to take this medication for my anxiety." D) "This medication will relax me, so I can focus on problem solving."

Ans: D Feedback: Anxiolytics are designed for short-term use to relieve anxiety. These drugs are designed to relieve anxiety so that the person can deal more effectively with whatever crisis or situation is causing stress. Benzodiazepines have a tendency to cause dependence. Clients need to know that antianxiety agents are aimed at relieving symptoms such as anxiety but do not treat the underlying problems that cause the anxiety.

The client with schizophrenia makes the following statement, "I just don't know how to count. The sky turned to fire. I have a ball in my head." The nurse documents this entire statement as an example of A) flight of ideas. B) ideas of reference. C) delusional thinking. D) associative looseness.

Ans: D Feedback: Associative looseness is demonstrated through fragmented or poorly related thoughts and ideas. The series of disconnected thoughts best exemplifies this concept. Some of the statements contain delusions, or fixed false beliefs that have no basis in reality. Flight of ideas refers to rapidly flowing thoughts that are more connected than the client's statement. Ideas of reference are false impressions that external events have special meaning for the person.

23. The nurse is teaching breast self-examination (BSE) to a group of women. The nurse should recommend that the women perform BSE at what time? A) At the time of menses B) At any convenient time, regardless of cycles C) Weekly D) Between days 5 and 7 after menses

Ans: D Feedback: BSE is best performed after menses, on day 5 to day 7, counting the first day of menses as day 1. Monthly performance is recommended.

10. A client who is manic threatens others on the unit. Which would be the initial nursing action in response to this behavior? A) Administering a sedative that has been prescribed to be used PRN. B) Insisting the client take a ìtime-outî in his room C) Clearing the area of all other clients D) Setting limits on aggressive and intimidating behavior

Ans: D Feedback: Because of the safety risks that clients in the manic phase take, safety plays a primary role in care, followed by issues related to self-esteem and socialization. It is necessary to set limits when they cannot set limits on themselves. Giving the client the opportunity to exercise self-control is most therapeutic. If the client cannot control his or her behavior, then more restrictive measures can be taken, such as room restriction or sedation. Clearing the area is not necessary during limit setting and may cause excessive panic on the part of other clients. When setting limits, it is important to clearly identify the unacceptable behavior and the expected, appropriate behavior. All staff must consistently set and enforce limits for those limits to be effective.

38. A 35-year-old mother of three young children has been diagnosed with stage II breast cancer. After discussing treatment options with her physician, the woman goes home to talk to her husband, later calling the nurse for clarification of some points. The patient tells the nurse that the physician has recommended breast conservation surgery followed by radiation. The patients husband has done some online research and is asking why his wife does not have a modified radical mastectomy to be sure all the cancer is gone. What would be the nurses best response? A) Modified radical mastectomies are very hard on a patient, both physically and emotionally and they really arent necessary anymore. B) According to current guidelines, having a modified radical mastectomy is no longer seen as beneficial. C) Modified radical mastectomies have a poor survival rate because of the risk of cancer recurrence. D) According to current guidelines, breast conservation combined with radiation is as effective as a modified radical mastectomy.

Ans: D Feedback: Breast conservation along with radiation therapy in stage I and stage II breast cancer results in a survival rate equal to that of modified radical mastectomy. Mastectomies are still necessary in many cases, but are not associated with particular risk of recurrence.

20. A client is admitted for a drug overdose with a Barbiturate? Which is the priority nursing action when planning care for this client? A) Check the client's belongings for additional drugs. B) Pad the side rails of the bed because seizures are likely. C) Prepare a dose of ipecac, an emetic. D) Monitor respiratory function.

Ans: D Feedback: CNS depressants depress respiratory functioning. Answer choices A, B, and C would not be priority nursing actions in this situation. Page 10

13. A client in treatment for drug abuse makes the statement, ìI am a winner. You all are the losers because you can't beat this on your own.î What common characteristic of persons addicted to drugs is revealed in this statement? A) Realistic understanding of successful recovery of drug addiction B) Indication of an underlying personality disorder C) Brain damages resulting from chronic drug use D) Defending against a negative self-concept

Ans: D Feedback: Clients generally have low self-esteem, which they may express directly or to cover with grandiose behavior. They do not feel adequate to cope with life and stress without the substance and often are uncomfortable around others when not using. They often have difficulty identifying and expressing true feelings. Page 7

The most commonly supported neuroanatomic theory of schizophrenia suggests which etiology? A) Excessive amounts of dopamine and serotonin in the brain B) Ineffective ability of the brain to use dopamine and serotonin C) Insufficient amounts of dopamine in the brain D) Decreased brain tissue in the frontal and temporal regions of the brain

Ans: D Feedback: Decreased brain tissue in the frontal and temporal regions of the brain is the most commonly supported neuroanatomic theory that suggests the etiology of schizophrenia. The other theories are neurochemical.

Which one of the following can be a positive outcome of using defense mechanisms? A) Defense mechanisms can inhibit emotional growth. B) Defense mechanisms can lead to poor problem-solving skills. C) Defense mechanisms can create difficulty with relationships. D) Defense mechanisms can help a person to reduce anxiety.

Ans: D Feedback: Defense mechanisms can help a person to reduce anxiety. This is the only positive outcome of using defense mechanisms. The dependence on defense mechanisms can inhibit emotional growth, lead to poor problem-solving skills, and create difficulty with relationships. These are all negative outcomes of using defense mechanisms.

16. The client asks the nurse, ìWhat will happen if I drink while taking Antabuse?î What should be the nurse's reply? A) ìYou will not want to drink while taking Antabuse. It reduces the cravings.î B) ìYou will not get any effect from the alcohol you drink.î C) ìAntabuse will reverse the effects of alcohol.î D) ìYou will experience a severe reaction, including a throbbing headache and vomiting.î

Ans: D Feedback: Disulfiram (Antabuse) may be prescribed to help deter clients from drinking. If a client taking disulfiram drinks alcohol, a severe adverse reaction occurs with flushing, a throbbing headache, sweating, nausea, and vomiting. In severe cases, severe hypotension, confusion, coma, and even death may result.

26. A woman is considering breast reduction mammoplasty. When weighing the potential risks and benefits of this surgical procedure, the nurse should confirm that the patient is aware of what potential consequence? A) Chronic breast pain B) Unclear mammography results C) Increased risk of breast cancer D) Decreased nipple sensation

Ans: D Feedback: During the preoperative consultation, the patient should be informed of a possibility that sensory changes of the nipple (e.g., numbness) may occur. There is no consequent increase in breast cancer risk and it does not affect future mammography results. Chronic pain is not an expected complication.

28. The wife of a client who is alcoholic asks the nurse how to respond to him in a helpful way when he is disruptive in family life. Which is the nurse's best response? A) ìHelp him avoid embarrassment by supporting him when he makes excuses for failing to meet obligations.î B) ìInclude him in family outings even when he is drinking.î C) ìSearch the house regularly for alcohol.î D) ìTry to maintain a normal home environment for yourself and the children.î

Ans: D Feedback: Focusing on self and family members is the first step in breaking codependent behavior. Answer choices A, B, and C would not be the best response.

2. Which is a freudian explanation of the etiology of depression? A) Depression is a reaction to a distressing life experience. B) Depression results from being raised by rejecting or unloving parents. C) Depression results from cognitive distortions. D) Depression is anger turned inward.

Ans: D Feedback: Freud looked at the self-depreciation of people with depression and attributed that self- reproach to anger turned inward related to either a real or perceived loss. Meyer viewed depression as a reaction to a distressing life experience such as an event with psychic causality. Horney believed that children raised by rejecting or unloving parents were prone to feelings of insecurity and loneliness. Beck saw depression as resulting from specific cognitive distortions in susceptible people.

40. A woman calls the clinic and tells the nurse she has had bloody drainage from her right nipple. The nurse makes an appointment for this patient, expecting the physician or practitioner to order what diagnostic test on this patient? A) Breast ultrasound B) Radiography C) Positron emission testing (PET) D) Galactography

Ans: D Feedback: Galactography is a diagnostic procedure that involves injection of less than 1 mL of radiopaque material through a cannula inserted into the ductal opening on the areola, which is followed by mammography. It is performed to evaluate an abnormality within the duct when the patient has bloody nipple discharge on expression, spontaneous nipple discharge, or a solitary dilated duct noted on mammography. X-ray, PET, and ultrasound are not typically used for this purpose.

34. A nurse has assessed that a patient is not yet willing to view her mastectomy site. How should the nurse best assist the patient is developing a positive body image? A) Ask the woman to describe the current appearance of her breast. B) Help the patient to understand that many women have gone through the same unpleasant experience. C) Explain to the patient that her body image does not have to depend on her physical appearance. D) Provide the patient with encouragement in an empathic and thoughtful manner.

Ans: D Feedback: Gentle encouragement can help the patient progress toward accepting the change in her appearance. The nurse should not downplay the significance of physical appearance. Explaining that others have had similar experiences may or may not benefit the patient. Asking the patient to describe the appearance of her breast is likely to exacerbate the womans reluctance to do so.

A client asks the nurse upon discharge, "What should I do if I forget to take my medicine?" The nurse should explain to the client which of the following? A) "Just double the dose next time it is scheduled." B) "Skip that dose and resume your regular with the next dose." C) "Don't miss doses, or you will not maintain therapeutic drug levels." D) "If you remember within 3 to 4 hours later than it is due, take it then. If you remember more than 4 hours after it was due, do not take that dose."

Ans: D Feedback: If a client forgets a dose of antipsychotic medication, advise the client to take it if the dose is only 3 to 4 hours late. If the missed dose is more than 4 hours late or the next dose is due, ask the client to omit the forgotten dose.

40. A patient presents to the emergency department (ED) complaining of severe right upper quadrant pain. The patient states that his family doctor told him he had gallstones. The ED nurse should recognize what possible complication of gallstones? A) Acute pancreatitis B) Atrophy of the gallbladder C) Gallbladder cancer D) Gangrene of the gallbladder

Ans: D Feedback: In calculous cholecystitis, a gallbladder stone obstructs bile outflow. Bile remaining in the gallbladder initiates a chemical reaction; autolysis and edema occur; and the blood vessels in the gallbladder are compressed, compromising its vascular supply. Gangrene of the gallbladder with perforation may result. Pancreatitis, atrophy, and cancer of the gallbladder are not plausible complications.

26. An unconscious client is admitted to the emergency department after a motor vehicle accident. The client's blood alcohol level upon admission was 1.7. The client's family soon arrives, reporting that the client is an uncle who is visiting from out of town. They cannot give much more history other than that he is a ìsocial drinker.î After being transported to the unit, the client starts sweating and has elevated vital signs. What information should the nurse request of the family? A) Who is the next of kin? B) For what occasion is the uncle visiting from out of town? C) Does the uncle have a history of any sort of anxiety disorder? D) Are there other indications that the client may be a heavy drinker?

Ans: D Feedback: It is important to assess the situation thoroughly and since the client is unconscious, he cannot communicate what is happening to the staff. The best chance for the staff to understand what is going on would be to inquire further of the relatives. If the client is experiencing withdrawal, detoxification needs to be initiated immediately under medical supervision. Symptoms of withdrawal usually begin 4 to 12 hours after cessation or marked reduction of alcohol intake. Symptoms include coarse hand tremors, sweating, elevated pulse and blood pressure, insomnia, anxiety, and nausea or vomiting. Severe or untreated withdrawal may progress to transient hallucinations, seizures, or deliriumócalled delirium tremens (DTs). Alcohol withdrawal usually peaks on the second day and is over in about 5 days.

The nurse plans to teach a client about dietary modifications to manage diabetes. Teaching would be most effective if the client displayed which one of the following characteristics? A) Focusing only on immediate task B) Faster rate of speech C) Narrowed perceptual field D) Heightened focus

Ans: D Feedback: Mild anxiety is associated with increased learning ability. It involves a sensation that something is different and warrants special attention. Sensory stimulation increases and helps the person focus attention to learn, solve problems, think, act, feel, and protect himself or herself. Mild anxiety often motivates people to make changes or to engage in goal-directed activity. Focusing only on immediate task, a faster rate of speech, and a narrowed perceptual field are associated with moderate levels of anxiety.

All of the following are nursing diagnoses identified for a client with schizophrenia. The student nurse correctly anticipates which diagnosis will resolve when the client's negative symptoms improve? A) Impaired verbal communication B) Risk for other-directed violence C) Disturbed thought processes D) Social isolation

Ans: D Feedback: NANDA diagnoses commonly established based on the assessment of psychotic symptoms or positive signs are as follows: - Risk for other-directed violence - Risk for suicide - Disturbed thought processes - Disturbed sensory perception - Disturbed personal identity - Impaired verbal communication NANDA diagnoses based on the assessment of negative signs and functional abilities include the following: - Self-care deficits - Social isolation - Deficient diversional activity - Ineffective health maintenance - Ineffective therapeutic regimen management

4. Which of the following neurochemical influences is a probable cause of substance abuse? A) Imbalances of serotonin and norepinephrine in the brain B) Inhibition of GABA in the brain C) Excessive serotonin activity in the CNS D) Stimulation of dopamine pathways in the brain

Ans: D Feedback: Neurochemical influences on substance use patterns have been studied primarily in animal research (Jaffe & Anthony, 2005). The ingestion of mood-altering substances stimulates dopamine pathways in the limbic system, which produces pleasant feelings or a ìhighî that is a reinforcing, or positive, experience. Page 3

7. A client has just been diagnosed as having major depression. At which time would the nurse expect the client to be at highest risk for self-harm? A) Immediately after a family visit B) On the anniversary of significant life events in the client's life C) During the first few days after admission D) Approximately 2 weeks after starting antidepressant medication

Ans: D Feedback: Observe the client closely for suicide potential, especially after antidepressant medication begins to raise the client's mood. Risk for suicide increases as the client's energy level is increased by medication. The other choices are not significantly associated with increased risk for suicide

33. A patient has been diagnosed with pancreatic cancer and has been admitted for care. Following initial treatment, the nurse should be aware that the patient is most likely to require which of the following? A) Inpatient rehabilitation B) Rehabilitation in the home setting C) Intensive physical therapy D) Hospice care

Ans: D Feedback: Pancreatic carcinoma has only a 5% survival rate at 5 years regardless of the stage of disease at diagnosis or treatment. As a result, there is a higher likelihood that the patient will require hospice care than physical therapy and rehabilitation.

6. A woman is being treated for a tumor of the left breast. If the patient and her physician opt for prophylactic treatment, the nurse should prepare the woman for what intervention? A) More aggressive chemotherapy B) Left mastectomy C) Radiation therapy D) Bilateral mastectomy

Ans: D Feedback: Right mastectomy would be considered a prophylactic measure to reduce the risk of cancer in the patients unaffected breast. None of the other listed interventions would be categorized as being prophylactic rather than curative.

32. A client who just went through an upsetting divorce is threatening to commit suicide with a handgun. The client is involuntarily admitted to the psychiatric unit. Which nursing diagnosis has the highest priority? A) Hopelessness related to recent divorce B) Ineffective coping related to inadequate stress management C) Spiritual distress related to conflicting thoughts about suicide and sin D) Risk for suicide related to a highly lethal plan

Ans: D Feedback: Safety is the priority. The overall goal for the client who is suicidal is to first keep the client safe and later to help him or her to develop new coping skills that do not involve self-harm. The other choices would not be the highest priority diagnosis for this client.

A client with schizophrenia is attending a follow-up appointment at the community mental health clinic. The client reports to the nurse, "I stopped taking the antipsychotic medication because I can't get a hard-on with my girlfriend anymore." Which of the following should the nurse recommend to enhance the client's well-being? A) "It sounds like that is a problem for you. Don't you still find her to be sexy enough?" B) "Sexual dysfunction is a temporary side effect and should get better once your body is used to the medication." C) "You should avoid having sex with your girlfriend anyway. Do you really want her to get pregnant?" D) "It is important for you to take an antipsychotic medication. You may need a different type that will be less likely to affect your sexual functioning. I would like to call your physician about this."

Ans: D Feedback: Some side effects, such as those affecting sexual functioning, are embarrassing for the client to report, and the client may confirm these side effects only if the nurse directly inquires about them. This may require a call to the client's physician or primary provider to obtain a prescription for a different type of antipsychotic.

The nurse enters the client's room and finds the client anxiously pacing the floor. The client begins shouting at the nurse, "Get out of my room!" The best intervention by the nurse would be to A) approach the client and ask, "What's wrong?" B) call for help and say, "Calm down." C) turn and walk away from the room without saying anything. D) stand at the doorway and say, "You seem upset."

Ans: D Feedback: Staying with the client while allowing personal space is an important and safe intervention; this therapeutic communication technique is designed to get the client to communicate feelings. It may not be safe for the nurse to approach the client. Help is not needed at this time, and saying, "Calm down," is not effective. Turning and walking away from the client may seem like rejection and may worsen the client's anxiety as well as damage the nurse-client relationship.

The nurse knows that which one of the following statements is true about stress and anxiety? A) All people handle stress in the same way. B) Stress is a person's reaction to anxiety. C) Anxiety occurs when a person has trouble dealing with life situations, problems, and goals. D) Stress is the wear and tear that life causes on the body.

Ans: D Feedback: Stress is the wear and tear that life causes on the body. It occurs when a person has difficulty dealing with life situations, problems, and goals. Each person handles stress differently. Anxiety is a vague feeling of dread or apprehension; it is a response to external or internal stimuli that can have behavioral, emotional, cognitive, and physical symptoms. Anxiety is a response to stress.

5. The nurse is caring for a 52-year-old woman whose aunt and mother died of breast cancer. The patient states, My doctor and I talked about Tamoxifen to help prevent breast cancer. Do you think it will work? What would be the nurses best response? A) Yes, its known to have a slight protective effect. B) Yes, but studies also show an increased risk of osteoporosis. C) You wont need to worry about getting cancer as long as you take Tamoxifen. D) Tamoxifen is known to be a highly effective protective measure.

Ans: D Feedback: Tamoxifen has been shown to be a highly effective chemopreventive agent. However, it cannot reduce the risk of cancer by 100%. It also acts to prevent osteoporosis.

16. A patient newly diagnosed with breast cancer states that her physician suspects regional lymph node involvement and told her that there are signs of metastatic disease. The nurse learns that the patient has been diagnosed with stage IV breast cancer. What is an implication of this diagnosis? A) The patient is not a surgical candidate. B) The patients breast cancer is considered highly treatable. C) There is a 10% chance that the patients cancer will self-resolve. D) The patient has a 15% chance of 5-year survival.

Ans: D Feedback: The 5-year survival rate is approximately 15% for stage IV breast cancer. Surgery is still a likely treatment, but the disease would not be considered to be highly treatable. Self-resolution of the disease is not a possibility.

A client with schizophrenia is admitted to the inpatient unit. He does not speak when spoken to but has been observed talking to himself on occasion. What would be the priority objective at this time? A) The client will begin talking with other clients B) The client will express his feelings freely C) The client will increase his socialization with others D) The client will increase his reality orientation

Ans: D Feedback: The client needs to be oriented to reality before he can participate in other therapeutic activities. The other choices would not be priority goals for this patient right now.

20. A client with depression appears lethargic and apathetic but agrees to participate in a leisure activity group. Which nursing intervention is most likely to help the client successfully participate? A) Allowing the client to direct her participation at her own pace B) Giving the client several choices of projects, so she can choose her favorite C) Staying away from the client during the session to encourage free expression D) Structuring the activity to facilitate completion of one specific task

Ans: D Feedback: The client needs to experience success in the group but is unlikely to do that independently. The other choices would not be appropriate actions for the client who is lethargic and apathetic.

20. A nurse is assessing an elderly patient with gallstones. The nurse is aware that the patient may not exhibit typical symptoms, and that particular symptoms that may be exhibited in the elderly patient may include what? A) Fever and pain B) Chills and jaundice C) Nausea and vomiting D) Signs and symptoms of septic shock

Ans: D Feedback: The elderly patient may not exhibit the typical symptoms of fever, pain, chills jaundice, and nausea and vomiting. Symptoms of biliary tract disease in the elderly may be accompanied or preceded by those of septic shock, which include oliguria, hypotension, change in mental status, tachycardia, and tachypnea.

The student nurse correctly recognizes that which one of the following findings is best supported by genetic studies in the etiology of schizophrenia? A) If a person has schizophrenia, distant relatives are also at risk. B) That there is no relationship at all between schizophrenia and genetics. C) That there is a weak correlation between genetics and schizophrenia. D) That schizophrenia is at least partially inherited.

Ans: D Feedback: The most important studies have centered on twins; these findings have demonstrated that if one identical twin has schizophrenia, the other twin has a 50% chance of developing it as well. Fraternal twins have only a 15% risk. This finding indicates that schizophrenia is at least partially inherited.

15. A patient returns to the floor after a laparoscopic cholecystectomy. The nurse should assess the patient for signs and symptoms of what serious potential complication of this surgery? A) Diabetic coma B) Decubitus ulcer C) Wound evisceration D) Bile duct injury

Ans: D Feedback: The most serious complication after laparoscopic cholecystectomy is a bile duct injury. Patients do not face a risk of diabetic coma. A decubitus ulcer is unlikely because immobility is not expected. Evisceration is highly unlikely, due to the laparoscopic approach.

13. A home health nurse is caring for a patient discharged home after pancreatic surgery. The nurse documents the nursing diagnosis Risk for Imbalanced Nutrition: Less than Body Requirements on the care plan based on the potential complications that may occur after surgery. What are the most likely complications for the patient who has had pancreatic surgery? A) Proteinuria and hyperkalemia B) Hemorrhage and hypercalcemia C) Weight loss and hypoglycemia D) Malabsorption and hyperglycemia

Ans: D Feedback: The nurse arrives at this diagnosis based on the complications of malabsorption and hyperglycemia. These complications often lead to the need for dietary modifications. Pancreatic enzyme replacement, a low-fat diet, and vitamin supplementation often are also required to meet the patient's nutritional needs and restrictions. Electrolyte imbalances often accompany pancreatic disorders and surgery, but the electrolyte levels are more often deficient than excessive. Hemorrhage is a complication related to surgery, but not specific to the nutritionally based nursing diagnosis. Weight loss is a common complication, but hypoglycemia is less likely.

17. A patient is being treated on the acute medical unit for acute pancreatitis. The nurse has identified a diagnosis of Ineffective Breathing Pattern Related to Pain. What intervention should the nurse perform in order to best address this diagnosis? A) Position the patient supine to facilitate diaphragm movement. B) Administer corticosteroids by nebulizer as ordered. C) Perform oral suctioning as needed to remove secretions. D) Maintain the patient in a semi-Fowler's position whenever possible.

Ans: D Feedback: The nurse maintains the patient in a semi-Fowler's position to decrease pressure on the diaphragm by a distended abdomen and to increase respiratory expansion. A supine position will result in increased pressure on the diaphragm and potentially decreased respiratory expansion. Steroids and oral suctioning are not indicated.

12. A patient in her 30s has two young children and has just had a modified radical mastectomy with immediate reconstruction. The patient shares with the nurse that she is somewhat worried about her future, but she appears to be adjusting well to her diagnosis and surgery. What nursing intervention is most appropriate to support this patients coping? A) Encourage the patients spouse or partner to be supportive while she recovers. B) Encourage the patient to proceed with the next phase of treatment. C) Recommend that the patient remain optimistic for the sake of her children. D) Arrange a referral to a community-based support program.

Ans: D Feedback: The patient is not exhibiting clear signs of anxiety or depression. Therefore, the nurse can probably safely approach her about talking with others who have had similar experiences. The nurse may educate the patients spouse or partner to listen for concerns, but the nurse should not tell the patients spouse what to do. The patient must consult with her physician and make her own decisions about further treatment. The patient needs to express her sadness, frustration, and fear. She cannot be expected to be optimistic at all times.

1. A nurse is assessing a patient who has been diagnosed with cholecystitis, and is experiencing localized abdominal pain. When assessing the characteristics of the patient's pain, the nurse should anticipate that it may radiate to what region? A) Left upper chest B) Inguinal region C) Neck or jaw D) Right shoulder

Ans: D Feedback: The patient may have biliary colic with excruciating upper right abdominal pain that radiates to the back or right shoulder. Pain from cholecystitis does not typically radiate to the left upper chest, inguinal area, neck, or jaw.

20. A patient has presented for her annual mammogram. The patient voices concerns related to exposure to radiation. What should the nurse teach the patient about a mammogram? A) It does not use radiation. B) Radiation levels are safe as long as mammograms are performed only once per year. C) The negative effects of radiation do not accumulate until late in life. D) Radiation from a mammogram is equivalent to an hour of sunlight.

Ans: D Feedback: The radiation exposure of mammogram is equivalent to about 1 hour of exposure to sunlight. Consequently, the benefits of mammography far outweigh any risks associated with the procedure. Negative consequences are insignificant, and do not accumulate later in life.

22. A client has been admitted to the inpatient unit after using inhalants recently. Which is an antidote to treat inhalant toxicity? A) Ativan B) Narcan C) Antabuse D) There is no antidote

Ans: D Feedback: There is no antidote or specific medication to treat inhalant toxicity. Ativan, Narcan, and Antabuse are not used to treat inhalant toxicity.

A client asks the nurse, "Why do I have to go to counseling? Why can't I just take medications?" The best response by the nurse would be, A) "Both therapies are effective. You can eventually choose one or the other." B) "You cannot get the full effect of your medications without cognitive therapy as well." C) "As soon as your medications reach therapeutic level, you can omit the therapy." D) "Medications combined with therapy help you change how well you function."

Ans: D Feedback: Treatment for anxiety disorders usually involves medication and therapy. This combination produces better results than either one alone.

The nurse is caring for her first client with obsessive/compulsive disorder. During the treatment team meeting, the nurse shares her frustration as to the client's inability to stop washing his hands. The nurse manager offers which one of the following explanations? A) The hand washing represents a way to exert independence from the staff. B) The client is not aware of the excessive hand washing. C) The client does not think anything is abnormal with washing his hands repeatedly. D) The client feels terrible but cannot stop washing his hands to try to get rid of his anxiety

Ans: D It may be difficult for nurses and others to understand why the person cannot simply stop performing the bizarre behaviors interfering with his or her life. Nurses must understand what anxiety behaviors are and how anxiety behaviors work, not just for client care but to help understand the role anxiety plays in performing nursing responsibilities.

6. The nurse is caring for a patient who is to begin receiving external radiation for a malignant tumor of the neck. While providing patient education, what potential adverse effects should the nurse discuss with the patient? A) Impaired nutritional status B) Cognitive changes C) Diarrhea D) Alopecia

Ans:A Alterations in oral mucosa, change and loss of taste, pain, and dysphasia often occur as a result of radiotherapy to the head and neck. The patient is at an increased risk of impaired nutritional status. Radiotherapy does not cause cognitive changes. Diarrhea is not a likely concern for this patient. Radiation only results in alopecia when targeted at the whole brain; radiation of other parts of the body does not lead to hair loss.

19. A 50-year-old man diagnosed with leukemia will begin chemotherapy. What would the nurse do to combat the most common adverse effects of chemotherapy? A) Administer an antiemetic. B) Administer an antimetabolite. C) Administer a tumor antibiotic. D) Administer an anticoagulant.

Ans:A Antiemetics are used to treat nausea and vomiting, the most common adverse effects of chemotherapy. Antihistamines and certain steroids are also used to treat nausea and vomiting. Antimetabolites and tumor antibiotics are classes of chemotherapeutic medications. Anticoagulants slow blood clotting time, thereby helping to prevent thrombi and emboli.

7. While a patient is receiving IV doxorubicin hydrochloride for the treatment of cancer, the nurse observes swelling and pain at the IV site. The nurse should prioritize what action? A) Stopping the administration of the drug immediately B) Notifying the patient's physician C) Continuing the infusion but decreasing the rate D) Applying a warm compress to the infusion site

Ans:A Doxorubicin hydrochloride is a chemotherapeutic vesicant that can cause severe tissue damage. The nurse should stop the administration of the drug immediately and then notify the patient's physician. Ice can be applied to the site once the drug therapy has stopped.

17. The clinic nurse is caring for a 42-year-old male oncology patient. He complains of extreme fatigue and weakness after his first week of radiation therapy. Which response by the nurse would best reassure this patient? A) These symptoms usually result from radiation therapy; however, we will continue to monitor your laboratory and x-ray studies. B) These symptoms are part of your disease and are an unfortunately inevitable part of living with cancer. C) Try not to be concerned about these symptoms. Every patient feels this way after having radiation therapy. D) Even though it is uncomfortable, this is a good sign. It means that only the cancer cells are dying.

Ans:A Fatigue and weakness result from radiation treatment and usually do not represent deterioration or disease progression. The symptoms associated with radiation therapy usually decrease after therapy ends. The symptoms may concern the patient and should not be belittled. Radiation destroys both cancerous and normal cells.

18. A 16-year-old female patient experiences alopecia resulting from chemotherapy, prompting the nursing diagnoses of disturbed body image and situational low self- esteem. What action by the patient would best indicate that she is meeting the goal of improved body image and self-esteem? A) The patient requests that her family bring her makeup and wig. B) The patient begins to discuss the future with her family. C) The patient reports less disruption from pain and discomfort. D) The patient cries openly when discussing her disease.

Ans:A Requesting her wig and makeup indicates that the patient with alopecia is becoming interested in looking her best and that her body image and self-esteem may be improving. The other options may indicate that other nursing goals are being met, but they do not necessarily indicate improved body image and self-esteem.

33. The home health nurse is performing a home visit for an oncology patient discharged 3 days ago after completing treatment for non-Hodgkin lymphoma. The nurse's assessment should include examination for the signs and symptoms of what complication? A) Tumor lysis syndrome (TLS) B) Syndrome of inappropriate antiduretic hormone (SIADH) C) Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) D) Hypercalcemia

Ans:A TLS is a potentially fatal complication that occurs spontaneously or more commonly following radiation, biotherapy, or chemotherapy-induced cell destruction of large or rapidly growing cancers such as leukemia, lymphoma, and small cell lung cancer. DIC, SIADH and hypercalcemia are less likely complications following this treatment and diagnosis.

36. The hospice nurse has just admitted a new patient to the program. What principle guides hospice care? A) Care addresses the needs of the patient as well as the needs of the family. B) Care is focused on the patient centrally and the family peripherally. C) The focus of all aspects of care is solely on the patient. D) The care team prioritizes the patient's physical needs and the family is responsible for the patient's emotional needs.

Ans:A The focus of hospice care is on the family as well as the patient. The family is not solely responsible for the patient's emotional well-being

37. A 60-year-old patient with a diagnosis of prostate cancer is scheduled to have an interstitial implant for high-dose radiation (HDR). What safety measure should the nurse include in this patient's subsequent plan of care? A) Limit the time that visitors spend at the patient's bedside. B) Teach the patient to perform all aspects of basic care independently. C) Assign male nurses to the patient's care whenever possible. D) Situate the patient in a shared room with other patients receiving brachytherapy.

Ans:A To limit radiation exposure, visitors should generally not spend more than 30 minutes with the patient. Pregnant nurses or visitors should not be near the patient, but there is no reason to limit care to nurses who are male. All necessary care should be provided to the patient and a single room should be used.

30. You are caring for a patient who has just been told that her stage IV colon cancer has recurred and metastasized to the liver. The oncologist offers the patient the option of surgery to treat the progression of this disease. What type of surgery does the oncologist offer? A) Palliative B) Reconstructive C) Salvage D) Prophylactic

Ans:A When cure is not possible, the goals of treatment are to make the patient as comfortable as possible and to promote quality of life as defined by the patient and his or her family. Palliative surgery is performed in an attempt to relieve complications of cancer, such as ulceration, obstruction, hemorrhage, pain, and malignant effusion. Reconstructive surgery may follow curative or radical surgery in an attempt to improve function or obtain a more desirable cosmetic effect. Salvage surgery is an additional treatment option that uses an extensive surgical approach to treat the local recurrence of a cancer after the use of a less extensive primary approach. Prophylactic surgery involves removing nonvital tissues or organs that are at increased risk to develop cancer.

2. A nurse who works in an oncology clinic is assessing a patient who has arrived for a 2- month follow-up appointment following chemotherapy. The nurse notes that the patient's skin appears yellow. Which blood tests should be done to further explore this clinical sign? A) Liver function tests (LFTs) B) Complete blood count (CBC) C) Platelet count D) Blood urea nitrogen and creatinine

Ans:A Yellow skin is a sign of jaundice and the liver is a common organ affected by metastatic disease. An LFT should be done to determine if the liver is functioning. A CBC, platelet count and tests of renal function would not directly assess for liver disease.

23. The nurse is describing some of the major characteristics of cancer to a patient who has recently received a diagnosis of malignant melanoma. When differentiating between benign and malignant cancer cells, the nurse should explain differences in which of the following aspects? Select all that apply. A) Rate of growth B) Ability to cause death C) Size of cells D) Cell contents E) Ability to spread

Ans:A, B, E Benign and malignant cells differ in many cellular growth characteristics, including the method and rate of growth, ability to metastasize or spread, general effects, destruction of tissue, and ability to cause death. Cells come in many sizes, both benign and malignant. Cell contents are basically the same, but they behave differently.

13. You are caring for an adult patient who has developed a mild oral yeast infection following chemotherapy. What actions should you encourage the patient to perform? Select all that apply. A) Use a lip lubricant. B) Scrub the tongue with a firm-bristled toothbrush. C) Use dental floss every 24 hours. D) Rinse the mouth with normal saline. E) Eat spicy food to aid in eradicating the yeast.

Ans:A, C, D Stomatitis is an inflammation of the oral cavity. The patient should be encouraged to brush the teeth with a soft toothbrush after meals, use dental floss every 24 hours, rinse with normal saline, and use a lip lubricant. Mouthwashes and hot foods should be avoided.

1. The public health nurse is presenting a health-promotion class to a group at a local community center. Which intervention most directly addresses the leading cause of cancer deaths in North America? A) Monthly self-breast exams B) Smoking cessation C) Annual colonoscopies D) Monthly testicular exams

Ans:B Cancer is second only to cardiovascular disease as a leading cause of death in the United States. Although the numbers of cancer deaths have decreased slightly, more than 570,000 Americans were expected to die from a malignant process in 2011. The leading causes of cancer death in the United States, in order of frequency, are lung, prostate, and colorectal cancer in men and lung, breast, and colorectal cancer in women, so smoking cessation is the health promotion initiative directly related to lung cancer.

34. The nurse is admitting an oncology patient to the unit prior to surgery. The nurse reads in the electronic health record that the patient has just finished radiation therapy. With knowledge of the consequent health risks, the nurse should prioritize assessments related to what health problem? A) Cognitive deficits B) Impaired wound healing C) Cardiac tamponade D) Tumor lysis syndrome

Ans:B Combining other treatment methods, such as radiation and chemotherapy, with surgery contributes to postoperative complications, such as infection, impaired wound healing, altered pulmonary or renal function, and the development of deep vein thrombosis.

39. A patient with a diagnosis of gastric cancer has been unable to tolerate oral food and fluid intake and her tumor location precludes the use of enteral feeding. What intervention should the nurse identify as best meeting this patient's nutritional needs? A) Administration of parenteral feeds via a peripheral IV B) TPN administered via a peripherally inserted central catheter C) Insertion of an NG tube for administration of feeds D) Maintaining NPO status and IV hydration until treatment completion

Ans:B If malabsorption is severe, or the cancer involves the upper GI tract, parenteral nutrition may be necessary. TPN is administered by way of a central line, not a peripheral IV. An NG would be contraindicated for this patient. Long-term NPO status would result in malnutrition.

The clinic nurse is caring for a patient whose grandmother and sister have both had breast cancer. She requested a screening test to determine her risk of developing breast cancer and it has come back positive. The patient asks you what she can do to help prevent breast cancer from occurring. What would be your best response? A) "Research has shown that eating a healthy diet can provide all the protection you need against breast cancer." B) "Research has shown that taking the drug tamoxifen can reduce your chance of breast cancer." C) "Research has shown that exercising at least 30 minutes every day can reduce your chance of breast cancer." D) "Research has shown that there is little you can do to reduce your risk of breast cancer if you have a genetic predisposition."

Ans:B Large-scale breast cancer prevention studies supported by the National Cancer Institute (NCI) indicated that chemoprevention with the medication tamoxifen can reduce the incidence of breast cancer by 50% in women at high risk for breast cancer. A healthy diet and regular exercise are important, but not wholly sufficient preventive measures.

22. A patient's most recent diagnostic imaging has revealed that his lung cancer has metastasized to his bones and liver. What is the most likely mechanism by which the patient's cancer cells spread? A) Hematologic spread B) Lymphatic circulation C) Invasion D) Angiogenesis

Ans:B Lymph and blood are key mechanisms by which cancer cells spread. Lymphatic spread (the transport of tumor cells through the lymphatic circulation) is the most common mechanism of metastasis.

8. A patient newly diagnosed with cancer is scheduled to begin chemotherapy treatment and the nurse is providing anticipatory guidance about potential adverse effects. When addressing the most common adverse effect, what should the nurse describe? A) Pruritis (itching) B) Nausea and vomiting C) Altered glucose metabolism D) Confusion

Ans:B Nausea and vomiting, the most common side effects of chemotherapy, may persist for as long as 24 to 48 hours after its administration. Antiemetic drugs are frequently prescribed for these patients. Confusion, alterations in glucose metabolism, and pruritis are not common adverse effects.

12. A nurse is creating a plan of care for an oncology patient and one of the identified nursing diagnoses is risk for infection related to myelosuppression. What intervention addresses the leading cause of infection-related death in oncology patients? A) Encourage several small meals daily. B) Provide skin care to maintain skin integrity. C) Assist the patient with hygiene, as needed. D) Assess the integrity of the patient's oral mucosa regularly.

Ans:B Nursing care for patients with skin reactions includes maintaining skin integrity, cleansing the skin, promoting comfort, reducing pain, preventing additional trauma, and preventing and managing infection. Malnutrition in oncology patients may be present, but it is not the leading cause of infection-related death. Poor hygiene does not normally cause events that result in death. Broken oral mucosa may be an avenue for infection, but it is not the leading cause of death in an oncology patient.

31. The nurse is caring for a patient with an advanced stage of breast cancer and the patient has recently learned that her cancer has metastasized. The nurse enters the room and finds the patient struggling to breath and the nurse's rapid assessment reveals that the patient's jugular veins are distended. The nurse should suspect the development of what oncologic emergency? A) Increased intracranial pressure B) Superior vena cava syndrome (SVCS) C) Spinal cord compression D) Metastatic tumor of the neck

Ans:B SVCS occurs when there is gradual or sudden impaired venous drainage giving rise to progressive shortness of breath (dyspnea), cough, hoarseness, chest pain, and facial swelling; edema of the neck, arms, hands, and thorax and reported sensation of skin tightness and difficulty swallowing; as well as possibly engorged and distended jugular, temporal, and arm veins. Increased intracranial pressure may be a part of SVCS, but it is not what is causing the patient's symptoms. The scenario does not mention a problem with the patient's spinal cord. The scenario says that the cancer has metastasized, but not that it has metastasized to the neck.

24. A 54-year-old has a diagnosis of breast cancer and is tearfully discussing her diagnosis with the nurse. The patient states, ìThey tell me my cancer is malignant, while my coworker's breast tumor was benign. I just don't understand at all.î When preparing a response to this patient, the nurse should be cognizant of what characteristic that distinguishes malignant cells from benign cells of the same tissue type? A) Slow rate of mitosis of cancer cells B) Different proteins in the cell membrane C) Differing size of the cells D) Different molecular structure in the cells

Ans:B The cell membrane of malignant cells also contains proteins called tumor-specific antigens (e.g., carcinoembryonic antigen [CEA] and prostate-specific antigen [PSA]), which develop over time as the cells become less differentiated (mature). These proteins distinguish malignant cells from benign cells of the same tissue type.

21. An oncology nurse educator is providing health education to a patient who has been diagnosed with skin cancer. The patient's wife has asked about the differences between normal cells and cancer cells. What characteristic of a cancer cell should the educator cite? A) Malignant cells contain more fibronectin than normal body cells. B) Malignant cells contain proteins called tumor-specific antigens. C) Chromosomes contained in cancer cells are more durable and stable than those of normal cells. D) The nuclei of cancer cells are unusually large, but regularly shaped.

Ans:B The cell membranes are altered in cancer cells, which affect fluid movement in and out of the cell. The cell membrane of malignant cells also contains proteins called tumor-specific antigens. Malignant cellular membranes also contain less fibronectin, a cellular cement. Typically, nuclei of cancer cells are large and irregularly shaped (pleomorphism). Fragility of chromosomes is commonly found when cancer cells are analyzed.

16. At 1 AM, the client with mania rushes to the nurses' station and demands that the psychiatrist come to the unit now to write an order for a pass to go home. What would be the nurse's most therapeutic response? A) ìGo to the day room and wait while I call your psychiatrist.î B) ìDon't be unreasonable. I can't call the psychiatrist at this time of night.î C) ìI can't call the psychiatrist now, but you and I can talk about your request for a pass.î D) ìYou must really be upset to want a pass immediately; I'll give you some medication.î

Ans:C Feedback: This response states a limit on an unreasonable request while providing the opportunity to discuss the request. Answer choices A, B, and D are not therapeutic.

14. The nurse on a bone marrow transplant unit is caring for a patient with cancer who is preparing for HSCT. What is a priority nursing diagnosis for this patient? A) Fatigue related to altered metabolic processes B) Altered nutrition: less than body requirements related to anorexia C) Risk for infection related to altered immunologic response D) Body image disturbance related to weight loss and anorexia

Ans:C A priority nursing diagnosis for this patient is risk for infection related to altered immunologic response. Because the patient's immunity is suppressed, he or she will be at a high risk for infection. The other listed nursing diagnoses are valid, but they are not as high a priority as is risk for infection.

3. The school nurse is teaching a nutrition class in the local high school. One student states that he has heard that certain foods can increase the incidence of cancer. The nurse responds, ìResearch has shown that certain foods indeed appear to increase the risk of cancer.î Which of the following menu selections would be the best choice for potentially reducing the risks of cancer? A) Smoked salmon and green beans B) Pork chops and fried green tomatoes C) Baked apricot chicken and steamed broccoli D) Liver, onions, and steamed peas

Ans:C Fruits and vegetables appear to reduce cancer risk. Salt-cured foods, such as ham and processed meats, as well as red meats, should be limited.

9. A patient on the oncology unit is receiving carmustine, a chemotherapy agent, and the nurse is aware that a significant side effect of this medication is thrombocytopenia. Which symptom should the nurse assess for in patients at risk for thrombocytopenia? A) Interrupted sleep pattern B) Hot flashes C) Epistaxis (nose bleed) D) Increased weight

Ans:C Patients with thrombocytopenia are at risk for bleeding due to decreased platelet counts. Patients with thrombocytopenia do not exhibit interrupted sleep pattern, hot flashes, or increased weight.

35. An oncology patient has just returned from the postanesthesia care unit after an open hemicolectomy. This patient's plan of nursing care should prioritize which of the following? A) Assess the patient hourly for signs of compartment syndrome. B) Assess the patient's fine motor skills once per shift. C) Assess the patient's wound for dehiscence every 4 hours. D) Maintain the patient's head of bed at 45 degrees or more at all times.

Ans:C Postoperatively, the nurse assesses the patient's responses to the surgery and monitors the patient for possible complications, such as infection, bleeding, thrombophlebitis, wound dehiscence, fluid and electrolyte imbalance, and organ dysfunction. Fine motor skills are unlikely to be affected by surgery and compartment syndrome is a complication of fracture casting, not abdominal surgery. There is no need to maintain a high head of bed.

4. Traditionally, nurses have been involved with tertiary cancer prevention. However, an increasing emphasis is being placed on both primary and secondary prevention. What would be an example of primary prevention? A) Yearly Pap tests B) Testicular self-examination C) Teaching patients to wear sunscreen D) Screening mammograms

Ans:C Primary prevention is concerned with reducing the risks of cancer in healthy people through practices such as use of sunscreen. Secondary prevention involves detection and screening to achieve early diagnosis, as demonstrated by Pap tests, mammograms, and testicular exams.

5. The nurse is caring for a 39-year-old woman with a family history of breast cancer. She requested a breast tumor marking test and the results have come back positive. As a result, the patient is requesting a bilateral mastectomy. This surgery is an example of what type of oncologic surgery? A) Salvage surgery B) Palliative surgery C) Prophylactic surgery D) Reconstructive surgery

Ans:C Prophylactic surgery is used when there is an extensive family history and nonvital tissues are removed. Salvage surgery is an additional treatment option that uses an extensive surgical approach to treat the local recurrence of a cancer after the use of a less extensive primary approach. Palliative surgery is performed in an attempt to relieve complications of cancer, such as ulceration, obstruction, hemorrhage, pain, and malignant effusion. Reconstructive surgery may follow curative or radical surgery in an attempt to improve function or obtain a more desirable cosmetic effect.

28. A public health nurse has formed an interdisciplinary team that is developing an educational program entitled Cancer: The Risks and What You Can Do About Them. Participants will receive information, but the major focus will be screening for relevant cancers. This program is an example of what type of health promotion activity? A) Disease prophylaxis B) Risk reduction C) Secondary prevention D) Tertiary prevention

Ans:C Secondary prevention involves screening and early detection activities that seek to identify early stage cancer in individuals who lack signs and symptoms suggestive of cancer. Primary prevention is concerned with reducing the risks of disease through health promotion strategies. Tertiary prevention is the care and rehabilitation of the patient after having been diagnosed with cancer.

20. A 58-year-old male patient has been hospitalized for a wedge resection of the left lower lung lobe after a routine chest x-ray shows carcinoma. The patient is anxious and asks if he can smoke. Which statement by the nurse would be most therapeutic? A) Smoking is the reason you are here. B) The doctor left orders for you not to smoke. C) You are anxious about the surgery. Do you see smoking as helping? D) Smoking is OK right now, but after your surgery it is contraindicated.

Ans:C Stating "You are anxious about the surgery. Do you see smoking as helping?" acknowledges the patient's feelings and encourages him to assess his previous behavior. Saying "Smoking is the reason you are here" belittles the patient. Citing the doctor's orders does not address the patient's anxiety. Sanctioning smoking would be highly detrimental to this patient.

32. The hospice nurse is caring for a patient with cancer in her home. The nurse has explained to the patient and the family that the patient is at risk for hypercalcemia and has educated them on that signs and symptoms of this health problem. What else should the nurse teach this patient and family to do to reduce the patient's risk of hypercalcemia? A) Stool softeners are contraindicated. B) Laxatives should be taken daily C) Consume 2-4L of fluid daily D) Restrict calcium intake

Ans:C The nurse should identify patients at risk for hypercalcemia, assess for signs and symptoms of hypercalcemia, and educate the patient and family. The nurse should teach at-risk patients to recognize and report signs and symptoms of hypercalcemia and encourage patients to consume 2 to 4 L of fluid daily unless contraindicated by existing renal or cardiac disease. Also, the nurse should explain the use of dietary and pharmacologic interventions, such as stool softeners and laxatives for constipation, and advise patients to maintain nutritional intake without restricting normal calcium intake.

26. The nurse is performing an initial assessment of an older adult resident who has just relocated to the long-term care facility. During the nurse's interview with the patient, she admits that she drinks around 20 ounces of vodka every evening. What types of cancer does this put her at risk for? Select all that apply. A) Malignant melanoma B) Brain cancer C) Breast cancer D) Esophageal cancer E) Liver cancer

Ans:C, D, E Dietary substances that appear to increase the risk of cancer include fats, alcohol, salt-cured or smoked meats, nitrate- and nitrite-containing foods, and red and processed meats. Alcohol increases the risk of cancers of the mouth, pharynx, larynx, esophagus, liver, colorectum, and breast.

23. The wife of a client with bipolar disorder calls the nurse expressing distress about recent spending patterns of her husband. The nurse suggests the wife implement the limit- setting skills she has learned in family therapy. In this instance, the nurse's action would be considered A) inappropriate; the nurse should not give advice to the wife. B) inappropriate; the husband has the legal right to spend personal money. C) appropriate; the wife is responsible for the husband's actions since he has a mental illness. D) appropriate; the wife needs support in setting boundaries.

Ans:D Feedback: Family members often say they know clients have stopped taking their medication when, for example, clients become more argumentative, talk about buying expensive items that they cannot afford, hotly deny anything is wrong, or demonstrate any other signs of escalating mania. People sometimes need permission to act on their observations.

40. An oncology nurse is contributing to the care of a patient who has failed to respond appreciably to conventional cancer treatments. As a result, the care team is considering the possible use of biologic response modifiers (BRFs). The nurse should know that these achieve a therapeutic effect by what means? A) Promoting the synthesis and release of leukocytes B) Focusing the patient's immune system exclusively on the tumor C) Potentiating the effects of chemotherapeutic agents and radiation therapy D) Altering the immunologic relationship between the tumor and the patient

Ans:D BRFs alter the immunologic relationship between the tumor and the cancer patient (host) to provide a therapeutic benefit. They do not necessarily increase white cell production or focus the immune system solely on the tumor. BRFs do not potentiate radiotherapy and chemotherapy.

11. A nurse provides care on a bone marrow transplant unit and is preparing a female patient for a hematopoietic stem cell transplantation (HSCT) the following day. What information should the nurse emphasize to the patient's family and friends? A) Your family should likely gather at the bedside in case there's a negative outcome. B) Make sure she doesn't eat any food in the 24 hours before the procedure. C) Wear a hospital gown when you go into the patient's room. D) Do not visit if you've had a recent infection.

Ans:D Before HSCT, patients are at a high risk for infection, sepsis, and bleeding. Visitors should not visit if they have had a recent illness or vaccination. Gowns should indeed be worn, but this is secondary in importance to avoiding the patient's contact with ill visitors. Prolonged fasting is unnecessary. Negative outcomes are possible, but the procedure would not normally be so risky as to require the family to gather at the bedside.

15. An oncology nurse is caring for a patient who has developed erythema following radiation therapy. What should the nurse instruct the patient to do? A) Periodically apply ice to the area. B) Keep the area cleanly shaven. C) Apply petroleum jelly to the affected area. D) Avoid using soap on the treatment area.

Ans:D Care to the affected area must focus on preventing further skin irritation, drying, and damage. Soaps, petroleum ointment, and shaving the area could worsen the erythema. Ice is also contraindicated.

16. The nurse is caring for a patient has just been given a 6-month prognosis following a diagnosis of extensive stage small-cell lung cancer. The patient states that he would like to die at home, but the team believes that the patient's care needs are unable to be met in a home environment. What might you suggest as an alternative? A) Discuss a referral for rehabilitation hospital. B) Panel the patient for a personal care home. C) Discuss a referral for acute care. D) Discuss a referral for hospice care.

Ans:D Hospice care can be provided in several settings. Because of the high cost associated with free-standing hospices, care is often delivered by coordinating services provided by both hospitals and the community. The primary goal of hospice care is to provide support to the patient and family. Patients who are referred to hospice care generally have fewer than 6 months to live. Each of the other listed options would be less appropriate for the patient's physical and psychosocial needs.

25. An oncology patient will begin a course of chemotherapy and radiation therapy for the treatment of bone metastases. What is one means by which malignant disease processes transfer cells from one place to another? A) Adhering to primary tumor cells B) Inducing mutation of cells of another organ C) Phagocytizing healthy cells D) Invading healthy host tissues

Ans:D Invasion, which refers to the growth of the primary tumor into the surrounding host tissues, occurs in several ways. Malignant cells are less likely to adhere than are normal cells. Malignant cells do not cause healthy cells to mutate. Malignant cells do not eat other cells.

38. An oncology patient has begun to experience skin reactions to radiation therapy, prompting the nurse to make the diagnosis Impaired Skin Integrity: erythematous reaction to radiation therapy. What intervention best addresses this nursing diagnosis? A) Apply an ice pack or heating pad PRN to relieve pain and pruritis B) Avoid skin contact with water whenever possible C) Apply phototherapy PRN D) Avoid rubbing or scratching the affected area

Ans:D Rubbing and or scratching will lead to additional skin irritation, damage, and increased risk of infection. Extremes of hot, cold, and light should be avoided. No need to avoid contact with water.

29. A 62-year-old woman diagnosed with breast cancer is scheduled for a partial mastectomy. The oncology nurse explained that the surgeon will want to take tissue samples to ensure the disease has not spread to adjacent axillary lymph nodes. The patient has asked if she will have her lymph nodes dissected, like her mother did several years ago. What alternative to lymph node dissection will this patient most likely undergo? A) Lymphadenectomy B) Needle biopsy C) Open biopsy D) Sentinel node biopsy

Ans:D Sentinel lymph node biopsy (SLNB), also known as sentinel lymph node mapping, is a minimally invasive surgical approach that, in some instances, has replaced more invasive lymph node dissections (lymphadenectomy) and their associated complications such as lymphedema and delayed healing. SLNB has been widely adopted for regional lymph node staging in selected cases of melanoma and breast cancer.

10. The nurse is orienting a new nurse to the oncology unit. When reviewing the safe administration of antineoplastic agents, what action should the nurse emphasize? A) Adjust the dose to the patient's present symptoms. B) Wash hands with an alcohol-based cleanser following administration. C) Use gloves and a lab coat when preparing the medication. D) Dispose of the antineoplastic wastes in the hazardous waste receptacle.

Ans:D The nurse should use surgical gloves and disposable long-sleeved gowns when administering antineoplastic agents. The antineoplastic wastes are disposed of as hazardous materials. Dosages are not adjusted on a short-term basis. Hand and arm hygiene must be performed before and after administering the medication.

A 14-year-old is brought to the clinic by her mother. The mother explains to the nurse that her daughter has just started using tampons, but is not yet sexually active. The mother states I am very concerned because my daughter is having a lot of stabbing pain and burning. What might the nurse suspect is the problem with the 14-year-old? A) Vulvitis B) Vulvodynia C) V aginitis D) Bartholins cyst

B

A 31-year-old patient has returned to the post-surgical unit following a hysterectomy. The patients care plan addresses the risk of hemorrhage. How should the nurse best monitor the patients postoperative blood loss? A) Have the patient void and have bowel movements using a commode rather than toilet. B) Count and inspect each perineal pad that the patient uses. C) Swab the patients perineum for the presence of blood at least once per shift. D) Leave the patients perineum open to air to facilitate inspection.

B

A middle-aged female patient has been offered testing for HIV/AIDS upon admission to the hospital for an unrelated health problem. The nurse observes that the patient is visibly surprised and embarrassed by this offer. How should the nurse best respond? A) Most women with HIV dont know they have the disease. If you have it, its important we catch it early. B) This testing is offered to every adolescent and adult regardless of their lifestyle, appearance or history. C) The rationale for this testing is so that you can begin treatment as soon as testing comes back, if its positive. D) Youre being offered this testing because you are actually in the prime demographic for HIV infection.

B

A patient comes to the clinic complaining of a tender, inflamed vulva. Testing does not reveal the presence of any known causative microorganism. What aspect of this patients current health status may account for the patients symptoms of vulvitis? A) The patient is morbidly obese. B) The patient has type 1 diabetes. C) The patient has chronic kidney disease. D) The patient has numerous allergies.

B

A patient has been diagnosed with endometriosis. When planning this patients care, the nurse should prioritize what nursing diagnosis? A) Anxiety related to risk of transmission B) Acute pain related to misplaced endometrial tissue C) Ineffective tissue perfusion related to hemorrhage D) Excess fluid volume related to abdominal distention

B

A patient is post-operative day 1 following a vaginal hysterectomy. The nurse notes an increase in the patients abdominal girth and the patient complains of bloating. What is the nurses most appropriate action? A) Provide the patient with an unsweetened, carbonated beverage. B) Apply warm compresses to the patients lower abdomen. C) Provide an ice pack to apply to the perineum and suprapubic region. D) Assist the patient into a prone position.

B

A patient with a genital herpes exacerbation has a nursing diagnosis of acute pain related to the genital lesions. What nursing intervention best addresses this diagnosis? A) Cover the lesions with a topical antibiotic. B) Keep the lesions clean and dry. C) Apply a topical NSAID to the lesions. D) Remain on bed rest until the lesions resolve.

B

A patient with ovarian cancer is admitted to the hospital for surgery and the nurse is completing the patients health history. What clinical manifestation would the nurse expect to assess? A) Fish-like vaginal odor B) Increased abdominal girth C) Fever and chills D) Lower abdominal pelvic pain

B

The nurse is caring for a patient with a diagnosis of vulvar cancer who has returned from the PACU after undergoing a wide excision of the vulva. How should this patients analgesic regimen be best managed? A) Analgesia should be withheld unless the patients pain becomes unbearable. B) Scheduled analgesia should be administered around-the-clock to prevent pain. C) All analgesics should be given on a PRN, rather than scheduled, basis. D) Opioid analgesics should be avoided and NSAIDs exclusively provided.

B

When teaching patients about the risk factors of cervical cancer, what would the nurse identify as the most important risk factor? A) Late childbearing B) Human papillomavirus (HPV) C) Postmenopausal bleeding D) Tobacco use

B

17. The nurse is planning the care of a patient with hyperthyroidism. What should the nurse specify in the patients meal plan? A) A clear liquid diet, high in nutrients B) Small, frequent meals, high in protein and calories C) Three large, bland meals a day D) A diet high in fiber and plant-sourced fat

B Feedback: A patient with hyperthyroidism has an increased appetite. The patient should be counseled to consume several small, well-balanced meals. High-calorie, high-protein foods are encouraged. A clear liquid diet would not satisfy the patients caloric or hunger needs. A diet rich in fiber and fat should be avoided because these foods may lead to GI upset or increase peristalsis.

5. The nurse is caring for a patient with Addisons disease who is scheduled for discharge. When teaching the patient about hormone replacement therapy, the nurse should address what topic? A) The possibility of precipitous weight gain B) The need for lifelong steroid replacement C) The need to match the daily steroid dose to immediate symptoms D) The importance of monitoring liver function

B Feedback: Because of the need for lifelong replacement of adrenal cortex hormones to prevent addisonian crises, the patient and family members receive explicit education about the rationale for replacement therapy and proper dosage. Doses are not adjusted on a short-term basis. Weight gain and hepatotoxicity are not common adverse effects.

15. While assisting with the surgical removal of an adrenal tumor, the OR nurse is aware that the patients vital signs may change upon manipulation of the tumor. What vital sign changes would the nurse expect to see? A) Hyperthermia and tachypnea B) Hypertension and heart rate changes C) Hypotension and hypothermia D) Hyperthermia and bradycardia

B Feedback: Manipulation of the tumor during surgical excision may cause release of stored epinephrine and norepinephrine, with marked increases in BP and changes in heart rate. The use of sodium nitroprusside and alpha-adrenergic blocking agents may be required during and after surgery. While other vital sign changes may occur related to surgical complications, the most common changes are related to hypertension and changes in the heart rate.

39. A patient who has been taking corticosteroids for several months has been experiencing muscle wasting. The patient has asked the nurse for suggestions to address this adverse effect. What should the nurse recommend? A) Activity limitation to conserve energy B) Consumption of a high-protein diet C) Use of OTC vitamin D and calcium supplements D) Passive range-of-motion exercises

B Feedback: Muscle wasting can be partly addressed through increased protein intake. Passive ROM exercises maintain flexibility, but do not build muscle mass. Vitamin D and calcium supplements do not decrease muscle wasting. Activity limitation would exacerbate the problem.

22. The physician has ordered a fluid deprivation test for a patient suspected of having diabetes insipidus. During the test, the nurse should prioritize what assessments? A) Temperature and oxygen saturation B) Heart rate and BP C) Breath sounds and bowel sounds D) Color, warmth, movement, and sensation of extremities

B Feedback: The fluid deprivation test is carried out by withholding fluids for 8 to 12 hours or until 3% to 5% of the body weight is lost. The patients condition needs to be monitored frequently during the test, and the test is terminated if tachycardia, excessive weight loss, or hypotension develops. Consequently, BP and heart rate monitoring are priorities over the other listed assessments.

36. What should the nurse teach a patient on corticosteroid therapy in order to reduce the patients risk of adrenal insufficiency? A) Take the medication late in the day to mimic the bodys natural rhythms. B) Always have enough medication on hand to avoid running out. C) Skip up to 2 doses in cases of illness involving nausea. D) Take up to 1 extra dose per day during times of stress.

B Feedback: The patient and family should be informed that acute adrenal insufficiency and underlying symptoms will recur if corticosteroid therapy is stopped abruptly without medical supervision. The patient should be instructed to have an adequate supply of the corticosteroid medication always available to avoid running out. Doses should not be skipped or added without explicit instructions to do so. Corticosteroids should normally be taken in the morning to mimic natural rhythms.

18. A patient with a diagnosis of syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion (SIADH) is being cared for on the critical care unit. The priority nursing diagnosis for a patient with this condition is what? A) Risk for peripheral neurovascular dysfunction B) Excess fluid volume C) Hypothermia D) Ineffective airway clearance

B Feedback: The priority nursing diagnosis for a patient with SIADH is excess fluid volume, as the patient retains fluids and develops a sodium deficiency. Restricting fluid intake is a typical intervention for managing this syndrome. Temperature imbalances are not associated with SIADH. The patient is not at risk for neurovascular dysfunction or a compromised airway.

26. The nurses assessment of a patient with thyroidectomy suggests tetany and a review of the most recent blood work corroborate this finding. The nurse should prepare to administer what intervention? A) Oral calcium chloride and vitamin D B) IV calcium gluconate C) STAT levothyroxine D) Administration of parathyroid hormone (PTH)

B Feedback: When hypocalcemia and tetany occur after a thyroidectomy, the immediate treatment is administration of IV calcium gluconate. This has a much faster therapeutic effect than PO calcium or vitamin D supplements. PTH and levothyroxine are not used to treat this complication.

1. A nurse is caring for a patient who just has been diagnosed with a peptic ulcer. When teaching the patient about his new diagnosis, how should the nurse best describe a peptic ulcer? A) Inflammation of the lining of the stomach B) Erosion of the lining of the stomach or intestine C) Bleeding from the mucosa in the stomach D) Viral invasion of the stomach wall

B Feedback: A peptic ulcer is erosion of the lining of the stomach or intestine. Peptic ulcers are often accompanied by bleeding and inflammation, but these are not the definitive characteristics.

27. A patient with a history of peptic ulcer disease has presented to the emergency department (ED) in distress. What assessment finding would lead the ED nurse to suspect that the patient has a perforated ulcer? A) The patient has abdominal bloating that developed rapidly. B) The patient has a rigid, "boardlike" abdomen that is tender. C) The patient is experiencing intense lower right quadrant pain. D) The patient is experiencing dizziness and confusion with no apparent hemodynamic changes.

B Feedback: An extremely tender and rigid (boardlike) abdomen is suggestive of a perforated ulcer. None of the other listed signs and symptoms is suggestive of a perforated ulcer.

6. A nurse caring for a patient who has had bariatric surgery is developing a teaching plan in anticipation of the patient's discharge. Which of the following is essential to include? A) Drink a minimum of 12 ounces of fluid with each meal. B) Eat several small meals daily spaced at equal intervals. C) Choose foods that are high in simple carbohydrates. D) Sit upright when eating and for 30 minutes afterward.

B Feedback: Due to decreased stomach capacity, the patient must consume small meals at intervals to meet nutritional requirements while avoiding a feeling of fullness and complications such as dumping syndrome. The patient should not consume fluids with meals and low-Fowler's positioning is recommended during and after meals. Carbohydrates should be limited.

34. A patient has recently received a diagnosis of gastric cancer; the nurse is aware of the importance of assessing the patient's level of anxiety. Which of the following actions is most likely to accomplish this? A) The nurse gauges the patient's response to hypothetical outcomes. B) The patient is encouraged to express fears openly. C) The nurse provides detailed and accurate information about the disease. D) The nurse closely observes the patient's body language.

B Feedback: Encouraging the patient to discuss his or her fears and anxieties is usually the best way to assess a patient's anxiety. Presenting hypothetical situations is a surreptitious and possibly inaccurate way of assessing anxiety. Observing body language is part of assessment, but it is not the complete assessment. Presenting information may alleviate anxiety for some patients, but it is not an assessment.

26. A patient has been admitted to the hospital after diagnostic imaging revealed the presence of a gastric outlet obstruction (GOO). What is the nurse's priority intervention? A) Administration of antiemetics B) Insertion of an NG tube for decompression C) Infusion of hypotonic IV solution D) Administration of proton pump inhibitors as ordered

B Feedback: In treating the patient with gastric outlet obstruction, the first consideration is to insert an NG tube to decompress the stomach. This is a priority over fluid or medication administration.

33. A patient who is obese is exploring bariatric surgery options and presented to a bariatric clinic for preliminary investigation. The nurse interviews the patient, analyzing and documenting the data. Which of the following nursing diagnoses may be a contraindication for bariatric surgery? A) Disturbed Body Image Related to Obesity B) Deficient Knowledge Related to Risks and Expectations of Surgery C) Anxiety Related to Surgery D) Chronic Low Self-Esteem Related to Obesity

B Feedback: It is expected that patients seeking bariatric surgery may have challenges with body image and self-esteem related to their obesity. Anxiety is also expected when facing surgery. However, if the patient's knowledge remains deficient regarding the risks and realistic expectations for surgery, this may show that the patient is not an appropriate surgical candidate.

10. A nurse is assessing a patient who has peptic ulcer disease. The patient requests more information about the typical causes of Helicobacter pylori infection. What would it be appropriate for the nurse to instruct the patient? A) Most affected patients acquired the infection during international travel. B) Infection typically occurs due to ingestion of contaminated food and water. C) Many people possess genetic factors causing a predisposition to H. pylori infection. D) The H. pylori microorganism is endemic in warm, moist climates.

B Feedback: Most peptic ulcers result from infection with the gram-negative bacteria H. pylori, which may be acquired through ingestion of food and water. The organism is endemic to all areas of the United States. Genetic factors have not been identified.

19. A patient comes to the bariatric clinic to obtain information about bariatric surgery. The nurse assesses the obese patient knowing that in addition to meeting the criterion of morbid obesity, a candidate for bariatric surgery must also demonstrate what? A) Knowledge of the causes of obesity and its associated risks B) Adequate understanding of required lifestyle changes C) Positive body image and high self-esteem D) Insight into why past weight loss efforts failed

B Feedback: Patients seeking bariatric surgery should be free of serious mental disorders and motivated to comply with lifestyle changes related to eating patterns, dietary choices, and elimination. While assessment of knowledge about causes of obesity and its associated risks as well as insight into the reasons why previous diets have been ineffective are included in the client's plan of care, these do not predict positive client outcomes following bariatric surgery. Most obese patients have an impaired body image and alteration in self-esteem. An obese patient with a positive body image would be unlikely to seek this surgery unless he or she was experiencing significant comorbidities.

30. A patient has been prescribed orlistat (Xenical) for the treatment of obesity. When providing relevant health education for this patient, the nurse should ensure the patient is aware of what potential adverse effect of treatment? A) Bowel incontinence B) Flatus with oily discharge C) Abdominal pain D) Heat intolerance

B Feedback: Side effects of orlistat include increased frequency of bowel movements, gas with oily discharge, decreased food absorption, decreased bile flow, and decreased absorption of some vitamins. This drug does not cause bowel incontinence, abdominal pain, or heat intolerance.

6. A group of RNs wish to seek union representation that would protect all workers in the agency including nonlicensed assistive personnel and non-nursing employees such as nutritionists and dietary workers. The type of union being sought is the strongest collective group and is known as a(n): a. occupational union. b. industrial union. c. union shop. d. right-to-work bargaining organization.

B An industrial unionism is a single union for all workers in the agency. DIF: Comprehension REF: p. 257

Patients who are enrolled in hospice care through Medicare are often felt to suffer unnecessarily because they do not receive adequate attention for their symptoms of the underlying illness. What factor most contributes to this phenomenon? A) Unwillingness to overmedicate the dying patient B) Rules concerning completion of all cure-focused medical treatment C) Unwillingness of patients and families to acknowledge the patient is terminal D) Lack of knowledge of patients and families regarding availability of care

B Because of Medicare rules concerning completion of all cure-focused medical treatment before the Medicare hospice benefit may be accessed, many patients delay enrollment in hospice programs until very close to the end of life. Hospice care does not include an unwillingness to medicate the patient to keep him or her from suffering. Patients must accept that they are terminal before being admitted to hospice care. Lack of knowledge is common; however, this is not why some Medicare patients do not receive adequate attention for the symptoms of their underlying illness.

10. A concern that nurses were being asked to perform tasks that went beyond the state's nurse practice act was brought to the union's attention. Nurses were informed that either mediation or binding arbitration will be used to resolve the issue. A novice nurse asks about the difference between these techniques and is informed that: a. mediation is sanctioned by the National Labor Relations Board (NLRB) to formally discuss concerns with management and labor. b. binding arbitration is a formal discussion between labor and management in which the arbitrator's recommendations are compulsory. c. mediation uses a trained person to negotiate a legally binding plan. d. binding arbitration requires both labor and management to participate in discussions on the least destructive approach to allow self-governance by employees.

B Binding arbitration requires that both parties meet in formal talks, and all parties must obey the arbitrator's recommendations. DIF: Comprehension REF: p. 257

The nurse is part of the health care team at an oncology center. A patient has been diagnosed with leukemia and the prognosis is poor, but the patient is not yet aware of the prognosis. How can the bad news best be conveyed to the patient? A) Family should be given the prognosis first. B) The prognosis should be delivered with the patient at eye level. C) The physician should deliver the news to the patient alone. D) The appointment should be scheduled at the end of the day.

B Communicating about a life-threatening diagnosis should be done in a team setting at eye level with the patient. The family cannot be notified first because that would breech patient confidentiality. The family may be present at the patient's request. The appointment should be scheduled when principles can all be in attendance and unrushed.

You are caring for a patient, a 42-year-old mother of two children, with a diagnosis of ovarian cancer. She has just been told that her ovarian cancer is terminal. When you admitted this patient, you did a spiritual assessment. What question would it have been most important for you to evaluate during this assessment? A) Is she able to tell her family of negative test results? B) Does she have a sense of peace of mind and a purpose to her life? C) Can she let go of her husband so he can make a new life? D) Does she need time and space to bargain with God for a cure?

B In addition to assessment of the role of religious faith and practices, important religious rituals, and connection to a religious community, you should further explore the presence or absence of a sense of peace of mind and purpose in life; other sources of meaning, hope, and comfort; and spiritual or religious beliefs about illness, medical treatment, and care of the sick. Telling her family and letting her husband go are not parts of a spiritual assessment. Bargaining is a stage of death and dying, not part of a spiritual assessment.

As a staff member in a local hospice, a nurse deals with death and dying on a frequent basis. Where would be the safe venue for the nurse to express her feelings of frustration and grief about a patient who has recently died? A) In the cafeteria B) At a staff meeting C) At a social gathering D) At a memorial service

B In hospice settings, where death, grief, and loss are expected outcomes of patient care, interdisciplinary colleagues rely on each other for support, using meeting time to express frustration, sadness, anger, and other emotions; to learn coping skills from each other; and to speak about how they were affected by the lives of those patients who have died since the last meeting. Public settings are inappropriate places to express frustration about the death of a patient.

A patient's rapid cancer metastases have prompted a shift from active treatment to palliative care. When planning this patient's care, the nurse should identify what primary aim? A) To prioritize emotional needs B) To prevent and relieve suffering C) To bridge between curative care and hospice care D) To provide care while there is still hope

B Palliative care, which is conceptually broader than hospice care, is both an approach to care and a structured system for care delivery that aims to prevent and relieve suffering and to support the best possible quality of life for patients and their families, regardless of the stage of the disease or the need for other therapies. Palliative care goes beyond simple prioritization of emotional needs; these are always considered and addressed. Palliative care is considered a "bridge," but it is not limited to just hospice care. Hope is something patients and families have even while the patient is actively dying.

You are caring for a patient who has just been told that his illness is progressing and nothing more can be done for him. After the physician leaves, the patient asks you to stay with him for a while. The patient becomes tearful and tries several times to say something, but cannot get the words out. What would be an appropriate response for you to make at this time? A) "Can I give you some advice?" B) "Do you need more time to think about this?" C) "Is there anything you want to say?" D) "I have cared for lots of patients in your position. It will get easier."

B Prompt gently: "Do you need more time to think about this?" Giving advice is inappropriate and it is obvious from the scenario that the patient has something to say. Referring to other patients negates the patient's feelings at this time.

As the American population ages, nurses expect see more patients admitted to long-term care facilities in need of palliative care. Regulations now in place that govern how the care in these facilities is both organized and reimbursed emphasize what aspect of care? A) Ongoing acute care B) Restorative measures C) Mobility and socialization D) Incentives to palliative care

B Regulations that govern how care in these facilities is organized and reimbursed tend to emphasize restorative measures and serve as a disincentive to palliative care. Long-term care facilities do not normally provide acute care for their patients. Regulations for long-term care facilities do not primarily emphasize mobility and socialization.

A patient's daughter has asked the nurse about "helping him end his terrible suffering." The nurse is aware of the ANA Position Statement on Assisted Suicide, which clearly states that nursing participation in assisted suicide is a violation of the Code for Nurses. What does the Position Statement further stress? A) Educating families about the moral implications of assisted suicide B) Identifying patient and family concerns and fears C) Identifying resources that meet the patient's desire to die D) Supporting effective means to honor the patient's desire to die

B The ANA Position Statement further stresses the important role of the nurse in supporting effective symptom management, contributing to the creation of environments for care that honor the patient's and family's wishes, as well as identifying their concerns and fears. Discussion of moral implications would normally be beyond the purview of the nurse.

13. A nurse is interested in working in a large trauma center that is unionized but does not want to join the union or pay fees. She accepts the position but is not required to join or pay fees to the union based on which law? a. National Labor Relations Act b. Right-to-work law c. National Labor Relations Act d. Taft-Hartley Act

B The right-to-work law prohibits membership or payment of union dues or "fees" a condition of employment, either before or after hiring. DIF: Comprehension REF: p. 257 | p. 260

A patient has just died following urosepsis that progressed to septic shock. The patient's spouse says, "I knew this was coming, but I feel so numb and hollow inside." The nurse should know that these statements are characteristic of what? A) Complicated grief and mourning B) Uncomplicated grief and mourning C) Depression stage of dying D) Acceptance stage of dying

B Uncomplicated grief and mourning are characterized by emotional feelings of sadness, anger, guilt, and numbness; physical sensations, such as hollowness in the stomach and tightness in the chest, weakness, and lack of energy; cognitions that include preoccupation with the loss and a sense of the deceased as still present; and behaviors such as crying, visiting places that are reminders of the deceased, social withdrawal, and restless overactivity. Complicated grief and mourning occur at a prolonged time after the death. The spouse's statement does not clearly suggest depression or acceptance.

3 The nurse is being trained to perform assessment screenings for abuse on patients who come into the walk-in clinic where the nurse works. Which of the following assessment questions is most appropriate? A) "Would you describe your relationship as healthy and functional?" B) "Have you ever been forced into sexual activity?" C) "Do you make your husband uncontrollably angry?" D) "How is conflict usually handled in your home?"

B) "Have you ever been forced into sexual activity?" Feedback: Asking about abuse directly is effective in identifying the presence of abuse and should be included in the health history of all women. Oblique questions that relate to the character of the relationship or conflict resolution are less useful clinically. Asking about making a partner angry is not an appropriate way to screen for family violence because it does not directly address the problem.

31 The nurse is caring for a couple trying to get pregnant and have not been able to for over a year. The couple asks what kind of problems a man can have that can cause infertility. What should be the nurse's response? A) "Men can have increased prolactin levels that decrease sperm viability." B) "Men can have problems that increase the temperature around their testicles and decrease the quality of their semen." C) "Men may inherit the gene that causes low sperm production." D) "Men may produce sperm that are incompatible with the shape of the egg."

B) "Men can have problems that increase the temperature around their testicles and decrease the quality of their semen." Feedback: Men may be affected by varicoceles, varicose veins around the testicle, which decrease semen quality by increasing testicular temperature. Low prolactin levels may contribute to the problem. Genetic factors are not noted to relate to male infertility. Infertility is not normally linked to sperm that are incompatible with the shape of the egg.

39 A woman's current health complaints are suggestive of a diagnosis of premenstrual dysphoric disorder (PMDD). The nurse should first do which of the following? A) Assess the patient's understanding of HT. B) Assess the patient for risk of suicide. C) Assure the patient that the problem is self-limiting. D) Suggest the use of St. John's wort.

B) Assess the patient for risk of suicide. Feedback: If the patient has severe symptoms of PMS or PMDD, the nurse assesses her for suicidal, uncontrollable, and violent behavior. The problem can escalate and is not necessarily self-limiting. HT is not a relevant intervention and the nurse should not recommend herbal supplements without input from the primary care provider.

Which may help a person to overcome an eating disorder that causes weight gain? A) Being ashamed of his or her body image B) Believing that gaining weight is a side effect of unhealthy lifestyle behaviors and losing weight is a side effect of healthy lifestyle behaviors C) Being reminded that every morsel of food he or she consumes will make him or her fat D) Knowing that his or her current weight is abnormal

B) Believing that gaining weight is a side effect of unhealthy lifestyle behaviors and losing weight is a side effect of healthy lifestyle behaviors Cognitive-behavioral therapy has been found to be the most effective treatment for bulimia. Strategies designed to change the client's thinking (cognition) and actions (behavior) about food focus on interrupting the cycle of dieting, binging, and purging and altering dysfunctional thoughts and beliefs about food, weight, body image, and overall self-concept. All of the other statements are factors that may reinforce the continuing cycle of an eating disorder.

Which eating disorder is characterized by consuming an amount of food much larger than a person would normally eat and of near-normal weight? Afterward, the client may purge the food or exercise excessively, and between binges, the client may eat low- calorie foods or fast. A) Anorexia nervosa B) Bulimia nervosa C) Pica D) Rumination

B) Bulimia nervosa Bulimia nervosa, often simply called bulimia, is an eating disorder characterized by recurrent episodes of binge eating followed by inappropriate compensatory behaviors to avoid weight gain, such as purging, fasting, or excessively exercising. The amount of food consumed during a binge episode is much larger than a person would normally eat. Between binges, the client may eat low-calorie foods or fast. Anorexia nervosa is a life- threatening eating disorder characterized by the client's refusal or inability to maintain a minimally normal body weight, intense fear of gaining weight or becoming fat, significantly disturbed perception of the shape or size of the body, and steadfast inability or refusal to acknowledge the seriousness of the problem or even that one exists. The weight of clients with bulimia usually is in the normal range. Pica is persistent ingestion of nonfood substances. Rumination is repeated regurgitation of food that is then rechewed, reswallowed, or spit out.

What is the primary difference between anorexia nervosa and bulimia nervosa? A) Anorexia has a psychological basis, whereas the cause of bulimia is biologic. B) Clients who are anorexic are proud of their control over eating, and clients with bulimia are ashamed of their behavior. C) Bulimia can be life threatening, whereas anorexia is seldom so. D) There is no real difference between these two types of disorders.

B) Clients who are anorexic are proud of their control over eating, and clients with bulimia are ashamed of their behavior. Clients with bulimia know their behavior is pathologic and are ashamed of it; clients with anorexia think they are fine and see no problem with their weight-control efforts. Anorexia nervosa is a life-threatening eating disorder. Studies of anorexia nervosa and bulimia nervosa have shown that these disorders tend to run in families.

When working with the family of a client with anorexia nervosa, which of the following issues must be addressed? A) Co-dependence B) Control issues C) Self-discipline D) Sexual identity

B) Control issues Clients with anorexia often believe the only control they have is over their eating and weight; all other aspects of their life are controlled by their family. Codependence, self- discipline, and sexual identity are not pertinent issues to address with the family.

Which nursing diagnosis would be most difficult to successfully resolve in a client who had anorexia nervosa? A) Imbalanced nutrition less than body requirements B) Disturbed body image C) Deficient knowledge (nutritious eating patterns) D) Social isolation

B) Disturbed body image The client's dissatisfaction with body image is an enduring belief pattern that is firmly ingrained and, therefore, very difficult to change. Imbalanced nutrition less than body requirements, deficient knowledge (nutritious eating patterns), and social isolation are nursing diagnoses that can be worked through with education and support more easily than the diagnosis of disturbed body image.

4 A premenopausal patient is complaining of vaginal spotting and sharp, colicky lower abdominal pain. She informs the nurse that her period is 2 weeks late. The nurse should recognize a need for this patient to be investigated for what health problem? A) Trichomonas vaginalis B) Ectopic pregnancy C) Cervical cancer D) Fibromyalgia

B) Ectopic pregnancy Feedback: Clinical symptoms of an ectopic pregnancy include delay in menstruation of 1 to 2 weeks, vaginal spotting, and sharp, colicky pain. Trichomonas vaginalis causes a vaginal infection. Cervical cancer and fibromyalgia do not affect menstruation.

The nurse is teaching the family of a client who has bulimia about nutritional needs. Which dietary pattern would be most helpful to assist the client in recovering from bulimia? A) Provide the client a diet of mainly vegetables and salads. B) Encourage the entire family to engage in a balanced and regular dietary pattern. C) Encourage autonomy by allowing the client to have total control over food choices. D) Insist that the client complete all meals provided.

B) Encourage the entire family to engage in a balanced and regular dietary pattern. The nurse provides extensive teaching about basic nutritional needs and the effects of restrictive eating, dieting, and the binge and purge cycle. Clients need encouragement to set realistic goals for eating throughout the day. Eating only salads and vegetables during the day may set up clients for later binges as a result of too little dietary fat and carbohydrates. The client with an eating disorder will not make healthy food choices independently. It is also not possible for family and friends to force the client to eat.

17 A newly pregnant patient is being assessed in an obstetric clinic. The patient states that she has been experiencing intense abdominal pain and the nurse anticipates that the patient will be assessed for ectopic pregnancy. In addition to ultrasonography, what diagnostic test should the nurse anticipate? A) Computed tomography B) Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) testing C) Estrogen and progesterone testing D) Abdominal x-ray

B) Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) testing Feedback: If an ectopic pregnancy is suspected, the patient is assessed using ultrasound and hCG testing. CT and x-rays are contraindicated during pregnancy and estrogen and progesterone levels are not diagnostic of ectopic pregnancy.

The nurse has been teaching a client about bulimia. Which statement by the client indicates that the teaching has been effective? A) ìI know if I eat pasta, I'll binge. B) ìI'll eat small meals and snacks regularly. C) ìI'll take my medication when I feel the urge to binge. D) ìI'll limit my intake of carbohydrates and fats.

B) I'll eat small meals and snacks regularly. Teaching is effective when the client recognizes the need to return to nutritious eating patterns. Answer choices A, C, and D would not be appropriate responses to teaching regarding bulimia nervosa.

7 A nurse presenting an educational event for a local community group is addressing premenstrual syndrome (PMS). What treatment guideline should the nurse teach this group? A) Avoid excessive fluid intake. B) Increase the frequency and intensity of exercise. C) Limit psychosocial stressors in order to reduce symptoms. D) Take opioid analgesics as ordered.

B) Increase the frequency and intensity of exercise. Feedback: In general, the patient is encouraged to increase or initiate an exercise program to help relieve symptoms of PMS. Fluid intake should be increased. Opioids are not used to treat PMS. Stress reduction has multiple benefits, but it is not noted to alleviate the symptoms of PMS.

The nurse is assessing a client with bulimia nervosa. Which of the following symptoms would the nurse expect to find? Select all that apply. A) Cold intolerance B) Normal weight for height C) Dental erosion D) Hypotension E) Metabolic alkalosis

B) Normal weight for height C) Dental erosion E) Metabolic alkalosis The weight of clients with bulimia usually is in the normal range, although some clients are overweight or underweight. Recurrent vomiting destroys tooth enamel, and incidence of dental caries and ragged or chipped teeth increases in these clients. Metabolic alkalosis often results from vomiting. Cold intolerance and hypotension are symptoms associated with emaciation seen in anorexia nervosa.

Which nursing intervention would be most likely to help the client with anorexia to establish healthy eating patterns? A) Leave the client alone to relax during meals. B) Offer liquid protein supplements if the client is unable to complete meal. C) Observe the client for 30 minutes after all meals. D) Weigh the client weekly in the same clothing at the same time of day.

B) Offer liquid protein supplements if the client is unable to complete meal. Nursing interventions designed to establish nutritional eating patterns include sitting with the client during meals and snacks, giving a liquid protein supplement to replace any food not eaten to ensure consumption of the total number of prescribed calories, adhering to treatment program guidelines regarding restrictions, observing the client following meals and snacks for 1 to 2 hours, weighing client daily in uniform clothing, and being alert for attempts to hide or discard food or inflate weight.

When documenting the mental status exam findings in the chart of a client with anorexia, the nurse notes poor judgment and insight. Which client statement would support this impression? A) ìI know I have a problem. I need help.î B) ìOthers are just trying to keep me from looking good.î C) ìI know my weight is a little below normal.î D) ìThose weight charts are for normal people. I am not normal.

B) Others are just trying to keep me from looking good. Clients with anorexia have very limited insight and poor judgment about their health status. They do not believe they have a problem; rather, they believe others are trying to interfere with their ability to lose weight and to achieve the desired body image. Facts about failing health status are not enough to convince these clients of their true problems.

Which of the following might the nurse recognize as longer-term responses to trauma and stress? Select all that apply. A) Acute stress disorder B) Posttraumatic stress disorder C) Adjustment disorder D) Reactive attachment disorder E) Dissociative disorder

B) Posttraumatic stress disorder C) Adjustment disorder D) Reactive attachment disorder E) Dissociative disorder Feedback: Acute stress disorder usually occurs from 2 days to 4 weeks after a trauma. Posttraumatic stress disorder usually begins 3 months after the trauma. All of the rest of these are longer-term responses to trauma and stress.

Which of the following would the nurse know are the major elements of posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD)? Select all that apply. A) Trying to avoid any places or people or situations that may trigger memories of the trauma B) Reexperiencing the trauma through dreams or recurrent and intrusive thoughts C) Becoming increasingly more isolated D) Emotional numbing such as feeling detached from others E) Being on guard, irritable, or experiencing hyperarousal

B) Reexperiencing the trauma through dreams or recurrent and intrusive thoughts D) Emotional numbing such as feeling detached from others E) Being on guard, irritable, or experiencing hyperarousal Feedback: The three major elements of PTSD are reexperiencing the trauma through dreams or recurrent and intrusive thoughts, showing emotional numbing such as feeling detached from others, and being on guard, irritable, or experiencing hyperarousal. The client may also experience a numbing of general responsiveness and may try to avoid any places or people or situations that may trigger memories of the trauma, but these are not the major elements of PTSD.

Which of the following statements regarding the individual responses to trauma and stressors is a positive outcome? A) Many individuals are unable to cope with the event, manage their stress and emotions, or resume the daily activities of their lives. B) Some individuals may develop enhanced coping as a result of dealing with the stressor. C) These events are only significant in individuals who have risk for or actual mental health problems or issues. D) Large numbers or groups of people may be affected by a traumatic event.

B) Some individuals may develop enhanced coping as a result of dealing with the stressor. Feedback: People may experience events in their lives that are extraordinary in intensity or severity, well beyond the stress of daily life. These traumatic events or stressors would be expected to disrupt the life of anyone who experienced them, not just individuals at risk for mental health problems or issues. These events and stressors may affect individuals or large numbers and groups of people. While all persons experiencing events such as these manifest anxiety, insomnia, difficulty coping, grief, or any variety of responses, most work through the experience and return to their usual level of coping and equilibrium—perhaps even enhanced coping as a result of dealing with the event.

A 16-year-old female with anorexia nervosa is admitted to the unit. Which is the most appropriate short-term outcome? A) The client will accept herself as having value and worth. B) The client will admit she has a fear of gaining weight. C) The client will follow a nutritionally balanced diet for her age. D) The client will identify her problems and potential alternative coping strategies.

B) The client will admit she has a fear of gaining weight. Admitting her fears is an initial step in recovery. Accepting herself as having value and worth, following a nutritionally balanced diet, and identifying problems and potential alternative coping strategies are examples of long-term outcomes.

Which of the following outcomes would take priority for a client who has survived trauma or abuse? Select all that apply. A) The client will demonstrate healthy, effective ways of dealing with the stress. B) The client will be physically safe. C) The client will establish a social support system in the community. D) The client will distinguish between ideas of self-harm and taking action on those ideas. E) The client will express emotions nondestructively.

B) The client will be physically safe. D) The client will distinguish between ideas of self-harm and taking action on those ideas. Feedback: It is the highest priority that the client be physically safe. Because persons who have survived trauma or abuse may have thoughts of self-harm, it is also critical that the client will distinguish between ideas of self-harm and taking action on those ideas. The other objectives are not as high a priority as safety and ideas of self-harm.

9 A new patient has come to the clinic seeking an appropriate method of birth control. What would the nurse teach this patient about a diaphragm? A) One size fits all females. B) The diaphragm may be cleaned with soap and water after use. C) A diaphragm eliminates the need for spermicidal jelly. D) The diaphragm should be removed 1 hour following intercourse.

B) The diaphragm may be cleaned with soap and water after use. Feedback: The diaphragm may be cleaned with soap and water after use. It must be left in 6 hours after intercourse and should be used with spermicidal jelly. There are different sizes of diaphragms and the patient needs to be fitted by the health care practitioner.

6 A patient calls the clinic and tells the nurse she has thick white, curd-like discharge from her vagina. How should the nurse best interpret this preliminary data? A) The drainage is physiologic and normal. B) The patient may have a Candida species infection. C) The patient needs a Pap smear as soon as possible. D) The patient may have a Trichomonas infection.

B) The patient may have a Candida species infection. Feedback: Drainage caused by Candida is typically curd-like and white. Trichomonas infections usually cause copious, frothy yellowish-green discharge. There is no immediate need for a Pap smear, as malignancy is an unlikely cause.

The nurse has been teaching the client's family about the client's eating disorder, anorexia nervosa. Which statement would indicate that teaching was effective? A) ìWe will eat our evening meals together with no exceptions.î B) ìWe will negotiate resolutions to family conflicts.î C) ìWe will spend less time discussing troublesome family members.î D) ìWe will give her frequent encouragement for eating well and maintaining her weight.

B) ìWe will negotiate resolutions to family conflicts. Families of clients with eating disorders typically put too much emphasis on food and are less skilled at discussing family conflicts and allowing the client to begin gaining independence. ìWe will eat our evening meals together with no exception,î allows little or no compromise; the client needs to be able to make decisions for him or herself. ìWe will spend less time discussing troublesome family members,î indicates that the client is a problem to the family. ìWe will give her frequent encouragement for eating well and maintaining her weightî indicates that family members can express concern about the client's health, but it is rarely helpful to focus on food intake, calories, and weight.

23. A nurse is providing care for a patient who is postoperative day 2 following gastric surgery. The nurse's assessment should be planned in light of the possibility of what potential complications? Select all that apply. A) Malignant hyperthermia B) Atelectasis C) Pneumonia D) Metabolic imbalances E) Chronic gastritis

B, C, D Feedback: After surgery, the nurse assesses the patient for complications secondary to the surgical intervention, such as pneumonia, atelectasis, or metabolic imbalances resulting from the GI disruption. Malignant hyperthermia is an intraoperative complication. Chronic gastritis is not a surgical complication.

A 67-year-old woman experienced the death of her husband from a sudden myocardial infarction 5 weeks ago. The nurse recognizes that the woman will be going through the process of mourning for an extended period of time. What processes of mourning will allow the woman to accommodate the loss in a healthy way? Select all that apply. A) Reiterating her anger at her husband's care team B) Reinvesting in new relationships at the appropriate time C) Reminiscing about the relationship she had with her husband D) Relinquishing old attachments to her husband at the appropriate time E) Renewing her lifelong commitment to her husband

B, C, D Six key processes of mourning allow people to accommodate to the loss in a healthy way: 1.) Recognition of the loss 2.) Reaction to the separation, and experiencing and expressing the pain of the loss 3.) Recollection and re-experiencing the deceased, the relationship, and the associated feelings 4.) Relinquishing old attachments to the deceased 5.) Readjustment to adapt to the new world without forgetting the old 6.) Reinvestment Reiterating her anger and renewing her lifelong commitment may be counterproductive to the mourning process.

24 A 36-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of premenstrual syndrome (PMS) that is disrupting her quality of life. What signs and symptoms are associated with this health problem? Select all that apply. A) Loss of appetite B) Breast tenderness C) Depression D) Fluid retention E) Headache

B, C, D, E Feedback: Physiologic symptoms of PMS include headache, breast tenderness, and fluid retention as well as affective symptoms, such as depression. Loss of appetite is not noted to be among the most common symptoms.

37. The nurse is caring for a patient at risk for an addisonian crisis. For what associated signs and symptoms should the nurse monitor the patient? Select all that apply. A) Epistaxis B) Pallor C) Rapid respiratory rate D) Bounding pulse E) Hypotension

B, C, E Feedback: The patient at risk is monitored for signs and symptoms indicative of addisonian crisis, which can include shock; hypotension; rapid, weak pulse; rapid respiratory rate; pallor; and extreme weakness. Epistaxis and a bounding pulse are not symptoms or signs of an addisonian crisis.

15. A hospital is seeking a 2.5% wage reduction for all nurses as part of a new balanced budget plan; however, the plan provides for raises for upper-level management. This plan resulted in a call for a union to protect the nurses. When the union representative arrives, what questions should the nurses ask? (select all that apply) a. Will the dues be used to support charity care when clients are unable to pay? b. How effective has the union been in representing nurses' best interest? c. What percent of dues pays union personnel salaries? d. Are dues used to promote research for terminally ill clients? e. If arbitration is unsuccessful and a strike occurs, will nurses receive compensation during the strike?

B, C, E Laborers (staff nurses) want a union with a successful track record of improving wages and benefits. Union dues are used to support union personnel, and the amount varies among different union groups; the higher the percentage of money that goes to pay union personnel salaries, the less money will be available to support members. Employers are not obligated to pay laborers during a strike, and unions may choose to pay employees while striking. DIF: Application REF: p. 263, Box 14-1

25. A patient has been admitted to the critical care unit with a diagnosis of thyroid storm. What interventions should the nurse include in this patients immediate care? Select all that apply. A) Administering diuretics to prevent fluid overload B) Administering beta blockers to reduce heart rate C) Administering insulin to reduce blood glucose levels D) Applying interventions to reduce the patients temperature E) Administering corticosteroids

B, D Feedback: Thyroid storm necessitates interventions to reduce heart rate and temperature. Diuretics, insulin, and steroids are not indicated to address the manifestations of this health problem.

A patient has been admitted to the critical care unit with a diagnosis of toxic hepatitis. When planning the patient's care, the nurse should be aware of what potential clinical course of this health problem? Place the following events in the correct sequence. 1. Fever rises 2. Hematemesis 3. Clotting abnormalities 4. Vascular collapse 5. Coma A. 1,2,5,4,3 B. 1,2,3,4,5 C. 2,3,1,4,5 D. 3,1,2,5,4

B. 1,2,3,4,5 Rationale: Recovery from acute toxic hepatitis is rapid if the hepatotoxin is identified early and removed or if exposure to the agent has been limited. Recovery is unlikely if there is a prolonged period between exposure and onset of symptoms. There are no effective antidotes. The fever rises; the patient becomes toxic and prostrated. Vomiting may be persistent, with the emesis containing blood. Clotting abnormalities may be severe, and hemorrhages may appear under the skin. The severe GI symptoms may lead to vascular collapse. Delirium, coma, and seizures develop, and within a few days the patient may die of fulminant hepatic failure unless he or she receives a liver transplant.

A patient with a history of injection drug use has been diagnosed with Hepatitis C. When collaborating with the care team to plan this patient's treatment, the nurse should anticipate what intervention? A. Administration of immune globulins B. A regimen of antiviral medications C. Rest and watchful waiting D. Administration of fresh-frozen plasma (FFP)

B. A regimen of antiviral medications Rationale: There is no benefit from rest, diet, or vitamin supplements in HCV treatment. Studies have demonstrated that a combination of two antiviral agents, Peg-interferon and ribavirin (Rebetol), is effective in producing improvement in patients with hepatitis C and in treating relapses. Immune globulins and FFP are not indicated.

A patient has been diagnosed with advanced stage breast cancer and will soon begin aggressive treatment. What assessment findings would most strongly suggest that the patient may have developed liver metastases? A. Persistent fever and cognitive changes B. Abdominal pain and hepatomegaly C. Peripheral edema unresponsive to diuresis D. Spontaneous bleeding and jaundice

B. Abdominal pain and hepatomegaly Rationale: The early manifestations of malignancy of the liver include pain, a continuous dull ache in the right upper quadrant, epigastrium, or back. Weight loss, loss of strength, anorexia, and anemia may also occur. The liver may be enlarged and irregular on palpation. Jaundice is present only if the larger bile ducts are occluded by the pressure of malignant nodules in the hilum of the liver. Fever, cognitive changes, peripheral edema, and bleeding are atypical signs.

A participant in a health fair has asked the nurse about the role of drugs in liver disease. What health promotion teaching has the most potential to prevent drug-induced hepatitis? A. Finish all prescribed courses of antibiotics, regardless of symptoms resolution. B. Adhere to dosing recommendations of OTC analgesics. C. Ensure that expired medications are disposed of safely. D. Ensure that pharmacists regularly review drug regimens for potential interactions.

B. Adhere to dosing recommendations of OTC analgesics. Rationale: Although any medication can affect liver function, use of acetaminophen (found in many OTC medications used to treat fever and pain) has been identified as the leading cause of acute liver failure. Finishing prescribed antibiotics and avoiding expired medications are unrelated to this disease. Drug interactions are rarely the cause of drug-induced hepatitis.

A nurse is caring for a patient who has been admitted for the treatment of advanced cirrhosis. What assessment should the nurse prioritize in this patient's plan of care? A. Measurement of abdominal girth and body weight B. Assessment for variceal bleeding C. Assessment for signs and symptoms of jaundice D. Monitoring of results of liver function testing

B. Assessment of variceal bleeding Rationale: Esophageal varices are a major cause of mortality in patients with uncompensated cirrhosis. Consequently, this should be a focus of the nurse's assessments and should be prioritized over the other listed assessments, even though each should be performed.

A patient with cirrhosis has experienced a progressive decline in his health; and liver transplantation is being considered by the interdisciplinary team. How will the patient's prioritization for receiving a donor liver be determined? A. By considering that patient's age and prognosis B. By objectively determining the patient's medical need C. By objectively assessing the patient's willingness to adhere to post-transplantation care D. By systematically ruling out alternative treatment options

B. By objectively determining the patient's medical need Rationale: The patient would undergo a classification of the degree of medical need through an objective determination known as the Model of End-Stage Liver Disease (MELD) classification, which stratifies the level of illness of those awaiting a liver transplant. This algorithm considers multiple variables, not solely age, prognosis, potential for adherence and the rejection of alternative options.

A patient with a diagnosis of esophageal varices has undergone endoscopy to gauge the progression of this complication of liver disease. Following the completion of this diagnostic test, what nursing intervention should the nurse perform? A. Keep patient NPO until the results of test are known B. Keep patient NPO until the patient's gag reflex returns C. Administer analgesia until post-procedure tenderness is relieved D. Give the patient a cold beverage to promote swallowing ability

B. Keep patient NPO until the patient's gag reflex returns Rationale: After the examination, fluids are not given until the patient's gag reflex returns. Lozenges and gargles may be used to relieve throat discomfort if the patient's physical condition and mental status permit. The result of the test is known immediately. Food and fluids are contraindicated until the gag reflex returns.

A nurse is caring for a patient with a blocked bile duct from a tumor. What manifestation of obstructive jaundice should the nurse anticipate? A. Watery, blood-streaked diarrhea B. Orange and foamy urine C. Increased abdominal girth D. Decreased cognition

B. Orange and foamy urine Rationale: If the bile duct is obstructed, the bile will be reabsorbed into the blood and carried throughout the entire body. It is excreted in the urine, which becomes deep orange and foamy. Bloody diarrhea, ascites, and cognitive changes are not associated with obstructive jaundice.

A nurse is caring for a patient with cirrhosis secondary to heavy alcohol use. The nurse's most recent assessment reveals subtle changes in the patient's cognition and behavior. What is the nurse's most appropriate response? A. Ensure that the patient's sodium intake does not exceed recommended levels B. Report this finding to the primary care provider due to the possibility of hepatic encephalopathy C. Inform the primary care provider that the patient should be assessed for alcoholic hepatitis. D. Implement interventions aimed at ensuring a calm and therapeutic care environment.

B. Report this finding to the primary care provider due to the possibility of hepatic encephalopathy Rationale: Monitoring is an essential nursing function to identify early deterioration in mental status. The nurse monitors the patient's mental status closely and reports changes so that treatment of encephalopathy can be initiated promptly. This change in status is likely unrelated to sodium intake and would not signal the onset of hepatitis. A supportive care environment is beneficial, but does not address the patient's physiologic deterioration.

A 30-year-old patient has come to the clinic for her yearly examination. The patient asks the nurse about ovarian cancer. What should the nurse state when describing risk factors for ovarian cancer? A) Use of oral contraceptives increases the risk of ovarian cancer. B) Most cases of ovarian cancer are attributed to tobacco use. C) Most cases of ovarian cancer are considered to be random, with no obvious causation. D) The majority of women who get ovarian cancer have a family history of the disease.

C

A 45-year-old woman has just undergone a radical hysterectomy for invasive cervical cancer. Prior to the surgery the physician explained to the patient that after the surgery a source of radiation would be placed near the tumor site to aid in reducing recurrence. What is the placement of the source of radiation called? A) Internal beam radiation B) Trachelectomy C) Brachytherapy D) External radiation

C

A patient diagnosed with cervical cancer will soon begin a round of radiation therapy. When planning the patients subsequent care, the nurse should prioritize actions with what goal? A) Preventing hemorrhage B) Ensuring the patient knows the treatment is palliative, not curative C) Protecting the safety of the patient, family, and staff D) Ensuring that the patient adheres to dietary restrictions during treatment

C

A patient has been diagnosed with polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS). The nurse should encourage what health promotion activity to address the patients hormone imbalance and infertility? A) Kegel exercises B) Increased fluid intake C) Weight loss D) Topical antibiotics as ordered

C

A patient has returned to the post-surgical unit after vulvar surgery. What intervention should the nurse prioritize during the initial postoperative period? A) Placing the patient in high Fowlers position B) Administering sitz baths every 4 hours C) Monitoring the integrity of the surgical site D) Avoiding analgesics unless the patients pain is unbearable

C

A patient is being discharged home after a hysterectomy. When providing discharge education for this patient, the nurse has cautioned the patient against sitting for long periods. This advice addresses the patients risk of what surgical complication? A) Pudendal nerve damage B) Fatigue C) Venous thromboembolism D) Hemorrhage

C

A student nurse is caring for a patient who has undergone a wide excision of the vulva. The student should know that what action is contraindicated in the immediate postoperative period? A) Placing patient in low Fowlers position B) Application of compression stockings C) Ambulation to a chair D) Provision of a low-residue diet

C

The nurse is planning health education for a patient who has experienced a vaginal infection. What guidelines should the nurse include in this program regarding prevention? A) Wear tight-fitting synthetic underwear. B) Use bubble bath to eradicate perineal bacteria. C) Avoid feminine hygiene products, such as sprays. D) Restrict daily bathing.

C

When reviewing the electronic health record of a female patient, the nurse reads that the patient has a history of adenomyosis. The nurse should be aware that this patient experiences symptoms resulting from what pathophysiologic process? A) Loss of muscle tone in the vaginal wall B) Excessive synthesis and release of unopposed estrogen C) Invasion of the uterine wall by endometrial tissue D) Proliferation of tumors in the uterine wall

C

While taking a health history on a 20-year-old female patient, the nurse ascertains that this patient is taking miconazole (Monistat). The nurse is justified in presuming that this patient has what medical condition? A) Bacterial vaginosis B) Human papillomavirus (HPV) C) Candidiasis D) Toxic shock syndrome (TSS)

C

20. The nurse is assessing a patient diagnosed with Graves disease. What physical characteristics of Graves disease would the nurse expect to find? A) Hair loss B) Moon face C) Bulging eyes D) Fatigue

C Feedback: Clinical manifestations of the endocrine disorder Graves disease include exophthalmos (bulging eyes) and fine tremor in the hands. Graves disease is not associated with hair loss, a moon face, or fatigue.

29. A 30 year-old female patient has been diagnosed with Cushing syndrome. What psychosocial nursing diagnosis should the nurse most likely prioritize when planning the patients care? A) Decisional conflict related to treatment options B) Spiritual distress related to changes in cognitive function C) Disturbed body image related to changes in physical appearance D) Powerlessness related to disease progression

C Feedback: Cushing syndrome causes characteristic physical changes that are likely to result in disturbed body image. Decisional conflict and powerless may exist, but disturbed body image is more likely to be present. Cognitive changes take place in patients with Cushing syndrome, but these may or may not cause spiritual distress.

9. The nurse caring for a patient with Cushing syndrome is describing the dexamethasone suppression test scheduled for tomorrow. What does the nurse explain that this test will involve? A) Administration of dexamethasone orally, followed by a plasma cortisol level every hour for 3 hours B) Administration of dexamethasone IV, followed by an x-ray of the adrenal glands C) Administration of dexamethasone orally at 11 PM, and a plasma cortisol level at 8 AM the next morning D) Administration of dexamethasone intravenously, followed by a plasma cortisol level 3 hours after the drug is administered

C Feedback: Dexamethasone (1 mg) is administered orally at 11 PM, and a plasma cortisol level is obtained at 8 AM the next morning. This test can be performed on an outpatient basis and is the most widely used and sensitive screening test for diagnosis of pituitary and adrenal causes of Cushing syndrome.

16. A patient has returned to the floor after having a thyroidectomy for thyroid cancer. The nurse knows that sometimes during thyroid surgery the parathyroid glands can be injured or removed. What laboratory finding may be an early indication of parathyroid gland injury or removal? A) Hyponatremia B) Hypophosphatemia C) Hypocalcemia D) Hypokalemia

C Feedback: Injury or removal of the parathyroid glands may produce a disturbance in calcium metabolism and result in a decline of calcium levels (hypocalcemia). As the blood calcium levels fall, hyperirritability of the nerves occurs, with spasms of the hands and feet and muscle twitching. This group of symptoms is known as tetany and must be reported to the physician immediately, because laryngospasm may occur and obstruct the airway. Hypophosphatemia, hyponatremia, and hypokalemia are not expected responses to parathyroid injury or removal. In fact, parathyroid removal or injury that results in hypocalcemia may lead to hyperphosphatemia.

4. The nurse is caring for a patient with a diagnosis of Addisons disease. What sign or symptom is most closely associated with this health problem? A) Truncal obesity B) Hypertension C) Muscle weakness D) Moon face

C Feedback: Patients with Addisons disease demonstrate muscular weakness, anorexia, gastrointestinal symptoms, fatigue, emaciation, dark pigmentation of the skin, and hypotension. Patients with Cushing syndrome demonstrate truncal obesity, moon face, acne, abdominal striae, and hypertension.

8. A nurse caring for a patient with diabetes insipidus is reviewing laboratory results. What is an expected urinalysis finding? A) Glucose in the urine B) Albumin in the urine C) Highly dilute urine D) Leukocytes in the urine

C Feedback: Patients with diabetes insipidus produce an enormous daily output of very dilute, water-like urine with a specific gravity of 1.001 to 1.005. The urine contains no abnormal substances such as glucose or albumin. Leukocytes in the urine are not related to the condition of diabetes insipidus, but would indicate a urinary tract infection, if present in the urine.

6. The nurse is teaching a patient that the body needs iodine for the thyroid to function. What food would be the best source of iodine for the body? A) Eggs B) Shellfish C) Table salt D) Red meat

C Feedback: The major use of iodine in the body is by the thyroid. Iodized table salt is the best source of iodine.

7. A patient is prescribed corticosteroid therapy. What would be priority information for the nurse to give the patient who is prescribed long-term corticosteroid therapy? A) The patients diet should be low protein with ample fat. B) The patient may experience short-term changes in cognition. C) The patient is at an increased risk for developing infection. D) The patient is at a decreased risk for development of thrombophlebitis and thromboembolism.

C Feedback: The patient is at increased risk of infection and masking of signs of infection. The cardiovascular effects of corticosteroid therapy may result in development of thrombophlebitis or thromboembolism. Diet should be high in protein with limited fat. Changes in appearance usually disappear when therapy is no longer necessary. Cognitive changes are not common adverse effects.

2. A patient has been admitted to the post-surgical unit following a thyroidectomy. To promote comfort and safety, how should the nurse best position the patient? A) Side-lying (lateral) with one pillow under the head B) Head of the bed elevated 30 degrees and no pillows placed under the head C) Semi-Fowlers with the head supported on two pillows D) Supine, with a small roll supporting the neck

C Feedback: When moving and turning the patient, the nurse carefully supports the patients head and avoids tension on the sutures. The most comfortable position is the semi-Fowlers position, with the head elevated and supported by pillows.

5. A nurse is preparing to discharge a patient after recovery from gastric surgery. What is an appropriate discharge outcome for this patient? A) The patient's bowel movements maintain a loose consistency. B) The patient is able to tolerate three large meals a day. C) The patient maintains or gains weight. D) The patient consumes a diet high in calcium.

C Feedback: Expected outcomes for the patient following gastric surgery include ensuring that the patient is maintaining or gaining weight (patient should be weighed daily), experiencing no excessive diarrhea, and tolerating six small meals a day. Patients may require vitamin B12 supplementation by the intramuscular route and do not require a diet excessively rich in calcium.

17. A patient is receiving education about his upcoming Billroth I procedure (gastroduodenostomy). This patient should be informed that he may experience which of the following adverse effects associated with this procedure? A) Persistent feelings of hunger and thirst B) Constipation or bowel incontinence C) Diarrhea and feelings of fullness D) Gastric reflux and belching

C Feedback: Following a Billroth I, the patient may have problems with feelings of fullness, dumping syndrome, and diarrhea. Hunger and thirst, constipation, and gastric reflux are not adverse effects associated with this procedure.

20. A nurse is providing patient education for a patient with peptic ulcer disease secondary to chronic nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) use. The patient has recently been prescribed misoprostol (Cytotec). What would the nurse be most accurate in informing the patient about the drug? A) It reduces the stomach's volume of hydrochloric acid B) It increases the speed of gastric emptying C) It protects the stomach's lining D) It increases lower esophageal sphincter pressure

C Feedback: Misoprostol is a synthetic prostaglandin that, like prostaglandin, protects the gastric mucosa. NSAIDs decrease prostaglandin production and predispose the patient to peptic ulceration. Misoprostol does not reduce gastric acidity, improve emptying of the stomach, or increase lower esophageal sphincter pressure.

7. A nurse is completing a health history on a patient whose diagnosis is chronic gastritis. Which of the data should the nurse consider most significantly related to the etiology of the patient's health problem? A) Consumes one or more protein drinks daily. B) Takes over-the-counter antacids frequently throughout the day. C) Smokes one pack of cigarettes daily. D) Reports a history of social drinking on a weekly basis.

C Feedback: Nicotine reduces secretion of pancreatic bicarbonate, which inhibits neutralization of gastric acid and can underlie gastritis. Protein drinks do not result in gastric inflammation. Antacid use is a response to experiencing symptoms of gastritis, not the etiology of gastritis. Alcohol ingestion can lead to gastritis; however, this generally occurs in patients with a history of consumption of alcohol on a daily basis.

21. A nurse is providing anticipator guidance to a patient who is preparing for bariatric surgery. The nurse learns that the patient is anxious about numerous aspects of the surgery. What intervention is most appropriate to alleviate the patient's anxiety? A) Emphasize the fact that bariatric surgery has a low risk of complications. B) Encourage the patient to focus on the benefits of the surgery. C) Facilitate the patient's contact with a support group. D) Obtain an order for a PRN benzodiazepine.

C Feedback: Support groups can be highly beneficial in relieving preoperative and postoperative anxiety and in promoting healthy coping. This is preferable to antianxiety medications. Downplaying the risks of surgery or focusing solely on the benefits is a simplistic and patronizing approach.

15. A patient who underwent gastric banding 3 days ago is having her diet progressed on a daily basis. Following her latest meal, the patient complains of dizziness and palpitations. Inspection reveals that the patient is diaphoretic. What is the nurse's best action? A) Insert a nasogastric tube promptly. B) Reposition the patient supine. C) Monitor the patient closely for further signs of dumping syndrome. D) Assess the patient for signs and symptoms of aspiration.

C Feedback: The patient's symptoms are characteristic of dumping syndrome, which results in a sensation of fullness, weakness, faintness, dizziness, palpitations, diaphoresis, cramping pains, and diarrhea. Aspiration is a less likely cause for the patient's symptoms. Supine positioning will likely exacerbate the symptoms and insertion of an NG tube is contraindicated due to the nature of the patient's surgery.

31. A patient who is obese has been unable to lose weight successfully using lifestyle modifications and has mentioned the possibility of using weight-loss medications. What should the nurse teach the patient about pharmacologic interventions for the treatment of obesity? A) "Weight loss drugs have many side effects, and most doctors think they'll all be off the market in a few years." B) "There used to be a lot of hope that medications would help people lose weight, but it's been shown to be mostly a placebo effect." C) "Medications can be helpful, but few people achieve and maintain their desired weight loss with medications alone." D) "Medications are rapidly become the preferred method of weight loss in people for whom diet and exercise have not worked."

C Feedback: Though antiobesity drugs help some patients lose weight, their use rarely results in loss of more than 10% of total body weight. Patients are consequently unlikely to attain their desired weight through medication alone. They are not predicted to disappear from the market and results are not attributed to a placebo effect.

24. A patient is undergoing diagnostic testing for a tumor of the small intestine. What are the most likely symptoms that prompted the patient to first seek care? A) Hematemesis and persistent sensation of fullness B) Abdominal bloating and recurrent constipation C) Intermittent pain and bloody stool D) Unexplained bowel incontinence and fatty stools

C Feedback: When the patient is symptomatic from a tumor of the small intestine, benign tumors often present with intermittent pain. The next most common presentation is occult bleeding. The other listed signs and symptoms are not normally associated with the presentation of small intestinal tumors.

11. A large corporation employs nurses all over the United States. Nurses in one agency learned that fellow nurses in another agency are striking because they are required to work 16-hour shifts to cover for nurses who have left due to unsafe staffing practices. The union of the nonstriking agency nurses decides to stop work to support the nurses who are striking; thus, this union: a. is placing nurses at risk for a lawsuit because their direct employer did not cause the strike. b. must be an industry union representing both parties. c. is participating in a sympathy strike, which, if done correctly, is legal. d. must pay for any losses incurred by the agency during the strike.

C A sympathy strike occurs when a union stops work to support the strike of another union. DIF: Comprehension REF: p. 257

A nurse is caring for an 87-year-old Mexican-American female patient who is in end-stage renal disease. The physician has just been in to see the patient and her family to tell them that nothing more can be done for the patient and that death is not far. The physician offers to discharge the patient home to hospice care, but the patient and family refuse. After the physician leaves, the patient's daughter approaches you and asks what hospice care is. What would this lack of knowledge about hospice care be perceived as? A) Lack of an American education of the patient and her family B) A language barrier to hospice care for this patient C) A barrier to hospice care for this patient D) Inability to grasp American concepts of health care

C Historical mistrust of the health care system and unequal access to even basic medical care may underlie the beliefs and attitudes among ethnically diverse populations. In addition, lack of education or knowledge about end-of-life care treatment options and language barriers influence decisions among many socioeconomically disadvantaged groups. The scenario does not indicate whether the patient's family has an American education, whether they are unable to grasp American concepts of health care, or whether they can speak or understand English.

A hospice nurse is caring for a 22-year-old with a terminal diagnosis of leukemia. When updating this patient's plan of nursing care, what should the nurse prioritize? A) Interventions aimed at maximizing quantity of life B) Providing financial advice to pay for care C) Providing realistic emotional preparation for death D) Making suggestions to maximize family social interactions after the patient's death

C Hospice care focuses on quality of life, but, by necessity, it usually includes realistic emotional, social, spiritual, and financial preparation for death. Financial advice and actions aimed at post-death interaction would not be appropriate priorities.

12. A group of nurses interested in unionizing decides to contact the largest union in the United States representing registered nurses, which is the: a. American Nurses Association. b. United American Nurses. c. National Nurses United. d. National Labor Relations Board.

C In 2009, the National Nurses United became the largest union representing nurses RNs as a result of a merger between the United American Nurses, California Nurses Association, National Nurses Organizing Committee, and Massachusetts Nurses Association. DIF: Comprehension REF: p. 259

The nurse has observed that an older adult patient with a diagnosis of end-stage renal failure seems to prefer to have his eldest son make all of his health care decisions. While the family is visiting, the patient explains to you that this is a cultural practice and very important to him. How should you respond? A) Privately ask the son to allow the patient to make his own health care decisions. B) Explain to the patient that he is responsible for his own decisions. C) Work with the team to negotiate informed consent. D) Avoid divulging information to the eldest son.

C In this case of a patient who wishes to defer decisions to his son, the nurse can work with the team to negotiate informed consent, respecting the patient's right not to participate in decision making and honoring his family's cultural practices.

1. Nurses in a unionized hospital are paid "compensatory pay" when working holidays equal to the number of hours worked with no extra compensation. Although they have suggested changes during the annual survey of employee satisfaction, management refuses to consider another system for compensatory pay. A trained member listened to both nurses and management to make recommendations that were not legally binding. This type of settlement is termed: a. picketing. b. binding arbitration. c. mediation. d. grievance.

C Mediation enlists the help of a trained person to listen to both sides; however, recommendations are not legally binding. DIF: Comprehension REF: p. 257

9. In recent Gallop Polls, nurses were voted as the most honest with the highest ethical standards of all professions. How does this degree of professionalism affect nurses' desire to participate in organized strikes? a. Nurses most often turn to collective bargaining strategies such as strikes to emphasize client safety initiatives. b. Nurses use evidence-based studies that reflect both management and labor views to support participation in unionization. c. Nurses often find union activities such as strikes in conflict with the need to serve and protect clients and their profession. d. Nurses who strike can be legally punished for abandonment and negligence, considered to be professional misconduct.

C Nurses are client advocates and promotion of professionalism is valued as evidenced by the public's opinion related to honesty and professionalism. DIF: Application REF: p. 262

8. Historically, what movement most influenced unionization in American health care agencies/hospitals? a. Immigration laws protected foreign employees from discrimination in hiring or discharge on the basis of national origin and citizenship status. b. Women entered the workforce, gaining voice to support unions. c. The Industrial Revolution led to poor working conditions and the need to protect workers. d. Nurses were exposed to communicable diseases, which led to death and disability.

C The Industrial Revolution led to people working in factories where poor and unsafe working conditions were widespread. DIF: Comprehension REF: pp. 258-259

A patient with end-stage heart failure has participated in a family meeting with the interdisciplinary team and opted for hospice care. On what belief should the patient's care in this setting be based? A) Meaningful living during terminal illness requires technologic interventions. B) Meaningful living during terminal illness is best supported in designated facilities. C) Meaningful living during terminal illness is best supported in the home. D) Meaningful living during terminal illness is best achieved by prolonging physiologic dying.

C The hospice movement in the United States is based on the belief that meaningful living is achievable during terminal illness and that it is best supported in the home, free from technologic interventions to prolong physiologic dying.

A patient has just been told that her illness is terminal. The patient tearfully states, "I can't believe I am going to die. Why me?" What is your best response? A) "I know how you are feeling." B) "You have lived a long life." C) "This must be very difficult for you." D) "Life can be so unfair."

C The most important intervention the nurse can provide is listening empathetically. To communicate effectively, the nurse should ask open-ended questions and acknowledge the patient's fears. Deflecting the statement or providing false sympathy must be avoided.

4. Nurses in a nonprofit hospital have expressed an interest in forming a union to secure fair wages and ensure client safety. To form a core support group of nurses, the union organizer can conduct meetings to gather initial information: a. away from the worksite with a group of managers to learn both sides of the situation. b. at the worksite with staff nurses who are respected leaders. c. in homes or local businesses with staff nurses. d. after photographing management meeting to discuss their strategies to decrease interest in unionization.

C The union representative meets with laborers (staff nurses) at a nonwork setting to gather information about grievances. DIF: Application REF: p. 260

A hospice nurse is well aware of how difficult it is to deal with others' pain on a daily basis. This nurse should put healthy practices into place to guard against what outcome? A) Inefficiency in the provision of care B) Excessive weight gain C) Emotional exhaustion D) Social withdrawal

C Well before the nurse exhibits symptoms of stress or burnout, he or she should acknowledge the difficulty of coping with others' pain on a daily basis and put healthy practices in place that guard against emotional exhaustion. Emotional exhaustion is more likely to have deleterious effects than inefficiency, social withdrawal, or weight gain, though these may signal emotional exhaustion.

The organization of a patient's care on the palliative care unit is based on interdisciplinary collaboration. How does interdisciplinary collaboration differ from multidisciplinary practice? A) It is based on the participation of clinicians without a team leader. B) It is based on clinicians of varied backgrounds integrating their separate plans of care. C) It is based on communication and cooperation between disciplines. D) It is based on medical expertise and patient preference with the support of nursing.

C Interdisciplinary collaboration, which is different from multidisciplinary practice, is based on communication and cooperation among the various disciplines, each member of the team contributing to a single integrated care plan that addresses the needs of the patient and family. Multidisciplinary care refers to participation of clinicians with varied backgrounds and skill sets, but without coordination and integration. Interdisciplinary collaboration is not based on patient preference and should not prioritize medical expertise over other disciplines.

2 The nurse is taking the sexual history of an adolescent who has come into the free clinic. What question best assesses the patient's need for further information? A) "Are you involved in an intimate relationship at this time?" B) "How many sexual partners have you had?" C) "What questions or concerns do you have about your sexual health?" D) "Have you ever been diagnosed with a sexually transmitted infection?"

C) "What questions or concerns do you have about your sexual health?" Feedback: An open-ended question related to the patient's need for further information should be included while obtaining a sexual history. None of the other listed questions are open-ended.

21 The nurse is utilizing the PLISSIT model of sexual health assessment during an interaction with a new patient. According to this model, the nurse should begin with what action? A) Conducting a preliminary assessment B) Addressing the patient's psychosocial status C) Asking the patient's permission to discuss sexuality D) Assessing for physiologic problems

C) Asking the patient's permission to discuss sexuality Feedback: The PLISSIT model of sexual assessment begins with permission and subsequently includes limited information, specific suggestions, and intensive therapy.

The nurse understands that before a client with an eating disorder can accept their body image, he or she must first learn effective coping skills. Which statement best describes the relationship between body image and coping skills? A) Coping skills are dependent on a supportive upbringing. B) When body image is positive, the client will develop better coping skills. C) Being able to cope in healthy ways improves the ability to accept a realistic body image. D) Neurotransmitters that are deficient in clients with eating disorders prohibit the development of effective coping skills.

C) Being able to cope in healthy ways improves the ability to accept a realistic body image. When clients experience relief from emotional distress, have increased self-esteem, and can meet their emotional needs in healthy ways, they are more likely to accept their weight and body image.

13 A nurse practitioner is preparing to perform a patient's scheduled Pap smear and the patient asks the nurse to ensure that the speculum is well-lubricated. How should the nurse proceed with assessment? A) Reassure the patient that ample petroleum jelly will be used. B) Reassure that patient that a water-based lubricant will be used. C) Explain to the patient that water is the only lubricant that can be used. D) Explain to the patient why the speculum must be introduced "dry."

C) Explain to the patient that water is the only lubricant that can be used. Feedback: Because lubricants may obscure cells on a Pap smear, warm water is the only lubricant that can be used.

32 A couple with a diagnosis of ovarian failure discusses their infertility options with their physician. The nurse should recognize which of the following as the treatment of choice for a patient with ovarian failure? A) Intracytoplasmic sperm injection B) Artificial insemination C) Gamete intrafallopian transfer D) In vitro fertilization

C) Gamete intrafallopian transfer Feedback: Gamete intrafallopian transfer (GIFT), a variation of IVF, is the treatment of choice for patients with ovarian failure. In intracytoplasmic sperm injection (ICSI), an ovum is retrieved as described previously, and a single sperm is injected through the zona pellucida, through the egg membrane, and into the cytoplasm of the oocyte. The fertilized egg is then transferred back to the donor. ICSI is the treatment of choice in severe male factor infertility. IVF involves ovarian stimulation, egg retrieval, fertilization, and embryo transfer. Artificial insemination is the deposit of semen into the female genital tract by artificial means.

Which of the following interventions would be appropriate for a client with anorexia nervosa? A) Allowing the client to eat whenever she feels hungry B) Insisting that the client sit in the dining room until all food is eaten C) Having the client in view of staff for 90 minutes after each meal D) Permitting the client to eat any food she chooses, as long as she is eating

C) Having the client in view of staff for 90 minutes after each meal Many clients with anorexia also have purging behavior; even those who have not purged previously may begin to do so when they are unable to restrict their eating. Answer choices A, B, and D do not promote healthy eating behaviors.

11 A patient in her late fifties has expressed to the nurse her desire to explore hormone replacement therapy (HRT). Based on what aspect of the patient's health history is HRT contraindicated? A) History of vaginal dryness B) History of hot flashes and night sweats C) History of vascular thrombosis D) Family history of osteoporosis

C) History of vascular thrombosis Feedback: The use of HRT is contraindicated in women with a history of vascular thrombosis, active liver disease, some cases of uterine cancer, and undiagnosed vaginal bleeding. HRT is beneficial in women with a risk for osteoporosis. Vaginal dryness, hot flashes, and night sweats are symptoms of menopause that may be relieved with HRT.

Which nursing statement is most effective in communicating a positive expectation of the client? A) ìI'll give you 90 minutes to eat.î B) ìI will allow you space to eat in peace.î C) ìI will sit here quietly with you while you eat.î D) ìThere are people who would truly appreciate this food.

C) I will sit here quietly with you while you eat. This statement reflects the nurse's expectation that the client will eat, yet the nurse still will provide adequate supervision. The other choices are not appropriate means of assuming a positive expectation of the client.

A nurse is providing education about trauma and its effects to a community group in a community that has just been hit by a devastating tornado. One of the participants asked about what kind of support a survivor of the tornado will need. Which would be the best response of the nurse? A) If a person is willing to share his or her feelings about what has happened, he or she is not dealing with their feelings effectively. B) It is counterproductive for people to share what has happened to them and their feelings about it as there is nothing more to be done. C) If a person is reluctant to share his or her feelings, he or she may be denying his or her importance and may be at increased risk for future problems such as PTSD. D) It is best to wait until a survivor's life has returned to normal before dealing with the trauma.

C) If a person is reluctant to share his or her feelings, he or she may be denying his or her importance and may be at increased risk for future problems such as PTSD. Feedback: Some people more easily express their feelings and talk about stressful, upsetting, or overwhelming events. They may do so with family, friends, or professionals. Others are more reluctant to open up and disclose their personal feelings. They are more likely to ignore the feelings, deny their importance, or insist "I'm fine, I'm over it." By doing that, they increase the risk for future problems such as PTSD. One of the most effective ways of avoiding pathologic responses to trauma is effectively dealing with the trauma soon after it occurs.

Several medications are prescribed for a client who has anorexia. Which medication may be prescribed to help treat the client's distorted body image? A) Amitriptyline (Elavil) B) Cyproheptadine (Periactin) C) Olanzapine (Zyprexa) D) Fluoxetine (Prozac)

C) Olanzapine (Zyprexa) Several classes of drugs have been studied, but few have shown clinical success. Amitriptyline (Elavil) and the antihistamine cyproheptadine (Periactin) in high doses (up to 28 mg/day) can promote weight gain in clients with anorexia nervosa. Olanzapine (Zyprexa) has been used with success because of its antipsychotic effect (on bizarre body image distortions) and associated weight gain. Fluoxetine (Prozac) has some effectiveness in preventing relapse in clients whose weight has been partially or completely restored. However, close monitoring is needed because weight loss can be a side effect.

36 A 51-year-old woman is experiencing perimenopausal symptoms and expresses confusion around the possible use of hormone therapy (HT). She explains that her mother and aunts used HT and she is unsure why few of her peers have been prescribed this treatment. What should the nurse explain to the patient? A) Large, long-term health studies have revealed that HT is minimally effective. B) HT has been largely replaced by other nonpharmacologic interventions. C) Research has shown that significant health risks are associated with HT. D) HT has been shown to exacerbate symptoms of menopause in a minority of women.

C) Research has shown that significant health risks are associated with HT. Feedback: HT is effective, but has been associated with serious adverse effects. However, it does not exacerbate the symptoms of menopause. Nonpharmacologic interventions that address perimenopausal symptoms have not yet been identified.

Which is the primary objective of nursing interventions in the care of a client with anorexia nervosa? A) Changing her irrational thinking about her body B) Establishing a target weight to be achieved by discharge C) Restoring nutritional status to normal D) Gaining insight into the effects of anorexia on her physical health

C) Restoring nutritional status to normal Physiologic safety and homeostasis are the priority concerns. Changing of thought pattern, establishing a target weight, and gaining insight into the effects of anorexia on her physical health are not immediate goals in the management of anorexia nervosa.

The nurse is assisting the client with anorexia to express feelings more openly. Which response by the nurse would be most likely to encourage expression of feelings? A) ìAre you sad? B) ìYou look anxious. C) ìTell me what you are feeling right now. D) ìTell me when you feel bad.

C) Tell me what you are feeling right now. Because clients with anorexia have problems with self-awareness, they often have difficulty identifying and expressing feelings. Therefore, they often express these feelings in terms of somatic complaints such as feeling fat or bloated. The nurse can help clients begin to recognize emotions by asking them to describe how they are feeling and allowing adequate time for response. The nurse should not ask, ìAre you sad?î or ìAre you anxious?î because a client may quickly agree rather than struggle for an answer. The nurse encourages the client to describe her or his feelings. This approach can eventually help clients to recognize their emotions and to connect them to their eating behaviors.

35 The nurse is assessing a patient who believes that she has recently begun menopause. What principle should inform the nurse's interactions with this patient? A) The nurse should express empathy for the patient's difficult health situation. B) The nurse should begin by assuring the patient that her health will be much better in a few years. C) The nurse must carefully assess the patient's feelings and beliefs surrounding menopause. D) The nurse should encourage the patient to celebrate this life milestone and its accompanying benefits.

C) The nurse must carefully assess the patient's feelings and beliefs surrounding menopause. Feedback: Women have widely varying views on menopause and the nurse must ascertain these. It is wrong to presume either a positive or negative view of this transition without first performing assessment.

12 The school nurse is presenting a class on female reproductive health. The nurse should describe what aspect of Pap smears? A) The test may be performed at any time during the patient's menstrual cycle. B) The smear should be done every 2 years. C) The test can detect early evidence of cervical cancer. D) False-positive Pap smear results occur mostly from not douching before the examination.

C) The test can detect early evidence of cervical cancer. Feedback: The test should be performed when the patient is not menstruating. Douching washes away cellular material. The test detects cervical cancer, and false-negative Pap smear results occur mostly from sampling errors or improper technique. For most women, a Pap smear should be done annually.

28 A 48-year-old woman presenting for care is seeking information about hormone therapy (HT) for the treatment of her perimenopausal symptoms. The patient's need for relief from hot flashes and other symptoms will be weighed carefully against the increased risks of what complications of HT? Select all that apply. A) Anaphylaxis B) Osteoporosis C) Breast cancer D) Cardiovascular disease E) Venous thromboembolism

C, D, E Feedback: Although HT decreases hot flashes and reduces the risk of osteoporotic fractures as well as colorectal cancer, studies have shown that it increases the risk of breast cancer, heart attack, stroke, and blood clots. There is no significant risk of anaphylaxis.

One of the functions of nursing care of the terminally ill is to support the patient and his or her family as they come to terms with the diagnosis and progression of the disease process. How should nurses support patients and their families during this process? Select all that apply. A) Describe their personal experiences in dealing with end-of-life issues. B) Encourage the patient and family to "keep fighting" as a cure may come. C) Try to appreciate and understand the illness from the patient's perspective. D) Assist patients with performing a life review. E) Provide interventions that facilitate end-of-life closure.

C, D, E Nurses are responsible for educating patients about their illness and for supporting them as they adapt to life with the illness. Nurses can assist patients and families with life review, values clarification, treatment decision making, and end-of-life closure. The only way to do this effectively is to try to appreciate and understand the illness from the patient's perspective. The nurse's personal experiences should not normally be included and a cure is often not a realistic hope.

38. A patient has been assessed for aldosteronism and has recently begun treatment. What are priority areas for assessment that the nurse should frequently address? Select all that apply. A) Pupillary response B) Creatinine and BUN levels C) Potassium level D) Peripheral pulses E) BP

C, E Feedback: Patients with aldosteronism exhibit a profound decline in the serum levels of potassium, and hypertension is the most prominent and almost universal sign of aldosteronism. Pupillary response, peripheral pulses, and renal function are not directly affected.

17. It is important to realize that nurses may seek unionization if: (select all that apply) a. physicians rotate on-call coverage among group members for complicated long-term clients. b. scheduling is presented that provides adequate staffing on holidays by rotation of time off for holidays among nurses. c. incident report trends indicate medication errors are caused by shift reports being taped and heard after nurses from the prior shift have left the unit. d. physicians, nurses, nutritionists, and physical therapists visit concurrently with clients to plan care. e. staff development activities are planned daily at 8 AM for 2 consecutive days to educate staff on new cardiac monitoring procedures while following normal staffing patterns.

C, E Policies where shift reports are taped and heard after a prior shift has left have proved to lead to errors and unsafe care. Staff development activities should be scheduled to allow nurses to attend, and normal staffing patterns or time of training must coincide with nurses' availability and ability to listen to and retain information (such as at the beginning or end of the shift while others provide coverage). DIF: Comprehension REF: p. 262

A nurse is caring for a patient with severe hemolytic jaundice. Laboratory tests show free bilirubin to be 24 mg/dL. For what complication is this patient at risk? A. Chronic jaundice B. Pigment stones in portal circulation C. Central nervous system damage D. Hepatomegaly

C. Central nervous system damage Rationale: Prolonged jaundice, even if mild, predisposes to the formation of pigment stones in the gallbladder, and extremely severe jaundice (levels of free bilirubin exceeding 20 to 25 mg/dL) poses a risk for CNS damage. There are not specific risks of hepatomegaly or chronic jaundice resulting from high bilirubin

A patient with portal hypertension has been admitted to the medical floor. The nurse should prioritize which of the following assessments related to the manifestations of this health problem? A. Assessment of blood pressure and assessment for headaches and visual changes. B. Assessments for signs and symptoms of venous thromboembolism. C. Daily weights and abdominal girth measurement. D. Blood glucose monitoring q4h.

C. Daily weights and abdominal girth measurement Rationale: Obstruction to blood flow through the damaged liver results in increased blood pressure (portal hypertension) throughout the portal venous system. This can result in varices and ascites in the abdominal cavity. Assessments related to ascites are daily weights and abdominal girths. Portal hypertension is not synonymous with cardiovascular hypertension and does not create a risk for unstable blood glucose of VTE.

A patient with a diagnosis of cirrhosis has developed variceal bleeding and will imminently undergo variceal banding. What psychosocial nursing diagnosis should the nurse most likely prioritize during this phase of the patient's treatment? A. Decisional Conflict B. Deficient Knowledge C. Death Anxiety D. Disturbed Thought Processes

C. Death Anxiety Rationale: The sudden hemorrhage that accompanies variceal bleeding is intensely anxiety-provoking. The nurse must address the patient's likely fear of death, which is a realistic possibility. For most patients, anxiety is likely to be a more acute concern than lack of knowledge or decisional conflict. The patient may or may not experience disturbances in thought processes.

A nurse has entered the room of a patient with cirrhosis and found the patient on the floor. The patient stated that she fell when transferring to the commode. The patient's vital signs are within reference ranges and the nurse observes no apparent injuries. What is the nurse's most appropriate action? A. Remove the patient's commode and supply a bedpan B. Complete an incident report and submit it to the unit supervisor C. Have the patient assessed by the physician due to the risk of internal bleeding D. Perform a focused abdominal assessment in order to rule out injury.

C. Have the patient assessed by the physician due to the risk of internal bleeding Rationale: A fall would necessitate thorough medical assessment due to the patient's risk of bleeding. The nurse's abdominal assessment is an appropriate action, but is not wholly sufficient to rule out internal injury. Medical assessment is a priority over removing the commode or filling out an incident report, even though these actions are appropriate.

A previously healthy adult's sudden and precipitous decline in health has been attributed to fulminant hepatic failure, and the patient has been admitted to the intensive care unit. The nurse should be aware that the treatment of choice for this patient is what? A. IV administration of immune globulins B. Transfusion of packed red blood cells and fresh-frozen plasma (FFP) C. Liver transplantation D. Lobectomy

C. Liver transplantation Rationale: Liver transplantation carries the highest potential for the resolution of fulminant hepatic failure. This is preferred over other interventions, such as pharmacologic treatments, transfusions, and surgery

Diagnostic testing has revealed that a patient's hepatocellular carcinoma (HCC) is limited to one lobe. The nurse should anticipate that this patient's plan of care will focus on what intervention? A. Cryosurgery B. Liver transplantation C. Lobectomy D. Laser hyperthermia

C. Lobectomy Rationale: Surgical resection is the treatment of choice when HCC is confined to one lobe of the liver and the function of the remaining liver is considered adequate for postoperative recovery. Removal of a lobe of the liver (lobectomy) is the most common surgical procedure for excising a liver tumor. While cryosurgery and liver transplantation are other surgical options for management of liver cancer, these procedures are not performed at the same frequency as a lobectomy. Laser hyperthermia is a nonsurgical treatment for liver cancer.

A nurse is performing an admission assessment of a patient with a diagnosis of cirrhosis. What technique should the nurse use to palpate the patient's liver? A. Place hand under the right lower abdominal quadrant and press down lightly with the other hand. B. Place the left hand over the abdomen and behind the left side at the 11th rib. C. Place hand under right lower rib cage and press down lightly with the other hand. D. Hold hand 90 degree to right side of the abdomen and push down firmly.

C. Place hand under right lower rib cage and press down lightly with the other hand. Rationale: To palpate the liver, the examiner places one hand under the right lower rib cage and presses downward with light pressure with the other hand. The liver is not on the left side or in the right lower abdominal quadrant.

A patient with liver disease has developed jaundice; the nurse is collaborating with the patient to develop a nutritional plan. The nurse should prioritize which of the following in the patient's plan? A. Increased potassium intake B. Fluid restriction to 2L per day C. Reduction in sodium intake D. High-protein, low-fat diet

C. Reduction in sodium intake Rationale: Patient with ascites require a sharp reduction in sodium intake. Potassium intake should not be correspondingly increased. There is no need for fluid restriction or increased protein intake.

A nurse is caring for a patient with hepatic encephalopathy. The nurse's assessment reveals that the patient exhibits episodes of confusion, is difficult to arouse from sleep and has rigid extremities. Based on these clinical findings, the nurse should document what stage of hepatic encephalopathy? A. Stage 1 B. Stage 2 C. Stage 3 D. Stage 4

C. Stage 3 Rationale: Patients in the third stage of hepatic encephalopathy exhibit the following symptoms: stuporous, difficult to arouse, sleeps most of the time, exhibits marked confusion, incoherent in speech, asterixis, increased deep tendon reflexes, rigidity of extremities, marked EEG abnormalities. Patients in stages 1 and 2 exhibit clinical symptoms that are not as advanced as found in stage 3, and patients in stage 4 are comatose. In stage 4, there is an absence of asterixis, absence of deep tendon reflexes, flaccidity of extremities, and EEG abnormalities.

A patient who has undergone liver transplantation is ready to be discharged home. Which outcome of health education should the nurse prioritize? A. The patient will obtain measurement of drainage from the T-tube. B. The patient will exercise three times a week. C. The patient will take immunosuppressive agents as required. D. The patient will monitor for signs of liver dysfunction.

C. The patient will take immunosuppressive agents as required. Rationale: The patient is given written and verbal instructions about immunosuppressive agent doses and dosing schedules. The patient is also instructed on steps to follow to ensure that an adequate supply of medication is available so that there is no change of running out of the medication or skipping a dose. Failure to take medications as instructed may precipitate rejection. The nurse would not teach the patient to measure drainage from a T-tube as the patient would;t go home with a T-tube. The nurse may teach the patient about the need to exercise or what the signs of liver dysfunction are, but the nurse would not stress these topics over the immunosuppressive drug regimen.

A 25-year-old patient diagnosed with invasive cervical cancer expresses a desire to have children. What procedure might the physician offer as treatment? A) Radical hysterectomy B) Radical culposcopy C) Radical trabeculectomy D) Radical trachelectomy

D

A 27-year-old female patient is diagnosed with invasive cervical cancer and is told she needs to have a hysterectomy. One of the nursing diagnoses for this patient is disturbed body image related to perception of femininity. What intervention would be most appropriate for this patient? A) Reassure the patient that she will still be able to have children. B) Reassure the patient that she does not have to have sex to be feminine. C) Reassure the patient that you know how she is feeling and that you feel her anxiety and pain. D) Reassure the patient that she will still be able to have intercourse with sexual satisfaction and orgasm.

D

A nurse providing prenatal care to a pregnant woman is addressing measures to reduce her postpartum risk of cystocele, rectocele, and uterine prolapse. What action should the nurse recommend? A) Maintenance of good perineal hygiene B) Prevention of constipation C) Increased fluid intake for 2 weeks postpartum D) Performance of pelvic muscle exercises

D

A patient has herpes simplex 2 viral infection (HSV2). The nurse recognizes that which of the following should be included in teaching the patient? A) The virus causes cold sores of the lips. B) The virus may be cured with antibiotics. C) The virus, when active, may not be contracted during intercourse. D) Treatment is aimed at relieving symptoms.

D

A patient with genital herpes is having an acute exacerbation. What medication would the nurse expect to be ordered to suppress the symptoms and shorten the course of the infection? A) Clotrimazole (Gyne-Lotrimin) B) Metronidazole (Flagyl) C) Podophyllin (Podofin) D) Acyclovir (Zovirax)

D

A student nurse is doing clinical hours at an OB/GYN clinic. The student is helping to develop a plan of care for a patient with gonorrhea who has presented at the clinic. The student should include which of the following in the care plan for this patient? A) The patient may benefit from oral contraceptives. B) The patient must avoid use of tampons. C) The patient is susceptible to urinary incontinence. D) The patient should also be treated for chlamydia.

D

The nurse is providing preoperative education for a patient diagnosed with endometriosis. A hysterectomy has been scheduled. What education topic should the nurse be sure to include for this patient? A) Menstrual periods will continue to occur for several months, some of them heavy. B) Normal activity will be permitted within 48 hours following surgery. C) After a hysterectomy, hormone levels remain largely unaffected. D) The bladder must be emptied prior to surgery and a catheter may be placed during surgery.

D

The nurse is teaching a patient preventative measures regarding vaginal infections. The nurse should include which of the following as an important risk factor? A) High estrogen levels B) Late menarche C) Nonpregnant state D) Frequent douching

D

The nurse notes that a patient has a history of fibroids and is aware that this term refers to a benign tumor of the uterus. What is a more appropriate term for a fibroid? A) Bartholins cyst B) Dermoid cyst C) Hydatidiform mole D) Leiomyoma

D

27. A patient has been taking prednisone for several weeks after experiencing a hypersensitivity reaction. To prevent adrenal insufficiency, the nurse should ensure that the patient knows to do which of the following? A) Take the drug concurrent with levothyroxine (Synthroid). B) Take each dose of prednisone with a dose of calcium chloride. C) Gradually replace the prednisone with an OTC alternative. D) Slowly taper down the dose of prednisone, as ordered.

D Feedback: Corticosteroid dosages are reduced gradually (tapered) to allow normal adrenal function to return and to prevent steroid-induced adrenal insufficiency. There are no OTC substitutes for prednisone and neither calcium chloride nor levothyroxine addresses the risk of adrenal insufficiency.

19. A patient with hypofunction of the adrenal cortex has been admitted to the medical unit. What would the nurse most likely find when assessing this patient? A) Increased body temperature B) Jaundice C) Copious urine output D) Decreased BP

D Feedback: Decreased BP may occur with hypofunction of the adrenal cortex. Decreased function of the adrenal cortex does not affect the patients body temperature, urine output, or skin tone.

30. A patient with pheochromocytoma has been admitted for an adrenalectomy to be performed the following day. To prevent complications, the nurse should anticipate preoperative administration of which of the following? A) IV antibiotics B) Oral antihypertensives C) Parenteral nutrition D) IV corticosteroids

D Feedback: IV administration of corticosteroids (methylprednisolone sodium succinate [Solu-Medrol]) may begin on the evening before surgery and continue during the early postoperative period to prevent adrenal insufficiency. Antibiotics, antihypertensives, and parenteral nutrition do not prevent adrenal insufficiency or other common complications of adrenalectomy.

24. A patient with a recent diagnosis of hypothyroidism is being treated for an unrelated injury. When administering medications to the patient, the nurse should know that the patients diminished thyroid function may have what effect? A) Anaphylaxis B) Nausea and vomiting C) Increased risk of drug interactions D) Prolonged duration of effect

D Feedback: In all patients with hypothyroidism, the effects of analgesic agents, sedatives, and anesthetic agents are prolonged. There is no direct increase in the risk of anaphylaxis, nausea, or drug interactions, although these may potentially result from the prolonged half-life of drugs.

12. The home care nurse is conducting patient teaching with a patient on corticosteroid therapy. To achieve consistency with the bodys natural secretion of cortisol, when would the home care nurse instruct the patient to take his or her corticosteroids? A) In the evening between 4 PM and 6 PM B) Prior to going to sleep at night C) At noon every day D) In the morning between 7 AM and 8 AM

D Feedback: In keeping with the natural secretion of cortisol, the best time of day for the total corticosteroid dose is in the morning from 7 to 8 AM. Large-dose therapy at 8 AM, when the adrenal gland is most active, produces maximal suppression of the gland. Also, a large 8 AM dose is more physiologic because it allows the body to escape effects of the steroids from 4 PM to 6 AM, when serum levels are normally low, thus minimizing cushingoid effects.

14. The nurse is caring for a patient with hyperparathyroidism. What level of activity would the nurse expect to promote? A) Complete bed rest B) Bed rest with bathroom privileges C) Out of bed (OOB) to the chair twice a day D) Ambulation and activity as tolerated

D Feedback: Mobility, with walking or use of a rocking chair for those with limited mobility, is encouraged as much as possible because bones subjected to normal stress give up less calcium. Best rest should be discouraged because it increases calcium excretion and the risk of renal calculi. Limiting the patient to getting out of bed only a few times a day also increases calcium excretion and the associated risks.

40. The nurse is providing care for an older adult patient whose current medication regimen includes levothyroxine (Synthroid). As a result, the nurse should be aware of the heightened risk of adverse effects when administering an IV dose of what medication? A) A fluoroquinalone antibiotic B) A loop diuretic C) A proton pump inhibitor (PPI) D) A benzodiazepine

D Feedback: Oral thyroid hormones interact with many other medications.Even in small IV doses, hypnotic and sedative agents may induce profound somnolence, lasting far longer than anticipated and leading to narcosis (stupor like condition). Furthermore, they are likely to cause respiratory depression, which can easily be fatal because of decreased respiratory reserve and alveolar hypoventilation. Antibiotics, PPIs and diuretics do not cause the same risk.

34. A patient on corticosteroid therapy needs to be taught that a course of corticosteroids of 2 weeks duration can suppress the adrenal cortex for how long? A) Up to 4 weeks B) Up to 3 months C) Up to 9 months D) Up to 1 year

D Feedback: Suppression of the adrenal cortex may persist up to 1 year after a course of corticosteroids of only 2 weeks duration.

13. A patient with a peptic ulcer disease has had metronidazole (Flagyl) added to his current medication regimen. What health education related to this medication should the nurse provide? A) Take the medication on an empty stomach. B) Take up to one extra dose per day if stomach pain persists. C) Take at bedtime to mitigate the effects of drowsiness. D) Avoid drinking alcohol while taking the drug.

D Feedback: Alcohol must be avoided when taking Flagyl and the medication should be taken with food. This drug does not cause drowsiness and the dose should not be adjusted by the patient.

32. A patient has been diagnosed with peptic ulcer disease and the nurse is reviewing his prescribed medication regimen with him. What is currently the most commonly used drug regimen for peptic ulcers? A) Bismuth salts, antivirals, and histamine-2 (H2) antagonists B) H2 antagonists, antibiotics, and bicarbonate salts C) Bicarbonate salts, antibiotics, and ZES D) Antibiotics, proton pump inhibitors, and bismuth salts

D Feedback: Currently, the most commonly used therapy for peptic ulcers is a combination of antibiotics, proton pump inhibitors, and bismuth salts that suppress or eradicate H. pylori. H2 receptor antagonists are used to treat NSAID-induced ulcers and other ulcers not associated with H. pylori infection, but they are not the drug of choice. Bicarbonate salts are not used. ZES is the Zollinger-Ellison syndrome and not a drug.

22. A patient has just been diagnosed with acute gastritis after presenting in distress to the emergency department with abdominal symptoms. What would be the nursing care most needed by the patient at this time? A) Teaching the patient about necessary nutritional modification B) Helping the patient weigh treatment options C) Teaching the patient about the etiology of gastritis D) Providing the patient with physical and emotional support

D Feedback: For acute gastritis, the nurse provides physical and emotional support and helps the patient manage the symptoms, which may include nausea, vomiting, heartburn, and fatigue. The scenario describes a newly diagnosed patient; teaching about the etiology of the disease, lifestyle modifications, or various treatment options would be best provided at a later time.

18. A patient has experienced symptoms of dumping syndrome following bariatric surgery. To what physiologic phenomenon does the nurse attribute this syndrome? A) Irritation of the phrenic nerve due to diaphragmatic pressure B) Chronic malabsorption of iron and vitamins A and C C) Reflux of bile into the distal esophagus D) A sudden release of peptides

D Feedback: For many years, it had been theorized that the hypertonic gastric food boluses that quickly transit into the intestines drew extracellular fluid from the circulating blood volume into the small intestines to dilute the high concentration of electrolytes and sugars, resulting in symptoms. Now, it is thought that this rapid transit of the food bolus from the stomach into the small intestines instead causes a rapid and exuberant release of metabolic peptides that are responsible for the symptoms of dumping syndrome. It is not a result of phrenic nerve irritation, malabsorption, or bile reflux.

37. A nurse is caring for a patient hospitalized with an exacerbation of chronic gastritis. What health promotion topic should the nurse emphasize? A) Strategies for maintaining an alkaline gastric environment B) Safe technique for self-suctioning C) Techniques for positioning correctly to promote gastric healing D) Strategies for avoiding irritating foods and beverages

D Feedback: Measures to help relieve pain include instructing the patient to avoid foods and beverages that may be irritating to the gastric mucosa and instructing the patient about the correct use of medications to relieve chronic gastritis. An alkaline gastric environment is neither possible nor desirable. There is no plausible need for self-suctioning. Positioning does not have a significant effect on the presence or absence of gastric healing.

9. A community health nurse is preparing for an initial home visit to a patient discharged following a total gastrectomy for treatment of gastric cancer. What would the nurse anticipate that the plan of care is most likely to include? A) Enteral feeding via gastrostomy tube (G tube) B) Gastrointestinal decompression by nasogastric tube C) Periodic assessment for esophageal distension D) Monthly administration of injections of vitamin B12

D Feedback: Since vitamin B12 is absorbed in the stomach, the patient requires vitamin B12 replacement to prevent pernicious anemia. A gastrectomy precludes the use of a G tube. Since the stomach is absent, a nasogastric tube would not be indicated. As well, this is not possible in the home setting. Since there is no stomach to act as a reservoir and fluids and nutrients are passing directly into the jejunum, distension is unlikely.

4. A nurse is admitting a patient diagnosed with late-stage gastric cancer. The patient's family is distraught and angry that she was not diagnosed earlier in the course of her disease. What factor contributes to the fact that gastric cancer is often detected at a later stage? A) Gastric cancer does not cause signs or symptoms until metastasis has occurred. B) Adherence to screening recommendations for gastric cancer is exceptionally low. C) Early symptoms of gastric cancer are usually attributed to constipation. D) The early symptoms of gastric cancer are usually not alarming or highly unusual.

D Feedback: Symptoms of early gastric cancer, such as pain relieved by antacids, resemble those of benign ulcers and are seldom definitive. Symptoms are rarely a cause for alarm or for detailed diagnostic testing. Symptoms precede metastasis, however, and do not include constipation.

36. A nurse is caring for a patient who has a diagnosis of GI bleed. During shift assessment, the nurse finds the patient to betachycardic and hypotensive, and the patient has an episode of hematemesis while the nurse is in the room. In addition to monitoring the patient's vital signs and level of conscious, what would be a priority nursing action for this patient? A) Place the patient in a prone position. B) Provide the patient with ice water to slow any GI bleeding. C) Prepare for the insertion of an NG tube. D) Notify the physician.

D Feedback: The nurse must always be alert for any indicators of hemorrhagic gastritis, which include hematemesis (vomiting of blood), tachycardia, and hypotension. If these occur, the physician is notified and the patient's vital signs are monitored as the patient's condition warrants. Putting the patient in a prone position could lead to aspiration. Giving ice water is contraindicated as it would stimulate more vomiting.

25. A patient is recovering in the hospital following gastrectomy. The nurse notes that the patient has become increasingly difficult to engage and has had several angry outbursts at various staff members in recent days. The nurse's attempts at therapeutic dialogue have been rebuffed. What is the nurse's most appropriate action? A) Ask the patient's primary care provider to liaise between the nurse and the patient. B) Delegate care of the patient to a colleague. C) Limit contact with the patient in order to provide privacy. D) Make appropriate referrals to services that provide psychosocial support.

D Feedback: The nurse should enlist the services of clergy, psychiatric clinical nurse specialists, psychologists, social workers, and psychiatrists, if needed. This is preferable to delegating care, since the patient has become angry with other care providers as well. It is impractical and inappropriate to expect the primary care provider to act as a liaison. It would be inappropriate and unsafe to simply limit contact with the patient.

A nurse has made a referral to a grief support group, knowing that many individuals find these both comforting and beneficial after the death of a loved one. What is the most important accomplishment available by attending a grief support group? A) Providing a framework for incorporating the old life into the new life B) Normalizing adaptation to a continuation of the old life C) Aiding in adjusting to using old, familiar social skills D) Normalization of feelings and experiences

D Although many people complete the work of mourning with the informal support of families and friends, many find that talking with others who have had a similar experience, such as in formal support groups, normalizes the feelings and experiences and provides a framework for learning new skills to cope with the loss and create a new life. The other listed options are incorrect because they indicate the need to hold onto the old life and not move on.

A 66-year-old patient is in a hospice receiving palliative care for lung cancer which has metastasized to the patient's liver and bones. For the past several hours, the patient has been experiencing dyspnea. What nursing action is most appropriate to help to relive the dyspnea the patient is experiencing? A) Administer a bolus of normal saline, as ordered. B) Initiate high-flow oxygen therapy. C) Administer high doses of opioids. D) Administer bronchodilators and corticosteroids, as ordered.

D Bronchodilators and corticosteroids help to improve lung function as well as low doses of opioids. Low-flow oxygen often provides psychological comfort to the patient and family. A fluid bolus is unlikely to be of benefit.

The nurse is admitting a 52-year-old father of four into hospice care. The patient has a diagnosis of Parkinson's disease, which is progressing rapidly. The patient has made clear his preference to receive care at home. What interventions should the nurse prioritize in the plan of care? A) Aggressively continuing to fight the disease process B) Moving the patient to a long-term care facility when it becomes necessary C) Including the children in planning their father's care D) Supporting the patient's and family's values and choices

D Nurses need to develop skill and comfort in assessing patients' and families' responses to serious illness and planning interventions that support their values and choices throughout the continuum of care. To be admitted to hospice care, the patient must have come to terms with the fact that he is dying. The scenario states that the patient wants to be cared for at home, not in a long-term setting. The children may be able to participate in their father's care, but they should not be assigned responsibility for planning it.

3. A nurse has heard rumors that other nurses are interested in unionizing but knows little about the purpose of unions. The nurse's first action is to: a. contact an arbitrator who has worked with other nurses in unions. b. picket the agency where employed to gain inside information as to why unionization is sought. c. sign the dual-purpose union authorization card. d. review the National Nurses United website for collective bargaining information.

D The National Nurses United website gives information about collective bargaining for nurses. DIF: Application REF: p. 259

A nurse who works in the specialty of palliative care frequently encounters issues and situations that constitute ethical dilemmas. What issue has most often presented challenging ethical issues, especially in the context of palliative care? A) The increase in cultural diversity in the United States B) Staffing shortages in health care and questions concerning quality of care C) Increased costs of health care coupled with inequalities in access D) Ability of technology to prolong life beyond meaningful quality of life

D The application of technology to prolong life has raised several ethical issues. The major question is, "Because we can prolong life through increasingly sophisticated technology, does it necessarily follow that we must do so?" The increase in cultural diversity has not raised ethical issues in health care. Similarly, costs and staffing issues are relevant, but not central to the most common ethical issues surrounding palliative care.

In the past three to four decades, nursing has moved into the forefront in providing care for the dying. Which phenomenon has most contributed to this increased focus of care of the dying? A) Increased incidence of infections and acute illnesses B) Increased focus of health care providers on disease prevention C) Larger numbers of people dying in hospital settings D) Demographic changes in the population

D The focus on care of the dying has been motivated by the aging of the population, the prevalence of, and publicity surrounding, life-threatening illnesses (e.g., cancer and AIDS), and the increasing likelihood of a prolonged period of chronic illness prior to death. The salience of acute infections, prevention measures, and death in hospital settings are not noted to have had a major influence on this phenomenon.

A clinic nurse is providing patient education prior to a patient's scheduled palliative radiotherapy to her spine. At the completion of the patient teaching, the patient continues to ask the same questions that the nurse has already addressed. What is the plausible conclusion that the nurse should draw from this? A) The patient is not listening effectively. B) The patient is noncompliant with the plan of care. C) The patient may have a low intelligence quotient or a cognitive deficit. D) The patient has not achieved the desired learning outcomes.

D The nurse should be sensitive to patients' ongoing needs and may need to repeat previously provided information or simply be present while the patient and family react emotionally. Telling a patient something is not teaching. If a patient continues to ask the same questions, teaching needs to be reinforced. The patient's response is not necessarily suggestive of "noncompliance," cognitive deficits, or not listening.

A pediatric nurse is emotionally distraught by the death of a 9-year-old girl who received care on the unit over the course of many admissions spanning several years. What action is the most appropriate response to the nurse's own grief? A) Take time off from work to mourn the death. B) Post mementos of the patient on the unit. C) Solicit emotional support from the patient's family. D) Attend the patient's memorial service.

D In many settings, staff members organize or attend memorial services to support families and other caregivers who find comfort in joining each other to remember and celebrate the lives of patients. Taking time off should not be necessary and posting mementos would be inappropriate. It would be highly inappropriate to solicit emotional support from the patient's family during their time of loss.

The hospice nurse is caring for a 45-year-old mother of three young children in the patient's home. During the most recent visit, the nurse has observed that the patient has a new onset of altered mental status, likely resulting from recently diagnosed brain metastases. What goal of nursing interventions should the nurse identify? A) Helping the family to understand why the patient needs to be sedated B) Making arrangements to promptly move the patient to an acute-care facility C) Explaining to the family that death is near and the patient needs around-the-clock nursing care D) Teaching family members how to interact with, and ensure safety for, the patient with impaired cognition

D Nursing interventions should be aimed at accommodating the change in the patient's status and maintaining her safety. The scenario does not indicate the need either to sedate the patient or to move her to an acute-care facility. If the family has the resources, there is no need to bring in nurses to be with the patient around-the-clock, and the scenario does not indicate that death is imminent.

14 A clinic nurse is meeting with a 38-year-old patient who states that she would like to resume using oral contraceptives, which she used for several years during her twenties. What assessment question is most likely to reveal a potential contraindication to oral contraceptive use? A) "Have you ever had surgery?" B) "Have you ever had a sexually transmitted infection?" C) "When did you last have your blood sugar levels checked?" D) "Do you smoke?"

D) "Do you smoke?" Feedback: Women who smoke and who are 35 years of age or older should not take oral contraceptives because of an increased risk for cardiac problems. Previous surgeries, STIs, and blood sugar instability do not necessarily contraindicate the use of oral contraceptives.

15 A 17-year-old girl has come to the free clinic for her annual examination. She tells the nurse she uses tampons and asks how long she may safely leave her tampon in place. What is the nurse's best response? A) "You may leave the tampon in overnight." B) "The tampon should be changed at least twice per day." C) "Tampons are dangerous and, ideally, you should not be using them." D) "Tampons need to be changed every 4 to 6 hours."

D) "Tampons need to be changed every 4 to 6 hours." Feedback: Tampons should not be used for more than 4 to 6 hours, nor should super-absorbent tampons be used because of the association with toxic shock syndrome. If used appropriately, it is acceptable and safe for the patient to use tampons.

25 A patient states that PMS that is significantly disrupting her quality of life and that conservative management has failed to produce relief. What pharmacologic treatment may benefit this patient? A) An opioid analgesic B) A calcium channel blocker C) A monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI) D) A selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI)

D) A selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) Feedback: Pharmacologic remedies for PMS include selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors. MAOIs are not used for this purpose. Calcium channel blockers and opioids would not lead to symptom relief.

5 A female patient who has cognitive and physical disabilities has come into the clinic for a routine check-up. When planning this patient's assessment, what action should the nurse take? A) Ensure that a chaperone is available to be present during the assessment. B) Limit the length and scope of the health assessment. C) Avoid health promotion or disease prevention education. D) Avoid equating the patient with her disabilities.

D) Avoid equating the patient with her disabilities. Feedback: When working with women who have disabilities, it is important that the nurse avoid equating the woman with her disability. The nurse must make an effort to understand that the patient and the disability are not synonymous. A chaperone is not necessarily required and there may or may not be a need to abbreviate the assessment. The nurse should provide education as needed.

37 A community health nurse is leading a health education session addressing menopause and other aspects of women's health. What dietary supplements should the nurse recommend to prevent morbidity associated with osteoporotic fractures? A) Vitamin B12 and vitamin C B) Vitamin A and potassium C) Vitamin B6 and phosphorus D) Calcium and vitamin D

D) Calcium and vitamin D Feedback: Calcium and vitamin D supplementation may be helpful in reducing bone loss and preventing the morbidity associated with osteoporotic fractures. Phosphorus, potassium, vitamin B12, vitamin C, and vitamin B6 do not address this risk.

A nurse is presenting information to a community group about health. Which information should the nurse provide regarding calorie restriction diets at an early age in children? A) Dieting helps build a positive self-image in children. B) Dieting during childhood restricts essential nutrients needed for normal growth. C) Dieting at an early age teaches healthy eating habits. D) Dieting at an early age may lead to the development of eating disorders.

D) Dieting at an early age may lead to the development of eating disorders. A specific cause for eating disorders is unknown. Initially, dieting may be the stimulus that leads to their development. Dieting is also associated with the risk factor of dissatisfaction with body image. Children need well-balanced diets rather than calorie restriction diets. Eating patterns during childhood are often carried into adulthood.

The nurse is assessing a client with an eating disorder. Which personality characteristic would the nurse expect to detect when interacting with the client? A) Careless B) Outspoken C) Defiance D) Eager to please

D) Eager to please Family members often describe clients with anorexia nervosa as perfectionists with above-average intelligence, achievement oriented, dependable, eager to please, and seeking approval before their condition began. Parents describe clients as being ìgood, causing us no troubleî until the onset of anorexia. Likewise, clients with bulimia often are focused on pleasing others and avoiding conflict.

22 During the nurse's assessment of a female patient, the patient reveals that she experienced sexual abuse when she was a young woman. What is the nurse's most appropriate response to this disclosure? A) Reassure her that this information will be kept a secret. B) Begin the process of intensive psychotherapy. C) Encourage the patient to phone 911. D) Facilitate appropriate resources and referrals.

D) Facilitate appropriate resources and referrals. Feedback: The nurse's primary roles in light of this disclosure are to provide empathy and to arrange for appropriate resources and referrals. There is no need to phone 911 and psychotherapy is beyond the nurse's scope of practice. The patient's confidentiality will be respected, but this does not mean that the nurse can promise to keep it a secret.

All of the following nursing diagnoses are appropriate for the care of a client with anorexia. Which nursing diagnosis has the highest priority? A) Activity intolerance B) Ineffective coping C) Chronic low self-esteem D) Imbalanced nutrition: less than body requirements

D) Imbalanced nutrition: less than body requirements Nursing diagnoses for clients with eating disorders include imbalanced nutrition less than/more than body requirements, activity intolerance, ineffective coping, and chronic low self-esteem. When prioritizing nursing diagnoses, physical needs must be met before psychosocial needs (apply Maslow's hierarchy of needs). Of the physical needs, nutritional imbalances pose a more acute threat than decreased activity levels. When addressing psychosocial needs, improving coping skills will eventually lead to rise in self-esteem.

What is the major difference between posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD) and acute stress disorder? A) In acute stress disorder, the client is likely to develop exacerbation of symptoms. B) In PTSD, the recovery rate is 80% within 3 months. C) The severity and duration of the trauma are the most important variables in acute stress disorder. D) In PTSD, the symptoms occur 3 months or more after the trauma.

D) In PTSD, the symptoms occur 3 months or more after the trauma. Feedback: In acute stress disorder, the symptoms occur 2 days to 4 weeks after a traumatic event and are resolved within 3 months of the event. In PTSD, the symptoms occur 3 months or more after the trauma. In PTSD, the client is likely to develop exacerbation of symptoms. The severity and duration of the trauma and the proximity of the person to the event are the most important factors affecting the likelihood of developing PTSD. In PTSD, complete recovery occurs within 3 months for about 50% of people.

While assessing the family dynamics of a client with an eating disorder, which of the following does the nurse most likely discover? A) Multiple siblings B) Lack of interest in the client by other family members C) Supportive and encouraging relationships D) Over controlling parents

D) Over controlling parents Two essential tasks of adolescence are the struggle to develop autonomy and the establishment of a unique identity. Autonomy may be difficult in families that are overprotective or in which enmeshment (lack of clear role boundaries) exists. Such families do not support members' efforts to gain independence, and teenagers may feel as though they have little or no control over their lives. They begin to control their eating through severe dieting and thus gain control over their weight. Losing weight becomes reinforcing: by continuing to lose, these clients exert control over one aspect of their lives.

29 A 27-year-old primipara presents to the ED with vaginal bleeding and suspected contractions. The woman relates that she is 14 weeks pregnant and she thinks she is losing her baby. Diagnostic testing confirms a spontaneous abortion. What nursing action would be a priority at this time? A) Leave the patient alone so she can grieve in private. B) Teach the patient that this will not affect her future chance of conception. C) Take the patient off the obstetric floor so she will not hear a baby cry. D) Provide opportunities for the patient to talk and express her emotions.

D) Provide opportunities for the patient to talk and express her emotions. Feedback: Providing opportunities for the patient to talk and express her emotions is helpful and also provides clues for the nurse in planning more specific care. The patient may or may not want to be alone, but the nurse should first determine her wishes. It would be inappropriate to refer to future pregnancies during this acute time of loss. It would not be necessary or practical to remove the patient from the unit.

33 The nurse is working with a couple who is being evaluated for infertility. What nursing intervention would be most appropriate for this couple's likely needs? A) Educating them about parenting techniques in order to foster hope B) Educating them about the benefits of child-free living C) Choosing the most appropriate reproductive technology D) Referring them to appropriate community resources

D) Referring them to appropriate community resources Feedback: Nursing interventions appropriate when working with couples during infertility evaluations include referring the couple to appropriate resources when necessary. It would likely be considered offensive and insensitive to focus the couple on parenting skills or the benefits of child-free living. Choosing particular reproductive technologies is beyond the nurse's scope of practice.

During an initial interview at a clinic, a young female client states that there is nothing wrong with her. Which would indicate to the nurse that this client might have anorexia nervosa? A) Episodes of overeating and excessive weight gain B) Expressions of a positive self-concept C) Flexible thought patterns and spontaneity D) Severe weight loss due to self-imposed dieting

D) Severe weight loss due to self-imposed dieting Clients with anorexia starve themselves and lose a large proportion of body weight, yet call it dieting. In anorexia nervosa, clients do not have excessive weight gain or overeat. Clients have a negative self-concept. Clients with anorexia nervosa exhibit inflexible thinking and limited spontaneity.

Which of the following interventions would be most effective for friends and family members to implement in order to boost the self-esteem of a person who has just experienced trauma or abuse? A) To identify a list of support people or activities in the community B) To remind them to calm down when they appear to be experiencing a flashback C) To encourage them to tell their story repeatedly to everyone they meet D) To help them to refocus their view of themselves from being victims to being survivors

D) To help them to refocus their view of themselves from being victims to being survivors Ans: D Feedback: Often it is useful to view the client as a survivor of trauma or abuse rather than as a victim. For these clients, who believe they are worthless and have no power over the situation, it helps to refocus their view of themselves from being victims to being survivors. Defining themselves as survivors allows them to see themselves as strong enough to survive their ordeal. It is a more empowering image than seeing oneself as a victim. It would be beneficial for the client to identify a list of support people or activities in the community, but this would be to establish social support and not promote their self-esteem. It would not be helpful for anyone to tell the client to calm down when he or she appears to be experiencing a flashback or to encourage him or her to tell his or her story repeatedly.

16 A 51-year-old woman has come to the OB/GYN clinic for her annual physical. She tells the nurse that she has been experiencing severe hot flashes, but that she is reluctant to begin hormone therapy (HT). What potential solution should the nurse discuss with the patient? A) Sodium restriction B) Adopting a vegan diet C) Massage therapy D) Vitamin supplements

D) Vitamin supplements Feedback: For some women, vitamins B6 and E have proven beneficial for the treatment of hot flashes. Sodium restriction, vegan diet, and massage have not been noted to relieve this symptom of perimenopause.

A nurse is performing an admission assessment for an 81-year-old patient who generally enjoys good health. When considering normal, age-related changes to hepatic function, the nurse should anticipate what finding? A. Similar liver size and texture as in younger adults B. A nonpalpable liver C. A slightly enlarged liver with palpably hard edges D. A slightly decreased size of the liver

D. A slightly decreased size of the liver Rationale: The most common age-related change in the liver is a decrease in size and weight. The liver is usually still palpable, however, it is not expected to have hardened edges.

A nurse is amending a patient's plan of care in light of the fact that the patient has recently developed ascites. What should the nurse include in this patient's care plan? A. Mobilization with assistance at least 4 times daily B. Administration of beta-adrenergic blockers as ordered C. Vitamin B12 injections as ordered D. Administration of diuretics as ordered

D. Administration of diuretics as ordered Rationale: Use of diuretics along with sodium restriction is successful in 90% of patients with ascites. Beta-blockers are not used to treat ascites and bed rest is often more beneficial than increased mobility. Vitamin B23 injections are not necessary.

A local public health nurse is informed that a cook in a local restaurant has been diagnosed with hepatitis A. What should the nurse advise individuals to obtain who ate at this restaurant and have never received the hepatitis A vaccine? A. The hepatitis A vaccine B. Albumin infusion C. The hepatitis A and B vaccines D. An immune globulin injection

D. An immune globulin injection Rationale: For people who have not been previously vaccinated, hepatitis A can be prevented by the intramuscular administration of immune globulin during the incubation period, if given within 2 weeks of exposure. Administration of the hepatitis A vaccine will not protect the patient exposed to hepatitis A, as protection will take a few weeks to develop after the first dose of the vaccine. The hepatitis B vaccine provides protection against the hepatitis B virus, but plays no role in protection for the patient exposed to hepatitis A. Albumin confers no therapeutic benefit.

A patient with liver cancer is being discharged home with a biliary drainage system in place. The nurse should teach the patient's family how to safely perform which of the following actions? A. Aspirating bile from the catheter using a syringe B. Removing the catheter when output is 15 mL in 24 hours C. Instilling antibiotics into the catheter D. Assessing the patency of the drainage catheter

D. Assessing the patency of the drainage catheter Rationale: Families should be taught to provide basic catheter care, including assessment of patency. Antibiotics are not instilled into the catheter and aspiration using a syringe is contraindicated. The family would not independently remove the catheter; this would be done by a member of the care team when deemed necessary.

A patient with liver cancer is being discharged home with a hepatic artery catheter in place. The nurse should be aware that this catheter will facilitate which of the following? A. Continuous monitoring for portal hypertension B. Administration of immunosuppressive drugs during the first weeks after transplantation C. Real-time monitoring of vascular changes in the hepatic system D. Delivery of a continuous chemotherapeutic dose

D. Delivery of a continuous chemotherapeutic dose Rationale: In most cases, the hepatic artery catheter has been inserted surgically and has a prefilled infusion pump that delivers a continuous chemotherapeutic dose until completed. The hepatic artery catheter dose not monitor portal hypertension, deliver immunosuppressive drugs, or monitor vascular changes in the hepatic system

A nurse is participating in the emergency care of a patient who has just developed variceal bleeding. What intervention should the nurse anticipate? A. Infusion of intravenous heparin B. IV administration of albumin C. STAT administration of vitamin K by the intramuscular route D. IV administration of octreotide (Sandostatin)

D. IV administration of octreotide (Sandostation) Rationale: Octreotide (Sandostatin) a synthetic analog of the hormone somatostatin is effective in decreasing bleeding from esophageal varices, and lacks the vasoconstrictive effects of vasopressin. Because of this safety and efficacy profile, octreotide is considered the preferred treatment regimen for immediate control of variceal bleeding. Vitamin K and albumin are not administered and heparin would exacerbate, not alleviate, bleeding.

A nurse is caring for a patient with liver failure and is performing an assessment in the knowledge of the patient's increased risk of bleeding. The nurse recognizes that this risk is related to the patient's inability to synthesize prothrombin in the liver. What factor most likely contributes to this loss of function? A. Alterations in glucose metabolism B. Retention of bile salts C. Inadequate production of albumin by hepatocytes D. Inability of the liver to use vitamin K.

D. Inability of the liver to use vitamin K. Rationale: Decreased production of several clotting factors may be partially due to deficient absorption of vitamin K from the GI tract. This probably is caused by the inability of liver cells to use vitamin K to make prothrombin. This bleeding risk is unrelated to the roles of glucose, bile salts, or albumin.

A patient with esophageal varices is being cared for in the ICU. The varices have begun to bleed and the patient is at risk for hypovolemia. The patient has Ringer's Lactate at 150 cc/hr infusing. What else might the nurse expect to have ordered to maintain volume for this patient? A. Arterial line B. Diuretics C. Foley catheter D. Volume expanders

D. Volume expanders Rationale: Because patients with bleeding esophageal varices have intravascular volume depletion and are subject to electrolyte imbalance, IV fluids with electrolytes and volume expanders are provided to restore fluid volume and replace electrolytes. Diuretics would reduce vascular volume. An arterial line and Foley catheter are likely to be ordered, but neither actively maintains the patient's volume.

1. A nurse who is interested in graduate school wants to learn about recently passed legislation regarding changes in Medicare reimbursement for care provided by clinical nurse specialists. The best source for information on changes in federal programs is the__________ _____________.

FEDERAL REGISTER

Which of the following statements about posttraumatic stress disorder is accurate? A) Estimates are that the disorder is very rare. B) Estimates are that up to 60% of people at risk develop PTSD. C) Only 20% of victims of rape develop PTSD. D) PTSD symptoms usually begin at the time of the trauma

Feedback: Estimates are that up to 60% of people at risk develop PTSD.

2. The greatest barrier to access to health care for a poor Hispanic person living in downtown Chicago is ________

LACK OF HEALTH INSURANCE.

C) honeymoon stage

The client tells the nurse that her husband abuses her often with he drinks, just as his father had beaten him and his mother. He always apologizes and is remorseful after the event. Which stage is this in the cycle of violence? A) tension building stage B) acute battering stage C) honeymoon stage D) recovery stage

D) a women's shelter

Which referral would a nurse make for a client who was badly beaten by a spouse, has no place to go, and no financial means? A) community food bank B) vocational counseling C) law enforcement D) a women's shelter

1. A nurse is concerned about older persons living alone at home without telephone service to contact emergency services. The nurse is advised to take part in grassroot efforts to address the situation. The nurse would: (Select all that apply.)

a. Post signs to support the county's political candidates whose platform support services for poor and underserved person such as older adults. b. Visit with local politicians running for office and ask specific questions such as "Would you support providing free emergency phone service for older adults living alone?" d. Join the American Nurses Association and constituent member association.

2. Time is becoming crucial for the nurse to address issues related to sponsoring programs to include hearing aid costs as part of Medicare coverage. The nurse involved in grassroots political actions realizes that the least timely mode by which to reach elected officials would be via:

a. letter.

The nursing student answers the test item correctly when identifying which one of the following statements is true? A) Anxiety and fear are the same. B) Anxiety is unavoidable. C) Anxiety is always harmful. D) Fear is feeling threatened by an unknown entity.

ans B Feedback: Anxiety is distinguished from fear, which is feeling afraid or threatened by a clearly identifiable external stimulus that represents danger to the person. Anxiety is unavoidable in life and can serve many positive functions such as motivating the person to take action to solve a problem or to resolve a crisis.

10. A concerned nursing student calls the office of an elected official to voice support for the bill to ban smoking in all public places. The secretary asks, "Are you a constituent?" What does the term constituent mean?

b. A citizen who is registered and is eligible to vote for a representative

4. A nurse would like to obtain background information and learn the political platform of a candidate who is running for national office. The nurse should contact the:

b. American Nurses Association Nurses Strategic Action Team (N-STAT).

13. Nurses in a nonunionized health care facility are concerned about patient safety because of the requirement for nurses to work overtime. Which organization can address the needs of these nurses?

b. Center for American Nurses

1. A bill is pending in the state legislature that will mandate teaching health promotion related to smoking cessation. Which action by the nurse should have the greatest impact on passage of the bill?

b. Contact the elected representative's office by phone to request support for the bill.

6. When the policy process is compared with the nursing process, identifying the issue is consistent with which step of the nursing process?

b. Diagnosis

12. Throughout the history of health care in our nation, one particular piece of federal legislation provided funds for hospital construction. As the number of hospitals rapidly increased, the need for nurses to staff hospitals also increased, and the shift from community-based nursing care to hospital-based nursing care began. This fundamental piece of legislation was the:

b. Hill-Burton Act.

14. Members of a state's constituent member association meet at a local restaurant to plan a Nurse Walk to support the local food bank. When entering the restaurant, the nurses note the environmental inspection report shows deficiencies because food handlers were not wearing hairnets and rodents were spotted, resulting in a score of 60 out of 100. This certificate of inspection is health policy enforced at which level of government?

b. State

7. It is important for nurses to know the functions of the branches of the federal government. At a local meeting of the state nurses' association, an officer reminds members that the branch that is capable of originating major policy initiatives is the:

b. legislative branch..

5. Political action committees (PACs) are established for the purpose of:

b. persuading policymakers to support certain policies.

8. When a bill is presented to Congress, the subcommittee may choose to "mark up" the bill, meaning to:

c. amend the bill before recommending it to the full committee.

9. To ensure that new laws are implemented as proposed, nurses must realize that:

c. proposed regulations are published and are open to public comment for a time before they are formally adopted.

11. A person who is covered by Medicaid moves from one state to another and asks the nurse at the health department why the benefits changed. The correct response by the nurse is:

d. "Medicaid is funded by both state and federal governments, but benefits vary from state to state."

3. A nurse would like to advocate for increased protective services and reporting mechanisms for elder abuse and attends the "meet the candidate" session at the town hall meeting. This is an important time for the nurse to:

d. learn what the key issues are in the candidate's platform.