final

c.88.3 mm Hg

Calculate the mean arterial pressure for a person whose blood pressure is 125/70. (Module 19.7C) a.143.3 mm Hg b.55 mm Hg c.88.3 mm Hg d.113.3 mm Hg e.97.5 mm Hg

c.The greater vestibular glands in females are similar to the bulbo-urethral glands in males and the both male penis and female clitoris contain erectile tissue.

Cite the similarities that exist between certain structures in the reproductive systems of females and males. (Module 26.13C) Select one: a.The seminal glands in males are similar to the greater vestibular glands in females and both males and females produce gametes outside of the body. b.The ductus deferens in males is similar to the vagina in females and both males and females have folds of tissue called hymen. c.The greater vestibular glands in females are similar to the bulbo-urethral glands in males and the both male penis and female clitoris contain erectile tissue. d.The scrotum in males is similar to the mons pubis in females and the urethra of both males and females travels through the reproductive structures. e.The prostate gland in males is similar to the uterus in females and the both the male penis and female vagina contain erectile tissue.

a.fat-soluble and water-soluble

Identify the two classes of vitamins. (Module 23.14B) Select one: a.fat-soluble and water-soluble b.natural and synthetic c.complete and incomplete d.essential and non-essential e.dietary and non-dietary

e.spindle shaped fibers that lack T tubules, myofibrils, and sarcomeres

identify the structural characteristics of smooth muscle fibers. (Module 22.3B) Select one: a.round fibers that lack thin filaments and dense bodies b.long fibers with T tubules, myofibrils, and sarcomeres c.thick fibers with myofibrils and desmosomes d.short fibers with T tubules, myofibrils, and intercalated discs e.spindle shaped fibers that lack T tubules, myofibrils, and sarcomeres

d.stratified squamous epithelium

The oral cavity is lined by which type of epithelium? (Module 22.6A) Select one: a.stratified columnar epithelium b.simple cuboidal epithelium c.pseudostratified columnar epithelium d.stratified squamous epithelium e.simple squamous epithelium

b.growth hormone

The release of which pituitary hormone would lead to an increased level of somatomedins in the blood? (Module 16.7B) a.prolactin b.growth hormone c.melanocyte stimulating hormone d.oxytocin e.thyroid stimulating hormone

c.plasma cells

Which cells produce antibodies? (Module 20.21B) a.helper T cells b.natural killer cells c.plasma cells d.cytotoxic T cells e.memory B cells

c.PO2, glucose, and lactate concentrations d.pH, PO2, and PCO2 concentrations

Which chemical factors in blood or cerebrospinal fluid stimulate the respiratory centers? (Module 21.16C) a.Cl-, Na+, and K+ concentrations b.Ca2+, Na+, and K+ concentrations c.PO2, glucose, and lactate concentrations d.pH, PO2, and PCO2 concentrations e.hematocrit, glucose, PO2, and PCO2 concentrations

c.anemia

Which condition would a patient have if she had a depressed hematocrit level? (Module 17.4C) a.erythrocytosis b.reticulocytosis c.anemia d.thrombocytopenia e.polycythemia

e.oxytocin

Which hormone causes the milk ejection (milk let-down) reflex? (Module 27.11B) Select one: a.placental prolactin b.human placental lactogen c.prostaglandins d.prolactin e.oxytocin

a.arterial pressure

Which is greater: arterial pressure or venous pressure? (Module 19.5B) a.arterial pressure b.venous pressure

d. acetyl-CoA

Which molecule is a key reactant in both ATP production from fatty acids and lipogenesis? (Module 23.11B) Select one: a.glucose b.pyruvate c.triglycerides d.acetyl-CoA Correct e.glycerol

Antagonist

Which of the four hormonal effects are involved in a negative feedback response? (Module 16.14B) a.integrative effects b.additive effects c.permissive effects d.antagonistic effects

e.submandibular

Which pair of salivary glands contributes most to saliva production? (Module 22.19C) Select one: a.sublingual b.lingual c.parotid d.buccal e.submandibular

e.proteins

Which solid component makes up most of the body mass? (Module 25.1C) Select one: a.carbohydrates b.vitamins c.minerals d.lipids e.proteins

e.immunoglobulins

Which specific plasma proteins would you expect to be elevated during an infection? (Module 17.2C) a.transport globulins b.fibrinogen c.thrombin d.albumins e.immunoglobulins

c.morula

A pre-embryo that consists of a solid ball of cells is known as what type of structure? (Module 27.3A) Select one: a.blastomere b.trophoblast c.morula Correct d.cytotrophoblast e.blastocyst

a.Fenestrated capillaries are located in endocrine glands, the choroid plexus of the brain, absorptive areas of the intestine, and filtration areas of the kidneys.

At what sties in the body are fenestrated capillaries located? (Module 19.3B) a.Fenestrated capillaries are located in endocrine glands, the choroid plexus of the brain, absorptive areas of the intestine, and filtration areas of the kidneys. b.Fenestrated capillaries are located in the liver and bone marrow. c.Fenestrated capillaries are located in the pituitary gland, bone marrow, and spleen. d.Fenestrated capillaries are located in the thymus. e.Fenestrated capillaries are located central nervous system.

a.trabecular arteries - central arteries - capillaries - reticular tissue of red pulp - sinusoids - trabecular veins

Beginning at the trabecular arteries, trace the path of blood through the spleen. (Module 20.7C) a.trabecular arteries - central arteries - capillaries - reticular tissue of red pulp - sinusoids - trabecular veins b.trabecular arteries - central arteries - reticular tissue of red pulp - sinusoids - capillaries - trabecular veins c.trabecular arteries - sinusoids - central arteries - capillaries - reticular tissue of red pulp - trabecular veins d.trabecular arteries - reticular tissue of red pulp - central arteries - sinusoids - capillaries - trabecular veins e.trabecular arteries - capillaries - trabecular veins - sinusoids - central arteries - reticular tissue of red pulp

b. Chronic renal failure is a gradual loss of renal function, whereas acute renal failure is a sudden loss of renal function.

Briefly explain the difference between chronic and acute renal failure. (Module 24.14A) Select one: a.Chronic renal failure is the gradual loss in the ability to reabsorb glucose, whereas acute renal failure is a sudden loss in the ability to reabsorb glucose. b.Chronic renal failure is a gradual loss of renal function, whereas acute renal failure is a sudden loss of renal function. c.Chronic renal failure is a sudden loss of renal function, whereas acute renal failure is a gradual loss of renal function. d.Chronic renal failure is a gradual loss in the ability to concentrate urine, whereas acute renal failure is a sudden loss in the ability to concentrate urine. e.Chronic renal failure is a sudden loss in the ability to concentrate urine, whereas acute renal failure is a gradual loss in the ability to concentrate urine.

d.Benign prostatic hypertrophy is an enlargement of the prostate whereas prostate cancer is a malignancy.

Compare benign prostatic hypertrophy with prostate cancer. (Module 26.17A) Select one: a.Benign prostatic hypertrophy affects the seminal glands in addition to the prostate whereas prostate cancer just affects the prostate gland. b.Benign prostatic hypertrophy affects young men whereas prostate cancer affects older men. c.Benign prostatic hypertrophy is a malignancy whereas prostate cancer is a shrinkage of the prostate gland. d.Benign prostatic hypertrophy is an enlargement of the prostate whereas prostate cancer is a malignancy. e.Benign prostatic hypertrophy affects older men whereas prostate cancer affects young men.

b.Bradycardia is a heart rate below 60 beats per minute and tachycardia is a heart rate above 100 beats per minute.

Compare bradycardia with tachycardia. (Module 18.14A) a.Bradycardia is an abnormally strong ventricular contraction and tachycardia is an abnormally weak ventricular contraction. b.Bradycardia is a heart rate below 60 beats per minute and tachycardia is a heart rate above 100 beats per minute. c.Bradycardia is an abnormally weak ventricular contraction and tachycardia is an abnormally strong ventricular contraction. d.Bradycardia is a heart rate above 100 beats per minute and tachycardia is a heart rate below 60 beats per minute. e.Bradycardia is a heart rate below 80 beats per minute and tachycardia is a heart rate above 120 beats per minute.

a.Lymphatic capillaries in the small intestine are called lacteals and they transport lipids. Lymphatic capillaries elsewhere are associated with blood capillary networks.

Compare lymphatic capillaries in the small intestine with those found elsewhere. (Module 20.2D) a.Lymphatic capillaries in the small intestine are called lacteals and they transport lipids. Lymphatic capillaries elsewhere are associated with blood capillary networks. b.Lymphatic capillaries in the small intestine are called mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue and they contain dividing lymphocytes. Lymphatic capillaries elsewhere house mature, non-dividing, lymphocytes. c.Lymphatic capillaries in the small intestine are called lymph corpuscles and they are not involved in the immune response of the body. Lymphatic capillaries elsewhere are involved in the immune response of the body. d.Lymphatic capillaries in the small intestine also absorb nutrients to deliver to the hepatic portal vein and are critical components of the hepatic portal system. Lymphatic capillaries elsewhere do not carry any nutrients in the lymph. e.Lymphatic capillaries in the small intestine are called lymph corpuscles and they are involved in the immune response of the body. Lymphatic capillaries elsewhere are not involved in the immune response of the body.

d. Oxyhemoglobin is hemoglobin whose iron has bound oxygen. Deoxyhemoglobin is hemoglobin whose iron has not bound oxygen.

Compare oxyhemoglobin with deoxyhemoglobin. (Module 17.5C) a.Oxyhemoglobin is hemoglobin whose iron has not bound oxygen. Deoxyhemoglobin is hemoglobin whose iron has bound oxygen. b.Oxyhemoglobin is hemoglobin whose iron has bound both oxygen and carbon dioxide. Deoxyhemoglobin is hemoglobin whose iron has bound oxygen only. c.Oxyhemoglobin is hemoglobin whose iron has bound carbon dioxide. Deoxyhemoglobin is hemoglobin whose iron has bound oxygen. d.Oxyhemoglobin is hemoglobin whose iron has bound oxygen. Deoxyhemoglobin is hemoglobin whose iron has not bound oxygen. e.Oxyhemoglobin is hemoglobin whose iron has bound oxygen only. Deoxyhemoglobin is hemoglobin whose iron has bound both oxygen and carbon dioxide.

b.Pernicious anemia is insufficient red blood cell production caused by a deficiency in vitamin B12, whereas iron deficiency anemia is impaired hemoglobin synthesis caused by a deficiency in dietary intake or absorption of iron.

Compare pernicious anemia with iron deficiency anemia. (Module 17.11A) a.Pernicious anemia is insufficient red blood cell production caused by a deficiency in vitamin K, whereas iron deficiency anemia is insufficient red blood cell production caused by a deficiency in vitamin B12. b.Pernicious anemia is insufficient red blood cell production caused by a deficiency in vitamin B12, whereas iron deficiency anemia is impaired hemoglobin synthesis caused by a deficiency in dietary intake or absorption of iron. c.Pernicious anemia is insufficient red blood cell production caused by a deficiency in vitamin B12, whereas iron deficiency anemia is insufficient red blood cell production caused by a deficiency in vitamin K. d.Pernicious anemia is an inherited bleeding disorder caused by the reduced production of a single clotting factor, whereas iron deficiency anemia is impaired hemoglobin synthesis caused by a deficiency in dietary intake or absorption of iron. e.Pernicious anemia is insufficient red blood cell production caused by a deficiency in vitamin B12, whereas iron deficiency anemia is an inherited disorder of malformed hemoglobin due to an amino acid chain mutation.

c.The anterior cardiac veins drain the anterior surface of the right ventricle and empty into the right atrium; the posterior vein of left ventricle drains the area supplied by the circumflex artery (posterior surface of the left ventricle).

Compare the anterior cardiac veins to the posterior vein of the left ventricle. (Module 18.5B) a.The anterior cardiac veins drain the left and right ventricles; the posterior vein of left ventricle drains the left and right atria. b.The anterior cardiac veins drain the right atrium and right ventricle and empty into the right atrium; the posterior vein of left ventricle drains the left atrium and left ventricle. c.The anterior cardiac veins drain the anterior surface of the right ventricle and empty into the right atrium; the posterior vein of left ventricle drains the area supplied by the circumflex artery (posterior surface of the left ventricle). d.The anterior cardiac veins drain the left and right atria; the posterior vein of left ventricle drains the left and right ventricles. e.The anterior cardiac veins drain the anterior surface of all chambers; the posterior vein of left ventricle drains the posterior surface of all chambers.

b.The submucosal neural plexus and the myenteric plexus both contain neurons but the submucosal neural plexus innervates the mucosa and submucosa, whereas the myenteric plexus innervates the muscular layer.

Compare the submucosal neural plexus with the myenteric plexus. (Module 22.2C) Select one: a.The submucosal neural plexus contains only sensory neurons, whereas the myenteric plexus contains only motor neurons. b.The submucosal neural plexus and the myenteric plexus both contain neurons but the submucosal neural plexus innervates the mucosa and submucosa, whereas the myenteric plexus innervates the muscular layer. c.The submucosal neural plexus contains only motor neurons, whereas the myenteric plexus contains only sensory neurons. d.The submucosal neural plexus and the myenteric plexus are both intricate capillary beds found in the layers of the digestive tract. e.The submucosal neural plexus and the myenteric plexus both contain neurons but the submucosal neural plexus innervates the mucosa only, whereas the myenteric plexus innervates the serosa only.

d.Both circuits receive the same volume of blood.

Compare the volume of blood each circuit receives from contraction of the ventricles. (Module 18.1D) a.The pulmonary circuit receives half as much blood as the systemic circuit. b.The systemic circuit receives three times as much blood as the pulmonary circuit. c.The systemic circuit receives four times as much blood as the pulmonary circuit. d.Both circuits receive the same volume of blood. e.The systemic circuit receives twice as much blood as the pulmonary circuit.

c.85 mL

Compute Joe's stroke volume if his end-systolic volume (ESV) is 40 mL and his end-diastolic volume (EDV) is 125 mL. (Module 18.16B) a.165 mL b.5000 mL c.85 mL d.45 mL e.500 mL

a.parathyroid hormone

Decreased blood calcium level would result in increased secretion of which hormone? (Module 16.9C) a.parathyroid hormone b.growth hormone c.cortisol d.thyroid stimulating hormone e.calcitonin

Boyle's law states that at a constant temperature, the pressure of a gas is inversely proportional to its volume.

Define Boyle's law. (Module 21.9A) a.Boyle's law states that at a given temperature, the amount of a particular gas that dissolves in a liquid is inversely proportional to the partial pressure of that gas, which underlies the diffusion of gases between capillaries and alveoli, and between capillaries and interstitial fluid. b.Boyle's law states that in a mixture of gases, the individual gases exert a pressure proportional to their abundance in the mixture. c.Boyle's law states that at a constant temperature, the pressure of a gas is inversely proportional to its volume. d.Boyle's law states that at a constant temperature, the pressure of a gas is directly proportional to its volume. e.Boyle's law states that at a given temperature, the amount of a particular gas that dissolves in a liquid is directly proportional to the partial pressure of that gas, which underlies the diffusion of gases between capillaries and alveoli, and between capillaries and interstitial fluid.

Dalton's law states that in a mixture of gases, the individual gases exert a pressure proportional to their abundance in the mixture.

Define Dalton's law. (Module 21.12A) a.Dalton's law states that at a constant temperature, the pressure of a gas is directly proportional to its volume. b.Dalton's law states that at a given temperature, the amount of a particular gas that dissolves in a liquid is directly proportional to the partial pressure of that gas, which underlies the diffusion of gases between capillaries and alveoli, and between capillaries and interstitial fluid. c.Dalton's law states that at a constant temperature, the pressure of a gas is inversely proportional to its volume. d.Dalton's law states that in a mixture of gases, the individual gases exert a pressure proportional to their abundance in the mixture. e.Dalton's law states that at a given temperature, the amount of a particular gas that dissolves in a liquid is inversely proportional to the partial pressure of that gas, which underlies the diffusion of gases between capillaries and alveoli, and between capillaries and interstitial fluid.

c.Acidemia is when pH decreases below 7.35 and alkalemia is when pH increases above 7.45.

Define acidemia and alkalemia. (Module 25.7A) Select one: a.Acidemia is when pH decreases below 1 and alkalemia is when pH increases above 13. b.Acidemia is when pH increases above 7.45 and alkalemia is when pH decreases below 7.35. c.Acidemia is when pH decreases below 7.35 and alkalemia is when pH increases above 7.45. d.Acidemia is when pH decreases below 4.8 and alkalemia is when pH increases above 11.4. e.Acidemia is when pH increases above 11.4 and alkalemia is when pH decreases below 4.8.

a.It is the time after a meal when nutrient absorption is occurring, insulin is stimulating glucose uptake, glycogenesis, amino acid uptake, and protein synthesis.

Define and describe the absorptive state. (Module 23.13A) Select one: a.It is the time after a meal when nutrient absorption is occurring, insulin is stimulating glucose uptake, glycogenesis, amino acid uptake, and protein synthesis. b.It is the time after a meal when nutrient absorption is not under way and energy reserves are being used to meet energy demand. c.It is the time before a meal when nutrient absorption is occurring, insulin is stimulating glucose uptake, glycogenesis, amino acid uptake, and protein synthesis. d.It is the time before a meal when nutrient absorption is not under way and energy reserves are being used to meet energy demand.

b.Autorhythmicity is the ability of the heart to contract without neural or hormonal stimulation.

Define autorhythmicity. (Module 18.12A) a.Autorhythmicity is the ability of the heart to contract with neural stimulation. b.Autorhythmicity is the ability of the heart to contract without neural or hormonal stimulation. c.Autorhythmicity is the ability of the heart to relax after each contraction. d.Autorhythmicity is the ability of the heart to respond to sympathetic stimulation. e.Autorhythmicity is the ability of the heart to contract with hormonal stimulation.

c.A balanced diet contains all of the nutrients needed to maintain homeostasis and prevent malnutrition.

Define balanced diet. (Module 23.15A) Select one: a.A balanced diet contains all of the nutrients needed for energy expenditure without any excess nutrients that would be stored. b.A balanced diet contains equal amounts of carbohydrates, proteins, and lipids. c.A balanced diet contains all of the nutrients needed to maintain homeostasis and prevent malnutrition. d.A balanced diet contains equal amounts of fat-soluble and water-soluble vitamins. e.A balanced diet contains only healthy sources of carbohydrates, proteins, and lipids.

a.A bronchopulmonary segment is a region of the lung supplied by a segmental bronchus.

Define bronchopulmonary segment. (Module 21.6A) a.A bronchopulmonary segment is a region of the lung supplied by a segmental bronchus. b.A bronchopulmonary segment is a region of the lung supplied by terminal bronchioles. c.A bronchopulmonary segment is a region of the lung supplied by a lobar or secondary bronchus. d.A bronchopulmonary segment is a region of the lung supplied by a main or primary bronchus. e.A bronchopulmonary segment is a region of the lung supplied by respiratory bronchioles.

b. Cardiac regurgitation is the backflow of blood into the atria when the ventricles contract.

Define cardiac regurgitation. (Module 18.7A) a.Cardiac regurgitation is the backflow of blood into the ventricles from the outflow vessels when the ventricles relax. b.Cardiac regurgitation is the backflow of blood into the atria when the ventricles contract. Correct c.Cardiac regurgitation is the flow of blood into the ventricles during atrial contraction. d.Cardiac regurgitation is the flow of blood from the ventricles into the outflow vessels. e.Cardiac regurgitation is the flow of blood back into the right and left atria from the veins.

c.Chemotaxis is the phagocyte movement in response to chemical stimuli.

Define chemotaxis. (Module 20.10B) a.Chemotaxis is the process of a phagocyte leaving a capillary by squeezing between adjacent endothelial cells. b.Chemotaxis is the release of digestive chemicals by the phagocyte when the target is too large to be engulfed. c.Chemotaxis is the phagocyte movement in response to chemical stimuli. d.Chemotaxis is the attachment of the phagocyte to its target. e.Chemotaxis is the destruction of the target by the phagocyte.

c. Compliance is the ease with which the lungs expand and recoil. Resistance is an indication of how much force is required to inflate or deflate the lungs.

Define compliance and resistance. (Module 21.15A) a.Compliance is the ease with which the breathing muscles and rib cage expand and recoil. Resistance is the limitation of expansion placed on the lungs by the size of the rib cage. b.Compliance is an indication of how much force is required to inflate or deflate the lungs.Resistance is the ease with which the lungs expand and recoil. c.Compliance is the ease with which the lungs expand and recoil. Resistance is an indication of how much force is required to inflate or deflate the lungs. d.Compliance is the limitation of expansion placed on the lungs by the size of the rib cage.Resistance is the ease with which the breathing muscles and rib cage expand and recoil. e.Compliance is the ability of the lungs to expand. Resistance is the ability of the lungs to recoil.

c. Hemocytoblasts form from hematopoietic stem cells and divide into lymphoid stem cells and myeloid stem cells.

Define hemocytoblasts. (Module 17.3A) a.Hemocytoblasts form from megakaryocytes and produce platelets. b.Hemocytoblasts form from myeloid stem cells and divide to become erythrocytes. c.Hemocytoblasts form from hematopoietic stem cells and divide into lymphoid stem cells and myeloid stem cells. d.Hemocytoblasts form from lymphoid stem cells and divide to become lymphocytes and monocytes. e.Hemocytoblasts shed their cytoplasm in membrane-enclosed packets called platelets.

c. Hemolytic disease of the newborn is a condition in which maternal Rh antibodies attack and destroy fetal Rh-positive red blood cells, resulting in anemia.

Define hemolytic disease of the newborn (HDN). (Module 17.8A) a.Hemolytic disease of the newborn is a result of abnormally shaped hemoglobin molecules. b.Hemolytic disease of the newborn is due to a deficiency in the numbers of red blood cells produced, resulting in anemia. c.Hemolytic disease of the newborn is a condition in which maternal Rh antibodies attack and destroy fetal Rh-positive red blood cells, resulting in anemia. d.Hemolytic disease of the newborn is a congenital defect in the development of the heart. e.Hemolytic disease of the newborn is a result of delayed bone marrow development.

d.Hemostasis is the process of stopping bleeding.

Define hemostasis. (Module 17.10A) a.Hemostasis is the production of new blood components in the red bone marrow. b.Hemostasis is the regulation of the hormones that control blood composition. c.Hemostasis is an antigen-antibody binding response that alerts the immune system to a non-self antigen. d.Hemostasis is the process of stopping bleeding. e.Hemostasis is the maintenance of relatively normal internal conditions in the face of a changing external environment.

e.a liver cell

Define hepatocyte. (Module 22.21A) a.a salivary gland cell b.a small intestinal cell c.a gallbladder cell d.a pancreatic cell e.a liver cell

c.Homozygous means that homologous chromosomes carry the same allele of a given gene. Heterozygous means that homologous chromosomes carry different alleles of a given gene.

Define homozygous and heterozygous. (Module 27.15A) Select one: a.Homozygous means that all genes are on the same locus. Heterozygous means that all genes are on different loci. b.Homozygous means homologous chromosomes has the same genes. Heterozygous means homologous chromosomes has different genes. c.Homozygous means that homologous chromosomes carry the same allele of a given gene. Heterozygous means that homologous chromosomes carry different alleles of a given gene. d.Homozygous means homologous chromosomes has different genes. Heterozygous means homologous chromosomes has the same genes. e.Homozygous means that homologous chromosomes carry different alleles of a given gene. Heterozygous means that homologous chromosomes carry the same allele of a given gene.

e.A hormone receptor is a protein located outside or inside the cell that binds with a specific hormone.

Define hormone receptor. (Module 16.4A) a.A hormone receptor is a protein located outside the cell that binds with a specific hormone. b.A hormone receptor is a protein located within the cell that binds with a specific hormone. c.A hormone receptor is a protein located outside the cell that causes depolarization of the cell upon specific hormone binding. d.A hormone receptor is protein that causes the release of neurotransmitters upon specific hormone binding. e.A hormone receptor is a protein located outside or inside the cell that binds with a specific hormone.

a.Entry of food and liquids into the digestive tract through the mouth.

Define ingestion. (Module 22.5A) a.Entry of food and liquids into the digestive tract through the mouth. b.The movement of nutrients across the digestive epithelium and into the bloodstream. c.The crushing and shearing of food. d.The discharge of feces. e.The enzymatic breakdown of food.

d.The loss of water by evaporation from the skin and alveolar surfaces of the lungs.

Define insensible perspiration. (Module 23.19A) Select one: a.The loss of water by evaporation from sweat glands. b.The loss of water by direct transfer of energy through physical contact. c.The loss of water by radiation. d.The loss of water by evaporation from the skin and alveolar surfaces of the lungs. e.The loss of water as cool air moves across the surface of the body.

e.Lactation is the production of milk by the mammary glands.

Define lactation. (Module 26.14A) Select one: a.Lactation is the development of the breasts at puberty. b.Lactation is the secretion of prolactin by the anterior pituitary gland. c.Lactation is the secretion of oxytocin by the posterior pituitary gland. d.Lactation is the act of breastfeeding an infant. e.Lactation is the production of milk by the mammary glands.

c.Mineral balance occurs when ion gains are equal to ion losses.

Define mineral balance. (Module 25.3A) Select one: a.Mineral balance occurs when the blood plasma concentration of sodium is equal to chloride. b.Mineral balance occurs when ion gain and loss is equal to water gain and loss. c.Mineral balance occurs when ion gains are equal to ion losses. d.Mineral balance occurs when the blood plasma concentration of sodium is equal to potassium. e.Mineral balance occurs when the minerals in the ICF are isotonic to the minerals in the ECF.

a.Oocyte is an immature female gamete.

Define oocyte. (Module 26.10A) Select one: a.Oocyte is an immature female gamete. b.Oocyte is the empty follicle after ovulation. c.Oocyte is a mature female gamete. d.Oocyte is the nest a gamete develops in. e.Oocyte is the stage of a female gamete during ovulation.

b.Organogenesis is the process of organ formation.

Define organogenesis. (Module 27.8A) Select one: a.Organogenesis is the process of cleavage and implantation. b.Organogenesis is the process of organ formation. c.Organogenesis is the process of organ growth during the third trimester. d.Organogenesis is the process of embryo formation during the first twelve weeks. e.Organogenesis is the process of organ maturation during postnatal development.

a.Oxyhemoglobin is hemoglobin that has 4 molecules of oxygen bound.

Define oxyhemoglobin. (Module 21.13A) a.Oxyhemoglobin is hemoglobin that has 4 molecules of oxygen bound. b.Oxyhemoglobin is hemoglobin that has less than 4 molecules of oxygen bound. c.Oxyhemoglobin is hemoglobin that has less than 4 molecules of carbon dioxide bound. d.Oxyhemoglobin is hemoglobin that has 4 molecules of carbon dioxide bound. e.Oxyhemoglobin is hemoglobin with 4 molecules of oxygen bound and 4 molecules of carbon dioxide bound.

a.Respiratory rate is the number of breaths taken each minute.

Define respiratory rate. (Module 21.11A) a.Respiratory rate is the number of breaths taken each minute. b.Respiratory rate is the amount of air that remains in your lungs even after a maximal exhalation. c.Respiratory rate is volume of air moved each minute. d.Respiratory rate is the time it takes to voluntarily expel all of your air. e.Respiratory rate is the time it takes to inhale forcibly all of your air.

c.Respiratory rate would increase

How would a decrease in the pH of body fluids affect the respiratory rate? (Module 25.10B) Select one: a.Respiratory rate would decrease. b.Respiratory rate would not change. c.Respiratory rate would increase

a.liver macrophages which engulf pathogens, cell debris, and damaged blood cells

Define stellate macrophages, and indicate their functions. (Module 22.21C) a.liver macrophages which engulf pathogens, cell debris, and damaged blood cells b.liver macrophages which breakdown and phagocytose excess bile c.liver macrophages which adjust circulating levels of nutrients through selective absorption and secretion d.liver macrophages which synthesize bile e.gallbladder macrophages which breakdown and phagocytose excess bile

a. The vasa recta are long, straight capillaries that that parallel the nephron loop.

Define the vasa recta. (Module 24.5C) Select one: a.The vasa recta are long, straight capillaries that that parallel the nephron loop. b.The vasa recta contains sympathetic postganglionic fibers. c.The vasa recta contain the afferent and efferent arterioles. d.The vasa recta are capillaries that surround the entire renal tubule. e.The vasa recta contain parasympathetic postganglionic fibers.

b.T cell plasma membranes contain cluster of differentiation (CD) proteins involved in antigen recognition.

Describe CD markers. (Module 20.16A) a.B cells contain cloning and division (CD) proteins in the cytoplasm to allow them to activate and clone after an exposure to an antigen. b.T cell plasma membranes contain cluster of differentiation (CD) proteins involved in antigen recognition. c.B cell plasma membranes contain cluster of differentiation (CD) proteins involved in antigen recognition. d.T cells contain cloning and division (CD) proteins in the cytoplasm to allow them to activate and clone after an exposure to an antigen. e.NK cell plasma membranes contain cluster of differentiation (CD) proteins involved in antigen recognition.

d.A capillary is a small blood vessel whose thin wall permits exchange between blood and interstitial fluid by diffusion.

Describe a capillary. (Module 19.2B) a.A capillary is a large blood vessel whose thick wall consists of a thick tunica media with diffuse elastic fibers. b.A capillary is a medium-sized blood vessel that has a poorly defined tunica externa, and the tunica media has only a few layers of smooth muscle cells. c.A capillary is a large blood vessel whose thick wall consists of a thick tunica media with few elastic fibers. d.A capillary is a small blood vessel whose thin wall permits exchange between blood and interstitial fluid by diffusion. e.A capillary is a large blood vessel whose wall is thin but all three layers are present.

a.Autoregulation involves local factors changing the pattern of blood flow within capillary beds in response to chemical changes in interstitial fluids.

Describe autoregulation as it relates to cardiovascular function. (Module 19.9B) a.Autoregulation involves local factors changing the pattern of blood flow within capillary beds in response to chemical changes in interstitial fluids. b.Autoregulation involves changing respiratory rates to adjust the pH of blood reaching each tissue or organ. c.Autoregulation involves altering the oxygen content in the blood reaching each tissue or organ. d.Autoregulation is the blood flow to tissues sufficient to deliver adequate oxygen and nutrients. e.Autoregulation is the control of blood composition.

c. Autoregulation is the process of maintaining GFR despite changes in local blood pressure and blood flow by changing local responses in the kidney.

Describe autoregulation at the kidneys. (Module 24.9A) a.Autoregulation is the process of maintaining GFR despite changes in local blood pressure and blood flow by releasing hormones that influence salt and water reabsorption in the kidney. b.Autoregulation is the process of maintaining GFR despite changes in local blood pressure and blood flow by changing respiratory rate. c.Autoregulation is the process of maintaining GFR despite changes in local blood pressure and blood flow by changing local responses in the kidney. d.Autoregulation is the process of maintaining GFR despite changes in local blood pressure and blood flow by activating the sympathetic nervous system. e.Autoregulation is the process of maintaining GFR despite changes in local blood pressure and blood flow by activating the central nervous system.

d.endocrine cells in the epithelium of the digestive tract

Describe enteroendocrine cells. (Module 22.4C) Select one: a.endocrine cells in the accessory organs that deliver hormones to the digestive tract b.endocrine cells in between the layers of the muscular layer of the digestive tract c.endocrine cells in the serosa layer of the digestive tract d.endocrine cells in the epithelium of the digestive tract e.endocrine cells in the submucosal layer of the digestive tract

a.Metabolic acidosis occurs when pH decreases due increased numbers of fixed and metabolic acids, from bicarbonate loss, or from depletion of bicarbonate reserve when hydrogen ions are not adequately excreted by the kidneys.

Describe metabolic acidosis. (Module 25.9A) Select one: a.Metabolic acidosis occurs when pH decreases due increased numbers of fixed and metabolic acids, from bicarbonate loss, or from depletion of bicarbonate reserve when hydrogen ions are not adequately excreted by the kidneys. b.Metabolic acidosis occurs when pH decreases due to an impaired ability to remove CO2 by the lungs. c.Metabolic acidosis occurs when pH increases due to the removal of hydrogen ions when bicarbonate ion concentrations are elevated. d.Metabolic acidosis occurs when pH increases due to an impaired ability to remove CO2 by the lungs. e.Metabolic acidosis occurs when pH increases due to faster CO2 elimination by the lungs than production.

d.Platelets are cell fragments that develop from megakaryocytes.

Describe platelets and their origin. (Module 17.3B) a.Platelets are the remnants of the reticulocyte organelles during the maturation of a reticulocyte into a red blood cell. b.Platelets are precursor cells to the myeloid and lymphoid stem cells. c.Platelets are derived by lymphoid stem cells that divide into lymphocytes and in the process shed some cytoplasmic fragments. d.Platelets are cell fragments that develop from megakaryocytes. e.Platelets are immature red blood cells.

a.The carbonic acid-bicarbonate buffer system uses the hydrogen ions created by the metabolic and fixed acids to generate carbonic acid which dissociates into H2O and CO2, which can be eliminated by the lungs.

Describe the carbonic acid-bicarbonate buffer system. (Module 25.8C) Select one: a.The carbonic acid-bicarbonate buffer system uses the hydrogen ions created by the metabolic and fixed acids to generate carbonic acid which dissociates into H2O and CO2, which can be eliminated by the lungs. b.The carbonic acid-bicarbonate buffer system uses the lungs to exhale CO2 to buffer pH. c.The carbonic acid-bicarbonate buffer system uses the kidneys to secrete or excrete bicarbonate to buffer pH. d.The carbonic acid-bicarbonate buffer system uses hemoglobin to buffer hydrogen ions. e.The carbonic acid-bicarbonate buffer system uses the side group, the amino group, and the carboxylate group of amino acids to buffer pH changes.

d. The volume is divided into the systemic venous system (64%), systemic arterial system (13%), in the heart (7%), pulmonary circulation (9%), and systemic capillaries (7%).

Describe the distribution of total blood volume in the body. (Module 19.4C) a.The volume is divided into the systemic venous system (50%), systemic arterial system (37%), in the heart (7%), pulmonary circulation (3%), and systemic capillaries (3%). b.The volume is divided into the systemic venous system (75%), systemic arterial system (5%), in the heart (5%), pulmonary circulation (5%), and systemic capillaries (10%). c.The volume is divided into the systemic venous system (20%), systemic arterial system (20%), in the heart (20%), pulmonary circulation (20%), and systemic capillaries (20%). d.The volume is divided into the systemic venous system (64%), systemic arterial system (13%), in the heart (7%), pulmonary circulation (9%), and systemic capillaries (7%). e.The volume is divided into the systemic venous system (13%), systemic arterial system (64%), in the heart (7%), pulmonary circulation (9%), and systemic capillaries (7%).

a.The partial pressure gradients push oxygen into peripheral tissues and carbon dioxide out of tissues and into blood.

Describe the forces that drive oxygen and carbon dioxide transport between the blood and peripheral tissues. (Module 21.14B) a.The partial pressure gradients push oxygen into peripheral tissues and carbon dioxide out of tissues and into blood. b.The atmospheric pressure gradient drives oxygen into tissues and carbon dioxide moves passively out. c.Air hydrostatic pressures push oxygen into peripheral tissues and carbon dioxide out of tissues and into blood. d.The osmotic pressure gradient of dissolved proteins push oxygen into peripheral tissues and carbon dioxide out of tissues and into blood. e.The respiratory muscles generate force that drives oxygen into tissue and carbon dioxide moves passively out.

e. RBCs have a large surface area - to - volume ratio, exhibit the ability to form stacks, and they are flexible.

Describe the functional aspects of RBCs. (Module 17.5A) a.RBCs have pseudopodia to allow motility, are spherical in shape, and roll easily across the endothelium of blood vessels. b.RBCs have a lot of mitochondria for ATP production, undergo rapid cell division, and are flexible. c.RBCs have a large surface area - to - volume ratio, have sticky plasma membranes, and are rigid discs. d.RBCs have a small surface area - to - volume ratio, are spherical in shape, and stick easily to each other. e.RBCs have a large surface area - to - volume ratio, exhibit the ability to form stacks, and they are flexible.

b. The heart is surrounded by the pericardium in the anterior mediastinum, deep to the sternum and superior to the diaphragm.

Describe the heart's location in the body. (Module 18.2B) a.The heart is surrounded by the pericardium in the posterior mediastinum, deep to the lungs and superior to the diaphragm. b.The heart is surrounded by the pericardium in the anterior mediastinum, deep to the sternum and superior to the diaphragm. c.The heart is surrounded by the pleural cavity in the posterior mediastinum, deep to the sternum and inferior to the diaphragm. d.The heart is surrounded by the pleural cavity in the anterior mediastinum, deep to the lungs and superior to the diaphragm. e.The heart is surrounded by the mediastinum in the anterior pericardium, deep to the sternum and superior to the diaphragm.

c.it is lined with rugae

Describe the lining of the stomach. (Module 22.10C) a.it is lined with microvilli b.it is lined with circular folds c.it is lined with rugae d.it is lined with cilia e.it is a smooth surface

b.arched opening between the oral cavity and the oropharynx

Describe the location of fauces. (Module 22.6C) a.the space between the cheeks and the teeth b.arched opening between the oral cavity and the oropharynx c.the floor of the oral cavity d.between the soft palate and the base of the tongue e.between the palatoglossal and palatopharyngeal arches on each side

b.The pulmonary circuit transports blood from the right ventricle through the pulmonary arteries, capillaries in the lungs, and pulmonary veins and returns it to the left atrium.

Describe the pulmonary circuit. (Module 19.1A) a.The pulmonary circuit transports blood through the arteries, capillaries, and veins of the body from the left ventricle to the right atrium. b.The pulmonary circuit transports blood from the right ventricle through the pulmonary arteries, capillaries in the lungs, and pulmonary veins and returns it to the left atrium. c.The pulmonary circuit transports blood from the left ventricle through the pulmonary veins, capillaries in the lungs, and pulmonary arteries and returns it to the right atrium. d.The pulmonary circuit consists of the vasculature in the lungs. e.The pulmonary circuit transports blood from the left ventricle through the pulmonary arteries, capillaries in the lungs, and pulmonary veins and returns it to the right atrium.

c.The respiratory pump is a mechanism by which a reduction of pressure in the thoracic cavity during inhalation assists venous return to the heart.

Describe the respiratory pump. (Module 19.12A) a.The respiratory pump is a mechanism by which contraction of the lungs propels blood through the thoracic cavity to the heart. b.The respiratory pump is a mechanism by which bronchoconstriction propels blood through the thoracic cavity to the heart. c.The respiratory pump is a mechanism by which a reduction of pressure in the thoracic cavity during inhalation assists venous return to the heart. d.The respiratory pump is a mechanism by which alternating cycles of bronchiolar constriction and bronchiolar dilation propel blood towards the heart. e.The respiratory pump is a mechanism by which an increase in pressure in the thoracic cavity during exhalation pushes blood towards the heart.

d.They allow hydrogen ions to diffuse from the intermembrane space into the matrix to power ATP synthase.

Describe the role that hydrogen ion channels play in the generation of ATP. (Module 23.5C) Select one: a.They allow oxygen to diffuse into the mitochondrial matrix. b.They allow hydrogen ions and electrons to pass from one cytochrome to another along the chain. c.They act as cytochromes in the electron transport chain. d.They allow hydrogen ions to diffuse from the intermembrane space into the matrix to power ATP synthase. e.They allow hydrogen ions to diffuse into the intermembrane space to power ATP synthase.

a.The cardioacceleratory center in the medulla oblongata activates sympathetic neurons to increase heart rate; the cardioinhibitory center in the medulla oblongata activates parasympathetic neurons that slow heart rate.

Describe the sites and actions of the cardioinhibitory and cardioacceleratory centers. (Module 18.14B) a.The cardioacceleratory center in the medulla oblongata activates sympathetic neurons to increase heart rate; the cardioinhibitory center in the medulla oblongata activates parasympathetic neurons that slow heart rate. b.The cardioacceleratory center in the medulla oblongata activates somatic neurons to slow heart rate; the cardioinhibitory center in the medulla oblongata activates somatic neurons that increase heart rate. c.The cardioacceleratory center in the medulla oblongata activates parasympathetic neurons to slow heart rate; the cardioinhibitory center in the medulla oblongata activates sympathetic neurons that increase heart rate. d.The cardioacceleratory center in the medulla oblongata activates parasympathetic neurons to increase heart rate; the cardioinhibitory center in the medulla oblongata activates sympathetic neurons that slow heart rate. e.The cardioacceleratory center in the medulla oblongata activates sympathetic neurons to slow heart rate; the cardioinhibitory center in the medulla oblongata activates parasympathetic neurons that increase heart rate.

a.bacterial metabolism of indigestible carbohydrates in the colon

Describe the source of intestinal gas. (Module 23.9A) Select one: a.bacterial metabolism of indigestible carbohydrates in the colon b.as bile emulsifies lipids some gas is released in the process c.as certain foods are broken down they release trapped gases d.churning of food in the stomach increases the carbon dioxide that is mixed into the chyme e.swallowing excess air during eating generates pockets of air that remain in the food

b.The glottis contains the vocal folds that contain the vocal ligaments and the rima glottidis which is the opening between the vocal folds.

Describe the structures of the glottis. (Module 21.4B) a.The glottis contains a vestibule and a septum. As air passes through the vestibule it is split by the septum producing sound. b.The glottis contains the vocal folds that contain the vocal ligaments and the rima glottidis which is the opening between the vocal folds. c.The glottis contains the vestibular ligaments that extend between the thyroid cartilage and the arytenoid cartilages. d.The glottis contains the superior, middle, and inferior meatuses, which swirls air in the larynx producing sound. e.The glottis contains the large epiglottis that covers the glottis during swallowing and the thyroid cartilage which forms most of the anterior and lateral walls of the larynx.

b.The endometrium is the inner, glandular layer; the myometrium is the middle, muscular layer; the perimetrium is the outer, incomplete serosal layer.

Describe the three layers of the uterine wall. (Module 26.11B) Select one: a.The endometrium is the outer, glandular layer; the myometrium is the middle, muscular layer; the perimetrium is the inner, incomplete serosal layer. b.The endometrium is the inner, glandular layer; the myometrium is the middle, muscular layer; the perimetrium is the outer, incomplete serosal layer. c.The endometrium is the outer, incomplete serosal layer; the myometrium is the inner, muscular layer; the perimetrium is the middle, glandular layer. d.The endometrium is the outer, muscular layer; the myometrium is the middle, incomplete serosal layer; the perimetrium is the inner, glandular layer. e.The endometrium is the middle, muscular layer; the myometrium is the inner, glandular layer; the perimetrium is the outer, incomplete serosal layer.

b.Elastic rebound is when blood in the aorta is driven forward into the systemic circuit, some is forced back toward the left ventricle and into the coronary arteries.

Describe what happens to blood flow during elastic rebound. (Module 18.5D) a.Elastic rebound is the speed with which the heart returns to its relaxed state after contracting. b.Elastic rebound is when blood in the aorta is driven forward into the systemic circuit, some is forced back toward the left ventricle and into the coronary arteries. c.Elastic rebound pushes blood from the cardiac veins into the right atrium. d.Elastic rebound is the contraction of the ventricles forcing blood into the outflow vessels. e.Elastic rebound is what pushes blood through the coronary arteries when the heart is contracting.

b.In simple inheritance, phenotype is determined by interactions between a single pair of alleles. In polygenic inheritance, phenotype is determined by interactions among alleles of several different genes.

Differentiate between simple inheritance and polygenic inheritance. (Module 27.15B) Select one: a.In simple inheritance, phenotype is determined by interactions among alleles of several different genes. In polygenic inheritance, phenotype is determined by interactions between a single pair of alleles. b.In simple inheritance, phenotype is determined by interactions between a single pair of alleles. In polygenic inheritance, phenotype is determined by interactions among alleles of several different genes. c.In simple inheritance, phenotype is determined by only one parent. In polygenic inheritance, phenotype is determined by both parents. d.In simple inheritance, phenotype is determined by multiple loci. In polygenic inheritance, phenotype is determined by a single locus. e.In simple inheritance, phenotype is determined by a single locus. In polygenic inheritance, phenotype is determined by multiple loci.

a.Efferent vessels carry blood away from the heart, afferent vessels carry blood to the heart, and exchange vessels exchange nutrients, dissolved gases, and wastes between the blood and interstitial fluid.

Distinguish among efferent vessels, afferent vessels, and exchange vessels. (Module 19.1D) a.Efferent vessels carry blood away from the heart, afferent vessels carry blood to the heart, and exchange vessels exchange nutrients, dissolved gases, and wastes between the blood and interstitial fluid. b.Efferent vessels exchange nutrients, dissolved gases, and wastes between the blood and interstitial fluid, afferent vessels carry blood to the heart, and exchange vessels carry blood away from the heart. c.Efferent vessels carry blood to the heart, afferent vessels exchange nutrients, dissolved gases, and wastes between the blood and interstitial fluid, and exchange vessels carry blood away from the heart. d.Efferent vessels exchange nutrients, dissolved gases, and wastes between the blood and interstitial fluid, afferent vessels carry blood away from the heart, and exchange vessels carry blood to the heart. e.Efferent vessels carry blood to the heart, afferent vessels carry blood away from the heart, and exchange vessels exchange nutrients, dissolved gases, and wastes between the blood and interstitial fluid.

c.Embryonic development refers to the events that occur during the first 2 months after fertilization. Fetal development begins at the 9th week and continues until birth. Prenatal development consists of both embryonic and fetal development.

Distinguish among embryonic, fetal, and prenatal development. (Module 27.1B) Select one: a.Embryonic development begins at implantation and continues until the end of the second trimester. Fetal development refers to the events of the third trimester. Prenatal development begins at birth and continues to maturity. b.Embryonic development begins at implantation and continues until the end of the second trimester. Fetal development begins at fertilization and occurs until implantation. Prenatal development refers to the events of the third trimester. c.Embryonic development refers to the events that occur during the first 2 months after fertilization. Fetal development begins at the 9th week and continues until birth. Prenatal development consists of both embryonic and fetal development. d.Embryonic development begins at fertilization and occurs until implantation. Fetal development begins at implantation and continues until the end of the second trimester. Prenatal development refers to the events of the third trimester. e.Embryonic development begins at the 9th week and continues until birth. Fetal development refers to the events that occur during the first 2 months after fertilization. Prenatal development consists of both embryonic and fetal development

d. The conducting portion includes the nasal cavity and extends through the pharynx, larynx, trachea, bronchi, and larger bronchioles. The respiratory portion includes the respiratory bronchioles and alveoli.

Distinguish between the conducting portion and respiratory portion of the respiratory tract. (Module 21.1B) a.The conducting portion includes the nasal cavity and extends through the pharynx and larynx. The respiratory portion includes the trachea, bronchi, larger bronchioles, respiratory bronchioles and alveoli. b.The conducting portion includes the trachea, bronchi, larger bronchioles, respiratory bronchioles and alveoli. The respiratory portion includes the nasal cavity and extends through the pharynx and larynx. c.The conducting portion includes the nasal cavity and pharynx. The respiratory portion includes the larynx, trachea, bronchi, larger bronchioles, respiratory bronchioles, and alveoli. d.The conducting portion includes the nasal cavity and extends through the pharynx, larynx, trachea, bronchi, and larger bronchioles. The respiratory portion includes the respiratory bronchioles and alveoli. e.The conducting portion of the respiratory tract includes the respiratory bronchioles and alveoli. The respiratory portion includes the nasal cavity and extends through the pharynx, larynx, trachea, bronchi, and larger bronchioles.

No, she will not require a RhoGAM injection because the fetus is not at risk for Rh incompatibility. The fetus is not at risk because its RBCs lack Rh surface antigens and the mother's plasma lacks anti-Rh antibodies.

Does an Rh+ mother carrying an Rh‒ fetus require a RhoGAM injection? Explain your answer. (Module 17.8C) a.Yes, she will require a RhoGAM injection because the fetus is at risk for Rh incompatibility. The fetus is at risk because its RBCs contain Rh surface antigens and the mother's plasma has anti-Rh antibodies. b.Yes, she will require a RhoGAM injection because the fetus is at risk for Rh incompatibility. The fetus is at risk because its RBCs lack Rh surface antigens and the mother's plasma has anti-Rh antibodies. c.No, she will not require a RhoGAM injection because the fetus is not at risk for Rh incompatibility. The fetus is not at risk because its RBCs lack Rh surface antigens and the mother's plasma lacks anti-Rh antibodies. d.Yes, she will require a RhoGAM injection because the fetus is at risk for Rh incompatibility. The fetus is at risk because its RBCs lack Rh surface antigens and the mother's plasma lacks anti-Rh antibodies. e.No, she will not require a RhoGAM injection because the fetus is not at risk for Rh incompatibility. The fetus is not at risk because its RBCs contain Rh surface antigens and the mother's plasma has anti-Rh antibodies.

e. Increased temperature and decreased pH generated by active skeletal muscles cause hemoglobin to release more oxygen during exercise than when the muscles are at rest.

During exercise, hemoglobin releases more oxygen to active skeletal muscles than it does when those muscles are at rest. Why? (Module 21.13B) a.Decreased temperature and increased oxygen generated by active skeletal muscles cause hemoglobin to release more oxygen during exercise than when the muscles are at rest. b.Decreased temperature and increased pH generated by active skeletal muscles cause hemoglobin to release more oxygen during exercise than when the muscles are at rest. c.Decreased temperature and decreased pH generated by active skeletal muscles cause hemoglobin to release more oxygen during exercise than when the muscles are at rest. d.Increased temperature and increased pH generated by active skeletal muscles cause hemoglobin to release more oxygen during exercise than when the muscles are at rest. e.Increased temperature and decreased pH generated by active skeletal muscles cause hemoglobin to release more oxygen during exercise than when the muscles are at rest.

d.exhaustion phase

During which phase of the general adaptation syndrome is there a collapse of vital systems? (Module 16.17C) a.adjustment phase b.complications phase c.resistance phase d.exhaustion phase e.alarm phase

c.Dehydration occurs when water losses outpace water gain causing the osmotic concentration of blood plasma to increase.

Explain dehydration and its effect on the osmotic concentration of blood. (Module 25.2C) Select one: a.Dehydration occurs when water losses equal water gains but the osmotic concentration of the ICF increases. b.Dehydration occurs when water gains outpace water losses causing the osmotic concentration of blood plasma to decrease. c.Dehydration occurs when water losses outpace water gain causing the osmotic concentration of blood plasma to increase. d.Dehydration occurs when water gains outpace water losses causing the osmotic concentration of blood plasma to increase. e.Dehydration occurs when water losses outpace water gain causing the osmotic concentration of blood plasma to decrease.

e.Lymphedema is the accumulation of interstitial fluids that results from blocked lymphatic drainage.

Explain lymphedema. (Module 20.3C) a.Lymphedema is the invasion of red blood cells into leaky lymphatic vessels. b.Lymphedema is the dilation of lymphatic vessels that occurs in response to inflammation. c.Lymphedema is the accumulation of lymphocytes in lymphatic vessels during an active infection. d.Lymphedema is the activation of the lymphatic system during an active infection. e.Lymphedema is the accumulation of interstitial fluids that results from blocked lymphatic drainage.

d. It serves as an intracellular glucose reserve.

Explain the role of glycogen in cellular metabolism. (Module 23.9B) Select one: a.It is the primary fuel that enters the electron transport chain. b.It is the primary fuel that enters glycolysis. c.It can easily be converted to other non-carbohydrate fuel sources. d.It serves as an intracellular glucose reserve. Correct e.It is the primary fuel that enters the citric acid cycle.

c. prevent friction and irritation when digestive organs move

Explain the significance of peritoneal fluid. (Module 22.9C) Select one: a.hormones travel through the peritoneal fluid to their target digestive organs b.gas exchange occurs in the peritoneal fluid c.prevent friction and irritation when digestive organs move d.provide a liquid medium for the intestines to be suspended in e.nutrients pass from the digestive lumen into the peritoneal fluid before entering the bloodstream

d.pericardium, myocardium, endocardium

From superficial to deep, name the layers of the heart wall. (Module 18.3A) a.pericardium, endocardium, myocardium b.endocardium, pericardium, myocardium c.myocardium, pericardium, endocardium d.pericardium, myocardium, endocardium e.endocardium, myocardium, pericardium

b.The alternate term for heart contraction is systole and the alternate term for heart relaxation is diastole.

Give the alternate terms for heart contraction and heart relaxation. (Module 18.9B) a.The alternate term for heart contraction is diastole and the alternate term for heart relaxation is systole. b.The alternate term for heart contraction is systole and the alternate term for heart relaxation is diastole. c.The alternate term for heart contraction is pumping and the alternate term for heart relaxation is resting. d.The alternate term for heart contraction is pumping and the alternate term for heart relaxation is filling. e.The alternate term for heart contraction is working and the alternate term for heart relaxation is resting.

c.The 23rd pair of chromosomes is XY.

How can you tell that the karyotype shown here is male? (Module 27.14C) Select one: a.The 23rd pair of chromosomes is XX. b.The 23rd pair of chromosomes is YO. c.The 23rd pair of chromosomes is XY. d.There are only 22 pairs of chromosomes. e.The 23rd pair of chromosomes is YY.

e.ciliary fluid currents

How do recently released secondary oocytes reach the uterine tube? (Module 26.11A) Select one: a.vesicular exocytosis b.vesicular endocytosis c.smooth muscle contractions d.axonal transport e.ciliary fluid currents

b. No digestive enzymes are produced in the large intestine but digestion continues from the enzymes present that were secreted or produced in the small intestine.

How does digestion occur in the large intestine? (Module 22.17A) Select one: a.Bile enters the large intestine through the bile duct. b.No digestive enzymes are produced in the large intestine but digestion continues from the enzymes present that were secreted or produced in the small intestine. c.The mucosa of the large intestine produces enzymes that begin digestion. d.Pancreatic juice flows through the pancreatic duct into the large intestine allowing digestion to occur. e.No digestive enzymes are produced and the digestive enzymes from the small intestine are inactivated in the large intestine so digestion does not occur in the large intestine.

d. The kidney will release erythropoietin and renin is released which leads to angiotensin II activation.

How does the kidney respond to vasoconstriction of the renal artery? (Module 19.10B) a.The kidney will stimulate the heart to release natriuretic peptides. b.The kidney will activate the sympathetic nervous system release of epinephrine and norepinephrine. c.The kidney will stimulate the release of cortisol by the nearby adrenal glands. d.The kidney will release erythropoietin and renin is released which leads to angiotensin II activation. e.The kidney will activate the baroreceptors to stimulate the cardioinhibitory center of the medulla oblongata.

d.The male urethra is longer and also transports semen.

How does the urethra differ between males and females? (Module 24.15C) a.The male urethra is the same length as the female but also transports semen. b.The male urethra is shorter. c.The male urethra is longer. d.The male urethra is longer and also transports semen. e.The male urethra is shorter and also transports semen.

c.46

How many chromosomes are contained within a human zygote? (Module 27.2B) Select one: a.8 b.32 c.46 d.23 e.64

a.4

How many sperm will eventually be produced from each primary spermatocyte? (Module 26.3B) Select one: a.4 b.6 c.1 d.3 e.2

d.Potassium excretion is caused by an increase in aldosterone stimulation and when the pH of the ECF increases.

Identify factors that cause potassium excretion. (Module 25.5B) Select one: a.Potassium excretion is caused by an increase in aldosterone stimulation and when the pH of the ECF decreases. b.Potassium excretion is caused by an increase in aldosterone stimulation and when the pH of the ECF is neutral. c.Potassium excretion is caused by a decrease in aldosterone stimulation and when the pH of the ECF decreases. d.Potassium excretion is caused by an increase in aldosterone stimulation and when the pH of the ECF increases. e.Potassium excretion is caused by a decrease in aldosterone stimulation and when the pH of the ECF increases.

d.Water can be lost during urination, evaporation at skin and lungs, and in feces.

Identify routes of fluid loss from the body. (Module 25.2A) Select one: a.Water can be lost during catabolism and anabolism. b.Water can be lost during the production of saliva and gastric secretions, and by urination and in feces. c.Water can be lost during catabolism, by evaporation at skin and lungs, and by urination. d.Water can be lost during urination, evaporation at skin and lungs, and in feces. e.Water can be lost during anabolism, and in the production of bile and gastric secretions.

e.phosphate buffer system, protein buffer system, and the carbonic acid-bicarbonate buffer system

Identify the body's three major buffer systems. (Module 25.8A) Select one: a.hemoglobin buffer system, amino acid buffer system, and the protein buffer system b.renal buffer system, respiratory buffer system, and the phosphate buffer system c.renal buffer system, respiratory buffer system, and the carbonic acid-bicarbonate buffer system d.hemoglobin buffer system, amino acid buffer system, and the plasma protein buffer system e.phosphate buffer system, protein buffer system, and the carbonic acid-bicarbonate buffer system

c.rete testis

Identify the complex network of channels that is connected to the seminiferous tubules. (Module 26.2A) Select one: a.raphe of scrotum b.straight tubule c.rete testis d.epididymis e.ductus deferens

b.heart, blood, and blood vessels

Identify the components of the cardiovascular system. (Module 17.1A) a.heart and blood b.heart, blood, and blood vessels c.blood vessels and lymphatic vessels d.heart and blood vessels e.blood and blood vessels

b.Fatty acids may become a fuel source or a component of triglycerides, glycolipids, phospholipids, prostaglandins, cholesterol, and steroids.

Identify the fates of fatty acids. (Module 23.11C) Select one: a.Fatty acids may become a fuel source or a component of proteins and nucleic acids. b.Fatty acids may become a fuel source or a component of triglycerides, glycolipids, phospholipids, prostaglandins, cholesterol, and steroids. c.Fatty acids may directly enter glycolysis, citric acid cycle, and the electron transport chain to generate ATP. d.Fatty acids may become LDLs, HDLs, or VLDLs. e.Fatty acids may become a fuel source or a component of glycogen, glucose, and glycolipids.

c.neutrophils, eosinophils, basophils, monocytes, and lymphocytes

Identify the five types of white blood cells. (Module 17.9A) a.astrocytes, microglial cells, Kuppfer cells, lymphocytes, and ependymal cells b.mast cells, dendritic cells, erythrocytes, platelets, and basophils c.neutrophils, eosinophils, basophils, monocytes, and lymphocytes d.plasma cells, memory B cells, memory T cells, cytotoxic T cells, helper T cells e.monocytes, macrophages, dendritic cells, T lymphocytes, and B lymphocytes

e.passageway for elimination of menstrual fluids, receives the penis during sexual intercourse, and forms the inferior portion of the birth canal

Identify the functions of the vagina. (Module 26.13B) Select one: a.primary site of fertilization, site of fetal development, and sheds its inner layer during menstruation b.produce mucus, protect the uterus from pathogens, and sheds its inner layer during menstruation c.passageway for elimination of menstrual fluids, receives the penis during sexual intercourse, and is the site of fetal development d.produce oocytes, secrete female sex hormones, and secrete inhibin e.passageway for elimination of menstrual fluids, receives the penis during sexual intercourse, and forms the inferior portion of the birth canal

c.epinephrine and norepinephrine

Identify the hormones responsible for short-term regulation of decreasing blood pressure and blood volume. (Module 19.10A) a.natriuretic peptides b.ADH and aldosterone c.epinephrine and norepinephrine d.erythropoietin and thrombopoietin e.aldosterone and cortisol

a.internal and external intercostal muscles b.diaphragm and external intercostal muscles

Identify the primary inspiratory muscles. (Module 21.10A) a.internal and external intercostal muscles b.diaphragm and external intercostal muscles c.diaphragm and internal intercostal muscles d.scalenes and serratus anterior e.diaphragm and the rectus abdominis muscles

b.distal convoluted tubule

Identify the segment of the nephron that makes the final adjustments to the composition of tubular fluid. (Module 24.10A) Select one: a.nephron loop b.distal convoluted tubule c.collecting duct d.glomerular capsule e.proximal convoluted tubule

d.umbilical cord; allantois

Identify the structure connecting the fetus to the placenta, and name the extra-embryonic membrane from which it is derived. (Module 27.6C) Select one: a.umbilical cord; amnion b.umbilical cord; chorion c.yolk sac; allantois d.umbilical cord; allantois e.yolk sac; chorion

a.glomerular capsule and glomerulus

Identify the structures of the renal corpuscle. (Module 24.4B) Select one: a.glomerular capsule and glomerulus b.glomerular capsule and the proximal convoluted tubule c.glomerular capsule and nephron loop d.collecting duct and papillary duct e.proximal convoluted tubule and distal convoluted tubule

e.T cells, B cells, and natural killer cells

Identify the three main classes of lymphocytes. (Module 20.4A) a.RBCs, WBCs, and platelets b.acute lymphocytes, chronic lymphocytes, and resident lymphocytes c.cytotoxic T cells, helper T cells, and memory T cells d.T cells, B cells, and helper cells e.T cells, B cells, and natural killer cells

a. Dissolved in plasma, bound to hemoglobin, or as bicarbonate ions in the plasma.

Identify the three ways that carbon dioxide is transported in the bloodstream. (Module 21.14A) a.Dissolved in plasma, bound to hemoglobin, or as bicarbonate ions in the plasma. b.Dissolved in plasma, as hydrogen ions in the plasma, or bound to hemoglobin. c.Bound to hemoglobin, bound to the surface of the RBCs, or as hydrogen ions in the plasma. d.Dissolved in plasma, bound to the surface of the RBCs, or as bicarbonate ions in the plasma. e.Bound to hemoglobin, bound to other transport proteins, or bound to the surface of the RBCs.

Alpha cells produce glucagon, beta cells produce insulin, delta cells produce a peptide hormone like GH-IH, and pancreatic polypeptide cells produce pancreatic polypeptide hormone.

Identify the types of cells in the pancreatic islets and the hormones produced by each. (Module 16.11A) a. Alpha cells produce a peptide hormone like GH-IH, beta cells produce glucagon, delta cells produce insulin, and pancreatic polypeptide cells produce pancreatic polypeptide hormone. b.Alpha cells produce insulin, beta cells produce a peptide hormone like GH-IH, delta cells produce glucagon, and pancreatic polypeptide cells produce pancreatic polypeptide hormone. c.Alpha cells produce glucagon, beta cells produce insulin, delta cells produce a peptide hormone like GH-IH, and pancreatic polypeptide cells produce pancreatic polypeptide hormone. d.Alpha cells produce insulin, beta cells produce glucagon, delta cells produce a peptide hormone like GH-IH, and pancreatic polypeptide cells produce pancreatic polypeptide hormone. e.Alpha cells produce glucagon, beta cells produce a peptide hormone like GH-IH, delta cells produce insulin, and pancreatic polypeptide cells produce pancreatic polypeptide hormone.

e.The body's phagocytes are neutrophils, eosinophils, and macrophages. Fixed macrophages are scattered among connective tissues and do not move; free macrophages are mobile and can travel to the site of injury.

Identify the types of phagocytes in the body, and differentiate between fixed macrophages and free macrophages. (Module 20.10A) a.The body's phagocytes are B cells, T cells, and macrophages. Fixed macrophages can only respond to one type of pathogen; free macrophages are free to respond to any pathogen. b.The body's phagocytes are macrophages. Fixed macrophages are scattered among connective tissues and do not move; free macrophages are mobile and can travel to the site of injury. c.The body's phagocytes are neutrophils, eosinophils, and macrophages. Fixed macrophages can only respond to one type of pathogen; free macrophages are free to respond to any pathogen. d.The body's phagocytes are B cells, T cells, and macrophages. Fixed macrophages are scattered among connective tissues and do not move; free macrophages are mobile and can travel to the site of injury. e.The body's phagocytes are neutrophils, eosinophils, and macrophages. Fixed macrophages are scattered among connective tissues and do not move; free macrophages are mobile and can travel to the site of injury.

a.asthma, chronic bronchitis, emphysema

Identify three chronic obstructive pulmonary diseases (COPDs). (Module 21.15B) a.asthma, chronic bronchitis, emphysema b.asthma, pneumonia, chronic bronchitis c.chronic bronchitis, lung cancer, emphysema d.chronic bronchitis, lung cancer, pneumonia e.asthma, lung cancer, chronic bronchitis

d.citric acid cycle

Identify when most of the CO2 is released during the complete catabolism of glucose. (Module 23.6A) Select one: a.glycolysis b.electron transport chain c.Calvin cycle d.citric acid cycle e.preparatory step

c. The heart would beat slower because the AV node would be the pacemaker.

If the cells of the SA node failed to function, how would the heart rate be affected? (Module 18.12B) a.The heart would beat faster because the inherent rate of myocardial depolarization is faster than the SA node pacemaker. b.The heart would go into an arrhythmia because the Purkinje fibers would try to be the pacemaker. c.The heart would beat slower because the AV node would be the pacemaker. d.The heart would stop beating because the SA node was not acting as the pacemaker. e.The heart would beat faster because the AV node would be the pacemaker.

b.metabolic acidosis

If the kidneys are conserving HCO3- and eliminating H+ in acidic urine, which is occurring: metabolic alkalosis or metabolic acidosis? (Module 25.9C) Select one: a.metabolic alkalosis b.metabolic acidosis

a.It would increase

In a dehydrated person, how would the amount of ADH released by the posterior lobe of the pituitary change? (Module 16.6C) a.It would increase. b.It would stay the same. c.It would decrease.

d. Relaxin causes cervical dilation, fetal weight distorts the myometrium, and the distortion of the cervix and the myometrium triggers release of oxytocin.

List and describe the factors involved in initiating labor contractions. (Module 27.10A) Select one: a.Decreasing estrogen levels causes cervical dilation and endometrial contractions. b.Inhibin causes cervical dilation, fetal weight distorts the myometrium, and the distortion of the cervix and myometrium triggers the release of prolactin. c.Relaxin causes cervical dilation, fetal weight distorts the myometrium, and the distortion of the cervix and myometrium triggers the release of inhibin. d.Relaxin causes cervical dilation, fetal weight distorts the myometrium, and the distortion of the cervix and the myometrium triggers release of oxytocin. e.Falling levels of estrogen and prosterone cause cervical dilation and the shedding of the functional layer which causes myometrial contractions.

c.The components of the lymphatic system are the lymphocytes, lymph, lymphatic vessels, primary lymphoid tissues and organs, and secondary lymphoid tissues and organs.

List the components of the lymphatic system. (Module 20.1B) a.The components of the lymphatic system are the lymph and lymph nodes. b.The components of the lymphatic system are the lymphocytes, lymph, lymph nodes, and lymphatic vessels. c.The components of the lymphatic system are the lymphocytes, lymph, lymphatic vessels, primary lymphoid tissues and organs, and secondary lymphoid tissues and organs. d.The components of the lymphatic system are the blood, blood vessels, lymph, and lymphatic vessels. e.The components of the lymphatic system are the red blood cells, lymphocytes, blood plasma, lymph, blood vessels, and lymphatic vessels.

b.nasopharynx, oropharynx, and laryngopharynx; to provide a passageway for food to enter the esophagus

Name the regions and functions of the pharynx. (Module 22.8A) Select one: a.labial pharynx, palatopharynx, and lingual pharynx; to mix food with salivary gland secretions b.nasopharynx, oropharynx, and laryngopharynx; to provide a passageway for food to enter the esophagus c.buccal pharynx, lingual pharynx, and oral pharynx; to mix food with salivary gland secretions d.buccal pharynx, labial pharynx, and palatopharynx; to provide a passageway for food to enter the esophagus e.nasopharynx, oropharynx, and palatopharynx; to provide a passageway for food to enter the esophagus

a.increased respiratory rate and tidal volume, increased blood volume and GFR, increased nutrient requirements, and increases in the size of the uterus and mammary glands

List the major changes that occur in maternal systems during pregnancy. (Module 27.9A) Select one: a.increased respiratory rate and tidal volume, increased blood volume and GFR, increased nutrient requirements, and increases in the size of the uterus and mammary glands b.decreased immune function, decreased heart rate and blood pressure, decreased blood volume and GFR, and decreased respiratory rate and tidal volume c.increased respiratory rate and tidal volume, decreased nutrient requirements, decreased blood volume and GFR, and decreased size of the uterus and mammary glands. d.decreased respiratory rate and tidal volume, decreased blood volume, increased GFR and nutrient requirements, increases in the size of the uterus and mammary glands e.increased immune function, increased heart rate and blood pressure, decreased nutrient requirements and decreased thermoregulation

e.atrial systole, atrial diastole, ventricular systole, ventricular diastole

List the phases of the cardiac cycle. (Module 18.10A) a.atrial diastole and ventricular diastole b.atrial systole and ventricular systole c.ventricular systole and ventricular diastole d.atrial systole, ventricular systole, ventricular diastole e.atrial systole, atrial diastole, ventricular systole, ventricular diastole

nose, nasal cavity, paranasal sinuses, and pharynx

List the structures of the upper respiratory system. (Module 21.3A) a.nose, mouth, pharynx, and larynx b.glottis, larynx, trachea, and bronchi c.pharynx, larynx, and trachea d.nose, nasal cavity, paranasal sinuses, and pharynx e.trachea, bronchi, bronchioles, alveoli

d.alarm phase, resistance phase, and exhaustion phase

List the three phases of the stress response. (Module 16.17A) a.awareness phase, accommodation phase, and renewal phase b.energy phase, response phase, and results phase c.fight phase, adjustment phase, and complications phase d.alarm phase, resistance phase, and exhaustion phase e.alert phase, alterations phase, and homeostasis phase

b.rapid depolarization, plateau, and repolarization

List the three stages of an action potential in a cardiac muscle cell. (Module 18.11B) a.rapid depolarization, repolarization, hyperpolarization b.rapid depolarization, plateau, and repolarization c.rapid depolarization, plateau, and hyperpolarization d.slow depolarization, plateau, and hyperpolarization e.plateau, repolarization, and hyperpolarization

e.maintain circadian rhythms, control the timing of sexual maturation, protect against damage by free radicals

List three functions suggested for melatonin in humans. (Module 16.12C) a.regulate blood glucose, regulate lipid storage, increase melanocyte production b.regulate blood glucose, regulate calcium ion concentration, regulate blood volume c.control serotonin production, regulate the "fight or flight" response, control metabolism d.regulate blood pressure, regulate blood volume, regulate blood pH e.maintain circadian rhythms, control the timing of sexual maturation, protect against damage by free radicals

b.hepatic portal vein

Most of the absorbed nutrients enter into which blood vessel? (Module 23.8C) Select one: a.inferior vena cava b.hepatic portal vein c.superior mesenteric artery d.hepatic artery e.aorta

b.(1) Turner syndrome; (2) Klinefelter syndrome

Name the disorder characterized by each of the following chromosome patterns: (1) XO and (2) XXY. (Module 27.17B) Select one: a.(1) Down syndrome; (2) Turner syndrome b.(1) Turner syndrome; (2) Klinefelter syndrome c.(1) Klinefelter syndrome; (2) Down syndrome d.(1) Turner syndrome; (2) Down syndrome e.(1) Klinefelter syndrome; (2) Turner syndrome

fundus, cardia, body, pyloric part

Name the four major regions of the stomach in order from its junction with the esophagus to the small intestine. (Module 22.10A) a.fundus, cardia, body, pyloric part b.fundus, pyloric part, body, cardia c.pyloric part, cardia, body, fundus d.cardia, body, pyloric part, fundus e.cardia, fundus, body, pyloric part

a.The immediate problem related to hemorrhage is maintaining adequate blood pressure and peripheral blood flow. The long-term problems related to hemorrhage is to restore normal blood volume.

Name the immediate and long-term problems related to hemorrhage. (Module 19.13B) a.The immediate problem related to hemorrhage is maintaining adequate blood pressure and peripheral blood flow. The long-term problems related to hemorrhage is to restore normal blood volume. b.The immediate problem related to hemorrhage is maintaining increased capillary permeability. The long-term problems related to hemorrhage is to restore normal peripheral blood flow. c.The immediate problem related to hemorrhage is maintaining maximum vasoconstriction. The long-term problems related to hemorrhage is skeletal muscle atrophy. d.The immediate problem related to hemorrhage is restoring normal blood volume. The long-term problems related to hemorrhage is maintaining adequate blood pressure and peripheral blood flow. e.The immediate problem related to hemorrhage is reduced blood clotting. The long-term problems related to hemorrhage is maintaining maximum vasoconstriction.

e.deeper basal layer and superficial functional layer

Name the layers of the endometrium. (Module 26.12A) Select one: a.deeper myometrium layer and superficial perimetrium layer b.deeper smooth muscle layer and superficial epithelial layer c.deeper functional layer and superficial basal layer d.deeper epithelial layer and superficial smooth muscle layer e.deeper basal layer and superficial functional layer

a.right, left, caudate, and quadrate

Name the lobes of the liver. (Module 22.20C) a.right, left, caudate, and quadrate b.superior, inferior, medial, and lateral c.superior, inferior, anterior, and posterior d.superior, inferior, right, and left e.anterior, posterior, caudate, and quadrate

c.mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue

Name the lymphoid tissue that protects epithelia lining the digestive, respiratory, urinary, and reproductive tracts. (Module 20.5A) a.lymph nodes b.interferons c.mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue d.tonsils e.lacteals

e.kidneys

Name the major excretory organs of the urinary system. (Module 24.1A) Select one: a.urinary bladder b.adrenal gland c.ureters d.urethra e.kidneys

a.fundus, body, and cervix

Name the regions of the uterus. (Module 26.11C) Select one: a.fundus, body, and cervix b.fundus, body, and vagina c.head, body, and neck d.uterine tube, body, and cervix e.cardia, fundus, and body

b.The detrusor muscle compresses the bladder and expels the urine into the urethra.

Name the specialized smooth muscle of the urinary bladder, and describe its function. (Module 24.16C) Select one: a.The bulbospongiosus muscle compresses the bladder and expels the urine into the urethra. b.The detrusor muscle compresses the bladder and expels the urine into the urethra. c.The trigone muscle compresses the bladder and expels the urine into the urethra. d.The middle umbilical ligament compresses the bladder and expels the urine into the urethra. e.The lateral umbilical ligaments compresses the bladder and expels the urine into the urethra.

d.penis, urethra, and scrotum

Name the structures of the male external genitalia. (Module 26.1B) Select one: a.penis, testis, and urethra b.prostate gland, seminal gland, and bulbo-urethral gland c.penis, testis, and scrotum d.penis, urethra, and scrotum e.prostate gland, epididymis, and testis

d.ductus deferens, seminal gland, prostate, bulbo-urethral gland, epididymis, testis

Name the structures of the male internal genitalia. (Module 26.1C) Select one: a.penis, urethra, scrotum, prostate gland, and seminal gland b.testis, scrotum, epididymis, bulbo-urethral gland, penis, seminal gland c.urethra, penis, testis, ductus deferens, seminal gland, bulbo-urethral gland d.ductus deferens, seminal gland, prostate, bulbo-urethral gland, epididymis, testis e.testis, epididymis, prostate, scrotum, urethra

c.crown, neck, and root

Name the three main parts of a typical tooth. (Module 22.7A) Select one: a.bulb, shaft, and root b.labia, body, and root c.crown, neck, and root d.canal, cavity, and socket e.papilla, cortex, and medulla

d.Increased GnRH production, increased sensitivity of the anterior pituitary to GnRH and the subsequent release of LH and FSH, and increased sensitivity of ovaries and testes to LH and FSH.

Name the three major interacting hormonal events associated with the onset of puberty. (Module 27.13A) Select one: a.Increased hypothalamic LH production, anterior pituitary release of estrogen and testosterone, estrogen activation of ovaries and testosterone activation of testes. b.Increased hypothalamic estrogen and testosterone production, estrogen activation of ovaries and testosterone activation of testes. c.Decreased GnRH production due to estrogen and testosterone negative feedback, decrease in LH and FSH release by the anterior pituitary gland, and decreased LH and FSH sensitivity by the ovaries and testes. d.Increased GnRH production, increased sensitivity of the anterior pituitary to GnRH and the subsequent release of LH and FSH, and increased sensitivity of ovaries and testes to LH and FSH. e.Increased GnRH production, increased LH and decreased FSH production, activation of ovaries and testes by LH.

e.anterior lobe and posterior lobe

Name the two lobes of the pituitary gland. (Module 16.6A) a.greater lobe and lesser lobe b.medial lobe and lateral lobe c.superior lobe and inferior lobe d.caudate lobe and quadrate lobe e.anterior lobe and posterior lobe

a.tidal volume, expiratory reserve volume, residual volume, and inspiratory reserve volume

Name the various measurable pulmonary volumes. (Module 21.10C) a.tidal volume, expiratory reserve volume, residual volume, and inspiratory reserve volume b.tidal volume, inspiratory reserve volume, expiratory reserve volume, and minimal volume c.functional residual capacity, vital capacity, minimal volume, and total lung volume d.tidal volume, residual volume, total lung capacity, and minimal volume e.minimal volume, tidal volume, and residual volume

e.heart rate, stroke volume, peripheral resistance, and venous pressure

Neural and endocrine regulatory mechanisms influence which factors? (Module 19.5A) a.blood flow b.heart rate c.blood volume d.capillary pressure e.heart rate, stroke volume, peripheral resistance, and venous pressure

c.Body temperature would decrease.

Predict the effect of peripheral vasodilation on a person's body temperature. (Module 23.20A) Select one: a.Body temperature would increase. b.Body temperature would stay the same. c.Body temperature would decrease.

b.An inverse relationship occurs between the levels of PCO2 and pH.

Summarize the relationship between PCO2 levels and pH. (Module 25.7C) Select one: a.A direct relationship occurs between the levels of PCO2 and pH. b.An inverse relationship occurs between the levels of PCO2 and pH. c.A inverse relationship occurs between the levels of PCO2 and pH when the pH is between 7.35 and 7.45. d.A direct relationship occurs between the levels of PCO2 and pH when the pH is below 7.35. e.A direct relationship occurs between the levels of PCO2 and pH when the pH is above 7.45.

d.epididymis, ductus deferens, ampulla of ductus deferens, ejaculatory duct, urethra

Trace the ductal pathway from the epididymis to the urethra. (Module 26.5C) Select one: a.epididymis, prostate gland, ejaculatory duct, ampulla of ductus deferens, ductus deferens, urethra b.epididymis, seminal gland, ampulla of ductus deferens, ductus deferens, ejaculatory duct, urethra c.epididymis, ejaculatory duct, ductus deferens, ampulla of ductus deferens, urethra d.epididymis, ductus deferens, ampulla of ductus deferens, ejaculatory duct, urethra e.epididymis, ejaculatory duct, prostate gland, ductus deferens, ampulla of ductus deferens, seminal glands, urethra

d. afferent lymphatics - subcapsular space - cortex - paracortex - medullary sinus - efferent lymphatics

Trace the path of lymph through a lymph node, beginning at the afferent lymphatics. (Module 20.5C) a.afferent lymphatics - cortex - paracortex - subcapsular space - medullary sinus - efferent lymphatics b.afferent lymphatics - paracortex - medullary sinus - cortex - subcapsular space - efferent lymphatics c.afferent lymphatics - subcapsular space - medullary sinus - cortex - paracortex - efferent lymphatics d.afferent lymphatics - subcapsular space - cortex - paracortex - medullary sinus - efferent lymphatics Correct e.afferent lymphatics - medullary sinus - subcapsular space - paracortex - cortex - efferent lymphatics

c.renal artery, segmental arteries, interlobar arteries, arcuate arteries, cortical radiate arteries, afferent arterioles, glomerulus, cortical radiate veins, arcuate veins, interlobar veins, renal vein

Trace the pathway of blood from the renal artery to the renal vein. (Module 24.5A) Select one: a.renal artery, afferent arterioles, glomerulus, segmental arteries, arcuate arteries, interlobar arteries, cortical radiate arteries, arcuate veins, cortical radiate veins, interlobar veins, renal vein b.renal artery, glomerulus, afferent arterioles, segmental arteries, arcuate arteries, interlobar arteries, cortical radiate arteries, cortical radiate veins, arcuate veins, interlobar veins, renal vein c.renal artery, segmental arteries, interlobar arteries, arcuate arteries, cortical radiate arteries, afferent arterioles, glomerulus, cortical radiate veins, arcuate veins, interlobar veins, renal vein d.renal artery, cortical radiate arteries, arcuate arteries, interlobar arteries, segmental arteries, afferent arterioles, glomerulus, interlobar veins, arcuate veins, cortical radiate veins, renal vein e.renal artery, arcuate arteries, interlobar arteries, cortical radiate arteries, segmental arteries, afferent arterioles, glomerulus, interlobar veins, cortical radiate veins, arcuate veins, renal vein

a.secretory alveoli, ducts within a lobule, lactiferous duct, lactiferous sinus, surface of the nipple

Trace the route of milk from its site of production to the body surface. (Module 26.14C) Select one: a.secretory alveoli, ducts within a lobule, lactiferous duct, lactiferous sinus, surface of the nipple b.ducts within a lobule, secretory alveoli, lactiferous sinus, lactiferous duct, surface of the nipple c.surface of the nipple, secretory alveoli, ducts within a lobule, lactiferous sinus, lactiferous duct d.lactiferous sinus, lactiferous duct, ducts within a lobule, surface of the nipple, secretory alveoli e.secretory alveoli, lactiferous sinus, lactiferous duct, ducts within a lobule, surface of the nipple

e. When blood colloid osmotic pressure is greater than capillary hydrostatic pressure.

Under what general conditions would fluid move into a capillary? (Module 19.8A) a.When capillary hydrostatic pressure is equal to blood colloid osmotic pressure. b.When capillary blood pressure is equal to blood colloid osmotic pressure. c.When blood colloid osmotic pressure approaches 0 mm Hg. d.When capillary hydrostatic pressure is greater than blood colloid osmotic pressure. e.When blood colloid osmotic pressure is greater than capillary hydrostatic pressure.

d.the 3 muscular layers allows mixing and churning

What anatomical feature of the stomach allows the organ to form chyme? (Module 22.10B) Select one: a.the long greater curvature produces an angle creating a pouch b.the rugae allows the lumen to expand c.the wide body gives ample space d.the 3 muscular layers allows mixing and churning e.the muscular pyloric sphincter contracts

c.Bulbo-urethral glands produce mucus that neutralizes acid in the urethra and lubricates the penis.

What are the functions of the bulbo-urethral glands? (Module 26.5B) Select one: a.Bulbo-urethral glands produce the antibiotic protein, seminalplasmin. b.Bulbo-urethral glands produce inhibin. c.Bulbo-urethral glands produce mucus that neutralizes acid in the urethra and lubricates the penis. d.Bulbo-urethral glands produce about 60 percent of the volume of semen. e.Bulbo-urethral glands produce testosterone.

a.produce and store gametes

What are the functions of the gonads? (Module 26.1A) Select one: a.produce and store gametes b.regulate body temperature c.secrete digestive enzymes d.activate the parasympathetic nervous system e.control acid-base regulation

b.Aldosteronism

What condition is characterized by increased body weight due to Na+ and water retention and a low blood K+ concentration? (Module 16.18C) a.Grave's disease b.Aldosteronism c.diabetes mellitus d.Cushing's disease e.diabetes insipidus

a.Semilunar valves prevent backflow of blood into the ventricles.

What do semilunar valves prevent? (Module 18.7C) a.Semilunar valves prevent backflow of blood into the ventricles. b.Semilunar valves prevent backflow of blood into the coronary vasculature. c.Semilunar valves prevent backflow of blood into the veins. d.Semilunar valves prevent the flow of blood into the ventricles during atrial contraction. e.Semilunar valves prevent backflow of blood into the atria.

a.the minimum resting energy expenditure of an awake, alert person

What is basal metabolic rate? (Module 23.17B) Select one: a.the minimum resting energy expenditure of an awake, alert person b.the maximum energy expenditure during exercise of an average person c.the maximum energy expenditure during exercise of an athlete d.the minimum resting energy expenditure of a sleeping person e.the amount of heat generated by an awake, alert person

a.ADH increases the aquaporins in the apical plasma membranes lining the DCT and collecting ducts.

What effect does ADH have on the apical plasma membranes lining the DCT and collecting ducts? (Module 24.12E) Select one: a.ADH increases the aquaporins in the apical plasma membranes lining the DCT and collecting ducts. b.ADH increases the sodium transporters in the apical plasma membranes lining the DCT and collecting ducts. c.ADH decreases the sodium transporters in the apical plasma membranes lining the DCT and collecting ducts. d.ADH decreases the aquaporins in the apical plasma membranes lining the DCT and collecting ducts. e.ADH increases both sodium transporters and aquaporins in the apical plasma membranes lining the DCT and collecting ducts.

e.Aldosterone increases urinary sodium retention and therefore increases sodium ion concentration in ECF.

What effect does aldosterone have on sodium ion concentration in the ECF? (Module 25.4B) Select one: a.Aldosterone increases urinary sodium retention and therefore decreases sodium ion concentration in ECF. b.Aldosterone decreases urinary sodium retention and therefore decreases sodium ion concentration in the ECF. c.Aldosterone decreases urinary sodium retention and therefore increases sodium ion concentration in ECF. d.Aldosterone does not affect urinary sodium retention and therefore has no effect on sodium ion concentration in ECF. e.Aldosterone increases urinary sodium retention and therefore increases sodium ion concentration in ECF.

a. Increased ADH will increase the number of aquaporins in the DCT which increases water reabsorption and reduces urine volume.

What effect does an increase in ADH levels have on the DCT? (Module 24.12C) Select one: a.Increased ADH will increase the number of aquaporins in the DCT which increases water reabsorption and reduces urine volume. b.Increased ADH will decrease the number of aquaporins in the DCT which increases water reabsorption and reduces urine volume. c.Increased ADH will increase the number of aquaporins in the DCT which decreases water reabsorption and reduces urine volume. d.Increased ADH will decrease the number of aquaporins in the DCT which decreases water reabsorption and reduces urine volume. e.Increased ADH will increase the number of aquaporins in the DCT which increases water reabsorption and increases urine volume.

d.An increase in venous return would fill the ventricles with more blood, increasing sarcomere length, which would increase the stroke volume

What effect would an increase in venous return have on the stroke volume? (Module 18.15B) a.An increase in venous return would fill the ventricles with less blood, decreasing sarcomere length, which would decrease the stroke volume. b.An increase in venous return would fill the ventricles with more blood, decreasing sarcomere length, which would decrease the stroke volume. c.An increase in venous return would fill the ventricles with less blood, increasing sarcomere length, which would decrease the stroke volume. d.An increase in venous return would fill the ventricles with more blood, increasing sarcomere length, which would increase the stroke volume. e.An increase in venous return would fill the ventricles with less blood, decreasing sarcomere length, which would increase the stroke volume.

e.It would increase the K+ concentration in urine because Na+ is retained.

What effect would increased amounts of aldosterone have on the K+ concentration in urine? (Module 24.10B) Select one: a.It would increase the K+ concentration in urine because Na+ is secreted with it. b.It would not affect K+ concentration in the urine because Cl- is exchanged for Na+. c.It would decrease the K+ concentration in urine because Na+ is retained. d.It would decrease the K+ concentration in urine because Na+ is secreted with it. e.It would increase the K+ concentration in urine because Na+ is retained.

a.They would inhibit the release of CRH which would reduce the secretion of ACTH.

What effects would increased circulating levels of glucocorticoids have on the pituitary secretion of ACTH? (Module 16.7C) a.They would inhibit the release of CRH which would reduce the secretion of ACTH. b.They would inhibit the release of CRH which would stimulate the secretion of ACTH. c.They would inhibit the release of cortisol which would stimulate the secretion of ACTH. d.They would stimulate the release of CRH which would stimulate the secretion of ACTH. e.They would stimulate the release of CRH which would reduce the secretion of ACTH.

c.Varicose veins form when the vein walls weaken and the valves fail so blood begins to pool in the veins.

What factors are involved in the formation of varicose veins? (Module 19.4D) a.Varicose veins form when the valves become stiff and fail to open. b.Varicose veins form when blood pressure is too low so the valves do not open. c.Varicose veins form when the vein walls weaken and the valves fail so blood begins to pool in the veins. d.Varicose veins form when blood pressure is too high damaging the valves. e.Varicose veins form when sympathetic activation causes venoconstriction.

e.they combine with CO2 and enter the urea cycle

What happens to the ammonium ions that are removed from amino acids during deamination? (Module 23.12C) Select one: a.they are removed directly by the kidneys b.they combine with CO2 and are exhaled c.they combine with fatty acids and enter beta-oxidation d.they combine with pyruvate and enter the citric acid cycle e.they combine with CO2 and enter the urea cycle

a.it must be consciously stimulated to relax

What has to happen to the external urethral sphincter to allow urination? (Module 24.16B) Select one: a.it must be consciously stimulated to relax b.it must be consciously stimulated to contract c.it must be unconsciously stimulated to relax d.it must be unconsciously stimulated to contract

b.carbonic acid

What intermediate compound formed from water and carbon dioxide directly affects the pH of the ECF? (Module 25.7B) Select one: a.hydroxide b.carbonic acid c.hydrogen d.carbonic anhydrase e.bicarbonate

a.Anaphylaxis is an immune response to a circulating antigen that stimulates mast cells throughout the body to release chemicals that prompt the inflammatory response.

What is anaphylaxis? (Module 20.20C) a.Anaphylaxis is an immune response to a circulating antigen that stimulates mast cells throughout the body to release chemicals that prompt the inflammatory response. b.Anaphylaxis is an inadequate immune responses due to problems with embryonic development of lymphoid organs and tissues, a viral infection, or treatment with or exposure to immunosuppressive agents. c.Anaphylaxis is a condition that results from the production of antibodies directed against normal antigens in the body. d.Anaphylaxis is a normal immune response to an allergen, which is an antigen that triggers an allergic reaction. e.Anaphylaxis is the excessive immune reaction of antibodies to a virus-infected cell.

c.To coordinate and regulate the activities of other cells, tissues, organs, and organ systems.

What is the common goal of the nervous and endocrine systems? (Module 16.1A) a.To increase cellular reactions in all the cells, tissues, organs, and organ systems of the body. b.To send chemical messengers though the bloodstream to the cells of the body. c.To coordinate and regulate the activities of other cells, tissues, organs, and organ systems. d.To transport gases, regulate pH, and control fluid volumes in the body. e.To send electrical impulses throughout the body.

a.Increased glucagon will decrease the amount of glycogen stored in the liver.

What is the effect of increased glucagon levels on the amount of glycogen stored in the liver? (Module 16.11C) a.Increased glucagon will decrease the amount of glycogen stored in the liver. b.Increased glucagon will not change the amount of glycogen stored in the liver. c.Increased glucagon will increase the amount of glycogen stored in the liver.

b.store and concentrate bile

What is the function of the gallbladder? (Module 22.20D) Select one: a.synthesize clotting factors b.store and concentrate bile c.store glycogen and lipids d.store fat-soluble vitamins e.synthesize and secrete bile

e.they support and stabilize organs of the abdominal cavity and provide a passageway for blood vessels, nerves, and lymphatic vessels

What is the importance of the mesenteries? (Module 22.2A) a.they produce hormones that regulate the activities of the digestive organs b.they consist of smooth muscle that contracts to push food along the digestive tract c.they increase the surface area available for absorption in the small intestine d.they produce enzymes to increase the digestion of proteins and fats in the small intestine e.they support and stabilize organs of the abdominal cavity and provide a passageway for blood vessels, nerves, and lymphatic vessels

b.Nurse cells create a microenvironment that supports spermatogenesis and form the blood testis barrier that isolates sperm from the blood.

What is the role of nurse cells? (Module 26.4C) Select one: a.Nurse cells secrete androgens. b.Nurse cells create a microenvironment that supports spermatogenesis and form the blood testis barrier that isolates sperm from the blood. c.Nurse cells undergo synapsis to create secondary spermatocytes. d.Nurse cells produce testosterone. e.Nurse cells undergo spermatogenesis to become mature sperm.

a.produce oocytes, secrete female sex hormones, secrete inhibin

What roles do the ovaries perform? (Module 26.9B) Select one: a.produce oocytes, secrete female sex hormones, secrete inhibin b.produce oocytes and provide the site for fetal development c.secrete female and male sex hormones and secrete catecholamines d.produce oocytes, anchor and support the uterus structurally, and act as the site for fertilization e.secrete FSH and LH to control female reproductive cycles

a.the renal artery and renal nerves enter; the renal vein and ureter exit at the hilum

What structures enter and exit the kidney at the hilum? (Module 24.2A) Select one: a.the renal artery and renal nerves enter; the renal vein and ureter exit at the hilum b.the renal artery and vein enter; the renal nerves exit at the hilum c.the renal artery and renal nerves enter; the renal vein and urethra exit at the hilum d.the renal vein and urethra enter; the renal artery and ureter exit at the hilum e.the renal artery and ureter enter; the renal vein and the urethra exit at the hilum

b.thymus, bone marrow, and peripheral lymphoid tissues

What tissues are involved in lymphopoiesis? (Module 20.4B) a.liver and spleen b.thymus, bone marrow, and peripheral lymphoid tissues c.thymus, spleen, and peripheral lymphoid tissues d.bone marrow, spleen, and lymph nodes e.bone marrow and lymph nodes

e.destruction of the functional layer and menstruation

What uterine cycle event occurs when estrogen and progesterone decrease? (Module 26.15B) Select one: a.ovarian follicle development b.ovulation c.repair and regeneration of the functional layer d.secretion by uterine glands e.destruction of the functional layer and menstruation

b.The kidneys would fall inferiorly.

What would happen to a kidney's position if the perinephric fat layer were depleted and the collagen fibers of the fibrous capsule were to become detached? (Module 24.2C) Select one: a.The kidneys would be pulled anteriorly. b.The kidneys would fall inferiorly. c.The kidneys would be pulled laterally. d.The kidneys would be pulled medially. e.The kidneys would be pulled posteriorly.

e.Blood PCO2 would increase, resulting in respiratory acidosis.

What would happen to the blood PCO2 of a patient who has an airway obstruction? (Module 25.10A) Select one: a.Blood PCO2 would increase, resulting in metabolic acidosis. b.Blood PCO2 would decrease, resulting in respiratory alkalosis. c.Blood PCO2 would increase, resulting in respiratory alkalosis. d.Blood PCO2 would decrease, resulting in respiratory acidosis. e.Blood PCO2 would increase, resulting in respiratory acidosis.

e.in the small intestine, primarily in the jejunum

Where does most nutrient absorption occur? (Module 23.8B) Select one: a.in the mouth b.in the large intestine, primarily in the transverse colon c.in the large intestine, primarily in the cecum d.in the stomach, primarily in the body e.in the small intestine, primarily in the jejunum

e.CD8 markers are found on cytotoxic T cells, memory T cells, and regulatory T cells; CD4 markers are found on all helper T cells.

Which T cells contain CD8 markers? CD4 markers? (Module 20.21A) a.CD8 markers are found on all helper T cells; CD4 markers are found on cytotoxic T cells, memory T cells, and regulatory T cells. b.CD8 markers are found on regulatory T cells; CD4 markers are found on cytotoxic T cells, helper T cells, and memory T cells. c.CD8 markers are found on regulatory T cells and helper T cells; CD4 markers are found on cytotoxic T cells and memory cells. d.CD8 markers are found on cytotoxic T cells and memory T cells; CD4 markers are found on regulatory T cells and helper T cells. e.CD8 markers are found on cytotoxic T cells, memory T cells, and regulatory T cells; CD4 markers are found on all helper T cells.

a.They can receive only O- blood.

Which blood type(s) can be safely transfused into a person with type O- blood? (Module 17.7C) a.They can receive only O- blood. b.O+ and O- c.They can receive any type of Rh negative blood. d.They can receive any type of blood. e.AB+, AB-, O+, O-

a.cytotoxic T and natural killer cells

Which cells can be activated by direct contact with virus-infected cells? (Module 20.21C) a.cytotoxic T and natural killer cells b.memory T and memory B cells c.helper T and helper B cells d.cytotoxic T and memory B cells e.helper T and plasma cells

d.Coronary veins collect blood from the myocardium and carry it to the right atrium.

Which structures collect blood from the myocardium, and into which heart chamber does this blood flow? (Module 18.4B) a.Coronary arteries collect blood from the myocardium and carry it to the right atrium. b.Coronary arteries collect blood from the myocardium and carry it to the left atrium. c.Coronary veins collect blood from the myocardium and carry it to the right ventricle. d.Coronary veins collect blood from the myocardium and carry it to the right atrium. e.Coronary veins collect blood from the myocardium and carry it to the left atrium.

e.steroid hormones

Which type of hormone diffuses across the plasma membrane and binds to receptors in the cytoplasm? (Module 16.4C) a.thyroid hormones b.catecholamines c.peptide hormones d.most eicosanoids e.steroid hormones

c.Slow, deep breaths because a smaller amount of the tidal volume of each breath is spent moving air into and out of the anatomic dead space.

Which ventilates alveoli more effectively: slow, deep breaths or rapid, shallow breaths? Explain why. (Module 21.11C) a.Rapid, shallow breaths because a larger amount of the tidal volume of each breath is spent moving air into and out of the anatomic dead space. b.Slow, deep breaths because a larger amount of the tidal volume of each breath is spent moving air into and out of the anatomic dead space. c.Slow, deep breaths because a smaller amount of the tidal volume of each breath is spent moving air into and out of the anatomic dead space. d.Rapid, shallow breaths because a smaller amount of the tidal volume of each breath is spent moving air into and out of the anatomic dead space.

a.The secondary response because memory cells are produced during the initial response to an antigen.

Which would be more affected by a lack of memory B cells and memory T cells: the primary response or the secondary response? (Module 20.18C) a.The secondary response because memory cells are produced during the initial response to an antigen. b.The primary response because memory cells are produced during the initial response to an antigen.

b.an increase in vessel diameter

Which would reduce peripheral resistance: an increase in vessel length or an increase in vessel diameter? (Module 19.6C) a.an increase in vessel length b.an increase in vessel diameter

d.Acrosomal enzymes from multiple sperm are needed to penetrate the corona radiata.

Why are numerous sperm required to fertilize a secondary oocyte? (Module 27.2C) Select one: a.Multiple sperm are needed to provide organelles to the zygote. b.Multiple sperm are needed to have the required number of chromosomes for the zygote. c.Multiple sperm are needed to increase the extracellular calcium levels. d.Acrosomal enzymes from multiple sperm are needed to penetrate the corona radiata. e.Multiple sperm are needed because the male pronucleus is smaller than the female pronucleus.

c.Valves are located in veins to prevent blood from flowing backward because venous pressure is too low to keep the blood moving back toward the heart.

Why are valves located in veins but not in arteries? (Module 19.4A) a.Valves are located in veins because they have three wall layers instead of the two layers that arteries have. b.Valves are located in veins because the wall is thin enough to accommodate the valve. c.Valves are located in veins to prevent blood from flowing backward because venous pressure is too low to keep the blood moving back toward the heart. d.Valves are located in veins because veins are the only type of blood vessel where blood travels one-way instead of both ways in the vessel. e.Valves are located in veins because veins see the highest blood pressures so the valves protect the walls of the veins.

d. A person with type A blood will have anti-B antibodies that will agglutinate with type B blood.

Why can't a person with type A blood safely receive blood from a person with type B blood? (Module 17.7D) a.A person with type A blood will have anti-A platelets that will cause abnormal clotting with type B blood. b.A person with type A blood will have anti-B platelets that will cause abnormal clotting with type B blood. c.A person with type A blood will have anti-AB antibodies that will agglutinate with type B blood. d.A person with type A blood will have anti-B antibodies that will agglutinate with type B blood. e.A person with type A blood will have anti-A antibodies that will agglutinate with type B blood.

e.During puberty, testosterone causes greater laryngeal development than estrogen so a male will have a larger larynx and a deeper voice.

Why does a man have a deeper voice and a larger larynx than a woman? (Module 27.13B) Select one: a.Males are typically larger than females and their larynx is also larger causing a deeper voice. b.Males do not talk as much as females so their laryngeal musculature is not as well developed causing a larger larynx and a deeper voice. c.During fetal development, males lay down more laryngeal tissue than females causing a deeper voice. d.Males have proportionally larger necks than females so the development of the larynx has more room to expand and this causes a deeper voice. e.During puberty, testosterone causes greater laryngeal development than estrogen so a male will have a larger larynx and a deeper voice.

b.Tetany does not occur because cardiac muscle has a long refractory period that continues until relaxation is well under way so summation cannot occur, and thus tetany cannot occur.

Why does tetany not occur in cardiac muscle? (Module 18.11A) a.Tetany does not occur because the depolarizations in cardiac muscle are not sufficient to cause the formation of action potentials. b.Tetany does not occur because cardiac muscle has a long refractory period that continues until relaxation is well under way so summation cannot occur, and thus tetany cannot occur. c.Tetany does not occur because cardiac muscle cells are branched instead of lying in parallel fibers like skeletal muscle. d.Tetany does not occur because the sarcoplasmic reticulum in cardiac muscle does not hold as much calcium for maximum sustained contractions. e.Tetany does not occur because the gap junctions in cardiac muscle prevent the sustained contraction.

c.RhoGAM contains anti-Rh antibodies, which circulate in the mothers' bloodstream to destroy any fetal RBCs there, thereby preventing the mother from making antibodies against the developing fetus's red blood cells.

Why is RhoGAM administered to pregnant Rh‒ women ? (Module 17.8B) a.RhoGAM will change the mother's blood type to Rh+. b.RhoGAM contains proteins that surround the fetal RBCs and protect them from attack by maternal antibodies. c.RhoGAM contains anti-Rh antibodies, which circulate in the mothers' bloodstream to destroy any fetal RBCs there, thereby preventing the mother from making antibodies against the developing fetus's red blood cells. d.RhoGAM will change the fetus's blood type to Rh‒. e.RhoGAM contains Rh antigens so the mothers' antibodies can attack the RhoGAM antigens, instead of the fetus's blood cells.

b.The left ventricle must generate enough force to propel blood through the systemic circuit, whereas the right ventricle must generate only enough force to propel blood the short distance from the heart to the lungs in the pulmonary circuit

Why is the left ventricle more muscular than the right ventricle? (Module 18.6A) a.The left ventricle is supplied with more coronary vasculature so it hypertrophies over time, whereas the right ventricle receives less blood so it atrophies over time. b.The left ventricle must generate enough force to propel blood through the systemic circuit, whereas the right ventricle must generate only enough force to propel blood the short distance from the heart to the lungs in the pulmonary circuit. c.The left ventricle pumps a higher volume of blood to the systemic circuit than the volume of blood the right ventricle pumps to the pulmonary circuit. d.The left ventricle began forming earlier in development so it grew larger than the right ventricle. e.The left ventricle supplies blood to the brain and vital organs so it must be more reliable than the right ventricle which supplies blood to the limbs.

e.Ventricular fibrillation is fatal because the ventricles quiver and do not pump blood to the systemic circulation.

Why is ventricular fibrillation fatal? (Module 18.13C) a.Ventricular fibrillation is fatal because the heart is beating to an ectopic pacemaker and the rhythm is irregular. b.Ventricular fibrillation is fatal because the heart rate slows significantly and blood flow and pressure decreases. c.Ventricular fibrillation is fatal because the ventricles quiver and do not relax long enough to be filled with blood by the atria. d.Ventricular fibrillation is fatal because the ventricles do not relax long enough for the coronary vessels to fill with blood for the coronary tissue to receive oxygen and nutrients. e.Ventricular fibrillation is fatal because the ventricles quiver and do not pump blood to the systemic circulation.

d.it would block parasympathetic stimulation of gastric secretions Correct

Why might severing the branches of the vagus nerves that supply the stomach provide relief for a person who suffers from chronic gastric ulcers (sores on the stomach lining)? (Module 22.15C) Select one: a.it would block stomach stretch sensory neurons from being activated b.it would block somatic nerve activity to the myenteric plexus c.it would block sympathetic stimulation of gastric secretions d.it would block parasympathetic stimulation of gastric secretions e.it would block the flow of hydrogen ions down the vagus nerve