FINAL ch 15-27, lesson 7-13
25. Decongestants work to _________. a. liquefy pulmonary secretions b. increase pulmonary secretions c. suppress coughs d. competitively antagonize histamine1 receptors e. constrict blood vessels in the respiratory tract
ANSWER: e
32. Contraindications of antiemetics include ________. a. congestive heart failure, history of renal calculi, cirrhosis, dehydration, or electrolyte imbalance b. impaired renal and liver function, pregnancy, and use in children c. concomitant use with Warfarin and Digoxin d. acute abdominal pain or prolonged use e. pregnancy and lactation, seizure disorders, and cardiac arrhythmia
ANSWER: e
35. The thiazolidinediones work by _________. a. increasing insulin production and by improving peripheral insulin activity b. delaying digestion of complex carbohydrates c. decreasing hepatic glucose output and enhancing insulin sensitivity in the muscles d. stimulating the beta cells of the pancreas to produce insulin e. decreasing insulin resistance/improving sensitivity to insulin in muscle and adipose tissue
ANSWER: e
47. The SGL2T inhibitors work by _______. a. increasing insulin production and by improving peripheral insulin activity b. delaying digestion of complex carbohydrates c. decreasing hepatic glucose output and enhancing insulin sensitivity in the muscles d. stimulating the beta cells of the pancreas to produce insulin e. decreasing glucose absorption in the kidneys
ANSWER: e
28. Which of the following are true about inhaled and intranasal corticosteroids? a. Less systemic side effects b. Throat irritation is common. c. They reduce inflammation, congestion, and edema. d. Often used in combination with LABAs e. Increase risk of oral fungal infections f. All of the above.
ANSWER: f
11. Side effects with muscle relaxants include ________. a. drowsiness, weakness, tremor, slurred speech, blurred vision, urinary problems. b. GI ulceration and bleeding, MI, GERD, tinnitus and hearing loss, hematuria, prolonged bleeding time, and liver toxicity. c. respiratory arrest. d. nausea, dyspepsia, esophagitis, and abdominal, chest, bone and musculoskeletal pain.
ANSWER: a
11. Which hormone stimulates ovarian follicle development and sperm production? a. Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) b. Luteinizing hormone (LH) c. Luteotropic hormone (LTH) d. None of the above.
ANSWER: a
12. Potentiation of skeletal muscle relaxants may occur when taken with which of the following? a. Alcohol, analgesics, psychotropic medications, and antihistamines b. Anticoagulants, sulfonylureas, corticosteroids, and methotrexate c. Uricosurics, antihypertensives, and lithium d. All of the above.
ANSWER: a
13. The beneficial effects of NSAIDs are brought about by which action? a. Inhibition of prostaglandin synthesis b. Inhibition of cyclooxygenase-2 prostaglandin synthesis c. Inhibition of calcium resorption d. None of the above.
ANSWER: a
15. Female sex hormones produced by the ovary and the adrenal glands are called __________. a. estrogens b. androgens c. progesterones d. contraceptives
ANSWER: a
15. Side effects of beta-adrenergic blockers may include ___________. a. ocular irritation, diplopia, and aggravation of a preexisting cardiovascular disorder b. thirst, taste alteration, and renal disorders c. change in the color of the iris and in length, thickness, and pigmentation of eyelashes d. increased intraocular pressure, local irritation, flushing, dryness of skin, and fever
ANSWER: a
16. Tonic-clonic seizures are characterized by _________. a. loss of consciousness, falling, and generalized tonic, followed by clonic contractions of the muscles b. 10- to 30-second loss of consciousness with no falling c. confusion, impaired understanding and judgment, staggering, purposeless movements, bizarre behavior, and unintelligible sounds, but no convulsions. d. affecting only one side of the body.
ANSWER: a
16. Which of the following medications may prevent the accelerated phase of bone loss within the first 5 years following the onset of menopause? a. Estrogen replacement therapy b. Selective estrogen receptor modifiers c. Calcitonin d. Miacalcin
ANSWER: a
18. Bronchodilators all generally work by which mechanism of action? a. Relaxing the smooth muscles of the bronchial tree b. Increasing vital capacity and decrease airway resistance c. Decreasing the chemical that promotes bronchospasm d. Blocking histamine1 receptors
ANSWER: a
18. Contraindications for anti-infective eye agents can include __________. a. viral or fungal diseases of the ocular structure b. acute bacterial, viral, or fungal infections c. chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, diabetes, pregnancy, and lactation d. history of retinal detachment or retinal degeneration and corneal abrasion
ANSWER: a
18. Which hormone stimulates the uterus to contract and induce childbirth? a. Oxytocin b. Progesterone c. Progestins d. Testosterone
ANSWER: a
19. A notable increase in serious complications resulting from adverse drug reactions is said to be related to _________. a. increased life span leading to an increased older adult population b. increased abuse of prescription drugs by the elderly c. people taking fewer but stronger medications d. subdued responses to medications
ANSWER: a
19. Androgens may be used for ___________. a. palliative treatment of females with advanced metastatic carcinoma of the breast b. treatment of menstrual irregularities, relief of menopausal vasomotor symptoms, and palliative treatment for males with advanced inoperable prostate cancer c. treatment of amenorrhea and abnormal uterine bleeding and palliative therapy for advanced and metastatic endometriosis or breast cancer d. induction of labor with at-term or near-term pregnancies
ANSWER: a
19. Drugs that act by partially neutralizing gastric hydrochloric acid are _______. a. antacid preparations b. antiulcer preparations c. antiflatulents d. laxatives
ANSWER: a
20. MRPs or medication-related problems may be mistaken for which problem? a. A normal consequence of aging b. Behavioral changes c. Cognitive impairment d. Parkinsons
ANSWER: a
20. Side effects of androgens include _____________. a. changes in the libido, gynecomastia in males, and hirsutism and menorrhea in females b. increased risk of thromboembolic disorders, migraine headaches, and depression c. menstrual irregularity and amenorrhea, vision disorders, and possible decrease in bone density with prolonged use d. severe hypotension, tachycardia and arrhythmia, and postpartum hemorrhage
ANSWER: a
20. Side effects of the aminoglycosides MOST LIKELY include which of the following signs and/or symptoms? a. Nephrotoxicity, ototoxicity b. Blood dyscrasias c. Anorexia, abdominal cramps d. Superinfections
ANSWER: a
20. The drug used for management of absence epilepsy only is ______. a. ethosuximide (Zarontin) b. phenytoin (Dilantin) c. carbamazepine (Tegretol) d. lamotrigine (Lamictal)
ANSWER: a
20. The hormones secreted by the pituitary gland include ___________. a. ACTH b. corticosteroids c. thyroid d. insulin
ANSWER: a
21. A variety of drugs that act in different ways to suppress various types of cardiac arrhythmias are called _________. a. antiarrhythmic agents b. antihypertensives c. antilipemic agents d. thrombolytic agents
ANSWER: a
21. An advantage of using carbamazepine (Tegretol) over other medications to treat seizures is _________. a. minimal sedation and cognitive adverse affects b. does not cause Stevens-Johnson syndrome c. no medication interactions d. better choice in cardiac and renal patients
ANSWER: a
21. Drugs that act in various ways to reduce the number of loose stools are ________. a. antidiarrheal preparations b. antiemetic preparations c. antispasmodic preparations d. cathartic preparations
ANSWER: a
21. Mucolytics work through which of the following mechanisms of action? a. Liquefying pulmonary secretions b. Increasing secretions, reducing viscosity, and aiding in sputum expectoration c. Suppressing coughing d. Competitively antagonizing the histamine1 receptor sites e. Constricting blood vessels in the respiratory tract
ANSWER: a
22. CNS stimulants are used to treat _________. a. central nervous system dysfunction b. types of depression c. bipolar disorders d. anxiety disorders, neuroses, some psychosomatic disorders, and insomnia
ANSWER: a
22. Contraindications or extreme caution with beta-adrenergic blockers applies to ___________. a. bradycardia and heart block, patients receiving oral beta-blocker drugs, and hyperthyroidism b. acute bacterial, viral, or fungal infections or primary open-angle glaucoma c. contact lens wearers, hepatic and renal disease d. open-angle glaucoma
ANSWER: a
22. Side effects of amantadine (Symmetrel) DO NOT include _____. a. hypertension b. CHF c. edema d. CNS disturbances
ANSWER: a
24. Dopamine agonists are commonly used ______. a. to delay onset of levodopa-caused motor complications in Parkinson's disease b. for the treatment of tonic seizures c. in order to decrease the amount of Aricept used in Alzheimer's patients d. to treat restless legs syndrome
ANSWER: a
24. Patients being treated with anti-infective ophthalmic preparations should be instructed regarding _________. a. possible hypersensitivity reactions b. continuing the medication regardless of signs of sensitivity c. no particular precautions with treatment of eye infections as they are not easily spread d. the use of eye makeup and contact lenses is permitted during treatment and should be changed when treatment is complete
ANSWER: a
24. Side effects of antacid preparations can include ________. a. electrolyte imbalances, urinary calculi, and osteoporosis b. diarrhea, dizziness, rash, headache, mild gynecomastia, and mental confusion c. transient constipation d. occasional mild, transitory GI cramping, or rash
ANSWER: a
24. Which of the following contraindications most likely refer to the use of aminoglycosides? a. Tinnitus, high-frequency hearing loss, and reduced renal function b. Depression or bipolar disorder c. Liver dysfunction and alcoholism d. Cautious use in patients with history of multiple allergies
ANSWER: a
25. Corticosteroids may be used to treat __________. a. inflammation associated with status asthmaticus b. cretinism c. myxedema d. hyperthyroidism
ANSWER: a
25. Requiring a larger dose of medication to achieve the same level of effect. a. Tolerance b. Dependence c. Placebo effect d. Paradoxical reaction
ANSWER: a
26. Side effects of controlled CNS stimulants can include _______. a. dilated pupils with photophobia, nervousness b. increased appetite and weight gain, constipation, and urinary retention c. headache, stiff neck, hypertension, or hypertensive crisis d. sexual dysfunction, nausea, anorexia, dizziness, and headache
ANSWER: a
27. What would be the most appropriate intervention with regard to medication administration in the older adult who has an impaired circulatory process? a. Start at the lowest dose possible and increase the dose gradually. b. Increase the frequency of dosing. c. Monitor the patient frequently. d. All of the above.
ANSWER: a
27. Which is an example of an asthma prophylactic medication? a. Leukotriene inhibitors b. Antihistamine c. Sympathomimetic d. Expectorants e. mucolytic
ANSWER: a
27. Which of the following medications are given as prophylactic therapy to decrease platelet clumping in patients with a history of recent stoke or recent MI? a. Platelet inhibitors b. Tachycardia c. Thrombolytic agents d. Vasoconstrictors
ANSWER: a
28. Interactions of aminoglycosides may occur with __________. a. general anesthetics or neuromuscular blocking agents and other ototoxic drugs b. alcohol and loop diuretics c. carbamazepine (Tegretol), cyclosporine, and theophylline d. antacids, food, and estrogen-containing oral contraceptives
ANSWER: a
28. Nonopioid medications are given to ___________. a. relieve mild to moderate pain, fever, and anti-inflammatory conditions b. enhance analgesic effect with opioids and nonopioids c. promote sedation d. promote sleep
ANSWER: a
28. Which list of contraindications is most applicable to antacid preparations? a. Congestive heart failure, history of renal calculi, and cirrhosis b. Impaired renal and liver function, and with children c. Concomitant use with Warfarin and Aspirin d. Acute abdominal pain or prolonged use e. Seizure disorders and cardiac arrhythmia
ANSWER: a
28. Which statement indicates adequate patient education has taken place? a. "I will use an alternative form of birth control while taking my antibiotic." b. "I don't need to continue with my breast exams while taking oral contraceptives." c. "I will take my Plan B within 1 week following unprotected intercourse." d. "Unprotected sex is not a problem while on contraceptives since they prevent sexually transmitted diseases."
ANSWER: a
29. Adrenergic blockers act as antiarrhythmics by ________. a. inhibiting sympathetic nerve receptors b. suppressing the action of calcium in contraction of the heart muscle c. relaxes smooth and cardiac muscle with multiple and complex electrophysiological effects d. stabilizing membranes
ANSWER: a
29. The following classes of drugs are used to treat glaucoma, EXCEPT _________. a. corticosteroids b. sympathomimetics c. alpha agonists d. prostaglandin analogs
ANSWER: a
29. What aging processes affect the functionality of the liver? a. Decrease in blood flow to the liver b. Decreased glomerular filtration c. Decreased GI motility d. Decreased body water e. All of the above.
ANSWER: a
29. Which of the following drugs may aggravate RLS? a. Antihistamines b. Gabapentin (Neurontin) c. benzodiazepines d. All of the above.
ANSWER: a
29. Which of the following is an example of a mucolytic? a. Acetylcysteine b. Guaifenesin c. Benzonatate (Tessalon) d. Loratadine (Claritin) e. Pseudoephedrine (Sudafed)
ANSWER: a
30. Side effects of adrenergic blockers include _______. a. hypotension, bradycardia, bronchospasms, and hypoglycemia b. headache, bradycardia with heart block, edema, and abdominal discomfort c. cardiac arrhythmias, nausea, vomiting, neurotoxicity, and visual disturbances d. seizures, dizziness, confusion, respiratory depression, and respiratory arrest
ANSWER: a
30. Side effects of heterocyclic antidepressants may include ________. a. drowsiness, insomnia, restlessness, anxiety, dry mouth, impotence, and weight gain b. cardiac arrhythmia, hypotension, thirst and polyuria, tremors, and thyroid problems c. depression, hallucination, bizarre behavior, amnesia, and extrapyramidal reactions d. drowsiness, headache, and GI effects
ANSWER: a
30. Side effects of thyroid agents may include a. cardiac arrhythmia, insomnia, excessive sweating, and menstrual irregularities. b. rash, urticaria, and pruritus c. stunting of growth in children d. polyuria
ANSWER: a
31. Bronchodilators are used to treat ___________. a. symptoms of acute respiratory conditions such as asthma and COPD b. coughing c. allergy symptoms d. upper airway congestion
ANSWER: a
31. The sulfonylureas work by ________. a. increasing insulin production and by improving peripheral insulin activity b. delaying digestion of complex carbohydrates c. decreasing hepatic glucose output and enhancing insulin sensitivity in the muscles d. stimulating the beta cells of the pancreas to produce insulin e. decreasing insulin resistance/improving sensitivity to insulin in muscle and adipose tissue
ANSWER: a
32. Side effects of bronchodilators may include ________. a. cardiac irregularities, hypertension, and hyperglycemia b. respiratory depression, constipation, and urinary retention c. drying of secretions, visual disorders, and paradoxical excitement d. anxiety, nervousness, tremors, seizures, reduced cardiac output, and reduced urine output
ANSWER: a
32. Side effects related to the use of quinolones include nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea in addition to which of the following signs and/or symptoms? a. Abdominal pain, colitis, crystalluria, and phototoxicity b. Discolored teeth and retarded bone growth in fetus or young children c. Blood dyscrasias and hepatic toxicity with jaundice d. Lower extremity weakness
ANSWER: a
33. Which diuretics interact with nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory agents increasing the risk of renal insufficiency? a. Thiazides b. Loop diuretics c. Potassium-sparing diuretics d. Osmotic agents
ANSWER: a
34. Which list describes relative contraindications or cautions to be observed with CNS stimulants? a. Hyperthyroidism, history of drug dependence, alcoholism, or eating disorders b. Renal and GI disorders c. Cerebrovascular disease d. Patients who are prone to suicide, diabetics, and those with bipolar disorders
ANSWER: a
35. Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors lower blood pressure by _________. a. decreasing vasoconstriction b. blocking the hormone that causes vasoconstriction c. a central-acting alpha-adrenergic agent d. peripheral vasodilation
ANSWER: a
35. Bulk-forming laxatives such as psyllium, cellulose derivatives, polycarbophil, and bran are the treatment of choice for ___________. a. simple constipation unrelieved by natural methods b. pregnant or nursing women and children c. conditions in which rapid, thorough emptying of the bowel is required d. None of the above.
ANSWER: a
36. Quinolones are contraindicated for patients with __________. a. cardiac disease b. severe allergies or asthma c. exposure to direct sunlight d. allergies to penicillin
ANSWER: a
36. Rapid-acting insulins _________. a. onset in 10-30 minutes and peak in 1-2 hours, last 3-8 hours. b. onset in 1/2 to 1 hour and peak in 1-5 hours, last 6-10 hours. c. onset in 1 to 3 hours and peak in 6-12 hours, last 18-24 hours. d. onset in 1-2 hours, don't peak and last up to 24 hours.
ANSWER: a
36. Side effects of angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors include _________. a. rash, photosensitivity, blood dyscrasias, severe hypotension, cough, or nasal congestion b. dizziness, upper respiratory tract infections, and hyperkalemia c. hypertension d. orthostatic hypotension, GI symptoms, and blood abnormalities
ANSWER: a
36. Which side effect is more likely the result from the use of a potassium-sparing diuretic? a. Gynecomastia b. Deafness c. Pulmonary edema d. Renal stones
ANSWER: a
38. Heterocyclics should be used cautiously in which patient populations? a. Those who exhibit suicidal tendencies, patients with seizure disorders, and those with cardiac problems b. Persons with Parkinson's disease, kidney disorders, and thyroid disease c. Patients with depression, depressed vital signs, and those who operate machinery d. Renal or hepatic impairment
ANSWER: a
38. Side effects of stool softeners may include ________. a. occasional mild, transitory GI cramping b. malabsorption of vitamins A, D, E, and K with prolonged oral use c. electrolyte imbalances d. loss of normal bowel function with prolonged use
ANSWER: a
39. HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors (statins) work by __________. a. inhibiting the enzyme needed for cholesterol syntheses b. binding with bile acids in the intestine, which reduces the total body cholesterol c. inhibiting the mobilization of free fatty acids from the peripheral tissues d. inhibiting intestinal absorption of both dietary and biliary cholesterol, blocking its transport in the small intestine
ANSWER: a
39. Which statement is TRUE regarding antihistamines? a. Antihistamines provide only symptomatic relief of allergic symptoms. b. Antihistamines are very useful in light sedation of children. c. Antihistamines may cause laryngeal edema. d. Antihistamines help to prevent drying and consolidation of pulmonary secretions.
ANSWER: a
40. A life-threatening interaction of quinolones may occur when administered with and a. theophylline b. Ca, Mg, Fe, Zn c. sucralfate d. antacids
ANSWER: a
41. The side effects of decongestants include the following, EXCEPT ________. a. sedation b. reduced cardiac output and reduced urine output c. burning, stinging, and sneezing d. anxiety, nervousness, and tremors
ANSWER: a
42. Antispasmodics decrease urinary incontinence related to an overactive (neurogenic) bladder by what mechanism of action? a. Block parasympathetic nerve impulses b. Increase frequency of bladder contractions c. Increase bladder tone d. Reduce volume of urinary output
ANSWER: a
42. Identify the primary mechanism of action of tricyclic antidepressants _______. a. potentiation of norepinephrine and serotonin activity by blocking their reuptake b. increase concentrations of serotonin, norepinephrine, and dopamine by inhibition of the monoamine oxidase enzyme c. selective blockade of serotonin reabsorption, helping to restore the brain's chemical balance d. dopamine receptor blockade
ANSWER: a
42. Which of the following types of medications would NOT be used to treat acute asthma? a. Long-acting B2 agonist b. Mast cell stabilizers c. Sympathomimetics d. Oxygen
ANSWER: a
43. Contraindications of the use of saline laxatives include _______. a. congestive heart failure b. bedridden patients c. COPD or asthma d. C-diff associated with antibiotics
ANSWER: a
43. Patient teaching regarding the use of an MDI rescue inhaler should include ____. a. increasingly frequent use indicates deterioration in the control of asthma b. increasingly frequent use may reflect a new antigen exposure, and it is nothing to be concerned about c. taking care to keep the mask clean d. instructing the patient to use quick, short breaths when inhaling the medication
ANSWER: a
43. The actions of a cholinergic drug on the bladder would be useful for _______. a. stimulation of parasympathetic nerves to bring about contraction of the urinary bladder in nonobstructive urinary retention b. relief of burning, pain, discomfort, and urgency associated with cystitis c. symptomatic relief of cystitis d. reduction of prostate size and associated urinary obstruction and symptoms
ANSWER: a
43. Which of the following statements is true of coumarin? a. Its antidote is vitamin K. b. The lab test to measure action is activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT). c. The medication may only be administered parenterally. d. Its onset of action is immediate.
ANSWER: a
44. Contraindications of the use of stimulant laxatives include the following, EXCEPT _______. a. surgical procedure preparation b. ulcerative colitis c. pregnancy d. children
ANSWER: a
44. Which of the following is considered a concerning side effect of the anti-fungal fluconazole? a. Hepatic abnormalities b. Nephrotoxicity c. Nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea with high doses d. Change in color of body secretions
ANSWER: a
45. Antiandrogens treat benign prostatic hypertrophy by __________. a. reducing prostate size b. blocking alpha-1 receptors found in smooth muscle in the bladder neck and prostrate, causing them to relax c. stimulating parasympathetic nerves to bring about contraction of the urinary bladder d. blocking parasympathetic nerve impulses to reduce the strength and frequency of contractions of the urinary bladder
ANSWER: a
45. Relevant education for a patient receiving ulcer therapy may include: a. "Take your antacid at least 2 hours before or after other drugs." b. "Take your antacid only in the morning." c. "Take your antacid at the same time as antibiotics to alleviate GI upset." d. None of the above.
ANSWER: a
45. Which of the following comments made by a patient taking digitalis indicates further follow-up teaching is indicated? a. "I should use an over-the-counter antacid to treat stomach irritation while taking my medication." b. "I will hold medications and consult with a physician if any side effects occur." c. "I will check my pulse every morning before taking my medication." d. "I will not change brands or forms of my medication without checking with the doctor."
ANSWER: a
45. Which of the following is a macrovascular complication of diabetes? a. Myocardial infarction b. Retinopathy c. Nephropathy d. Neuropathy
ANSWER: a
45. Which of the following side effects are related to the use of anti-tuberculin treatment with isoniazid (INH) and rifampin (Rifadin)? a. Weakness of extremities, hepatic toxicity, and red-orange colored excretions b. Optic neuritis, dermatitis, pruritis, and joint pain c. Gout and GI disturbances d. Ototoxicity and nephrotoxicity
ANSWER: a
47. Patient education for treatment with thiazide diuretics, such as hydrochlorothiazide, should include: a. "Take with food." b. "Limit sunlight exposure." c. "Avoid potassium-rich foods and salt substitutes." d. "Drink large amounts of fluids."
ANSWER: a
47. Patients taking antidiarrheal agents should be instructed regarding ______. a. bismuth subsalicylates may cause ringing in the ears b. therapeutic effects of Warfarin may be decreased if given concomitantly with loperamide c. lomotil may cause tongue discoloration d. probiotics are a good choice for a person with infective colitis
ANSWER: a
47. Which comment made by a patient taking antihypertensives indicates the need for additional teaching? a. "Now that I'm on blood pressure medications, I don't have hypertension." b. "I will avoid hot tubs and saunas because they can make me dizzy." c. "I will change positions slowly to avoid lightheadedness." d. "I will not skip doses or double dose."
ANSWER: a
48. Patients taking antiflatulent agents should be instructed regarding _______. a. avoid gas-forming foods (e.g., onions, cabbage, and beans) b. the importance of a high-fiber diet c. taking these medications under medical supervision d. contraindications related to use in patients older than 60 years
ANSWER: a
48. Treatment of chronic alcoholism frequently includes ___________. a. elimination of caffeine, and a low-carbohydrate and high-protein diet b. IV "banana bag" c. establishing and maintaining an airway d. preventing aspiration
ANSWER: a
49. Which comment made by a patient taking antilipemics indicates the need for additional teaching? a. "Since I am on cholesterol medications, my diet choices are no longer an issue." b. "I will continue my low-fat diet and exercise plan." c. "Any onset of muscle pain, weakness, or bleeding will be reported to my doctor right away." d. "I will do follow-up lab studies with the doctor."
ANSWER: a
49. Which side effects of clindamycin require discontinuation of the medication? a. Nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea b. Metallic taste, headache, dizziness, and dark urine c. Photosensitivity d. Tremors, confusion, and headache
ANSWER: a
50. Antiulcer agents interact with several other medications (e.g., Phenytoin, Coumadin, Theophylline). What does this interaction result in? a. Increased blood concentrations b. Decreased therapeutic levels c. Inactivation of the medication's effects d. CNS depression
ANSWER: a
50. Patient education for treatment with uricosuric agents, such as probenecid, should include: a. "Avoid use of aspirin-containing products." b. "Take on an empty stomach to enhance absorption." c. "Use caution when driving or operating machinery." d. "Urine and tears may change color to orange-red, staining clothes and contact lenses."
ANSWER: a
51. Stool softeners may be the preferred treatment for constipation in _____. a. children b. patients who require rapid bowel emptying c. those who require more than 1 week of therapy d. patients with abdominal pain
ANSWER: a
51. Symptoms of chronic amphetamine abuse include ___________. a. emotional lability, anorexia, amnesia, photophobia, and paranoid syndrome b. short-term memory loss, impaired learning, apathy, lethargy, reduced testosterone levels, and sperm count c. euphoria, agitation and excitation, arrhythmia, or cardiac failure d. flashbacks, panic or paranoia, and psychotic episodes
ANSWER: a
56. Crystal, crank, and ice are all street names for which? a. Methamphetamines b. Cocaine c. Marijuana d. Benzodiazepines
ANSWER: a
57. Of the antiemetics, which one is used to stimulate gastric motility and increase gastric emptying? a. Reglan b. Prochlorperazine c. Zofran d. Phenergan
ANSWER: a
57. To be most effective, oseltamivir (Tamiflu) and zanamivir (Relenza) should be administered _________. a. within 48 hours of onset of symptoms b. for prophylaxis in children under 1 year old c. if symptoms of pneumonia are present d. only after antibiotics fail to reduce the infection
ANSWER: a
58. Which of the following statements is true of Naltrexone? a. It blocks pleasurable sensations associated with alcohol and opiates. b. It can be used as an aid to therapy in opiate-addicted patients. c. It is more effective than disulfiram (Antabuse) in alcoholics who are still drinking. d. All of the above are true.
ANSWER: a
60. Patients taking antibiotics should be instructed to take medication _________. a. with a full glass of water on an empty stomach b. with fruit juice c. with antacids if stomach irritation occurs d. only until symptoms disappear
ANSWER: a
12. The hormone that works in conjunction with FSH to induce secretion of estrogen, ovulation, and development of corpus luteum is __________. a. follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) b. luteinizing hormone (LH) c. luteotropic hormone (LTH) d. None of the above.
ANSWER: b
14. Male hormones secreted mainly in the interstitial tissue of the testes in the male and in the adrenal glands of both sexes are called __________. a. gonadotropic hormones b. androgens c. progesterones d. contraceptives
ANSWER: b
14. The side effects of COX-2 agents are _________. a. "silent bleeding" b. increased risk of hypertension, atherosclerosis, and clotting c. suppression of both "good" and "bad" prostaglandins d. platelet aggregation inhibition
ANSWER: b
15. Which response after patient education for NSAIDs and muscle relaxants indicates the need for follow up? a. "I should take my medication with food." b. "I should expect to notice some bleeding of my gums." c. "I should avoid taking any other medications without checking with my doctor." d. "I need to make sure that I drink plenty of fluids."
ANSWER: b
17. Which of the following is TRUE of absence seizures? a. Most commonly occurs in adults b. Most commonly occurs in children c. Involves less than 30 minutes between seizures d. Involves an abrupt loss of consciousness followed by synchronous contractions of the muscles
ANSWER: b
17. Which of the following produces estrogen agonist activity that results in increased bone mineral density to reduce fracture risk without promoting breast or endometrial cancer? a. Hormone replacement therapy b. Selective estrogen-receptor modifiers (SERMs) c. Synthetic form of the hormone calcitonin d. Bisphosphonates
ANSWER: b
19. The mechanism of action for sympathomimetics includes _______. a. constricting the smooth muscles of the bronchial tree b. increasing vital capacity and decreasing airway resistance c. decreasing the chemical that promotes bronchospasm d. antagonizing histamine1 receptor sites
ANSWER: b
20. Drugs that act by reducing gastric acid secretion are __________. a. antacid preparations b. antiulcer preparations c. antiflatulent preparations d. laxative
ANSWER: b
21. Estrogens may be utilized in the treatment of __________. a. endometriosis and fibrocystic breast disease b. relief of menopausal vasomotor symptoms and palliative treatment for males with advanced inoperable prostate cancer c. abnormal uterine bleeding d. induction of labor with at-term or near-term pregnancies
ANSWER: b
22. Side effects of estrogens include __________. a. changes in the libido, gynecomastia in males, and hirsutism and menorrhea in females b. increased risk of thromboembolic disorders, migraines headaches, and depression c. menstrual irregularity and amenorrhea, vision disorders, and possible decrease in bone density with prolonged use d. severe hypotension, tachycardia and arrhythmia, and postpartum hemorrhage
ANSWER: b
22. Systolic blood pressure of 140 or greater or diastolic blood pressure of 90 or greater is ______. a. bradycardia b. hypertension c. tachycardia d. ischemia
ANSWER: b
23. Antidepressant medications are used primarily to treat _______. a. central nervous system function b. various types of depression c. bipolar disorders d. anxiety disorders, neurosis, some psychosomatic disorders, and insomnia
ANSWER: b
23. Expectorants are effective by _______. a. liquefying pulmonary secretions b. increasing secretions and reducing their viscosity, although evidence of benefit is lacking. c. cough suppression d. competitive antagonism of histamine1 receptor sites e. constriction of blood vessels in the respiratory tract
ANSWER: b
23. Hepatic dysfunction more likely affects ________. a. absorption b. metabolism c. distribution d. excretion
ANSWER: b
23. Preparations used to prevent or treat nausea, vomiting, or motion sickness are _____________. a. antidiarrheal preparations b. antiemetic preparations c. antispasmodic preparations d. cathartic preparations
ANSWER: b
23. Something that may only be experienced or perceived by the individual is said to be _________. a. objective b. subjective c. endogenous d. exogenous
ANSWER: b
24. Which of the following best describes how absorption is affected in the GI tract? a. Increased food intake in the elderly slows gastric emptying. b. Gastric acid production is diminished in the elderly. c. Older patient's sometimes refuse to use antacids. d. Increased gastric motility in the elderly does not allow for absorption of the medication.
ANSWER: b
25. Side effects of antiulcer agents can include _________. a. electrolyte imbalances, urinary calculi, osteoporosis, and belching and flatulence b. diarrhea, dizziness, rash, headache, mild gynecomastia, and mental confusion c. transient constipation d. occasional mild, transitory GI cramping, or rash
ANSWER: b
25. Which of the following contraindications most likely refer to the use of cephalosporins? a. Tinnitus and high-frequency hearing loss b. Known allergies to penicillin; pregnant or nursing women c. Liver dysfunction and hypertension d. Vertigo
ANSWER: b
26. Drugs that prevent formation of blood clots or decrease the extension of existing blood clots are called ______. a. antiarrhythmic agents b. anticoagulants c. antihypertensives d. antilipemic agents
ANSWER: b
26. Physical adaptation of the body to a medication with resultant withdrawal symptoms following its abrupt discontinuation is ________. a. tolerance b. dependence c. placebo effect d. paradoxical response
ANSWER: b
26. Which of the following is a precaution or contraindication for decongestant use? a. Diarrhea, nausea b. Cardiovascular disorders c. Palpitations, hypertension, headache d. Having the flu e. Anxiety or nervousness
ANSWER: b
26. Which of the following responses indicates a need for further education regarding antiparkinsonian drugs? a. "I will avoid abruptly stopping my medication." b. "I should see effects of the medication within the next couple of days." c. "I will use caution with driving or operation of machinery." d. "I will report any signs that the drug is no longer effective."
ANSWER: b
27. Drugs that enhance analgesic effects of opioids and nonopioids, produce analgesia alone, or reduce the side effects of analgesics are referred to as __________. a. coanalgesics b. adjuvants c. placebos d. tricyclics
ANSWER: b
27. Side effects of tricyclics may include _________. a. dilated pupils with photophobia, nervousness, and tachycardia b. increased appetite and weight gain, postural hypotension, and cardiac arrhythmia c. headache, stiff neck, hypertension, or hypertensive crisis d. sexual dysfunction, anorexia, diarrhea, insomnia, anxiety, nervousness, and fatigue
ANSWER: b
29. Adjuvant analgesics are given to ___________. a. relieve mild to moderate pain, fever, and anti-inflammatory conditions b. enhance analgesic effects of opioids and nonopioids c. promote sedation d. promote sleep
ANSWER: b
29. Cephalosporins may have interactions when administered with which of the following? a. General anesthetics or neuromuscular blocking agents, antiemetics, and ototoxic drugs b. Alcohol and loop diuretics c. Carbamazepine (Tegretol), cyclosporine, theophylline, triazolam (Halcion), warfarin, digoxin, verapamil, and fluconazole (Diflucan) d. Antacids, food, and oral estrogen-containing contraceptives
ANSWER: b
29. Contraindications for the use of most antiulcer agents include _____. a. congestive heart failure, history of renal calculi, and cirrhosis b. impaired renal and liver function, pregnancy, and with children c. concomitant use with Warfarin and Valproid acid d. acute abdominal pain or prolonged use e. pregnancy and lactation, seizure disorders, and cardiac arrhythmia
ANSWER: b
30. Omeprazole and cimetidine should be avoided in some older patients due to which of the following? a. They are long-acting benzodiazepines. b. They inhibit liver enzymes from breaking down long-acting benzodiazepines. c. They inhibit liver enzymes from breaking down short-acting benzodiazepines. d. They result in decreased absorption of medications.
ANSWER: b
30. Which of the following medications is classified as an expectorant? a. Acetylcysteine b. Guaifenesin c. Benzonatate d. Loratadine e. Pseudoephedrine
ANSWER: b
31. Diuretics used to prevent calculus formation in patients with hypercalciuria are found in which class? a. Loop diuretics b. Thiazides c. Osmotic agents d. Potassium-sparing diuretics
ANSWER: b
31. Side effects of lithium therapy may include __________. a. drowsiness, insomnia, restlessness, agitation, anxiety, impotence, and weight gain. b. cardiac arrhythmia, hypotension, thirst and polyuria, tremors, and thyroid problems. c. depression, hallucination, agitation, bizarre behavior, and extrapyramidal reactions. d. dizziness, drowsiness, headache, and GI effects.
ANSWER: b
31. The mechanism of action for calcium channel blockers involves _______. a. inhibiting sympathetic nerve receptors b. suppressing the action of calcium in contraction of the heart muscle c. relaxes smooth and cardiac muscle with multiple and complex electrophysiological effects d. stabilizing membranes
ANSWER: b
31. Treatment for an ear infection would include _____. a. Beta-adrenergic blockers and antibiotics b. Antibiotics and anti-inflammatories c. Mydriatics and anti-inflammatories d. Antibiotics and alpha-agonists
ANSWER: b
32. Impaired excretion in older adults results from all of the following, EXCEPT _______. a. decrease in glomerular filtration b. increased kidney size c. decreased renal blood flow d. diabetes
ANSWER: b
32. Side effects of the calcium channel blockers include ________. a. bronchospasms and hypoglycemia b. headache, bradycardia with heart block, edema, and abdominal discomfort c. cardiac arrhythmias, nausea, vomiting, neurotoxicity, and visual disturbances d. seizures, dizziness, confusion, and respiratory depression and arrest
ANSWER: b
32. The alpha-glucosidase inhibitors work by ________. a. increasing insulin production and by improving peripheral insulin activity b. delaying digestion of complex carbohydrates c. decreasing hepatic glucose output and enhancing insulin sensitivity in the muscles d. stimulating the beta cells of the pancreas to produce insulin e. decreasing insulin resistance/improving sensitivity to insulin in muscle and adipose tissue
ANSWER: b
33. Antiulcer agents may have interactions with the following medications _______. a. tetracyclines, quinolones, digoxin, indomethacin, iron, and salicylates b. coumarin anticoagulants, phenytoin, beta-blockers, benzodiazepines, lidocaine, theophylline, and tricyclic antidepressants c. CNS depressants and muscle relaxants d. phenothiazines, tricyclic antidepressants, and opiate agonists
ANSWER: b
33. Side effects of salicylate analgesics and anti-inflammatory medications can include __________. a. constipation b. prolonged bleeding time, tinnitus, gastric distress, ulceration, and bleeding c. respiratory depression d. physical and/or emotional dependence
ANSWER: b
33. Side effects related to the use of tetracyclines include nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea in addition to which of the following signs and/or symptoms? a. Abdominal pain, colitis, crystalluria, and phototoxicity b. Discolored teeth and retarded bone growth in fetus or young children c. Blood dyscrasias and hepatic toxicity with jaundice d. Lower extremity weakness
ANSWER: b
34. Antitussives are used to treat ________. a. symptoms of acute respiratory conditions such as asthma and COPD b. coughing c. symptoms of allergies d. upper airway congestion
ANSWER: b
35. Which list describes relative contraindications or cautions to be observed with tricyclics? a. Hyperthyroidism, history of drug dependence, or eating disorders b. Cardiac, renal, GI, and liver disorders c. Cerebrovascular disease d. Patients who are prone to suicide, diabetics, and those with bipolar disorders
ANSWER: b
36. Contraindications/cautions for use of antitussives may include __________. a. unstable cardiac status, glaucoma, or prostatic hypertrophy b. asthma and COPD c. infants, pregnancy, and lactation d. hyperthyroid, diabetes, pregnancy, or lactation
ANSWER: b
36. Many of the Beers list drugs exhibit what type of properties that older adults are more likely to have adverse reactions to? a. Adrenergic b. Anticholinergic c. Sympathomimetic d. Anti-inflammatory
ANSWER: b
36. Which of the following is the treatment of choice for constipation in pregnant or nursing women? a. Bulk laxatives b. Stool softeners c. Stimulant laxatives d. None of the above.
ANSWER: b
37. Angiotensin receptor blockers (ARBs) work by which mechanism of action? a. Decreasing vasoconstriction b. Blocking the hormone that causes vasoconstriction c. Dilating coronary vessels. d. Dilating the peripheral vascular bed
ANSWER: b
37. Short-acting insulins ___________. a. onset in 10-30 minutes and peak in 1-2 hours, last 3-8 hours b. onset in 1/2 to 1 hour and peak in 1-5 hours, last 6-10 hours c. onset in 1-3 hours and peak in 6-12 hours, last 18-24 hours d. onset in 1-2 hours, don't peak, and last up to 24 hours
ANSWER: b
37. Which of the following contraindication or warning is appropriate for tetracyclines? a. "Avoid use in patients with seizure disorders." b. "Avoid exposure to direct sunlight." c. "Not for use in patients with urinary obstruction." d. "Not for use in diabetics or asthmatics."
ANSWER: b
37. Which statement by a patient taking bronchodilators indicates a need for additional teaching? a. "I will follow the directions on the label carefully." b. "Nervousness, tremor, dizziness, confusion, and headache are expected side effects so I do not need to call the doctor if they occur." c. "I will drink plenty of fluids each day." d. "I will use my maintenance inhaler as directed and call the doctor if I need my rescue inhaler frequently."
ANSWER: b
38. An antipyretic is used to treat ___________. a. pain b. fever c. nausea d. insomnia
ANSWER: b
38. Side effects are uncommon in the use of angiotensin receptor blockers (ARBs), but those that may occur include _________. a. blood dyscrasias, severe hypotension, chronic cough, or nasal congestion b. dizziness, orthostatic hypotension, and upper respiratory tract infections c. hypertension d. tachycardia, edema, and weight gain
ANSWER: b
39. An example of a loop diuretic is _________. a. HydroDIURIL (hydrochlorothiazide) b. Lasix (furosemide) c. Aldactone (spironolactone) d. Osmitrol (mannitol)
ANSWER: b
39. Cautions for the use of lithium include _________. a. patients with seizure disorders, cardiac or liver disorders, or who are more prone to suicide b. patients with seizure disorders, Parkinson's disease, and thyroid disease c. patients who are depressed, who exhibit suicidal tendencies, who have depressed vital signs, and who operate machinery d. patients with renal and hepatic impairment
ANSWER: b
39. Emollient laxatives may result in ________. a. occasional mild, transitory GI cramping b. malabsorption of vitamins A, D, E, and K with prolonged oral use c. electrolyte imbalances d. abdominal cramps and loss of normal bowel function with prolonged use
ANSWER: b
40. Bile acid sequestrants achieve efficacy by which mechanism of action? a. Inhibiting the enzyme needed for cholesterol syntheses b. Binding with bile acids in the intestine, which reduces the total body cholesterol c. Inhibiting the mobilization of free fatty acids from the peripheral tissues d. Inhibiting intestinal absorption of both dietary and biliary cholesterol, blocking its transport in the small intestine
ANSWER: b
41. Interactions or side effects of tetracyclines more likely involve ____________. a. potentiation of oral anticoagulants and antidiabetic agents b. decrease in absorption when given with antacids and laxatives c. damage to vestibular organs d. damage to tendons and cartilage
ANSWER: b
41. Stool softeners should not be given to patients ______. a. with dysphasia or esophageal obstruction b. with acute abdominal pain c. who are bedridden or debilitated d. who have diarrhea caused by infection or ulcerative colitis
ANSWER: b
41. Symptoms of hypoglycemia include ______. a. dehydration and excessive thirst b. irritability, confusion, perspiration, pallor, hunger c. anorexia and unexplained weight loss d. ketoacidosis
ANSWER: b
42. Which comments by a diabetic patient during teaching indicate a need for follow-up? a. "It is important to follow my diet and medication plans." b. "If I have symptoms of hypoglycemia, I will drink a diet pop." c. "I need to get regular exercise and maintain proper weight." d. "I need to take careful care of my feet."
ANSWER: b
43. Identify the mechanism of action of MAOIs. a. Potentiation of norepinephrine and serotonin activity by blocking their reuptake b. Increasing concentrations of serotonin, norepinephrine, and dopamine by inhibition of monoamine oxidase enzyme c. Selective blockade of serotonin reabsorption, restoring the brain's chemical balance d. Dopamine receptor blockade
ANSWER: b
43. Which of the following is an important consideration in a patient's self-administration of insulin? a. Opened vials must always be refrigerated. b. Administration sites should be rotated with each injection. c. Insulin pens may be shared between patients as long as cartridges are changed. d. Clear and cloudy insulin products should not be mixed in a syringe.
ANSWER: b
44. The actions of urinary analgesics like phenazopyridine (Pyridium) include _______. a. stimulation of parasympathetic nerves to bring about contraction of the urinary bladder in nonobstructive urinary retention b. relief of burning, pain, discomfort, and urgency associated with cystitis c. "pharmacological catheterization" d. reduction of prostate size and associated urinary obstruction
ANSWER: b
44. Which of the following statements is true of heparin? a. INR is used to evaluate for safe and therapeutic levels. b. Protamine sulfate may be used to counteract excess presence of heparin. c. The onset of action may require more than 24 hours. d. The medication is only administered orally.
ANSWER: b
46. Alpha-blockers treat benign prostatic hypertrophy by _________. a. reducing prostate size b. causing relaxation of the bladder neck and prostrate c. parasympathetic stimulation to bring about contraction of the urinary bladder d. parasympathetic blockade to reduce the strength and frequency of contractions of the urinary bladder
ANSWER: b
46. Important education for patients undergoing treatment of diarrhea should include: a. "Continue normal diet with plenty of roughage." b. "Maintain adequate fluid intake." c. "Expect either a fever or blood in the stool." d. "Antidiarrheal medications are helpful in children recovering from chickenpox."
ANSWER: b
46. The incretin therapies actions include _________. a. increasing insulin production and by improving peripheral insulin activity b. increasing satiety, reduction of food intake and glucagon production, delay gastric emptying c. decreasing hepatic glucose output and enhancing insulin sensitivity in the muscles d. stimulating the beta cells of the pancreas to produce insulin e. decreasing insulin resistance/improving sensitivity to insulin in muscle and adipose tissue
ANSWER: b
46. The use of the anti-tuberculin agent ethambutol might result in which of the following side effects? a. Hepatic toxicity and red-orange colored excretions b. Optic neuritis, dermatitis, pruritis, and joint pain c. Hepatic toxicity, gout, and GI disturbances d. Ototoxicity and nephrotoxicity
ANSWER: b
46. Which of the following comments made by a patient taking antiarrhythmics indicates the need for additional teaching? a. "I will change positions slowly." b. "If I forget a dose of my medicine, I will take a double dose when it is next due." c. "I will discard my medications if the expiration date is past." d. "I will not compare my medications with other people taking heart pills."
ANSWER: b
47. Treatment of acute alcohol poisoning is ___________. a. vitamin B (thiamine), multiple vitamins, and folic acid b. Close monitoring for respiratory status, prevent aspiration, IV electrolytes, fluids and benzodiazepines if needed c. low-carbohydrate and high-protein diet d. elimination of caffeine
ANSWER: b
48. Patient education for treatment with loop diuretics, such as furosemide (Lasix), should include: a. "Administer with food." b. "Limit sunlight exposure." c. "Avoid potassium-rich foods and salt substitutes." d. "Drink large amounts of fluids."
ANSWER: b
49. Drug addiction is defined as __________. a. the use of a drug for other than therapeutic purposes b. physical dependence and withdrawal reaction with physiological effects c. illegal behavior d. a problem with the moral character
ANSWER: b
49. Patients taking laxatives should be instructed regarding _______. a. avoiding gas-forming foods (e.g., onions, cabbage, and beans) b. the importance of a high-fiber diet c. waiting to drink the laxative until it has thickened in the glass d. None of the above.
ANSWER: b
51. Patient education for treatment with a nonuricosuric agent, such as allopurinol (Zyloprim), should include: a. "Take one hour before meals." b. "Avoid alcohol." c. "Use caution when driving or operating machinery." d. "Urine and tears may change color to orange-red, staining clothing and contact lenses."
ANSWER: b
51. Side effects of metronidazole (Flagyl) may include ________. a. rash, pruritis, fever, and anaphylaxis b. abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting, anorexia, metallic taste, and dark urine c. ototoxicity, nephrotoxicity, and pseudomembranous colitis d. lethargy, tremors, and photosensitivity
ANSWER: b
53. Lubiprostone (Amitiza) is a unique laxative and is classified as a(n) ______. a. saline laxative b. chloride channel activator c. osmotic laxative d. stimulant laxative
ANSWER: b
53. The use of metronidazole (Flagyl) may be contraindicated in which patient population? a. Those with a history of GI or renal disease b. Alcoholics c. Patients with hearing and renal impairment d. Older adults
ANSWER: b
54. Side effects of marijuana include _______. a. emotional lability, anorexia, amnesia, photophobia, and paranoid syndrome with hallucinations b. short-term memory loss, impaired learning, apathy, lethargy, reduced testosterone level, and sperm count c. euphoria, agitation and excitation, arrhythmia, or cardiac failure d. flashbacks, panic or paranoia, and psychotic episodes
ANSWER: b
56. Which of the following medications would NOT be classified as an antiviral? a. Acyclovir b. Rifampin c. Valtrex d. Tamiflu
ANSWER: b
59. Prolongation of the QT interval caused by the use of certain drugs may result in ________. a. nausea and vomiting b. an increased risk of life-threatening cardiac arrhythmias c. gastrointestinal ulcers d. tardive dyskinesia
ANSWER: b
61. Which instruction for patients taking antibiotics is true? a. Continue taking medications even if side effects occur. b. Take antibiotics at prescribed times. c. Discontinue antibiotics when symptoms of infection disappear. d. Always take with fruit juice to help boost immunity.
ANSWER: b
13. Side effects of carbonic anhydrase inhibitors can include _________. a. conjunctivitis, local burning, and urticaria b. increased intraocular pressure, thinning of cornea, and corneal ulceration c. taste alteration, blood dyscrasias, hepatic and renal disorders d. blurred vision, myopia, and twitching
ANSWER: c
13. Which hormone stimulates the secretion of progesterone by the corpus luteum and secretion of milk by the mammary gland? a. Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) b. Luteinizing hormone (LH) c. Luteotropic hormone (LTH) d. None of the above.
ANSWER: c
16. Hormones secreted by the corpus luteum and adrenal glands are __________. a. gonadotropic hormones b. androgens c. progesterones d. contraceptives
ANSWER: c
16. Side effects of prostaglandin agonists include _______. a. ocular irritation, conjunctivitis, and diplopia b. conjunctival redness, itching and stinging, dizziness, headache c. change in the color of the iris and in length, thickness, and pigmentation of eyelashes d. increased intraocular pressure, local irritation, flushing, dryness of skin, and fever
ANSWER: c
17. Carbon dioxide inhalations are used ________. a. to treat neonatal apnea b. as an alternative to stimulate respiration in infants c. to increase both depth and rate of respirations d. to treat carbon monoxide poisoning
ANSWER: c
18. Partial seizures may include which of the following characteristics? a. Loss of consciousness, falling, and generalized tonic, followed by clonic contractions of the muscles b. 10- to 30-second loss of consciousness with no falling c. Preceded by an aura d. Affected on only one side of the body
ANSWER: c
19. Which of the following is NOT a contraindication for the use of corticosteroids? a. Pregnancy b. Acute bacterial, viral, or fungal infections c. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease d. Primary open-angle glaucoma
ANSWER: c
20. Contraindication or caution with carbonic anhydrase inhibitors applies to ________. a. open-angle glaucoma b. acute bacterial, viral, or fungal infections or primary open-angle glaucoma c. chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, diabetes, pregnancy, and lactation d. short term preoperatively to reduce IOP
ANSWER: c
20. Neuromuscular blocking agents, or NMBAs, are potentially very dangerous due to the risk of respiratory arrest, which is caused by _________. a. interference with electrical impulses from the brain to the muscles of respiration b. suppression of the receptors in the brainstem triggering respiration c. the potential to paralyze the diaphragm d. a decrease in the release of prostaglandins
ANSWER: c
20. The mechanism of action utilized by anticholinergics is ________. a. relaxing the smooth muscles of the bronchial tree b. increasing vital capacity and decreasing airway resistance c. decreasing the chemical that promotes bronchospasm d. blocking the action of histamines
ANSWER: c
21. Drugs that can exert a therapeutic effect on a person's mental processes, emotions, or behavior are ________. a. addictive b. dependent c. psychotropic d. tricyclics
ANSWER: c
21. The hormones secreted by the adrenal glands include _______. a. FSH and LTH b. thyroid c. corticosteroids d. insulin
ANSWER: c
21. Which of the following patient education information is TRUE regarding the use of NSAIDs? a. "Take on an empty stomach to enhance absorption." b. "Weight gain is to be expected." c. "Report bleeding gums to your physician." d. "NSAIDs are a safe selection for asthmatics."
ANSWER: c
22. Impaired distribution of drugs in older adults is most likely related to _______. a. hepatic dysfunction b. poor gas exchange c. inadequate circulatory function and decreased muscle mass d. slowed GI motility and reduced fluid intake
ANSWER: c
22. Side effects of the macrolides MORE LIKELY include which of the following signs and/or symptoms? a. Nephrotoxicity, ototoxicity, and blurred vision b. Blood dyscrasias c. Anorexia, nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, cramps, and superinfections d. Hypersensitivity reactions
ANSWER: c
22. The hormones secreted by the thyroid gland include _________. a. ACTH and LTH b. corticosteroids c. thyroid d. insulin
ANSWER: c
23. Anticholinergic agents may have which of the following side effects? a. Dyskinesias, psychosis, and syncope b. Hallucinations, confusion, and hypotension c. Nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, and anorexia d. CHF, edema, and hypotension
ANSWER: c
23. Contraindications for the use of prostaglandin analogs include ________. a. patients with increased ocular pressure b. history of retinal detachment or retinal degeneration and corneal abrasion c. children, patients with hepatic and renal disease, and lactating mothers d. angle-closure glaucoma
ANSWER: c
23. Progestins are used for which of the following ___________. a. palliative treatment of females with advanced metastatic carcinoma of the breast, endometriosis, and fibrocystic breast disease b. treatment of menstrual irregularities, relief of menopausal vasomotor symptoms, and palliative treatment for males with advanced inoperable prostate cancer c. treatment of amenorrhea and abnormal uterine bleeding and adjunctive and palliative therapy for advanced and metastatic endometrial or breast cancer d. induction of labor with at-term or near-term pregnancies
ANSWER: c
24. Antitussives use which mechanism of action? a. Liquefication of pulmonary secretions b. Increasing pulmonary secretions and reducing their viscosity c. Cough suppression d. Competitive antagonism of histamine1 receptors e. Constriction of blood vessels in the respiratory tract
ANSWER: c
24. Corticosteroids act on the immune system to _________. a. assist in the diagnosis of adrenocortical insufficiency b. regulate growth c. treat allergic reactions d. relieve the symptoms of hyperthyroidism
ANSWER: c
24. Lithium salts are used to treat _________. a. central nervous system dysfunction b. various types of depression c. bipolar disorders d. anxiety disorders
ANSWER: c
24. Medications used to dilate blood vessels supplying the heart muscle are referred to as ______. a. antiarrhythmic agents b. antilipemic agents c. coronary vasodilators d. vasoconstrictors
ANSWER: c
24. Side effects of progestins include __________. a. changes in the libido, gynecomastia in males, and hirsutism and menorrhea in females b. increased risk of thromboembolic disorders, headaches, especially migraines, and depression c. menstrual irregularity and amenorrhea, vision disorders, and possible decrease in bone density with prolonged use d. severe hypotension, tachycardia and arrhythmia, and subarachnoid hemorrhage
ANSWER: c
25. Which of the following responses indicates a need for further education regarding anticonvulsant medications? a. "I will be extra careful with my oral hygiene." b. "I will get and wear a MedicAlert tag or bracelet at all times." c. "I will take the medication with grapefruit juice to lessen side effects." d. "I will report side effects to my doctor."
ANSWER: c
26. Side effects of antidiarrheal agents include _____________. a. electrolyte imbalances, urinary calculi, osteoporosis, and belching and flatulence b. diarrhea, dizziness, rash, headache, mild gynecomastia, and mental confusion c. transient constipation d. occasional mild, transitory GI cramping, or rash
ANSWER: c
26. Which of the following contraindications most likely refer to the use of macrolides? a. Tinnitus and reduced renal function b. Known allergies to penicillins; pregnant or nursing women c. Alcoholism and hypertension d. High-frequency hearing loss
ANSWER: c
27. An important practice in corticosteroid therapy is _________. a. diagnosis with blood tests (e.g., TSH and FT4) b. it must be administered parenterally because it is destroyed in the GI tract c. tapering, weaning off with step-down dosage d. it should be prescribed by an endocrinologist
ANSWER: c
27. Which of the following comments is NOT TRUE regarding estrogen therapy? a. Estrogen therapy has been associated with an increased risk of endometrial carcinoma. b. Adding progestin to estrogen therapy substantially reduces the risk of endometrial cancer. c. Combination therapy with estrogen and progestin increases the risk of endometrial carcinoma. d. Estrogen therapy remains the most effective treatment available for menopausal symptoms and many women can take it safely.
ANSWER: c
27. Which of the following statements is an INCORRECT instruction for a patient being treated with a beta-adrenergic blocker? a. Do not discontinue your medication abruptly. b. Close the tear duct after instillation. c. Regular eye examinations are not required as often while taking this medication. d. Allow 5 minutes in between instillation of multiple ophthalmic medications.
ANSWER: c
28. Drugs that potentiate the body's process of fibrinolysis are _______. a. platelet inhibitors b. vasodilators c. thrombolytic agents d. vasoconstrictors
ANSWER: c
28. Metabolism is primarily affected by which organ/system? a. Renal b. Circulatory c. Hepatic d. Respiratory
ANSWER: c
28. Side effects of MAOIs may include _________. a. dilated pupils with photophobia, nervousness, insomnia, and irritability b. increased appetite and weight gain, postural hypotension, cardiac arrhythmia, and palpitation c. headache, stiff neck, hypertension, or hypertensive crisis d. sexual dysfunction, nausea, anorexia, diarrhea, insomnia, anxiety, and drowsiness
ANSWER: c
28. The following medications are considered to exacerbate glaucoma, and should be avoided, EXCEPT __________. a. corticosteroids b. mydriatics c. beta-adrenergic blockers d. anticholinergics
ANSWER: c
30. Antidiarrheal agents are contraindicated in which of the following situations? a. Congestive heart failure, history of renal calculi, cirrhosis, dehydration, or electrolyte imbalance b. Impaired renal and liver function, pregnancy, and with children c. Concomitant use with Warfarin or C-diff associated with antibiotics d. Acute abdominal pain or prolonged use e. Seizure disorders and cardiac arrhythmia
ANSWER: c
30. Macrolide antibiotics may interact and/or potentiate which of the following, possibly resulting in toxicity? a. General anesthetics or neuromuscular blocking agents b. Alcohol and loop diuretics c. Theophylline, triazolam (Halcion), warfarin, digoxin, verapamil, and fluconazole (Diflucan) d. Other ototoxic drugs
ANSWER: c
30. Sedatives are given to __________. a. relieve mild to moderate pain, fever, and anti-inflammatory conditions b. enhance analgesic effect with opioids and nonopioids c. promote sedation, calm, soothe d. promote sleep
ANSWER: c
32. Side effects of anxiolytic benzodiazepines may include ________. a. drowsiness, insomnia, restlessness, agitation, dizziness, impotence, and weight gain b. cardiac arrhythmia, hypotension, thirst and polyuria, tremors, and thyroid problems c. depression, hallucination, bizarre behavior, amnesia, ataxia, and extrapyramidal reactions d. dizziness, drowsiness, headache, and GI effects
ANSWER: c
33. Cautions for the use of bronchodilators include ________. a. glaucoma b. COPD c. hyperthyroidism d. hypertension
ANSWER: c
33. The biguanides work by ____________. a. increasing insulin production and by improving peripheral insulin activity b. delaying digestion of complex carbohydrates c. decreasing hepatic glucose output and enhancing insulin sensitivity in the muscles d. stimulating the beta cells of the pancreas to produce insulin e. decreasing insulin resistance/improving sensitivity to insulin in muscle and adipose tissue
ANSWER: c
34. Loop diuretics are most commonly associated with which of the following side effects? a. Severe pulmonary edema b. Hyperkalemia and cardiac arrhythmia c. Tinnitus and blurred vision d. Hyperglycemia and increased uric acid
ANSWER: c
34. Side effects of acetaminophen (Tylenol) can include a. respiratory depression b. prolonged bleeding time c. severe liver toxicity and renal insufficiency d. tinnitus
ANSWER: c
34. Side effects related to the use of sulfonamides include nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea in addition to which of the following signs and/or symptoms? a. Abdominal pain, colitis, crystalluria, and phototoxicity b. Discolored teeth and retarded bone growth in fetus or young children c. Blood dyscrasias and hepatic toxicity with jaundice d. Lower extremity numbness and weakness
ANSWER: c
34. Which medications are most likely to have interactions with antiemetic agents? a. Tetracyclines, quinolones, digoxin, indomethacin, iron, and salicylates b. Coumarin anticoagulants, phenytoin, beta-blockers, benzodiazepines, lidocaine, theophylline, and tricyclic antidepressants c. CNS depressants and muscle relaxants d. Phenothiazines, tricyclic antidepressants, and opiate agonists
ANSWER: c
36. Contraindications for MAOIs include which of the following? a. Hyperthyroidism, cardiovascular disorders, history of drug dependence, or eating disorders b. Cardiac, renal, and GI problems c. Cerebrovascular, heart, and renal disease d. Patients who are prone to suicide, people with diabetes, and those with bipolar disorders
ANSWER: c
37. Patients taking analgesics, sedatives, or hypnotics should be instructed that: a. "Psychotropics, alcohol, muscle relaxants, antihistamines, antiemetics, cardiac medications, and antihypertensives mix well with these medications." b. "There are relatively few serious side effects or interactions with other medications." c. "Tolerance may result with prolonged use, with increasingly larger doses being required to achieve the same effect." d. "OTC analgesic combinations in safe levels are not a danger."
ANSWER: c
37. Stimulant laxatives are the treatment of choice for _______. a. simple constipation unrelieved by natural methods b. pregnant or nursing women and children c. conditions in which rapid, thorough emptying of the bowel is required d. None of the above.
ANSWER: c
37. The classification of diuretics whose interactions may occur with ACE inhibitors, angiotensin receptor blockers (ARBs), salicylates, and NSAIDs to cause hyperkalemia is _________. a. thiazides b. loop diuretics c. potassium-sparing diuretics d. osmotic agents
ANSWER: c
38. Intermediate-acting insulins _________. a. onset in 10-30 minutes and peak in 1-2 hours, last 3-8 hours. b. onset in 1/2 to 1 hour and peak in 1-5 hours, last 6-10 hours. c. onset in 1-3 hours and peak in 6-12 hours, last 18-24 hours. d. onset in 1-2 hours, don't peak, and last up to 24 hours.
ANSWER: c
38. Sulfonamides should be used cautiously or not at all in patients with ___. a. a history of AIDS b. urinary tract infections c. multiple allergies d. toxoplasmosis
ANSWER: c
38. Which statement best describes polypharmacy? a. Using more than five drugs at a time b. Using more than two drugs at a time c. Using multiple drugs for multiple conditions d. Going to multiple pharmacies
ANSWER: c
38. Which statement by a patient taking corticosteroids for asthma indicates a need for additional teaching? a. "I will rinse my mouth with mouthwash after use of the inhaler." b. "I will stop smoking." c. "I will take the corticosteroid before the bronchodilator when the two inhaled medications are ordered at the same time." d. "If I develop side effects, I will call my doctor."
ANSWER: c
39. An analgesic would be prescribed to treat ____________. a. fever b. insomnia c. pain d. anxiety
ANSWER: c
40. Benzodiazepines should be used with extreme caution in persons who have _______. a. seizure disorders b. Parkinson's disease and thyroid disease c. mental depression, suicidal tendencies, and those who are older or debilitated d. All of the above.
ANSWER: c
40. Saline laxative use may result in which of the following side effects? a. Occasional, mild, transitory GI cramping b. Malabsorption of vitamins A, D, E, and K with prolonged oral use c. Electrolyte imbalance and edema d. Loss of normal bowel function with prolonged use
ANSWER: c
41. Nicotinic acid (niacin) is effective through which action? a. Inhibiting the enzyme needed for cholesterol syntheses b. Binding with bile acids in the intestine, which reduces the total body cholesterol c. Inhibiting the mobilization of free fatty acids from the peripheral tissues d. Inhibiting intestinal absorption of both dietary and biliary cholesterol, blocking its transport in the small intestine
ANSWER: c
42. An interaction with sulfonamides may result in _________. a. inactivation of effectiveness when give with preparations containing Fe, Mg, Na, and Ca b. interferes with the effectiveness of oral contraceptives c. potentiation of oral anticoagulants and oral antidiabetic agents d. reduced absorption when given with probenecid
ANSWER: c
42. Emollient preparations are not appropriate in which situations? a. Partial bowel obstruction, dysphasia, or esophageal obstruction b. Acute abdominal pain c. Bedridden, debilitated, pregnant, or geriatric patients d. Diarrhea caused by infection or poisoning
ANSWER: c
42. What antidote should be considered or kept on hand to treat opioid overdose in a patient who begins to exhibit signs of respiratory arrest? a. Flumazenil b. Administer oxygen c. The opioid antagonist [e.g., Narcan or naloxone] d. Vitamin K
ANSWER: c
44. Which mechanism of action is descriptive of SSRIs? a. Potentiation of norepinephrine and serotonin activity by blocking their reuptake b. Increasing concentrations of serotonin, norepinephrine, and dopamine by monoamine oxidase enzyme inhibition c. Selective blockade of serotonin reabsorption d. Dopamine receptor blockade
ANSWER: c
47. Side effects of anti-tuberculin agent pyrazinamide (PZA) can include ________. a. red-orange colored excretions b. optic neuritis, malaise, fever, and confusion c. hepatic toxicity, hypersensitivity, and GI disturbances d. ototoxicity and nephrotoxicity
ANSWER: c
48. Which comment made by a patient taking coronary vasodilators (nitrates) indicates the need for additional teaching? a. "I will sit down before taking my rapid-acting tablets." b. "I will change positions slowly." c. "I will notify the doctor if I get a headache because it could be dangerous." d. "If I take three of my tablets and I still have the pain, I will call 911."
ANSWER: c
49. Patient education for treatment with potassium-sparing diuretics, such as spironolactone (Aldactone), should include: a. "Administer with food." b. "Limit sunlight exposure." c. "Avoid potassium-rich foods and salt substitutes." d. "Drink large amounts of fluids."
ANSWER: c
50. Drug habituation refers to ___________. a. the use of a drug for other than therapeutic purposes b. tolerance, psychological dependence, physical dependence, and withdrawal reaction with physiological effects c. psychological dependence d. a problem with the moral character
ANSWER: c
50. Side effects of vancomycin may include ____________. a. colitis, rash, pruritis, and occasional anaphylaxis b. abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting, anorexia, metallic taste, and dark urine c. ototoxicity, nephrotoxicity, and pseudomembranous colitis d. impaired renal function, lethargy, tremors, and photosensitivity
ANSWER: c
50. Which comment made by a patient taking anticoagulants indicates the need for additional teaching? a. "I will report any sign of bleeding immediately." b. "I will take special care with shaving and brushing my teeth." c. "Once my INR is stable, no additional follow-up lab studies will be necessary." d. "I will wear a medical alert."
ANSWER: c
52. Patient education for treatment with antispasmodics should include: a. "Avoid use of aspirin-containing products." b. "Take at bedtime." c. "Use caution when driving or operating machinery." d. "Urine and tears may change color to orange-red, staining clothing and contact lenses."
ANSWER: c
52. The treatment of choice for constipation in a nursing mother with heart failure would be _________. a. saline laxative b. oral mineral oil c. stool softener d. stimulant laxative
ANSWER: c
52. Which of the following is NOT a potential side effect of Amiodarone? a. Pulmonary fibrosis b. Visual disturbances and blindness c. Increase in peripheral vascular resistance d. Neurotoxicity
ANSWER: c
53. Side effects of cocaine can include _________. a. emotional lability, anorexia, amnesia, photophobia, and paranoid syndrome with hallucinations b. short-term memory loss, impaired learning, apathy, lethargy, reduced testosterone levels, and sperm count c. euphoria, agitation and excitation, arrhythmia, stroke, and cardiac failure d. flashbacks, panic or paranoia, and psychotic episodes
ANSWER: c
54. Cautions or contraindications for both loop diuretics and thiazide diuretics are similar, and include all of the following EXCEPT _____. a. dehydration b. kidney impairment c. hypertension d. pregnancy
ANSWER: c
54. Contraindications for the use of vancomycin include _________ a. GI, hepatic, or renal disease b. history of blood dyscrasia c. pregnancy and lactation d. renal disease and dehydration
ANSWER: c
54. Extrapyramidal reactions include which of the following group of symptoms? a. Nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea b. Dizziness and drowsiness c. Tremors, difficulty walking, and muscular rigidity d. Electrolyte imbalance and visual disturbances
ANSWER: c
55. Your friend is wondering why his grandfather has recently been put on diuretics. You explain that diuretics are typically given to ____. a. improve urinary flow in patients with benign prostatic hypertrophy b. decrease pain associated with urinary tract infections c. reduce circulating fluid volume to help treat edema and hypertension d. decrease the build-up of uric acid
ANSWER: c
56. Earl is unable to tolerate his medication for chronic gout and is switched to a xanthine oxidase inhibitor. How do xanthine oxidase inhibitors act? a. By decreasing inflammation b. By decreasing pain c. By decreasing serum and urinary levels of uric acid d. By increasing uric acid formation
ANSWER: c
58. Of the laxatives, which one is used specifically for opioid-induced constipation? a. Docusate (Colace) b. Magnesium hydroxide (Milk of Magnesia) c. Naloxegol (Movantik) d. Lactulose (Enulose)
ANSWER: c
58. The most significant side effects associated with the use of ribavirin is _________. a. bluish mottling of skin on legs, edema, and visual disturbances b. nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea c. respiratory complications, hypotension, and cardiac arrest d. None of the above.
ANSWER: c
59. Considerations for patients who are receiving ribavirin include ____________. a. avoiding its use in patients with seizure and cardiovascular disorders b. not for use in patients with renal disease c. preventing patient's exposure to pregnant or lactating patients d. None of the above.
ANSWER: c
62. Which of the following class of antibiotics is generally considered to be LEAST toxic? a. Penicillins b. Aminoglycosides c. Macrolides d. Cephalosporins
ANSWER: c
63. AIDS patients taking Abacavir should do what if they begin to experience a hypersensitivity reaction? a. Continue taking the medication and notify the doctor. b. Take Benadryl to combat symptoms of allergic reaction. c. Discontinue at once. d. Continue taking, as these symptoms will resolve themselves without intervention.
ANSWER: c
11. Side effects of anti-infective eye agents can include ___________. a. conjunctivitis b. blurred vision c. urticaria d. All of the above.
ANSWER: d
12. Which of the following is NOT a common side effect of corticosteroids? a. Increased intraocular pressure b. Reduced resistance to bacteria, virus, or fungus c. Delayed healing of corneal wounds d. Hypersensitivity reaction
ANSWER: d
14. Side effects of a miotic agent may present as __________. a. conjunctivitis, local burning, stinging, rash, and urticaria b. increased intraocular pressure, thinning of cornea, and corneal ulceration c. thirst, taste alteration, and renal disorders d. blurred vision, myopia, twitching, and photophobia
ANSWER: d
16. Which statement DOES NOT apply to oxygen therapy? a. It is used therapeutically for hypoxia. b. It may be administered by endotracheal intubation, nasal cannula, masks, tents, and hoods. c. It is not flammable but does support combustion. d. It cannot be delivered in too high concentrations.
ANSWER: d
17. Hormones used to prevent pregnancy are _________. a. replacement therapy b. androgens c. progesterones d. contraceptives
ANSWER: d
17. Side effects of mydriatics may include ____________. a. ocular irritation and conjunctivitis b. conjunctival redness, itching and stinging, dizziness, and headache c. change in the color of the iris and in length, thickness, and pigmentation of eyelashes d. increased intraocular pressure, blurred vision, flushing, dryness of skin, and fever
ANSWER: d
18. Which of the following are nonhormonal agents that act directly to inhibit bone reabsorption? a. HRT b. SERMs c. Calcitonin d. Bisphosphonates
ANSWER: d
19. Which of the following instructions would be MOST appropriate for a patient receiving osteoporosis therapies? a. "Take your medication after meals to avoid GI upset." b. "Take your medication at bedtime." c. "Avoid weight-bearing exercises to prevent the possibility of trauma." d. "Do not use caffeine."
ANSWER: d
19. Which statement is TRUE of unilateral seizures? a. Involves loss of consciousness and generalized tonic contractions of the muscles b. 10- to 30-second loss of consciousness c. Staggering, purposeless movements, bizarre behavior, and unintelligible sounds d. Affects only one side of the body
ANSWER: d
20. Establishing the correct therapeutic dose for maintaining optimal functioning of the heart with a cardiac glycoside and continued monitoring of serum blood level is crucial because _________. a. all cardiac drugs require regular blood monitoring b. digitalis is used to increase heart rate. c. It is not crucial, cardiac glycosides are very safe and widely used drugs d. digoxin is an NTI drug
ANSWER: d
21. All of the following are bodily processes that affect drugs, EXCEPT ________. a. absorption b. distribution c. metabolism d. cognition
ANSWER: d
21. Pilocarpine should NOT be used __________. a. during ophthalmic examinations b. for open-angle glaucoma c. in patients who are diabetic, pregnant, or lactating d. angle-closure glaucoma associated with acute inflammation, history of retinal detachment.
ANSWER: d
22. Antihistamines act through which mechanism? a. Liquefying pulmonary secretions b. Increasing secretions, reducing viscosity, and aiding in expectoration of sputum c. Suppressing coughing d. Competitively antagonizing histamine1 receptor sites e. Constricting blood vessels in the respiratory tract
ANSWER: d
22. Preparations that promote evacuation of the intestine are _______. a. antidiarrheal preparations b. antiemetic preparations c. antispasmodic preparations d. cathartic preparations
ANSWER: d
23. Insufficient blood supply to an organ is ______. a. bradycardia b. hypertension c. tachycardia d. ischemia
ANSWER: d
23. Side effects of the penicillins MORE LIKELY include which of the following signs and/or symptoms? a. Ototoxicity b. Blood dyscrasias c. Anorexia d. Hypersensitivity reactions and superinfections
ANSWER: d
23. The hormones secreted by the islets of Langerhans in the pancreas include _______. a. FSH, LH, and LTH b. corticosteroids c. thyroid d. insulin
ANSWER: d
24. Chemicals produced within the brain as a reaction to severe pain or intense exercise are _______. a. exogenous b. placebos c. endogenous d. endorphins
ANSWER: d
25. Absorption of medications may be affected by which of the following? a. Aging, thinner skin b. Decrease in muscle mass c. Decreased gastric motility d. All of the above. e. None of the above.
ANSWER: d
25. Anxiolytics are used to treat ____________. a. central nervous system dysfunction b. various types of depression c. bipolar disorders d. anxiety disorders, neurosis, some psychosomatic disorders, and insomnia
ANSWER: d
25. Drug therapy for patients with elevated serum cholesterol and increased low-density lipoprotein concentrations includes _____. a. antiarrhythmic agents b. anticoagulants c. antihypertensives d. antilipemic agents
ANSWER: d
25. Oxytocin is used for __________. a. palliative treatment of females with advanced metastatic carcinoma of the breast b. palliative treatment for males with advanced inoperable prostate cancer c. treatment of amenorrhea and abnormal uterine bleeding, and adjunctive and palliative therapy for advanced and metastatic endometrial cancer d. induction of labor with at-term or near-term pregnancies
ANSWER: d
25. Patients being treated with anti-inflammatory ophthalmic drugs should be instructed to __________. a. keep leftover drugs for new or recurrent eye inflammations b. rub their eyes to relieve discomfort c. use the medications as prescribed prior to inserting contact lenses d. follow directions carefully regarding time and amount
ANSWER: d
26. Distribution in older adults is affected by all of the following, EXCEPT ______. a. decreased albumin production by the liver b. circulatory compromise c. decrease in total body water d. decreased renal function
ANSWER: d
26. Patients being treated with miotics should be instructed regarding ___________. a. rubbing eyes gently after instillation of medication b. side effects are to be expected and do not need to be reported c. taking the medication with breakfast to reduce side effects d. avoidance of night driving
ANSWER: d
26. Rejection of transplanted organs may be prevented by the use of _________. a. antithyroid therapies b. sulfonylurea c. antidiabetics d. corticosteroids
ANSWER: d
26. The side effects of oxytocin include ___________. a. changes in the libido, gynecomastia in males, hirsutism and menorrhea in females b. increased risk of thromboembolic disorders, headaches, especially migraines, and depression c. menstrual irregularity and amenorrhea, vision disorders, and possible decrease in bone density with prolonged use d. severe hypotension, tachycardia and arrhythmia, and postpartum hemorrhage
ANSWER: d
27. Possible causes of seizure include _______. a. intracranial infection b. intoxication c. hypoglycemia d. All of the above.
ANSWER: d
27. Which of the following considerations most likely refer to the use of penicillins? a. Patients with reduced renal function b. Pregnant or nursing women c. Liver dysfunction and alcoholism d. Decreased efficacy of oral contraceptives
ANSWER: d
27. Which side effects are most commonly associated with cathartics and laxative preparations ___________________. a. electrolyte imbalances, urinary calculi, osteoporosis, and belching and flatulence b. diarrhea, dizziness, rash, headache, mild gynecomastia, and mental confusion c. transient constipation d. occasional mild, transitory GI cramping, or rash
ANSWER: d
28. RLS may be treated with which of the following? a. Neurontin b. Benzodiazepines c. Opioids d. Opioids
ANSWER: d
28. Serious side effects of long-term steroid therapy are ___________. a. cardiac arrhythmia, increased blood pressure, weight loss, and menstrual irregularities b. rash, urticaria, pruritus, and blood dyscrasias c. hepatic dysfunction, blood dyscrasias, hypoglycemia, and increased risk of cardiovascular death d. fluid and electrolyte imbalance, osteoporosis, psychosis, and increased intraocular pressure
ANSWER: d
29. Side effects of antithyroid agents may include _________. a. palpitations, tachycardia, cardiac arrhythmia, and increased blood pressure b. nervousness, tremor, headache, and insomnia c. weight loss, diarrhea, and abdominal cramps d. rash, urticaria, and pruritus
ANSWER: d
29. Side effects of the SSRIs may include _________. a. dilated pupils with photophobia, nervousness, tachycardia, and cardiac arrhythmia b. increased appetite and weight gain, cardiac arrhythmia, and palpitation c. headache, stiff neck, hypertension, or hypertensive crisis d. sexual dysfunction, anorexia, diarrhea, sweating, insomnia, anxiety, and dizziness
ANSWER: d
29. Which statement best describes mifepristone (RU-486)? a. It is a contraception method. b. It is the "morning after" pill and easily obtainable at a pharmacy. c. It must be done within 72 hours of unprotected intercourse. d. It causes the uterine lining to thin, causing the embryo to detach and be expelled. Cramping and bleeding will occur during the process and curettage may be required in some cases to complete the process.
ANSWER: d
30. Symptoms of an ear infection include __________. a. Complete loss of hearing b. Mental confusion and headache c. Slowed pulse and low blood pressure d. Pain, tenderness, difficulty hearing, fever
ANSWER: d
31. Contraindications specific for cathartics and laxative preparations include ____. a. congestive heart failure, history of renal calculi, cirrhosis, dehydration, or electrolyte imbalance b. impaired renal and liver function, pregnancy, and use in children c. concomitant use with Warfarin or C-diff associated with antibiotics d. acute abdominal pain or prolonged use e. pregnancy and lactation, seizure disorders, and cardiac arrhythmia
ANSWER: d
31. Excretion is the primary role of which organ/system? a. Circulatory b. Hepatic c. Cardiovascular d. Renal
ANSWER: d
31. Hypnotics are used to _________. a. relieve mild to moderate pain, fever, and anti-inflammatory conditions b. enhance analgesic effect with opioids and nonopioids c. promote sedation d. promote sleep
ANSWER: d
31. Penicillins may cause potentiation of which of the following? a. General anesthetics or neuromuscular blocking agents b. Alcohol and theophylline c. Carbamazepine (Tegretol) and verapamil d. Benemid (probenecid) and Methotrexate
ANSWER: d
32. Side effects of opioids can include ____________. a. constipation b. respiratory depression c. physical and/or emotional dependence d. All of the above.
ANSWER: d
32. The classification of diuretics whose side effects may include hyperglycemia and increased uric acid is _______. a. osmotic agents b. loop diuretics c. potassium-sparing diuretics d. thiazides
ANSWER: d
33. Local anesthetics produce antiarrhythmic action by __________. a. inhibiting sympathetic nerve receptors b. suppressing the action of calcium in contraction of the heart muscle c. depressing myocardial contractility d. stabilizing membranes
ANSWER: d
33. Side effects of the anxiolytic buspirone (Buspar) may include _________. a. drowsiness, insomnia, dry mouth, nausea, dizziness, impotence, and weight gain b. cardiac arrhythmia, hypotension, thirst and polyuria, tremors, and thyroid problems c. depression, hallucinations, agitation, bizarre behavior, and extrapyramidal reactions d. dizziness, drowsiness, headache, and GI effects
ANSWER: d
33. The Beers List Drugs refers to ________. a. inappropriate drugs used in hospitalized, young adults b. most commonly abused prescriptions in older adults c. medications that should not be used in those who are cognitively impaired d. inappropriate drugs used in the ambulatory elderly population
ANSWER: d
34. Side effects of local anesthetics (such as Lidocaine) may include _____. a. bronchospasms and hypoglycemia b. edema, headache, and vertigo c. bradycardia, constipation, and abdominal discomfort d. seizures, dizziness, confusion, respiratory depression, and respiratory arrest
ANSWER: d
34. The meglitinides work by __________. a. increasing insulin production and by improving peripheral insulin activity b. delaying digestion of complex carbohydrates c. decreasing hepatic glucose output and enhancing insulin sensitivity in the muscles d. stimulating the beta cells of the pancreas to produce insulin e. decreasing insulin resistance/improving sensitivity to insulin in muscle and adipose tissue
ANSWER: d
34. To help prevent medication errors in older patients, they should _______. a. be provided medications by the pharmacist in child-resistant containers b. be encouraged to see their physician only when they experience a side effect of a medication c. be advised to stop any medication as soon as signs of side effects occur d. make a list of all medications and carry it in their wallet at all times
ANSWER: d
35. Narcotic antitussives are contraindicated in all of the following, EXCEPT ________. a. addiction-prone patients b. COPD c. asthmatics d. patients with pleurisy
ANSWER: d
35. Side effects of tramadol (Ultram) include __________. a. physical and/or emotional dependence b. prolonged bleeding time c. liver dysfunction d. Similar list to opioids and possible seizures
ANSWER: d
35. Side effects related to the use of urinary anti-infectives include nausea and vomiting, in addition to which of the following signs and/or symptoms? a. Abdominal pain, colitis, crystalluria, and phototoxicity b. Discolored teeth and retarded bone growth in fetus or young children c. Blood dyscrasias and hepatic toxicity with jaundice d. Lower extremity numbness and weakness
ANSWER: d
35. Which class of diuretics is most often the treatment of choice in patients with cirrhosis? a. Osmotic agents b. Thiazides c. Loop diuretics d. Potassium-sparing diuretics
ANSWER: d
35. Which of the following are potential side effects of NSAIDs in older adults? a. Prolonged bleeding time b. Silent bleeding ulcer c. Hypertension d. Increased cardiovascular risks
ANSWER: d
36. Patients taking analgesics, sedatives, or hypnotics should be provided all of the following instructions, EXCEPT: a. "Psychotropics, alcohol, muscle relaxants, antihistamines, antiemetics, cardiac medications, and antihypertensives may have serious interactions." b. "Be aware of the potential side effects of these medications." c. "You may experience tolerance to the medications the longer you use them." d. "It is best to use OTC analgesic medications for breakthrough or exacerbations of pain while taking these medications."
ANSWER: d
37. An increase of falls is seen in older adults taking which group of medications? a. Antidepressants b. Anticonvulsants c. Long-acting benzodiazepines d. All of the above.
ANSWER: d
37. SSRIs should be used with caution in which patients? a. Those with hyperthyroidism, cardiovascular disorders, or a history of drug dependence and/or alcoholism b. Patients with cardiac, renal, GI, or liver disorders c. Persons with cerebrovascular and renal disease d. Those who are more prone to suicide, people with diabetes, and patients with bipolar disorders
ANSWER: d
38. Extreme caution is indicated when this diuretic class is used in patients with heart failure or active intracranial bleeding ________. a. thiazides b. loop diuretics c. potassium-sparing diuretics d. osmotic agents
ANSWER: d
39. Contraindications or cautions are to be exercised when administering urinary anti-infectives in which patients? a. Patients with seizure disorders b. Patients with esophageal obstruction or dysfunction c. Patients with blood dyscrasias and severe allergies d. Patient with anemia or diabetes
ANSWER: d
39. Long-acting insulins: a. onset in 10-30 minutes and peak in 1-2 hours, last 3-8 hours. b. onset in 1/2 to 1 hour and peak in 1-5 hours, last 6-10 hours. c. onset in 1-3 hours and peak in 6-12 hours, last 18-24 hours. d. onset in 1-2 hours, don't peak, and last up to 24 hours.
ANSWER: d
40. Classic symptoms of hyperglycemia include _________. a. increased perspiration b. irritability, confusion, or bizarre behavior c. unexplained weight gain d. excessive thirst, polyuria, and fruity breath
ANSWER: d
40. Decongestants are used for ____________. a. symptomatic treatment of acute respiratory conditions b. cough suppression c. symptomatic treatment of allergic reactions d. upper airway congestion
ANSWER: d
40. Some drug interactions are useful. An example of potentiation with probenecid (Benemid) would be _______. a. antineoplastic drugs b. procainamide c. lithium d. penicillin
ANSWER: d
40. Why do most patients seek medical care? a. Preventive care b. Family history c. Chronic conditions d. Pain
ANSWER: d
41. Caution should be used when buspirone (Buspar) is administered to patients with _________. a. seizure, cardiac, or liver disorders b. Parkinson's and thyroid disease c. suicidal tendencies, depressed vital signs, and persons operating machinery d. renal and hepatic impairment
ANSWER: d
41. Contraindications to the use of opioid medications include __________. a. head injury with increased intracranial pressure b. undiagnosed gastrointestinal disease c. pregnancy d. All of the above.
ANSWER: d
41. Which of the following medications may be used to treat gout? a. NSAIDs b. Allopurinol c. Colchicine d. All of the above.
ANSWER: d
42. Cholesterol absorption inhibitors work by _________. a. inhibiting the enzyme needed for cholesterol syntheses b. binding with bile acids in the intestine, which reduces the total body cholesterol c. inhibiting the mobilization of free fatty acids from the peripheral tissues d. inhibiting intestinal absorption of both dietary and biliary cholesterol, blocking its transport in the small intestine
ANSWER: d
43. An interaction with a urinary anti-infective medication may result in _________. a. potentiation of theophylline b. decreased effectiveness of oral contraceptives c. increased risk of bleeding when used with oral anticoagulants. d. antagonism of preparations containing probenecid and Mg
ANSWER: d
44. Which of the following is a microvascular complication of diabetes? a. Myocardial infarction b. Deep vein thrombosis c. Cerebrovascular accident d. Retinopathy
ANSWER: d
45. The mechanism of action of phenothiazine antipsychotics involves ___________. a. potentiation of norepinephrine and serotonin activity by blocking their reuptake b. increasing the concentrations of serotonin, norepinephrine, and dopamine by monoamine oxidase enzyme inhibition c. selective blockade of serotonin reabsorption d. dopamine receptor blockade
ANSWER: d
46. Long-term physiological effects of alcohol use include ________. a. excitement, sedation, and anesthesia b. stupor, cerebral edema, and depressed respiration c. decreased control over judgment, memory, and other intellectual and emotional functioning d. liver damage, pancreatitis, esophageal varices, gastritis, ulceration, cardiomyopathy, and hemorrhage.
ANSWER: d
48. Side effects of the aminoglycoside streptomycin can include _________. a. numbness, weakness of extremities, and red-orange colored excretions b. optic neuritis, confusion, and joint pain c. hepatic toxicity, hypersensitivity, and GI disturbances d. ototoxicity and nephrotoxicity
ANSWER: d
51. The side effect associated with all anticoagulants includes ______. a. thrombocytopenia b. osteoporosis c. hematuria d. All of the above.
ANSWER: d
52. Side effects of acyclovir may include ___________. a. nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, and colitis b. abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting, anorexia, metallic taste, headache, dizziness, and dark urine c. ototoxicity and pseudomembranous colitis d. impaired renal function, lethargy, tremors, confusion, headache, rash, and photosensitivity
ANSWER: d
52. Side effects of hallucinogens may include __________. a. emotional lability, anorexia, amnesia, photophobia, and paranoid syndrome with hallucinations b. short-term memory loss, impaired learning, apathy, lethargy, reduced testosterone levels, and sperm count c. euphoria, agitation and excitation, arrhythmia, or cardiac failure d. flashbacks, panic, and psychotic episodes
ANSWER: d
53. Patient education for treatment with phenazopyridine (Pyridium) should include: a. "Avoid use of aspirin-containing products." b. "Avoid high potassium foods." c. "Use caution when driving or operating machinery." d. "Urine and tears may change color to orange-red, staining clothing and contact lenses."
ANSWER: d
55. Acyclovir is contraindicated in which of the following patient populations? a. Hepatic disease b. Alcoholics and pregnant women c. Older adults d. Nursing mothers
ANSWER: d
55. The use of serotonin receptor antagonists may result in which side effects? a. Confusion, anxiety b. Drowsiness, vertigo c. Dry mouth, blurred vision d. All of the above.
ANSWER: d
55. Which of the following drugs are most often abused by medical personnel? a. Hydrocodone b. Benzodiazepines c. Oxycodone d. All of the above.
ANSWER: d
56. Contraindications related to the use of antiemetics of all classes include _________. a. cardiac arrhythmia b. seizure disorders c. angle-closure glaucoma d. All of the above.
ANSWER: d
57. Kayley has all of the symptoms of a urinary tract infection over a holiday weekend. She recalls that in the past, the urinary analgesic, phenazopyridine, has relieved her symptoms very quickly, so she asks a friend to pick some up for her rather than braving a crowded health clinic. As before, Kayley gets rapid relief of her symptoms. Should Kayley be concerned about anything else? a. Possibly. If the infection was caused by bacteria, she will be fine, but if it was caused by a virus, she will need to see her doctor. b. Possibly. If she experiences a return of symptoms after taking the phenazopyridine for a week, she should see her doctor c. No. If the phenazopyridine has alleviated the symptoms, she should be just fine. d. Yes. Phenazopyridine treats the symptoms, but will not cure the infection, so she still needs to see her doctor.
ANSWER: d
57. Which of the following statements is true regarding Rohypnol? a. It is not approved for use in the United States. b. It is used to counteract effects of cocaine withdrawal. c. It is used as a date-rape drug. d. All of the above are true.
ANSWER: d
58. William has just been diagnosed with benign prostatic hyperplasia. What class of drugs is considered to be first-line therapy for benign prostatic hyperplasia? a. Antiandrogens b. PDE inhibitors c. Cholinergics d. Alpha-blockers
ANSWER: d
60. Drugs that interact with antipsychotics by prolonging the QT interval fall into which categories? a. Antiarrhythmic agents b. Quinolones c. Phenothiazines d. All of the above.
ANSWER: d