Final Questions (4)
Which of the following statements regarding primers is true (as learned in the context of this class)? a. Primer specificity is increased by making the 3' (C terminmus) end in a G or C, since G and C bind more tightly than A or T. b. Good primers should have long sequences (more than 40 bastene pairs). This will make it easier for a primer to bind to DNA more tightly. e c. Good primers are designed to bind to hyper variable regions of the DNA that we want to amplify. d. Adenine and Thyamine should make up the majority of the total base pairs in a good primer. e. Primers are single-stranded RNAs, usually 20-30 bases long.
A
In the absence of lactose, what would occur if there was a mutation in the operator of the lac operon that did not allow the lac repressor to bind? A. RNA polymerase would bind the operator, and would transcribe B-gal B. RNA polymerase would bind to the promoter, and would also transcribe B-gal C. RNA polymerase would not bind to anything because there is no lactose present D. RNA polymerase would bind to the promoter, but would not transcribe B-gal because there is no lactos present E. RNA polymerase would not bind the promoter and would not produce b-gal because there is no lactose present
B
What elements within a haplogroup are found to be similar? a. DNA b. haplotypes c. genotypes d. phenotypes e. RNA
B
For the biochemical assay of B-Galactosidase Activity, why is the absorption at 600nm greater at 70 minutes compared to 20 minutes? a. there are more beta galactosidase b. there are more o-nitrophenol c. there are more cells d. none of these e. the solution is more yellow
C
Before sequencing DNA, which of the following lab procedures is usually NOT performed? A. The unknown DNa is compared with markers of known molecular weights and quantities B. The presence of primer-dimer would be screened for using gel-eletrophoresis C. The presence of purified DNA would be confirmed by electrophoresis D. the Qualitative measure of DNA concentration would be found through DNA amplification E. The concentration of DNA would be found with the help of a spectrophotometer
D
Which of the following can seperate particle based on density? A. UV light B. Ion exchange Chromotography C. Affinity Chromatography D. Centrifugation E. SDS gele electrophoresis
D
The Spectrophotometer produces a plot of: a. the transmission spectrum. b. absorption vs. transmission. c. the rf values. d. the pigment spectrum. e. the absorption spectrum.
E
All are true of a compound light microscope except which of the following: a. It focuses on light that reflects off the surface of the specimen. b. It produces a mirror image. c. It requires a thin specimen. d. It has discrete increments of magnification. e. It contains two lenses.
a
Goldfish are used in the metabolism lab because a. they are poikilothermic organisms whose body temperature varies with the temperature of their surroundings, making their metabolic rate easier to manipulate. b. they are homeothermic organisms and maintain constant body temperature, making their metabolic rate easier to manipulate. c. they are stenotherms and can only survive in a narrow temperature range. d. they are homeothermic organisms whose body temperature varies with the temperature of their surroundings, making their metabolic rate easier to manipulate. e. they are poikilothermic organisms whose body temperature remains constant, making their metabolic rate easier to manipulate.
a
The ____ is the structure that releases bile, which is released into the ______ where the majority of that fat is emulsified a. gall bladder/small intestine b. stomach/small intestine c. pancreas/liver d. spleen/stomach e. gallblader/large intestine
a
The first step in the polymerase chain reaction (PCR) is a. Denaturation of double stranded DNA. b. Annealing of primers to single stranded DNA. c. Cooling of temperature in reaction to 42 degrees celcius. d. Annealing of double stranded DNA. e. Extension of primers and DNA.
a
Thin layer chromatography is a technique for __________________ and distinguishes between compounds based on the characteristics of ____________________. a. separating organic compounds; polarity, solubility, and size. b. determining the concentration of organic compounds; polarity, solubility, and color. c. determining wavelengths of organic compounds; size, acidity, and solubility. d. separating pigments based on plant type; plant origin, color, and size. e. determining polarity of pigments; solubility, size, and color.
a
Using skills obtained from the Histology lab, please identify the mammalian tissue sample with the following characteristics: branching of thin, pink strands, clear globular spaces, and at high magnification, there are red dots dispersed within the branches. (Hint: this is one of the tissues used in the lab.) a. Lung b. Salivary gland c. Tracheal epithelium d. Neurons e. Bone
a
What is the special property of Taq polymerase that allows it to work in a PCR reaction? a. it is heat resistant b. There is nothing special, it's just like all the other polymerases c. It is non-degrading d. Taq polymerase is cheaper than others e. It is bigger than other polymerases
a
What pipette would you use to measure 0.5 ml? a. P1000 b. P0.5 c. P500 d. P200 e. P20
a
What would be a reason you would use an agarose gel as opposed to a polyacrylamide gel when running electrophoresis? a. It is easy to make since it is nontoxic prior to polymerization and does not need to be made in airtight conditions b. You wish to add SDS to your sample to coat it with a negative charge c. The samples you are running are close in size and need high resolution d. You are separating proteins, not DNA e. You wish to run the gel horizontally, not vertically
a
Which anatomical term describes the position of the ear pinnae relative to the nose in both rats and humans? a. lateral b. inferior c. anterior d. caudal e. ventral
a
Which directional term is incorrect? a. Ventral is toward floor. b. Lateral is toward the side. c. Dorsal is toward the back. d. Anterior is toward the front of the body. e. Distal is located away from a point of reference.
a
Which human evolutionary theory is supported by analysis of maternal inheritance through analyzing mitochondrial DNA? a. Recent African origin theory b. Early-ancestor Mesopotamian origin theory c. Multi-regional evolution theory d. Hominian-Eve evolutionary theory e. Neanderthal multiregional evolution theory
a
Which of the following is INCORRECT? a. Difference in pore size allows one to resolve smaller fragments on agarose gels than on acrylamide gels. b. Polypeptides were visualized via fluorescence of the FITC tag, while DNA fragments were visualized using ethidium bromide. c. DNA has a uniform charge to mass ratio while polypeptides must be treated with SDS to confer a uniform ratio. d. DNA fragments can be resolved in both agarose gels and polyacrylamide gels. e. In our labs, polypeptides were resolved in a polyacrylamide gel while DNA fragments were resolved in an agarose gel.
a
Which of the following is NOT true about the lac operon? a. Glucose binds to the repressor, causing a conformational change. b. The operator region is located between the promoter and the lac operon genes. c. The Lac repressor protein has a separate promoter. d. B-galactosidase can cleave ONPG, as well as its natural substrate. e. The repressor protein is constantly being made.
a
Which of the following is TRUE regarding DNA sequencing and amplification: a. Taq polymerase is resistant to denaturation caused by heat. b. Mitochondrial DNA is amplified using the Chelex technique. c. Chelex prevents DNA degradation by binding Ca 2+. d. PCR is an in vivo DNA synthesis reaction repeated many times. e. Mitochondrial DNA can trace paternal lineage.
a
Which of the following is incorrect regarding Electrophoresis? a. Electrophoresis confirms the presence of purified DNA visually and confirms the DNA purity. b. Gel Electrophoresis can determine whether the amplified DNA is the correct size or composed primarily of primer-dimer. c. The polyacrylamide gel is used in the DNA analysis lab. d. When the unknown DNA is compared with markers of known molecular weights and quantity, the relative intensity of unknown DNA to the marker DNA can be estimated. ` e. In an agarose gel, EtBr intercalates between DNA base pairs and fluoresces under UV light.
a
Which of these regarding the t-test is true? a. When you have a p-value of less than 0.05, you can conclude the null hypothesis can be rejected. b. A p-value of more than 0.05 means that we are less than 5% likely to have made a mistake by rejecting the null hypothesis. c. When doing the test for two groups, both groups must have the same standard deviation. d. One can determine whether the difference between the two groups is significant based only on the t-value.
a
Which one of the following statement should not be in the set of rules for primer design? a. Primers should contain long runs (four or more of the same base in a row). b. Melting temperatures should be between 55-80 C. c. Guanine and cytosine should make up 50-60% of the total base pairs. d. Primers should between 20-30 base pairs long. e. Primers should end (3') in a G or C, or CG or GC.
a
Which organ is the most dorsal in a rat? a.Kidney b. pancreas c. caecum d. esophagus e. liver
a
In SDS-PAGE, the movement of polypeptides through the gel will be affected by polypeptide a. charge b. size c. charge to mass ratio d. all of these e. shape
b
In the goldfish lab, you divided the rate of oxygen consumption by the weight of the fish: a. to decrease the rate of oxygen consumption. b. to ensure that the different size of the goldfish does not affect results. c. because you used three goldfish. d. to change the rate from mL to grams. e. because you had two different experimental trials.
b
Metabolic rate can not be measured by: a. measuring glucose metabolism. b. measuring percent NO. c. measuring percent oxygen. d. measuring percent carbon dioxide. e. measuring heat.
b
The correct sequence of digestive organs from the anterior end to the posterior end of a rat is: a. Caecum, large intestine, duodenum b. duodenum, large intestine, rectum c. Pancreas, spleen, vas d. Small intestine, large intestine, spleen e. Large intestine, pancreas, rectum
b
The heart on a rat is located __________ to the stomach. a. posterior b. anterior c. inferior d. superior e. ventral
b
The mass of a protein as determined by gel filtration is 270 kDa. SDS-PAGE analysis of this protein could produce a. three bands -- 540 kDa, 270 kDa, and 135 kDa b. two bands -- 100 kDa and 35 kDa c. two bands -- 540 kDa and 135 kDa d. one band -- 570 kDa e. two bands -- 200 kDa and 135 kDa
b
What does the spleen do? a. It produces digestive enzymes that are released in the duodenum b. It removes worn-out blood cells and bacteria from the blood and plays a role in immunity c. It is used for filtration of nitrogenous waste from blood and osmoregulation d. It produces bile, a substance that aids in fat digestion, which is released into the duodenum e. It is used for energy storage and detoxification
b
What is the major difference between a slide containing lung tissue and a slide containing adipose tissue? a. the lungs are white, and the adipose tissue cells appear yellow under the microscope. b. the lungs are more dense than adipose tissue in order to withstand respiration c. lung tissue contains large air sacs, while adipose tissue is very dense d. the lungs contain larger nuclei to support the functions of the cells e. lung tissue contains cilia to help the air travel through the lungs,while adipose tissue does not
b
When using SDS-PAGE, proteins are separated on the basis of their ________________. a. negatively charged sidechains b. molecular weight c. charge-to-mass ratio d. positively charged sidechains e. shapes
b
Which of the following descriptions regarding temperature and the type of organisms is incorrect? a. Poikilotherms have varying body temperature that matches their ambient temperature. b. Metabolic rate of a frog decreases as its surrounding temperature decreases from room temperature c. Metabolic rate of human increases as its surrounding temperature increases from room temperature d. Metabolic rate of a fish increases as its surrounding temperature increases. e. Hemeotherms keep constant body temperature
b
Which of the following statements concerning compound microscopes is FALSE? a. there are various levels of discreet magnification in a compound microscope b. the specimen must be dead in order to observed c. light passes through the speciment into the viewer's eye d. the image produced is a mirror to what is actually observed e. the compound microscope is composed of two lenses
b
Why would a scientist choose to use polyacrylamide instead of agarose for gel electrophoresis? a. Polyacrylamide gels are easier to prepare than agarose gels. b. He wants to separate DNA with very small size differences. c. He wants to use FITC to tag the DNA. d. He wants to use SDS to give the DNA a uniform electric charge. e. Agarose is more toxic than acrylamide.
b
A class is studying b-galactosidase activity in a bacterial culture. After a student adds ONPG to their sample, the student adds two drops of chloroform, mixes the samples, and allows the samples to sit before transferring the supernatant to a cuvette for a enzymatic assay reading using a spectrophotometry. To the student's surprise, their enzymatic assay reading was significantly lower than the rest of the class's. What is the best explanation for this? a. The enzymatic activity of b-galactosidase should be read using flow cytometry instead of spectophotometry. The spectrophotometer can only measure absorbances of set wave lengths. b. Since the student added ONPG to the bacterial cells before adding the chloroform, the lac operon regions in the bacterial cells were inactivated because the absence of lactose prevents the inhibition of the lac repressor protein. c. The student added ONPG to the bacterial cells before lysing the cells. This does not allow the b-galactosidase to come into contact with ONPG, which may have also been damaged by its direct exposure to chloroform. d. Since ONPG is light-sensitive, the student should have done all of the steps of the experiment in a dark room. Increased light exposure to ONPG disrupts the analog's ability to release a yellow color, which must be present for an accurate spectrophotometric reading. e. ONPG should be added to the cuvette immediately prior to its reading in the spectrophotometer.
c
Accessory pigments a. reflect undesirable wavelengths of light. b. cannot be experimentally separated from one another c. increase the total amount of the visible light spectrum available for photosynthesis. d. are identical among all photosynthesizers. e. have absorption spectra identical to that of chlorophyll.
c
In a biochemical assay, the transcription of b-galactosidase is monitored in bacterial cells. A substrate that functions like ONPG, however produces a purple color when cleaved, is added to the reaction mixture. Under a constant pH of 7, if b-galactosidase is transcribed in these cells, a. the substrate will be cleaved, but the reaction mixture will remain the same color as it was before the addition of the substrate. b. it will stimulate transcription of the genes downstream of it in the operon. c. the substrate will be cleaved as the mixture produces a purple color. d. the reaction mixture will turn orange since the bacteria is constantly dividing. e. no color change will be observed since b-galactosidase is pH sensitive and cannot function at pH 7.
c
In the DNA extraction procedure, chelex was added to the sample of your cheek cells. What was the reason for its addition and what mechanism was used to disrupt an a. Chelex has a very high affinity for DNA and hence helps in DNA extraction. b. Chelex binds to DNase the enzyme that degrades DNA causing a conformational change making DNase inactive. The sample was vortexed in order to disrupt the cell membrane. c. Chelex binds to Magnesium, a cofactor needed for DNase, an enzyme that degrades DNA. The sample was heated to disrupt the cell membrane. d. Chelex is a powerful detergent and was used to disrupt the cell membrane. e. Chelex binds to RNA and proteins leaving behind DNA for extraction. The Sample was vortexed to disrupt the cell membrane.
c
The number of fish used in the metabolism experiment: a. the number of fish does not matter at all only the weight does b. should be different in each run of the experiment c. does not matter as long as the number remains consistent throughout the experiment and that they have enough oxygen available in the chamber for the entire time of the experiment. d. must be more than 3 for the oxygen probe to detect oxygen consumption properly e. must be no more than 2 because the oxygen probe can not handle more
c
The reducing agent, b-mercaptoethanol, in SDS-PAGE a. enzymatically cleaves disulfide linkages. b. makes disulfide linkages visible under UV light. c. reduces disulfide bonds which denatures the protein. d. oxidizes disulfide bonds which dissociates protein subunits. e. intercalates into proteins making them visible under UV light.
c
What is the purpose of Sodium Dodecyl Sulfate when used in the SDS Phage technique? a. Break disulfide linkages b. watc h the proteins migrate c. Disrupt the non-covalent interactions between subunits of proteins d. Create an electrical field in order for proteins to migrate e. Act as a flourescent tag so proteins can be visualized
c
Which of the following is NOT TRUE regarding the lac operon? a. Gene I encodes for the lac repressor. b. Gene O is the lac repressor binding site. c. Active beta-galactosidase breaks down lactose into glucose and glycine. d. Lactose binds to the repressor protein, causing an allosteric change. e. As glucose concentrations increase, lactose concentrations decrease.
c
Which of the following statements is considered incorrect? a. The enzyme beta-galactosidase catalyzes the hydrolysis of lactose into galactose and glucose. b. If all the enzymes that a cell will possibly need are produced all the time, then a cell will waste a lot of energy. c. Lactose is the only energy source that bacteria can utilize. d. When lactose is present, it binds to the repressor region of the lac operon, thereby causing a conformational change of the repressor and making it fall off from the operator region. e. The transcription of beta-galactosidase is regulated by the presence or absence of lactose in the environment.
c
While pipetting for an experiment, your P20 shows the values 1, 2, 8 from top to bottom respectively. How much did you pipette? a. 1280 microliters b. 0.128 microliters c. 12.8 microliters d. 128 microliters e. 1.28 microliters
c
Why is Mitochondrial DNA only used to trace maternal lineage? a. Because paternal mitochondrial DNA was destroyed following fertilization. b. Because sperms do not contain mitochondria. c. Because the sperm did not contribute its mitochondria upon fertilization. d. Because maternal mitochondrial DNA is more abundant than paternal mitochondrial DNA. excellent! e. Because paternal mitochondrial DNA is the same for everybody.
c
Why were fish used in the Metabolism experiment? a. A fish b. Fish have a constant high body temperature and thus a high metabolic rate that can be measured. c. Fish have a variable body temperature and metabolic rate that are influenced by the surroundings. d. Fish have a constant body temperature but a variable metabolic rate that is influenced by its environment. e. Fish have a constant low body temperature and thus a low metabolic rate that can be measured.
c
A high 260nm/280nm spectrophotometer absorption ratio indicates which of the following? a. Good protein purity. b. The size of the protein. c. The size of the DNa. d. Good nucleic acid purity. e. How many subunits the protein contains.
d
A scientist got a p-value of 0.039 when testing his data. Assuming there was a small difference between the means in the two groups of his hypothesis, will these results give a significant difference? a. Yes, because there is a small difference between the means. b. No, because there is a small difference between the means. c. There is not enough information given in the problem to answer this question. d. Yes, because the p-value is less than 0.05. e. No, because the p-value is less than 0.05.
d
All are true of a compound light microscope except which of the following: a. it contains 2 lenses b. It requires a thin specimen. c. It produces a mirror image. d. It focuses on light that reflects off the surface of the specimen. e. It has discrete increments of magnification.
d
An electron microscope is different from a compound microscope in all of the ways listed below except: a. An electron microscope cannot be used to look at living cells b. An electron microscope has a higher magnification. c. An electron microscope uses beams of electrons to visualize an image. d. An electron microscope is more appropriate for analyzing living prokaryotic cells. e. The two types of microscopes are exactly the same, just one is less expensive.
d
For SDS page, the ladder had multiple subunits because a. It has the least amount of nonpolar R groups b. It voted for George Bush in 2004. c. It has many subunits of exactly one size. d. It is used to identify the size of different subunits. e. It has the largest mass.
d
How were the proteins in the SDS-PAGE lab visualized? a. The polypeptides were stained with ONPG making them visible under UV light. b. No treatment was necessary, polypeptides are visible naturally under UV light. c. The gel was stained with ethidium bromide making the polypeptides visible under a UV light. d. The polypeptides were covalently bound to a fluorescent tag that made them visible under UV light. e. The polypeptides were stained with Coomassie blue making them visible under UV light.
d
If one wants to measure B-galactosidase activity under different conditions, it is important to take cell density into account primarily because: a. high cell density leads to a cloudy yellow color. Since the quantity of O-nitrophenol, a yellow compound, is used to determine B-galactosidase activity, this variable must be taken into account b. It is not important to measure cell density when determining B-galactosidase activity c. if cell density is too high, the environment because unhealthy and thus could affect B-galactosidase activity and production. d. if cell density were not measured, one would not know whether more enzyme is being produced because of upregulation, or because of there just being more cells. e. high cell density means more ONPG is being produced and hence more B-galactosidase activity
d
In one step of PCR the temperature is lowered to about 50-60 ?C, what is the point of this? a. To separate the DNA strands b. To prevent DNA degradation c. Because it is the optimum temperature for Taq Polymerase d. Allows the annealing of the primers e. To add a sequencing primer
d
In the metabolism lab, the oxygen level in the chamber should__________ with time. a. go up and down b. increase and then stay constant c. increase d. decrease e. stay constant
d
The four-lobed organ found in the thoracic cavity is most likely the: a. heart b. pancreas c. liver d. right lung e. large intestine
d
The human heart is _______ to the stomach. a. Inferior b. Medial c. Lateral d. Superior e. Posterior
d
Using gel filtration, the total size of a protein is determined to be 100kD. When the SDS-PAGE technique is applied to the protein, one band of size 40kD and one band of size 30kD appear in the gel. Based on these results, how many total subunits could this protein possess? a. 4 b. 5 c. 6 d. 3 e. 2
d
What pipette would you use to measure 0.5 ml? a. P0.5 b. P500 c. P200 d. P1000 e. P20
d
What region of the DNA was used to help construct the phylogenetic trees? a. All the DNA was used b. A hyper variable region c. A hypo variable region d. RNA polymerase II (RPB1) gene e. D-loop region
d
When the goldfish are inside the oxygen chamber, the oxygen level is expected to _________ over time because the chamber is a __________ system. a. increase, depressurized b. decrease, open c. increase, heated d. decrease, closed e. decrease, cooling
d
Which directional term is incorrect? a. Distal is located away from a point of reference. b. Dorsal is toward the back. c. Lateral is toward the side. d. Ventral is toward floor. e. Anterior is toward the front of the body.
d
Which of the following is NOT TRUE regarding BLAST? a. stands for Basic Local Alignment Search Tool b. is a set of homology search programs designed to explore all of the available sequence databases for proteins and DNA c. The "E-value" indicates the probability of a random match between the two sequences in comparison d. The best match has the highest "Score" AND the highest "E-value." e. developed to access a database to compare you sequence to
d
Which of the following is NOT an important guideline to consider when designing primers? a. Repeating bases in a row. b. Melting temperature. c. Length. d. Presence of G or C at the 5' end. e. G-C content.
d
Which of the following is not true regarding the BLAST searches? a. The "E-value" indicates the probability of a random match between the two sequences in comparison b. BLAST searches its database to compare its library of sequences to the sequence the researcher has entered c. BLAST can search both protein and DNA sequence databases d. The higher the E-value, the more likely your sequence and the sequence in the database are a true match e. The "score" indicates the degree of homology between your sequence and the sequence in the database
d
Which of the following mutations would most likely remain in the genome of a species for generations after it occurs without being selected against? a. A deletion in the start codon of a gene coding for a structural protein of the skin. b. A deletion from a portion of mitochondrial DNA controlling cellular respiration. c. An insertion into the coding region of a gene controlling eye development. d. A 3 base pair change in the control region of mitochondrial DNA d-loop. e. An insertion into a portion of mitochondrial DNA controlling cellular respiration.
d
Which of the following mutations would most likely remain in the genome of a species for generations after it occurs without being selected against? a. An insertion into the coding region of a gene controlling eye development b. A deletion from a portion of mitochondrial DNA controlling cellular respiration. c. An insertion into a portion of mitochondrial DNA controlling cellular respiration. d. A 3 base pair change in the control region of mitochondrial DNA d-loop. e. A deletion in the start codon of a gene coding for a structural protein of the skin.
d
Which of the following tissue will appear the most vascularized (have the highest density of blood vessels)? a. neurons b. cartilage c. adipose tissue d. lung tissue e. hair
d
Which of these is false regarding measuring metabolism in goldfish? a. Weight and size of the goldfish have an effect on a goldfish's metabolic rate because they are aquatic organisms. b. The amount of oxygen consumed can be an indicator of a goldfish's metabolic rate. c. Goldfish are preferable compared to rats for manipulating metabolic rates because they are poikilothermic organisms. d. Goldfish are ideal for manipulating metabolic rates because their body temperature remains relatively constant despite environmental changes.
d
Which statement of the following is true of SDS Page Electrophoresis? a. Smaller protein subunits migrate a shorter distance because they get blocked by the gel. b. Longer protein subunits migrate further because they can travel faster through the pores of the gel. c. Longer protein subunits migrate further because they have a larger charge. d. Smaller proteins subunits migrate further because they have a smaller mass. e. Smaller proteins migrate further because they have a larger charge.
d
Which structure and function relationship does not make sense? a. The open spaces in the lungs allows for efficient gas exchange. b. The beating cilia on the inside layer of the trachea functions to prevent unwanted material from entering the lungs. c. The holes observed on bone samples function to hold capillaries for nutrient transport. d. The adipose tissue is spacious to allow efficient movement of fat tissue. e. The web-like structure of neurons are dendrites and axons that function to transport electrical charge across the length of the neuron.
d
Why do we use SDS in separating proteins in gel electrophoresis? a. Denatures the protein by breaking disulfide bonds and gives a overall negative charge b. Gives a overall positive charge and breaks non-covalent bonds c. Gives a overall positive charge and breaks disulfide bonds d. Gives a overall negative charge and breaks H bonds e. SDS gives a negative overall charge and break covalent bonds
d
You use ONPG to assay b-galactosidase activity in two E. coli cultures. OD420 values indicate similar concentrations of b-galactosidase in both cultures. You do not measure OD600. You can conclude that a. per cell lacZ transcription and translation rates are the same in both cultures. b. both bacterial cultures contain only dead cells. c. the per cell rate of b-galactosidase synthesis is the same in the two cultures. d. ONPG was cleaved at approximately the same rate in both cultures. e. induction has occurred in both cultures.
d
A protein composed of four subunits with all different sizes is added to a buffer with NO reducing agent and then analyzed with SDS-PAGE. "How many bands should appear if two of these subunits are connected by disulfide bonds?" a. 2 b. 5 c. 3 d. 4 e. 1
d.3
A p-value is _______________________, and when the p-value is _______, the null hypothesis is rejected. a. the probability of making a mistake in accepting the experimental hypothesis, high b. the probability of not making a mistake in accepting the experimental hypothesis, low c. the probability of not making a mistake in accepting the experimental hypothesis, high d. the probability of accepting the hypothesis, low e. the probability of making a mistake in accepting the experimental hypothesis, low
e
A sample of E. coli would exhibit maximum B-galactosidase activity in the presence of which combination of nutrients? a. lactose b. luria broth, high lactose, and low glucose c. fructose and ONPG d. luria broth, glucose, and ONPG e. luria broth and lactose
e
All of the following are true descriptions of agents involved in gel electrophoresis except a. FITC is a fluorescent tag that can be attached by its isothiocyanate group to the amino terminal and primary amines in proteins so that protein bands become visible under a UV light. b. SDS is an anionic detergent that disrupts non-covalent interactions and confers an overall negative charge to the protein in proportion to its length. c. Polyacrylamide is the gel matrix in which the denatured proteins migrate that is mounted between two buffer chambers containing separate electrodes creating an electrical connection through the gel. d. B-mercaptoethanol is a reducing agent that breaks disulfide linkages between and within polypeptide chains e. Agar is a stain which binds to proteins so that they may be visualized.
e
All of the following describes characteristics of chlorophyll EXCEPT: a. Pigments that convert light energy into chemical energy b. The only pigment molecules found in all photosynthetic organisms c. Absorbs light in blue and red wavelength d. Pigments involved in photosynthesis e. Absorbs light of all wavelength
e
In the Sanger method of DNA sequencing, DNA synthesis stops when a ________ is encountered. a. Pyrimidine base b. Ribose c. Deoxyribose base d. Purine base e. Dideoxyribose base
e
In the beta-galactosidase assay, units of enzyme activity a. described the amount of o-nitrophenol produced per E. coli cell per minute. b. described the amount of ONPG produced per E. coli cell per minute. c. described the amount of lactase produced per E. coli cell per minute. d. was a good indicator of beta-galactosidase activity, because it did NOT consider cell density. e. described the amount of beta-galactosidase produced per E. coli cell per minute.
e
Polymorphic sites are defined as regions in a DNA segment that are not conserved between individuals. Which of the following primers would be the best for successfully beginning polymerization at a unique site? a. A long strand (>20bp) with repeat A and G sequences. b. A short strand that is likely to be a numt. c. A short strand that does not anneal at the segment's 5' end. d. A short strand (<20 bp) along a region with multiple polymorphic sites. e. A long strand along a region with no polymorphisms.
e
Suppose I used SDS-PAGE to analyze a protein with two different sized subunits that were connected by a disulfide bond and tagged with a fluorescent marker. In my first trial, I mixed SDS with the protein, but I forgot to add a reducing agent. In the second trial, I mixed both SDS and a reducing agent with the protein. Would I see a difference on the gel between the two trials? a. Yes, the first trial will have two bands and the second trial will have one band. b. No, both trials will only have one band present. c. Yes, the first trial will not have any bands and the second will have two bands. d. No, both trials will have the same two bands present. e. Yes, the first trial will result in one band and the second trial will result in two bands.
e
The enzyme beta-galactosidase breaks down ______ into simpler sugars ________ and ________ . a. Lactose, glucose, galactosidase. b. Fructose, glucose, lactose. c. Lactase, glucose, galactose. d. Sucrose, sucrose, galactose. e. Lactose, glucose, galactose.
e
The following description is for PCR. Choose one that is not correct. a. For the first step of PCR, DNA parental strands are denatured at 94?C. b. PCR is used to make more copies of DNA for sequencing. c. The Taq polymerase is used because it is resistant to denaturation. d. PCR is Polymerase Chain Reaction e. PCR is an in vivo DNA synthesis reaction.
e
The purpose of performing the Student's t-test and finding the p-value is to: a. determine the mean value for measurements taken from a sample. b. determine without a doubt that the difference in means between two samples is significant. c. determine the variation around the mean of a sample. d. determine the central tendency of a set of data. e. determine that the difference in means between two samples is statistically significant.
e
There are several ways to measure the metabolic rate of an organism. All of these are reasons to use oxygen as a way to measure metabolic rate EXCEPT: a. The change in environment is reflected in the amount of oxygen consumed by the fish. b. A sensor probe can easily detect the amount of oxygen in the water. c. Oxygen is a component of in the respiration pathway and is therefore related to the metabolic rate. d. The closed system of the oxygen chamber allows the change in oxygen consumption to be measured. e. Oxygen consumption decreases the blood flow in the fish that has an effect on the metabolic rate.
e
What are the importance of accessory pigments and chlorophyll a in producing chemical energy? a. Carotenoids absorbs the photons, chlorophyll a break the light energy down, and accessory pigments utilize the energy to produce chemical energy. b. Chlorophyll a aid in sending signals to carotenoids to absorb photons which then pass these photons onto accessory pigments so that these photons can be converted into chemical energy. c. Chlorophyll a and the accessory pigments both absorb light energy from the sun and then send the energy to a different molecule so that it can be converted into chemical energy. d. Accessory pigments and chlorophyll a both assist in converting light energy into chemical energy but chlorophyll a convert at a faster rate. e. Accessory pigments are excited by absorbing photons and then pass the excitation to other molecules until eventually it reaches chlorophyll a, which then converts the light energy to chemical energy.
e
What elements within a haplogroup are found to be similar? a. phenotypes b. DNA c. genotypes d. RNA e. haplotypes
e
What is a molecular clock? a. A seven amino acid sequence that is repeated many times. b. A branch in the phylogenetic tree that shows divergence. . c. The age of the most common recent ancestor. d. The amount of time that has passed since humans have diverged from chimps. e. The rate of change of mutation of a particular gene.
e
What is the major difference between a slide containing lung tissue and a slide containing adipose tissue? a. lung tissue contains large air sacs, while adipose tissue is very dense b. the lungs are white, and the adipose tissue cells appear yellow under the microscope. c. lung tissue contains cilia to help the air travel through the lungs, while adipose tissue does not d. the lungs contain larger nuclei to support the functions of the cells e. the lungs are denser than adipose tissue in order to withstand respiration
e
Which Gene encodes for the Lac Repressor that binds on the Lac Operon Operator. a. Lac A gene b. Lac Y gene c. B-gal gene d. Lac Z gene e. I gene
e
Which directional term is incorrect? a. Distal is located away from a point of reference. b. Anterior is toward the front of the body. c. Dorsal is toward the back. d. Lateral is toward the side. e. Ventral is toward floor.
e
Which of the following organs is not located in the thoracic cavity a. Lung b. Diaphragm c. Right common carotid artery d. Salivary Glands e. Rectum
e
Which of the following statements regarding SDS (sodium dodecyl sulfate) is false? a. SDS is attached to the protein in the ratio of one SDS every two amino acids to give an uniform negative charge. b. SDS disrupts non-covalent linkages within and between subunits of a protein. c. Even though SDS confers more negative charge to larger proteins than smaller ones, smaller proteins will still go faster toward the positive electrode in gel electrophoresis. d. SDS is sodium lauryl sulfate. e. SDS breaks disulfide linkages between subunits of a protein.
e
Which of these descriptions of PCR is not correct? a. PCR is simply an in vitro DNA synthesis reaction repeated many times. b. In the first step of PCR, DNA parental strands are denatured at 94 degrees C. c. PCR requires the sequencing primer to amplify the DNA. d. Taq polymerase is used because it is heat resistant to denaturation. e. PCR is used to amplify the region of DNA for sequencing.
e
You are analyzing a tissue from a mammalian species. Some of the characteristics you notice are multinucleated cells, striations, and fairly compacted cells. Which of the following tissues best fits this analysis? a. blood b. bone c. neural d. lung e. skeletal muscle
e