FINAL TEST 1
How far down should a client squat during the barbell squat exercise? a. Thighs parallel to the ground b. Knees at 80 degrees of flexion c. As far as can be controlled without compensating d. Knees at 90 degrees of flexion
As far as can be controlled without compensating
Which is not part of triple extension involved in backside sprint mechanics? Select one: a. Ankle plantar flexion b. Hip abduction c. Hip extension d. Knee extension
Hip abduction
During a squat, which muscle group isometrically contracts to prevent unnecessary thigh movement in the frontal plane? Select one: a. Hip extensors b. Hip abductors c. Hip internal rotators d. Hip flexors
Hip abductors
During the cable rotation exercise, which position of the hip will help to decrease stress to the low-back? Select one: a. Hip flexion b. Hip extension c. Hip internal rotation d. Hip adduction
Hip extension
Which muscle would be considered overactive, leading to arms falling forward during the overhead squat assessment? Select one: a. Latissimus dorsi b. Rhomboids c. Posterior deltoid d. Middle and lower trapezius
Latissimus dorsi
What is the fibrous tissue that connects bone to bone? Select one: a. Elastin b. Ligament c. Collagen d. Tendon
Ligament
Identify a movement limitation for an individual who walks or runs on a treadmill if he or she presents with an anterior pelvic tilt. Select one: a. Limitations to hip extension may require hyperextension in the low-back, placing increased stress on the low-back. b. Limitations to hip extension may reduce low-back extension which can decrease ventilation. c. Limitations to hip flexion may require hyperextension in the low-back, placing increased stress on the low-back. d. Limitations to hip flexion may reduce low-back extension which can decrease ventilation.
Limitations to hip extension may require hyperextension in the low-back, placing increased stress on the low-back.
Intentions are a good predictor of behavior, but what has been shown to help translate intentions into behavior? Select one: a. Planning b. Outcome expectations c. Subjective norms d. Action self-efficacy
Planning
What types of foods contain carbohydrates? Select one: a. Plant foods and dairy b. Proteins c. Animal and plant foods d. All foods
Plant foods and dairy
What is the neuromuscular phenomenon that occurs when a synergist muscle takes over for a weak or inhibited muscle? Select one: a. Synergistic dominance b. Reciprocal inhibition c. Altered length-tension relationship d. Altered reciprocal inhibition
Synergistic dominance
Which joints are most associated with human movement? Select one: a. Nonsynovial b. Saddle c. Nonaxial d. Synovial
Synovial
What is the purpose of the intervertebral discs? a. They minimize movement of the spine. b. They support most of the body's weight and are attached to many back muscles. c. They provide support for the head. d. They act as shock absorbers
They act as shock absorbers
Performing a biceps curl with a dumbbell in the hand is an example of which type of lever? Select one: a. Third class b. Second class c. Fourth class d. First class
Third class
Which regions of the spine demonstrate kyphotic curves?
Thoracic and sacral
The posterior oblique subsystem includes which of the following muscle groups? Select one: a. Adductors (inner thigh) and contralateral quadratus lumborum b. Adductors (inner thigh) and hip external rotators c. Hamstrings and erector spinae d. Thoracolumbar fascia and contralateral gluteus maximus
Thoracolumbar fascia and contralateral gluteus maximus
Which term defines the degree to which a test specifically measures what it is intended to measure? Select one: a. Relevance b. Validity c. Appropriateness d. Reliability
Validity
What are the three branched chain amino acids (BCAAs)? Select one: a. Methionine, tryptophan, and lysine b. Valine, leucine, and isoleucine c. Alanine, glutamine, and tyrosine d. Histidine, threonine, and phenylalanine
Valine, leucine, and isoleucine
Which type of support is the most common provided by a fitness professional? Select one: a. Instrumental support b. Informational support c. Companionship support d. Emotional support
Informational support
Why is it important for clients to learn how to accelerate, decelerate, and stabilize in all planes of motion? Select one: a. Multiplanar training eliminates the risk for injury. b. Most injuries occur in the sagittal plane. c. Injuries often occur when rotating or moving laterally. d. Athletic performance is a universal goal.
Injuries often occur when rotating or moving laterally.
The pancreas secretes which of the following hormones? Select one: a. Testosterone b. Insulin c. Growth hormone d. Insulin-like growth factor
Insulin
Which of the following is unique to type 2 diabetes? Select one: a. The pancreas does not make insulin. b. The body has low levels of insulin. c. It can develop regardless of a healthy diet. d. Insulin resistance
Insulin resistance
When performing a floor bridge exercise, why should you not raise the hips too far off the floor? Select one: a. It may place too much stress on the cervical spine through hyperflexion. b. It may place excessive stress on the lumbar spine through hyperextension. c. It may place excessive stress on the thoracic spine through hyperflexion. d. It may place too much stress on the lumbar spine through hyperflexion
It may place excessive stress on the lumbar spine through hyperextension.
What term is used to describe combined muscle contraction (co-contraction) of the global muscles of the core? Select one: a. Drawing in b. Bracing c. Inhibition d. Isolating
Bracing
How many CEUs does the mandatory CPR/AED certification provide for renewal of the NASM-CPT credential? a. 0.1 b. 0.2 c. 1 d. 0.5
0.1
Approximately what percentage of Americans aged 20 years and older are obese? Select one: a. 0.8 b. 0.6 c. 0.2 d. 0.4
0.4
Approximately what percentage of the human body (in male and female adults) is comprised of water? Select one: a. 0.6 b. 0.5 c. 0.4 d. 0.8
0.6
According to current research, what is the optimal range of daily protein intake to maximize muscle protein synthesis? Select one: a. 2.4 to 3.5 g/kg of body weight b. 0.8 to 1.0 g/kg of body weight c. 1.6 to 2.2 g/kg of body weight d. 3.5 to 5.0 g/kg of body weight
1.6 to 2.2 g/kg of body weight
Starting at what percentage of bone density loss does the risk of hip fracture increase by 2.5 times? Select one: a. 5% b. 30% c. 20% d. 10%
10%
What is a normal respiratory rate for an adult during rest? Select one: a. 25 breaths per minute b. 15 breaths per minute c. 19 breaths per minute d. 7 breaths per minute
15 breaths per minute
How much rest should be given between each repetition of an SAQ exercise for young athletes? Select one: a. Less than 15 seconds b. 90 to 120 seconds c. 15 to 60 seconds d. 60 to 90 seconds
15 to 60 seconds
You have a client seeking weight loss. What number of repetitions is most appropriate for SAQ drills? Select one: a. 8 to 10 reps b. 1 or 2 reps c. 3 to 5 reps d. 6 to 8 reps
3 to 5 reps
What is the optimal amount of protein per meal for muscle protein synthesis? Select one: a. 60 to 70 g b. 20 to 40 g c. 15 to 20 g d. 30 to 50 g
20 to 40 g
What blood pressure is reflective of a hypertensive crisis? Select one: a. A reading of 130 to 139 mm Hg systolic or 80 to 89 mm Hg diastolic b. A reading of 120 to 129 mm Hg systolic and less than 80 mm Hg diastolic c. A systolic reading of 140 mm Hg or higher or a diastolic of 90 mm Hg or higher d. A systolic reading greater than 180 mm Hg and/or a diastolic reading greater than 120 mm Hg
A systolic reading greater than 180 mm Hg and/or a diastolic reading greater than 120 mm Hg
From the choices provided, what would be most recommended for SAQ drills per session with beginner clients? Select one: a. 1 or 2 drills b. 4 to 6 drills c. 7 to 9 drills d. 9 or 10 drills
4 to 6 drills
Which of the following is an example of linear periodization? a. Phase 4 and 5, each trained 2 days per week b. 4 weeks in Phase 1 followed by 4 weeks in Phase 2 c. Phases 1 and 5 every other day d. Phase 1, 2, and 5, each trained 1 day per week
4 weeks in Phase 1 followed by 4 weeks in Phase 2
According to the NASM Code of Professional Conduct, for how long must a fitness professional maintain accurate financial, contract, appointment, and tax records? Select one: a. 4 years b. Indefinitely c. 6 months d. 1 year
4 years
Which division of the skeleton is made up of the arms, legs, and pelvic girdle? Select one: a. Lateral b. Appendicular c. Axial d. Peripheral
Appendicular
What most correctly identifies the purpose of a resume? Select one: a. A resume allows a job candidate to identify athletic accomplishments. b. A resume allows a job candidate to present their job skills to a potential employer. c. A resume allows a job candidate to express a personal statement about their passion. d. A resume allows a job candidate to highlight their expertise in a particular field.
A resume allows a job candidate to present their job skills to a potential employer.
Which of the following tests is designed to test reaction capabilities, acceleration, and maximal sprinting speed? Select one: a. Pro shuttle b. Lower extremity functional test (LEFT) c. 40-yard dash d. Overhead squat
40-yard dash
You are working with an advanced client on SAQ drills. From the choices provided, what would be the best number of SAQ drills per workout? a. 3 to 5 drills b. 1 to 3 drills c. 10 to 15 drills d. 6 to 10 drills
6 to 10 drills
What principle is hydrostatic underwater weighing based upon? Select one: a. All-or-nothing principle b. Davis's principle c. Principle of specificity d. Archimedes' principle
Archimedes' principle
What is a normal physiologic process of aging that results in arteries that are less elastic and pliable? Select one: a. Hyperglycemia b. Atherosclerosis c. Arteriosclerosis d. Hypoglycemia
Arteriosclerosis
Movements that take place within a joint and are not visible to the human eye may be classified in what way? Select one: a. Arthrokinematic b. Osteokinematic c. Posterior d. Anterior
Arthrokinematic
Which muscles are typically underactive in association with lower crossed syndrome? Select one: a. Abdominals b. Adductor complex c. Hip flexors d. Lower trapezius
Abdominals
What percentage of alpha-linolenic acid (ALA) converts to a biologically available form called eicosapentaenoic acid (EPA)? a. About 30% b. About 5-15% c. About 90% d. About 50%
About 5-15%
Which of the following is a component of quickness training? Select one: a. Speed b. Acceleration c. Stride rate d. Assessment of visual stimuli
Assessment of visual stimuli
Which of the following exercises would be most likely to contribute to an acute increase in testosterone levels? a. Back squat b. Triceps extension c. Calf raise d. Bench press
Back squat
Which of the following is considered an open-chain exercise? Select one: a. Pull-up b. Bench press c. Barbell squat d. Push-up
Bench press
What is the process called that prepares fatty acid substrates to enter the citric acid cycle? Select one: a. Beta-oxidation b. Acidosis c. Glycolysis d. Ketosis
Beta-oxidation
Which of the following exercises provides the most challenge for the antirotational stabilizing muscles? Select one: a. Kettlebell RDL b. Stability ball abdominal crunches c. Sandbag rotational lunge d. Cable machine single-arm row
Kettlebell RDL
Extension of the shoulder is common in many pulling movements. Which of the following muscles is involved? Select one: a. Latissimus dorsi b. Pectoralis major c. Anterior deltoid d. Gluteus maximus
Latissimus dorsi
Why are children at a disadvantage when participating in short-duration (10 to 90 second) high-intensity anaerobic activities? a. Children have smaller digestive tracts and are unable to absorb large quantities of nutrients. b. Children have underdeveloped growth plates and inadequate joint stabilization. c. Children have underdeveloped muscles and lack neuromuscular efficiency. d. Children produce less of the glycolytic enzymes that are required to support sustained anaerobic power
Children produce less of the glycolytic enzymes that are required to support sustained anaerobic power.
Most bodyweight training exercises are considered which type of movements? Select one: a. Loaded movements b. Suspended bodyweight movements c. Open-chain movements d. Closed-chain movements
Closed-chain movements
What type of muscle action would expend the highest amount of energy at a fixed resistance level over a comparable duration? Select one: a. Isometric b. Isotonic c. Eccentric d. Concentric
Concentric
Which scenario best demonstrates companionship support? Select one: a. Creating handouts for clients that cover topics about fitness and wellness b. Making time to talk to clients about how their exercise program is going c. Taking someone shopping to purchase attire for exercise d. Coordinating group events that are centered around physical activities
Coordinating group events that are centered around physical activities
Which individual listed would be unlikely to use high levels of Maximal Strength Training of the OPT model? a. Olympic weightlifter b. Powerlifter c. Avid resistance trainer d. Cross-country runner
Cross-country runner
What type of movement happens during the concentric phase of plyometric exercise? Select one: a. Jump b. Stabilize c. Gait d. Land
Jump
An anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) tear is a common injury to what part of the body? Select one: a. Knee b. Shoulder c. Lumbo-pelvic-hip complex d. Ankle
Knee
What does the eccentric phase of a plyometric movement accomplish? Select one: a. Deceleration b. Amortization c. Acceleration d. Stabilization
Deceleration
Which of the following options is not a benefit to all people who use balance training in their programming? Select one: a. Reduced risk of falls b. Decreased agility-based outcomes in athletes c. Reduced risk of ankle sprains d. Improved proprioception or body awareness
Decreased agility-based outcomes in athletes
What term is defined as the generic modifiable factors that impact behavior? Select one: a. Behavior change techniques b. Attitudes c. Determinants d. Self-efficacy
Determinants
What is the blood pressure measurement that occurs when the heart is at rest or between beats? Select one: a. Pulse b. Systolic blood pressure c. Hypertension d. Diastolic blood pressure
Diastolic blood pressure
Adjusting daily priorities is a strategy to overcome which of the following barriers? Select one: a. Lack of time b. Unrealistic goals c. Ambivalence d. Convenience
Lack of time
During a squat, the lowering phase would be described as what type of muscle action? Select one: a. Isokinetic b. Concentric c. Eccentric d. Isometric
Eccentric
According to the "iceberg effect," which of the following training adaptations are considered "surface level"? Select one: a. Proper movement b. Endurance c. Stability d. Mobility
Endurance
A long-term client has recently indicated that she wants to start training for a fitness competition and, due to her competitive nature, she indicates that she wants to win. Which type of motivation is driving her? Select one: a. Autonomy motivation b. Intrinsic motivation c. Affiliation motivation d. Extrinsic motivation
Extrinsic motivation
What surrounds the skeletal muscles and connects them to other surrounding muscles? Select one: a. Connective tissues b. Muscle spindles c. Fascia d. Tendons
Fascia
Before amino acids can be used to make ATP, what process do they have to go through? a. Gluconeogenesis b. Oxidative phosphorylation c. Oxidation d. Glycolysis
Gluconeogenesis
Which muscle would be considered underactive, leading to the excessive forward trunk lean during the overhead squat assessment? Select one: a. Rectus abdominis b. Gluteus maximus c. Hip flexor complex d. Gastrocnemius and soleus
Gluteus maximus
Which of the following force couples is accurately linked to the movement created by their combined action? Select one: a. Upper trapezius and serratus anterior functioning to create downward rotation of the scapula b. The gastrocnemius and soleus functioning to create ankle dorsiflexion c. Deltoid and rotator cuff functioning to create shoulder adduction d. Internal and external obliques functioning to create trunk rotation Feedback
Internal and external obliques functioning to create trunk rotation
What structure in the heart transfers the electrical signal from the sinoatrial (SA) node to the atrioventricular (AV) node? Select one: a. Right bundle branch b. Left bundle branch c. Internodal pathway d. Intercalated discs
Internodal pathway
Which type of exercise accommodates effort whereby the harder the individual pushes or pulls, the more resistance they feel, despite the movement speed remaining constant? Select one: a. Concentric b. Isometric c. Isokinetic d. Eccentric
Isokinetic
During balance training, gluteal muscles should remain in which state to hold the body stable? Select one: a. Isometrically contracted b. Concentrically contracted c. Relaxed d. Eccentrically contracted
Isometrically contracted
In order to optimally load muscle during the eccentric phase, the fitness professional should recommend which of the following? Select one: a. Lower the weight faster to reduce time under tension b. Reduce the resistance so it is less than it was in the concentric phase, and lower the weight more slowly to increase time under tension c. Lower the weight more slowly to increase time under tension d. Reduce the resistance so it is less than it was in the concentric phase, and lower the weight faster to reduce time under tension
Lower the weight more slowly to increase time under tension
In order to optimally load muscle during the eccentric phase, the fitness professional should recommend which of the following? Select one: a. Lower the weight more slowly to increase time under tension b. Lower the weight faster to reduce time under tension c. Reduce the resistance so it is less than it was in the concentric phase, and lower the weight more slowly to increase time under tension d. Reduce the resistance so it is less than it was in the concentric phase, and lower the weight faster to reduce time under tension
Lower the weight more slowly to increase time under tension
Which of the following is magnesium classified as? a. Macromineral b. Vitamin c. Macronutrient d. Trace minera
Macromineral
Without a perceived discrepancy between a client's current state and making a change, what is lacking? Select one: a. Autonomy b. Positive outcome expectation c. Self-efficacy d. Motivation
Motivation
Individuals with low-back pain have decreased activation of which local muscle of the core? Select one: a. Iliopsoas b. Latissimus dorsi c. Multifidus d. Pectoralis major
Multifidus
Individuals with low-back pain have decreased activation of which local muscle of the core? a. Multifidus b. Iliopsoas c. Pectoralis major d. Latissimus dorsi
Multifidus
Which muscle functions in a feed-forward mechanism in anticipation of limb movements? Select one: a. Gluteus maximus b. Multifidus c. Erector spinae d. Rectus abdominis
Multifidus
A client is performing the multiplanar step-up, balance, curl to overhead press exercise. During the movement, their low-back arches. Which muscles are potentially overactive and underactive? Select one: a. Overactive upper trapezius and underactive lower trapezius b. Overactive core stabilizers and underactive hip flexors c. Overactive hip adductors and underactive gluteus medius d. Overactive latissimus dorsi and underactive abdominals
Overactive latissimus dorsi and underactive abdominals
If someone went out for a 5-mile jog with their friend, which energy system would provide most of the ATP for this activity? Select one: a. Oxidative phosphorylation b. Glycolysis c. The ATP-PC system d. Beta-oxidation
Oxidative phosphorylation
The cardiovascular and respiratory systems work together to provide the body with what gas? Select one: a. Oxygen b. Water c. Platelets d. Carbon dioxide
Oxygen
What must older adults complete prior to initiating an exercise program with a Certified Personal Trainer? a. Dietary assessment b. Overhead squat assessment c. PAR-Q+ d. An annual physical
PAR-Q+
A Certified Personal Trainer is speaking with a client who is not currently doing any consistent aerobic training. They ask how ready the client is to do aerobic training once a week for 30 minutes, using a scale of 1 to 10, with 1 representing "not at all ready" and 10 representing "completely ready." If the client is at a 9, what stage of change are they in? a. Preparation b. Precontemplation c. Action d. Maintenance
Preparation
What is defined as the awareness of the positioning and movement of body segments? a. Proprioception b. Biomechanics c. Kinesthetic awareness d. Kinesiology
Proprioception
What might a Certified Personal Trainer do for someone in the precontemplation stage of change? a. Help them identify barriers to exercise b. Encourage them to make plans to exercise c. Provide them with education and knowledge d. Tell them to exercise with a friend
Provide them with education and knowledge
Improved performance during a plyometric jump is dependent upon which of the following? Select one: a. Absent stretch reflex b. Rapid amortization phase c. Release of stored energy during concentric phase d. Prolonged amortization phase
Rapid amortization phase
Self-esteem and body image are said to have which type of relationship? Select one: a. Unequal b. Reciprocal c. Independent d. Autonomous
Reciprocal
Which heart chamber gathers deoxygenated blood returning to the heart from the superior and inferior vena cava veins? Select one: a. Left ventricle b. Left atrium c. Right ventricle d. Right atrium
Right atrium
If a Certified Personal Trainer helps a client improve their technique by using guided practice to enhance confidence, what determinant of behavior are they targeting? Select one: a. Self-regulation b. Self-efficacy c. Outcome expectations d. Intention
Self-efficacy
Programming exercises that are too advanced or physically demanding can have a lasting effect on which of the client's emotional considerations? Select one: a. Self-efficacy b. Resilience c. Self-image d. Self-esteem
Self-efficacy
Which of the following types of balance occurs when an individual seeks to maintain postural control within a stationary limit of stability but with a moving base of support? Select one: a. Moderate-level balance b. Dynamic balance c. Static balance d. Semi-dynamic balance
Semi-dynamic balance
What advice would enable a client to breathe properly? Select one: a. Sit with an increased kyphosis and slowly breathe in through your nose while allowing your stomach to expand. b. Sit upright and slowly breathe in through your mouth while allowing your chest to expand. c. Sit with an increased kyphosis and slowly breathe in through your nose while minimizing abdominal movement. d. Sit upright and slowly breathe in through your nose while allowing your stomach to expand.
Sit upright and slowly breathe in through your nose while allowing your stomach to expand.
Changing leadership style based on the size of a group would be an example of which component of leadership? Select one: a. Situational factors b. Leader's qualities c. Leadership styles d. Follower's qualities
Situational factors
Which of the following effects may occur if the amortization phase of a plyometric exercise is prolonged? a. Stored energy will dissipate, and the unloading phase will be less powerful. b. The neurological stretch reflex will be optimally activated, and the unloading phase will be less powerful. c. Stored energy will dissipate, and the unloading phase will be more powerful. d. The neurological stretch reflex will be optimally activated, and the unloading phase will be more powerful.
Stored energy will dissipate, and the unloading phase will be less powerful.
Which of the following is not one of the primary levels of the OPT model? Select one: a. Power b. Strength c. Strength Endurance d. Stabilization
Strength Endurance
What is the physical action in the body during the eccentric phase of the stretch-shortening cycle? Select one: a. Stretching of the agonist muscle b. Transitioning of forces c. Shortening of the agonist muscle d. Stretching of the antagonist muscle
Stretching of the agonist muscle
When a client makes a statement that supports their current behavior, what is this called? Select one: a. Change talk b. An affirmation c. A collecting summary d. Sustain talk
Sustain talk
If someone engages in a short, intense burst of activity lasting less than 30 seconds, which energy system will contribute the most to ATP production? Select one: a. The citric acid cycle b. Oxidative phosphorylation c. Glycolysis d. The ATP-PC system
The ATP-PC system
What are the three pathways through which the body can produce ATP? Select one: a. The ATP-PC system, digestion, and oxidative phosphorylation b. The ATP-PC system, glycolysis, and oxidative phosphorylation c. Ketosis, glycolysis, and oxidative phosphorylation d. Phosphorylation, glycolysis, and the electron transport chain Feedback The correct answer is: The ATP-PC system, glycolysis, and oxidative phosphorylation
The ATP-PC system, glycolysis, and oxidative phosphorylation
Which of the following describes attitude? Select one: a. A person's confidence in their ability to meet their goal b. The belief that an important person or persons will support a behavior c. The degree to which a person has a favorable or unfavorable evaluation of a behavior d. A construct that captures motivational factors that influence behavior
The degree to which a person has a favorable or unfavorable evaluation of a behavior
Which part of a food label would help a client review the ingredients in a food product? Select one: a. The ingredients list b. The nutrition facts panel c. The percent daily values d. The nutrition label
The ingredients list
Social support is best described by which statement? Select one: a. The intentional things that people do to assist others to achieve a specific behavior b. Posting on social media about the recent successes of clients c. Rearranging a schedule to accommodate a client's availability d. Providing counseling sessions with clients who exhibit signs of depression
The intentional things that people do to assist others to achieve a specific behavior
What do you visualize to detect the movement impairment of knee valgus? Select one: a. The hip shifting toward one side or the other b. The knees bowing outward c. The knees collapsing inward d. An upright trunk and knees in front of toes
The knees collapsing inward
Which feature of a food label would enable a client to assess the nutrient composition of a food product? a. The ingredients list b. The nutrition facts panel c. The percent reference intake d. The nutrient-to-ingredient ratio
The nutrition facts panel
What is the purpose of a professional personal training certification? Select one: a. To abide by federal guidelines that require certification for fitness professionals b. To demonstrate that an individual is committed to the field of personal training c. To ensure gyms and health clubs follow rules established by OSHA d. To ensure that individual job candidates can demonstrate the ability to perform the tasks required for this job category
To ensure that individual job candidates can demonstrate the ability to perform the tasks required for this job category
What is the purpose of the Current Good Manufacturing Practices? Select one: a. To set prices for supplements b. To ban illegal substances c. To provide guidelines to help ensure quality and purity of products d. To set regulations on what ingredients can and cannot be used
To provide guidelines to help ensure quality and purity of products
What measurement is dependent upon the length of the lever arm and the angle between the force application and the lever arm? Select one: a. Torque b. Arthrokinematics c. Force velocity d. Force
Torque
Asking a client to close their eyes during a balance exercise would challenge which system? Select one: a. Somatosensory system b. Visual system c. Auditory system d. Vestibular system
Visual system
Which sense provides information to the central nervous system about where the body is in space? Select one: a. Somatosensory system b. Hearing system c. Visual system d. Vestibular system
Visual system
Which vitamin has an increased risk of causing toxicity? Select one: a. Vitamin B12 b. Vitamin B6 c. Vitamin A d. Vitamin C
Vitamin A
Which concept should be used to describe the functioning of the serratus anterior as it assists the anterior deltoid during shoulder flexion? Select one: a. Stabilizer b. Synergist c. Agonist d. Antagonist
synergist
How is an isokinetic muscle contraction best described? Select one: a. A contraction that occurs when the speed of movement is fixed and the resistance varies with the force exerted b. A contraction that occurs when muscle tension is created without a change in length and no visible movement of the joint c. A contraction that occurs when a muscle is exerting force greater than the resistive force, resulting in a shortening of the muscle d. A contraction that occurs when muscle tension is developed and movement occurs through a given range of motion at a speed that may vary
A contraction that occurs when the speed of movement is fixed and the resistance varies with the force exerted
The anterior oblique subsystem includes which of the following muscle groups? Select one: a. Thoracolumbar fascia and contralateral gluteus maximus b. Adductor (inner) thigh muscles, obliques, and hip external rotators c. Adductors (inner thigh) and contralateral quadratus lumborum d. Hamstrings and erector spinae
Adductor (inner) thigh muscles, obliques, and hip external rotators
Which muscles may be overactive with knee valgus during the single-leg squat? Select one: a. Gluteus maximus and medius b. Upper trapezius c. Hip flexors d. Adductor complex
Adductor complex
What type of client would ideally participate in stage 4 training? a. Advanced clients with moderate levels of cardiorespiratory fitness, seeking improvements in anaerobic capacity and speed b. Fitness enthusiasts with moderate levels of cardiorespiratory fitness, seeking improvements in aerobic capacity and speed c. Advanced clients with high levels of cardiorespiratory fitness, seeking improvements in anaerobic capacity and power d. Fitness enthusiasts with high levels of cardiorespiratory fitness, seeking improvements in aerobic capacity and power
Advanced clients with high levels of cardiorespiratory fitness, seeking improvements in anaerobic capacity and power
Which of the following is not a goal of Phase 1 of the OPT model? a. Increasing strength b. Improving mobility c. Proper movement patterns d. Improving stability
Increasing strength
According to the "iceberg effect," which of the following training adaptations are considered "surface level"? a. Proper movement b. Mobility c. Endurance d. Stability
Endurance
Pronation of the foot describes what multiplanar movements? Select one: a. Eversion, dorsiflexion, and ankle abduction b. Inversion, dorsiflexion, and ankle adduction c. Eversion, dorsiflexion, and ankle adduction d. Eversion, plantar flexion, and ankle abduction
Eversion, dorsiflexion, and ankle abduction
What is the concept used to describe the action of muscles that have the ability to contract automatically in anticipation of movement? a. Antagonist function b. Feed-forward c. Synergist function d. Feedback
Feed-forward
What term is used to describe the premise that increased ventricular filling improves contractile force of the heart as a result of greater stretch of cardiac fibers? Select one: a. Venous pooling b. Valsalva maneuver c. Frank Starling Law of the Heart d. Peripheral resistance
Frank Starling Law of the Heart
Which of the following is a limiting factor for how long anaerobic glycolysis can proceed? Select one: a. Depletion of phosphocreatine b. Lack of pyruvate c. Free hydrogen ions d. Lack of fatty acids
Free hydrogen ions
Which hip muscle helps maintain a level pelvis in the frontal plane? Select one: a. Gluteus maximus b. Erector spinae c. Hip flexor d. Gluteus medius
Gluteus medius
If someone were performing repeated sprints with each sprint lasting between 30 and 90 seconds, which energy system would be contributing the most to ATP production during this activity? Select one: a. Glycolysis b. The electron transport chain c. Oxidative phosphorylation d. The ATP-PC system
Glycolysis
If someone were performing repeated sprints with each sprint lasting between 30 and 90 seconds, which energy system would be contributing the most to ATP production during this activity? Select one: a. The ATP-PC system b. Glycolysis c. The electron transport chain d. Oxidative phosphorylation
Glycolysis
The deep longitudinal subsystem includes which of the following muscle groups? a. Thoracolumbar fascia and contralateral gluteus maximus b. Adductors (inner thigh) and hip external rotators c. Hamstrings and erector spinae d. Adductors (inner thigh) and contralateral quadratus lumborum
Hamstrings and erector spinae
Which of the following would make a person better at oxidizing fat? Select one: a. Having more mitochondria in their muscle b. Having less oxygen delivery to the muscle c. Having more fat stored on their body d. Having more glycogen stored in their muscle
Having more mitochondria in their muscle
Why is third-party verification important? Select one: a. It shows which supplements to trust. b. It sets regulations regarding illegal ingredients. c. It is required for a supplement to be put on the market. d. It provides unbiased testing for a product.
It provides unbiased testing for a product.
What are two medical precautions for self-myofascial techniques? Select one: a. Cancer and bleeding disorders b. Osteoporosis and uncontrolled hypertension c. Extreme discomfort/pain and rheumatoid arthritis d. Joint hypermobility and scoliosis
Joint hypermobility and scoliosis
Which of the following exercises provides the most challenge for the antirotational stabilizing muscles? Select one: a. Sandbag rotational lunge b. Cable machine single-arm row c. Kettlebell RDL d. Stability ball abdominal crunches
Kettlebell RDL
Which heart chamber gathers oxygenated blood coming to the heart from the lungs? a. Pulmonary veins b. Right atrium c. Left atrium d. Left ventricle
Left atrium
Which heart chamber receives oxygenated blood and pumps it to the body? Select one: a. Left atrium b. Right ventricle c. Right atrium d. Left ventricle
Left ventricle
Besides Power Training, which phase of training would be the best option for someone who is attempting to improve their Olympic weightlifting? Select one: a. Maximal Strength Training b. Stabilization Endurance Training c. Strength Endurance Training d. Muscular Development Training
Maximal Strength Training
The development of muscular endurance of the legs requires light weights and high repetitions when performing leg-related exercises. What is this an example of? a. Neuromuscular specificity b. Mechanical specificity c. Posture specificity d. Metabolic specificity
Mechanical specificity
Which of the following exercises may increase inaccurate readings while utilizing a wrist-worn heart rate monitor? Select one: a. Stability ball plank b. Suspended bodyweight crunch c. Medicine ball catch and pass d. Barbell squats Feedback The correct answer is: Medicine ball catch and pass
Medicine ball catch and pass
Which muscle would be considered underactive, leading to arms falling forward in the overhead squat assessment? Select one: a. Middle and lower trapezius b. Teres major c. Latissimus dorsi d. Pectoralis major
Middle and lower trapezius
What does the standing dumbbell lateral raise primarily target? Select one: a. Medial gastrocnemius b. Lateral triceps brachii c. Middle deltoid d. Lateral hamstrings
Middle deltoid
Which system puts the body into a relaxed state, termed rest and digest? Select one: a. Central nervous system b. Sympathetic nervous system c. Somatic nervous system d. Parasympathetic nervous system
Parasympathetic nervous system
One of the two interdependent divisions of the nervous system is the central nervous system. What is the second division? Select one: a. Peripheral nervous system b. Autonomic nervous system c. Somatic nervous system d. Sympathetic nervous system
Peripheral nervous system
A Certified Personal Trainer may seek further proprioceptive development in which of the following phases? Select one: a. Phase 1 b. Phase 4 c. Phase 3 d. Phase 5
Phase 1
When ADP is converted to ATP, what is this process called? a. ATP-PC b. Oxidation c. Phosphorylation d. Transformation
Phosphorylation
Which of the following solutions would allow an individual to achieve a greater depth during the lowering phase of the squat if ankle stiffness is the cause? Select one: a. Stretch the ankle eversion musculature b. Place a small board under the heels c. Stretch the ankle dorsiflexor musculature d. Place a small board under the toes
Place a small board under the heels
Which predominant anatomical position of muscle groups would be enhanced by using pulling motions? Select one: a. Lateral b. Posterior c. Anterior d. Superior
Posterior
Kettlebell exercises have proven extremely beneficial in the development in which plane or of which chain? Select one: a. Posterior chain b. Sagittal plane c. Transverse plane d. Anterior chain
Posterior chain
Contraction of the hamstring and rectus abdominis muscles create what motion of the pelvis in the sagittal plane? Select one: a. Medial pelvic tilt b. Posterior pelvic tilt c. Lateral pelvic tilt d. Anterior pelvic tilt
Posterior pelvic tilt
During an interview with the hiring manager at a large health club, Sarah, an NASM Certified Personal Trainer, is asked how she can contribute as a personal trainer even though she has no formal experience working in the field. What would be the most appropriate response? Select one: a. Sarah discusses her experience as a high school athlete. Because she was a good athlete, she thinks she will be a good personal trainer. b. Sarah mentions her experience as a cashier at a snack bar. She thinks this demonstrates her ability to run a cash register and complete daily cash reports. c. Sarah discusses her previous work experience in a busy day care, where she had to multitask multiple times a day to perform her job duties. She thinks the multitasking helped prepare her for the demands of a busy fitness floor. d. Sarah mentions her experience training for figure competitions. She thinks that experience means that she can help clients train for their competitions.
Sarah discusses her previous work experience in a busy day care, where she had to multitask multiple times a day to perform her job duties. She thinks the multitasking helped prepare her for the demands of a busy fitness floor.
Which of the following exercises is typically used to measure muscular endurance of the upper extremities during a pushing movement? Select one: a. Pushing assessment b. Bench press strength assessment c. Overhead press d. Push-up test
Push-up test
Which of the following is an appropriate assessment for a senior client who is sedentary? Select one: a. Landing Error Scoring System (LESS) test b. Shark skill test c. Davies test d. Pushing test
Pushing test
What resistance training system involves a progressive or regressive step approach that either increases or decreases weight with each set? Select one: a. Superset system b. Complex training c. Multiple-set system d. Pyramid system
Pyramid system
When glucose is broken down via glycolysis, what molecule is created that could also be oxidized under aerobic conditions? a. Pyruvate b. Amino acids c. Fatty acids d. Glycogen
Pyruvate
Which of the following muscle groups work both eccentrically and concentrically in the sagittal plane during a squat? Select one: a. Adductor longus b. Gluteus medius c. Biceps brachii d. Quadriceps
Quadriceps
Which of the following muscle groups work eccentrically in the sagittal plane during the lowering phase of the squat? Select one: a. Gluteus medius b. Biceps brachii c. Adductor longus d. Quadriceps
Quadriceps
What is the primary goal of repeating flexibility training during a cool-down? Select one: a. Increase maximal strength b. Improve sports skills c. Restore optimal length-tension relationships d. Correct muscle imbalances
Restore optimal length-tension relationships
The TRX Rip Trainer would most likely be utilized for which type of movement? Select one: a. Abduction and Adduction b. Rotation c. Inversion and eversion d. Flexion and extension
Rotation
What movement term is used to describe the concept of adducting the shoulder blades so that they become closer together? Select one: a. Scapular elevation b. Scapular depression c. Scapular retraction d. Scapular protraction
Scapular retraction
What is the dysfunction that occurs due to narrowing and rubbing of the soft tissue and bony structures of the shoulder? Select one: a. Rotator cuff tear b. Shoulder impingement c. Dislocation of the shoulder d. Frozen shoulder
Shoulder impingement
Which exercise would be most appropriate for a maximal strength movement in Phase 4 (Maximal Strength Training)? Select one: a. Squat jump b. Stability ball push-up c. Single-leg dumbbell biceps curl to shoulder press d. Shoulder/military press
Shoulder/military press
Which balance training exercise is part of the second stage of balance training that uses dynamic, eccentric, and concentric movement of the balance leg through a full range of motion? Select one: a. Single-leg squat b. Multiplanar hop with stabilization c. Single-leg balance d. Single-leg lift and chop
Single-leg squat
What anatomical heart structure is referred to as "the pacemaker of the heart"? Select one: a. Atrioventricular node b. Intercalated discs c. Sinoatrial node d. Right bundle branch
Sinoatrial node
What is a regression for the box jump-up with stabilization? Select one: a. Box jump-down with stabilization b. Multiplanar jump with stabilization c. Squat jump with stabilization d. Depth jumps
Squat jump with stabilization
What is a regression for the box jump-up with stabilization? Select one: a. Depth jumps b. Multiplanar jump with stabilization c. Box jump-down with stabilization d. Squat jump with stabilization
Squat jump with stabilization
What type of resistance training exercise best describes a kettlebell bottoms-up movement? Select one: a. Plyometric exercise b. Strength-focused exercise c. Stabilization-focused exercise d. Balance exercise
Stabilization-focused exercise
What is the most appropriate gluteal strengthening exercise for a client with hypertension? Select one: a. Ball bridge b. Standing cable hip extension c. Floor bridge d. Dumbbell squat while performing the Valsalva maneuver
Standing cable hip extension
Maintaining one's balance while standing still on a single foot in contact with a firm surface can best be described as what type of balance? Select one: a. Static balance b. Semi-dynamic balance c. Motion balance d. Dynamic balance
Static balance
What is a proper regression if a client cannot perform the lunge exercise correctly? Select one: a. Depth jump b. Step-ups c. Single-leg squat d. Barbell clean
Step-ups
The hamstring complex compensating for weakened hip extensors, which cannot produce force effectively, is an example of what key term? Select one: a. Reciprocal inhibition b. Synergistic dominance c. Altered length-tension relationship d. Altered reciprocal inhibition
Synergistic dominance
Along with muscle protein synthesis, which of the following is an important function of protein? Select one: a. Insulation of internal organs b. Regulation of body temperature c. Padding of vital internal organs d. Synthesis of hormones
Synthesis of hormones
Which of the following is the most accurate statement regarding proprioceptive modalities? Select one: a. Proprioceptive modalities should be used only with the most advanced clients. b. Using heavy weights while performing exercises on proprioceptive modalities has been shown to be safe and effective. c. Proprioceptive modalities have not been shown to help improve balance. d. Using heavy weights while performing exercises on proprioceptive modalities is considered dangerous
The correct answer is: Using heavy weights while performing exercises on proprioceptive modalities is considered dangerous.
What is cardiac output? Select one: a. The amount of blood remaining in the ventricle after contraction b. The amount of blood in the ventricle before contraction c. The volume of blood pumped by the heart per beat or contraction d. The volume of blood pumped by the heart per minute
The volume of blood pumped by the heart per minute
What is cardiac output? Select one: a. The volume of blood pumped by the heart per minute b. The amount of blood remaining in the ventricle after contraction c. The volume of blood pumped by the heart per beat or contraction d. The amount of blood in the ventricle before contraction
The volume of blood pumped by the heart per minute
What are common physical characteristics of those with emphysema? Select one: a. Those with emphysema are frequently underweight and may exhibit hypertrophied neck muscles. b. Those with emphysema frequently display knee valgus and pes planus. c. Those with emphysema are frequently overweight and may exhibit atrophied neck muscles. d. Those with emphysema frequently display high oxygen content in the blood.
Those with emphysema are frequently underweight and may exhibit hypertrophied neck muscles.
Which disease is associated with normal aging and is attributable to a lower production of estrogen and progesterone, both of which are involved with regulating the rate at which bone is lost? Select one: a. Type 1 (primary) osteoporosis b. Type 2 diabetes c. Type 2 (secondary) osteoporosis d. Type 1 diabetes
Type 1 (primary) osteoporosis
Which type of muscle fiber is predominantly used during movements that require high levels of force and power, such as a sprint? Select one: a. Type Ia b. Type II c. Type III d. Type
Type II
Horizontal adduction is most common during what type of movement? a. Squatting b. Pulling c. Pushing d. Hip hinge
pushing
According to the text, what percentage of Americans older than the age of 20 years are either overweight or obese? Select one: a. 0.62 b. 0.92 c. 0.22 d. 0.72
0.72
What is the RDA for protein? a. 1.2 g/kg of body weight b. 2.0 g/kg of body weight c. 1.6 g/kg of body weight d. 0.8 g/kg of body weight
0.8 g/kg of body weight
What are the recommended training variables for self-myofascial rolling? Select one: a. 5 to 10 sets, hold each tender area for 5 seconds b. 1 to 3 sets, hold each tender area for 30 seconds c. 1 to 3 sets, hold each tender area for 2 minutes d. 2 to 5 sets, hold each tender area for 5 minutes
1 to 3 sets, hold each tender area for 30 seconds
What is the general recommended rest between SAQ reps for beginner clients? Select one: a. 60 to 90 seconds b. 0 to 15 seconds c. 90 to 120 seconds d. 15 to 60 seconds
15 to 60 seconds
When using battle ropes as a modality, what diameter of rope would best be used for strength, power, and anaerobic adaptations in which exercises are performed for 30 seconds or less? Select one: a. 0.5 in. b. 1.5 in. c. 2 in. d. 1 in.
2 in
Which scheme would be the most ideal to achieve stabilization and muscular endurance adaptations? Select one: a. 4 sets, 8 repetitions, 30% 1RM b. 5 sets, 5 repetitions, 85% 1RM c. 2 sets, 20 repetitions, 50% 1RM d. 3 sets, 10 repetitions, 77% 1RM
2 sets, 20 repetitions, 50% 1RM
You are working with an intermediate client on SAQ drills. From the choices provided, what would be the best choice for drills per session? Select one: a. 4 to 5 drills b. 2 to 4 drills c. 9 or 10 drills d. 6 to 8 drills
6 to 8 drills
How many B vitamins are there? Select one: a. 8 b. 21 c. 12 d. 3
8
What percentage of adults experience low-back pain at least once in their lifetime? Select one: a. 90% b. 30% c. 80% d. 50%
80%
What statement best describes the main benefit for establishing a brand identity? Select one: a. A brand identity could make it easier to create a social media profile. b. A brand identity provides more opportunities for being featured in magazines. c. A brand identity establishes a top-of-mind presence. d. A brand identity allows a fitness professional to design a colorful logo that attracts attention.
A brand identity establishes a top-of-mind presence.
Of the following individuals, who would be the most suitable for being programmed SAQ (speed, agility, and quickness) exercises/movements? Select one: a. A client who has been exercising for 4 months with some strength b. A client who has been training 2 months with some improvements in strength c. A client who has been training for 1 month with adequate strength d. An overweight client with adequate strength
A client who has been training for 1 month with adequate strength
What is osteoporosis? Select one: a. An age-related loss of muscle mass resulting in weakness and frailty in older adults b. A disease in which the density and quality of bone tissue is reduced, causing bones to become weak and fragile c. Chronic inflammation of the joints d. Lower than normal bone density
A disease in which the density and quality of bone tissue is reduced, causing bones to become weak and fragile
How can health best be defined? Select one: a. Genetics, access to healthcare, access to preventive medicine, socioeconomic status, natural disasters, and the built environment b. A combination of education, income, and occupation c. A process by which the human body continually strives to maintain a relatively stable equilibrium in relation to the surrounding environment and the regular tasks it is required to perform d. A state of complete physical, mental, and social well-being, and not merely the absence of disease or infirmity
A state of complete physical, mental, and social well-being, and not merely the absence of disease or infirmity
Before carbohydrates, fat, or protein can enter the citric acid cycle (CAC), they need to be converted to what common molecule? Select one: a. Acetyl CoA b. Amino acids c. Pyruvate d. ATP
Acetyl CoA
What are the two components of a sarcomere? Select one: a. Muscle fiber and muscle cell b. Tropomyosin and troponin c. Actin and myosin d. Epimysium and endomysium
Actin and myosin
Core and balance exercises are a component of which part of an OPT workout? Select one: a. Resistance training b. Client's choice c. Activation d. Skill development
Activation
Which communication technique allows the fitness professional to show appreciation of a client's strengths? Select one: a. Collecting summaries b. Transitional summaries c. Reflections d. Affirmations
Affirmations
Which of the following would occur during intermittent exercise? Select one: a. All three energy systems would be used at some point during the activity. b. Carbohydrates would not be a major energy source. c. A steady-state intensity would be used. d. Fat would be the main energy source.
All three energy systems would be used at some point during the activity.
What key term would best describe an overactive hip flexor complex decreasing neural drive to the hip extensor complex? Select one: a. Altered length-tension relationship b. Synergistic dominance c. Reciprocal inhibition d. Altered reciprocal inhibition
Altered reciprocal inhibition
What key term would best describe an overactive hip flexor complex decreasing neural drive to the hip extensor complex? a. Reciprocal inhibition b. Altered length-tension relationship c. Altered reciprocal inhibition d. Synergistic dominance
Altered reciprocal inhibition
The process of diffusion of oxygen and carbon dioxide gases in and out of the bloodstream occurs in what structure or structures? Select one: a. Alveolar sacs b. Pulmonary arteries c. Bronchioles d. Trachea
Alveolar sacs
During what phase of the stretch-shortening cycle is stored elastic energy converted to explosive force production? Select one: a. Concentric b. Eccentric c. Stabilization d. Amortization
Amortization
What is the best description of a steady-state heart rate? Select one: a. The point at which the body's energy system converts glycogen to glucose without the use of oxygen b. Any stage at which the physiological response of heart rate from the cardiovascular system becomes relatively constant in relation to the amount of work being performed c. The point at which the body uses an equal mix of carbohydrate and fat as fuel sources d. The point at which glucose provides nearly all the energy for the activity.
Any stage at which the physiological response of heart rate from the cardiovascular system becomes relatively constant in relation to the amount of work being performed
Contraction of the erector spinae and hip flexor muscles creates what motion of the pelvis in the sagittal plane? Select one: a. Lateral pelvic tilt b. Anterior pelvic tilt c. Medial pelvic tilt d. Posterior pelvic tilt
Anterior pelvic tilt
Overactive hip flexors may lead to which of the following postural compensations? a. Posterior tilting of the pelvis and an increased low-back arch b. Anterior tilting of the pelvis and a decreased low-back arch c. Anterior tilting of the pelvis and an increased low-back arch d. Posterior tilting of the pelvis and a decreased low-back arch
Anterior tilting of the pelvis and an increased low-back arch
Which of the following statements would be accurate with regard to muscle force and velocity during a concentric contraction? Select one: a. As the velocity of a concentric muscle action increases, its ability to produce force increases. b. As the velocity of a concentric muscle action decreases, its ability to produce force decreases. c. As the velocity of the muscle action increases, its ability to produce force decreases. d. As velocity decreases, the force remains constant.
As the velocity of the muscle action increases, its ability to produce force decreases.
What is the most appropriate way to conclude a sales presentation with a potential client? Select one: a. Asking for the sale and scheduling the first session b. Agreeing to call the potential client in 2 days to follow up c. Swapping social media handles so the trainer and client can follow each other d. Asking the member for a personal phone number to use to follow up via texting
Asking for the sale and scheduling the first session
What is considered to be the mechanism of action with self-myofascial rolling? Select one: a. Synergistic dominance b. Reciprocal inhibition c. Altered reciprocal inhibition d. Autogenic inhibition
Autogenic inhibition
Where is the heart located in the thoracic cavity? Select one: a. Central to the left and anterior to the spine b. Central to the right and anterior to the spine c. Central to the left and posterior to the spine d. Central to the right and posterior to the spine
Central to the left and anterior to the spine
Bridget, an NASM Certified Personal Trainer, is looking for ways to satisfy her CEU requirement. Which of the following would be an accepted means to fulfill this requirement? a. Attending an 8-hour fitness seminar b. Completing an NASM specialization worth 1.9 CEUs, along with a CPR/AED course for 0.1 CEUs c. Reading a textbook on a related fitness topic d. Completing an approved CEU course for 0.9 CEUs, along with the CPR/AED for 0.1 CEUs
Completing an NASM specialization worth 1.9 CEUs, along with a CPR/AED course for 0.1 CEUs
When a person is thinking about implementing change but has not yet taken any steps to get started, what stage of change are they likely in? Select one: a. Maintenance b. Action c. Contemplation d. Precontemplation
Contemplation
Which of the following is a behavior change technique where clients list potential barriers and make plans to overcome them? Select one: a. Coping responses b. Resisting social pressure c. Implementation intentions d. Self-monitoring
Coping responses
Which term best describes the ability to contract muscles of the core with force in an effort to flex the trunk during a slow controlled movement? a. Core stability b. Core power c. Core strength d. Core endurance
Core strength
Food in the stomach is processed and then passes into what anatomical structure? Select one: a. The ileum of the small intestine b. The ileum of the large intestine c. Duodenum of the small intestine d. Duodenum of the large intestine
Duodenum of the small intestine
What does the acronym FITTE-VP, used to design aerobic (cardio) programs, represent? Select one: a. Frequency, intervals, time, threshold, enjoyment, velocity, pattern b. Frequency, intensity, type, time, enjoyment, volume, progression c. Flexibility, intensity, training, threshold, engagement, velocity, progression d. Flexibility, intervals, threshold, time, engagement, volume, pattern
Frequency, intensity, type, time, enjoyment, volume, progression
When designing a 4-zone model for cardiorespiratory training, what range of intensity defines zone 2? Select one: a. From the midpoint between VT1 and VT2 up to VT2 b. Below VT1 c. From VT1 to the midpoint between VT1 and VT2 d. Above VT2
From VT1 to the midpoint between VT1 and VT2
Which muscles are typically underactive with knee valgus during the overhead squat? Select one: a. Gluteus maximus and medius b. Adductor complex c. Tensor fascia latae d. Lower trapezius
Gluteus maximus and medius
Which muscles are typically underactive with knee valgus during the single-leg squat? Select one: a. Lower trapezius b. Tensor fascia latae c. Adductor complex d. Gluteus maximus and medius
Gluteus maximus and medius
Which muscles are typically underactive with knee valgus during the single-leg squat? Select one: a. Tensor fascia latae b. Adductor complex c. Gluteus maximus and medius d. Lower trapezius
Gluteus maximus and medius
When it comes to exercise, older adults find which of the following to be the most motivating? Select one: a. Competition with others b. Being a part of a social group c. Health and well-being d. Improved physical appearance
Health and well-being
Which of the following benefits may occur as a result of exercises that comprise only eccentric muscle actions that are appropriately loaded? Select one: a. Increased catabolic hormone stimulation b. Decreased catabolic hormone stimulation c. Increased anabolic hormone stimulation d. Decreased anabolic hormone stimulation
Increased anabolic hormone stimulation
Catecholamines are responsible for which of the following actions? a. Increased heart rate and decreased stroke volume b. Increased lipogenesis c. Increased stroke volume and decreased heart rate d. Increased lipolysis
Increased lipolysis
Which of the following effects of the cardiovascular system occurs during exercise? Select one: a. Decreased ventricular filling b. Decreased venous return c. Increased ventricular filling d. Venous pooling
Increased ventricular filling
Which of the following is a characteristic of linear periodization? Select one: a. Helps prevent workouts from becoming boring b. Involves training multiple styles each week c. Changes acute variables on a weekly basis d. Increases intensity while decreasing volume
Increases intensity while decreasing volume
A new client has indicated that they are exercising due to advice from their physician, but they are generally amotivated. What would be the best choice for the personal trainer in their initial meeting? Select one: a. Create a plan for overcoming barriers. b. Start establishing an emotional support system. c. Inquire further about what their motives are for participating. d. Establish short- and long-term goals.
Inquire further about what their motives are for participating.
What component of breathing improves blood flow back to the heart? Select one: a. Expiration with an increase in intrathoracic pressure b. Inspiration with a decrease in intrathoracic pressure c. Inspiration with an increase in intrathoracic pressure d. Expiration with a decrease in intrathoracic pressure
Inspiration with a decrease in intrathoracic pressure
Which heart chamber receives oxygenated blood and pumps it to the body? Select one: a. Right atrium b. Left ventricle c. Left atrium d. Right ventricle
Left ventricle
What is the primary limiting factor for exercise in the client with PAD? Select one: a. Low-back pain b. Neck pain c. Shoulder pain d. Leg pain
Leg pain
What is a characteristic of a type I muscle fiber? Select one: a. Larger in size b. Fewer capillaries c. Quick to fatigue d. Less force production
Less force production
What is another term for the annual training plan that outlines the entire year's worth of programming? Select one: a. Mesocycle b. Megacycle c. Macrocycle d. Microcycle
Macrocycle
Which modality allows for movements to occur as explosively as possible without the need for eccentric deceleration? Select one: a. Medicine ball b. Suspended bodyweight training c. Kettlebell d. Resistance band
Medicine ball
Repeat squat jumps are a progression for which of the following exercises? Select one: a. Power step-up b. Butt kick c. Multiplanar jump with stabilization d. Tuck jump Feedback The correct answer is: Multiplanar jump with stabilization
Multiplanar jump with stabilization
What is defined as the ability to produce and maintain force production for prolonged periods of time? Select one: a. Stabilization b. Muscular hypertrophy c. Muscular endurance d. Rate of force production
Muscular endurance
What is the term for the chemical messengers that cross the synapse between the neuron and muscle and assist with nerve transmission? Select one: a. Neurotransmitters b. Adenosine triphosphate c. Synapses d. Sarcomeres
Neurotransmitters
Which term best describes observable movement of the limbs? Select one: a. Arthrokinematics b. Osteokinematics c. Biomechanics d. Kinesiology
Osteokinematics
What phase of the OPT model aims to increase maximal strength and rate of force production? Select one: a. Strength Endurance Training b. Stabilization Endurance Training c. Power Training d. Muscular Development Training
Power Training
If the client cannot reach their foot during a single-leg squat touchdown, which is the first modification that can be employed? Select one: a. Reach to their toes b. Reach to their shin c. Reach to their waist d. Reach to their knee
Reach to their knee
Which component of blood is primarily responsible for transporting oxygenated blood throughout the body? Select one: a. Plasma b. Red blood cells c. White blood cells d. Platelets
Red blood cells
This is a conversational technique that helps the listener express the supposed meaning of what was just heard. Select one: a. Closed-ended questions b. Reflections c. Active listening d. Open-ended questio
Reflections
What term is used to describe the concept of how the functioning of one body segment can impact other areas of the body? a. Regional interdependence b. Osteokinematics c. Kinesiology d. Biomechanics
Regional interdependence
Which essential component of an OPT workout is beneficial for developing stability, muscular endurance, hypertrophy, strength, power, and athleticism? Select one: a. Skill development b. Resistance training c. Warm-up d. Activation
Resistance training
What is the practice of identifying a negative inner narrative and replacing it with positive statements? a. Imagery b. Cognitive fusion c. Stopping d. Reverse listing
Reverse listing
The TRX Rip Trainer would most likely be utilized for which type of movement? Select one: a. Rotation b. Inversion and eversion c. Abduction and Adduction d. Flexion and extension
Rotation
Which of the following is considered a deep muscle of the core? Select one: a. Latissimus dorsi b. Rectus abdominis c. Iliopsoas d. Rotatores
Rotatores
What are the three movements performed during the ball combo II exercise? Select one: a. Row, shoulder external rotation, and shoulder press b. Shoulder horizontal adduction and internal rotation c. Scaption, shoulder abduction, and cobra d. Hip extension, knee extension, and plantar flexion
Row, shoulder external rotation, and shoulder press
Which plane of movement can be described as an imaginary line that bisects the body into right and left sides? Select one: a. Transverse b. Extension c. Sagittal d. Frontal
Sagittal
Which of the following modalities was designed to be carried, lifted, thrown, and pulled as a functional training tool? a. Battle ropes b. Kettlebells c. Sandbags d. TRX Rip Trainer
Sandbags
Which statement is an accurate reflection of exercise and physical activity as it relates to cancer? Select one: a. Resistance training is contraindicated for clients with diagnosed cancer. b. Core training poses serious risks to the vertebral column. c. Self-myofascial techniques are not recommended for clients receiving chemotherapy or radiation treatments. d. Balance training poses serious risks to the hips and pelvis.
Self-myofascial techniques are not recommended for clients receiving chemotherapy or radiation treatments.
Which of the following types of balance occurs when an individual seeks to maintain postural control within a stationary limit of stability but with a moving base of support? Select one: a. Static balance b. Semi-dynamic balance c. Moderate-level balance d. Dynamic balance
Semi-dynamic balance
Abnormal breathing may be associated with which of the following effects? a. Shallow rapid breaths with use of the sternocleidomastoid b. Deep breaths with use of the diaphragm c. Slow inhalation through the nose with limited chest movement d. Slow inhalation with expansion of the stomach
Shallow rapid breaths with use of the sternocleidomastoid
What is a characteristic of a type II muscle fiber? a. Short-term contractions b. Smaller in size c. Increased oxygen delivery d. Slow to fatigue
Short-term contractions
Which of the following is an optional component of an OPT workout and is based on client goals and fitness levels? Select one: a. Resistance b. Cool-down c. Skill development d. Warm-up
Skill development
Which characteristic is exhibited by type I muscle fibers? Select one: a. Fewer capillaries b. Decreased oxygen delivery c. Slow to fatigue d. Short-term contractions
Slow to fatigue
What training tip would enhance the benefits of resistance training by helping increase growth hormone, testosterone, and epinephrine? Select one: a. Slowing down the contraction time for the concentric phase and speeding up the time for the eccentric phase b. Speeding up the contraction time for the eccentric phase and slowing down the time for the concentric phase c. Speeding up the contraction time for the eccentric and concentric phases d. Slowing down the speed of contractions during the eccentric and concentric phases
Slowing down the speed of contractions during the eccentric and concentric phases
Where in the digestive system are most fluids absorbed? Select one: a. Stomach b. Small intestine c. Large intestine d. Esophagus
Small intestine
The hamstring complex compensating for weakened hip extensors, which cannot produce force effectively, is an example of what key term? Select one: a. Altered reciprocal inhibition b. Reciprocal inhibition c. Altered length-tension relationship d. Synergistic dominance
Synergistic dominance
What is end-diastolic volume? Select one: a. The amount of blood pumped out of the heart with each contraction b. The amount of blood in the ventricle before contraction c. The amount of blood remaining in the ventricle after contraction d. The volume of blood pumped by the heart per minute
The amount of blood in the ventricle before contraction
What is stroke volume? Select one: a. The amount of blood in the ventricle before contraction b. The amount of blood pumped out of the heart with each contraction c. The amount of blood remaining in the ventricle after contraction d. The amount of blood pumped by the heart per minute
The amount of blood pumped out of the heart with each contraction
What is end-systolic volume? Select one: a. The amount of blood pumped out of the heart with each contraction b. The amount of blood in the ventricle before contraction c. The amount of blood remaining in the ventricle after contraction d. The volume of blood pumped by the heart per minute
The amount of blood remaining in the ventricle after contraction
Which of the following best defines the base of support of the body? Select one: a. The area within which an individual can move their center of gravity without changing the base of support b. The area beneath a person that consists of all points of contact between the body and the support surface c. The location of where one foot touches the ground d. The approximate midpoint of the body
The area beneath a person that consists of all points of contact between the body and the support surface
Which of the following examples describes a muscle that is functioning as an antagonist? Select one: a. The transversus abdominus being active during hip extension b. The infraspinatus being active during shoulder external rotation c. The biceps brachii being active during elbow extension d. The serratus anterior being active during shoulder flexion
The biceps brachii being active during elbow extension
The number of sidewalks available in a community is an example of which of the following? a. The constructed environment b. The built environment c. The assembled environment d. The manufactured environment
The built environment
What is the scientific term that describes the nervous system's role in the contract/relax relationship between agonists and antagonists? Select one: a. Length-tension relationship b. Stretch-shortening cycle c. Muscle imbalance d. Reciprocal inhibition
The correct answer is: Reciprocal inhibition
The pathway for hormones secreted by the endocrine system may be described by which of the following? a. The hormone is secreted by the bloodstream and travels to the gland to exert a particular effect. b. The target cell releases the hormone, which travels through the bloodstream to the gland to exert a particular action. c. The gland secretes the hormone, which travels through the bloodstream to reach a target cell, where it binds to a receptor and influences a particular action. d. The gland secretes the hormone, which bypasses the bloodstream and binds to a receptor on the target cell to exert a particular action.
The correct answer is: The gland secretes the hormone, which travels through the bloodstream to reach a target cell, where it binds to a receptor and influences a particular action.
What is the ventilatory threshold 1 (VT1)? Select one: a. The point at which the body uses mostly protein as fuel for exercise b. The point at which the body switches to using mostly fat as fuel for exercise c. The point at which a person can no longer talk during exercise d. The point at which the body switches to using carbohydrates to provide at least half the fuel for exercise
The point at which the body switches to using carbohydrates to provide at least half the fuel for exercise
If pyruvate is being created via glycolysis faster than oxygen can be delivered to the muscle, what will happen to the pyruvate? Select one: a. The pyruvate will be converted to acetyl CoA. b. The pyruvate will be stored in the muscle. c. The pyruvate will be oxidized via oxidative phosphorylation. d. The pyruvate will be converted to lactate.
The pyruvate will be converted to lactate.
Which synergist would assist the upper-body pectoral muscles to enhance chest stabilization, strength, or power? Select one: a. Triceps brachii b. Latissimus dorsi c. Quadriceps d. Biceps brachii
Triceps brachii
What is the finished hand position when performing the ball cobra exercise? Select one: a. Palms facing down b. Thumbs pointing down c. Thumbs pointing up d. Palms facing each other
Thumbs pointing up
Which of the following is iron considered to be? Select one: a. Macromineral b. Vitamin c. Trace mineral d. Performance supplement
Trace mineral
When properly activated, which muscle of the core creates tension in the thoracolumbar fascia? a. Diaphragm b. Rectus abdominis c. Sternocleidomastoid d. Transverse abdominis
Transverse abdominis
Which of the following is characterized as a local muscle of the core? Select one: a. Rectus abdominis b. Erector spinae c. Latissimus dorsi d. Transverse abdominis
Transverse abdominis
Which of the following protein structures is important for muscular contractions by providing a binding site? Select one: a. Troponin b. Myosin c. Fascicles d. Actin
Troponin
Antirotational exercises are often this sort of movement by nature. Select one: a. Bilateral b. Proprioceptive c. Loaded d. Unilateral
Unilateral
What is something that allows a fitness professional to stand out from others in featuring their services? a. SWOT analysis b. Unique selling proposition (USP) c. Statement of work (SOW) d. PERT estimate
Unique selling proposition (USP)
If a new client indicates that they are frustrated with their lack of expected results, which barrier are they likely experiencing? Select one: a. Unrealistic goals b. Social physique anxiety c. Ambivalence d. Lack of social support
Unrealistic goals
Which of the following is an open-ended question? Select one: a. What do you currently weigh? b. Did you exercise this week? c. What has prevented you from reaching your goals in the past? d. Have you experienced barriers to reaching your goals
What has prevented you from reaching your goals in the past?
Unrealistic goals can become a barrier when which of the following happens? a. When process goals are too specific b. When only one goal is set c. When outcome goals are objective d. When goals are not adjusted
When goals are not adjusted
Which of the following tests uses recovery heart rate rather than exercising heart rate to evaluate cardiorespiratory fitness levels? Select one: a. Ventilatory threshold 1 (VT1) test b. YMCA 3-minute step test c. Rockport 1-mile walk test d. 1.5-mile (2.4-km) run test
YMCA 3-minute step test
In what training zone would you be exercising at a vigorous to very hard intensity, where talking is limited to infrequent, short phrases? a. Zone 4 b. Zone 1 c. Zone 2 d. Zone 3
Zone 3
A client has been journaling their behavior. They find that if they get home and sit on the couch to watch television, they do not end up exercising. But if they bring their gym clothes to work with them and change before leaving the office, they are more likely to exercise. Which behavior change technique are they using? a. Coping planning b. Action planning c. Self-monitoring d. Goal setting
c. Self-monitoring
What impacts can exercise have on cholesterol levels in the body? Select one: a. It increases both HDL and LDL cholesterol. b. It can increase LDL cholesterol. c. It can lower both HDL and LDL cholesterol. d. It can reduce LDL cholesterol and increase HDL cholesterol.
d. It can reduce LDL cholesterol and increase HDL cholesterol.
