Finance Midterm Test

1-8. Which one of the following is a capital structure decision? A. determining which one of two projects to accept B. determining how to allocate investment funds to multiple projects C. determining the amount of funds needed to finance customer purchases of a new product D. determining how much debt should be assumed to fund a project E. determining how much inventory will be needed to support a project

D. determining how much debt should be assumed to fund a project

2-2. Noncash items refer to: A. accrued expenses. B. inventory items purchased using credit. C. the ownership of intangible assets such as patents. D. expenses which do not directly affect cash flows. E. sales which are made using store credit

D. expenses which do not directly affect cash flows.

7-16. A zero coupon bond: A. is sold at a large premium. B. pays interest that is tax deductible to the issuer when paid. C. can only be issued by the U.S. Treasury. D. has more interest rate risk than a comparable coupon bond. E. provides no taxable income to the bondholder until the bond matures.

D. has more interest rate risk than a comparable coupon bond.

6-6. The entire repayment of which one of the following loans is computed simply by computing a single future value? A. interest-only loan B. balloon loan C. amortized loan D. pure discount loan E. bullet loan

D. pure discount loan

7-2. Currently, the bond market requires a return of 11.6 percent on the 10-year bonds issued by Winston Industries. The 11.6 percent is referred to as which one of the following? A. coupon rate B. face rate C. call rate D. yield to maturity E. coupon rate

D. yield to maturity

1-1. Which one of the following is defined as a firm's short-term assets less its short-term liabilities? A. working capital B. debt C. investment capital D. net capital E. capital structure

A. Working Capital

1-3. A business created as a distinct legal entity and treated as a legal "person" is called a: A. corporation. B. sole proprietorship. C. general partnership. D. limited partnership. E. unlimited liability company.

A. corporation.

3-12. Which one of the following statements is correct? A. A general partnership is legally the same as a corporation. B. Both sole proprietorship and partnership income is taxed as individual income. C. Partnerships are the most complicated type of business to form. D. All business organizations have bylaws. E. Only firms organized as sole proprietorships have limited lives.

B. Both sole proprietorship and partnership income is taxed as individual income.

1-15. Which of the following represent cash outflows from a corporation? I. issuance of securities II. payment of dividends III. new loan proceeds IV. payment of government taxes A. I and III only B. II and IV only C. I and IV only D. I, II, and IV only

B. II and IV only

7-8. The interest rate risk premium is the: A. additional compensation paid to investors to offset rising prices. B. compensation investors demand for accepting interest rate risk. C. difference between the yield to maturity and the current yield. D. difference between the market interest rate and the coupon rate. E. difference between the coupon rate and the current yield.

B. compensation investors demand for accepting interest rate risk.

1-6. Which one of the following is a capital budgeting decision? A. determining how many shares of stock to issue B. deciding whether or not to purchase a new machine for the production line C. deciding how to refinance a debt issue that is maturing D. determining how much inventory to keep on hand E. determining how much money should be kept in the checking account

B. deciding whether or not to purchase a new machine for the production line

1-10. Which one of the following is a working capital management decision? A. determining the amount of equipment needed to complete a job B. determining whether to pay cash for a purchase or use the credit offered by the supplier C. determining the amount of long-term debt required to complete a project D. determining the number of shares of stock to issue to fund an acquisition E. determining whether or not a project should be accepted

B. determining whether to pay cash for a purchase or use the credit offered by the supplier

2-4. Which one of the following is included in a firm's market value but yet is excluded from the firm's accounting value? A. real estate investment B. good reputation of the company C. equipment owned by the firm D. money due from a customer E. an item held by the firm for future sale

B. good reputation of the company

3-8. Ratios that measure a firm's financial leverage are known as _____ ratios. A. asset management B. long-term solvency C. short-term solvency D. profitability E. book value

B. long-term solvency

3-12. During the year, Kitchen Supply increased its accounts receivable by $130, decreased its inventory by $75, and decreased its accounts payable by $40. How did these three accounts affect the firm's cash flows for the year? A. $245 use of cash B. $165 use of cash C. $95 use of cash D. $95 source of cash E. $165 source of cash

C. $95 use of cash

5-3. You want to have $1 million in your savings account when you retire. You plan on investing a single lump sum today to fund this goal. You are planning on investing in an account which will pay 7.5 percent annual interest. Which of the following will reduce the amount that you must deposit today if you are to have your desired $1 million on the day you retire? I. Invest in a different account paying a higher rate of interest. II. Invest in a different account paying a lower rate of interest. III. Retire later. IV. Retire sooner. A. I only B. II only C. I and III only D. I and IV only E. II and III only

C. I and III only

1-11. Which of the following are advantages of the corporate form of business ownership? I. limited liability for firm debt II. double taxation III. ability to raise capital IV. unlimited firm life A. I and II only B. III and IV only C. I, III, and IV only D. II, III, and IV only E. I, II, III, and IV

C. I, III, and IV only

6-3. Project X: (9000,8000,7500,7000) Project Y: (7000,7500,8000,9000) Which of the following statements are true concerning these two projects? I. Both projects have the same future value at the end of the fourth year, given a positive rate of return. II. Both projects have the same future value given a zero rate of return. III. Project X has a higher present value than Project Y, given a positive discount rate. IV. Project Y has a higher present value than Project X, given a positive discount rate. A. II only B. I and III only C. II and III only D. II and IV only E. I, II, and IV only

C. II and III only

6-4. Which one of the following statements concerning interest rates is correct? A. Savers would prefer annual compounding over monthly compounding. B. The effective annual rate decreases as the number of compounding periods per year increases. C. The effective annual rate equals the annual percentage rate when interest is compounded annually. D. Borrowers would prefer monthly compounding over annual compounding. E. For any positive rate of interest, the effective annual rate will always exceed the annual percentage rate.

C. The effective annual rate equals the annual percentage rate when interest is compounded annually.

2-5. Which one of the following represents the most liquid asset? A. $100 account receivable that is discounted and collected for $96 today B. $100 of inventory which is sold today on credit for $103 C. $100 of inventory which is discounted and sold for $97 cash today D. $100 of inventory that is sold today for $100 cash E. $100 accounts receivable that will be collected in full next week

D. $100 of inventory that is sold today for $100 cash

1-9. Which of the following accounts are included in working capital management? I. accounts payable II. accounts receivable III. fixed assets IV. inventory A. I and II only B. I and III only C. II and IV only D. I, II, and IV only E. II, III, and IV only

D. I, II, and IV only

2-8. An increase in the depreciation expense will do which of the following? I. increase net income II. decrease net income III. increase the cash flow from assets IV. decrease the cash flow from assets A. I only B. II only C. I and III only D. II and III only E. II and IV only

D. II and III only

1-5. Which of the following questions are addressed by financial managers? I. How should a product be marketed? II. Should customers be given 30 or 45 days to pay for their credit purchases? III. Should the firm borrow more money? IV. Should the firm acquire new equipment? A. I and IV only B. II and III only C. I, II, and III only D. II, III, and IV only E. I, II, III, and IV

D. II, III, and IV only

3-7. An increase in which one of the following will increase a firm's quick ratio without affecting its cash ratio? A. accounts payable B. cash C. inventory D. accounts receivable E. fixed assets

D. accounts receivable

3-4. Which one of the following is a use of cash? A. increase in notes payable B. decrease in inventory C. increase in long-term debt D. decrease in accounts receivables E. decrease in common stock

E. decrease in common stock

2-9. Given: Net Working Capital, Long-term Debt, Total assets, and Fixed Assets. What is the amount of the total liabilities?

Total Assets- Fixed Assets= Current Assets Current Assets- Net Working Capital= Current Liabilities Current Liabilities+ Long term Debt= Total Liabilities

2-10. Given: Total Assets, Fixed Assets, Long-term Debt, and Short-Term Debt. What is Net Working Capital?

Total Assets- Fixed Assets= Current Assets Current Assets-Short-Term Debt= Net Working Capital

7-13. Which of the following are negative covenants that might be found in a bond indenture? I. The company shall maintain a current ratio of 1.10 or better. II. No debt senior to this issue can be issued. III. The company cannot lease any major assets without approval by the lender. IV. The company must maintain the loan collateral in good working order. A. I and II only B. II and III only C. III and IV only D. II, III, and IV only E. I, II, and III only

B. II and III only

3-6. Which of the following ratios are measures of a firm's liquidity? I. cash coverage ratio II. interval measure III. debt-equity ratio IV. quick ratio A. I and III only B. II and IV only C. I, III, and IV only D. I, II, and III only E. I, II, III, and IV

B. II and IV only

2-6. The book value of a firm is: A. equivalent to the firm's market value provided that the firm has some fixed assets. B. based on historical cost. C. generally greater than the market value when fixed assets are included. D. more of a financial than an accounting valuation. E. adjusted to the market value whenever the market value exceeds the stated book value.

B. based on historical cost.

7-5. A bond that can be paid off early at the issuer's discretion is referred to as being which one of the following? A. zero coupon B. callable C. senior D. collateralized E. unsecured

B. callable

3-1. Activities of a firm which require the spending of cash are known as: A. sources of cash. B. uses of cash. C. cash collections. D. cash receipts. E. cash on hand.

B. uses of cash.

3-3. The U.S. government coding system that classifies a firm by the nature of its business operations is known as the: A. NASDAQ 100. B. Standard & Poor's 500. C. Standard Industrial Classification code. D. Governmental ID code. E. Government Engineered Coding System.

C. Standard Industrial Classification code.

7-12. Green Roof Inns is preparing a bond offering with a 6 percent, semiannual coupon and a face value of $1,000. The bonds will be repaid in 10 years and will be sold at par. Given this, which one of the following statements is correct? A. The bonds will become discount bonds if the market rate of interest declines. B. The bonds will pay 10 interest payments of $60 each. C. The bonds will sell at a premium if the market rate is 5.5 percent. D. The bonds will initially sell for $1,030 each. E. The final payment will be in the amount of $1,060.

C. The bonds will sell at a premium if the market rate is 5.5 percent.

3-9. Jasper United had sales of $21,000 in 2008 and $24,000 in 2009. The firm's current accounts remained constant. Given this information, which one of the following statements must be true? A. The total asset turnover rate increased. B. The days' sales in receivables increased. C. The net working capital turnover rate increased. D. The fixed asset turnover decreased. E. The receivables turnover rate decreased.

C. The net working capital turnover rate increased.

7-14. Bonds issued by the U.S. government: A. are considered to be free of interest rate risk. B. generally have higher coupons than those issued by an individual state. C. are considered to be free of default risk. D. pay interest that is exempt from federal income taxes. E. are called "munis".

C. are considered to be free of default risk.

5-4. What is the relationship between present value and future value interest factors? A. The present value and future value factors are equal to each other. B. The present value factor is the exponent of the future value factor. C. The future value factor is the exponent of the present value factor. D. The factors are reciprocals of each other. E. There is no relationship between these two factors.

D. The factors are reciprocals of each other.

2-3. The _____ tax rate is equal to total taxes divided by total taxable income. A. deductible B. residual C. total D. average E. marginal

D. average

7-11. The Walthers Company has a semi-annual coupon bond outstanding. An increase in the market rate of interest will have which one of the following effects on this bond? A. increase the coupon rate B. decrease the coupon rate C. increase the market price D. decrease the market price E. increase the time period

D. decrease the market price

6-2. A loan where the borrower receives money today and repays a single lump sum on a future date is called a(n) _____ loan. A. amortized B. continuous C. balloon D. pure discount E. interest-only

D. pure discount

1-7. Which of the following should a financial manager consider when analyzing a capital budgeting project? I. project start up costs II. timing of all projected cash flows III. dependability of future cash flows IV. dollar amount of each projected cash flow A. I and IV only B. I, II, and IV only C. I, II, and III only D. II, III, and IV only E. I, II, III, and IV

E. I, II, III, and IV

7-10. A bond has a market price that exceeds its face value. Which of the following features currently apply to this bond? I. discounted price II. premium price III. yield-to-maturity that exceeds the coupon rate IV. yield-to-maturity that is less than the coupon rate A. III only B. I and III only C. I and IV only D. II and III only E. II and IV only

E. II and IV only

5-2.Sue and Neal are twins. Sue invests $5,000 at 7 percent when she is 25 years old. Neal invests $5,000 at 7 percent when he is 30 years old. Both investments compound interest annually. Both Sue and Neal retire at age 60. Which one of the following statements is correct assuming that neither Sue nor Neal has withdrawn any money from their accounts? A. Sue will have less money when she retires than Neal. B. Neal will earn more interest on interest than Sue. C. Neal will earn more compound interest than Sue. D. If both Sue and Neal wait to age 70 to retire, then they will have equal amounts of savings. E. Sue will have more money than Neal as long as they retire at the same time.

E. Sue will have more money than Neal as long as they retire at the same time.

3-5. Which one of the following is a source of cash? A. increase in accounts receivable B. decrease in common stock C. decrease in long-term debt D. decrease in accounts payable E. decrease in inventory

E. decrease in inventory

3-13. How many days, on average, does it take the firm to sell its inventory assuming that all sales are on credit?

Inventory Turnover= Cost of Goods Sold/Inventory Days In Inventory= 365/ Inventory Turnover

3-15. Given: Net income, Price-earnings ratio, and Earnings Per Share. What is Shares Of Stock Outstanding?

Shares Of Stock Outstanding= Net income/ Earnings Per Share

2-11. Jensen Enterprises paid $1,300 in dividends and $920 in interest this past year. Common stock increased by $1,200 and retained earnings decreased by $310. What is the net income for the year? A. -$210 B. $990 C. $1,610 D. $1,910 E. $2,190

B. $990

7-9. The liquidity premium is compensation to investors for: A. purchasing a bond in the secondary market. B. the lack of an active market wherein a bond can be sold for its actual value. C. acquiring a bond with an unfavorable tax status. D. redeeming a bond prior to maturity. E. purchasing a bond that has defaulted on its coupon payments.

B. the lack of an active market wherein a bond can be sold for its actual value.

2-1. Which one of the following is the financial statement that shows the accounting value of a firm's equity as of a particular date? A. income statement B. creditor's statement C. balance sheet D. statement of cash flows E. dividend statement

C. balance sheet

7-4. A bond that is payable to whomever has physical possession of the bond is said to be in: A. new-issue condition. B. registered form. C. bearer form. D. debenture status. E. collateral status.

C. bearer form.

1-13. Which one of the following business types is best suited to raising large amounts of capital? A. sole proprietorship B. limited liability company C. corporation D. general partnership E. limited partnership

C. corporation, inc.

6-1. An ordinary annuity is best defined by which one of the following? A. increasing payments paid for a definitive period of time B. increasing payments paid forever C. equal payments paid at regular intervals over a stated time period D. equal payments paid at regular intervals of time on an ongoing basis E. unequal payments that occur at set intervals for a limited period of time

C. equal payments paid at regular intervals over a stated time period

7-1. A bond's coupon rate is equal to the annual interest divided by which one of the following? A. call price B. current price C. face value D. clean price E. dirty price

C. face value

1-2. A business formed by two or more individuals who each have unlimited liability for all of the firm's business debts is called a: A. corporation. B. sole proprietorship. C. general partnership. D. limited partnership. E. limited liability company.

C. general partnership.

7-15. Municipal bonds: A. are totally risk-free. B. generally have higher coupon rates than corporate bonds. C. pay interest that is federally tax-free. D. are rarely callable. E. are free of default-risk.

C. pay interest that is federally tax-free.

5-1.Sara invested $500 six years ago at 5 percent interest. She spends her earnings as soon as she earns any interest so she only receives interest on her initial $500 investment. Which type of interest is Sara earning? A. free interest B. complex interest C. simple interest D. interest on interest E. compound interest

C. simple interest

3-10. It is easier to evaluate a firm using financial statements when the firm: A. is a conglomerate. B. has recently merged with its largest competitor. C. uses the same accounting procedures as other firms in the industry. D. has a different fiscal year than other firms in the industry. E. tends to have many one-time events such as asset sales and property acquisitions.

C. uses the same accounting procedures as other firms in the industry.

3-11. Which of the following represent problems encountered when comparing the financial statements of two separate entities? I. Either one, or both, of the firms may be conglomerates and thus have unrelated lines of business. II. The operations of the two firms may vary geographically. III. The firms may use differing accounting methods. IV. The two firms may be seasonal in nature and have different fiscal year ends. A. I and II only B. II and III only C. I, III, and IV only D. I, II, and III only E. I, II, III, and IV

E. I, II, III, and IV

7-17. Which one of the following statements is correct? A. The risk-free rate represents the change in purchasing power. B. Any return greater than the inflation rate represents the risk premium. C. Historical real rates of return must be positive. D. Nominal rates exceed real rates by the amount of the risk-free rate. E. The real rate must be less than the nominal rate given a positive rate of inflation.

E. The real rate must be less than the nominal rate given a positive rate of inflation.

6-5. Which one of the following statements correctly states a relationship? A. Time and future values are inversely related, all else held constant. B. Interest rates and time are positively related, all else held constant. C. An increase in the discount rate increases the present value, given positive rates. D. An increase in time increases the future value given a zero rate of interest. E. Time and present value are inversely related, all else held constant.

E. Time and present value are inversely related, all else held constant.

1-4. A stakeholder is: A. a person who owns shares of stock. B. any person who has voting rights based on stock ownership of a corporation. C. a person who initially founded a firm and currently has management control over that firm. D. a creditor to whom a firm currently owes money. E. any person or entity other than a stockholder or creditor who potentially has a claim on the cash flows of a firm.

E. any person or entity other than a stockholder or creditor who potentially has a claim on the cash flows of a firm.

1-14. Why should financial managers strive to maximize the current value per share of the existing stock? A. doing so guarantees the company will grow in size at the maximum possible rate B. doing so increases employee salaries C. because they have been hired to represent the interests of the current shareholders D. because this will increase the current dividends per share E. because managers often receive shares of stock as part of their compensation

E. because managers often receive shares of stock as part of their compensation

7-6. The items included in an indenture that limit certain actions of the issuer in order to protect bondholder's interests are referred to as the: A. trustee relationships. B. bylaws. C. legal bounds. D. "plain vanilla" conditions. E. protective covenants.

E. protective covenants.

3-2. A common-size income statement is an accounting statement that expresses all of a firm's expenses as percentage of: A. total assets. B. total equity. C. net income. D. taxable income. E. sales.

E. sales.

7-7. The difference between the price that a dealer is willing to pay and the price at which he or she will sell is called the: A. equilibrium. B. premium. C. discount. D. call price. E. spread.

E. spread.

7-3. An indenture is: A. another name for a bond's coupon. B. the written record of all the holders of a bond issue. C. a bond that is past its maturity date but has yet to be repaid. D. a bond that is secured by the inventory held by the bond's issuer. E. the legal agreement between the bond issuer and the bondholders.

E. the legal agreement between the bond issuer and the bondholders.

What is the Future Value in terms of Present Value and Interest?

Future Value= Present Value*(1+Interest)^Years

6-8. Given: Percent Dividend and Cureent Price Of Share. What is Annual Dividend?

Percent Dividend*Current Price of Share= Annual Dividend

6-7. Given: Annuity and Payment. What is the Rate Of Return?

Rate Of Return= Payment/ Annuity