Focused Exam 3

A client in the emergency department is having a stroke. The client weighs 225 pounds. After the initial bolus of t-Pa, at what rate should the nurse set the IV pump? (Record your answer using a decimal rounded to the nearest tenth.) ____ mL/hr

ANS: 1.4 mL/hrThe client weighs 102 kg. The dose of t-PA is 0.9 mg/kg with a maximum of 90 mg, so the client's dose is 90 mg. 10% of the dose is given as a bolus IV over the first minute (9 mg). That leaves 81 mg to run in over 59 minutes. , which rounds to 1.4 mL/hr.

A client has developed malignant hyperthermia. The client weighs 136 pounds. What is the safe dose range for one dose of dantrolene sodium (Dantrium)? (Enter your answer using whole numbers, separated by a hyphen with no spaces.) _____ mg

ANS: 124-186 mg The dose of dantrolene is 2 to 3 mg/kg. The client weighs 62 kg, so the safe dose range is 124 to 186 mg

An emergency room nurse cares for a client admitted with a 50% burn injury at 10:00 this morning. The client weighs 90 kg. Using the Parkland formula, calculate the rate at which the nurse should infuse intravenous fluid resuscitation when started at noon. (Record your answer using a whole number.) _____ mL/hr

ANS: 1500 mL/hrThe Parkland formula is 4 mL/kg/% total body surface area burn. This client needs 18,000 mL of fluid during the first 24 hours postburn. Half of the calculated fluid replacement needs to be administered during the first 8 hours after injury, and half during the next 16 hours. This client was burned at 10:00 AM, and fluid was not started until noon. Therefore, 9000 mL must be infused over the next 6 hours at a rate of 1500 mL/hr to meet the criteria of receiving half the calculated dose during the first 8 postburn hours.

An emergency room nurse implements fluid replacement for a client with severe burn injuries. The provider prescribes a liter of 0.9% normal saline to infuse over 1 hour and 30 minutes via gravity tubing with a drip factor of 30 drops/mL. At what rate should the nurse administer the infusion? (Record your answer using a whole number and rounding to the nearest drop.) ____ drops/ min

ANS: 333 drops/min1000 mL divided by 90 minutes, then multiplied by 30 drops, equals 333 drops/min.

A client in the emergency department is having a stroke and the provider has prescribed the tissue plasminogen activator (t-PA) alteplase (Activase). The client weighs 146 pounds. How much medication will this client receive? (Record your answer using a whole number.) _____ mg

ANS: 60 mgThe dose of t-PA is 0.9 mg/kg with a maximum dose of 90 mg. The client weighs 66.4 kg. 0.9 mg × 66.4 = 59.76 mg, which rounds to 60 mg.

The nurse preparing to care for a patient after a suspected stroke would question which order? a. Antihypertensive b. Antipyretic c. Osmotic diuretic d. Sedative

ANS: A

A nurse is caring for four clients in the neurologic intensive care unit. After receiving the hand-off report, which client should the nurse see first? a. Client with a Glasgow Coma Scale score that was 10 and is now is 8 b. Client with a Glasgow Coma Scale score that was 9 and is now is 12 c. Client with a moderate brain injury who is amnesic for the event d. Client who is requesting pain medication for a headache

ANS: A A 2-point decrease in the Glasgow Coma Scale score is clinically significant and the nurse needs to see this client first. An improvement in the score is a good sign. Amnesia is an expected finding with brain injuries, so this client is lower priority. The client requesting pain medication should be seen after the one with the declining Glasgow Coma Scale score.

Which assessment finding would be the earliest and most sensitive indicator that there is an alteration in intracranial regulation? a. Change in level of consciousness b. Inability to focus visually c. Loss of primitive reflexes d. Unequal pupil size

ANS: A A change in level of consciousness is the earliest and most sensitive indication of a change in intracranial processing. This is assessed with the Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS), which assesses eye opening and verbal and motor response. The inability to focus may indicate a change, but it is not one of the earliest indicators or a component of the GCS. Primitive reflexes refer to those reflexes found in a normal infant that disappear with maturation. These reflexes may reappear with frontal lobe dysfunction and may be tested for with a suspected brain injury, so it would be the reappearance of primitive reflexes. A change in pupil size or unequal pupils may indicate a change, but they are not one of the earliest indicators or a component of the GCS.

A client had an embolic stroke and is having an echocardiogram. When the client asks why the provider ordered "a test on my heart," how should the nurse respond? a. "Most of these types of blood clots come from the heart." b. "Some of the blood clots may have gone to your heart too." c. "We need to see if your heart is strong enough for therapy." d. "Your heart may have been damaged in the stroke too."

ANS: A An embolic stroke is caused when blood clots travel from one area of the body to the brain. The most common source of the clots is the heart. The other statements are inaccurate.

After a stroke, a client has ataxia. What intervention is most appropriate to include on the client's plan of care? a. Ambulate only with a gait belt. b. Encourage double swallowing. c. Monitor lung sounds after eating. d. Perform post-void residuals.

ANS: A Ataxia is a gait disturbance. For the client's safety, he or she should have assistance and use a gait belt when ambulating. Ataxia is not related to swallowing, aspiration, or voiding.

An emergency room nurse assesses a client who was rescued from a home fire. The client suddenly develops a loud, brassy cough. Which action should the nurse take first? a. Apply oxygen and continuous pulse oximetry. b. Provide small quantities of ice chips and sips of water. c. Request a prescription for an antitussive medication. d. Ask the respiratory therapist to provide humidified air.

ANS: A Brassy cough and wheezing are some of the signs seen with inhalation injury. The first action by the nurse is to give the client oxygen. Clients with possible inhalation injury also need continuous pulse oximetry. Ice chips and humidified room air will not help the problem, and antitussives are not warranted.

An emergency department nurse assesses a client admitted after a lightning strike. Which assessment should the nurse complete first? a. Electrocardiogram (ECG) b. Wound inspection c. Creatinine kinase d. Computed tomography of head

ANS: A Clients who survive an immediate lightning strike can have serious myocardial injury, which can be manifested by ECG and myocardial perfusion abnormalities. The nurse should prioritize the ECG. Other assessments should be completed but are not the priority.

The lack of weight bearing leads to what effects on the skeletal system? a. Demineralization, calcium loss b. Thickened bones c. Increased range of motion d. Increased calcium deposition in the bones

ANS: A Concepts for Nursing Practice 2nd Edition Giddens Test Bank Weight bearing helps to strengthen the bone. Lack of weight bearing means that the bone is losing minerals and calcium that strengthen it. Thickened bones will not occur with the lack of weight bearing. Range of motion may be decreased with a lack of weight bearing movements.

A nurse delegates care to the unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP). Which statement should the nurse include when delegating care for a client with cranial nerve II impairment? a. "Tell the client where food items are on the breakfast tray." b. "Place the client in a high-Fowler's position for all meals." c. "Make sure the client's food is visually appetizing." d. "Assist the client by placing the fork in the left hand."

ANS: A Cranial nerve II, the optic nerve, provides central and peripheral vision. A client who has cranial nerve II impairment will not be able to see, so the UAP should tell the client where different food items are on the meal tray. The other options are not appropriate for a client with cranial nerve II impairment.

A client with a stroke has damage to Broca's area. What intervention to promote communication is best for this client? a. Assess whether or not the client can write. b. Communicate using "yes-or-no" questions. c. Reinforce speech therapy exercises. d. Remind the client not to use neologisms.

ANS: A Damage to Broca's area often leads to expressive aphasia, wherein the client can understand what is said but cannot express thoughts verbally. In some instances the client can write. The nurse should assess to see if that ability is intact. "Yes-or-no" questions are not good for this type of client because he or she will often answer automatically but incorrectly. Reinforcing speech therapy exercises is good for all clients with communication difficulties. Neologisms are made-up "words" often used by clients with sensory aphasia

The nurse manager is creating the patient assignment for today. She has five registered nurses (RNs), two licensed practical nurses (LPNs), and five nurse technicians (NAs) scheduled. When making the assignment, the nurse manager needs to remember which fact of delegation? a. RNs are responsible for all care delegated to unlicensed nursing personnel. b. Delegation is considered direct intervention for patient care. c. LPNs operate independently and may delegate patient care. d. Nursing practice is clearly delineated and is standard across the country.

ANS: A Delegation is the transfer of responsibility for performing a task to another person while the nurse who delegated the task remains accountable. Delegation is an indirect intervention based on assessment findings and established care priorities. Nurses must be familiar with the nurse practice act in their practice jurisdiction to ensure legal delegation. The nursing process cannot be delegated. In most jurisdictions, LPNs function in a dependent role and may not delegate.

A nurse cares for a client with burn injuries. Which intervention should the nurse implement to appropriately reduce the clients pain? a. Administer the prescribed intravenous morphine sulfate. b. Apply ice to skin around the burn wound for 20 minutes. c. Administer prescribed intramuscular ketorolac (Toradol). d. Decrease tactile stimulation near the burn injuries

ANS: A Drug therapy for pain management requires opioid and nonopioid analgesics. The IV route is used because of problems with absorption from the muscle and the stomach. For the client to avoid shivering, the room must be kept warm, and ice should not be used. Ice would decrease blood flow to the area. Tactile stimulation can be used for pain management.

The nurse assesses a client who has a severe burn injury. Which statement indicates the client understands the psychosocial impact of a severe burn injury? a. It is normal to feel some depression. b. I will go back to work immediately. c. I will not feel anger about my situation. d. Once I get home, things will be normal.

ANS: A During the recovery period, and for some time after discharge from the hospital, clients with severe burn injuries are likely to have psychological problems that require intervention. Depression is one of these problems. Grief, loss, anxiety, anger, fear, and guilt are all normal feelings that can occur. Clients need to know that problems of physical care and psychological stresses may be overwhelming.

A nurse promotes the prevention of lower back pain by teaching clients at a community center. Which instruction should the nurse include in this education? a. "Participate in an exercise program to strengthen muscles." b. "Purchase a mattress that allows you to adjust the firmness." c. "Wear flat instead of high-heeled shoes to work each day." d. "Keep your weight within 20% of your ideal body weight."

ANS: A Exercise can strengthen back muscles, reducing the incidence of low back pain. The other options will not prevent low back pain.

A nurse administers topical gentamicin sulfate (Garamycin) to a clients burn injury. Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor while the client is prescribed this therapy? a. Creatinine b. Red blood cells c. Sodium d. Magnesium

ANS: A Gentamicin is nephrotoxic, and sufficient amounts can be absorbed through burn wounds to affect kidney function. Any client receiving gentamicin by any route should have kidney function monitored. Topical gentamicin will not affect the red blood cell count or the sodium or magnesium levels

A nurse is providing community screening for risk factors associated with stroke. Which client would the nurse identify as being at highest risk for a stroke? a. A 27-year-old heavy cocaine user b. A 30-year-old who drinks a beer a day c. A 40-year-old who uses seasonal antihistamines d. A 65-year-old who is active and on no medications

ANS: A Heavy drug use, particularly cocaine, is a risk factor for stroke. Heavy alcohol use is also a risk factor, but one beer a day is not considered heavy drinking. Antihistamines may contain phenylpropanolamine, which also increases the risk for stroke, but this client uses them seasonally and there is no information that they are abused or used heavily. The 65-year-old has only age as a risk factor.

A nurse delegates hydrotherapy to an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP). Which statement should the nurse include when delegating this activity? a. Keep the water temperature constant when showering the client. b. Assess the wound beds during the hydrotherapy treatment. c. Apply a topical enzyme agent after bathing the client. d. Use sterile saline to irrigate and clean the clients wounds.

ANS: A Hydrotherapy is performed by showering the client on a special shower table. The UAP should keep the water temperature constant. This process allows the nurse to assess the wound beds, but a UAP cannot complete this act. Topical enzyme agents are not part of hydrotherapy. The irrigation does not need to be done with sterile saline.

When caring for a patient after a head injury, the nurse would be most concerned with assessment findings which included respiratory changes along with what other findings? a. Hypertension and bradycardia b. Hypertension and tachycardia c. Hypotension and bradycardia d. Hypotension and tachycardia

ANS: A Hypertension with widening pulse pressure, bradycardia, and respiratory changes are the ominous late signs of increased intracranial pressure and indications of impending herniation (Cushing's triad). It is bradycardia, not tachycardia, which is the component of this ominous triad. It is hypertension, not hypotension, which is the component of this ominous triad

A nurse performs an assessment of pain discrimination on an older adult client. The client correctly identifies, with eyes closed, a sharp sensation on the right hand when touched with a pin. Which action should the nurse take next? a. Touch the pin on the same area of the left hand. b. Contact the provider with the assessment results. c. Ask the client about current medications. d. Continue the assessment on the client's feet.

ANS: A If testing is begun on the right hand and the client correctly identifies the pain stimulus, the nurse should continue the assessment on the left hand. This is a normal finding and does not need to be reported to the provider, but instead documented in the client's chart. Medications do not need to be assessed in response to this finding. The nurse should assess the left hand prior to assessing the feet.

The nurse leader recognizes that to deliver quality care, focus needs to be placed on which participant? a. Patient b. Self c. Other staff members d. Health care provider

ANS: A It is important for nurse leaders to be focused on the patients rather than themselves to deliver good patient-focused care. Nurses must desire to improve the status quo to provide higher levels of quality in the care delivered. These qualities are also discussed in other works concerning effective managers

After teaching a client with a spinal cord injury, the nurse assesses the client's understanding. Which client statement indicates a correct understanding of how to prevent respiratory problems at home? a. "I'll use my incentive spirometer every 2 hours while I'm awake." b. "I'll drink thinned fluids to prevent choking." c. "I'll take cough medicine to prevent excessive coughing." d. "I'll position myself on my right side so I don't aspirate."

ANS: A Often, the person with a spinal cord injury will have weak intercostal muscles and is at higher risk for developing atelectasis and stasis pneumonia. Using an incentive spirometer every 2 hours helps the client expand the lungs more fully and prevents atelectasis. Clients should drink fluids that they can tolerate; usually thick fluids are easier to tolerate. The client should be encouraged to cough and clear secretions. Clients should be placed in high-Fowler's position to prevent aspiration.

The nurse and a student nurse are discussing the effects of bed immobility on patients. The nurse knows that the student nurse understands the concept of mobility when making which statement? a. "Patients with impaired bed mobility have an increased risk for pressure ulcers." b. "Patients with impaired bed mobility like to have extra visitors." c. "Patients with impaired bed mobility need to have a mechanical soft diet." d. "Patients with impaired bed mobility are prone to constipation."

ANS: A Patients who cannot move themselves in bed are more susceptible to pressure ulcers because they cannot relieve the pressure they feel. Extra visitors or diet consistency do not have any bearing on mobility. Constipation should not be a by-product of immobility if a bowel regimen is instituted.

A client is in the clinic for a follow-up visit after a moderate traumatic brain injury. The client's spouse is very frustrated, stating that the client's personality has changed and the situation is intolerable. What action by the nurse is best? a. Explain that personality changes are common following brain injuries. b. Ask the client why he or she is acting out and behaving differently. c. Refer the client and spouse to a head injury support group. d. Tell the spouse this is expected and he or she will have to learn to cope.

ANS: A Personality and behavior often change permanently after head injury. The nurse should explain this to the spouse. Asking the client about his or her behavior isn't useful because the client probably cannot help it. A referral might be a good idea, but the nurse needs to do something in addition to just referring the couple. Telling the spouse to learn to cope belittles the spouse's concerns and feelings.

A nurse assesses a client who is recovering from anterior cervical diskectomy and fusion. Which complication should alert the nurse to urgently communicate with the health care provider? a. Auscultated stridor b. Weak pedal pulses c. Difficulty swallowing d. Inability to shrug shoulders

ANS: A Postoperative swelling can narrow the trachea, cause a partial airway obstruction, and manifest as stridor. The client may also have trouble swallowing, but maintaining an airway takes priority. Weak pedal pulses and an inability to shrug the shoulders are not complications of this surgery.

A nurse assesses a client and notes the client's position as arms drawn up, hands turned in, and feet turned in: How should the nurse document this finding? a. Decorticate posturing b. Decerebrate posturing c. Atypical hyperreflexia d. Spinal cord degeneration

ANS: A The client is demonstrating decorticate posturing, which is seen with interruption in the corticospinal pathway. This finding is abnormal and is a sign that the client's condition has deteriorated. The physician, the charge nurse, and other health care team members should be notified immediately of this change in status. Decerebrate posturing consists of external rotation and extension of the extremities. Hyperreflexes present as increased reflex responses. Spinal cord degeneration presents frequently with pain and discomfort.

A nurse assesses a client who demonstrates a positive Romberg's sign with eyes closed but not with eyes open. Which condition does the nurse associate with this finding? a. Difficulty with proprioception b. Peripheral motor disorder c. Impaired cerebellar function d. Positive pronator drift

ANS: A The client who sways with eyes closed (positive Romberg's sign) but not with eyes open most likely has a disorder of proprioception and uses vision to compensate for it. The other options do not describe a positive Romberg's sign.

A client in the emergency department is having a stroke and needs a carotid artery angioplasty with stenting. The client's mental status is deteriorating. What action by the nurse is most appropriate? a. Attempt to find the family to sign a consent. b. Inform the provider that the procedure cannot occur. c. Nothing; no consent is needed in an emergency. d. Sign the consent form for the client

ANS: A The nurse should attempt to find the family to give consent. If no family is present or can be found, under the principle of emergency consent, a life-saving procedure can be performed without formal consent. The nurse should not just sign the consent form.

Which delegation of tasks would require the nurse manager to intervene? a. The UAP re-delegates vital signs to the student nurse. b. The RN delegates assistance with bathing to the student nurse. c. The RN delegates monitoring of intake and output to the UAP. d. The RN delegates assistance with mobility to the UAP.

ANS: A The person to whom the assignment was delegated cannot delegate that assignment to someone else. If the person cannot carry out the assignment, the individual needs to notify the delegating RN so that the task may be reassigned or completed by the RN. The RN must remember to delegate tasks that do not require nursing judgment. Only tasks that are routine such as bathing, monitoring intake and output, and assisting with mobility, and do not require variation from a standardized procedure should be delegated.

A client has a traumatic brain injury. The nurse assesses the following: pulse change from 82 to 60 beats/min, pulse pressure increase from 26 to 40 mm Hg, and respiratory irregularities. What action by the nurse takes priority? a. Call the provider or Rapid Response Team. b. Increase the rate of the IV fluid administration. c. Notify respiratory therapy for a breathing treatment. d. Prepare to give IV pain medication.

ANS: A These manifestations indicate Cushing's syndrome, a potentially life-threatening increase in intracranial pressure (ICP), which is an emergency. Immediate medical attention is necessary, so the nurse notifies the provider or the Rapid Response Team. Increasing fluids would increase the ICP. The client does not need a breathing treatment or pain medication.

A client who had a severe traumatic brain injury is being discharged home, where the spouse will be a full-time caregiver. What statement by the spouse would lead the nurse to provide further education on home care? a. "I know I can take care of all these needs by myself." b. "I need to seek counseling because I am very angry." c. "Hopefully things will improve gradually over time." d. "With respite care and support, I think I can do this.

ANS: A This caregiver has unrealistic expectations about being able to do everything without help. Acknowledging anger and seeking counseling show a realistic outlook and plans for accomplishing goals. Hoping for improvement over time is also realistic, especially with the inclusion of the word "hopefully." Realizing the importance of respite care and support also is a realistic outlook.

A nurse assesses a client with the National Institutes of Health (NIH) Stroke Scale and determines the client's score to be 36. How should the nurse plan care for this client? a. The client will need near-total care. b. The client will need cuing only. c. The client will need safety precautions. d. The client will be discharged home

ANS: A This client has severe neurologic deficits and will need near-total care. Safety precautions are important but do not give a full picture of the client's dependence. The client will need more than cuing to complete tasks. A home discharge may be possible, but this does not help the nurse plan care for a very dependent client.

A client has a subarachnoid bolt. What action by the nurse is most important? a. Balancing and recalibrating the device b. Documenting intracranial pressure readings c. Handling the fiberoptic cable with care to avoid breakage d. Monitoring the client's phlebostatic axis

ANS: A This device needs frequent balancing and recalibration in order to read correctly. Documenting readings is important, but it is more important to ensure the device's accuracy. The fiberoptic transducer-tipped catheter has a cable that must be handled carefully to avoid breaking it, but ensuring the device's accuracy is most important. The phlebostatic axis is not related to neurologic monitoring.

A nurse assesses the left plantar reflexes of an adult client and notes the response shown in the photograph below: Which action should the nurse take next? a. Contact the provider with this abnormal finding. b. Assess bilateral legs for temperature and edema. c. Ask the client about pain in the lower leg and calf. d. Document the finding and continue the assessment.

ANS: A This finding indicates Babinski's sign. In clients older than 2 years of age, Babinski's sign is considered abnormal and indicates central nervous system disease. The nurse should notify the health care provider and other members of the health care team because further investigation is warranted. This finding does not relate to perfusion of the leg or to pain. This is an abnormal assessment finding and should be addressed immediately.

A nurse is seeing many clients in the neurosurgical clinic. With which clients should the nurse plan to do more teaching? (Select all that apply.) a. Client with an aneurysm coil placed 2 months ago who is taking ibuprofen (Motrin) for sinus headaches b. Client with an aneurysm clip who states that his family is happy there is no chance of recurrence c. Client who had a coil procedure who says that there will be no problem following up for 1 year d. Client who underwent a flow diversion procedure 3 months ago who is taking docusate sodium (Colace) for constipation e. Client who underwent surgical aneurysm ligation 3 months ago who is planning to take a Caribbean cruise

ANS: A, B After a coil procedure, up to 20% of clients experience re-bleeding in the first year. The client with this coil should not be taking drugs that interfere with clotting. An aneurysm clip can move up to 5 years after placement, so this client and family need to be watchful for changing neurologic status. The other statements show good understanding

A nurse cares for a client with burn injuries during the resuscitation phase. Which actions are priorities during this phase? (Select all that apply.) a. Administer analgesics. b. Prevent wound infections. c. Provide fluid replacement. d. Decrease core temperature. e. Initiate physical therapy.

ANS: A, B, C Nursing priorities during the resuscitation phase include securing the airway, supporting circulation and organ perfusion by fluid replacement, keeping the client comfortable with analgesics, preventing infection through careful wound care, maintaining body temperature, and providing emotional support. Physical therapy is inappropriate during the resuscitation phase but may be initiated after the client has been stabilized.

A client has a small-bore feeding tube (Dobhoff tube) inserted for continuous enteral feedings while recovering from a traumatic brain injury. What actions should the nurse include in the client's care? (Select all that apply.) a. Assess tube placement per agency policy. b. Keep the head of the bed elevated at least 30 degrees. c. Listen to lung sounds at least every 4 hours. d. Run continuous feedings on a feeding pump. e. Use blue dye to determine proper placement.

ANS: A, B, C, DAll of these options are important for client safety when continuous enteral feedings are in use. Blue dye is not used because it can cause lung injury if aspirated

A nurse delegates care for an older adult client to the unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP). Which statements should the nurse include when delegating this client's care? (Select all that apply.) a. "Plan to bathe the client in the evening when the client is most alert." b. "Encourage the client to use a cane when ambulating." c. "Assess the client for symptoms related to pain and discomfort." d. "Remind the client to look at foot placement when walking." e. "Schedule additional time for teaching about prescribed therapies."

ANS: A, B, D The nurse should tell the UAP to schedule activities when the client is normally awake, encourage the client to use a cane when ambulating, and remind the client to look where feet are placed when walking. The nurse should assess the client for symptoms of pain and should provide sufficient time for older adults to process information, including new teaching. These are not items the nurse can delegate.

The nurse is performing a health history to determine the patient's sensory status. Which questions will be best suited to elicit the information needed? (Select all that apply.) a. "Do you ever lose your balance?" b. "Do you wear glasses?" c. "Do you like to read the newspaper?" d. "Can you feel the difference between hot and cold water?" e. "Do you wear a hearing aid?"

ANS: A, B, D, E Balance, eyesight, hearing, and sensation are all sensory function. Asking if the patient likes the newspaper does not specifically address vision.

A nurse is working with many stroke clients. Which clients would the nurse consider referring to a mental health provider on discharge? (Select all that apply.) a. Client who exhibits extreme emotional lability b. Client with an initial National Institutes of Health (NIH) Stroke Scale score of 38 c. Client with mild forgetfulness and a slight limp d. Client who has a past hospitalization for a suicide attempt e. Client who is unable to walk or eat 3 weeks post-stroke

ANS: A, B, D, E Clients most at risk for post-stroke depression are those with a previous history of depression, severe stroke (NIH Stroke Scale score of 38 is severe), and post-stroke physical or cognitive impairment. The client with mild forgetfulness and a slight limp would be a low priority for this referral

A nurse plans care for a client with a halo fixator. Which interventions should the nurse include in this client's plan of care? (Select all that apply.) a. Tape a halo wrench to the client's vest. b. Assess the pin sites for signs of infection. c. Loosen the pins when sleeping. d. Decrease the client's oral fluid intake. e. Assess the chest and back for skin breakdown

ANS: A, B, E A special halo wrench should be taped to the client's vest in case of a cardiopulmonary emergency. The nurse should assess the pin sites for signs of infection or loose pins and for complications from the halo. The nurse should also increase fluids and fiber to decrease bowel straining and assess the client's chest and back for skin breakdown from the halo vest.

After teaching a client with a spinal cord tumor, the nurse assesses the client's understanding. Which statements by the client indicate a correct understanding of the teaching? (Select all that apply.) a. "Even though turning hurts, I will remind you to turn me every 2 hours." b. "Radiation therapy can shrink the tumor but also can cause more problems." c. "Surgery will be scheduled to remove the tumor and reverse my symptoms." d. "I put my affairs in order because this type of cancer is almost always fatal." e. "My family is moving my bedroom downstairs for when I am discharged home."

ANS: A, B, E Although surgery may relieve symptoms by reducing pressure on the spine and debulking the tumor, some motor and sensory deficits may remain. Spinal tumors usually cause disability but are not usually fatal. Radiation therapy is often used to shrink spinal tumors but can cause progressive spinal cord degeneration and neurologic deficits. The client should be turned every 2 hours to prevent skin breakdown and arrangements should be made at home so that the client can complete activities of daily living without needing to go up and down stairs

A nurse cares for a client with burn injuries who is experiencing anxiety and pain. Which nonpharmacologic comfort measures should the nurse implement? (Select all that apply.) a. Music as a distraction b. Tactile stimulation c. Massage to injury sites d. Cold compresses e. Increasing client control

ANS: A, B, E Nonpharmacologic comfort measures for clients with burn injuries include music therapy, tactile stimulation, massaging unburned areas, warm compresses, and increasing client control.

A nurse assesses a client with a brain tumor. Which newly identified assessment findings should alert the nurse to urgently communicate with the health care provider? (Select all that apply.) a. Glasgow Coma Scale score of 8 b. Decerebrate posturing c. Reactive pupils d. Uninhibited speech e. Diminished cognition

ANS: A, B, E The nurse should urgently communicate changes in a client's neurologic status, including a decrease in the Glasgow Coma Scale score, abnormal flexion or extension, changes in cognition or speech, and pinpointed, dilated, and nonreactive pupils.

When assigning tasks to other health care providers, the nurse understands that each task must be delegated using which guidelines? (Select all that apply.) a. The task must be within the scope of the person to whom it is being delegated. b. The task is one that can be delegated to other health care providers. c. The task can be delegated whenever assessments are required. d. The task may be re-delegated by the person to whom it was first delegated. e. The task may require the nurse to procure resources to complete the task

ANS: A, B, E Through quality improvement, the nurse appreciates the value of what each team member can do to improve patient care. When delegating to other health care providers, the nurse understands that the task must be within the scope and abilities of the person to whom it is being delegated. The nurse must know if the task is something that can be delegated. The RN is responsible for assessment of patients even if certain tasks are delegated to others. The person to whom the assignment was delegated cannot delegate that assignment to someone else. Adequate resources must be made available to the delegatee to complete the task.

A nurse plans care for a client with burn injuries. Which interventions should the nurse implement to prevent infection in the client? (Select all that apply.) a. Ask all family members and visitors to perform hand hygiene before touching the client. b. Carefully monitor burn wounds when providing each dressing change c. Clean equipment with alcohol between uses with each client on the unit. d. Allow family members to only bring the client plants from the hospitals gift shop. e. Use aseptic technique and wear gloves when performing wound care.

ANS: A, B, E To prevent infection in a client with burn injuries the nurse should ensure everyone performs hand hygiene, monitor wounds for signs of infection, and use aseptic technique, including wearing gloves when performing wound care. The client should have disposable equipment that is not shared with another client, and plants should not be allowed in the clients room.

A nurse assesses a client who experienced a spinal cord injury at the T5 level 12 hours ago. Which manifestations should the nurse correlate with neurogenic shock? (Select all that apply.) a. Heart rate of 34 beats/min b. Blood pressure of 185/65 mm Hg c. Urine output less than 30 mL/hr d. Decreased level of consciousness e. Increased oxygen saturation

ANS: A, C, D Neurogenic shock with acute spinal cord injury manifests with decreased oxygen saturation, symptomatic bradycardia, decreased level of consciousness, decreased urine output, and hypotension.

A nurse cares for older clients who have traumatic brain injury. What should the nurse understand about this population? (Select all that apply.) a. Admission can overwhelm the coping mechanisms for older clients. b. Alcohol is typically involved in most traumatic brain injuries for this age group. c. These clients are more susceptible to systemic and wound infections. d. Other medical conditions can complicate treatment for these clients. e. Very few traumatic brain injuries occur in this age group.

ANS: A, C, D Older clients often tolerate stress poorly, which includes being admitted to a hospital that is unfamiliar and noisy. Because of decreased protective mechanisms, they are more susceptible to both local and systemic infections. Other medical conditions can complicate their treatment and recovery. Alcohol is typically not related to traumatic brain injury in this population; such injury is most often from falls and motor vehicle crashes. The 65- to 76-year-old age group has the second highest rate of brain injuries compared to other age groups.

A nurse cares for an older client with burn injuries. Which age-related changes are paired appropriately with their complications from the burn injuries? (Select all that apply.) a. Slower healing time Increased risk for loss of function from contracture formation b. Reduced inflammatory response Deep partial-thickness wound with minimal exposure c. Reduced thoracic compliance Increased risk for atelectasis d. High incidence of cardiac impairments Increased risk for acute kidney injury e. Thinner skin May not exhibit a fever when infection is present

ANS: A, C, D Slower healing time will place the older adult client at risk for loss of function from contracture formation due to the length of time needed for the client to heal. A pre-existing cardiac impairment increases risk for acute kidney injury from decreased renal blood flow, and reduced thoracic compliance places the client at risk for atelectasis. Reduced inflammatory response places the client at risk for infection without a normal response, including fever. Clients with thinned skin are at greater risk for deeper wounds from minimal exposure.

The nurse appropriately delegates care of the unit's patients to the properly trained UAP when that UAP is assigned which tasks? (Select all that apply.) a. UAP assigned to reposition the patient. b. UAP assigned to complete the MORSE falls risk scale. c. UAP assigned to provide range-of-motion exercises. d. UAP assigned to ambulate the patient in the hallway. e. UAP assigned to time the patient on a TUG test.

ANS: A, C, D UAPs provide hands-on care for immobilized patients under the direct supervision of registered nurses. Turning and positioning of patients, range-of-motion exercises, transfers, and assistance with ambulation may be delegated to properly trained UAP. UAPs may not assess patients because that is a nursing responsibility. The MORSE falls risk scale is a risk assessment as is the Timed Up and Go (TUG) test.

An emergency department nurse assesses a client who was struck in the temporal lobe with a baseball. For which clinical manifestations that are related to a temporal lobe injury should the nurse assess? (Select all that apply.) a. Memory loss b. Personality changes c. Difficulty with sound interpretation d. Speech difficulties e. Impaired taste

ANS: A, C, D Wernicke's area (language area) is located in the temporal lobe and enables the processing of words into coherent thought as well as the understanding of written or spoken words. The temporal lobe also is responsible for the auditory center's interpretation of sound and complicated memory patterns. Personality changes are related to frontal lobe injury. Impaired taste is associated with injury to the parietal lobe.

A nurse plans care for a client with burn injuries. Which interventions should the nurse include in this clients plan of care to ensure adequate nutrition? (Select all that apply. )a. Provide at least 5000 kcal/day. b. Start an oral diet on the first day. c. Administer a diet high in protein. d. Collaborate with a registered dietitian e. Offer frequent high-calorie snacks

ANS: A, C, D, E A client with a burn injury needs a high-calorie diet, including at least 5000 kcal/day and frequent high-calorie snacks. The nurse should collaborate with a registered dietitian to ensure the client receives a high-calorie and high-protein diet required for wound healing. Oral diet therapy should be delayed until GI motility resumes.

The nurse is caring for a patient with receptive aphasia. Which interventions will assist the nurse in communicating with the patient? (Select all that apply.) a. Use simple phrases. b. Speak louder than usual. c. Stand in front of the patient. d. Use a picture board. e. Be patient and unrushed.

ANS: A, C, D, E A patient with receptive aphasia cannot understand written or spoken language. Using simple phrases and talking either softly or loudly will not assist that patient. The sensory pathways are intact, but the words do not make sense. A picture board could be used by the nurse when assessing needs. As the patient participates in speech therapy, the ability to understand simple phrases may develop. Standing in front of the patient when talking may give non-verbal clues to the message.

A nurse assesses a client who recently experienced a traumatic spinal cord injury. Which assessment data should the nurse obtain to assess the client's coping strategies? (Select all that apply.) a. Spiritual beliefs b. Level of pain c. Family support d. Level of independence e. Annual income f. Previous coping strategies

ANS: A, C, D, F Information about the client's preinjury psychosocial status, usual methods of coping with illness, difficult situations, and disappointments should be obtained. Determine the client's level of independence or dependence and his or her comfort level in discussing feelings and emotions with family members or close friends. Clients who are emotionally secure and have a positive self-image, a supportive family, and financial and job security often adapt to their injury. Information about the client's spiritual and religious beliefs or cultural background also assists the nurse in developing the plan of care. The other options do not supply as much information about coping.

The nurse is providing discharge education for the patient who is going home with a walker. Which statements by the patient indicate a good level of understanding of safety in the home? (Select all that apply.) a. "I need to remove the throw rugs." b. "I should make sure I only take a bath." c. "I cannot use the stairs." d. "I need to place a nonskid mat in front of the kitchen sink." e. "I wish I had two ways of leaving the house."

ANS: A, D To ensure patients do not have hazards that can cause falls at home, the nurse should evaluate where the living quarters are. If the patient has stairs, they need to be able to safely learn how to use the stairs. They need to remove throw rugs that are a trip hazard and place nonskid mats in front of sinks, tubs, and showers. They can shower with a bench or chair in the shower for sitting. Patients need a clear the exit so they can get out of the house quickly in case of an emergency, but do not specifically need two different exits because of the walker.

A client has an intraventricular catheter. What action by the nurse takes priority? a. Document intracranial pressure readings. b. Perform hand hygiene before client care. c. Measure intracranial pressure per hospital policy. d. Teach the client and family about the device.

ANS: B All of the actions are appropriate for this client. However, performing hand hygiene takes priority because it prevents infection, which is a possibly devastating complication.

A nurse has applied to work at a hospital that has National Stroke Center designation. The nurse realizes the hospital adheres to eight Core Measures for ischemic stroke care. What do these Core Measures include? (Select all that apply.) a. Discharging the client on a statin medication b. Providing the client with comprehensive therapies c. Meeting goals for nutrition within 1 week d. Providing and charting stroke education e. Preventing venous thromboembolism

ANS: A, D, E Core Measures established by The Joint Commission include discharging stroke clients on statins, providing and recording stroke education, and taking measures to prevent venous thromboembolism. The client must be assessed for therapies but may go elsewhere for them. Nutrition goals are not part of the Core Measures.

An emergency department nurse plans care for a client who is admitted with heat stroke. Which interventions should the nurse include in this clients plan of care? (Select all that apply.) a. Administer oxygen via mask or nasal cannula. b. Administer ibuprofen, an antipyretic medication. c. Apply cooling techniques until core body temperature is less than 101 F. d. Infuse 0.9% sodium chloride via a large-bore intravenous cannula. e. Obtain baseline serum electrolytes and cardiac enzymes

ANS: A, D, E Heat stroke is a medical emergency. Oxygen therapy and intravenous fluids should be provided, and baseline laboratory tests should be performed as quickly as possible. The client should be cooled until core body temperature is reduced to 102 F. Antipyretics should not be administered.

The nurse has a question regarding scope of practice and delegation. Where should the nurse seek clarification? (Select all that apply.) a. The state's nurse practice act b. Theory X management c. Nurse's Code of Ethics d. The NCSBN website e. NCSBN journal article

ANS: A, D, E Nurses must have knowledge of the nurse practice act in the state where they are licensed. Each state's nurse practice act defines the RN scope of practice and discusses appropriate delegation. A second resource in delegation is the use of the organization's policy and procedure manual. Employers must have job descriptions for each job class that outline the responsibilities and limitations of each position. The National Council of State Boards of Nursing (NCSBN) website and journal articles are other resources for understanding delegation. Nurses are expected to follow personal and professional ethics, as outlined in the American Nurses Association (ANA) Code of Ethics for Nurses to maintain integrity. Theory X—style managers believe that the average person dislikes work and will avoid it if given the opportunity to do so.

The nurse knows while leadership behaviors and management skills often complement each other they differ in which way? a. Managers focus on relationships. b. A manager may not possess leadership traits. c. Leadership focuses on coordinating and directing others. d. A manager is a visionary who sets the direction for a group

ANS: B A manager may not possess leadership traits, and a leader may lack management skills. Management is the process of coordinating others and directing them toward a common goal. Leadership focuses on relationships, using interpersonal skills to persuade others to work toward a common goal. Leaders are visionaries who set the overall direction for a group or organization.

A nurse assesses a client admitted with deep partial-thickness and fullthickness burns on the face, arms, and chest. Which assessment finding should alert the nurse to a potential complication? a. Partial pressure of arterial oxygen (PaO2) of 80 mm Hg b. Urine output of 20 mL/hr c. Productive cough with white pulmonary secretions d. Core temperature of 100.6 F (38 C)

ANS: B A significant loss of fluid occurs with burn injuries, and fluids must be replaced to maintain hemodynamics. If fluid replacement is not adequate, the client may become hypotensive and have decreased perfusion of organs, including the brain and kidneys. A low urine output is an indication of poor kidney perfusion. The other manifestations are not complications of burn injuries.

A nurse obtains a focused health history for a client who is scheduled for magnetic resonance angiography. Which priority question should the nurse ask before the test? a. "Have you had a recent blood transfusion?" b. "Do you have allergies to iodine or shellfish?" c. "Are you taking any cardiac medications?" d. "Do you currently use oral contraceptives?"

ANS: B Allergies to iodine and/or shellfish need to be explored because the client may have a similar reaction to the dye used in the procedure. In some cases, the client may need to be medicated with antihistamines or steroids before the test is given. A recent blood transfusion or current use of cardiac medications or oral contraceptives would not affect the angiography.

The nurse is caring for a client with an acute burn injury. Which action should the nurse take to prevent infection by autocontamination? a. Use a disposable blood pressure cuff to avoid sharing with other clients. b. Change gloves between wound care on different parts of the clients body. c. Use the closed method of burn wound management for all wound care. d. Advocate for proper and consistent handwashing by all members of the staff.

ANS: B Autocontamination is the transfer of microorganisms from one area to another area of the same clients body, causing infection of a previously uninfected area. Although all techniques listed can help reduce the risk for infection, only changing gloves between performing wound care on different parts of the clients body can prevent autocontamination.

After a hospitals emergency department (ED) has efficiently triaged, treated, and transferred clients from a community disaster to appropriate units, the hospital incident command officer wants to stand down from the emergency plan. Which question should the nursing supervisor ask at this time? a. Are you sure no more victims are coming into the ED? b. Do all areas of the hospital have the supplies and personnel they need? c. Have all ED staff had the chance to eat and rest recently? d. Does the Chief Medical Officer agree this disaster is under control?

ANS: B Before standing down, the incident command officer ensures that the needs of the other hospital departments have been taken care of because they may still be stressed and may need continued support to keep functioning. Many more walking wounded victims may present to the ED; that number may not be predictable. Giving staff the chance to eat and rest is important, but all areas of the facility need that too. Although the Chief Medical Officer (CMO) may be involved in the incident, the CMO does not determine when the hospital can stand down.

A nurse teaches a client who is recovering from a spinal fusion. Which statement should the nurse include in this client's postoperative instructions? a. "Only lift items that are 10 pounds or less." b. "Wear your brace whenever you are out of bed." c. "You must remain in bed for 3 weeks after surgery." d. "You are prescribed medications to prevent rejection."

ANS: B Clients who undergo spinal fusion are fitted with a brace that they must wear throughout the healing process (usually 3 to 6 months) whenever they are out of bed. The client should not lift anything. The client does not need to remain in bed. Medications for rejection prevention are not necessary for this procedure.

The nurse recognizes which task that cannot be delegated? a. Obtaining vital signs b. Assessing lung sounds c. Bathing a patient d. Ambulating a patient

ANS: B Delegation is the transfer of responsibility for performing a task to another person while the nurse who delegated the task remains accountable. Obtaining vital signs, bathing, and ambulating are all tasks associated with the assessment part of the nursing process. The nursing process cannot be delegated.

A client with a traumatic brain injury is agitated and fighting the ventilator. What drug should the nurse prepare to administer? a. Carbamazepine (Tegretol) b. Dexmedetomidine (Precedex) c. Diazepam (Valium) d. Mannitol (Osmitrol)

ANS: B Dexmedetomidine is often used to manage agitation in the client with traumatic brain injury. Carbamazepine is an antiseizure drug. Diazepam is a benzodiazepine. Mannitol is an osmotic diuretic

A client is being prepared for a mechanical embolectomy. What action by the nurse takes priority? a. Assess for contraindications to fibrinolytics. b. Ensure that informed consent is on the chart. c. Perform a full neurologic assessment. d. Review the client's medication lists.

ANS: B For this invasive procedure, the client needs to give informed consent. The nurse ensures that this is on the chart prior to the procedure beginning. Fibrinolytics are not used. A neurologic assessment and medication review are important, but the consent is the priority

A nurse plans care for a client who has a hypoactive response to a test of deep tendon reflexes. Which intervention should the nurse include in this client's plan of care? a. Check bath water temperature with a thermometer. b. Provide the client with assistance when ambulating. c. Place elastic support hose on the client's legs. d. Assess the client's feet for wounds each shift.

ANS: B Hypoactive deep tendon reflexes and loss of vibration sense can impair balance and coordination, predisposing the client to falls. The nurse should plan to provide the client with ambulation assistance to prevent injury. The other interventions do not address the client's problem.

The nurse is implementing generalized falls precautions for patients who are at risk for falls. Which intervention indicates a lack of understanding of these precautions? a. The bed is placed in the low position. b. The patient is wearing socks. c. The patient's cell phone is by the bedside. d. The patient's call light is within reach

ANS: B If the patient is ambulatory, require the use of nonskid footwear. Socks can be slippery unless they have a grip surface on them. Keep patient belongings (e.g., tissues, water, urinals, personal items) within the patient's reach. Keep the call light in reach and remind the patient to use it and keep the bed in the low position.

A nurse is caring for four clients who might be brain dead. Which client would best meet the criteria to allow assessment of brain death? a. Client with a core temperature of 95° F (35° C) for 2 days b. Client in a coma for 2 weeks from a motor vehicle crash c. Client who is found unresponsive in a remote area of a field by a hunter d. Client with a systolic blood pressure of 92 mm Hg since admission

ANS: B In order to determine brain death, clients must meet four criteria: 1) coma from a known cause, 2) normal or near-normal core temperature, 3) normal systolic blood pressure, and 4) at least one neurologic examination. The client who was in the car crash meets two of these criteria. The clients with the lower temperature and lower blood pressure have only one of these criteria. There is no data to support assessment of brain death in the client found by the hunter.

The nurse is caring for a patient with increased intracranial pressure. Which action is considered unsafe? a. Aligning the neck with the body b. Clustering many nursing activities c. Elevating the head of the bed 30 degrees d. Providing stool softeners or laxatives as ordered

ANS: B It is important to minimize stress and activities that could increase intracranial pressure. Combining many nursing activities could increase oxygen demand and intracranial pressure. This would not be safe. Interventions which can promote venous outflow can help decrease intracranial pressure. The stress of constipation or bowel movements can increase intracranial pressure; stool softeners or laxatives can minimize this.

The nurse knows that manual lifting should only be done in which situation? a. Patients who are less than 150 lb b. Life-threatening situations c. Postsurgical patients d. Patients who are less than 200 lb

ANS: B Many manual patient handling tasks are unsafe, because the weights lifted and movements required are beyond the ability of most caregivers. The key is to identify the task to be accomplished, and then use the required equipment and personnel so that the task fits the capabilities of the staff (U.S. Department of Veterans Affairs, 2016). The patient's level of cooperation is taken into consideration when using the safe patient-handling and mobility (SPHM) algorithms to decide the best method of moving the patient. The patient's weight, medical conditions, and ability to assist are also considered (U.S. Department of Veterans Affairs, 2016). Postsurgical patients as well as patients less than 150 or 200 lb may not fit the criteria.

An emergency department nurse cares for a client who experienced a spinal cord injury 1 hour ago. Which prescribed medication should the nurse prepare to administer? a. Intrathecal baclofen (Lioresal) b. Methylprednisolone (Medrol) c. Atropine sulfate d. Epinephrine (Adrenalin)

ANS: B Methylprednisolone (Medrol) should be given within 8 hours of the injury. Clients who receive this therapy usually show improvement in motor and sensory function. The other medications are inappropriate for this client.

A patient suffered a brain injury from a motor vehicle accident and has no brain activity. The patient has a living will which states no heroic measures. The family requests that no additional heroic measures be instituted for their son. The nurse respects this decision in keeping with which principle? a. Accountability b. Autonomy c. Nonmaleficence d. Veracity

ANS: B Patients and families must be treated in a way that respects their autonomy and their ability to express their wishes and make informed choices about their treatment. Accountability is inherent in the nurse's ethical obligation to uphold the highest standards of practice and care, assume full personal and professional responsibility for every action, and commit to maintaining quality in the skill and knowledge base of the profession. Nonmaleficence is a principle that implies a duty not to inflict harm. In ethical terms, nonmaleficence means to abstain from injuring others and to help others further their own well-being by removing harm and eliminating threats. Veracity means telling the truth as a moral and ethical requirement.

The nurse recognizes which goal to be appropriate for the patient who is postoperative day one from a hip fracture with the nursing diagnosis Impaired mobility? a. Patient will interact with others. b. Patient will ambulate to the bathroom with assistance. c. Patient will have no skin breakdown. d. Patient will have a physical therapy consult.

ANS: B Patients with a diagnosis of Impaired mobility should have a goal aimed at improving their mobility. Although immobility can impact social isolation and skin breakdown, those goals are not appropriate for this diagnosis. Have a physical therapy consult is not a goal but an intervention

The nurse identifies which instruction to be appropriate to delegate to the UAP (Unlicensed assistive personnel)? a. Assess the patient's skin during a bath. b. Reposition the patient using the trapeze. c. Assess the patient's ability to perform range-of-motion exercises. d. Notify the health care provider of any changes.

ANS: B Repositioning a patient can be delegated to unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP); the nurse should provide proper instruction regarding specific positioning techniques, individualized patient concerns, and circumstances that require notifying a nurse. UAP may not perform assessments or evaluations but should notify the nurse about any skin or musculoskeletal issues (not the health care provider).

Which strategies should the nurse include in a community program for senior citizens related to dealing with cold winter temperatures? a. Avoiding hot beverages b. Shopping at an indoor mall c. Using a fan at low speed d. Walking slowly in the park

ANS: B Shopping indoors where there is protection from the elements and temperature control is one strategy to avoid cold temperatures. Hot beverages can help an individual deal with cold weather. Avoiding breezes and air currents is recommended to conserve body temperature. Physical activity can increase body temperature, and if the senior is going to walk in the park, weather-appropriate (warm) clothing and a usual or brisk pace, not a slow pace, would be recommended.

A student nurse is preparing morning medications for a client who had a stroke. The student plans to hold the docusate sodium (Colace) because the client had a large stool earlier. What action by the supervising nurse is best? a. Have the student ask the client if it is desired or not. b. Inform the student that the docusate should be given. c. Tell the student to document the rationale. d. Tell the student to give it unless the client refuses.

ANS: B Stool softeners should be given to clients with neurologic disorders in order to prevent an elevation in intracranial pressure that accompanies the Valsalva maneuver when constipated. The supervising nurse should instruct the student to administer the docusate. The other options are not appropriate. The medication could be held for diarrhea.

After shunt procedure, the nurse would monitor the patient's neurologic status by using which test? a. Electroencephalogram b. Glasgow Coma Scale c. National Institutes of Health Stroke Scale d. Monro-Kellie doctrine

ANS: B The GCS gives a standardized numeric score of the neurologic patient assessment. An electroencephalogram is used in diagnosing and localizing the area of seizure origin. This scale is an example of one type of specific tool for nurses to use when assessing a patient following stroke. The Monroe-Kellie doctrine is not an assessment or monitoring strategy; it describes the interrelationship of volume and compliance of the three cranial components, brain tissue, cerebral spinal fluid, and blood.

A client's mean arterial pressure is 60 mm Hg and intracranial pressure is 20 mm Hg. Based on the client's cerebral perfusion pressure, what should the nurse anticipate for this client? a. Impending brain herniation b. Poor prognosis and cognitive function c. Probable complete recovery d. Unable to tell from this information

ANS: B The cerebral perfusion pressure (CPP) is the intracranial pressure subtracted from the mean arterial pressure: in this case, 60 - 20 = 40. For optimal outcomes, CPP should be at least 70 mm Hg. This client has very low CPP, which will probably lead to a poorer prognosis with significant cognitive dysfunction should the client survive. This data does not indicate impending brain herniation or complete recovery

A nurse is teaching a client with multiple sclerosis who is prescribed cyclophosphamide (Cytoxan) and methylprednisolone (Medrol). Which statement should the nurse include in this client's discharge teaching? a. "Take warm baths to promote muscle relaxation." b. "Avoid crowds and people with colds." c. "Relying on a walker will weaken your gait." d. "Take prescribed medications when symptoms occur."

ANS: B The client should be taught to avoid people with any type of upper respiratory illness because these medications are immunosuppressive. Warm baths will exacerbate the client's symptoms. Assistive devices may be required for safe ambulation. Medication should be taken at all times and should not be stopped.

The family of a patient who was in a motor vehicle accident tells the nurse "I'm just not the person I was before the crash." The nurse recognizes this is likely because of the injury to what area of brain? a. Parietal lobes b. Frontal lobes c. Occipital lobes d. Temporal lobes

ANS: B The frontal lobes of the cerebrum are the areas of the brain responsible for voluntary motor function, concentration, communication, decision making, and personality. The parietal lobes are responsible for the sense of touch, distinguishing the shape and texture of objects. The temporal lobes are concerned with the senses of hearing and smell. The occipital lobes process visual information.

A nurse receives new prescriptions for a client with severe burn injuries who is receiving fluid resuscitation per the Parkland formula. The clients urine output continues to range from 0.2 to 0.25 mL/kg/hr. Which prescription should the nurse question? a. Increase intravenous fluids by 100 mL/hr. b. Administer furosemide (Lasix) 40 mg IV push. c. Continue to monitor urine output hourly. d. Draw blood for serum electrolytes STAT.

ANS: B The plan of care for a client with a burn includes fluid and electrolyte resuscitation. Furosemide would be inappropriate to administer. Postburn fluid needs are calculated initially by using a standardized formula such as the Parkland formula. However, needs vary among clients, and the final fluid volume needed is adjusted to maintain hourly urine output at 0.5 mL/kg/hr. Based on this clients inadequate urine output, fluids need to be increased, urine output needs to be monitored hourly, and electrolytes should be evaluated to ensure appropriate fluids are being infused.

A nurse cares for a client with burn injuries from a house fire. The client is not consistently oriented and reports a headache. Which action should the nurse take? a. Increase the clients oxygen and obtain blood gases. b. Draw blood for a carboxyhemoglobin level. c. Increase the clients intravenous fluid rate. d. Perform a thorough Mini-Mental State Examination.

ANS: B These manifestations are consistent with moderated carbon monoxide poisoning. This client is at risk for carbon monoxide poisoning because he or she was in a fire in an enclosed space. The other options will not provide information related to carbon monoxide poisoning.

After a craniotomy, the nurse assesses the client and finds dry, sticky mucous membranes and restlessness. The client has IV fluids running at 75 mL/hr. What action by the nurse is best? a. Assess the client's magnesium level. b. Assess the client's sodium level. c. Increase the rate of the IV infusion. d. Provide oral care every hour.

ANS: B This client has manifestations of hypernatremia, which is a possible complication after craniotomy. The nurse should assess the client's serum sodium level. Magnesium level is not related. The nurse does not independently increase the rate of the IV infusion. Providing oral care is also a good option but does not take priority over assessing laboratory results.

A client is in the emergency department reporting a brief episode during which he was dizzy, unable to speak, and felt like his legs were very heavy. Currently the client's neurologic examination is normal. About what drug should the nurse plan to teach the client? a. Alteplase (Activase) b. Clopidogrel (Plavix) c. Heparin sodium d. Mannitol (Osmitrol)

ANS: B This client's manifestations are consistent with a transient ischemic attack, and the client would be prescribed aspirin or clopidogrel on discharge. Alteplase is used for ischemic stroke. Heparin and mannitol are not used for this condition

A male patient suffered a brain injury from a motor vehicle accident and has no brain activity. The spouse has come up to see the patient every day for the past 2 months. She asks the nurse, "Do you think when he moves his hands he is responding to my voice?" The nurse feels bad because she believes the movements are involuntary, and the prognosis is grim for this patient. She states, "He can hear you, and it appears he did respond to your voice." The nurse is violating which principle of ethics? a. Autonomy b. Veracity c. Utilitarianism d. Deontology

ANS: B Veracity is the principle of telling the truth in a given situation. Autonomy is the principle of respect for the individual person; this concept states that humans have incalculable worth or moral dignity. Utilitarianism is an approach that is rooted in the assumption that an action or practice is right if it leads to the greatest possible balance of good consequences or to the least possible balance of bad consequences. Giving the spouse false reassurance is not a good consequence. Deontologic theory claims that a decision is right only if it conforms to an overriding moral duty and wrong only if it violates that moral duty. Persons are to be treated as ends in themselves and never as means to the ends of others.

A patient who has been in the hospital for several weeks is about to be discharged. The patient is weak from the hospitalization and asks the nurse to explain why this is happening. What is the nurse's best response? a. "Your iron level is low. This is known as anemia." b. "Your immobility in the hospital is known as deconditioning." c. "Your poor appetite is known as malnutrition." d. "Your medications have caused drug induced weakness."

ANS: B When a person is ill and immobile the body becomes weak. This is known as deconditioning. Anemia, malnutrition, and medications may have an adverse effect on the body, but this is not known as deconditioning which is the most likely cause in this patient's situation.

The nurse is correctly demonstrating the use of a transfer belt when engaging in which actions? (Select all that apply.) a. The belt is placed around the patient's hips. b. The belt is secure, leaving only enough room for the nurse to grasp the belt. c. The nurse stands on the weaker side. d. The nurse holds the belt on the side of the patient. e. The nurse stands behind the patient while ambulating.

ANS: B, C Transfer belts are used for patients with an unsteady gait or generalized weakness. Canvas transfer or gait belts are applied snugly around the patient's waist, leaving only enough room for the nurse to grasp the belt firmly during ambulation. Some belts may have handles. If the patient has a weaker side, the nurse should stand on that side and hold the gait belt firmly at the back of the patient's waist while ambulating.

After administering a medication that stimulates the sympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system, the nurse assesses the client. For which clinical manifestations should the nurse assess? (Select all that apply.) a. Decreased respiratory rate b. Increased heart rate c. Decreased level of consciousness d. Increased force of contraction e. Decreased blood pressure

ANS: B, D Stimulation of the sympathetic nervous system initiates the fight-orflight response, increasing both the heart rate and the force of contraction. A medication that stimulates the sympathetic nervous system would also increase the client's respiratory rate, blood pressure, and level of consciousness.

A nurse is dismissing a client from the emergency department who has a mild traumatic brain injury. What information obtained from the client represents a possible barrier to self-management? (Select all that apply.) a. Does not want to purchase a thermometer b. Is allergic to acetaminophen (Tylenol) c. Laughing, says "Strenuous? What's that?" d. Lives alone and is new in town with no friends e. Plans to have a beer and go to bed once home

ANS: B, D, E Clients should take acetaminophen for headache. An allergy to this drug may mean the client takes aspirin or ibuprofen (Motrin), which should be avoided. The client needs neurologic checks every 1 to 2 hours, and this client does not seem to have anyone available who can do that. Alcohol needs to be avoided for at least 24 hours. A thermometer is not needed. The client laughing at strenuous activity probably does not engage in any kind of strenuous activity, but the nurse should confirm this.

A nurse assesses a client with an injury to the medulla. Which clinical manifestations should the nurse expect to find? (Select all that apply.) a. Loss of smell b. Impaired swallowing c. Visual changes d. Inability to shrug shoulders e. Loss of gag reflex

ANS: B, D, E Cranial nerves IX (glossopharyngeal), X (vagus), XI (accessory), and XII (hypoglossal) emerge from the medulla, as do portions of cranial nerves VII (facial) and VIII (acoustic). Damage to these nerves causes impaired swallowing, inability to shrug shoulders, and loss of the gag reflex. The other manifestations are not associated with damage to the medulla.

A nurse cares for a client with a lower motor neuron injury who is experiencing a flaccid bowel elimination pattern. Which actions should the nurse take to assist in relieving this client's constipation? (Select all that apply.) a. Pour warm water over the perineum. b. Provide a diet high in fluids and fiber. c. Administer daily tap water enemas. d. Implement a consistent daily time for elimination. e. Massage the abdomen from left to right. f. Perform manual disimpaction

ANS: B, D, F For the client with a lower motor neuron injury, the resulting flaccid bowel may require a bowel program for the client that includes stool softeners, increased fluid intake, a high-fiber diet, and a consistent elimination time. If the client becomes impacted, the nurse would need to perform manual disimpaction. Pouring warm water over the perineum, administering daily enemas, and massaging the abdomen would not assist this client.

The nurse is educating the patient about the effects of immobility on the body. Which statements by the patient indicate a need for further education? (Select all that apply.) a. "I can become very weak." b. "I will gain weight." c. "I will lose muscle tone." d. "I can get bed sores." e. "I won't have any lung problems."

ANS: B, E Immobility may cause weakness, instability, anorexia, elimination alterations, decreased muscle tone, circulatory stasis, DVTs, pulmonary embolism, and skin breakdown. Knowing the effects of immobility on various body systems allows the nurse to quickly assess a patient's risk and recognize signs of impending complications.

A nurse assesses an older client. Which assessment findings should the nurse identify as normal changes in the nervous system related to aging? (Select all that apply.)a. Long-term memory loss b. Slower processing time c. Increased sensory perception d. Decreased risk for infection e. Change in sleep patterns

ANS: B, E Normal changes in the nervous system related to aging include recent memory loss, slower processing time, decreased sensory perception, an increased risk for infection, changes in sleep patterns, changes in perception of pain, and altered balance and/or decreased coordination.

A nurse is caring for a client after a stroke. What actions may the nurse delegate to the unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP)? (Select all that apply.) a. Assess neurologic status with the Glasgow Coma Scale. b. Check and document oxygen saturation every 1 to 2 hours. c. Cluster client care to allow periods of uninterrupted rest. d. Elevate the head of the bed to 45 degrees to prevent aspiration. e. Position the client supine with the head in a neutral midline position.

ANS: B, E The UAP can take and document vital signs, including oxygen saturation, and keep the client's head in a neutral, midline position with correct direction from the nurse. The nurse assesses the Glasgow Coma Scale score. The nursing staff should not cluster care because this can cause an increase in the intracranial pressure. The head of the bed should be minimally elevated, up to 30 degrees.

A nurse cares for several clients on a neurologic unit. Which prescription for a client should direct the nurse to ensure that an informed consent has been obtained before the test or procedure? a. Sensation measurement via the pinprick method b. Computed tomography of the cranial vault c. Lumbar puncture for cerebrospinal fluid sampling d. Venipuncture for autoantibody analysis

ANS: C A lumbar puncture is an invasive procedure with many potentially serious complications. The other assessments or tests are considered noninvasive and do not require an informed consent.

What percentage of hip fractures is the result of falls? a. 50% b. 80% c. 90% d. 100%

ANS: C About 90% of falls end with a hip fracture.

A nurse uses the rule of nines to assess a client with burn injuries to the entire back region and left arm. How should the nurse document the percentage of the clients body that sustained burns?a. 9% b. 18% c. 27% d. 36%

ANS: C According to the rule of nines, the posterior trunk, anterior trunk, and legs each make up 18% of the total body surface. The head, neck, and arms each make up 9% of total body surface, and the perineum makes up 1%. In this case, the client received burns to the back (18%) and one arm (9%), totaling 27% of the body

The nurse is providing discharge instructions to a patient with visual alterations. Which statement by the patient indicates a need for further education? a. "I should make sure the passageways are wide." b. "I should remove all the throw rugs." c. "I should keep the lights dim." d. "I can use a cane to feel for objects in front of me."

ANS: C Bright lighting in hallways and stairways prevents falls by the patient who has limited vision. Furniture is placed to allow wide passageways. Throw rugs, which are a tripping hazard, are removed. If vision is severely limited, use of a cane or walking stick held slightly in front helps the patient feel objects in his/her path.

An older patient is talking with the nurse about hip fractures. The patient would like to know the best approach to strengthen the bones. What is the nurse's best response? a. "Walk at least 5 miles every day for exercise." b. "Wear proper fitting shoes to prevent tripping." c. "Talk with your physician about a calcium supplement." d. "Stand up slowly so you don't feel faint."

ANS: C Calcium strengthens the bones. A calcium supplement will help strengthen bones as they may be affected by aging, illness, or trauma. Walking several miles will help strengthen the bones, but the patient should consult with the healthcare provider before any exercise regimen is implemented for the older adult. Wearing proper shoes and standing slowly to prevent dizziness is important but they will not prevent fractures.

A nurse is teaching a client with cerebellar function impairment. Which statement should the nurse include in this client's discharge teaching? a. "Connect a light to flash when your door bell rings." b. "Label your faucet knobs with hot and cold signs." c. "Ask a friend to drive you to your follow-up appointments." d. "Use a natural gas detector with an audible alarm."

ANS: C Cerebellar function enables the client to predict distance or gauge the speed with which one is approaching an object, control voluntary movement, maintain equilibrium, and shift from one skilled movement to another in an orderly sequence. A client who has cerebellar function impairment should not be driving. The client would not have difficulty hearing, distinguishing between hot and cold, or smelling.

A nurse assesses a client with early-onset multiple sclerosis (MS). Which clinical manifestation should the nurse expect to find? a. Hyperresponsive reflexes b. Excessive somnolence c. Nystagmus d. Heat intolerance

ANS: C Early signs and symptoms of MS include changes in motor skills, vision, and sensation. Hyperresponsive reflexes, excessive somnolence, and heat intolerance are later manifestations of MS.

A nurse assesses a client with multiple sclerosis after administering prescribed fingolimod (Gilenya). For which adverse effect should the nurse monitor? a. Peripheral edema b. Black tarry stools c. Bradycardia d. Nausea and vomiting

ANS: C Fingolimod (Gilenya) is an antineoplastic agent that can cause bradycardia, especially within the first 6 hours after administration. Peripheral edema, black and tarry stools, and nausea and vomiting are not adverse effects of fingolimod.

When explaining delegation to student nurses, what statement by the nurse educator aligns to the ANA regarding delegation? a. A transfer of authority to a less-qualified individual b. The nurse transferring accountability to the delegate c. The transfer of tasks by the nurse while retaining accountability d. Transferring responsibility for assessments and planning

ANS: C For patient care to be completed in a safe and timely manner, it is sometimes necessary for the nurse to delegate tasks to other health care providers. The National Council of State Boards of Nursing (NCSBN) offers support in this process. In their joint statement (ANA and NCSBN, 2005), the ANA describes delegation as the transfer of responsibility, and the NCSBN calls it a transfer of authority. This transfer gives a competent individual the authority to perform a selected nursing task in a selected situation. The nurse retains accountability for the delegation. Any significant findings during the care such as alterations in skin integrity, shortness of breath, or changes in a patient's condition should be reported to the nurse. The nurse is then responsible for assessing the alterations and addressing them in the plan of care.

A nurse plans care for a client with lower back pain from a work-related injury. Which intervention should the nurse include in this client's plan of care? a. Encourage the client to stretch the back by reaching toward the toes. b. Massage the affected area with ice twice a day. c. Apply a heating pad for 20 minutes at least four times daily. d. Advise the client to avoid warm baths or showers.

ANS: C Heat increases blood flow to the affected area and promotes healing of injured nerves. Stretching and ice will not promote healing, and there is no need to avoid warm baths or showers.

The nurse teaches burn prevention to a community group. Which statement by a member of the group should cause the nurse the greatest concern? a. I get my chimney swept every other year. b. My hot water heater is set at 120 degrees. c. Sometimes I wake up at night and smoke. d. I use a space heater when it gets below zero

ANS: C House fires are a common occurrence and often lead to serious injury or death. The nurse should be most concerned about a person who wakes up at night and smokes. The nurse needs to question this person about whether he or she gets out of bed to do so, or if this person stays in bed, which could lead to falling back asleep with a lighted cigarette. Although it is recommended to have chimneys swept every year, skipping a year does not pose as much danger as smoking in bed, particularly if the person does not burn wood frequently. Water heaters should be set below 140 F. Space heaters should be used with caution, and the nurse may want to ensure that the person does not allow it to get near clothing or bedding.

A client experiences impaired swallowing after a stroke and has worked with speech-language pathology on eating. What nursing assessment best indicates that a priority goal for this problem has been met? a. Chooses preferred items from the menu b. Eats 75% to 100% of all meals and snacks c. Has clear lung sounds on auscultation d. Gains 2 pounds after 1 week

ANS: C Impaired swallowing can lead to aspiration, so the priority goal for this problem is no aspiration. Clear lung sounds is the best indicator that aspiration has not occurred. Choosing menu items is not related to this problem. Eating meals does not indicate the client is not still aspirating. A weight gain indicates improved nutrition but still does not show a lack of aspiration

A nurse assesses a client who has a burn injury. Which statement indicates the client has a positive perspective of his or her appearance? a. I will allow my spouse to change my dressings. b. I want to have surgical reconstruction. c. I will bathe and dress before breakfast. d. I have secured the pressure dressings as ordered.

ANS: C Indicators that the client with a burn injury has a positive perception of his or her appearance include a willingness to touch the affected body part. Self-care activities such as morning care foster feelings of self- worth, which are closely linked to body image. Allowing others to change the dressing and discussing future reconstruction would not indicate a positive perception of appearance. Wearing the dressing will assist in decreasing complications but will not enhance self-perception

A nurse cares for a client with a burn injury who presents with drooling and difficulty swallowing. Which action should the nurse take first? a. Assess the level of consciousness and pupillary reactions. b. Ascertain the time food or liquid was last consumed. c. Auscultate breath sounds over the trachea and bronchi. d. Measure abdominal girth and auscultate bowel sounds.

ANS: C Inhalation injuries are present in 7% of clients admitted to burn centers. Drooling and difficulty swallowing can mean that the client is about to lose his or her airway because of this injury. Absence of breath sounds over the trachea and bronchi indicates impending airway obstruction and demands immediate intubation. Knowing the level of consciousness is important in assessing oxygenation to the brain. Ascertaining the time of last food intake is important in case intubation is necessary (the nurse will be more alert for signs of aspiration). However, assessing for air exchange is the most important intervention at this time. Measuring abdominal girth is not relevant in this situation.

The nurse understands that the five rights of delegation include which components? (Select all that apply.) a. Right patient b. Right time c. Right person d. Right supervision e. Right task

ANS: C, D, E Delegation principles focus on the appropriate intervention (task) being performed under the correct circumstances, by the correct personnel, and with the correct direction and supervision. The right patient and the right time refer to components of the "6 Rights" of medication administration.

The nurse is providing education to the patient about isometric exercises. Which statement by the patient indicates a good understanding of these exercises? a. "An example of this type of exercise is walking." b. "An example of this type of exercise is running." c. "An example of this type of exercise is Kegels." d. "An example of this type of exercise is weight lifting."

ANS: C Isometric exercise requires tension and relaxation of muscles without joint movement. An example is tension and relaxation of pelvic floor muscles (i.e., Kegel exercise). Isotonic exercise involves active movement with constant muscle contraction, such as walking, turning in bed, and self-feeding. Aerobic exercise requires oxygen metabolism to produce energy. Patients may engage in rigorous walking or repeated stair climbing to achieve the positive effects of aerobic exercise. Anaerobic exercise builds power and body mass. Without oxygen to produce energy for activity, anaerobic exercise takes place, such as heavy weight lifting.

A nurse cares for a client who has facial burns. The client asks, Will I ever look the same? How should the nurse respond? a. With reconstructive surgery, you can look the same. b. We can remove the scars with the use of a pressure dressing. c. You will not look exactly the same but cosmetic surgery will help. d. You shouldn't start worrying about your appearance right now

ANS: C Many clients have unrealistic expectations of reconstructive surgery and envision an appearance identical or equal in quality to the preburn state. The nurse should provide accurate information that includes something to hope for. Pressure dressings prevent further scarring; they cannot remove scars. The client and the family should be taught the expected cosmetic outcomes.

Vital Signs Heart rate: 110 beats/min Blood pressure: 112/68 mm Hg Respiratory rate: 20 Laboratory Results Red blood cell count: 5,000,000/mm3 White blood cell count: 10,000/mm3 Platelet count: 200,000/mm3 Wound Assessment Left chest burn wound, 3 cm 2.5 cm 0.5 cm, wound bed pale, surrounding tissues with edema breaths/min present Oxygen saturation: 94% Pain: 3/10 Based on the documented data, which action should the nurse take next? a. Assess the clients skin for signs of adequate perfusion. b. Calculate intake and output ratio for the last 24 hours. c. Prepare to obtain blood and wound cultures. d. Place the client in an isolation room.

ANS: C Older clients have a decreased immune response, so they may not exhibit signs that their immune system is actively fighting an infection, such as fever or an increased white blood cell count. They also are at higher risk for sepsis arising from a localized wound infection. The burn wound shows signs of local infection, so the nurse should assess for this and for systemic infection before the client manifests sepsis. Placing the client in an isolation room, calculating intake and output, and assessing the clients skin should all be implemented but these actions do not take priority over determining whether the client has an infection.

A nurse teaches an 80-year-old client with diminished touch sensation. Which statement should the nurse include in this client's teaching? a. "Place soft rugs in your bathroom to decrease pain in your feet." b. "Bathe in warm water to increase your circulation." c. "Look at the placement of your feet when walking." d. "Walk barefoot to decrease pressure ulcers from your shoes."

ANS: C Older clients with decreased sensation are at risk of injury from the inability to sense changes in terrain when walking. To compensate for this loss, the client is instructed to look at the placement of her or his feet when walking. Throw rugs can slip and increase fall risk. Bath water that is too warm places the client at risk for thermal injury. The client should wear sturdy shoes for ambulation.

A nurse assesses clients at a community center. Which client is at greatest risk for lower back pain? a. A 24-year-old female who is 25 weeks pregnant b. A 36-year-old male who uses ergonomic techniques c. A 45-year-old male with osteoarthritis d. A 53-year-old female who uses a walker

ANS: C Osteoarthritis causes changes to support structures, increasing the client's risk for low back pain. The other clients are not at high risk.

A nurse is caring for a client with paraplegia who is scheduled to participate in a rehabilitation program. The client states, "I do not understand the need for rehabilitation; the paralysis will not go away and it will not get better." How should the nurse respond? a. "If you don't want to participate in the rehabilitation program, I'll let the provider know." b. "Rehabilitation programs have helped many clients with your injury. You should give it a chance." c. "The rehabilitation program will teach you how to maintain the functional ability you have and prevent further disability." d. "When new discoveries are made regarding paraplegia, people in rehabilitation programs will benefit first."

ANS: C Participation in rehabilitation programs has many purposes, including prevention of disability, maintenance of functional ability, and restoration of function. The other responses do not meet this client's needs.

The nurse is performing passive range-of-motion exercises on a patient when the patient begins to complain of pain. What is the first thing the nurse should do? a. Notify the health care provider. b. Hyperextend the joint. c. Stop the range of motion. d. Switch to active range of motion.

ANS: C Stop range-of-motion exercises if the patient begins to complain of pain or if resistance to movement is experienced. Never hyperextend or flex a patient's joints beyond the position of comfort. Active range of motion is when the patient moves the joint. Notifying the health care provider would happen later

The nurse is caring for a patient who is complaining of tingling in the hands and fingers. The nurse knows this is a sign of what electrolyte imbalance? a. Hyponatremia b. Hypernatremia c. Hypocalcemia d. Hypercalcemia

ANS: C Tactile disturbances, such as tingling and numbness around the mouth and in the fingers, are signs of hypocalcemia. Mental changes are associated with both hypercalcemia and hypocalcemia. Both hypernatremia and hyponatremia have symptoms of central nervous system disorder.

A nurse teaches a client being treated for a full-thickness burn. Which statement should the nurse include in this clients discharge teaching? a. You should change the batteries in your smoke detector once a year. b. Join a program that assists burn clients to reintegration into the community. c. I will demonstrate how to change your wound dressing for you and your family. d. Let me tell you about the many options available to you for reconstructive surgery.

ANS: C Teaching clients and family members to perform care tasks such as dressing changes is critical for the progressive goal toward independence for the client. All of the other options are important in the rehabilitation stage. However, dressing changes have priority.

Admission Notes 36-year-old female with Wound Assessment Bilateral leg burns present bilateral leg burns NKDA Health history of asthma and seasonal allergies with a white and leather- like appearance. No blisters or bleeding present. Client rates pain 2/10 on a scale of 0- 10. Based on the data provided, how should the nurse categorize this clients injuries? a. Partial-thickness deep b. Partial-thickness superficial c. Full thickness d. Superficial

ANS: C The characteristics of the clients wounds meet the criteria for a full-thickness injury: color that is black, brown, yellow, white, or red; no blisters; minimal pain; and firm and inelastic outer layer. Partial-thickness superficial burns appear pink to red and are painful. Partial-thickness deep burns are deep red to white and painful. Superficial burns are pink to red and are also painful.

A nurse assesses a client with a spinal cord injury at level T5. The client's blood pressure is 184/95 mm Hg, and the client presents with a flushed face and blurred vision. Which action should the nurse take first? a. Initiate oxygen via a nasal cannula. b. Place the client in a supine position. c. Palpate the bladder for distention. d. Administer a prescribed beta blocker.

ANS: C The client is manifesting symptoms of autonomic dysreflexia. Common causes include bladder distention, tight clothing, increased room temperature, and fecal impaction. If persistent, the client could experience neurologic injury. Precipitating conditions should be eliminated and the physician notified. The other actions would not be appropriate.

A nurse assesses a client with a brain tumor. The client opens his eyes when the nurse calls his name, mumbles in response to questions, and follows simple commands. How should the nurse document this client's assessment using the Glasgow Coma Scale shown below? a. 8 b. 10 c. 12 d. 14

ANS: C The client opens his eyes to speech (Eye opening: To sound = 3), mumbles in response to questions (Verbal response: Inappropriate words = 3), and follows simple commands (Motor response: Obeys commands = 6). Therefore, the client's Glasgow Coma Scale score is: 3 + 3 + 6 = 12. DIF: Applying/Application

An emergency room nurse is triaging victims of a multi-casualty event. Which client should receive care first? a. A 30-year-old distraught mother holding her crying child b. A 65-year-old conscious male with a head laceration c. A 26-year-old male who has pale, cool, clammy skin d. A 48-year-old with a simple fracture of the lower leg

ANS: C The client with pale, cool, clammy skin is in shock and needs immediate medical attention. The mother does not have injuries and so would be the lowest priority. The other two people need medical attention soon, but not at the expense of a person in shock.

A nurse is caring for a patient with a stroke that has altered her ability to see. The nurse knows which area of the brain was likely impacted by the stroke that is responsible for visual function? a. Parietal lobes b. Frontal lobes c. Occipital lobes d. Temporal lobes

ANS: C The occipital lobes process visual information. The frontal lobes of the cerebrum are the areas of the brain responsible for voluntary motor function, concentration, communication, decision making, and personality. The parietal lobes are responsible for the sense of touch, distinguishing the shape and texture of objects. The temporal lobes are concerned with the senses of hearing and smell.

A nurse cares for a client with a spinal cord injury. With which interdisciplinary team member should the nurse consult to assist the client with activities of daily living? a. Social worker b. Physical therapist c. Occupational therapist d. Case manager

ANS: C The occupational therapist instructs the client in the correct use of all adaptive equipment. In collaboration with the therapist, the nurse instructs family members or the caregiver about transfer skills, feeding, bathing, dressing, positioning, and skin care. The other team members are consulted to assist the client with unrelated issues.

A client has a traumatic brain injury and a positive halo sign. The client is in the intensive care unit, sedated and on a ventilator, and is in critical but stable condition. What collaborative problem takes priority at this time? a. Inability to communicate b. Nutritional deficit c. Risk for acquiring an infection d. Risk for skin breakdown

ANS: C The positive halo sign indicates a leak of cerebrospinal fluid. This places the client at high risk of acquiring an infection. Communication and nutrition are not priorities compared with preventing a brain infection. The client has a definite risk for a skin breakdown, but it is not the immediate danger a brain infection would be

A nurse reviews the laboratory results for a client who was burned 24 hours ago. Which laboratory result should the nurse report to the health care provider immediately? a. Arterial pH: 7.32 b. Hematocrit: 52% c. Serum potassium: 6.5 mEq/L d. Serum sodium: 131 mEq/L

ANS: C The serum potassium level is changed to the degree that serious life-threatening responses could result. With such a rapid rise in potassium level, the client is at high risk for experiencing severe cardiac dysrhythmias and death. All the other findings are abnormal but do not show the same degree of severity; they would be expected in the emergent phase after a burn injury.

An emergency department charge nurse notes an increase in sick calls and bickering among the staff after a week with multiple trauma incidents. Which action should the nurse take? a. Organize a pizza party for each shift. b. Remind the staff of the facility's sick-leave policy. c. Arrange for critical incident stress debriefing. d. Talk individually with staff members

ANS: C The staff may be suffering from critical incident stress and needs to have a debriefing by the critical incident stress management team to prevent the consequences of long-term, unabated stress. Speaking with staff members individually does not provide the same level of support as a group debriefing. Organizing a party and revisiting the sick-leave policy may be helpful, but are not as important and beneficial as a debriefing.

A nurse prepares to teach a client who has experienced damage to the left temporal lobe of the brain. Which action should the nurse take when providing education about newly prescribed medications to this client? a. Help the client identify each medication by its color. b. Provide written materials with large print size. c. Sit on the client's right side and speak into the right ear. d. Allow the client to use a white board to ask questions.

ANS: C The temporal lobe contains the auditory center for sound interpretation. The client's hearing will be impaired in the left ear. The nurse should sit on the client's right side and speak into the right ear. The other interventions do not address the client's left temporal lobe damage.

The nurse manager would counsel the staff nurse for delegating which task to the UAP? a. Personal hygiene b. Assistance with eating breakfast c. Assistance with toileting d. Interpretation of abnormal vital signs

ANS: D The RN must remember to delegate tasks that do not require nursing judgment. Interpretation of abnormal vital signs requires assessment skills possessed by the RN only. Only tasks that are routine and do not require variation from a standardized procedure, such as providing hygiene, assisting with eating, and toileting, should be delegated.

A client had an embolectomy for an arteriovenous malformation (AVM). The client is now reporting a severe headache and has vomited. What action by the nurse takes priority? a. Administer pain medication. b. Assess the client's vital signs. c. Notify the Rapid Response Team. d. Raise the head of the bed

ANS: C This client may be experiencing a rebleed from the AVM. The most important action is to call the Rapid Response Team as this is an emergency. The nurse can assess vital signs while someone else notifies the Team, but getting immediate medical attention is the priority. Administering pain medication may not be warranted if the client must return to surgery. The optimal position for the client with an AVM has not been determined, but calling the Rapid Response Team takes priority over positioning.

The nurse assesses a client's Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score and determines it to be 12 (a 4 in each category). What care should the nurse anticipate for this client? a. Can ambulate independently b. May have trouble swallowing c. Needs frequent re-orientation d. Will need near-total care

ANS: C This client will most likely be confused and need frequent reorientation. The client may not be able to ambulate at all but should do so independently, not because of mental status. Swallowing is not assessed with the GCS. The client will not need near-total care.

The nurse is delegating care to an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) to a patient who has sensory overload. Which statement by the UAP indicates a need for further orientation? a. "I should keep the noise levels low." b. "I should schedule all the care together." c. "I should keep the room well lit." d. "I should allow the family to visit."

ANS: C To prevent or alleviate overload, the nurse reduces sensory stimuli, dimming unnecessary lights and turning down the sound on alarms if possible. Nursing care is planned so that the patient is not constantly disturbed. Visitation by family provides reality orientation and a soothing, recognizable presence for some patients experiencing overload.

A nurse prepares to administer intravenous cimetidine (Tagamet) to a client who has a new burn injury. The client asks, Why am I taking this medication? How should the nurse respond? a. Tagamet stimulates intestinal movement so you can eat more. b. It improves fluid retention, which helps prevent hypovolemic shock. c. It helps prevent stomach ulcers, which are common after burns. d. Tagamet protects the kidney from damage caused by dehydration.

ANS: C Ulcerative gastrointestinal disease (Curlings ulcer) may develop within 24 hours after a severe burn as a result of increased hydrochloric acid production and a decreased mucosal barrier. This process occurs because of the sympathetic nervous system stress response. Cimetidine is a histamine2 blocker and inhibits the production and release of hydrochloric acid. Cimetidine does not affect intestinal movement and does not prevent hypovolemic shock or kidney damage.

The nurse is correctly assisting the patient in using a cane when the patient demonstrates which activities? (Select all that apply.) a. The top of the cane is level with the patient's bent elbow. b. The patient holds the cane on his/her weaker side. c. The patient moves the cane forward first. d. The patient's arm is comfortably bent when walking. e. The patient moves the strong leg forward first.

ANS: C, D The top of the cane should be level with the hip joint, and the patient's arm should be comfortably bent when the patient is walking. The patient should hold the cane on his/her stronger side and move the cane forward first, followed by the weaker leg and then the stronger leg. This ensures that another point of support is always on the ground when the weaker leg is bearing weight and gives the patient a wide base of support. A patient using a cane should be encouraged to stand up straight and look forward. Leaning to one side or looking down can jeopardize safety and cause poor posture.

A nurse assesses a client who is recovering from a lumbar laminectomy. Which complications should alert the nurse to urgently communicate with the health care provider? (Select all that apply.) a. Surgical discomfort b. Redness and itching at the incision site c. Incisional bulging d. Clear drainage on the dressing e. Sudden and severe headache

ANS: C, D, E Bulging at the incision site or clear fluid on the dressing after a laminectomy strongly suggests a cerebrospinal fluid leak, which constitutes an emergency. Loss of cerebral spinal fluid may cause a sudden and severe headache, which is also an emergency situation. Pain, redness, and itching at the site are normal.

The nurse is caring for a patient with expressive aphasia. Which interventions will assist the nurse in communicating with the patient? (Select all that apply.) a. Use simple phrases. b. Speak loudly. c. Use yes/no questions. d. Use a picture board. e. Be patient and unrushed

ANS: C, D, E If a patient has expressive aphasia, he or she understands language but is unable to answer questions, name common objects, or state simple ideas. The patient can answer yes/no questions by shaking the head. The patient might be able to point to pictures to express needs. For any type of aphasia, being patient and not rushing will make communication less stressful.

The nurse is caring for a patient who suffered a stroke on the right side of the brain. The nurse is careful to implement what safety measures? (Select all that apply.) a. Puts a picture board in the room to communicate with the patient. b. Places the call light on the patient's left side. c. Leaves a light on in the bathroom at night for good visibility .d. Places the call light on the patient's right side. e. Makes sure there are no trip hazards in the patient's room.

ANS: C, D, E If the damage is on the right side of the brain, there is loss of sensation and motor function in the extremities on the left side of the body and visual-spatial problems occur. Therefore, placing the call light on the side where the patient is likely to be strong is important. The patient will not necessarily have communication problems but might have visual problems, so the bathroom light is helpful. If the damage is on the left side of the brain, there is loss of sensation and motor function in the extremities on the right side of the body and problems with speech occur.

After teaching a male client with a spinal cord injury at the T4 level, the nurse assesses the client's understanding. Which client statements indicate a correct understanding of the teaching related to sexual effects of this injury? (Select all that apply.) a. "I will explore other ways besides intercourse to please my partner." b. "I will not be able to have an erection because of my injury." c. "Ejaculation may not be as predictable as before." d. "I may urinate with ejaculation but this will not cause infection." e. "I should be able to have an erection with stimulation."

ANS: C, D, E Men with injuries above T6 often are able to have erections by stimulating reflex activity. For example, stroking the penis will cause an erection. Ejaculation is less predictable and may be mixed with urine. However, urine is sterile, so the client's partner will not get an infection.

A nurse assesses a client with paraplegia from a spinal cord injury and notes reddened areas over the client's hips and sacrum. Which actions should the nurse take? (Select all that apply.) a. Apply a barrier cream to protect the skin from excoriation. b. Perform range-of-motion (ROM) exercises for the hip joint. c. Reposition the client off of the reddened areas. d. Get the client out of bed and into a chair once a day. e. Obtain a low-air-loss mattress to minimize pressure.

ANS: C, E Appropriate interventions to relieve pressure on these areas include frequent re-positioning and a low-air-loss mattress. Reddened areas should not be rubbed because this action could cause more extensive damage to the already fragile capillary system. Barrier cream will not protect the skin from pressure wounds. ROM exercises are used to prevent contractures. Sitting the client in a chair once a day will decrease the client's risk of respiratory complications but will not decrease pressure on the client's hips and sacrum.

A nurse assesses a client who is recovering from a diskectomy 6 hours ago. Which assessment finding should the nurse address first? a. Sleepy but arouses to voice b. Dry and cracked oral mucosa c. Pain present in lower back d. Bladder palpated above pubis

ANS: D A distended bladder may indicate damage to the sacral spinal nerves. The other findings require the nurse to provide care but are not the priority or a complication of the procedure.

The nurse is caring for four clients with traumatic brain injuries. Which client should the nurse assess first? a. Client with cerebral perfusion pressure of 72 mm Hg b. Client who has a Glasgow Coma Scale score of 12 c. Client with a PaCO2 of 36 mm Hg who is on a ventilator d. Client who has a temperature of 102° F (38.9° C)

ANS: D A fever is a poor prognostic indicator in clients with brain injuries. The nurse should see this client first. A Glasgow Coma Scale score of 12, a PaCO2 of 36, and cerebral perfusion pressure of 72 mm Hg are all desired outcomes.

A nurse cares for a client with amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS). The client states, "I do not want to be placed on a mechanical ventilator." How should the nurse respond? a. "You should discuss this with your family and health care provider." b. "Why are you afraid of being placed on a breathing machine?" c. "Using the incentive spirometer each hour will delay the need for a ventilator." d. "What would you like to be done if you begin to have difficulty breathing?"

ANS: D ALS is an adult-onset upper and lower motor neuron disease characterized by progressive weakness, muscle wasting, and spasticity, eventually leading to paralysis. Once muscles of breathing are involved, the client must indicate in the advance directive what is to be done when breathing is no longer possible without intervention. The other statements do not address the client's needs.

A nurse assesses a client's recent memory. Which client statement confirms that the client's remote memory is intact? a. "A young girl wrapped in a shroud fell asleep on a bed of clouds." b. "I was born on April 3, 1967, in Johnstown Community Hospital." c. "Apple, chair, and pencil are the words you just stated." d. "I ate oatmeal with wheat toast and orange juice for breakfast."

ANS: D Asking clients about recent events that can be verified, such as what the client ate for breakfast, assesses the client's recent memory. The client's ability to make up a rhyme tests not memory, but rather a higher level of cognition. Asking clients about certain facts from the past that can be verified assesses remote or long-term memory. Asking the client to repeat words assesses the client's immediate memory.

A client who is hospitalized with burns after losing the family home in a fire becomes angry and screams at a nurse when dinner is served late. How should the nurse respond? a. Do you need something for pain right now? b. Please stop yelling. I brought dinner as soon as I could. c. I suggest that you get control of yourself. d. You seem upset. I have time to talk if youd like

ANS: D Clients should be allowed to ventilate their feelings of anger and despair after a catastrophic event. The nurse establishes rapport through active listening and honest communication and by recognizing cues that the client wishes to talk. Asking whether the client is in pain as the first response closes the door to open communication and limits the clients options. Simply telling the client to stop yelling and to gain control does nothing to promote therapeutic communication.

A nurse assesses bilateral wheezes in a client with burn injuries inside the mouth. Four hours later the wheezing is no longer heard. Which action should the nurse take? a. Document the findings and reassess in 1 hour. b. Loosen any constrictive dressings on the chest. c. Raise the head of the bed to a semi-Fowlers position. d. Gather appropriate equipment and prepare for an emergency airway.

ANS: D Clients with severe inhalation injuries may sustain such progressive obstruction that they may lose effective movement of air. When this occurs, wheezing is no longer heard, and neither are breath sounds. These clients can lose their airways very quickly, so prompt action is needed. The client requires establishment of an emergency airway. Swelling usually precludes intubation. The other options do not address this emergency situation.

The nurse has delegated to the UAP to assist a patient with ambulating in the hallway with a cane. Which statement by the UAP indicates a need for further education? a. "I should report any complaints of soreness to the nurse." b. "I should watch for indications that the patient has difficulties using the cane." c. "I should let the nurse or PT know if the cane doesn't seem to fit correctly." d. "I should teach the patient how to walk with the cane."

ANS: D Educating patients on how to walk with assistive devices may not be delegated to unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP). UAP should report any of the following: noticeable incorrect usage or fit of assistive devices, complaints of soreness or weakness, difficulties involving balance or strength, or difficulties in performing the procedure or other concerns verbalized by the patient.

Mobility for the patient changes throughout the life span. What is the term that best describes this process? a. Aging and illness b. Illness and disease c. Health and wellness d. Growth and development

ANS: D Growth and development happens from infancy to death. Muscular changes are always happening, and these changes affect the individual and his or her performance in life. Aging, illness, health, and wellness do have an effect on a person, but they don't always affect mobility.

A nurse assesses a client with a neurologic disorder. Which assessment finding should the nurse identify as a late manifestation of amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS)? a. Dysarthria b. Dysphagia c. Muscle weakness d. Impairment of respiratory muscles

ANS: D In ALS, progressive muscle atrophy occurs until a flaccid quadriplegia develops. Eventually, the respiratory muscles are involved, which leads to respiratory compromise. Dysarthria, dysphagia, and muscle weakness are early clinical manifestations of ALS.

A nurse teaches a client with a lower motor neuron lesion who wants to achieve bladder control. Which statement should the nurse include in this client's teaching? a. "Stroke the inner aspect of your thigh to initiate voiding." b. "Use a clean technique for intermittent catheterization." c. "Implement digital anal stimulation when your bladder is full." d. "Tighten your abdominal muscles to stimulate urine flow."

ANS: D In clients with lower motor neuron problems such as spinal cord injury, performing a Valsalva maneuver or tightening the abdominal muscles are interventions that can initiate voiding. Stroking the inner aspect of the thigh may initiate voiding in a client who has an upper motor neuron problem. Intermittent catheterization and digital anal stimulation do not initiate voiding or bladder control.

The registered nurse assigns a client who has an open burn wound to a licensed practical nurse (LPN). Which instruction should the nurse provide to the LPN when assigning this client? a. Administer the prescribed tetanus toxoid vaccine. b. Assess the clients wounds for signs of infection. c. Encourage the client to breathe deeply every hour. d. Wash your hands on entering the clients room.

ANS: D Infection can occur when microorganisms from another person or from the environment are transferred to the client. Although all of the interventions listed can help reduce the risk for infection, handwashing is the most effective technique for preventing infection transmission.

The nurse should teach a patient that which is a primary prevention strategy to reduce the occurrence of head injuries? a. Blood pressure control b. Smoking cessation c. Maintaining a healthy weight d. Violence prevention

ANS: D Injury prevention measures such as wearing a seat belt, helmet use, firearm safety, and violence prevention programs reduce the risk of traumatic brain injuries. Blood pressure control and exercising can decrease the risk of vascular disease, impacting the cerebral arteries, rather than head injuries. Smoking cessation is one primary prevention strategy which can decrease the risk of vascular disease. Maintaining a healthy weight can decrease the risk of vascular disease.

A nurse cares for a client who has burn injuries. The clients wife asks, When will his high risk for infection decrease? How should the nurse respond? a. When the antibiotic therapy is complete. b. As soon as his albumin levels return to normal. c. Once we complete the fluid resuscitation process. d. When all of his burn wounds have closed

ANS: D Intact skin is a major barrier to infection and other disruptions in homeostasis. No matter how much time has passed since the burn injury, the client remains at high risk for infection as long as any area of skin is open. Although the other options are important goals in the clients recovery process, they are not as important as skin closure to decrease the clients risk for infection.

The nurse is caring for a patient who is blind. When reviewing the care plan, the nurse would modify which goal? a. The patient will report any drainage from the wound with a foul odor to the primary care provider after discharge. b. The patient will agree to report pain promptly while hospitalized. c. The patient will obtain no injuries while in the hospital. d. The patient will report any purulent wound drainage to the primary care provider after discharge.

ANS: D Interventions must be individualized for each patient and adapted for any limitations (e.g., amputation, learning disability, blindness, deafness). The patient would be able to detect a foul odor, report pain, and remain injury free, but would not be able to tell if drainage is purulent.

A nurse cares for a client who is experiencing deteriorating neurologic functions. The client states, "I am worried I will not be able to care for my young children." How should the nurse respond? a. "Caring for your children is a priority. You may not want to ask for help, but you have to." b. "Our community has resources that may help you with some household tasks so you have energy to care for your children." c. "You seem distressed. Would you like to talk to a psychologist about adjusting to your changing status?" d. "Give me more information about what worries you, so we can see if we can do something to make adjustments."

ANS: D Investigate specific concerns about situational or role changes before providing additional information. The nurse should not tell the client what is or is not a priority for him or her. Although community resources may be available, they may not be appropriate for the client. Consulting a psychologist would not be appropriate without obtaining further information from the client related to current concerns.

A nurse cares for a client who presents with an acute exacerbation of multiple sclerosis (MS). Which prescribed medication should the nurse prepare to administer? a. Baclofen (Lioresal) b. Interferon beta-1b (Betaseron) c. Dantrolene sodium (Dantrium) d. Methylprednisolone (Medrol)

ANS: D Methylprednisolone is the drug of choice for acute exacerbations of the disease. The other drugs are not used to treat acute exacerbations of MS. Interferon beta-1b is used to treat and control MS, decrease specific symptoms, and slow the progression of the disease. Baclofen and dantrolene sodium are prescribed to lessen muscle spasticity associated with MS.

The nurse is talking to the unlicensed assistive personnel about moving a patient in bed. The nurse knows the unlicensed assistive personnel understands the concept of mobility and proper moving techniques when making which statement? a. "Patients must have a trapeze over the bed to move properly." b. "Patients should move themselves in bed to prevent immobility." c. "Patients should always have a two-person assist to move in bed." d. "Patients must be moved correctly in bed to prevent shearing."

ANS: D Patients must be moved properly in bed to prevent shearing of the skin. Having a trapeze over the bed is only functional if the patient can assist in the moving process. A two-person assist is good, but the patient still needs to be moved properly. A patient may move himself or herself if he or she is able; but shearing may still occur.

A nurse assesses a client who has burn injuries and notes crackles in bilateral lung bases, a respiratory rate of 40 breaths/min, and a productive cough with blood-tinged sputum. Which action should the nurse take next? a. Administer furosemide (Lasix). b. Perform chest physiotherapy. c. Document and reassess in an hour d. Place the client in an upright position.

ANS: D Pulmonary edema can result from fluid resuscitation given for burn treatment. This can occur even in a young healthy person. Placing the client in an upright position can relieve lung congestion immediately before other measures can be carried out. Although Lasix may be used to treat pulmonary edema in clients who are fluid overloaded, a client with a burn injury will lose a significant amount of fluid through the broken skin; therefore, Lasix would not be appropriate. Chest physiotherapy will not get rid of fluid.

The nurse correctly teaches the patient to rise from a chair using crutches when which intervention is used? a. Patient starts from the back of the chair. b. The weak leg is closest to the chair. c. The hand on the strong side holds the hand bar of the crutch. d. The strong leg is closest to the chair.

ANS: D The patient's strongest leg needs to be closest to the chair. The patient's hand on the weak side holds the hand bar of the crutches, and the hand on the patient's strong side holds onto the armrest of the chair. The patient moves to the front edge of the chair.

A client with a stroke is being evaluated for fibrinolytic therapy. What information from the client or family is most important for the nurse to obtain? a. Loss of bladder control b. Other medical conditions c. Progression of symptoms d. Time of symptom onset

ANS: D The time limit for initiating fibrinolytic therapy for a stroke is 3 to 4.5 hours, so the exact time of symptom onset is the most important information for this client. The other information is not as critical.

A client in the intensive care unit is scheduled for a lumbar puncture (LP) today. On assessment, the nurse finds the client breathing irregularly with one pupil fixed and dilated. What action by the nurse is best? a. Ensure that informed consent is on the chart. b. Document these findings in the client's record. c. Give the prescribed preprocedure sedation. d. Notify the provider of the findings immediately

ANS: D This client is exhibiting signs of increased intracranial pressure. The nurse should notify the provider immediately because performing the LP now could lead to herniation. Informed consent is needed for an LP, but this is not the priority. Documentation should be thorough, but again this is not the priority. The preprocedure sedation (or other preprocedure medications) should not be given as the LP will most likely be canceled.

A nurse receives a report on a client who had a left-sided stroke and has homonymous hemianopsia. What action by the nurse is most appropriate for this client? a. Assess for bladder retention and/or incontinence. b. Listen to the client's lungs after eating or drinking. c. Prop the client's right side up when sitting in a chair. d. Rotate the client's meal tray when the client stops eating

ANS: D This condition is blindness on the same side of both eyes. The client must turn his or her head to see the entire visual field. The client may not see all the food on the tray, so the nurse rotates it so uneaten food is now within the visual field. This condition is not related to bladder function, difficulty swallowing, or lack of trunk control.

An emergency room nurse initiates care for a client with a cervical spinal cord injury who arrives via emergency medical services. Which action should the nurse take first? a. Assess level of consciousness. b. Obtain vital signs. c. Administer oxygen therapy. d. Evaluate respiratory status.

ANS: DThe first priority for a client with a spinal cord injury is assessment of respiratory status and airway patency. Clients with cervical spine injuries are particularly prone to respiratory compromise and may even require intubation. The other assessments should be performed after airway and breathing are assessed.