genetic
1. A man has sickle cell anemia (due to homozygosity of recessive allele s) and is normal for cystic fibrosis but is a carrier for it (because he is heterozygous for the c) allele). A woman is normal but heterozygous for both loci. What is the probability of their having a girl with both diseases? A. 1/4 B. 1/8 C. 1/16 D. 1/32
1/16
1. In a cross of two Aa Bb individuals, what proportion of the progeny share the parent's genotype? A. 1/4 B. 1/2 C. 9/16 D. 3/16 E. 1/16
1/4
1. Suppose there was a cross in which each parent was heterozygous for 10 different loci. What proportion of the offspring will be homozygous for all 10 recessive alleles. A. 1/4^10 B. 3/4 C. 3/4^10 D. 1/4 E. 1/2^10
1/4^10
1. While mapping two genes in Drosophila, you observe 30 recombinants among 200 total offspring. What is the distance between these genes? A. 30 map units B. 6.67 map units C. 200 map units D. 15 map units
15 map units
1. What transcripts are made by RNA polymerase I in eukaryotes? A. snRNA B. tRNA C. mRNA D. 18S rRNA
18S rRNA
1. When Mendel crossed two plants that were heterozygous for a single trait, what was the genotypic ratio of their offspring? A. 1:2:1 B. 9:3:3:1 C. 3:1 D. 1:1 E. Varied depending on the trait
1:2:1
1. If I asked you to illustrate genetic linkage for two polymorphic genes during meiosis using chromosomes, what is the minimum number of chromosomes you would have to draw in order to display this principle? A. 1 B. 2 C. 4 D. 6
2
1. You are studying a diploid organism that has 2n=28 chromosomes. How many chromatids would a cell have in metaphase of meiosis II? A. 14 B. 28 C. 56 D. 112
28
1. The Manx phenotype in cats is caused by a dominant allele that is lethal in the homozygous state. A Manx cat is crossed to another Manx cat. What is the expected outcome for the surviving offspring? A. 3:1 Manx: normal B. 2:1; Manx: normal C. 3:1 normal: Manx D. 2:1 normal: Manx
2:1; Manx: normal
1. If an organism has five pairs of chromosomes, how many chromosomal combinations are possible at metaphase I of meiosis? A. 5^2 B. 10^5 C. 5^10 D. 2^5
2^5
1. Which of the following expressions denotes a trisomic organism? A. 3n B. 2n-1 C. 2n+1 D. 2n+2
2n+1
1. The common ancestor for salamanders and lizards would be at position ____ in the phylogeny above A. 3 B. 4 C. 5 D. 6
3
1. One strand of DNA is 5' - AGGCCTTA - 3'. What is the opposite strand? A. 5' - AGGCCTTA - 3' B. 5' - TCCGGAAT - 3' C. 3' - AGGCCTTA - 5' D. 3' - TCCGGAAT - 5'
3' - TCCGGAAT - 5'
1. DNA polymerases are unable to replicate what areas of the chromosome? A. centromeres B. 3' ends C. origins of replication D. 5' ends
3' ends
1. According to Chargaff's rule, if the DNA of a species contains 20% adenine, what percent of guanine will it contain? A. 20% B. 30% C. 50% D. 75%
30%
1. In a given population of Drosophila, curly wings (c) is recessive to the wild-type condition of straight wings (c+). You isolate a population of 35 curly winged flies, 70 flies that are heterozygous for straight wings, and 45 that are homozygous for straight wings. What is the total number of alleles in the gene pool? A. 2 B. 150 C. 230 D. 300 E. None of these choices are correct
300
1. The parental genotypes for a series of crosses are wild-type male fruit flies mated to females with white eyes and miniature wings. The phenotypes of the F1 generation were wild-type females, and males with white eyes, and miniature wings, indicating sex chromosome linkage. These flies were allowed to mate with each other and produced the following offspring: Red eyes, long wings 770 White eyes, miniature wings 716 Red eyes, miniature wings 401 White eyes, long wings 318 Total 2205 How many map units is the gene for eye color from the gene for wing length to the nearest tenth? A. 32.6 B. 46.9 C. 48.4 D. 67.4
32.6
1. When Mendel crossed two plants that were heterozygous for a single trait, what was the phenotypic ratio of their offspring? A. 1:2:1 B. 9:3:3:1 C. 3:1 D. 7:4 E. Varied depending on the trait
3:1
1. A bivalent contains how many sister chromatids? A. 2 B. 4 C. 8 D. depends on the cell
4
1. DNA polymerases add new nucleotides in what direction? A. 5' to 3' B. 3' to 5' C. Both directions
5' to 3'
1. Brown spotting of the teeth in humans is caused by a dominant X-linked gene. If a man with normal teeth marries a woman with brown teeth who had a father with normal teeth, then _______ of their daughters will have brown teeth. A. 100% B. 50% C. 25% D. 0%
50%
1. If a Punnett square is used to visualize a three-factor cross, how many boxes would be inside of the square? A. 3 B. 8 C. 48 D. 64 E. can't be determined
64
1. How many amino acids are encoded by the following mRNA? Hint: what do amino acid sequences begin with? 5-'GCCACCAUGGGCCAAUUACGAAGGUUUUGCUGA-3' A. 8 B. 9 C. 10 D. 11
8
1. Recall that in pea plants, purple flower color is dominant and white is recessive. If two heterozygous plants are crossed, what is the probability that the first two offspring will have purple flowers? A. 1/2 B. 1/4 C. 6/4 D. 9/16 E. 1/16
9/16
1. In a two-factor cross using Mendelian inheritance, if both parents are heterozygous for both traits, what will be the phenotypic ratio of their offspring? A. 3:1 B. 1:2:1 C. 1:1 D. 9:3:3:1
9:3:3:1
1. The theory of natural selection was first proposed by A. Charles Darwin B. Gregor Mendel C. Alfred Russell Wallace D. A & C E. A, B,& C
A & C
1. What kind of cross is necessary to be able to determine the order and distance of genes in a three-point cross? A. Two triple heterozygotes B. A fully homozygous dominant with a fully homozygous recessive C. A triple heterozygote with a fully homozygous recessive D. Two triple homozygous recessives
A triple heterozygote with a fully homozygous recessive
1. Here is a cross involving three different independently assorting loci. One of the loci is X-linked. Which one? P: Long, Purple, Active, Male X Short, Yellow, Sluggish, Female F1: 1/4 Long, Purple, Sluggish, Males 1/4 Short, Purple, Sluggish, Males 1/4 Long, Purple, Active, Females 1/4 Short, Purple, Active, Females A. Long/short B. Purple/Yellow C. Active/Sluggish D. Impossible to determine
Active/Sluggish
1. An individual with type A blood and an individual with type B blood mate and have offspring. What blood type is not possible in their offspring? A. type O blood B. type A blood C. type B blood D. type AB blood E. All blood types are possible.
All blood types are possible.
1. Which of the following is a possible explanation for pleiotropy? A. The expression of a single gene can affect cell function in more than one way. B. A gene may be expressed in different cell types in a multicellular organism. C. A gene may be expressed at different stages of development. D. All of the above are possible explanations.
All of the above are possible explanations.
1. At the molecular level, which of the following best explains heterozygous advantage and overdominance? A. A heterozygous individual can produce more varieties of homodimer proteins. B. The alleles produce two different proteins with slightly different functions. C. The proteins produced by the alleles may provide a broader range of environmental tolerance, such as temperature ranges. D. Infectious organisms may recognize only a specific functional protein. E. All of the answers are possibilities.
All of the answers are possibilities.
1. Which of the following answers is NOT an example of a SNP? A. Substitution of base pair B. Deletion of base pair C. Insertion of base pair D. All of these are SNPs
All of these are SNPs
1. Chromosomes may be identified based on which of the following characteristics? A. location of the centromere B. banding patterns C. size of the chromosome D. All of these choices are correct.
All of these choices are correct.
1. Which of the following characteristics made the pea plant Pisum sativum an ideal organism for Mendel's studies? A. It has the ability to self-fertilize. B. It was possible to cross-fertilize one plant with another. C. It has easily identifiable traits. D. All of these choices are correct.
All of these choices are correct.
1. What is the most common form of speciation A. Allopatric speciation B. Parapatric speciation C. Sympatric speciation D. Anapatric speciation
Allopatric speciation
1. Which of the following describes an organism with two complete sets of chromosomes from two different species? A. Tetraploid B. Aneuploid C. Allodiploid D. Allotetraploid
Allotetraploid
1. Which of the following is true for an acrocentric chromosome? A. p = q B. p < q C. p > q D. p = 0 E. q = 0
B. p < q
1. The ability to interbreed with one another in nature is the key point to which species concept? A. Biological species B. Phylogenetic species C. Morphological species D. Ecological species
Biological species
1. How many Barr bodies would an individual with a XXY genotype possess? A. 0 B. 1 C. 2
1
1. Blood group M is due to the M allele in homozygous conditions. Blood group N is due to the N allele in homozygous condition, and blood group MN is due to the MN heterozygote. This pattern of inheritance is an example of which of the following? A. Dominant/recessive B. Incomplete dominance C. Codominance D. Overdomiance
Codominance
1. Which of the following elements are found in both the lagging strand and the leading strand during DNA replication A. DNA polymerase III B. DNA polymerase I C. DNA ligase D. Okazaki fragments E. More than one of these is in both strands
DNA polymerase III b-lagging g&h-DNA lagging
1. BLAST stands for Basic Local Alignment Sequencing Tool A. True B. False
False
1. The researcher(s) who initially used X-ray diffraction to gather information on the DNA molecule was ______. A. Franklin B. Watson and Crick C. Hershey and Chase D. Pauling E. Chargaff
Franklin
1. These scientists determined that DNA was the genetic material in a T2 bacteriophage A. Hershey and Chase B. Avery, Macleod, and McCarty C. Watson and Crick D. Creighton and McClintock
Hershey and Chase
1. What resulted from Mendel's work with single-factor crosses? A. Law of segregation B. Law of independent assortment C. Theory of natural selection D. Law of biological evolution
Law of segregation
1. A group of species consisting of all descendants of the group's most common ancestor A. Paraphyletic group B. Polyphyletic group C. Monophyletic group
Monophyletic group
1. Organisms that share many common observable features in the absence of genetic data would be considered the same species under which definition? A. Biological species B. Phylogenetic species C. Morphological species D. Ecological species
Morphological species
1. According to the phylogeny above, which list of species represent a monophyletic group? A. Crocodile, Salamander, Lizard, Perch B. Crocodile, Pigeon, Chimpanzee, Mouse C. Mouse, Pigeon, Crocodile, Lizard D. Salamander, Perch, Hagfish, Lizard
Mouse, Pigeon, Crocodile, Lizard
1. In which stage of mitosis are you likely to see crossing over occur? A. Prophase B. Prometaphase C. Metaphase D. Anaphase E. None of the above
None of the above
1. The building blocks of DNA are called ________. A. Amino acids B. Codons C. Nucleotides D. Alleles
Nucleotides
A. The expression of the trait varies by individual. B. It is lethal in 30% of the individuals who have the trait. C. Only 70% of the individuals who carry the trait express the trait. D. The trait is present in 70% of the population.
Only 70% of the individuals who carry the trait express the trait.
1. Red-green color blindness is a recessive X-linked character in humans. In cases involving two parents with normal color vision, can male offspring be colorblind? Can female offspring be colorblind? A. Yes for both sexes B. No for both sexes C. Yes for male offspring and No for female offspring D. No for male offspring and Yes for female offspring
Yes for male offspring and No for female offspring
1. A tRNA's anticodon is 5'GGC3'. What amino acid is attached to it? A. glycine B. proline C. alanine D. arginine
alanine
1. For what situation(s) would a metagenomics strategy be appropriate? A. to study organisms that cannot be cultivated in the lab B. to study multiple species that interact in the environment C. to do a broad survey of genes from different species in a certain habitat D. all of the above
all of the above
1. A specific version of a gene is called a(n) ______. A. trait B. character C. gamete D. allele E. variant
allele
1. Mutations represent A. a minor part of microevolution. B. an essential part of microevolution. C. deleterious changes to the fitness of an individual. D. advantageous changes to genes.
an essential part of microevolution.
1. The high prevalence of the allele for sickle cell anemia in some populations is an example of which of the following? A. heterogeneous environments B. balancing selection C. inverted selection D. non-Darwinian selection E. nonrandom mating
balancing selection
1. Assume that genes C and D are located on the same chromosome. On one chromosome, alleles C and D are found, while the homologue contains alleles c and d. Which of the following would be an example of a recombination event? A. alleles C and D together on one chromosome B. alleles c and d together on one chromosome C. alleles C and d together on one chromosome D. alleles c and D together on one chromosome E. both alleles C and d together on one chromosome and alleles c and D together on one chromosome
both alleles C and d together on one chromosome and alleles c and D together on one chromosome
1. A natural disaster that resulted in the loss of genetic diversity in a population would be an example of a _________. A. founder effect. B. genetic drift. C. bottleneck effect. D. natural selection.
bottleneck effect.
1. Alleles that cause death in a certain temperature range are examples of _________. A. essential genes B. lethal alleles C. semi-lethal alleles D. nonessential genes E. conditional lethal alleles
conditional lethal alleles
1. In animals, somatic cells are __________ and gametes are ____________. A. diploid; diploid B. diploid; haploid C. haploid; diploid D. haploid; haploid
diploid; haploid
1. Which of the following types of selection favors one extreme of a phenotypic distribution? A. disruptive selection B. stabilizing selection C. directional selection D. balancing selection
directional selection
1. A true-breeding line of green pod pea plants is crossed with a true-breeding line of yellow pod plants. All of their offspring have green pods. From this information, it can be stated that the green color is _____ to the yellow color. A. recessive 1. A true-breeding line of green pod pea plants is crossed with a true-breeding line of yellow pod plants. All of their offspring have green pods. From this information, it can be stated that the green color is _____ to the yellow color. A. recessive B. dominant C. subservient D. blended
dominant
1. In a certain family pedigree, you observe that 7 of a couple's 12 children display a disease trait. In the subsequent generation, some of the children of affected individuals have the disease, but none of the children of two unaffected parents do. You conclude that the disease is most likely caused by a ______ allele. A. recessive B. dominant C. redundant D. unable to determine
dominant
1. Natural selection can be defined as: A. environmental conditions resulting in the selection of individuals whose phenotypes are best suited for the environment. B. man-made conditions resulting in the selection of individuals whose phenotypes are best suited for the environment. C. migrations resulting in the selection of individuals whose phenotypes are best suited for the environment. D. random events resulting in the selection of individuals whose phenotypes are best suited for the environment.
environmental conditions resulting in the selection of individuals whose phenotypes are best suited for the environment.
1. A functional protein is made up of the information contained within what region of DNA? A. exons B. introns C. enhancers D. promoters
exons
1. 61 different tRNAs are required for translation in vivo A. True B. False
false
1. mtDNA contains all of the genes necessary for the complete function of mitochondrial metabolism. A. True B. False
false
1. Migration of a random few individuals from one population to a new area to establish a new population is an example of A. bottleneck effect. B. mutation. C. founder effect D. selection.
founder effect
1. Given the following sequence of genes on a chromosome, determine what change in chromosome structure occurred. The asterisk (*) indicates the centromere. Before: A B C D * E F G H After: A B C D * E F E F G H A. terminal deficiency B. interstitial deficiency C. inversion D. gene duplication
gene duplication
1. In a Punnett square diagram, the outside of the box represents the _________. A. diploid offspring B. haploid offspring C. diploid gametes D. haploid gametes
haploid gametes
1. During sexual reproduction, each parent contributes one set of chromosomes. Similar chromosomes from each parent are called __________. A. karyotypes B. sister chromatids C. homologs D. sex chromosomes
homologs
1. Which of the following forms of RNA encodes the sequence of amino acids for a functional protein? A. tRNA B. snRNA C. mRNA D. rRNA E. scRNA
mRNA
1. In cattle, the scurs trait follows a sex-influenced pattern of inheritance. A heterozygous male has the _______ phenotype and a heterozygous female has a _______ phenotype. A. Y-linked; X-linked B. nonbald; bald C. X-linked; Y-linked
nonbald; bald
1. An inversion heterozygote contains which of the following? A. two homologous chromosomes with inversions B. two normal chromosomes C. one normal chromosome and one chromosome with an inversion D. None of these choices are correct.
one normal chromosome and one chromosome with an inversion
1. A site (locus) in the genome that varies between members of the population is said to be ________. A. monomorphic B. polymorphic C. trimorphic D. neomorphic
polymorphic
1. The term for a group of individuals from the same species that can interbreed with one another is ________. A. species. B. population. C. race. D. community. E. Kingdom
population
1. What is the term used to describe the chance that a future event will occur? A. degrees of freedom B. chi-square test statistic C. goodness of fit D. probability
probability
1. What is the name of the transcription start site? A. promoter B. terminator C. regulation sequences D. transcription factors
promoter
1. What aspect of meiosis best explains Mendel's law of independent assortment? A. selective removal of genetic information to create haploid gametes B. separation of homologous chromosomes during Meiosis I C. random alignment of different bivalents during Meiosis I D. transmission of genes together when they lie nearby on the same chromosome E. separation of identical alleles during Meiosis II
separation of homologous chromosomes during Meiosis
1. Which of the following would contain genetic material that is 100% identical? A. homologous chromosomes B. sister chromatids C. X and Y chromosomes D. All of these choices are identical
sister chromatids
1. Genetic drift has the greatest influence on allele frequencies for which population size? A. small B. large C. Genetic drift has the same impact on both large and small populations. D. Genetic drift has no effect on the allele frequencies.
small
1. What step in Sanger sequencing is key to the sequencing reaction and allows the bases in a DNA strand to be identified? A. Strand separation B. Primer annealing C. Extension D. Termination
termination
1. In the equation p2 + 2pq + q2 = 1, what does the term 2pq represent? A. the genotypic frequency of homozygous recessive individuals B. the genotypic frequency of homozygous dominant individuals C. the genotypic frequency of heterozygous individuals D. the sum of the phenotypic frequencies in the population E. None of these choices are correct
the genotypic frequency of heterozygous individuals
1. Which type of plant would usually be a seedless variety? A. aneuploid B. diploid C. triploid D. tetraploid
triploid
1. During elongation, the polypeptide is removed from the tRNA in the P site and transferred to the amino acid in the A site. A. True B. False
true
1. In BLAST analysis, the lower the E-value, the better the sequence match. A. True B. False
true
1. Transcription and translation may occur simultaneously in prokaryotic cells. A. True B. False
true
1. Which mating of four-o'clock plants would produce progeny that were either green, variegated, or white if the color variation is due to a mutation in a chloroplast gene? A. green female x variegated male B. variegated female x green male C. white female x white male D. white female x green male
variegated female x green male
1. In four-o'clock plants, red flower color is dominant to white flower color. However, heterozygous plants have a pink color. If a pink-flowered plant is crossed with a white-flowered plant, what will be the phenotypic ratios of their offspring? A. ¼ red, ½ pink, ¼ white B. all pink C. all white D. ½ pink, ½ white E. ½ red, ½ pink
½ pink, ½ white
1. During this phase of the cell cycle, the sister chromatids are formed. A. G1 phase B. G2 phase C. S phase D. Prophase E. Cytokinesis
S phase
1. Which of the following is NOT an assumption of the Hardy-Weinberg equation? A. There is no migration into or out of the population. B. Individuals of the population mate randomly. C. The population size is very large. D. Selection is favoring the dominant allele. E. There is no mutation occurring in the population.
Selection is favoring the dominant allele.
1. DNA differs from RNA in which way? A. The structure of the nucleotide B. The five-carbon sugar it uses C. The size of the phosphate groups D. The number of bases attached to the sugar
The five-carbon sugar it uses
1. During library preparation in Illumina sequencing, adapter sequences are ligated to the ends of fragmented DNA so that: A. The fragmented DNA is stable enough for the sequencing reaction B. The fragmented DNA will bind to complementary oligos on the flow cell C. Fluorescent base pairs will bind to the DNA strands during sequencing D. Electrophoresis is possible after sequence elongation
The fragmented DNA will bind to complementary oligos on the flow cell
1. If an alligator has 2n=32 chromosomes, which of the following statements is true? A. There are 32 chromosomes in an alligator gamete. B. There are 16 chromosomes in an alligator gamete. C. There are 64 chromatids in an alligator gamete. D. There are 32 chromatids in an alligator gamete. E. None of these statements are true
There are 16 chromosomes in an alligator gamete.
