Genetics Exam 3

A dominant allele is always the most fit. True or False

False

A transactivation domain is an example of a motif found in transcription factors. True or False

False

DNA that contains actively transcribed genes would most likely contain chromatin in the closed configuration. True or False

False

During a PCR, heat is provided to inactivate the polymerase enzyme. True or False

False

In a typical PCR, primers are used to cleave specific regions of the DNA template. True or False

False

In general, the main goal of cloning is to include as many different genes as possible in a single cloning vector. True or False

False

Insulators exert their effects on gene expression through histone acetyltransferase, histone deacetylase, and RNA polymerase True or False

False

Housekeeping genes are unmethylated and active in most cells. True or False

True

Human society favors outbreeding, or the mating of individuals that are genetically unrelated. True or False

True

In Hardy Weinberg equilibrium, there is no evolution. True or False

True

New genetic variation in a population is a critical aspect of microevolution True or False

True

Nucleosome location may be changed by a process called ATP-dependent chromatin remodeling. True or False

True

Positive assortative mating does not change allele frequencies but does decrease the expected number of heterozygotes. True or False

True

Realized heritability may be determined from artificial selection experiments. True or False

True

Restriction endonucleases typically recognize palindromic DNA sequences and often generate "sticky ends" or single-stranded DNA overhangs at cut sites. True or False

True

Some restriction endonucleases are capable of producing blunt ends; others can generate "sticky" ends. True or False

True

When cortisol binds to the glucocorticoid receptor, HSP90 is released. True or False

True

cAMP is known as a second messenger since the pathway is first activated by a extracellular signaling molecule. True or False

True

What is the purpose of RNaseH in the making of cDNA? a. It copies the mRNA into a complementary DNA strand b. It generates short RNAs that are used as primers c. It proofreads the cDNA for errors d. It reforms the sugar-phosphate backbone

b. It generates short RNAs that are used as primers

ddNTP, used often in DNA sequencing, lacks a(n) ____________ at the __________________ and _________________ carbons a. methyl; 2'; 3' b. OH; 2'; 3' c. carboxyl; 5'; 3' d. OH; 2'; 5' e. None of the above is correct

b. OH; 2'; 3'

A group of individuals from the same species that can interbreed with one another is the definition of a ____________. a. Species b. Population c. Race d. Community e. Kingdom

b. Population

Which of the following recognizes response elements, control elements, and regulatory elements? a. Mediator b. Regulatory transcription factors c. General transcription factors d. Transactivation domains

b. Regulatory transcription factors

What basal transcription factor is most often affected by regulatory transcription factors? a. TFIIE b. TFIID c. TFIIB d. TFIIF

b. TFIID

What is the purpose of DNA ligase in a cloning experiment? a. The purpose is to function as a selectable marker b. The purpose is to reestablish the stable sugar-phosphate backbone of the DNA molecule c. The purpose is to proofread the vector for mistakes d. The purpose is to allow the vector to enter into the cell

b. The purpose is to reestablish the stable sugar-phosphate backbone of the DNA molecule

The prevalence of the allele for sickle cell anemia in some populations is an example of? a. heterogeneous environments b. balancing selection c. inverted selection d. non-darwinian selection e. nonrandom mating

b. balancing selection

One of the primary reasons for generating a large number of clones in a eukaryotic genomic library is that ______________. a. lysogenic phages continue to integrate their DNA into the host chromosome, thus reducing the number of desired recombinant clones b. each vector can take up only a relatively small fraction of the eukaryotic DNA c. each cosmid replicates in coordination with the host chromosome d. the host range of the vector is limited e. each ligation product is sequence specific

b. each vector can take up only a relatively small fraction of the eukaryotic DNA

Words such as did, mom, and pop have something in common with the fundamental tool of recombinant DNA technology. In the context of recombinant DNA technology, which term would be used to describe such words? a. lysogenic b. palindromic c. conjugation d. insertion e. prototrophic

b. palindromic

Which of the following types of selection favors the survival of individuals with the intermediate phenotype? a. disruptive selection b. stabilizing selection c. directional selection

b. stabilizing selection

The square root of the variance is called the _______________. a. mean b. standard deviation c. standard error d. covariance

b. standard deviation

Methylation of DNA bases is one way that regulatory transcription factors may influence gene expression. True or False

False

Most natural populations are in a state of equilibrium according to Hardy-Weinberg. True or False

False

Mutations generated during site-directed mutagenesis occur randomly in the genome. True or False

False

Reverse transcriptase is often used as the heat-stable enzyme in PCR. True or False

False

Steroid hormones are an example of an effector which regulates regulatory transcription factor activity. True or False

True

The activity of some transcription factors can be regulated by covalent modifications True or False

True

The polymerase used in PCR reactions is derived from the thermophile organism Thermus aquaticus. True or False

True

Which of the following would also work as an enhancer for the following bi-directional enhancer? 5' GTTC 3' 3' CAAG 5' a. 5' GAAC 3' 3' CTTG 5' b. 5' CTTG 3' 3' GAAC 5' c. 5' CAAG 3' 3' GTTC 5' d. 5' CTTC 3' 3' GAAG 5'

a. 5' GAAC 3' 3' CTTG 5'

A particular cell contains all of the histones but lacks several histone variants. Which of the following MAY be true of this cell? a. The cell will express different sets of genes than other cells in the same organism b. The cell will be completely unable to remodel its chromatin c. The cell will have an enhanced ability to chemically modify its histones d. The cell will be unable to express any of its genes at all e. The cell will not be able to divide

a. The cell will express different sets of genes than other cells in the same organism

A heritability value of 0.997 indicates which of the following? a. The majority of the phenotypic variation has a genetic basis b. The majority of the phenotypic variation has an environmental basis c. The trait is polygenic d. There is a significant difference between the two strains

a. The majority of the phenotypic variation has a genetic basis

The coefficient of inbreeding (F) tells us what about an individual? a. The probability that they are homozygous due to inheritance from a common ancestor b. their genotype c. The probability of obtaining a certain allele from the gene pool

a. The probability that they are homozygous due to inheritance from a common ancestor

A SNP would best be described as ________________. a. a single nucleotide difference between two DNA sequences b. a gene that comes in multiple different alleles c. the most likely mutation to affect protein function d. A balanced polymorphism system

a. a single nucleotide difference between two DNA sequences

Polygenic inheritance may result in a continuum of phenotypes because a. as the number of genes controlling a trait increases and the influence of environment variation becomes greater, there is a blurring of discreteness b. the alleles for each gene are either completely dominant or recessive c. additive genes mean the characters are meristic d. correlations among various traits are always positive

a. as the number of genes controlling a trait increases and the influence of environment variation becomes greater, there is a blurring of discreteness

Inbreeding reduces which of the following variances to near zero a. genetic variance b. environmental variance c. both variances d. neither variance

a. genetic variance

Nucleic acid blotting is widely used in recombinant DNA technology. In a Southern blot one generally __________. a. hybridizes filter-bound DNA with a DNA probe b. cleaves RNA with restriction endonucleases c. hybridizes filter-bound RNA with a DNA probe d. ligates DNA with DNA ligase e. examines amino acid substitutions with radioactive probes

a. hybridizes filter-bound DNA with a DNA probe

Which contains both vector DNA and chromosomal DNA? a. recombinant vectors b. recircularized vectors c. open vectors

a. recombinant vectors

Genetic drift has a greater influence on ______________ populations. a. small b. large c. it affects both equally

a. small

In a given population of Drosophila, curly wings (c) is recessive to the wild-type condition of straight wings (c+). You isolate a population of 35 curly winged flies, 70 flies that are heterozygous for straight wings and 45 that are homozygous for straight wings. What is the frequency of alleles in this population? a. 50% c; 50% c+ b. 46.7% c; 53.3% c+ c. 35% c; 45% c+ d. 55% c; 45% c+ e. The frequencies cannot be calculated from the provided information

b. 46.7% c; 53.3% c+

Which of the following might complicate the interpretation of ChIP-Seq data? a. The DNA between nucleosomes are too compacted to be sequenced b. Because histones can be moved around or ejected from the chromatin, DNA that is only sometimes wrapped around a histone might not be sequenced c. DNA wrapped around nucleosomes can never be sequenced d. The regions of DNA wrapped around a histone is too long to be sequenced with current technologies

b. Because histones can be moved around or ejected from the chromatin, DNA that is only sometimes wrapped around a histone might not be sequenced

A cDNA library differs from a genomic DNA library in which way? a. It is typically 10-100 times the size of a DNA library b. It contains only coding sequences, not introns c. It contains many copies of the gene of interest d. It consists solely of RNA molecules

b. It contains only coding sequences, not introns

Some vectors such as pUC18 and others of the pUC series contain a large number of restriction enzyme sites clustered in one region. Which term is given to this advantageous arrangement of restriction sites? a. palindrome b. multiple cloning site c. consensus sequence d. complementation

b. multiple cloning site

If the allele frequency of the dominant allele is 0.4, what value is used for the term p^2 in the equation p^2 + 2pq + q^2 = 1 ? a. 0.4 b. 16 c. 0.16 d. 0.2

c. 0.16

CpG islands are associated with which of the following? a. Steroid hormone activity b. cAMP pathway c. DNA methylation d. Nucleosome location

c. DNA methylation

A mutation in which of the following would result in little or no effect on the expression of a gene regulated by a CRE? a. G protein b. CREB c. Glucocorticoid receptor d. Adenylyl cyclase e. Protein kinase A

c. Glucocorticoid receptor

Which of the following structural motifs promotes dimerization? a. Helix-turn-helix b. Zinc finger c. Leucine zipper d. Helix-loop-helix

c. Leucine zipper

Real-time PCR can be used for which of the following? a. Generate mRNA b. Conduct a PCR reaction without the use of primers c. Quantify expression of a specific gene in a cell d. Nonspecific DNA amplification

c. Quantify expression of a specific gene in a cell

In ChIP-Seq, the DNA fragments to be sequenced are around 150 bp in length. What does this size of DNA represent? a. The average length of a gene b. The amount of DNA between nucleosomes c. The amount of DNA wrapped around a nucleosome d. The average distance between genes e. The length of a promoter

c. The amount of DNA wrapped around a nucleosome

In this equation p^2 + 2pq + q^2 = 1, what does the term 2pq represent? a. The genotype frequency of homozygous recessive individuals b. The genotype frequency of homozygous dominant individuals c. The genotype frequency of heterozygous individuals d. The sum of the phenotype frequencies in the population

c. The genotype frequency of heterozygous individuals

List two especially useful characteristics of cloning vectors. a. virulence and lysogenicity b. ability to integrate into the host chromosome and then causing a lytic cycle c. high copy number and antibiotic resistance gene(s) d. reverse transcriptase and ligase activities e. nonautonomous replication and transposition

c. high copy number and antibiotic resistance gene(s)

Restriction endonucleases are especially useful if they generate "sticky" ends. What makes an end sticky? a. interference b. 5' cap c. single-stranded complementary tails d. poly-A sequences e. blunt ends

c. single-stranded complementary tails

In a given population of Drosophila, curly wings (c) is recessive to the wild-type condition of straight wings (c+). You isolate a population of 35 curly winged flies, 70 flies that are heterozygous for straight wings and 45 that are homozygous for straight wings. What is the total number of alleles in the gene pool? a. 2 b. 150 c. 230 d. 300 e. 140

d. 300

Which of the following is an example of a palindromic DNA sequence? a. 5' - GCCGCC - 3' 3' - CGGCGG - 5' b. 5' - ATCGAC - 3' 3' - TAGCAG - 5' c. 5' - ATCATC - 3' 3' - ATCATC - 5' d. 5' - CTGCAG - 3' 3' - GACGTC - 5'

d. 5' - CTGCAG - 3' 3' - GACGTC - 5'

Which of the following is the most likely location of an insulator sequence? a. Within an intron b. At the beginning of a gene c. In the middle of a gene d. Between two genes e. At the end of a gene

d. Between two genes

Histone acetyltransferases are directly involved in which of the following? a. Insertion of variant histone proteins b. Removal of histones from chromatin c. Termination of gene expression d. Chemical modification of histones e. Movement of nucleosomes

d. Chemical modification of histones

Genomic imprinting is a result of ___________. a. Serine to leucine changes in the genetic code b. Histone activation c. Nucleosome location d. DNA methylation

d. DNA methylation

You are using CRISPR-Cas technology to introduce a single nucleotide change in a gene of interest in living cells. You are designing your experiment. In which component of the reaction will you engineer the single nucleotide change? a. Repeat RNA b. Spacer RNA c. Tracer RNA d. Donor DNA e. Linker RNA

d. Donor DNA

Which of the following is a region in DNA that binds to a steroid receptor? a. CRE b. IRE c. CREB d. GRE

d. GRE

What activates CREB? a. Binding to GRE b. Binding of cAMP c. Dimerization d. Phosphorylation e. Lowering of cAMP concentration

d. Phosphorylation

Which of the following is not true concerning a population in equilibrium according to the Hardy-Weinberg rule? a. There is no migration into or out of the population b. Individuals of the population mate randomly c. The population size is very large d. Selection is favoring the dominant allele e. There is no mutation in the populations

d. Selection is favoring the dominant allele

In a cloning experiment, you use a vector that contains a lacZ gene near the unique restriction site. If the competent cells are grown on X-Gal and IPTG, which colonies would contain chromosomal DNA? a. None of the colonies b. Half of the total colonies c. The blue colonies d. The white colonies

d. The white colonies

Which type of selection would lead to two distinct phenotypes? a. stabilizing selection b. phenotype selection c. fitness selection d. disruptive selection e. directional selection

d. disruptive selection

Heritability may be calculated as which of the following? a. The total variance minus environmental variance b. Total variance minus genetic variance c. genetic variance divided by environmental variance d. genetic variance divided by total variance

d. genetic variance divided by total variance

QTL mapping can rely on the relationship between genes for quantitative traits and which of the following? a. the centromere b. transposon sites c. structural genes d. molecular markers such as RFLPs

d. molecular markers such as RFLPs

Assume that a plasmid (circular) s 3200 base pairs in length and has restriction sites at the following locations: 400, 700, 1400, 2600. Give the expected sizes of the restriction fragments following complete digestion. a. 700, 400, 1400, 2600 b. 400, 800, 1000 c. 400, 1200, 1600 d. 300, 700, 2200 e. 300, 700, 1000, 1200

e. 300, 700, 1000, 1200

A particular gene has a mutation in its NFR that causes it to bind abnormally tightly to histones. What effect would you expect this mutation has on the expression of this gene? a. The expression of the gene would be abnormally high b. The effect on gene expression is impossible to predict c. The promoter of the gene will be constantly available to transcription factors and RNA polymerase d. The gene would encode a different protein instead e. The expression of the gene would be abnormally low or absent

e. The expression of the gene would be abnormally low or absent