Genetics Final Exam Review

In the mouse, gene B can produce black pigment from a colorless precursor molecule. A mouse having at least one B allele can produce black pigment, whereas the homozygous recessive mouse (bb) cannot and is albino. The agouti locus (A) can convert the black pigment to brown in the presence of at least one dominant A allele, whereas the homozygous recessive (aa) cannot convert the black pigment to brown. What would be the probability of an albino mouse offspring if the parents were genotypes AaBb and AAbb? A. 1/2 B. 1/4 C. 1/16 D. 3/16

A. 1/2

The autosomal (not X-linked) gene for brachydactyly, short fingers, is dominant to normal finger length. Assume that a female with brachydactyly in the heterozygous condition is married to a man with normal fingers. What is the probability that their first child will have brachydactyly? A. 1/2 B. 3/4 C. 1/4 D. 1/8

A. 1/2

What is the probability of having a child with the N blood type, if both parents are MN? A. 1/4 B. 1/2 C. 0 D. 3/4

A. 1/4

A couple each with blood type AB and normal pigmentation have a child with AB blood type and albinism. What is the probability that their next child will have the same phenotype as the first child? A. 1/8 B. 1/4 C. 9/16 D. 3/16

A. 1/8

Offspring produced by an experimental cross have the following heights (cm): 10, 10, 12, 12, 14, 14, 16, 16, 18, 18. Calculate the mean. A. 14 B. 10 C. 12 D. 16

A. 14

A protein is 300 amino acids long. Which of the following could be the number of nucleotides in the section of DNA that codes for this protein? (Remember:DNA is double-stranded.) A. 1800 B. 300 C. 500 D. 100

A. 1800

What percentage of the human genome is estimated to consist of protein-coding genes? A. 2% B. 5% C. 10% D. 21%

A. 2%

Phenotypically wild-type F1 female Drosophila, whose mothers had light eyes (lt) and fathers had straw (stw) bristles, produced the following offspring when crossed to homozygous light-straw males: Phenotype Number light-straw 22 wild-type 18 light 990 straw 970 Total:2000 Compute the map distance between the light and straw loci. A. 2.0 map units B. 0.02 map units C. 20 map units D. 0.98 map units

A. 2.0 map units

If the GC content of a DNA molecule is 60 percent, what is the molar percentage of adenine? A. 20% B. 40% C. 10% D. 30%

A. 20%

In an organism with 52 chromosomes, how many chromatids would be expected in each cell after the second meiotic division? A. 26 B. 52 C. 13 D. 104

A. 26

Imagine you discover an mRNA that is unable to properly localize due to a deletion of part of the transcript. What region of the mRNA would likely find the deletion? A. 3' UTR B. One of the exons C. 5' splice site D. 5' UTR

A. 3' UTR

Assume that a circular plasmid is 3200 base pairs in length and has restriction sites at the following locations: 400, 700, 1400, 2600. Give the expected sizes of the restriction fragments following complete digestion. A. 300, 700, 1000, 1200 B. 400, 1200, 1600 C. 700, 400, 1400, 2600 D. 300, 700, 2200

A. 300, 700, 1000, 1200

Assuming a typical monohybrid cross in which one allele is completely dominant to the other, what phenotypic ratio is expected if the F1s are crossed? A. 3:1 B. 1:1 C. 3:2 D. 2:1

A. 3:1

The condition known as cri-du-chatsyndrome in humans has a genetic constitution designated as ________. A. 46, 5p- B. triploidy C. trisomy D. 45, X

A. 46, 5p-

Klinefelter syndrome in humans, which leads to underdeveloped testes and sterility, is caused by which chromosomal condition? A. 47, XXY B. 47, 21+ C. 47, XYY D. 45, X

A. 47, XXY

Which of the following segments of double-stranded DNA requires the highest temperature to separate the strands? A. 5'-GGCAGCTG-3' 3'-CCGTCGAC-5' B. 5'-CGAATAGC-3' 3'-GCTTATCG-5' C. 5'-ATGCATGC-3' 3'-TACGTACG-5' D. 5'-CGATTAGC-3' 3'-GCTAATCG-5'

A. 5'-GGCAGCTG-3' 3'-CCGTCGAC-5'

Tightly curled or wooly hair is caused by a dominant gene in humans. If a heterozygous curly-haired person marries a person with straight hair, what percentage of their offspring would be expected to have straight hair? A. 50% B. 25% C. 0% D. 75%

A. 50%

Offspring produced by an experimental cross have the following heights (cm): 10, 10, 12, 12, 14, 14, 16, 16, 18, 18. Calculate the variance. A. 8.9 B. 10 C. 12 D. 11.4

A. 8.9

In a three-point mapping experiment, how many different genotypic classes are expected? How many phenotypic classes? A. 8:8 B. 8:4 C. 16:8 D. 16:4

A. 8:8

In an analysis of the nucleotide composition of double-stranded DNA to see which bases are equivalent in concentration, which of the following would be true? A. A + C = G + T B. A = G and C = T and A + C = G + T are both true. C. A + T = G + C D. A = G and C = T

A. A + C = G + T

What is the initiator triplet in both prokaryotes and eukaryotes? Which amino acid does this triplet recruit? A. AUG: methionine B. AUG: arginine C. UAA: methionine D. UAA or UGA: arginine

A. AUG: methionine

How are retrotransposon different from other transposons? A. All of these are differences. B. They use a "cut and paste" mechanism. C. They use integrase. D. They use reverse transcriptase.

A. All of these are differences.

Which of the following genes is an example of a tumor-suppressor? A. BRCA1 B. c-myc C. c-kit D. RAR

A. BRCA1

Which of the following initiation factors acts as a GTPase? A. Both IF2 and EF-Tu B. EF-Tu C. IF2 D. IF1

A. Both IF2 and EF-Tu

Which of the following is not part of the Y chromosome in humans? A. Both Xic and Xist B. Xic C. MSY D. Xist

A. Both Xic and Xist

Who, along with Alfred Wallace, formulated the theory of natural selection? A. Charles Darwin B. William Harvey C. Gregor Mendel D. James Watson

A. Charles Darwin

Imagine you discover an unknown species of reptile that has a male to female ratio that is very low in cool climates. As seasonal temperatures warm you notice that the male to female ratio increases. What mode of sex determination appears to be involved? A. Class I temperature dependence B. Protenor mode C. Class II temperature dependence D. Lygaeus mode

A. Class I temperature dependence

Imagine you discover an unknown species of reptile and study its sex ratio. You observe that when climate temperatures are cool the male to female ratio is very low. As the climate warms up the male to female ratio raises and then goes back down under hot temperatures. Hat mode of sex determination appears to be involved? A. Class III temperature dependence B. Class I temperature dependence C. Class II temperature dependence D. Lygaeus mode

A. Class III temperature dependence

Genomes from several primates have been sequenced and annotated. These primates range from chimpanzee to Rhesus monkey to Neanderthal and modern humans. What is a potential advantage of having so many primate sequences available to researchers? A. Comparative genomics allows for determining evolutionary relationships. B. The primate sequences can be compared to learn about social behavior. C. Phenotypes can be determined from the genomes. D. The primate sequences can be compared to learn about dietary trends.

A. Comparative genomics allows for determining evolutionary relationships.

What occurs when a F+ cell is mated to a F- cell? A. F- cells become F+ cells with rare transfer of chromosomal genes B. F- cells become Hfr cells C. F- cells remain F- cells with rare transfer of chromosomal genes D. F- cells become F+ cells with a high rate of chromosomal gene transfer

A. F- cells become F+ cells with rare transfer of chromosomal genes

Which if the following histones is not part of the octamer found within a nucleosome? A. H1 B. H2A C. H3 D. H4

A. H1

Which of the following is a short stretch of DNA on the lagging strand? A. Okazaki fragment B. continuous strand C. discontinuous strand D. primer

A. Okazaki fragment

________ is a group of individuals belonging to the same species that live in a defined geographic area and actually or potentially interbreed. A. Population B. Pool C. Hybrid D. Cohort

A. Population

________ are multi-subunit structures that possess protease activity. A. Proteasomes B. Mitochondria C. Golgi apparatus D. Ribosomes

A. Proteasomes

Which statement about the ras gene family and its products is false? A. Ras genes are tumor-suppressors. B. Ras genes encode signal transduction molecules. C. Ras genes are mutated in more than 30% of human tumors. D. Ras proteins are active when bound to GTP.

A. Ras genes are tumor-suppressors.

TATA binding protein is a component of which transcription factor? A. TFIID B. TFIIB C. TFIIF D. TFIIH

A. TFIID

In the Hardy-Weinberg equation the term p2 represents: A. The expected number of one category of homozygotes in an equilibrium population with allele frequencies p and q. B. The expected number of heterozygotes an equilibrium population with allele frequencies p and q. C. The observed number of one category of homozygotes an equilibrium population with allele frequencies p and q. D. The observed number of heterozygotes an equilibrium population with allele frequencies p and q.

A. The expected number of one category of homozygotes in an equilibrium population with allele frequencies p and q.

If a population of humans carries an X-linked lethal recessive allele that causes spontaneous abortions in the first trimester, how would you expect this to affect the sex ratio of that population? A. There would be a reduced number of males B. It would be 1:1 male to female ratio. C. There would be a reduced number of females. D. There would be more intersex individuals.

A. There would be a reduced number of males

Which of the following statements regarding telomeres is false? A. They are not related to the structural integrity of chromosomes. B. They replicate late during S phase. C. They are composed of heterochromatin. D. They stain more lightly during interphase.

A. They are not related to the structural integrity of chromosomes.

Individuals with xeroderma pigmentosum have an extreme sensitivity to ________. A. UV light B. nuclear radiation C. human-made carcinogens D. tobacco smoke

A. UV light

Considering the electromagnetic spectrum, identify likely mutagens from the following. A. Xrays and gamma rays B. Xrays C. radio waves D. gamma rays

A. Xrays and gamma rays

A certain type of congenital deafness in humans is caused by a rare autosomal dominant gene. In a mating involving a deaf man and a deaf woman, could all the children have normal hearing? A. Yes, assuming that the parents are heterozygotes (because the gene is rare), it is possible that all of the children could have normal hearing. B. No, because it is dominant. Children always get the dominant alleles. C. No, because children favor their parents. D. Yes, because traits assort independently.

A. Yes, assuming that the parents are heterozygotes (because the gene is rare), it is possible that all of the children could have normal hearing.

Which is not a major feature of the Watson and Crick DNA model? A. a complete turn is 20 angstroms B. strands are paired by hydrogen bonds between complementary bases C. chains run antiparallel D. coiled strands form a right-handed double helix

A. a complete turn is 20 angstroms

What is meant by the term equilibriumin the context of population genetics? A. a condition in which the genotype and allele frequencies remains constant from generation to generation B. the situation where alleles migrate into and out of a population at equal frequencies C. a condition in which the genotype and allele frequencies change drastically from generation to generation D. the situation where rates of inbreeding and outbreeding are equal

A. a condition in which the genotype and allele frequencies remains constant from generation to generation

The enzyme responsible for making cAMP is ________. A. adenyl cyclase B. transacetylase C. cAMP syntetase D. ATP synthetase

A. adenyl cyclase

Which of the following statements would be the most likely scenario of offspring of a woman exhibiting an X-linked recessive disorder and a man that does not exhibit the trait? A. all daughters will not have the disorder and all sons will have the disorder B. all offspring with have the disorder C. half the daughters and half the sons will have the disorder D. all daughters will not have the disorder and half the sons will have the disorder

A. all daughters will not have the disorder and all sons will have the disorder

Which of the following has the capacity to inhibit transcription? A. all of these can inhibit transcription B. silencers C. methylated cytosines D. chromatin structure

A. all of these can inhibit transcription

During meiosis, chromosome number reduction takes place in ________. A. anaphase I B. prophase I C. metaphase I D. anaphase II

A. anaphase I

The genetic code is said to be triplet, meaning that there ________. A. are three bases in mRNA that code for an amino acid B. are three "nonsense" triplets C. may be three ways in which an amino acid may terminate a chain D. are three amino acids per base in mRNA

A. are three bases in mRNA that code for an amino acid

Which protein is responsible for converting androgens into estrogens? A. aromatase B. testis determining factor C. transformer D. sex lethal

A. aromatase

What is the name of the process of selecting a specific group of organisms from an initially heterogeneous population for future breeding purposes? A. artificial selection B. realized heritability C. natural selection D. sexual selection

A. artificial selection

Which of the following factors is typically monitored during the M checkpoint? A. attachment of spindle fibers to kinetochores B. the completion of DNA replication C. cell size D. the presence of DNA damage

A. attachment of spindle fibers to kinetochores

Which of the following elements of the trpoperon is involved in a process that "weakens or impairs" expression of the operon? A. attenuator B. repressor C. leader sequence D. promoter

A. attenuator

Eukaryotic chromosomes contain two general domains that relate to the degree of condensation. These two regions are ________. A. called heterochromatin and euchromatin B. uniform in the genetic information they contain C. separated by large stretches of repetitive DNA D. void of introns

A. called heterochromatin and euchromatin

In E. coli, the genetic material is composed of ________. A. circular, double-stranded DNA B. linear, double-stranded DNA C. RNA and protein D. circular, double-stranded RNA

A. circular, double-stranded DNA

What is the name given to the three bases in a messenger RNA that bind to the anticodon of tRNA to specify an amino acid placement in a protein? A. codon B. protein C. anti-anticodon D. cistron

A. codon

Aligning genome sequences from different organisms to study gene and genome evolution is referred to as ________. A. comparative genomics B. metagenomics C. evogenomics D. stone-age genomics

A. comparative genomics

Assume that a cross is made between AaBb and aabb plants and that all the offspring are either AaBb or aabb. These results are consistent with ________. A. complete linkage B. codominance C. hemizygosity D. alternation of generations

A. complete linkage

What overlapping fragments are utilized to align individual sequences of a continuous chromosome during shotgun sequencing? A. contigs B. exons C. transcripts D. telomeres

A. contigs

Which of the following refers to the loss of guanine in an intact double-helical DNA molecule? A. depurination B. oxidative damage C. replication slippage D.deamination

A. depurination

Which of the following contains all the others? A. double helix B. hydrogen bond C. nucleotide D. DNA strand

A. double helix

One of the primary reasons for generating a large number of clones in a eukaryotic genomic library is that ________. A. each vector can take up only a relatively small fraction of the eukaryotic DNA B. each ligation product is sequence specific C. lysogenic phages continue to integrate their DNA into the host chromosome, thus reducing the number of desired recombinant clones D. the host range of the vector is limited

A. each vector can take up only a relatively small fraction of the eukaryotic DNA

In the 1600s, William Harvey studied reproduction and development. What is the term given to his theory which states that an organism develops from the fertilized egg by a succession of developmental events that lead to an adult? A. epigenesis B. spontaneous generation C. transduction D. preformation

A. epigenesis

A condition in which one gene pair masks the expression of a nonallelic gene pair is called ________. A. epistasis B. codominance C. additive alleles D. recessiveness

A. epistasis

The condition that exists where complete haploid sets of chromosomes are present is known as ________. A. euploidy B. diploidy C. polyploidy D. aneuploidy

A. euploidy

A bivalent at prophase I contains ________ chromatids. A. four B. two C. one D. three

A. four

A class of mutations that results in multiple contiguous (side-by-side) amino acid changes in proteins is probably caused by which one of the following types of mutations? A. frameshift B. transversion C. base analog D. recombinant

A. frameshift

Which mechanism is least likely to inactivate a tumor-suppressor gene? A. gene duplication B. mutation C. chemical modification D. loss of heterozygosity

A. gene duplication

Affinity of histones for the negative charges on the backbone phosphates of DNA is reduced by ________. A. histone acetyltransferase B. histone deacetylase C. chromatin remodeling complexes D. DNA methylation

A. histone acetyltransferase

Chromatin of eukaryotes is organized into repeating interactions with protein octamers called nucleosomes. Nucleosomes are composed of which class of molecules? A. histones B. glycoproteins C. lipids D. nonhistone chromosomal proteins

A. histones

DNA polymerase I is thought to add nucleotides ________. A. in the place of the primer after it is removed B. to the 5' end of the primer C. to the 3' end of the primer D. on single-stranded templates without need for a primer

A. in the place of the primer after it is removed

Ethidium bromide is a chemical commonly used to visualize DNA in research due to its ability to fluoresce under UV lighting and to wedge between DNA base pairs. It however is very mutagenic. What class of mutagen would Ethidium bromide fall under? A. intercalating agent B. base analog C. ionizing agent D. adduct-forming agent

A. intercalating agent

Assume that a cross is made between AaBb and aabb plants and that the offspring occur in the following numbers: 106 AaBb, 48 Aabb, 52 aaBb, 94 aabb. These results are most consistent with ________. A. linkage with approximately 33.3 map units between the two gene loci B. linkage with 50 percent crossing over C. sex-linked inheritance with 30 percent crossing over D. independent assortment

A. linkage with approximately 33.3 map units between the two gene loci

At which stage of cell division do sister chromatids go to opposite poles? A. mitotic anaphase and anaphase of meiosis II B. mitotic anaphase only C. mitotic anaphase and anaphase of meiosis I D. anaphase of meiosis I only

A. mitotic anaphase and anaphase of meiosis II

Organisms that are well understood from a scientific standpoint and are often used in basic biological research are often called ________. A. model organisms B. vectors C. recombinant DNA technology D. clones

A. model organisms

Assume that a cross is made between tall and dwarf tobacco plants. The F1 generation showed intermediate height, whereas the F2 generation showed a distribution of height ranging from tall to dwarf, like the original parents, and many heights between the extremes. These data are consistent with which one of the following modes of inheritance? A. multiple-factor inheritance B. alternation of generations C. hemizygosity D. codominance

A. multiple-factor inheritance

When all genotypes within a population do not have equal rates of survival, then allele frequencies may change from one generation to the next by a process called ________. A. natural selection B. positive assortative mating C. negative assortative mating D. genetic drift

A. natural selection

Which of the following would be considered a triploid? A. none of these B. Patau's syndrome C. Down's syndrome D. Klinefelter's syndrome

A. none of these

Which of the following can be found in prokaryotes? A. none of these can be found in prokaryotes B. TERT C. telomerase D. TERC

A. none of these can be found in prokaryotes

Regarding the structure of DNA, the covalently arranged combination of a deoxyribose and a nitrogenous base would be called a(n) ________. A. nucleoside B. nucleotide C. oligonucleotide D. ribonucleotide

A. nucleoside

Adenosine is an example of a ________: whereas adenine is an example of a ________. A. nucleoside: nitrogenous base B. sugar: nitrogenous base C. nitrogenous base: nucleoside D. nucleoside: nucleotide

A. nucleoside: nitrogenous base

Mutant versions of genes involved in promoting the development of cancer are known as ________. A. oncogenes B. malignant genes C. proto-oncogenes D. tumor suppressors

A. oncogenes

Studies of Neurosporaled to the ________ statement, whereas studies of human hemoglobin led to the ________ statement. A. one-gene:one enzyme: one-gene polypeptide B. one-gene:one protein: one-gene:one enzyme C. one-gene:one enzyme: one-gene:one protein D. one-gene:one-polypeptide: one-gene:one enzyme

A. one-gene:one enzyme: one-gene polypeptide

Which term refers to a contiguous genetic complex that is under coordinated control? A. operon B. prototroph C. lysogen D. attenuation

A. operon

Which of the following proteins is a transcription factor that can induce cell death (apoptosis) within damaged cells? A. p53 B. phosphokinase C. cyclin D. CDK

A. p53

The observable feature of an organism is referred to as a ________. A. phenotype B. genotype C. prototype D. karyotype

A. phenotype

The classic Hershey and Chase (1952) experiment that offered evidence in support of DNA being the genetic material in bacteriophages made use of which of the following labeled component(s)? A. phosphorus and sulfur B. nitrogen and oxygen C. tritium D. carbon and nitrogen

A. phosphorus and sulfur

In the early part of the twentieth century, Nilsson-Ehle and others described experiments showing that multiple loci may be involved in the inheritance of certain traits. Such patterns are often called ________. A. polygenic B. epistatic C. epigenetic D. multiallelic

A. polygenic

Environmental factors typically influence inheritance of ________. A. polygenic traits B. dominantly inherited traits C. codominance D. multiple alleles

A. polygenic traits

The phenomenon in which one crossover decreases the likelihood of crossovers in nearby regions is called ________. A. positive interference B. negative interference C. reciprocal genetic exchange D. chiasma

A. positive interference

Mutations in the ras gene family induce normally quiescent cells to proceed into the replication cycle. This converts the ras gene from a/an ________ gene to a/an ________ gene. A. proto-oncogene: oncogene B. tumor suppressor: proto-oncogene C. pseudooncogene: proto-oncogene D. oncogene: proto-oncogene

A. proto-oncogene: oncogene

Which of the following statements is not associated with sister chromatid exchanges? A. provide new allelic combinations B. occur during mitosis C. increase with exposure to mutagenic agents D. are observable as patch-like patterns after two rounds of replication in the presence of BrdU

A. provide new allelic combinations

Which of the following genes encodes DNA helicase in e. coli? A. rep B. dnaG C. dnaE D. polA

A. rep

The nucleolus organizer region (NOR) is responsible for production of what type of cell structure? A. ribosome B. mitochondria C. endoplasmic reticulum D. chromatids

A. ribosome

Recently, a gene located on chromosome 3 in humans, FHIT, has been shown to be associated with ________. A. several types of cancer B. Klinefelter syndrome C. "mad-cow" disease D. Huntington disease

A. several types of cancer

A trait exhibited in one sex but not the other is referred to as ________. A. sex-limited B. sex-linked C. sex-inluenced D. genomic imprinting

A. sex-limited

A regulatory sequence of DNA that is 10,000 base pairs away from the gene it regulates is mutated. The result is that the gene being regulated is now expressed at a higher rate compared to when this regulatory sequence was not mutated. What would this sequence of DNA best be called? A. silencer B. enhancer C. zinc finger motif D. activator protein

A. silencer

Personal genome sequencing assists with the recognition and determination of what? A. somatic genome mosaicism B. locations for introns C. silent mutations in the genome D. inheritable diseases and their alleles

A. somatic genome mosaicism

Which of the following is not included in the list of assumptions that pertain to a population in a Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium? A. some genotypes may have a selective advantage B. random mating C. no migration D. large population size and no genetic drift

A. some genotypes may have a selective advantage

Mutations that arise in nature, from no particular artificial agent, are called ________. A. spontaneous mutations B. induced mutations C. oblique mutations D. chromosomal aberrations

A. spontaneous mutations

If a species has diploid number of 10, but gave rise to progeny with 20 chromosomes, what term would we use to describe the progeny? A. tetraploid B. diploid C. haploid D. triploid

A. tetraploid

The invention of yeast artificial chromosomes (YACs) allowed for ________. A. the cloning of large DNA inserts B. cloning of small DNA inserts in high copy number C. ligate DNA into cloning vectors D. the expression human genes in yeast

A. the cloning of large DNA inserts

A proteome is defined as ________. A. the complete set of proteins encoded by a given genome B. a catalog of known structures for all proteins expressed in a cell C. the complete set of all posttranslational modifications occurring in a cell D. a catalog of what proteins are being expressed from a particular genome

A. the complete set of proteins encoded by a given genome

Which of the following is not a true statement about mitochondria? A. the mitochondrial genome is contained in the nucleus B. the mitochondria transcribe and translate their own genetic information C. mitochondria are found in plants and animals D. mitochondria are sites for cellular respiration

A. the mitochondrial genome is contained in the nucleus

Expression vectors differ from cloning vectors by ________. A. the presence of necessary sequences to initiate transcription and translation B. the ability to be introduced into host cells C. the presence of sequences necessary to initiate replication D. the presence of a selectable marker gene

A. the presence of necessary sequences to initiate transcription and translation

An Hfr strain (met+,his+, arg+, strs) is mated with an F- strain (met-, his-, arg-, strr), grown in complete media, then plated on minimal media supplemented with streptomycin, histidine, and arginine. The few colonies that grow on the plate indicate that ________. A. the wild-type methionine gene has been transferred from Hfr to F- B. the wild-type histidine and arginine genes and streptomycin resistance gene have been transferred from Hfr to F- C. all the Hfr genes have been transferred to the F- strain D. the wild-type histidine and arginine genes have been transferred from Hfr to F-

A. the wild-type methionine gene has been transferred from Hfr to F-

At what level is genetic regulation considered most likely in prokaryotes? A. transcriptional B. capping C. polyadenylation of the 3' end of the mRNAs D. intron processing

A. transcriptional

Which of the following makes staggered cuts in chromosomal DNA into which transposable elements can insert? A. transposase B. AP endonuclease C. gyrase D. ligase

A. transposase

If a species has a haploid number of 10, what term would we use to describe an individual with 11 chromosomes? A. trisomic B. triploid C. eusomic D. haploid

A. trisomic

The mutagen that cause thymine dimers is/are ________. A. ultraviolet light B. free radicals C. 5-bromouracil D. ethylmethane sulfonate

A. ultraviolet light

Assume that the genes for the recessive traits of tan body and bare wings are 15 map units apart on chromosome II in Drosophila. Assume also that a tan-bodied, bare-winged female was mated to a wild-type male and that the resulting F1 phenotypically wild-type females were then mated to tan-bodied, bare-winged males. Of 1000 offspring, what would be the expected phenotypes, and in what numbers would they be expected? A. wild type = 425: tan-bare = 425: tan = 75: bare = 75 B. wild type = 150: tan-bare = 150: tan = 350: bare = 350 C. wild type = 350: tan-bare = 350: tan = 150: bare = 150 D. wild type = 75: tan-bare = 75: tan = 425: bare = 425

A. wild type = 425: tan-bare = 425: tan = 75: bare = 75

The white-eye gene in Drosophilais recessive and sex-linked. Assume that a white-eyed female is mated to a wild-type male. What would be the phenotypes of the offspring? A. 1/2 wild-type females, 1/4 wild-type males, 1/4 white-eyed males B. 1/2 wild-type females, 1/2 white-eyed males C. 1/2 wild-type males, 1/4 wild-type females, 1/4 white-eyed females D. 1/4 wild-type females, 1/4 white-eyed females, 1/4 wild-type males, 1/4 white-eyed males

B. 1/2 wild-type females, 1/2 white-eyed males

Which chromosome pairs does familial Down's Syndrome involve? A. 2 and 13 B. 14 and 21 C. 1 and 14 D. 21 and 13

B. 14 and 21

With incomplete dominance, a likely ratio resulting from a monohybrid cross would be ________. A. 3:1 B. 1:2:1 C. 1:2:2:4 D. 9:3:3:1

B. 1:2:1

The 9:3:3:1 ratio is typical of a dihybrid cross in which complete dominance and independent assortment occur. What is the dihybrid ratio with independent assortment of polygenes with additive and nonadditive alleles? A. 1:2:4:2:1 B. 1:4:6:4:1 C. 1:1:1:1 D. 9:3:3:1

B. 1:4:6:4:1

The sex of birds, some insects, and other organisms is determined by a ZWchromosomal arrangement in which the males have like sex chromosomes (ZZ) and females are ZW (similar to XYin humans). Assume that a recessive lethal allele on the Zchromosome causes death of an embryo in birds. What sex ratio would result in the offspring if a cross were made between a male heterozygous for the lethal allele and a normal female? A. 4:1 male to female B. 2:1 male to female C. 1:1 male to female D. 3:1 male to female

B. 2:1 male to female

If 15 percent of the nitrogenous bases in a sample of DNA from a particular organism is thymine, what percentage should be cytosine? A. 30 percent B. 35 percent C. 70 percent D. 15 percent

B. 35 percent

Assume that there are 12 map units between two loci in the mouse and that you are able to microscopically observe meiotic chromosomes in this organism. If you examined 200 primary oocytes, in how many would you expect to see a chiasma between the two loci? A. 24 B. 48 C. 98 D. 12

B. 48

What percent of the human genome is composed of highly repetitive DNA? A. 1% B. 5% C. 12% D. 21%

B. 5%

Assume that two genes are 80 map units apart on chromosome II of Drosophila and that a cross is made between a doubly heterozygous female and a homozygous recessive male. What percent recombination would be expected in the offspring of this type of cross? A. 80 percent B. 50 percent C. 40 percent D. 20 percent

B. 50 percent

Albinism is an autosomal recessive trait in humans. Assume that there are 100 albinos (aa) in a population of 1 million. How many individuals would be expected to be homozygous normal (AA) under equilibrium conditions? A. 10,000 B. 980,100 C. 999,900 D. 19,800

B. 980,100

Which phenotypic ratio is likely to occur in crosses of two completely dominant, independently segregating gene pairs when both parents are fully heterozygous? A. 1:1:1:1 B. 9:3:3:1 C. 2:4:6:8 D. 3:2:3:1

B. 9:3:3:1

Splice sites between exons and introns can be predicted since most introns begin with ________ and end with ________. A. AT:CA B. CT: AG C. AG: CT D. CA: AT

B. CT: AG

If a scientist changed a cell's ionic composition and complementarity between DNA strands could no longer occur, what would the scientist first detect? A. ribosomes would move into the nucleus B. DNA becomes single stranded C. DNA strands become shorter D. RNA would start binding to DNA

B. DNA becomes single stranded

During interphase of the cell cycle, ________. A. cytokinesis occurs B. DNA content essentially doubles C. the nuclear membrane disappears D. sister chromatids move to opposite poles

B. DNA content essentially doubles

Which of the following relaxes supercoiling by single or double strand cuts in the DNA ahead of the replication fork? A. DNA helicase B. DNA gyrase C. single stranded binding protein D. primase

B. DNA gyrase

Methods for determining the linkage group and genetic map in humans involve ________. A. twin spots and tetrad analysis B. DNA markers C. dihybrid test crosses D. gamete genotyping

B. DNA markers

F'-lac+ is "mated" with an F- strain with a mutated lac gene. The F- strain will become ________. A. F+ B. F'-lac+/lac- C. Hfr lac+ D. remain F-, lac-

B. F'-lac+/lac-

The sequencing of the human genome led to the realization that chromosome 19 contains many genes while chromosomes 13 and Y contain relatively few. What does this finding imply about the density of genes in a genome? A. Genes have no organization and randomly appear throughout the genome and chromosomes. B. Genes are not uniformly distributed and appear in clusters separated by gene deserts. C. Genes are uniformly distributed on chromosomes but not through the entire genome. D. Genes are uniformly distributed throughout the genome.

B. Genes are not uniformly distributed and appear in clusters separated by gene deserts.

A number of mechanisms operate to maintain genetic diversity in a population. Why is such diversity favored? A. Greater genetic diversity increases the chances of haploidy. B. Genetic diversity may better adapt a population to inevitable changes in the environment. C. Diversity leads to inbreeding advantages. D. Homozygosity is an evolutionary advantage.

B. Genetic diversity may better adapt a population to inevitable changes in the environment.

Who was the Augustinian monk that conducted a decade of experiments on the garden pea, eventually showing that traits are passed from parents to offspring in predictable ways? A. Francis Crick B. Gregor Mendel C. Alfred Wallace D. Aristotle

B. Gregor Mendel

Which of the following characteristics is not associated with histones? A. Histones octamers are found within nucleosomes. B. Histones are negatively charged C. There are five types of histones. D. Histones play a role in DNA folding.

B. Histones are negatively charged

One major difference between prokaryotic and eukaryotic genes is that eukaryotic genes can contain internal sequences, called ________, which get removed in the mature message. A. promoters B. Introns C. exons D. enhancers

B. Introns

Which of the following has one Barr body? A. Klinefelter's B. Klinefelter's and normal female C. Triplo-X female D. Turner's

B. Klinefelter's and normal female

Which one of the following is found in eukaryotic mRNAs upstream of the AUG and increases initiation efficiency? A. Shine-Delgarno sequence B. Kozak sequence C. initiation sequence D. TATA box

B. Kozak sequence

If lactose is accumulating outside of E. coliand is unable to enter, then which structural gene of the lac operon is most likely mutated? A. LacX B. LacY C. LacZ D. LacA

B. LacY

Which of the following elements of the lacoperon encodes a protein that facilitates the entry of lactose into the bacterial cell? A. LacI B. LacY C. LacA D. LacZ

B. LacY

In a population of 10,000 individuals, in which 3600 are MM, 1600 are NN, and 4800 are MN, what are the frequencies of the M alleles and the N alleles? A. M = 0.64; N = 0.36 B. M = 0.6; N = 0.4 C. M = 0.4; N = 0.6 D. M = 0.36; N = 0.64

B. M = 0.6; N = 0.4

Which of the following elements allows for homologous pairing in meiosis? A. Xic B. PARS C. SRY D. MSY

B. PARS

The advent of genomic sequencing and annotations using bioinformatics has provided data about prokaryotic genomes. Which of the following claims could be refuted using this data? A. All bacterial genomes are circular. B. Prokaryote genomes contain introns. C. Bacterial genomes are always smaller than eukaryotic genomes. D. Prokaryotes have a single chromosome.

B. Prokaryote genomes contain introns.

Two modular elements that appear as consensus sequences upstream from RNA polymerase II transcription start sites are ________. A. rDNA and nucleolar organizers B. TATA and CAAT C. TTAA and CCTT D. enhancers and telomeres

B. TATA and CAAT

When considering the initiation of transcription, one often finds consensus sequences located in the region of the DNA where RNA polymerase(s) binds. Which of the following is a common consensus sequence? A. GGTTC B. TATAAT C. any trinucleotide repeat D. TTTTAAAA

B. TATAAT

In the classic experiment conducted by Hershey and Chase, why was the pellet radioactive in the centrifuge tube that contained bacteria with viruses? A. The radioactive protein coats of the viruses were in the pellet. B. The bacteria were in the pellet, many of which contained the radioactive viral DNA. C. The bacteria were in the pellet, and they had incorporated radioactive proteins into their cell membranes. D. The radioactive viruses (coats plus DNA) were in the pellet.

B. The bacteria were in the pellet, many of which contained the radioactive viral DNA.

In regards to mRNA stability, what is the effect of decapping enzymes? A. The m7G cap of mRNAs is stabilized allowing mRNAs to be protected at the 5' end. B. The m7G cap of mRNAs is removed causing mRNAs to be degraded from the 5' end. C. The polyadenylation of mRNAs is removed and mRNAs are degraded from the 3' end. D. The polyadenylation of mRNAs is stabilized allowing mRNAs to be protected at the 3' end.

B. The m7G cap of mRNAs is removed causing mRNAs to be degraded from the 5' end.

Which of the following describes the product law? A. The probability of two or more independent events occurring simultaneously is equal to the sum of their individual probabilities. B. The probability of two or more independent events occurring simultaneously is equal to the product of their individual probabilities. C. The probably of two linked events occurring simultaneously is equal to the probabilities of each individual event. D. The product of the sum of the probabilities of two simultaneous events describes the ability of those two events to occur together.

B. The probability of two or more independent events occurring simultaneously is equal to the product of their individual probabilities.

Assume that you are told that a particular organism, Drosophila, has the XO chromosome complement. You are also told that the autosomal complement is a normal 2n. You know that in humans the XO complement is female determining. What would be the sex of this fly and why? A. This fly would be female due to no Y chromosome. B. This fly would be male due to an X:A ratio of 1/2. C. This fly would be considered intersex based on it's X:A ratio. D. This fly would be a female due to the presence of the X.

B. This fly would be male due to an X:A ratio of 1/2.

Which scientist proposed that physical exchange due to crossing over between chromosomes leads to genetic recombination? A. F.A. Janssens B. Thomas Morgan C. James Watson D. Walter Sutton

B. Thomas Morgan

In Drosophila, sex is determined by a balance between the number of haploid sets of autosomes and the number of ________. A. chromomeres B. X chromosomes C. Y chromosomes D. centromeres

B. X chromosomes

Which human condition is caused by unrepaired UV-induced lesions? A. Huntington's B. Xeroderma pigmentosum C. Cystic fibrosis D. Marfan syndrome

B. Xeroderma pigmentosum

Which of the following elements represents a large untranslated transcript involved in inactivation? A. Xic B. Xist C. SRY D. MSY

B. Xist

Which of the following is an accurate comparison of a cDNA library and a genomic library? A. a cDNA library is used to study regulatory regions and a genomic library is used to study coding regions B. a cDNA library includes only genes that have been expressed and a genomic library includes both coding and noncoding DNA C. a cDNA library includes both coding and noncoding DNA and a genomic library includes only genes that have been expressed D. a cDNA library is used to study genome structure and a genomic library is used to study expression patterns

B. a cDNA library includes only genes that have been expressed and a genomic library includes both coding and noncoding DNA

Which statement best describes an example of a mutation in a tumor-suppressor gene? A. overexpression of a signal transduction molecule that promotes cell growth B. a mutation that makes a cell unable to undergo programmed cell death C. a mutation that causes cyclins to be expressed at all times D. a mutation that places a receptor tyrosine kinase in a continuous "on" state

B. a mutation that makes a cell unable to undergo programmed cell death

In humans, the genetic basis for determining the sex "male" is accomplished by the presence of ________. A. high levels of estrogen B. a portion of the Y chromosome C. one X chromosome D. a balance between the number of X chromosomes and the number of haploid sets of autosomes

B. a portion of the Y chromosome

What is a quantitative trait locus (QTL)? A. a region of a chromosome highly influenced by environmental (nongenetic) factors B. a region of a chromosome that accounts for all of the additive genetic variation contributing to a quantitative trait C. a region of a chromosome that contains one or more genes contributing to a quantitative trait D. a specific gene known to control the expression of a phenotype

B. a region of a chromosome that accounts for all of the additive genetic variation contributing to a quantitative trait

Early in the 1900s, Sir Archibald Garrod studied a number of metabolic defects in humans. One particular disorder involved the inability to metabolize homogentisic acid. What is the name of this disorder? A. phenylketonuria B. alkaptonuria C. albinism D. homogentinuria

B. alkaptonuria

Transposons, or jumping genes, are DNA elements that move within the genome. In which organisms are transposons found? A. eukaryotes B. all organisms C. bacteria D. mammals

B. all organisms

Spliceforms with different 3' ends are produced by ________. A. mutually exclusive exons B. alternative polyadenylation C. alternative 3' splice sites D. alternative promoters

B. alternative polyadenylation

What is one cause for the 21,000 protein encoding sequences in the human genome producing between 200,000 and 1 million different proteins? A. restriction enzymes B. alternative splicing C. CRISPR-Cas systems D. SNPs

B. alternative splicing

Narrow-sense heritability (h2) represents ________. A. an estimate of the contribution of dominance genetic variance to phenotypic variance B. an estimate of the contribution of additive genetic variance to phenotypic variance C. the contribution of genotype by environment interaction variance to the total phenotypic variance D. an estimate of the contribution of interactive genetic variance to phenotypic variance

B. an estimate of the contribution of additive genetic variance to phenotypic variance

Replication origins in yeast are called ________. A. chromatin associated factors B. autonomous replicating sequences C. none of these are names for yeast origins D. nuclear organizing regions

B. autonomous replicating sequences

Which terms accurately reflect the nature of replication of the chromosome in E. coli? A. unidirectional and fixed point of initiation B. bidirectional and fixed point of initiation C. unidirectional and reciprocal D. multirepliconic and telomeric

B. bidirectional and fixed point of initiation

What defines a competent bacterial cell? A. capability to grow in minimal media B. capability of uptake of foreign DNA from their environment C. the ability to transfer DNA to recipient cells D. immunity to phage infection

B. capability of uptake of foreign DNA from their environment

You are studying the phenotypic traits of bone density and muscle mass in cattle and find that the two traits have a correlation coefficient of 0.97. What is the interpretation of this statistic? A. there is a cause and effect relationship between the two traits B. cattle with higher bone density tend to have larger muscle mass C. the two traits are controlled by the same genes D. cattle with higher bone density tend to have lower muscle mass

B. cattle with higher bone density tend to have larger muscle mass

Which of the following mediates the protein folding process by excluding the formations of alternative incorrect folding patterns? A. prions B. chaperones C. proteosomes D. initiation factors

B. chaperones

Genetic information contained in DNA that encodes for an amino acid is referred to as a(n) ________. A. allele B. codon C. trait D. nucleotide

B. codon

The Human Genome Project, which got under way in 1990, was an international effort to ________. A. clone deleterious genes from humans and study their mode of action B. determine the base sequence of the human genome and to identify all the genes within it C. collect samples of cells from all parts of the world in order to preserve human genetic diversity D. collect plant seeds in order to reduce the impact of human activity on plant extinction

B. determine the base sequence of the human genome and to identify all the genes within it

Somatic genome mosaicism is best described as ________. A. differences in gene location in the genome B. differences in genome sequence between cells of an organism due to errors incurred during division C. differences in proteins expressed between cells of an organism D. differences in genome sequence between cells of an organism due to errors in sequencing

B. differences in genome sequence between cells of an organism due to errors incurred during division

In a particular environments, a heritable trait and at one end of the phenotypic spectrum has a higher probability to survive and reproduce than other phenotypes. This is a case of ________. A. disruptive selection B. directional selection C. relative selection D. stabilizing selection

B. directional selection

The CRISPR-Cas system potentially represents one of the most power techniques in genetics as a result of its role in ________ associated with specific human disorders. A. Bregulating genes B. editing genes C. producing new genes D. identifying genes

B. editing genes

In the experiment by Avery et al. (1944), smooth bacterial cells were identified when live rough cells were mixed with an extract of heat-killed smooth cells treated with ________. A. chloramphenicol B. either RNase or protease C. either DNase, RNase, or protease D. DNase

B. either RNase or protease

A procedure that is often used to separate molecules by using their molecular charges is called ________. A. affinity chromatography B. electrophoresis C. heteroduplex analysis D. southern blot

B. electrophoresis

Which of the following would be an example of a cis-acting eukaryotic gene regulatory element? A. TATA binding protein B. enhancer C. general transcription factors D. RNA polymerase

B. enhancer

Which cluster of terms accurately reflects the nature of DNA replication in prokaryotes? A. fixed point of initiation, bidirectional, conservative B. fixed point of initiation, bidirectional, semiconservative C. fixed point of initiation, unidirectional, conservative D. random point of initiation, bidirectional, semiconservative

B. fixed point of initiation, bidirectional, semiconservative

The cross GE/ge× ge/ge produces the following progeny: GE/ge 404, ge/ge 396, gE/ge 97, Ge/ge 103. From these data, one can conclude that the recombinant progeny are ________. A. GE/ge and ge/ge B. gE/ge and Ge/ge C. ge/ge. gE/ge, and Ge/ge D. GE/ge and Ge/ge

B. gE/ge and Ge/ge

Which term is given to the total genetic information carried by all members of a population? A. race B. gene pool C. genome D. breeding unit

B. gene pool

In small isolated populations, allele frequencies can fluctuate considerably. The term that applies to this circumstance is ________. A. genetic isolation B. genetic drift C. stabilizing selection D. natural selection

B. genetic drift

Mendel utilized the garden pea, Pisum sativumfor his studies based on features that include all but ________. A. easy to grow B. has visible features with a wide spectrum of intermediates C. can generate a large number of progeny D. reaches maturity in a single season

B. has visible features with a wide spectrum of intermediates

A mating between an Hfr strain of E. coliwith an F- strain will yield ________. A. high rate of recombination and frequent transfer of the F factor B. high rate of recombination and rare transfer of the F factor C. low rate of recombination and frequent transfer of the F factor D. frequent transfer of the F factor and no transfer of chromosomal genes

B. high rate of recombination and rare transfer of the F factor

Which of the following is incorrect? A. sex chromosomes are not strictly homologous B. homologous chromosomes contain identical genetic information C. a locus is a gene site on a chromosome D. an allele is an alternate form of the same gene

B. homologous chromosomes contain identical genetic information

Assume that a cross is made between AaBb and aabb plants and that the offspring fall into approximately equal numbers of the following groups: AaBb, Aabb, aaBb, aabb. These results are consistent with ________. A. complete linkage B. independent assortment C. alternation of generations D. complete linkage

B. independent assortment

Which human virus is not a significant contributor to virus-induced cancers? A. Epstein-Barr B. influenza A C. hepatitis C D. HIV-1

B. influenza A

Two labs perform cotransformation experiments for genes A and B. Lab 1 finds these genes cotransformed into 8% of recipient cells: whereas lab 2 observes 3% cotransformation of these genes. Which lab shows genes A and B to be more closely linked? A. lab 2 B. lab 1

B. lab 1

Which of the following is the side of the replication fork where synthesis is discontinuous? A. template strand B. lagging strand C. leading strand D. origin of replication

B. lagging strand

Bacteriophages engage in two interactive cycles with bacteria. What are these cycles? A. heteroduplex and homoduplex B. lytic and lysogenic C. auxotrophic and prototrophic D. lytic and prototrophic

B. lytic and lysogenic

A partially diploid bacterial cell is referred to as a(n) ________. A. heterozygote B. merozygote C. hemiploid D. hemizygote

B. merozygote

The presence of more than two alternative forms of a given gene would be called ________. A. alternation of generations B. multiple alleles C. codominance D. hemizygosity

B. multiple alleles

What is the original source of genetic variation in a population? A. independent assortment B. mutation C. random mating D. crossing over

B. mutation

Which of the following is viewed as a major cause of aneuploidy? A. recombination B. nondisjunction C. pericentric inversion D. reciprocal tranlocations

B. nondisjunction

A mutation in a gene that results in a loss of a functional product of that gene best defines what type of mutation? A. multiple allelism B. null C. incomplete dominance D. gain of function

B. null

Which of the following data were generated by Creighton and McClintock that supported crossing over in homologous chromosomes? A. increase of recombinants by exposure to mutagens B. observable exchange of cytological features C. mobile DNA elements D. electron microscopy images

B. observable exchange of cytological features

For an individual with the XXY chromosomal composition, the expected number of Barr bodies in interphase cells is ________. A. three B. one C. zero D. two

B. one

What type of inversion has break points that do not proximally flank the centromere? A. acentric B. paracentric C. dicentric D. pericentric

B. paracentric

It is now known that the 23S rRNA performs the function that was originally attributed to the enzyme peptidyl transferase. What is that function? A. elongation factors binding to the large ribosomal subunit B. peptide bond formation during protein synthesis C. discontinuous strand replication D. base additions during mRNA synthesis

B. peptide bond formation during protein synthesis

What type of inversion has break points that flank the centromere? A. acentric B. pericentric C. paracentric D. dicentric

B. pericentric

The physical expression of a trait is referred to as a(n) ________. A. gene B. phenotype C. allele D. genotype

B. phenotype

The clearing made by bacteriophages in a "lawn" of bacteria on an agar plate is called a ________. A. prophage B. plaque C. lysogenic zone D. phage zone

B. plaque

The diversity of alleles and most loci reflect ________. A. the strength of natural selection B. population size and the accumulation of neutral mutations C. the strength of sexual selection in the population D. levels of inbreeding in the population

B. population size and the accumulation of neutral mutations

The process of error correction of mismatched bases carried out by DNA polymerases is called ________. A. mismatch repair B. proofreading C. nucleotide excision repair D. base excision repair

B. proofreading

Which of the following represents the correct sequence of events in mitosis? A. telophase-prophase-prometaphase-metaphase-anaphase B. prophase-prometaphase-metaphase-anaphase-telophase C. prometaphase-prophase-metaphase-anaphase-telophase D. prophase-metaphase-prometaphase-anaphase-telophase

B. prophase-prometaphase-metaphase-anaphase-telophase

The process that leads to the development of haploid gametes is best described as ________. A. replication B. segregation C. independent assortment D. Mendelian inheritance

B. segregation

Organized by the centrioles, what structures are important in the movement of chromosomes during cell division? A. mitochondria B. spindle fibers C. chloroplasts D. centromeres

B. spindle fibers

What is the term given to the theory which put forth the idea that living organisms could arise by incubating nonliving components? A. evolution B. spontaneous generation C. natural selection D. preformation

B. spontaneous generation

Which of the following characteristics is true of heterochromatin? A. found in genetically active regions of the chromosome B. stain more deeply during interphase C. include regions of DNA that remain largely uncoiled D. not located within centromeres or telomeres

B. stain more deeply during interphase

In paramecium the codon UAG encodes glutamine. What does this encode in humans? A. glutamine B. stop C. glycine D. start

B. stop

Which gene is dependent on the X:A ratio for it's function in sex determination in Drosophila? A. dsx B. sxl C. SRY D. tra

B. sxl

Which eukaryotic enzyme is responsible for replication of the ends of chromosomes? A. permissive mutations B. telomeres C. telomerases D. recessive inversions

B. telomeres

A bacteriophage that is capable of entering either a lytic or lysogenic cycle is called a(n) ________. A. plaque-forming unit B. temperate bacteriophage C. virulent bacteriophage D. plasmid

B. temperate bacteriophage

Broad-sense heritability (H2) represents ________. A. an estimate of the contribution of dominance genetic variance to phenotypic variance B. the contribution of total genotypic variance to the total phenotypic variance C. an estimate of the contribution of additive genetic variance to phenotypic variance D. the contribution of genotype by environment interaction variance to the total phenotypic variance

B. the contribution of total genotypic variance to the total phenotypic variance

In the Hardy-Weinberg equation the term (2pq) represents ________. A. the observed number of homozygotes an equilibrium population with allele frequencies p and q B. the expected number of heterozygotes an equilibrium population with allele frequencies p and q C. the observed number of heterozygotes an equilibrium population with allele frequencies p and q D. the expected number of homozygotes in an equilibrium population with allele frequencies p and q

B. the expected number of heterozygotes an equilibrium population with allele frequencies p and q

The term heritability is used to describe ________. A. how related any two individuals are in a population B. the proportion of phenotypic variation in a population that is due to genetic factors C. how much of a trait is due to genetics D. the extent to which an individual's phenotype is due to their genotype

B. the proportion of phenotypic variation in a population that is due to genetic factors

By their experimentation using the Neurosporafungus, Beadle and Tatum were able to propose the far-reaching hypothesis that ________. A. more than one codon can specify a given amino acid B. the role of a specific gene is to produce a specific enzyme C. prototrophs will grow only if provided with nutritional supplements D. several different enzymes may be involved in the same step in a biochemical pathway

B. the role of a specific gene is to produce a specific enzyme

The primary structure of a protein is determined by ________. A. hydrogen bonds formed between the components of the peptide linkage B. the sequence of amino acids C. pleated sheets D. a series of helical domains

B. the sequence of amino acids

When examining the genetic code, it is apparent that ________. A. there can be more than one amino acid for a particular codon B. there can be more than one codon for a particular amino acid C. the code is ambiguous in that the same codon can code for two or more amino acids D. AUG is a terminating codon

B. there can be more than one codon for a particular amino acid

The appearance of puffs within polytene chromosomes is thought to be a visible manifestation of ________. A. DNA replication B. transcription of RNA C. translation of proteins D. posttranscriptional modifications

B. transcription of RNA

What type of genetic regulation seems to be the most similar between prokaryotes and eukaryotes? A. RNA splicing regulation B. transcriptional regulation C. 5'-capping regulation D. poly-A tail addition

B. transcriptional regulation

When referring to attenuation in regulation of the trpoperon, it would be safe to say that when there are high levels of tryptophan available to the organism, ________. A. tryptophan is inactivating the repressor protein B. transcriptional termination is likely C. the trp operon is being transcribed at relatively high levels D. translational termination is likely

B. transcriptional termination is likely

If two sperm fertilize a single ovum the resulting zygote would be considered a ________. A. diploid B. triploid C. haploid D. tetraploid

B. triploid

Which protein modification is most closely linked to protein degradation? A. phosphorylation B. ubiquitination C. acetylation D. glycosylation

B. ubiquitination

Genotypic variance in quantitative traits is summarized in the equation VG = VA + VD + VI. What component of genotypic variance is represented by VA? A. variance due to interaction between genotype and environment B. variance due to interaction of additive alleles C. variance due to non-genetic factors D. variance due to epistatic interactions among loci

B. variance due to interaction of additive alleles

Assume that a culture of E. coli was grown for approximately 50 generations in 15N (provided in the medium in the ammonium ion), which is a heavy isotope of nitrogen (14N). You extract the DNA from the culture, and it has a density of 1.723 gm/cm3 (water = 1.00 gm/cm3). From the literature, you determine that DNA containing only the common form of nitrogen, 14N, has a density of 1.700 gm/cm3. Bacteria from the 15N culture were washed in buffer and transferred to 14N medium for one generation immediately after which the DNA was extracted and its density determined. What would be the expected approximate density of the extracted DNA? A. 1.700 gm/cm3 B. 1.723 gm/cm3 C. 1.712 gm/cm3 D. 1.700 and 1.712 gm/cm3

C. 1.712 gm/cm3

A deficiency of the enzyme glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase (G6PD) is inherited as an X-linked recessive trait in humans. A phenotypically normal woman (whose father had G6PD) is married to a man with normal G6PD function. What fraction of their sons would be expected to have G6PD deficiency? A. 0 B. 1/4 C. 1/2 D. all

C. 1/2

How many five letter codons could be made from a four nucleotide code? A. 54 B. 256 C. 1024 D. 64

C. 1024

If a species has a haploid number of 10, how many chromosomes would an individual of this species have if it were 2n + 3? A. 25 B. 10 C. 23 D. 15

C. 23

What is the expected proportion of offspring with sickle-cell anemia if both partners are heterozygous for the sickle-cell anemia gene? A. 50% B. 75% C. 25% D. 100%

C. 25%

A couple in which one parent is blood type A and the other is blood type B, and both have normal pigmentation, have a child that is blood type O and has albinism. What is the probability that their next child will have normal pigmentation and blood type A? A. 1/8 B. 9/16 C. 3/16 D. 1/16

C. 3/16

If a typical somatic cell has 64 chromosomes, how many chromosomes are expected in each gamete of that organism? A. 64 B. 128 C. 32 D. 16

C. 32

A recessive allele in dogs causes white spots. If two solid colored dogs are mated and produce a spotted offspring, what is the percentage chance their next puppy would be solid colored? A. about 90% B. 25% C. 75% D. 50%

C. 75%

How many different possible gametes can be obtained from an organism with the following genotype AaBbCc? A. 16 B. 9 C. 8 D. 4

C. 8

If an F2 generation from a F1 self-cross always yields offspring in a 3:1 phenotypic ratio, which of the following P crosses could have occurred? A. AA × AA B. aa × Aa C. AA × aa D. Aa × AA

C. AA × aa

Which molecule pair combines to directly regulate progression through the cell cycle? A. pRB and GDP B. p21 and MDM2 C. CDK and cyclin D. E-cadherin and TIMP

C. CDK and cyclin

Gel electrophoresis provides a tool to separate fragments of DNA by size. Which of the following is a true statement? A. DNA moves toward the negative electrode: larger fragments run faster B. DNA moves toward the negative electrode: smaller fragments run faster C. DNA moves toward the positive electrode: smaller fragments run faster D. DNA moves toward the positive electrode: larger fragments run faster

C. DNA moves toward the positive electrode: smaller fragments run faster

Viral chromosomes exist in a variety of conformations and can be made up of ________. A. protein- or lipid-coding sequences B. DNA only C. DNA or RNA D. DNA, RNA, or protein

C. DNA or RNA

Which of the following is believed to be responsible for removing the primer and filling in the gaps left behind during replication? A. DNA polymerase II B. DNA polymerase III C. DNA polymerase I D. DNA polymerase IV

C. DNA polymerase I

All of these are known to cause cancer EXCEPT ________. A. chronic infections B. some viruses C. DNA repair D. radiation

C. DNA repair

What significant genetic function occurs in the S phase of the cell cycle? A. cytokinesis B. centromere division C. DNA synthesis D. chromosome condensation

C. DNA synthesis

Which is not part of the metallothionein 2A gene promoter region? A. GC B. ARE C. ERE D. MRE

C. ERE

DNA in bacterial chromosomes is found to be associated with which of the following proteins? A. H1 B. H2A C. HU D. H3

C. HU

Some lacoperon mutations allow for beta galactosidase to be expressed constitutively even in the absence of lactose. Which of the following lacgenotypes would allow for this constitutive expression? A. I+ P- O+ Z+ Y+ A+ B. I+ P+ O+ Z+ Y+ A+ C. I+ P+ Oc Z+ Y+ A+ D. I+ P+ O+ Z- Y+ A+

C. I+ P+ Oc Z+ Y+ A+

Place the following processes of most cloning experiments in the order in which they would most likely occur. I. transforming bacteria II. plating bacteria on selective medium III. cutting DNA with restriction endonucleases IV. ligating DNA fragments A. I, II, III, IV B. III, I, II, IV C. III, IV, I, II D. IV, III, II, I

C. III, IV, I, II

Gene regulation in eukaryotes is more complicated than bacterial gene regulation. Which of the following describes a gene regulation event that occurs in eukaryotes but not in bacteria? A. In eukaryotes, transcription and translation occur in the same cellular compartment. B. In eukaryotes, mRNA does not need to be modified. C. In eukaryotes, histones must be added or removed to regulate gene expression. D. In eukaryotes, proteins are post-translationally modified, whereas bacterial proteins are never post-translationally modified.

C. In eukaryotes, histones must be added or removed to regulate gene expression.

Introns are known to contain termination codons (UAA, UGA, or UAG), yet these codons do not interrupt the coding of a particular protein. Why? A. These triplets cause frameshift mutations, but not termination. B. UAA, UGA, and UAG are initiator codons, not termination codons. C. Introns are removed from mRNA before translation. D. Exons are spliced out of mRNA before translation.

C. Introns are removed from mRNA before translation.

If a Drosophila that has a white eye mutation on one homolog of chromosome 1 and a deletion in the same interval of the other homolog, what would be the phenotypic outcome and why? A. It would have white eye due to the homozygosity of the recessive allele. B. It would be lethal due to deletions being lethal. C. It would have white eyes due to the deletion uncovering the recessive white mutation. D. It would be wild type due to the heterozygous state of the deletion.

C. It would have white eyes due to the deletion uncovering the recessive white mutation.

Which of the following is not a part of the tRNA structure? A. variable loop B. acceptor stem C. Kozak stem D. D stem

C. Kozak stem

Which of the following statements regarding mitochondria and chloroplasts is false? A. They contain genetic information remarkably similar to bacteria and viruses. B. They both typically contain circular, double-stranded DNA. C. Mitochondria typically contain many more introns than chloroplasts. D. They are inherited through maternal cytoplasm in most organisms.

C. Mitochondria typically contain many more introns than chloroplasts.

Which of the following researchers deciphered the first specific coding sequences? A. Weiss B. Hershey and Chase C. Nirenberg and Matthaei D. Watson and Crick

C. Nirenberg and Matthaei

Which of the following is nota true statement regarding retroviruses? A. DNA generated from retroviruses can potentially integrate into the host's genome. B. The human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) is an example of a retrovirus. C. RNA is converted to DNA by DNA polymerase. D. RNA serves as genetic material.

C. RNA is converted to DNA by DNA polymerase.

Which of the following elements is responsible for determining male sex in humans? A. PARS B. Xist C. SRY D. Xic

C. SRY

Which of the following is true about the second meiotic division? A. The products are four identical gametes. B. Synapsis occurs in the second meiotic division. C. Sister chromatids disjoin and are pulled to opposite poles. D. Nondisjunction would lead to extra bivalents forming.

C. Sister chromatids disjoin and are pulled to opposite poles.

In the early 1900s, two scientists noted there were many more genes than chromosome pairs, thus setting the stage for the suggestion that some gene loci might be linked during meiotic processes. Who were these two scientists? A. Watson and Crick B. Lederberg and Tatum C. Sutton and Boveri D. Sturtevant and Morgan

C. Sutton and Boveri

Which of the following is not a characteristic of the genetic code? A. The genetic code is commaless. B. The genetic code is degenerate. C. The genetic code is overlapping. D. The genetic code is universal.

C. The genetic code is overlapping.

The pre-initiation complex (PIC) contains several proteins. What would the direct consequence be if PIC failed to form? A. Replication would not be initiated. B. Translation would not be initiated. C. Transcription would not be initiated. D. mRNA splicing would not be initiated.

C. Transcription would not be initiated.

With which of the following would hemizygosity most likely be associated? A. incomplete dominance B. sex-limited inheritance C. X-linked inheritance D. autosomal dominance

C. X-linked inheritance

The Lygaeus mode of sex determination is the ________. A. XO/YY scheme B. XX/XO scheme C. XY/XX scheme D. scheme based on single translocations in the X chromosome

C. XY/XX scheme

Which of the following is a true statement? A. a bacterial colony found on minimal media consists of various prototroph cells B. a bacterial colony found on minimal media consists of cells derived from a single auxotroph cell C. a bacterial colony found on minimal media consists of cells derived from a single prototroph cell D. a bacterial colony found on minimal media consists of various auxotroph and prototroph cells

C. a bacterial colony found on minimal media consists of cells derived from a single prototroph cell

Traits such as height, general body structure, and skin color that show population frequencies distributed in a bell-shaped curve are most likely caused by genes that behave in a(n) ________ manner. A. dominant B. epistatic C. additive D. codominant

C. additive

Purines in RNA include ________. A. cytosine and uracil B. guanine and uracil C. adenine and guanine D. adenine and uracil

C. adenine and guanine

Mendel indicated that traits were made up of unit factors. Today, we call unit factors ________. A. genotypes B. genes C. alleles D. characters

C. alleles

A molecule that can change shape, and therefore function, in its interactions with other molecules is called ________. A. an enhancer B. an inducer C. allosteric D. a repressor

C. allosteric

What term most specifically describes when a polyploid organism contains an equivalent of four haploid genomes derived from separate species? A. tetraploidy B. autotetraploidy C. allotetraploidy D. aneuploidy

C. allotetraploidy

Which of the following is needed in order to direct CRISPR-Cas 9 to cut the specific area of the genome you are trying to manipulate? A. a specific palindromic sequence in the that area of the genome B. a PAM motif specific to the targeted area of the genome C. an sgRNA molecule designed to be complementary to the targeted area of the genome D. multiple restriction sites in the targeted area of the genome

C. an sgRNA molecule designed to be complementary to the targeted area of the genome

In the context of molecular genetics, reverse transcription PCR (RT-PCR) refers to ________. A. translating in the 3' to 5' direction B. assembling an RNA sequence from a DNA template C. assembling a DNA sequence from an mRNA template D. transcribing first, then translating

C. assembling a DNA sequence from an mRNA template

The basic structure of a nucleotide includes ________. A. amino acids B. phosphorus and zinc C. base, sugar, and phosphate D. mRNA, rRNA, and tRNA

C. base, sugar, and phosphate

How does one target specific DNA sequences of the template to be amplified by polymerase chain reaction? A. including ddNTPs in the PCR reaction B. by designing probes complementary to regions on both sides of the specific target C. by designing primers complementary to regions on both sides of the specific target D. cutting areas on both sides of the target sequence with the same restriction enzyme

C. by designing primers complementary to regions on both sides of the specific target

What conditions are likely to apply if the progeny from the cross AaBb× AaBb appear in the 9:3:3:1 ratio? A. gene interaction and independent assortment B. dihybrid cross with incomplete dominance C. complete dominance, independent assortment, and no gene interaction D. incomplete segregation and complete dominance

C. complete dominance, independent assortment, and no gene interaction

Quantitative inheritance involves the interaction of a number of gene loci. The pattern of genetic transmission typical of quantitative inheritance is ________. A. typical of Mendelian inheritance B. discontinuous distributions such as 3:1 C. continuous variation of phenotypic expression D. a 9:3:3:1 ratio

C. continuous variation of phenotypic expression

Regarding regulation of the trpoperon, what might one appropriately call the amino acid tryptophan? A. coactivator B. an enhancer C. corepressor D. inducer

C. corepressor

When an amino group in cytosine or adenine is converted to a keto group it is called ________. A. oxidative damage B. depurination C. deamination D. replication slippage

C. deamination

What was the Avery et al. (1944) contribution to the understanding of molecular biology? A. demonstration that chromosomes contain genetic material B. demonstration that RNA is the intermediate in the Central Dogma of Molecular Biology C. demonstration that DNA is the transforming principle from dead bacteria that can convert the phenotype of live bacteria D. demonstration that dead bacterial cells can come to life

C. demonstration that DNA is the transforming principle from dead bacteria that can convert the phenotype of live bacteria

How can cDNA libraries be used to gain insight into the genetic basis of the diseased state of a cell? A. determining the location of a gene of interest in the genome B. finding genes that have been deleted or duplicated in the genome C. determine which genes are differentially expressed in diseased and normal cells D. detect mutations in regulatory regions of the genome

C. determine which genes are differentially expressed in diseased and normal cells

In a particular environments, a heritable trait which is intermediate in the phenotypic spectrum has a lower probability to survive and reproduce relative to phenotypes at either extreme. This is a case of ________. A. stabilizing selection B. relative selection C. disruptive selection D. directional selection

C. disruptive selection

Gain-of-function mutations are associated with being ________. A. neutral B. wild type C. dominant D. recessive

C. dominant

Which of the following characteristics do bacterial chromosomes share with eukaryotic chromosomes? Both are composed of ________. A. single-stranded DNA B. single-stranded RNA C. double-stranded DNA D. circular DNA

C. double-stranded DNA

Which method is often used to analyze proteins and nucleic acids by physical separation when estimating genetic variation in populations? A. absorption spectrophotometry B. fluorometry C. electrophoresis D. centrifugation

C. electrophoresis

Which of the following is not a characteristic of the ABO gene locus? A. multiple alleles B. four possible phenotypes C. epistasis D. codominance

C. epistasis

Which of the following would be considered an alkylating agent? A. ethane B. heterocyclic amines C. ethylmethane sulfonate D. acetaldehyde

C. ethylmethane sulfonate

Some organisms contain much larger amounts of DNA than are apparently "needed." This is more typical in ________. A. viruses than in bacteria B. RNA viruses than in DNA viruses C. eukaryotes than in prokaryotes D. prokaryotes than in eukaryotes

C. eukaryotes than in prokaryotes

Living organisms are categorized into two major groups based on the presence or absence of a nucleus. What group is defined by the presence of a nucleus? A. virus B. eubacterium C. eukaryotic organism D. archaea

C. eukaryotic organism

A class of mutations that results in multiple contiguous amino acid changes in proteins is likely to be which of the following? A. transversion B. recombinant C. frameshift D. base analog

C. frameshift

Assuming one mutational event in a gene, on average, which of the following mutagens or mutational conditions would be expected to cause the most damage to a protein synthesized by such a mutagenized gene? A. 5-bromouracil B. 2-amino purine (base analog) C. frameshift D. ethylmethane sulfonate

C. frameshift

R plasmids often contain ________. A. genes associated with the fertility factor B. genes for antibody production C. genes for antibiotic resistance D. genes for protection to colicins

C. genes for antibiotic resistance

The study of the structure, function, and evolution of genes and genomes is referred to as ________. A. genetics B. bioinformatics C. genomics D. proteomics

C. genomics

Which of the following is a product of the protein encoded by lacZ? A. galactose B. lactose C. glucose and galactose D. glucose

C. glucose and galactose

Because of the mechanism of sex determination, males of many species can be neither homozygous nor heterozygous. Such males are said to be ________. A. complementary B. recessive C. hemizygous D. dominant

C. hemizygous

Considering the structure of double-stranded DNA, which kind(s) of bonds hold one complementary strand to the other? A. hydrophobic and hydrophilic B. ionic C. hydrogen D. covalent

C. hydrogen

Migration of chromosomes is made possible by the binding of the spindle to the ________. A. centrosome B. centriole C. kinetochore D. equatorial plate

C. kinetochore

Which of the following includes an appropriate use of an RNA or DNA probe? A. induce point mutations in the target DNA B. insert nucleotides into specific areas of the genome or library C. locate a specific gene or nucleotide sequence in a DNA library D. direct restriction enzymes to their cut site

C. locate a specific gene or nucleotide sequence in a DNA library

In situ hybridization is a molecular technique that may be utilized to ________. A. determine rates of gene transcription B. identify proteins C. locate of nucleotide sequences on chromosomes D. sequence DNA

C. locate of nucleotide sequences on chromosomes

The relationship between a gene and a messenger RNA is that ________. A. genes are made from mRNAs B. mRNAs make proteins, which then code for genes C. mRNAs are made from genes D. genes are structurally identical to mRNAs

C. mRNAs are made from genes

What is the specific application of reverse transcriptase in the preparation of cDNA? A. ligate RNA into cloning vectors B. recognize and cut specific C. make DNA copies of mRNA present in the cell D. ligate DNA into cloning vectors

C. make DNA copies of mRNA present in the cell

Which term would be applied to a regulatory condition that occurs when protein is associated with a particular section of DNA and greatly reduces transcription? A. induction B. reduction C. negative control D. positive control

C. negative control

Which of the following repair pathways focusses on double-strand break repair? A. nucleotide excision repair B. post replication repair C. nonhomologous end joining D. base excision repair

C. nonhomologous end joining

Once a protein is made, its biochemical or structural properties play a role in producing ________. A. chromosome B. genotype C. phenotype D. DNA

C. phenotype

Which type of bond links nucleotides in a single strand of DNA? A. electrostatic B. hydrophobic and hydrophilic C. phosphodiester D. hydrogen

C. phosphodiester

Name the general category into which double-stranded circular extrachromosomal DNA elements such as F factors, ColE1, and R would fall. A. plaque B. r-determinant C. plasmid D. capsid

C. plasmid

A neutral mutation is one that ________. A. is quickly eliminated by selection B. is found only in coding regions of the genome C. produces an allele that is functionally equivalent to the original allele D. is heavily favored by selection

C. produces an allele that is functionally equivalent to the original allele

Which of the following is an advantage of next generation sequencing (NGS) over first generation Sanger sequencing? A. the ability to produce much longer sequencing read data B. the ability to sequence RNA directly without producing cDNA first C. production of large amounts of data at a cheaper cost D. elimination of reactions involving polymerase

C. production of large amounts of data at a cheaper cost

What type of gene encodes products that normally promote cellular division? A. post-oncogene B. oncogene C. proto-oncogene D. cancer gene

C. proto-oncogene

Apurinic sites (AP sites) involve a spontaneous loss of a ________ in an intact double-helix DNA molecule. A. nucleotide B. Thymine C. purine D. pyrimidine

C. purine

Characteristics exhibited by continuously varying traits include ________. A. a 9:3:3:1 ratio B. sex-linked traits only C. quantitative traits D. autosomal traits only

C. quantitative traits

Which of the following is a major contributor to variation in gene density in eukaryotes? A. splice sites B. restriction sites C. repetitive sequences D. heterochromatin

C. repetitive sequences

Which of the following statements include two useful characteristics of cloning vectors? A. ability to integrate into the host chromosome and then causing a lytic cycle B. reverse transcriptase and ligase activities C. replication within host cells and antibiotic resistance gene(s) D. virulence and lysogenicity

C. replication within host cells and antibiotic resistance gene(s)

LacI codes for a(n) ________, and when LacI is mutated, the lac operon is ________. A. activator: constitutively expressed B. repressor: never expressed C. repressor: constitutively expressed D. activator: never expressed

C. repressor: constitutively expressed

A primary discovery to generate recombinant DNA molecules was the use of ________. A. spliceosomes B. bioinformatics C. restriction enzymes D. x-ray diffraction

C. restriction enzymes

Which of the following terms accurately describes the replication of DNA in vivo? A. nonlinear B. dispersive C. semiconservative D. conservative

C. semiconservative

Restriction endonucleases are especially useful if they generate "sticky" ends. What makes an end sticky? A. 5' cap B. poly-A sequences C. single-stranded complementary tails D. blunt ends

C. single-stranded complementary tails

A mutation that relieves the effects of a previous mutation is called a(n) ________. A. spontaneous mutation B. loss of function mutation C. suppressor mutation D. induced mutation

C. suppressor mutation

Which of the following is a type of mutation that relieves the effects of a previous mutation? A. null mutation B. transition C. suppressor mutation D. loss-of-function

C. suppressor mutation

Reverse transcriptaseis an enzyme found in association with retroviral activity. It has the property of ________. A. translation B. synthesis of RNA from a DNA template C. synthesis of DNA from an RNA template D. requiring no template

C. synthesis of DNA from an RNA template

The discontinuous aspect of replication of DNA in vivois caused by ________. A. topoisomerases cutting the DNA in a random fashion B. trinucleotide repeats C. the 5' to 3' polarity restriction. D. polymerase slippage

C. the 5' to 3' polarity restriction.

A microbiome is essential for human infant development. Where does an infant obtain the origins of its microbiome? A. The infant has a microbiome at conception. B. the hospital C. the mother D. the father

C. the mother

You would like to breed chickens to increase the number of eggs produced. To assess the effectiveness of a breeding program would have on this phenotype, it would be most useful to know ________. A. the broad sense heritability of egg number B. the contribution of total genotypic variance to the total phenotypic variance for egg number C. the narrow sense heritability of egg number D. the contribution of dominance genetic variance to the total phenotypic variance for egg number

C. the narrow sense heritability of egg number

Nutrigenomics is the study of ________. A. the vitamins and minerals in the genome B. the effect of nutrition on genome sequences C. the relationship between diet and the genome D. the effect of genomics on dietary desires

C. the relationship between diet and the genome

You are studying the phenotypic traits of bone density and muscle mass in cattle and find that the two traits have a correlation coefficient of 0. What is the interpretation of this statistic? A. there is a cause and effect relationship between the two traits B. cattle with higher bone density tend to have larger muscle mass C. there is no relationship between bone density and muscle mass D. cattle with higher bone density tend to have lower muscle mass

C. there is no relationship between bone density and muscle mass

DNA polymerase III adds nucleotides ________. A. to the 5' end of the primer B. in the place of the primer after it is removed C. to the 3' end of the primer D. to both ends of the primer

C. to the 3' end of the primer

Two formal terms used to describe categories of mutational nucleotide substitutions in DNA are ________. A. euchromatic and heterochromatic B. error prone and spontaneous C. transversions and transitions D. base analogs and frameshift

C. transversions and transitions

In meiosis a triploid would exhibit which meiotic pairing configuration? A. monovalent B. tetrad C. trivalent D. bivalent

C. trivalent

The meiotic cell cycle involves ________ number of cell division(s) and ________ number of DNA replication(s). A. two; zero B. one; two C. two; one D. one; one

C. two; one

The secondary structure of a protein includes ________. A. disulfide bridges B. alpha and gamma C. α-helix and β-pleated sheet D. gamma and delta

C. α-helix and β-pleated sheet

Assuming independent assortment, what proportion of the offspring of the cross AaBbCcDd × AabbCCddwill have the aabbccdd genotype? A. 1/512 B. 1/256 C. 1/64 D. 0

D. 0

Assume that A + T/G + C equals 0.5 in one strand of DNA. What is the ratio of these bases in the complementary strand? A. 0.25 B. 2.0 C. 1.0 D. 0.50

D. 0.50

Albinism, lack of pigmentation in humans, results from an autosomal recessive gene. Two parents with normal pigmentation have an albino child. What is the probability that their next two children will be albino? A. 3/4 B. 1/3 C. 1/2 D. 1/16

D. 1/16

Polydactyly is expressed when an individual has extra fingers and/or toes, and is transmitted via an autosomal dominant allele. Assume that a man with six fingers on each hand and six toes on each foot marries a woman with a normal number of digits. The couple has a son with normal hands and feet, but the couple's second child has extra digits. What is the probability that their next child will have polydactyly? A. 1/8 B. 3/4 C. 7/16 D. 1/2

D. 1/2

What would be the probability of occurrence of the triplet GCG in a heteropolymer experiment with a ratio of 2G:1C? A. 50.1% B. 67.2% C. 10.5% D. 14.8%

D. 14.8%

Genes A and B are 10 map units apart and genes B and C are 20 map units apart, with gene B located between genes A and C. What would be the expected amount of double crossovers for a trihybrid test cross? A. 30% B. 0.2% C. 20% D. 2.0%

D. 2.0%

The diploid chromosome number of an organism is usually represented as 2n. Humans have a diploid chromosome number of 46. What would be the expected haploid chromosome number in a human? A. 92 B. 24 C. 12 D. 23

D. 23

Assume that in a Hardy-Weinberg population, 9 percent of the individuals are of the homozygous recessive phenotype. What percentage are homozygous dominant? A. 42% B. 25% C. 30% D. 49%

D. 49%

Which of the following includes the three posttranscriptional modifications often seen in the maturation of mRNA in eukaryotes? A. 5'-poly(A) tail addition, insertion of introns, capping B. 3'-capping, 5'-poly(A) tail addition, splicing C. removal of exons, insertion of introns, capping D. 5'-capping, 3'-poly(A) tail addition, splicing

D. 5'-capping, 3'-poly(A) tail addition, splicing

The mutagen that is an analog of thymine and which anomalously pairs with guanine is/are ________. A. acetaldehyde B. ethylmethane sulfonate C. free radicals D. 5-bromouracil

D. 5-bromouracil

Assume that a cross is made between AaBb and aabb plants and that the offspring occur in the following numbers: 106 AaBb, 48 Aabb, 52 aaBb, 94 aabb. These results are consistent with which arrangement of alleles for the heterozygous parent plants? A. can't be determined B. ab/ab C. Ab/aB D. AB/ab

D. AB/ab

From one F+ strain the following three Hfr strains were derived, each shown with the first three markers transferred in an Hfr X F- cross. Hfr1...DAG-> Hfr2...GBE-> Hfr3...ECD-> The order of genes on the bacterial chromosome circle must be ________. (A is shown at both ends to represent circularity) A. ABCDGEA B. ACDGEBA C. AEGBCDA D. ADCEBGA

D. ADCEBGA

________ is a discipline involved in the development of both hardware and software for processing, storing, and retrieving nucleotide and protein data. A. Genomics B. Proteomics C. Recombinant DNA technology D. Bioinformatics

D. Bioinformatics

A derangement in which of the following general mechanisms appears to be fundamental in the formation of cancer cells? A. inversion B. methylation C. protein phosphorylation D. DNA repair

D. DNA repair

Which of the following is an example of heredity? A. Flies and molluscs both have eyes. B. Both moths and birds have wings and can fly. C. A man has low blood pressure due to medications. D. Dalmation dogs all have spots.

D. Dalmation dogs all have spots.

Which protein is responsible for the initial step in unwinding the DNA helix during replication of the bacterial chromosome? A. helicase B. topoisomerase C. telomerase D. Dna A

D. Dna A

What is segregation? A. Chromosomes can swap information during meiosis. B. Fertilization is random. C. During gamete formation, segregating pairs of unit factors assort independently of each other. D. During gamete formation, allele pairs are separated to form haploid gametes.

D. During gamete formation, allele pairs are separated to form haploid gametes.

If a euchromatic gene was translocated into a heterochromatic region of the new chromosome, what would be the effect on this gene activity? A. Gene expression would be normal. B. Gene expression would be completely turned on. C. Gene expression would slightly increase. D. Gene expression would be reduced.

D. Gene expression would be reduced.

Which of the following is the gene that codes for transacetylase in the lacoperon? A. LacY B. LacI C. LacA D. LacZ

D. LacA

If a reptile had a null mutation in the aromatase gene what would be the predicted outcome? A. Mostly Metamales. B. 1:1 male to female sex ratio. C. More intersex individuals. D. Males even in female producing temperatures.

D. Males even in female producing temperatures.

Which of the following researchers provided evidence for semiconservative replication in prokaryotes? A. DeLucia and Cairns B. Kornberg C. Taylor, Woods and Hughes D. Meselson and Stahl

D. Meselson and Stahl

The one-gene:one-enzyme hypothesis emerged from work on which two organisms? A. Drosophila and humans B. E. coli and yeast C. E. coli and humans D. Neurospora and Drosophila

D. Neurospora and Drosophila

Imagine you induce a null mutation in a ubiquitin ligase gene. What would you predict would be the phenotypic outcome of this mutation? A. Increased protein stability. B. Decreased protein stability. C. Increase in misfolded proteins. D. No effect due to multiple copies of the gene.

D. No effect due to multiple copies of the gene.

Which gene is correctly paired with the normal function of its protein product? A. c-myc: DNA repair B. TP53: tyrosine kinase C. c-kit: transcription factor D. RB1: binds E2F

D. RB1: binds E2F

Which one of the following is a sequence in bacteria that binds to the 16S rRNA to initiate translation? A. TATA box B. Kozak sequence C. initiation codon D. Shine-Delgarno sequence

D. Shine-Delgarno sequence

A mutation in which promoter region would result in a reduction in transcription level? A. TATA B. CAAT C. silencer D. TATA, GC, and CAAT

D. TATA, GC, and CAAT

Which of the following explains the pattern of degeneracy at the third position of the codon? A. The redundancy of the code B. RNA splicing C. The universal nature of the code D. The Wobble hypothesis

D. The Wobble hypothesis

Explain how an individual can have Down's Syndrome with a normal diploid set of chromosomes. A. The individual has an inversion in the DCSR 1 gene. B. The individual has duplication for all of the necessary genes. C. The individual has a deletion for all necessary genes. D. The individual has either a translocation of the DSCR or a duplication of the necessary genes.

D. The individual has either a translocation of the DSCR or a duplication of the necessary genes.

Which of the following characteristics is not associated with pseudogenes? A. They are duplicated copies of genes. B. They have undergone significant mutational alterations. C. They share homology with parent genes D. They are usually activated to produce proteins.

D. They are usually activated to produce proteins.

Assume that a culture of E. coli was grown for approximately 50 generations in 15N (provided in the medium in the ammonium ion), which is a heavy isotope of nitrogen (14N). You extract the DNA from the culture, and it has a density of 1.723 gm/cm3 (water = 1.00 gm/cm3). From the literature, you determine that DNA containing only the common form of nitrogen, 14N, has a density of 1.700 gm/cm3. Bacteria from the 15N culture were washed in buffer and transferred to 14N medium for one generation immediately after which the DNA was extracted and its density determined. Assuming that the molar percentage of adenine in the extracted DNA was 20 percent, what would be the expected molar percentages of the other nitrogenous bases in this DNA? A. Thymine = 30%, Guanine = 30%, Cytosine = 20% B. Thymine = 20%, Guanine = 20%, Cytosine = 20% C. Thymine = 20%, Guanine = 20%, Cytosine = 30% D. Thymine = 20%, Guanine = 30%, Cytosine = 30%

D. Thymine = 20%, Guanine = 30%, Cytosine = 30%

Which of the following is not a structural gene of the trp operon? A. TrpB B. TrpC C. TrpE D. TrpR

D. TrpR

During translation, which triplets signal chain termination? A. UGA B. UAA C. AUG D. UAA and UGA

D. UAA and UGA

Which of the following is the stop codon? A. AUG B. GUU C. AUC D. UAG

D. UAG

Which of the following repetitive sequences was the original basis for the forensics technique referred to as DNA fingerprinting? A. Alu sequences B. rRNA genes C. SINEs D. VNTRs

D. VNTRs

The Protenor mode of sex determination is the ________. A. scheme based on F plasmids inserted into the FMR-1 gene B. XO/YY scheme C. hermaphroditic scheme D. XX/XO scheme

D. XX/XO scheme

What is a cDNA molecule? A. copies of introns with exons excluded B. a molecule rich in restriction cut sites C. DNA sequences that are highly conserved among organisms D. a DNA copy of an RNA molecule produced by reverse transcription

D. a DNA copy of an RNA molecule produced by reverse transcription

Which of the following is an example of natural selection? A. depending on the food a turtle eats, its shell may grow faster or slower B. bacteria can be effectively killed by treatment with bleach C. sometime during human's life they break a bone D. a bird's beak is able to effectively crack the seeds it encounters

D. a bird's beak is able to effectively crack the seeds it encounters

A cross between two individuals with different phenotypes that resulted in approximately 50% of each type of offspring would indicate the cross was ________. A. a heterozygous dominant crossed to a heterozygous recessive B. true breeding dominant to recessive C. a homozygous recessive crossed to a heterozygous recessive D. a heterozygous dominant crossed to a homozygous recessive

D. a heterozygous dominant crossed to a homozygous recessive

In a transformation experiment involving a wild type bacterial strain with a recipient strain with mutations in genes a, b, c, and d, pairs of genes were analyzed for cotransformation with the following results: Gene Pair Cotransformation a+ b+ no a+ c+ yes a+ d+ no b+ c+ no b+ d+ yes c+ d+ yes What is the linear order of these genes relative to each other? A. a-d-b-c B. d-a-c-b C. a-b-c-d D. a-c-d-b

D. a-c-d-b

Which of the following terms defines a chromosome in which the centromere is near one end, but not at the end of a chromosome? A. metacentric B. acentric C. telocentric D. acrocentric

D. acrocentric

DNA methylation may be a significant mode of genetic regulation in eukaryotes. Methylation refers to ________. A. changes in DNA-DNA hydrogen binding B. altering translational activity, especially of highly methylated tRNAs C. alteration of DNA polymerase activity by addition of methyl groups to glycine residues D. addition of methyl groups to the cytosine of CG doublets

D. addition of methyl groups to the cytosine of CG doublets

The event referred to as disjunction occurs during ________. A. metaphase B. telophase C. prophase D. anaphase

D. anaphase

The condition that exists when an organism gains or loses one or more chromosomes but not a complete haploid set is known as ________. A. euploidy B. polyploidy C. triploidy D. aneuploidy

D. aneuploidy

When tryptophan is scarce in the cell what mRNA secondary structure forms? A. expression platform B. terminator hairpin C. ribosome-binding site D. antiterminator hairpin

D. antiterminator hairpin

A diploid gamete that is fertilized by a haploid gamete from the same species would be an example of ________. A. allohaploidy B. allopolyploidy C. tetraploidy D. autopolyploidy

D. autopolyploidy

Which of the following indicates that from the point of initiation, replication occurs in both directions? A. polydirectional B. discontinuous C. unidirectional D. bidirectional

D. bidirectional

What part of the mRNA is involved in initiation of translation in eukaryotes? A. Introns B. 3' poly A tail C. m7cap D. both 3' poly A tail and m7cap

D. both 3' poly A tail and m7cap

Electrophoretic separation of HbA from HbS is based on a difference in their ________. A. size of proteins B. amino acid sequence C. pH D. charges

D. charges

Individuals from two separate true-breeding strains of white deer mice are crossed yielding all grey offspring. White is recessive to gray color based on crossing mice from each strain with a grey mouse. Which of the following would best explain this result? A. multiple alleles B. lethal alleles C. epistasis D. complementation

D. complementation

Which of the following is not a feature of a Col plasmid? A. toxic to bacterial cells that don't harbor the same plasmid B. is not usually transmissible to other cells C. typically present in 10-20 copies in a cell D. confers antibiotic resistance to recipient cells

D. confers antibiotic resistance to recipient cells

What is a form of recombination in bacteria that involves the F plasmid? A. transformation B. vertical transfer C. transduction D. conjugation

D. conjugation

Mutations in the lacIand lacO genes of the lac regulatory system in E. colioften lead to full transcription of the three structural genes, even when no lactose is available to the organism. Such mutations would be called ________. A. attenuated B. repressive C. activated D. constitutive

D. constitutive

What protein combines with cyclins to exert local control of the cell cycle? A. integrase B. ATPase C. phosphatase D. cyclin-dependent kinase

D. cyclin-dependent kinase

In many species, there are two representatives of each chromosome. In such species, the characteristic number of chromosomes is called the ________ number. It is usually symbolized A. diploid; n B. haploid; 2n C. haploid; n D. diploid; 2n

D. diploid; 2n

Bacterial chromosomes generally consist of which of the following characteristics? A. single-stranded, circular RNA B. double-stranded, linear DNA C. double-stranded, circular RNA D. double-stranded, circular DNA

D. double-stranded, circular DNA

Which of the following sequences is translated into the amino acid sequence of a protein in eukaryotes? A. silencer B. promoter C. enhancer D. exon

D. exon

Which term describes an element that directs initiation of transcription at a single specific start site? A. CAAT box B. basal element C. dispersed core promoter D. focused core promoter

D. focused core promoter

A conditional knockout organism is useful tool to study ________. A. downregulation of gene expression under different environmental conditions B. upregulation of gene expression under different environmental conditions C. gene and tissue specific mutation rates D. gene specific loss-of-function mutations in selected tissues

D. gene specific loss-of-function mutations in selected tissues

In what way is the method of PCR similar to that of cloning using vectors? A. requires the use of restriction enzymes B. primers take advantage of palindromic sequences C. easily introduced into host cells D. generates large copy numbers of a specific segment of DNA

D. generates large copy numbers of a specific segment of DNA

Which of the following is involved in catabolite repression of the lac operon? A. galactose B. lactose C. isoporpylthiogalactoside D. glucose

D. glucose

Genetics is defined as the branch of biology associated with ________. A. mutation and recession B. replication and recombination C. transcription and translation D. heredity and variation

D. heredity and variation

An F' cell is generated by ________. A. partial transfer of the F factor B. conjugation between two F+ cells C. an Hfr x F- mating D. imprecise excision of the F factor from the bacterial chromosome

D. imprecise excision of the F factor from the bacterial chromosome

A fruit fly with a chromosome formulation of 2X:3A would be which of the following? A. female B. male C. metamale D. intersex

D. intersex

When two genes fail to assort independently, the term normally applied is ________. A. Mendelian inheritance B. dominance and/or recessiveness C. discontinuous inheritance D. linkage

D. linkage

With which of the following structures does histone H1 directly associate? A. nucleosome core particle B. H2A/H2B tetramer C. the histone octamer D. linker DNA

D. linker DNA

Which is not a component of DNA? A. nitrogenous base B. deoxyribose sugar C. phosphate D. mRNA

D. mRNA

The genes for the recessive traits of mahogany eyes and ebony body are approximately 25 map units apart on chromosome III in Drosophila. Assume that a mahogany-eyed female was mated to an ebony-bodied male and that the resulting F1 phenotypically wild-type females were then mated to mahogany, ebony males. Of 1000 offspring, what would be the expected phenotypes, and in what numbers would they be expected? A. wild-type = 250: mahogany-ebony = 250: mahogany = 250: ebony = 250 B. mahogany = 400: ebony = 400: wild-type = 100: mahogany-ebony = 100 C. wild-type = 375: mahogany-ebony = 375: mahogany = 125: ebony = 125 D. mahogany = 375: ebony = 375: wild-type = 125: mahogany-ebony = 125

D. mahogany = 375: ebony = 375: wild-type = 125: mahogany-ebony = 125

What is the unit of distance between genes based on a physical map? A. base pairs B. inches C. centiMorgans D. map units

D. map units

Which of the following terms refers to the spreading of cancerous cells to colonize other parts of the body? A. apoptosis B. clonal expansion C. proliferation D. metastasis

D. metastasis

A short segment of an mRNA molecule is shown below. The polypeptide it codes for is also shown: 5'-AUGGUGCUGAAG : methionine-valine-leucine-lysine Assume that a mutation in the DNA occurs so that the fourth base (counting from the 5' end) of the messenger RNA now reads A rather than G. What sequence of amino acids will the mRNA now code for? (You do not need a copy of the genetic code to answer the question.) A. methionine-leucine-leucine-lysine B. methionine-valine-leucine-lysine C. methionine-valine-methionine-lysine D. methionine-methionine-leucine-lysine

D. methionine-methionine-leucine-lysine

In 1927 Frederick Griffith combined an extract from heat-killed smooth bacterial cells with live rough cells and injected them into mice. The findings and conclusions of the experiment were ________. A. mice survived as a result of immunity from rough cells B. mice died as a result of incorporation of DNA into the mouse genome from heat-killed smooth cells C. mice survived as a result of a transforming agent picked up by the rough cells from the smooth cell extract D. mice died as a result of a transforming agent picked up by the rough cells from the smooth cell extract

D. mice died as a result of a transforming agent picked up by the rough cells from the smooth cell extract

A researcher is studying plant development. She isolates a mutant and discovers that the piece of DNA that is mutated does not code for a protein. However, this piece of DNA is complimentary to a gene known to function in early embryonic plant development. The mutant she identified most likely functions as a(n) ________. A. ribosomal RNA (rRNA) B. transfer RNA (tRNA) C. Introns D. microRNA (miRNA)

D. microRNA (miRNA)

A mating of an Hfr strain of E. coliwith an F+ strain will yield ________. A. Hfr and transformed F+ B. all F+ C. Hfr and F' D. nothing, the mating cannot occur

D. nothing, the mating cannot occur

In which cellular organelle do the three posttranscriptional modifications often seen in the maturation of mRNA in eukaryotes occur? A. cytoplasm B. Golgi C. mitochondrion D. nucleus

D. nucleus

What is the name of the protein that appears to regulate the entry of cells into an S phase? This protein is also known as the "guardian of the genome." A. p34 B. p102 C. cyclin D. p53

D. p53

Words such as did, mom, and pop have something in common with the fundamental tool of recombinant DNA technology. In the context of recombinant DNA technology, which term would be used to describe such words? A. prototrophic B. conjugation C. lysogenic D. palindromic

D. palindromic

Driver mutations provide a growth advantage to a tumor cell. Which type of mutation is known to accumulate in cancer cells but has no direct contribution to the cancer phenotype? A. alteration mutations B. indirect mutations C. insignificant mutations D. passenger mutations

D. passenger mutations

Which of the following organisms shares the highest percentage of genes with humans? A. yeast B. mouse C. fruit fly D. pig

D. pig

The phenomenon of a gene which has multiple phenotypic effects on an individual is referred to as ________. A. expressivity B. penetrance C. continuous variation D. pleiotropy

D. pleiotropy

Which of the following is not a source of genetic variation in meiosis? A. law of independent assortment B. the random lining up of chromosomes on the metaphase plate C. crossing over D. polar body formation

D. polar body formation

Side groups of amino acids are typically classified under which of the following? A. alpha, omega B. linear, circular C. primary, secondary D. polar, nonpolar

D. polar, nonpolar

Which term refers to the complex of proteins that is involved in the replication of DNA? A. transcriptome B. spliceosome C. replicon D. polymerase holoenzyme

D. polymerase holoenzyme

The MN blood group is a codominant trait as a result of which of the following? A. presence of M, M/N intermediate, and N cell surface glycoproteins on blood cells B. presence of M cell surface glycoproteins on some blood cells and N glycoproteins on others C. presence of a M/N intermediate cell surface glycoprotein on blood cells D. presence of both M and N cell surface glycoproteins on the same blood cell

D. presence of both M and N cell surface glycoproteins on the same blood cell

Prokaryotic gene regulation utilizes which of the following sequences? A. Introns B. exons C. polyadenylation sequences D. promoters

D. promoters

Viral DNA that has integrated into a bacterial chromosome is referred to as a ________. A. temperate phage B. virulent phage C. plaque D. prophage

D. prophage

Which of the following is not a factor that contribute to the phenomenon of natural selection? A. competition B. overpopulation C. differential reproductive success based on heritable phenotype D. random fluctuations in allele frequency due to small population size

D. random fluctuations in allele frequency due to small population size

In the lac operon, the product of structural gene lacZ is capable of ________. A. forming lactose from two glucose molecules B. replacing hexokinase in the early steps of glycolysis C. nonautonomous replication D. splitting the glycosidic bond of lactose

D. splitting the glycosidic bond of lactose

To estimate how much the means of a variety of like samples drawn from the same population might vary, which statistic is often used? A. standard deviation B. variance C. correlation coefficient D. standard error of the mean

D. standard error of the mean

DNA microarray analysis is excellent for ________. A. studying all of a sample's genes simultaneously B. studying all of a sample's unexpressed genes simultaneously C. studying one gene's expression very closely D. studying all of a sample's expressed genes simultaneously

D. studying all of a sample's expressed genes simultaneously

What is the function of a ddNTP in DNA sequencing? A. enhance the efficiency of modified polymerases used in sequencing reactions B. produce fluorescent signal as it is incorporated into the polynucleotide C. facilitate reverse transcription D. terminate polynucleotied elongation by polymerase

D. terminate polynucleotied elongation by polymerase

In the presence of excess tryptophan which of the following is formed? A. antiterminator hairpin B. expression platform C. ribsosome-binding site D. terminator hairpin

D. terminator hairpin

When scientists were attempting to determine the structure of the genetic code, Crick and coworkers found that when three base additions or three base deletions occurred in a single gene, the wild-type phenotype was sometimes restored. These data supported the hypothesis that ________. A. AUG is the initiating triplet B. there are three amino acids per base C. the code is overlapping D. the code is triplet

D. the code is triplet

Transcriptomics is ________. A. determining phenotype B. determining epigenetic markers C. measuring how much DNA is in the genome D. the quantification of gene expression

D. the quantification of gene expression

What is the interpretation of the equation p+ q + r= 1.0? A. only 3 alleles can exist in any population B. there are high levels of inbreeding in the population C. the probability of sampling all three alleles from a population is 1 D. the sum of the relevant individual alleles in a population is equal to 100 percent of those alleles

D. the sum of the relevant individual alleles in a population is equal to 100 percent of those alleles

Usually, bacteria only make tryptophan when tryptophan is absent or available in low concentration. However, a particular bacterial mutation makes tryptophan all the time whether or not tryptophan is present. What could explain this phenotype? A. trpE is mutated B. trpD is mutated C. the antiterminator hairpin is unable to form D. the terminator hairpin is unable to form

D. the terminator hairpin is unable to form

Which of the following processes describes the formation of a complementary RNA molecule? A. mosaicism B. translation C. replication D. transcription

D. transcription

Signal transduction is best described as ________. A. transmission of signals from cancer cells to normal cells B. communication between nuclei of two organisms C. communication between cells through physical interaction D. transmission of external signals to the nucleus of a cell

D. transmission of external signals to the nucleus of a cell

The genetic code is fairly consistent among all organisms. The term often used to describe such consistency in the code is ________. A. exceptional B. overlapping C. trans-specific D. universal

D. universal

What statistic is used for describing sample variability by averaging the squared distance of all measurements from the mean? A. covariance B. standard error of the mean C. standard deviation D. variance

D. variance

A genomic condition that may be responsible for some forms of fragile-X syndrome, as well as Huntington disease, involves ________. A. multiple breakpoints fairly evenly dispersed along the X chromosome B. plasmids inserted into the FMR-1 gene C. multiple inversions in the X chromosome D. various lengths of trinucleotide repeats

D. various lengths of trinucleotide repeats

If the wrinkled-wing mutation in Drosophilais dominant and designated Wr, a fruit fly with the genotype Wr+ Wr+ would exhibit what phenotype? A. partially wrinkled wings B. one wrinkled wing and one normal wing C. wrinkled wings D. wild-type wings

D. wild-type wings

Mendel crossed two pea plants with round seeds. All seeds of the offspring were round. He then crossed a plant with round seeds to a plant with wrinkled seeds and all offspring had wrinkled seeds. Which of the following is true? A. the plants he used were not true breeding B. a mutation occurred C. round is dominant D. wrinkled is dominant

D. wrinkled is dominant