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For some agile projects, ___________ are established, which is the maximum budget that should not be exceeded in the development of a given product or service.

A. Project accounts B. Contingencies C. Agile accounts D. Ceilings** E. Scrum logs

This response is used when an identified Opportunity is not actively pursued.

A. Exploit B. Share C. Enhance D. Accept**

This response is used to remove any uncertainly associated with an identified Opportunity.

A. Exploit** B. Share C. Enhance D. Accept

After reviewing the project scope statement, the owner specifies that costs MUST stay within $400,000. This criterion is classified as

A. Constrained. ** B. Enhanced. C. Accepted. D. Limited. E. Fixed.

Which of the following correctly calculates the late start for an activity?

A. EF - DUR B. ES - DUR C. LF - DUR** D. ES - SL E. LF - SL

Project selection criteria are typically classified as

A. Financial and nonfinancial. ** B. Short-term and long-term. C. Strategic and tactical. D. Required and optional. E. Cost and schedule.

The forward pass in project network calculations determines all of the following EXCEPT

A. Earliest time an activity can begin. B. Earliest time an activity can finish. C. Duration of the project. D. The critical path. ** E. How soon the project can finish.

After the total slack for each activity is identified, the project manager can more easily identify the

A. Earned Value B. Critical Path C. Earliest Start Date D. Total Project Slack

Project management is being driven by

A. Elevated profit motive. B. Knowledge explosion. C. Increase customer focus. D. Knowledge explosion and increase customer focus. **

There are 5 steps involved when defining a project, which of the following is the first?

A. Establish project priorities B. Define the project scope** C. Verify the budget available D. Assign team members to work on the project E. Determine the required completion date

Linda has just been assigned manager of a project to develop a new advertising campaign for an established product. Her first step should be to

A. Establish project priorities. B. Define the project scope. ** C. Verify the budget available. D. Assign team members to work on the project. E. Determine the required completion date.

The likelihood the original critical path(s) will change once the project is initiated is referred to as

A. Flexibility. B. Resilience. C. Sensitivity. ** D. Concurrent engineering. E. Rigidity.

The minimum amount of time a dependent activity must be delayed to begin or end is referred to as

A. Hammock. B. Laddering. C. Lag. ** D. Cushion. E. Buffer.

The risk associated with the unlikelihood that one of the key members will be struck by lightning would most likely be handled by which of the following?

A. Mitigating B. Retaining C. Ignoring** D. Transferring E. Avoiding

Which of the following is NOT one of the potential responses to a specific risk event?

A. Mitigating B. Retaining C. Ignoring** D. Transferring E. Avoiding

______ activities must be completed immediately before a particular activity.

A. Merge B. Burst C. Predecessor** D. Successor E. Parallel

A Responsibility Matrix will clarify

A. Tasks. B. Supports. C. Responsibilities. D. Both supports and responsibilities. **

Evidence today suggests that performance evaluations are not done well. What are two major reasons that have been recognized as contributors to this?

1. Evaluations of individuals are still left to supervisors of the team member's home department 2. Typical measures of team performance center on time, cost, and specification (task success, NOT relationship success)

List and briefly describe the disadvantages of resource leveling or smoothing.

1. Loss of flexibility from reducing slack

Give a real life example of mitigating a risk, avoiding a risk, transferring a risk and retaining a risk.

1. Mitigating bringing a portable charger with me so my phone doesn't die 2. Avoiding staying at home with my phone plugged in so my phone doesn't die 3. Transferring buying an insurance policy for my car in case I get in an accident 4. Retaining still driving my car on the streets even though I know there is a chance someone might crash into me

Identify and give an example of the three types of resource constraints.

1. People three tasks scheduled at one time but there is only one person to do them 2. Material two people have to sign a piece of paper but there is only one piece of paper to write on 3. Equipment two tasks use a bulldozer but there is only one bulldozer available

Which of the following is NOT one of the stages of a project life cycle?

A. Identifying** B. Defining C. Planning D. Executing E. Closing

Which of the following correctly calculates the early finish for an activity?

A. LS + DUR B. ES + DUR** C. LF + DUR D. ES + SL E. LF + SL

Project closures can fall into all of the following categories EXCEPT

A. Premature. B. Perpetual. C. Failed. D. Changed priority. E. Successful. **

The pattern of improvement identified from a worker having performed a task multiple time is known as a

A. Reduced Failure Rate. B. Optimistic Estimate. C. Learning Curve. D. Both Reduced Failure Rate and Learning Curve. **

Including the change control system within the ________ is a key to a successful project.

A. Work Breakdown Structure** B. Project Baseline C. Risk Management Plan D. Work Breakdown Structure and Project Baseline

A project network provides the basis for

A. organizational authority B. completing the effort on time and within budget C. scheduling labor and equipment** D. None of these choices are correct.

Refining estimates may be necessary for a number of reasons. For example, design flaws being revealed after the fact, extreme weather conditions, and accidents occurring are good examples of

B. Things going wrong on a project. ** Design flaws are revealed after the fact, extreme weather conditions occur, accidents happen, and so forth. Although you shouldn't plan for these risks to happen when estimating a particular task, the likelihood and impact of such events need to be considered.

Why is the traditional project management approach less effective when project scope and technology are not well known?

Estimates and extensively planned budgets are extremely inaccurate

Identify the five common parts to the final project report. Which is considered the most valuable and why?

1. Executive Summary 2. Analysis of information gathered 3. Lessons Learned stresses the need to help others in future projects** 4. Recommendations 5. Appendix

Identify and briefly describe the four steps in the risk management process.

1. Identification enumerate all possible risks to the project 2. Assessment assess each risk based on likelihood and impact to the project 3. Risk Response Development develop strategy to reduce possibility or impact of the risk 4. Risk Response Control implement risk strategy, manage change in the project due to risk, and monitor and adjust plan for new risks

Identify and briefly describe four out of the five most common classifications for the way that projects end.

1. Prematurely finished early with some parts eliminated 2. Perpetually extended due to scope increase 3. Changed Priority 4. Normally 5. Failed project

Identify and describe three principles found in most agile project management methods.

1. Self-Organizing 2. Focus on Customer Value 3. Continuous Improvement 4. Experimentation and Adaptation

Before an evaluation of the project team can be effective and useful, a minimum core of conditions needs to be in place before the project begins. Identify four of these conditions.

1. Team members know what is expected of them 2. Team rewards are adequate 3. Performance evaluation standards exist and are known 4. High level of trust between team members, the team, and the org

Identify and briefly describe the three types of project constraints that could impact or change the structure of project network.

1. Time 2. Resource 3. Technical

Identify and briefly describe two ways to classify projects with scheduling problems.

1. Time-constrained project 2. Resource-constrained project

A PERT project has 45 activities, 19 of which are on the critical path. The estimated time for the critical path is 120 days. The sum of all activity variances is 64, while the sum of variances along the critical path is 36. What is the probability that the project can be completed between days 108 and 120?

A) -2.00 B) 0.0227 C) 0.1058 D) 0.4773 E) 0.9773

A contractor's project being analyzed by PERT has an estimated time for the critical path of 120 days. The sum of all activity variances is 81, the sum of variances along the critical path is 64. What is the probability that the project will take 130 or more days to complete?

A) 0.1057 B) 0.1335 C) 0.8512 D) 0.8943 E) 1.29

An activity on a PERT network has these time estimates: optimistic = 2, most likely = 3, and pessimistic = 8. What is its expected activity time and variance?

A) 3.67, 1** B) 3.67, 6 C) 4.33, 1 D) 4.33, 6 E) none of the above Answer: **Variance = [(b-a)\6]^2

Activity D on a CPM network has predecessors B and C, and has successor F. D has duration 6. B's earliest finish is 18, while C's is 20. F's late start is 26. Which of the following is definitely true?

A) B is a critical activity. B) C is completed before B. C) D has no slack but is not critical. D) D is critical, and has zero slack. ** E) F is critical, and has zero slack.

Which of the following statements regarding Gantt charts is true?

A) Gantt charts give a timeline and precedence relationships for each activity of a project. ** B) Gantt charts use the four standard spines of Methods, Materials, Manpower, and Machinery. C) Gantt charts are visual devices that show the duration of activities in a project. D) Gantt charts are expensive. E) All of the above are true.

The project organization works best when which of the following conditions are satisfied? I. Work tasks can be defined with a specific goal and deadline. II. The job is typical and familiar to the existing organization. III. The work contains interrelated tasks requiring specialized skills. IV. The project is temporary but unimportant to long-term organizational success. V. The project cuts across organizational lines.

A) I, II, III, IV, V B) None of the above conditions need to be satisfied. C) I, III, V** D) I, II, III, V E) I, III, IV, V Answer:

The main difference between PERT and CPM is that:

A) PERT is more accurate than CPM. B) PERT assumes that activity durations are known. C) PERT ignores activity costs. D) CPM assumes activity durations can vary. E) PERT employs three time estimates for each activity. **

A simple CPM network has three activities, A, B, and C. A is an immediate predecessor of B and of C. B is an immediate predecessor of C. The activity durations are A=4, B=3, C=8.

A) The critical path is A-B-C, duration 15. ** B) The critical path is A-C, duration 12. C) The critical path is A-B-C, duration 13.5 D) The critical path cannot be determined without knowing PERT expected activity times. E) The network has no critical path. Answer:

A simple CPM network has three activities, D, E, and F. D is an immediate predecessor of E and of F. E is an immediate predecessor of F. The activity durations are D=4, E=3, F=8.

A) The critical path is D-E-F, duration 15. ** B) The critical path is D-F, duration 12. C) Slack at D is 3 periods. D) Slack at E is 3 periods. E) Both A and C are true. Answer:

Which of the following statements regarding CPM is true?

A) The critical path is the shortest of all paths through the network. B) The critical path is that set of activities that has positive slack. C) Some networks have no critical path. D) All activities on the critical path have their LS equal to the maximum EF of all immediate predecessors. ** E) All activities on the critical path have their ES equal to their LF. Answer:

Which of the following statements regarding critical paths is true?

A) The shortest of all paths through the network is the critical path. B) Some activities on the critical path may have slack. C) Every network has only one critical path. D) On a specific project, there can be multiple critical paths, all with exactly the same duration. ** E) The duration of the critical path is the average duration of all paths in the project network.

A simple CPM network has five activities, A, B, C, D, and E. A is an immediate predecessor of C and of D. B is also an immediate predecessor of C and of D. C and D are both immediate predecessors of E. Which of the following statements is true?

A) There are two paths in this network. B) There are four paths in this network. ** C) There are five paths in this network. D) There are 25 paths in this network. E) There are six paths in this network. A C Start E D B

Which of the following statements regarding CPM networks is true?

A) There can be multiple critical paths on the same project, all with different durations. B) The early finish of an activity is the latest early start of all preceding activities. C) The late start of an activity is its late finish plus its duration. D) If a specific project has multiple critical paths, all of them will have the same duration. ** E) None of the above are true. Answer:

Ethical issues that may arise in projects large and small include:

A) gifts from contractors. B) exaggerated expense reports. C) compromised quality standards to meet bonuses or avoid penalties related to schedules. D) pressure to mask delays with false status reports. E) all of the above. **

A project organization:

A) is effective for companies with multiple large projects. ** B) is appropriate only in construction firms. C) often fails when the project cuts across organizational lines. D) is most helpful for ongoing projects with no termination date. E) is most helpful when the work contains simple and unrelated tasks. Answer:

Which of the following is NOT one of the phases of project management?

A) planning B) scheduling C) controlling D) budgeting E) All of the above are project management phases. **

The control of projects involves close monitoring of which of the following?

A) resources B) costs C) quality D) budgets E) all of the above Answer: **

WBS stands for which of the following project management tools?

A) work break schedule B) work breakdown status C) work breakdown schedule D) work breakdown structure** E) work break status

Iterations are short time frames (time boxes) that typically last from ___________.

A. 1-4 days B. 1-2 weeks C. 1-4 weeks** D. 4-7 weeks E. 7-12 weeks

Completing Team Evaluations relies upon ____________ to be in place before the project begins.

A. A completed scope document B. Budget constraints C. Quality controls D. Core of conditions**

An expected output over the life of a project would be classified as

A. A deliverable. ** B. A product. C. An end object. D. An objective. E. A target.

In order to hedge against unpredictability within a project, Agile Project Management uses

A. A different risk management process. B. Phase gates. C. An adaptive and experimental approach. ** D. Strict budget constraints. **Through discovery and failing quickly and often, workers within agile practices are able to solve problems more quickly.

When conducting post-project audits, this is one of the main tools that a facilitator uses.

A. A final copy of the issues log B. A review session regarding the project scope C. Questionnaires** D. The Earned Value analysis

Obtaining __________ is a major and critical closure activity for the Project Manager.

A. A final invoice B. Project deliverables C. Delivery acceptance** D. Work unit prioritization

Which of the following does NOT help describe a project network?

A. A graphic display of the flow and sequence of work through the project B. Provides the basis for scheduling labor and equipment C. Gives the times when activities can start and finish and when they can be delayed D. Highlights major deliverables and identifies their completion dates** E. Identifies critical activities

Governance of all project management processes and procedures helps provide senior management with all of the following EXCEPT

A. A method to ensure projects that are important to senior management are being implemented. ** B. An assessment of the risk their portfolio of projects represents. C. An overview of all project management activities. D. A metric to measure the improvement of managing projects relative to others in the industry. E. A big picture of how organizational resources are being used.

A key distinction between a risk response and a contingency plan is

A. A risk response is established only for moderate risks while contingency plans are established for major risks. B. A risk response is part of the actual implementation plan and action is taken before the risk can materialize, while a contingency plan goes into effect only after the risk has transpired. ** C. A risk response is only effective when you are able to assess the likelihood of the risk and its impact on the project. all other risks are covered by contingency planning. D. A risk response is created by the project team and the project manager while the project manager and the customer agree on the contingency plan. E. A risk response is action that is the response to a risk once it has happened and the contingency plan is created by the customer if the risk response fails.

When translated into a project network, a work package will become

A. A single activity. ** B. One or more activities. C. A milestone. D. A critical path. E. An arrow.

The typical mechanism for the evaluation of teams is normally

A. A survey completed by the team members issued by an outside consultant**

The highest element in the hierarchical breakdown of the WBS is

A. A work package. B. Sub-deliverables. C. A cost account. D. Major deliverables. E. The project. **

Project management is ideally suited for a business environment requiring all of the following EXCEPT

A. Accountability. B. Flexibility. C. Innovation. D. Speed. E. Repeatability.--> Continuous Improvement**

Benefits of Reference Class Forecasting include

A. Acting as a reality check. B. Helps to avoid unsound optimism. C. Provides a basis for contingency funds. D. All of these choices. ** **There are other benefits as well which include reduction of human bias, forcing executives to focus on empirical information, and improved accountability.

Which of the following activities might you consider adding a time buffer to?

A. Activities with severe risks B. Merge activities that are prone to delays C. Activities with scarce resources D. Noncritical activities with very little slack E. You might consider adding a time buffer to any of these activities. **

Which of the following is NOT a potential consequence of failing to identify limited resources before project implementation?

A. Activity delays B. Project delays C. Difficulty in taking quick corrective action D. Increase costs E. Scope creep **

Companies are using which of the following for improving the estimating process for future projects?

A. Adjusting estimates based on individual forecasting abilities B. Benchmarking and using the experience of other companies C. Using time and motion studies D. Creating historical databases of previous projects** E. Establishing an estimating training course for all employees

_____________ represents a fundamental shift away from the traditional plan-driven project management approach by adopting a more experimental and adaptive approach to managing projects.

A. Agile project management** B. Hybrid project management C. Uncertain project management D. Focused project management E. Interactive project management

Which of the following is NOT one of the requirements for successful implementation of strategies through projects?

A. Allocation of resources B. Prioritizing of projects C. Motivation of project contributors D. Adequate planning and control systems E. Quality management**

Which of the following is NOT one of the basic rules to follow when developing project networks?

A. An activity cannot begin until all preceding activities have been completed. B. Each activity must have a unique identification number. C. Conditional statements are allowed but looping statements are not allowed. ** D. An activity identification number must be larger than that of any preceding activities. E. Networks flow from left to right.

Arrows on an activity-on-node (AON) project network represent

A. An activity. B. Project flow. C. Dependency. D. Project flow and dependency. ** E. An activity and dependency.

Which of the following represents an activity on an activity-on-node (AON) project network?

A. An arrow B. A line C. A node** D. Both an arrow and a line E. An arrow, a line and a node all represent activities

Which of the following is NOT considered to be a characteristic of a project

A. An established objective B. A clear beginning and end C. Specific time, cost and performance requirements *D. For internal use only E. Something never been done by a particular company before

Which of the following is NOT considered to be a characteristic of a project?

A. An established objective B. A clear beginning and end C. Specific time, cost and performance requirements D. For internal use only** E. Something never been done by a particular company before

Specific features are created using Scrum methodology according to four distinct phases. Which of the following is NOT one of these phases?

A. Analysis B. Monitor** C. Build D. Test E. Design

The first step of project scope definition is to

A. Analyze the strategic plan. B. Analyze the current budget plan. C. Meet with team members. D. Select team members. E. Define the overall objective to meet the customer's needs. **

Which of the following top-down methods is used when projects closely follow past projects in regard to features and costs of those features, and result in costs being assigned by percentages to major segments of the project?

A. Apportion** B. Function point C. Phase estimating D. Learning curve E. Consensus

In order to formulate strategies that align with the mission some of the activities the organization will need to perform are

A. Assess internal strengths and weaknesses. B. Analyze competitors. C. Examine the external environment. D. Know their core competencies. E. All of these should be considered when formulating strategies. ** Strategy formulation includes assessment of the internal and external environments.

The risk management tool that is divided into three color-coded zones representing major, moderate, and minor risks is the risk

A. Assessment form. B. Responsibility matrix. C. Scenario assessment. D. Impact assessment. E. Severity matrix. **

A Performance Appraisal generally provides

A. Assessment of a team members' efforts. B. Rational for new assignments. C. Developmental information for a team member. ** D. None of these choices are correct.

A fixed price contract is an example of

A. Avoiding risk. B. Transferring risk. ** C. Accepting risk. D. Ignoring risk. E. Mitigating risk.

The following are general tips for conducting performance reviews EXCEPT

A. Begin the process by asking the individual to evaluate his or her own contributions to the project. B. Use other team members' performance as a method to compare and evaluate. ** C. When you have to be critical, focus the criticism on specific examples of behavior and not on the individual personally. D. Be fair and consistent in your treatment of all team members. E. Treat the review as only one point in an ongoing process.

Within a team applying Agile methods, face-to-face communication replaces

A. Budget planning B. Risk management C. Time-consuming documentation** D. Focus on Customer Value

The process of forecasting or approximating the time and cost of completing project deliverables is called

A. Budgeting. B. Predicting. C. Estimating. ** D. Planning. E. Guesstimating.

A ____ activity is one that has more than one activity taking place at the same time.

A. Burst B. Merge C. Parallel** D. None of these choices are correct.

A _____activity is one that has more than one activity immediately preceding it.

A. Burst B. Merge** C. Parallel D. None of these choices are correct.

A _____ activity is one that has more than one activity immediately following it.

A. Burst** B. Merge C. Parallel D. None of these choices are correct.

Examples of nonfinancial criteria include all of the following EXCEPT

A. Capturing a larger market share. B. Reducing dependency on unreliable suppliers. C. Preventing government intervention and regulation. D. Making it difficult for competitors to enter the market. E. Calculating the time it will take to recover the project investment. **

This is used to compare the cost accounts between organizational units and deliverables.

A. Chart of Accounts B. Earned Value C. Project Schedule D. Direct Labor Budget Rollup

If, for some reason, the project must be expedited to meet an earlier date, which of the following actions would the project manager take first?

A. Check to see which activities cost the least. B. Check to see which activities have the longest duration. C. Check to see which activities are on the critical path. D. Check to see which activities have the most slack. ** E. Check to see which activities have the highest risk.

There are 5 steps involved when defining a project, which of the following is the last?

A. Code the WBS for tracking B. Assign the cost account to a manager C. Assign the work package to a manager D. Develop the responsibility matrix E. All of these are included in the final step. **

Which dimension of project management centers on creating a temporary social system within a larger organizational environment that combines the talents of a divergent set of professionals working to complete the project?

A. Communication B. Sociocultural** C. Social D. Technical E. Scheduling

Projects should align with the organization's overall strategy in order to

A. Complete the project safely. B. Reduce waste of scarce resources. ** C. Ensure customer satisfaction. D. Secure funding. E. None of these are reasons why projects should align with the organization's overall strategy.

The most common circumstance for project closure is simply a ________ project.

A. Completed** B. Overdue C. Over-budget D. Underachieving E. Successful

Projects are usually classified into all but one of the following categories. Which one is NOT one of the typical classifications?

A. Compliance and emergency B. Operational C. Strategic D. Political necessity** E. All of these are typical classifications.

Which of the following is NOT one of the driving forces behind the increasing demand for project management?

A. Compression of the product life cycle B. Knowledge explosion C. Increasing need for concurrent multi-project management D. Declining need for product customization** E. More sustainable business practices

Bill is building a project network that involves testing a prototype. He must design the prototype (activity 1), build the prototype (activity 2), and test the prototype (activity 3). Activity 1 is the predecessor for activity 2 and activity 2 is the predecessor for activity 3. If the prototype fails testing, Bill must redesign the prototype, therefore, activity 3 is a predecessor for activity 1. This is an example of

A. Conditional statements. B. Looping. ** C. Having more than one start node. D. Good network development. E. Natural network flow.

Scott has just been given a project that has a specific completion date. After a discussion with top management he finds that while the date is important the cost is more important and a slip in delivery would be acceptable if required to meet the cost targets. The completion date is best classified as

A. Constrained. B. Reduced. C. Accepted. ** D. Limited. E. Optional.

A Risk Response Matrix contains all of the following EXCEPT

A. Contingency plan. B. Trigger. C. Who is responsible. D. Response. E. When the risk will occur. **

_______________ is the Agile principle describes the process that teams goes through to solve problems to deliver on features expressed by the stakeholder(s).

A. Continuous Improvement B. Experimentation and Adaption** C. Self-Organization D. Focus on Customer Value

_______________ is the Agile principle that prescribes the project team learning, reflecting and adapting to change within the Project

A. Continuous Improvement** B. Experimentation and Adaption C. Self-Organization D. Focus on Customer Value

Iterative development processes provide the following important advantages EXCEPT

A. Continuous integration of the evolving product. B. Frequent demonstration of progress to increase the likelihood that the end product will satisfy customer needs. C. Early detection of defects and problems. D. Ease of comparing actual information against planned. ** E. Constant verification and validation of the evolving product.

From the list below, which is NOT a primary characteristic of organizational culture?

A. Control B. Team emphasis C. Profitability** D. Conflict tolerance E. Risk tolerance

Which of the following is a good condition for top-down estimating?

A. Cost and time important B. Fixed price contract C. Customer wants details D. Internal, small project** E. Large scale project involving several subcontractors

After your team has successfully identified potential risks that could affect the project, what is the next step?

A. Create a risk breakdown structure B. Assess identified risks** C. Create contingency plans D. Decide how to respond to all risks E. Mitigate risks

Which of the following is NOT a role of the closure facilitator?

A. Create an environment in which stakeholders feel safe to provide input. B. Lead the team in exploring new ways for solving problems. C. Use several questionnaires as a starting point to conduct the post-project retrospective. D. Get delivery acceptance from the customer. ** E. Elicit a 360-degree view and input from all stakeholders to create a more complete picture of project issues.

More and more companies are discarding the traditional superior-subordinate performance feedback process and replacing it with a multi-rater appraisal called

A. Critical incidences review. B. Management by objectives. C. The 360-degree feedback. ** D. Team evaluation survey. E. Retrospectives.

If a project has more than one activity that can begin when the project is to start, a common start node should be used to indicate a clear project beginning on the network. Without a common start node, each path is a

A. Critical path. B. Parallel path. C. Dangler path. ** D. Multiple start path. E. Confused path.

Which of the following summarizes project performance and provides useful information for continuous improvement?

A. Customer acceptance B. The final report** C. Team evaluation D. 360-degree feedback E. Project summary

Scrum relies on three key roles. A person who acts on behalf of customers to represent their interests and who is responsible for ensuring that the development team focuses their efforts on developing a project that will fulfill the business objective of the project is called a

A. Customer service representative. B. Project champion. C. Customer liaison. D. Product owner. ** E. Production coordinator.

The following are responsibilities of the governance team when managing a portfolio system EXCEPT

A. Deciding how organizational resources are allocated among the different types of projects. ** B. Publishing the priority of every project and ensuring the process is open and free of power politics. C. Evaluating the progress of the projects in the portfolio. D. Constant scanning of the external environment to determine if organizational selection criteria need to be changed. E. Communicating which projects are approved.

14. All resource leveling techniques involve

A. Delaying noncritical activities. ** B. Delaying critical activities. C. Using negative slack. D. Delaying the project. E. Adding resources.

Using traditional approaches to project management, once the project scope has been firmly established, every detail of the project is defined through the ________.

A. Deliverables B. Job tickets C. WBS** D. Estimates E. Risks

Which of the following is NOT one of the items that would appear on a project scope statement or checklist?

A. Deliverables B. Technical requirements C. Objectives D. Work breakdown structure** E. Reviews with customer

Project managers who understand the role that their project plays in accomplishing the organization's strategy will be inclined to do all of the following EXCEPT

A. Demonstrate to senior management how their project contributes to the firm's mission. B. Explain to team members why certain project objectives and priorities are critical. C. Explain to stakeholders why certain project objectives and priorities are critical. D. Be able to respond appropriately to delays or questions about product design. E. Be able to focus on problems or solutions if the project is a low priority strategically. **

Which of the following is provided by both the project network and the work breakdown structure?

A. Dependencies B. Sequencing C. Interrelationships D. Activity duration** E. Timing

Specific features are created using Scrum methodology according to four distinct phases. Which of the following places these phases in the correct order?

A. Design, Build, Analysis, Test B. Monitor, Design, Build, Test C. Analysis, Design, Build, Test** D. Design, Build, Monitor, Test E. Analysis, Design, Build, Monitor

The bottom-up approach for estimating times and costs that uses costs from past projects that were similar to the current project is known as

A. Detailed WBS work package estimates. B. Template method. ** C. Function point method. D. Time-phased cost estimates. E. Phase estimating.

_____________ is a measure of how easy it would be to notice that a risk event was going to occur in time to take mitigating action, that is, how much warning you would have.

A. Detection difficulty** B. Impact scaling C. Probability analysis D. Awareness level E. Warning assessment

The initial step in the risk management process is to

A. Determine the level of acceptable risk. B. Assess the risk potential. C. Identify the risks. ** D. Set aside budget funds for managing the risks. E. Appoint a risk manager.

Which of the following activities is NOT considered a project?

A. Developing a new software program B. Designing a space station C. Preparing the site for the Olympic Games D. Production of automobile tires** E. Developing a new advertising program

Typical kinds of costs found in a project include all of the following EXCEPT

A. Direct costs. B. Project overhead costs. C. General and administrative overhead costs. D. Labor. E. All of these choices are examples of costs found in a project. **

All of the following are disadvantages of organizing projects within a matrix arrangement EXCEPT

A. Dysfunctional conflict between functional managers and project managers. B. Expensive. ** C. Infighting. D. Stressful. E. Longer project duration.

Which of the following is NOT one of the recommended guidelines for developing useful work package estimates?

A. Estimates should be made by those responsible for the work. B. Use several people to estimate the same work. C. Estimates should be based on normal conditions. D. Estimates should include a normal level of contingency. ** E. Estimates should be independent of other projects.

Which of the following is NOT involved in risk control?

A. Executing the risk response strategy B. Initiating contingency plans C. Establishing a change control system D. Establishing contingency funds** E. Watching for new risks

Which part of the final report includes backup data or details of analysis that would allow others to follow up if they wished?

A. Executive summary B. Review and analysis C. Recommendations D. Lessons learned E. Appendix**

Which part of the final report is designed to be the most useful on future projects?

A. Executive summary B. Review and analysis C. Recommendations D. Lessons learned** E. Appendix

Which part of the final report presents major improvement actions that should be made?

A. Executive summary B. Review and analysis C. Recommendations** D. Lessons learned E. Appendix

Which part of the final report examines in detail the underlying causes of problems, issues, and successes relative to the project and includes concise, factual review statements of the project?

A. Executive summary B. Review and analysis** C. Recommendations D. Lessons learned E. Appendix

Which part of the final report highlights the key findings and facts relating to the project implementation?

A. Executive summary** B. Review and analysis C. Recommendations D. Lessons learned E. Appendix **The executive summary highlights the key findings and facts relating to the project implementation.

This response is used to increase the potential effect of an identified Opportunity.

A. Exploit B. Share C. Enhance** D. Accept

This response allocates some or all of the responsibility of realizing the identified Opportunity for the project.

A. Exploit B. Share** C. Enhance D. Accept

The __________ financial model measures the current value of all cash inflows using management's minimum desired rate of return.

A. FUBAR B. ARR C. IRS D. IRB E. None of these ** Payback and NPV

When considering traditional versus agile project management, all of the following are part of the traditional project management model EXCEPT

A. Fixed scope. B. Deliverables. C. Continuous design. ** D. Low uncertainty. E. Conventional project teams.

When considering traditional versus agile project management, all of the following are part of the agile project management model EXCEPT

A. Flexibility. B. High uncertainty. C. Embrace change. D. Design up front. ** E. Self-organized project teams.

_______________ is the Agile principle in which the team creates a flow of value to the stakeholder(s) or customer(s) by delivering smaller, functional increments of the project.

A. Focus on Customer Value B. Experimentation and Adaption C. Self-Organization D. Iterative and Incremental Delivery**

_______________ is the Agile principle that describes project team members deciding amongst themselves what should be done and who is best suited for it on the team.

A. Focus on Customer Value B. Iterative and Incremental Delivery C. Self-Organization** D. Experimentation and Adaption

_______________ is the Agile principle where the project team uses business-driven prioritization of requirements and features.

A. Focus on Customer Value** B. Iterative and Incremental Delivery C. Self-Organization D. Experimentation and Adaption

While agile project management does not consist of one set method, most methods are based on similar principles. Which of the following agile project management principles would be described when teams reflect, learn, and adapt to change, and when project work updates the plan?

A. Focus on customer value B. Iterative and incremental delivery C. Experimentation and adaptation D. Self-organization E. Continuous improvement**

While agile project management does not consist of one set method, most methods are based on similar principles. Which of the following agile project management principles would be described when team members decide among themselves who should do what and what should be done?

A. Focus on customer value B. Iterative and incremental delivery C. Experimentation and adaptation D. Self-organization** E. Continuous improvement

While agile project management does not consist of one set method, most methods are based on similar principles. Which of the following agile project management principles would be described when testing assumptions early and building working prototypes to solicit customer feedback and refine product requirements?

A. Focus on customer value B. Iterative and incremental delivery C. Experimentation and adaptation** D. Self-organization E. Continuous improvement

While agile project management does not consist of one set method, most methods are based on similar principles. Which of the following agile project management principles would be described when creating a flow of value to customers by chunking project delivery into small, functioning increments?

A. Focus on customer value B. Iterative and incremental delivery** C. Experimentation and adaptation D. Self-organization E. Continuous improvement

While agile project management does not consist of one set method, most methods are based on similar principles. Which of the following agile project management principles would be described when employing business-driven prioritizations of requirements and features to satisfy customer needs?

A. Focus on customer value** B. Iterative and incremental delivery C. Experimentation and adaptation D. Self-organization E. Continuous improvement

Tom is responsible for ordering hardware for a custom home his company is building. The contractor installing the hardware is scheduled to start in 5 working days, but the hardware is on backorder and will not arrive for another 9 working days. Fortunately, Tom has 10 days of slack. however, he shares this slack with the hardware installer. He will have to let the contactor know that the hardware will be ready 4 days later than expected and that the slack for the installer has been reduced by 4 days. Tom and the installer share 10 days of

A. Free Slack. B. Shared Slack. C. Total Slack. ** D. Critical Slack. E. Functional Slack.

All of the following are symptoms of organizations struggling with strategy disconnect and unclear priorities EXCEPT

A. Frequent conflicts between managers. B. Inadequate resources. C. Confused employees regarding which projects are more important. D. Not enough projects within the portfolio to make a profit. ** E. People are working on multiple projects and feel inefficient.

Which of the following would be the best method for projects where the final product is not known and the uncertainty is very large?

A. Function point B. Template C. Learning curve D. Phase estimating** E. Apportion

A project team that operates with a full-time project manager as a separate unit from the rest of the organization is structured using organization.

A. Functional B. Balanced matrix C. Weak matrix D. Strong matrix E. Projectized**

MegaComputers Inc., has assigned a project manager for each of the five new-product teams. The managers, as well as the project team members, work on the projects on a full-time basis. The structure being used is organization.

A. Functional B. Balanced matrix C. Weak matrix D. Strong matrix E. Projectized**

Elizabeth is considering how to structure a project team that will not directly disrupt ongoing operations. The project needs to be done quickly and a high level of motivation will be needed in order to do that. For this situation, the organization would be the best choice.

A. Functional B. Balanced matrix C. Weak matrix D. Strong matrix** E. Projectized

______ organization is a hybrid form in which a horizontal project management structure is "overlaid" in the normal functional hierarchy.

A. Functional B. Matrix** C. Project D. Balanced E. Neutral

Which structure would be most appropriate for developing a new, highly innovative product that has strict time constraints?

A. Functional organization B. Balanced matrix C. Dedicated project team** D. Strong matrix E. Weak matrix

In organizations where projects are managed within a ____________, the team member's area manager, not the project manager, is responsible for assessing performance.

A. Functional organization** B. Matrix organization C. Flat organization D. Project organization E. Strong organization

Bill is working on a project involving the upgrading of a management information system. The project is being managed by the information systems department with the coordination of other departments occurring through normal channels. He is working in a organization.

A. Functional** B. Balanced matrix C. Weak matrix D. Strong matrix E. Projectized

The structure that manages projects within the existing organizational structure is organization.

A. Functional** B. Balanced matrix C. Weak matrix D. Strong matrix E. Projectized

Which are the three different matrix systems discussed in the text?

A. Functional, Weak, Strong B. Balanced, Functional, Projectized C. Weak, Strong, Balanced** D. Neutral, Weak, Strong E. Functional, Neutral, Projectized

Which of the following is NOT a wrap-up closure activity that might be found on a checklist?

A. Getting delivery acceptance from the customer B. Reassigning project team members C. Closing accounts and seeing all bills are paid D. Evaluation of team performance** E. Creating a final report

The assumption that all immediate preceding activities must be 100% complete is too restrictive in some situations. When an activity is broken down into smaller segments in order to start the succeeding activity sooner, this is called

A. Hammock activities. B. Concurrent engineering. C. A forward pass. D. Dissecting. E. Laddering. **

It is imperative that the closure facilitator possess the following characteristics EXCEPT

A. Has direct involvement or direct interest in the project. ** B. Is perceived as impartial and fair. C. Has respect for senior management and other project stakeholders. D. Is willing to listen. E. Is perceived as having the best interests of the organization in making decisions.

An important function of an organization's culture is to

A. Help legitimize the management system** B. Complete projects on budget and on schedule C. Provide emotional intelligence for decision making D. Determine the types of projects an organization is to accomplish **Culture helps clarify authority relationships and provide the basis as to why the people who are in a position of authority are there and should be respected.

Refining estimates may be necessary for a number of reasons. For example, resource shortages, in the form of people, equipment, or materials, can extend original estimates. This is a good example of

A. Hidden interaction costs. B. Things going wrong on a project. C. Normal conditions not applying. ** D. Changes in project scope. E. The customer not being clear about their expectations.

Refining estimates may be necessary for a number of reasons. For example, people working on prototype development needing time to interact with the design engineers after the design is completed is a good example of

A. Hidden interaction costs. ** Interaction costs are hidden in estimates. According to the guidelines, each task estimate is supposed to be done independently. However, tasks are rarely completed in a vacuum. Work on one task is dependent upon prior tasks, and the hand-offs between tasks require time and attention. For example, people working on prototype development need to interact with design engineers after the design is completed, whether to simply ask clarifying questions or to make adjustments in the original design.

All of the following are organizational considerations when determining the right project management structure EXCEPT

A. How important project management is to the success of the organization B. What percentage of core work involves projects C. Resource availability D. Assess current practices and determine any changes that are needed to more effectively manage projects E. Budget constraints**

Which of the following is least likely to be included in a work package?

A. How long the work package should take to complete B. A description of work to be performed C. Overhead expenses** D. How much the work package should cost to complete E. The person responsible for the work package

A "Dissemination Mode" is

A. How project schedules are version controlled. B. A description of what is important to project stakeholders. C. What defines how project communication is to occur. ** D. None of these choices.

Which of the following would NOT be appropriate to assess when evaluating team performance?

A. How well the team performed in terms of time, cost, and specifications B. Effectiveness of group decisions C. Individual strengths and weaknesses** D. Customer satisfaction with project deliverables E. Trust among group members

Estimating can be challenged by

A. Human Nature. B. Political dynamics. C. Difficulty in predicting the future. D. All of these choices. **

Tools such as a risk assessment form and a risk severity matrix are used to

A. Identify risks. B. Control risks. C. Assess risks. ** D. Regulate risks. E. Respond to risks.

In the _____________ stage of What is a Project? project the product is delivered to the customer and resources are released from the project.

A. Identifying B. Defining C. Planning D. Executing E. Closing **

In the _____________ stage of What is a Project? you are more likely to find status reports, changes, and the creation of forecasts.

A. Identifying B. Defining C. Planning D. Executing** E. Closing

In the _____________ stage of What is a Project?, a major portion of the actual project work performed.

A. Identifying B. Defining C. Planning D. Executing** E. Closing

In the _____________ stage of What is a Project? the project's schedule and budget will be determined.

A. Identifying B. Defining C. Planning** D. Executing E. Closing

In the _____________ stage of What is a project?, project objectives are established, teams are formed, and major responsibilities are assigned.

A. Identifying B. Defining** C. Planning D. Executing E. Closing

Which of the following is NOT included in a Failure Mode and Effects Analysis?

A. Impact B. Probability C. Detection D. Risk value E. All of these are included. **

Which of the following is NOT a reason why project management has become a standard way of doing business?

A. Increased need for skilled management of stakeholders outside of organization. B. Projects need to be done faster. C. Organizations are doing more project work in-house instead of outsourcing. ** D. Organizations are executing more and more projects. E. Increased product complexity and innovation.

Agile methods can be used on larger scale projects in which several teams are working on different features at the same time. In practice this condition is called

A. Incremental delivery. B. Staging. C. Feature collaboration. D. Scrum. E. Scaling. **

Before an evaluation of the project team can be effective and useful, a minimum core of conditions needs to be in place before the project begins. Which of the following would NOT be one of those conditions?

A. Individuals have the skill set necessary to successfully complete the project** B. Evaluation criteria beyond time, cost and specifications has been established C. Rewards are adequate D. Individual, team responsibilities and performance standards are known by all team members E. Standards for measuring performance exist

Growing pains can arise from implementing a matrix organization due to

A. Influence from other organizations B. The long lead time of implementation** C. Cost and supply chain factors D. Types of projects an organization is attempting to accomplish

A communication plan is a key component for giving guidelines on how to track project

A. Issues. ** B. Costs. C. Defects. D. Both costs and defects.

Why is it necessary to have a time-phased budget baseline?

A. It allows proper resource allocation. B. It shows how much work was accomplished for the money spent. ** C. It reduces schedule slippage when scheduling multiproject resources. D. It is not necessary to have a time-phased budget baseline. E. It reduces fluctuations in cash flow during the project.

All of the following are benefits of scheduling resources before project implementation EXCEPT

A. It allows time for considering reasonable options if resource constraints do exist. B. The project completion date can be established. C. Work packages can be time-phased. D. It allows managers to share resources with other project managers if it is requested without negatively impacting their project. E. It ensures low network sensitivity. **

Which of the following is a disadvantage of a projectized organization?

A. It is expensive** B. Longer project duration C. Poor integration D. High complexity E. Lack of focus on the project

Which of the following is NOT true about project management?

A. It is not limited to the private sector. B. Many opportunities are available for individuals interested in this career path. C. It improves one's ability to plan, implement and manage activities to accomplish specific organizational objectives. D. It focuses primarily on technical processes. ** E. It is a set of tools.

Performance appraisals generally fulfill two functions. The first is to identify individual strengths and weaknesses and to develop action plans for improving performance. The second involves salary or merit adjustments. Why should these two functions be addressed at different times?

A. It is too much information to discuss at once. B. Employees are so eager to learn about a potential raise that they tend to tune out constructive feedback. ** C. Managers tend to spend too much time talking about how the employee can improve his or her performance and not on justifying the salary adjustment. D. If employees are upset over a salary adjustment, they will be more willing to listening to ways they can improve. E. If the manager is giving employees good news regarding their salary adjustment, they will not have to discuss the employees' strengths and weaknesses.

Which of the following is NOT true regarding scope creep?

A. It is when the cost of the project is more than expected. ** B. It is the tendency for the project scope to expand over time. C. It most likely caused by a scope statement that is too broad. D. It can have both positive and negative impacts on a project. E. It can lead to added costs and possible project delays.

All of the following are functions culture plays in an organization EXCEPT

A. It provides a sense of identity. B. It helps legitimize the management system. C. It replaces the need for a project selection process. ** D. It helps create social order. E. It clarifies and reinforces standards of behavior.

Which of the following is NOT true for strategic management?

A. It should be done once every few years just before developing the operating plan. ** B. It supports consistency of action at every level of the organization. C. It develops an integrated and coordinated long-term plan of action. D. It positions the firm to meet the needs of its customers. E. It involves responding to changes in the external market and allocating scarce resources to improve a competitive position.

The following are distinguishing characteristics of retrospectives methodology EXCEPT

A. It uses an independent facilitator. B. It establishes in-process learning gates during the project life cycle. C. An owner, typically a team member, is assigned. D. Reviews cannot be linked to percent complete. ** E. A repository is developed that is easy to use.

Which of the following is NOT true in regard to the level of detail estimates should contain?

A. It will vary with the complexity of the project. B. Detailed estimates are crucial to project success, therefore, an effort should be made to make estimates as detailed as possible for all projects. ** C. The more detailed the estimate is the more the estimate will cost to create. D. Inadequate detail might lead to estimates that fall short of their intended purpose. E. Excessive detail means unproductive paperwork and unnecessary expenditures.

Which of the following is NOT true regarding organizing projects within a matrix arrangement?

A. Its flexibility supports a strong project focus that helps alleviate stress among project team members. ** B. It is designed to optimally utilize resources by having individuals work on multiple projects as well as being capable of performing normal functional duties. C. There are usually two chains of command. D. Provides a dual focus between functional and technical expertise and project requirements that are missing in either the project team or the functional approach. E. It is a hybrid form of organization that combines characteristics of both dedicated project teams and functional organization.

Which of the following will correctly calculate the total slack in an activity?

A. LS - ES B. LF - EF C. LS - LF D. LF - ES E. Either LS - ES or LF - EF**

Accounting would be an example of which of the following costs typically found in a project?

A. Labor B. Direct C. Direct project overhead D. General and administrative overhead** E. Salary

The salary of the project manager would be an example of what type of cost found in a project?

A. Labor** B. Direct C. Direct project overhead D. General and administrative overhead E. Salary

Which of the following is a disadvantage of functional project management organization?

A. Lack of motivation of project team members B. Longer project duration C. Lack of focus on the project D. Poor integration E. All of these are disadvantages of functional project management organization. **

The process for capturing lessons learned continues to evolve, but there are still many barriers to effectively capitalizing on lessons learned that have been identified. The following are examples of these barriers EXCEPT

A. Lack of time. B. Teams get little direction or support after lessons are reported. C. Lessons learned often degenerate into blame sessions. D. Lessons learned are being used across different locations. ** E. The organizational culture doesn't support the effort that it takes to capitalize on lessons learned.

The backward pass in project network calculations determines all of the following EXCEPT

A. Latest time an activity can begin. B. Earliest time an activity can finish. ** C. The critical path. D. How long an activity can be delayed. E. Latest time an activity can finish.

The content of the final report typically includes the following topics EXCEPT

A. Lessons learned. B. Review and analysis. C. Recommendations. D. Executive summary. E. Team reviews. **

Risks are evaluated in terms of

A. Likelihood and cost. B. Cost and schedule. C. Impact and cost. D. Time and impact. E. Likelihood and impact. **

The risk assessment form contains all of the following EXCEPT

A. Likelihood of the risk event occurring. B. Potential impact of the risk event. C. Who will detect the occurrence of the risk event. ** D. Difficulty of detecting the occurrence of the risk event. E. When the risk event may occur.

Which of the following would be classified as an organizational opportunity?

A. Low debt B. Excellent employees C. Increasing product demand** D. Talented management E. Government regulation

Resource leveling or smoothing can have all the following results on a project EXCEPT

A. Lower peak resource demand. B. Reduced resource need over the life of the project. C. Reduced fluctuations in resource demand. D. A longer project duration. ** E. A more sensitive network.

Which of the following is NOT one of the traditional components found in mission statements?

A. Major products and services B. Profitability** C. Target customers and markets D. Geographic domain E. Contribution to society

Funds that are for identified risks that have a low probability of occurring and that decrease as the project progresses are called ______ reserves.

A. Management B. Budget C. Contingency** D. Padded E. Just in case

An unanticipated event that occurs which is beneficial to a project is known as a(n)

A. Management Reserve. B. Success Factor. C. Unscheduled Activity. D. Positive Risk. **

When there are not enough people, money, or equipment available for a project it is known as being

A. Managerially Resourceful. B. Operationally Successful. C. Resource Constrained. ** D. Delayed Without Prejudice.

Which of the following is NOT typical of a project manager?

A. Managing a temporary activity B. Overseeing existing operations** C. Managing a nonrepetitive activity D. Responsible for time, cost and performance trade-offs E. Work with a group of outsiders, including vendors and suppliers

Learning curves are more likely to be applied in situations where most of the costs are

A. Materials. B. Labor. ** C. Overhead. D. Evenly spread over materials, labor, and overhead. E. Labor and materials.

All of the following are types of resource constraints EXCEPT

A. Materials. B. People. C. Equipment. D. Information. E. Human. **

Identified weaknesses of high expense, conflict between the team and the organization, and difficult post-project transitions are typical of

A. Matrixed Teams B. Functional Teams C. Dedicated Teams** D. None of the above

Which of the following is an advantage of a functional project management organization?

A. Maximum flexibility in the use of staff** B. Good integration across functional units C. Shorter project duration D. Strong motivation of project team members E. Longer project duration

A key aspect to communication plans are that they allow the project manager and the project team to

A. Meet deadlines more effectively. B. Focus on defect resolution. C. Effectively control costs on the project. D. Actively control the flow of information. **

Which of the following is typically the responsibility of a project manager?

A. Meeting budget requirements B. Meeting schedule requirements C. Meeting performance specifications D. Coordinating the actions of the team members E. All of these are typical responsibilities. **

Which of the following cultural characteristic relates to the degree to which rules, policies, and direct supervision are used to oversee and control employee behavior?

A. Member identity B. Team Emphasis C. Managerial focus D. Unit integration E. Control**

Which of the following cultural characteristics relates to the degree to which groups within the organization are encouraged to operate in a coordinated or independent manner?

A. Member identity B. Team emphasis C. Managerial focus D. Unit integration** E. Control

Which of the following cultural characteristics relates to the degree to which work activities are organized around groups rather than individuals?

A. Member identity B. Team emphasis** C. Managerial focus D. Unit integration E. Control

Which of the following cultural characteristics relates to the degree to which employees identify with the organization as a whole rather than with their type of job or field of professional expertise?

A. Member identity** B. Team emphasis C. Managerial focus D. Unit integration E. Control

______ activities are to be completed immediately following a particular activity.

A. Merge B. Burst C. Predecessor D. Successor** E. Parallel

Adopting proven technology instead of experimental technology in order to eliminate technical failure would be an example of which risk response?

A. Mitigating B. Retaining C. Ignoring D. Transferring E. Avoiding **

Purchasing an accident insurance policy would be an example of responding to a risk by _____________ it.

A. Mitigating B. Retaining C. Ignoring D. Transferring** E. Avoiding

In all cases of looking for an ideal project culture, there is always the need for

A. More funding. B. Balance among multiple project dimensions. C. Considerable support from all levels of management. ** D. A very strong Project Management Office.

Splitting an activity can result in all of the following EXCEPT

A. More people working on the same activity. ** B. Possible startup and shutdown costs. C. A resource being moved from one activity to another and then back. D. Activity work being placed on hold for a period until more resources are available. E. A better project schedule.

Which of the following problems refers to lack of understanding and consensus of organization strategy among top and middle-level managers? This also can result when top management formulates strategy and leaves implementation to functional managers.

A. Multitasking B. Organization politics C. Implementation gap** D. Resource conflicts E. Employee turnover

Which of these is NOT part of the "sociocultural dimension" of project management?

A. Negotiation B. Resource allocation** C. Managing customer expectations D. Leadership E. Dealing with politics

Which of the following is a good example of a Process Breakdown Structure?

A. New car prototype B. New software program** C. New instruction manual D. New sports stadium E. New project management book

Traditional project management practices require

A. New technology B. A high degree of predictability** C. Variability in requirements D. Strong project management

When a project starts with a high priority but it is canceled because its rank erodes or crashes during its project life cycle. This is an example of what type of project closure?

A. Normal B. Premature C. Perpetual D. Failed project E. Changed priority**

This type of closure occurs when the project may never seem to end. At some point the review group should recommend methods for bringing final closure to this type of project. This is considered to be ___________ closure.

A. Normal B. Premature C. Perpetual** D. Changed priority E. Failed project

When the project may be completed early with some parts of the project eliminated this is considered to be ___________ closure.

A. Normal B. Premature** C. Perpetual D. Changed priority E. Failed project

Because of circumstances beyond the control of the project team, many projects are easy for a review group to close down. This type of project closure is called

A. Normal. B. Premature. C. Perpetual. D. Failed project. ** E. Changed priority.

Factors in identifying cultural characteristics include all the following EXCEPT

A. Norms. B. Customs. C. Values. D. Attitude. E. All of these are factors in identifying cultural characteristics. **

One common mistake made early in the risk identification process is to

A. Not consider all possibilities. B. Encourage participants be over optimistic. C. Support participants being over pessimistic. D. Focus on consequences and not on the events that could produce consequences. ** E. Give too much attention to past events.

Which of the following would best represent direct project costs?

A. Only labor B. Only materials C. Only equipment D. Both labor and materials** E. Labor, materials and equipment

Information to develop a project network is collected from the

A. Organization breakdown structure. B. Work breakdown structure. ** C. Budget. D. Project proposal. E. Responsibility matrix.

On a project network, the activity times are derived from the

A. Organization breakdown structure. B. Work packages. ** C. Budget. D. Project proposal. E. Responsibility matrix.

Which of the following is NOT a problem associated with the absence of a project portfolio system?

A. Organizational politics B. Lack of funding** C. Resource conflicts D. Multitasking E. Implementation gap

When a company will reduce the number of projects they have to manage internally to only core projects and send noncritical projects to contractors and consulting firms this is called

A. Outsourcing. ** B. Redistribution of projects. C. Project allocation. D. Task sharing. E. Referring.

When looking at the critical path for a delayed project and the project manager sees that adding resources will reduce or remove the delay, the project manager knows that the project is

A. Over Allocated. B. Time-Constrained. ** C. Institutionally Challenged. D. Ahead of schedule.

While balancing assignments, a project manager must also balance:

A. Overall project cost. B. Talent development. ** C. Earned value. D. Work package slack.

Which of the following is NOT one of the more common problems associated with scheduling multiproject resources?

A. Overall schedule slippage B. Inefficient resource utilization C. Decline in project quality** D. Resource bottlenecks E. Delays in one project causing delays in other projects

Each retrospective is assigned a(n) _________, typically a team member who is very interested in and familiar with the retrospective. This individual will serve as the contact point for anyone needing information relating to the retrospective.

A. Owner** B. Project sponsor C. Project manager D. Project facilitator E. Mediator

A guide who leads the project team through an analysis of project activities that went well and of what needs improvement and aids in the development of a follow-up action plan with goals and accountability is a(n)

A. Owner. B. Project sponsor. C. Project manager. D. Project facilitator. ** E. Mediator.

Richard is collecting estimates for a house that he will have the funding to build in 12 months. Which of the following factors does Richard need to consider in regard to the quality of these estimates?

A. Padding estimates B. Planning horizon** C. Project structure D. People E. Project duration

Ed is looking over the actual results of projects and comparing them to what was estimated. He notices that the projects that took six months or longer to complete were noticeably more off the estimates. Which of the following factors is he recognizing?

A. Padding estimates B. Project duration "Planning Horizon"? ** C. Project structure D. People E. Organization culture

Janet is forecasting how much money her department needs to support a new project. She estimates that two people and $25,000 in expenses will cover her needs. Because management typically insists on reducing forecasts by 20 percent, she increases her estimates to allow for that reduction. Which of the following factors is illustrated in this situation?

A. Padding estimates** B. Planning horizon C. Project structure D. People E. Organization culture

A(n) activity has more than one dependency arrow flowing from it.

A. Parallel B. Critical path C. Burst** D. Merge E. Independent

An activity that has more than one dependency arrow flowing into it is termed a(n)

A. Parallel activity. B. Critical path. C. Burst activity. D. Merge activity. ** E. Independent activity.

Activities which can take place at the same time are termed

A. Parallel activity. ** B. Critical path. C. Burst activity. D. Merge activity. E. Independent activity.

Which of the following is NOT one of the bottom-up approaches to estimating project time and cost?

A. Parametric procedures applied to specific tasks B. Estimates for the WBS work packages C. Learning curve** D. Template method E. Range estimates

Rob is responsible for estimating a work package that has a significant amount of uncertainty associated with the time and cost to complete. Due to the uncertainty involved he will be making a low, an average and a high estimate. Rob is using which estimating approach?

A. Parametric procedures applied to specific tasks B. Template method C. Apportion method D. Range estimating** E. Learning curve

An external view of a Mega Project based upon the outcome of similar projects undertaken in the past is known as:

A. Pareto Charting. B. The Monte Carlo Method. C. Reference Class Forecasting. ** D. Big Data Analysis. **This method is put forward by Flyvbjerg as a leading way to mitigate overall project risk for this class of project.

A good starting point for developing time and cost estimates is

A. Past experience. ** B. Work packages. C. Task analysis. D. Time and motion studies. E. Work breakdown structure.

A sequence of connected, dependent activities is termed a(n)

A. Path of events. B. Parallel path. C. Activity chain. D. Path. ** E. Dependent chain.

Organizational culture is best explained as organizational

A. Personality. ** B. Hierarchy. C. Reporting relationships. D. Background. E. Management style.

A Process Breakdown Structure can provide a reasonable alternative to a Work Breakdown structure for an extensive development project if

A. Phase exit criteria is firmly established. ** B. There are appropriate predecessor relationships in place. C. Deliverables are tightly aligned to milestones. D. Risk planning is included early in the project.

Sam, the project engineer, has been scheduled to run the product system test at the same time he is to build a marketing prototype. This is an example of what type of resource constraint?

A. Physical B. Technical C. People** D. Equipment E. Time

When considering the sequence and timing of activities, which of the following is NOT one of the types of project network constraints?

A. Physical B. Technical C. Resource D. Time E. All of these are types of constraints that could impact structure of the project network.

Susan is to conduct environmental testing but the chamber cannot hold all the equipment that she wants to test. This is an example of a constraint that could impact the sequence and timing of activities in a project network. What type of constraint is it?

A. Physical B. Technical C. Resource** D. Scheduling E. Time

When developing a new software package, logically, the software must be designed before the code is written, and the code must be written before it is tested. These activities are dependent on each other by _________ constraints.

A. Physical B. Technical** C. Resource D. Schedule E. Time

Which of the following is NOT one of the factors that need to be considered to improve quality of estimates for project times and costs?

A. Planning horizon B. People C. Padding estimates D. Profit** E. Project structure

Which of the following represents the correct order of stages within the project life cycle?

A. Planning, Defining, Executing, Closing B. Closing, Planning, Defining, Executing C. Defining, Planning, Executing, Closing** D. Executing, Defining, Planning, Closing E. Planning, Defining, Closing, Executing

Which of the following is a good example of a program?

A. Planting a garden B. Developing a new residential area that includes six custom homes ** C. Developing a new marketing plan D. Taking notes each class meeting to prepare for the final E. Planning a wedding

Susie's department is implementing many projects. She finds herself starting and stopping work on one task to go and work on another task, and then return to the work on the original task. Susie is experiencing

A. Poor scheduling. B. Excess work burden. C. Flexible tasking. D. Multitasking. ** E. Burnout.

Which of the following activities is the best example of a project?

A. Processing insurance claims B. Producing automobiles C. Writing a policy manual** D. Monitoring product quality E. Overseeing customer requests

One of the primary jobs of a project manager is to manage the trade-offs associated with the project. Which of the following is NOT one of the basic classifications of project priorities?

A. Profit** B. Cost C. Time D. Performance E. All of these are basic classifications.

When creating a project network, your primary input will be the

A. Project Charter. B. Work Packages. ** C. Risk Plan. D. Communication Plan.

A ____________ (responsible for the work package) involved in risk assessment and mitigation will help focus attention on all aspects of risk management.

A. Project Manager B. Line Person C. Stakeholder D. All of these choices are correct. **

1hich of the following statements is true?

A. Project management is far from a standard way of doing business. B. Project management is increasingly contributing to achieving organizational strategies. ** C. Project management is being used at a consistent percentage of a firm's efforts. D. Project management is a specialty that few organizations have access to. E. All of these statements are false.

One who endorses and lends political support for the completion of a specific project is known as the

A. Project manager. B. CEO. C. Project sponsor. ** D. Project lead. E. Sacred cow.

In many cases, _________ only begin to understand what they actually desire when they are provided with someone's impression of what they want.

A. Project managers B. Customers** C. Sponsors D. Team leaders E. None of these choices are correct.

Which of the following is NOT true about organizational politics?

A. Project managers should not engage in organizational politics. ** B. Politics can have a significant influence on which projects receive funding. C. Politics exist in every organization. D. Politics can influence project selection. E. Politics can play a role in the aspirations behind projects.

The _________ is the customer's prioritized list of key features desired when the project is completed.

A. Project master B. Spirit backlog C. Creative backlog D. Product backlog** E. Project list

The project scope statement indicates that the client is responsible for training the people who will be using the equipment and that the project team will train the client's trainers. This is an example of

A. Project objectives. B. Deliverables. C. Limits and exclusions. ** D. Technical requirements. E. Milestones.

Which of the following is identified to cover major unforeseen risks and, hence, are applied to the total project?

A. Project reserves B. Management reserves** C. Time buffers D. Activity reserves E. Budget reserves

In reviewing the project plan, Susan sees that the first prototype must be completed by October, this would be best classified as a

A. Project target. B. Limit item. C. Milestone. ** D. Project objective. E. Critical goal.

Which of the following groups should NOT be a part of the risk identification process?

A. Project team B. Customers C. Subcontractors D. Vendors E. All of these groups can be included in the risk identification process. **

An uncertain event or condition that, if it occurs, has a positive or negative effect on project objectives is termed a

A. Random chance. B. Disaster. C. Risk. ** D. Hazard. E. Bad luck.

Laura is forecasting the time and cost of developing an intranet for a new customer. Her department has completed six such intranets for customers during the last two years. Although the proposed system is about the same size as the others, she estimates that it will take about 10 percent less time and money. Which of the following methods is she using?

A. Ratio B. Template C. Apportion D. Function point E. Learning curve**

Sean is forecasting the time and cost of developing a customized software program by looking at the number of inputs, outputs, inquiries, files, and interfaces. Which of the following methods is he using?

A. Ratio B. Template C. Apportion D. Function point** E. Learning curve

Which of the following methods is NOT considered a top-down approach to estimating project time and cost?

A. Ratio B. Template** C. Apportion D. Function point E. Learning curve

Jose is forecasting project time and cost for constructing a new building by multiplying the total square footage by a given dollar amount. Which of the following methods is he using?

A. Ratio** B. Template C. Apportion D. Function point E. Learning curve

How does someone learn more about an organization's culture?

A. Read about the organization B. Interpret stories about the organization C. Observe how people interact within the organization D. Study the physical characteristics of the organization E. All of these are examples of how someone can learn more about an organization's culture. **

Corporate downsizing has increased the trend toward

A. Reducing the number of projects a company initiates. B. Outsourcing significant segments of project work. C. Using dedicated project teams. ** D. Shorter project lead times. E. Longer project lead times.

Project budgets are developed by time-phasing which of the following?

A. Resource schedules B. Work packages** C. The network diagram D. Critical activities E. None of these are time-phased to develop a project budget.

If resources are not adequate to meet peak demands, the resulting reschedule is termed

A. Resource-constrained scheduling. ** B. Time-constrained scheduling. C. Mandatory leveling. D. Project resource adjustment. E. Allocation.

Technical constraints have been carefully considered when developing a project network. Which of the following is true at this point?

A. Resources have been assigned to each activity so they are adequate to complete the project on time. B. Technical dependencies between activities are known. ** C. The project completion date can be established. D. The project is ready to be implemented. E. All of these are true statements once technical constraints have been established.

The WBS is best suited for projects that have a tangible outcome. Which of the following is used when the final outcome of the project is less tangible or is a product of a series of steps or phases?

A. Responsibility matrix B. Organization breakdown structure C. A work breakdown structure is still effective for these types of projects. D. Priority matrix E. Process breakdown structure**

The is used to assist in making project trade-offs among schedule, budget, and performance objectives.

A. Responsibility matrix B. Work breakdown structure C. Project priority matrix** D. Work package E. Criterion matrix

If a project is small and does not require an elaborate system to assign tasks, which of the following is a good choice?

A. Responsibility matrix** B. Organization breakdown structure C. Work breakdown structure D. Priority matrix E. Process breakdown structure

Jose is looking at a document that outlines the specific deliverables and sub-deliverables required to complete the writing of a technical support manual. He is most likely viewing the

A. Responsibility matrix. B. Organization breakdown structure. C. Work breakdown structure. ** D. Priority matrix. E. Work package.

The integration of the lowest level of the WBS with the organizational units responsible for performing the work is known as

A. Responsibility matrix. B. Organization breakdown structure. ** C. Work breakdown structure. D. Priority matrix. E. Process breakdown structure.

When work packages are integrated with organizational units, a control point is created called a

A. Responsibility matrix. B. Priority matrix. C. Work package. D. Cost account. ** E. Project overlap.

_________ of lessons learned are designed to improve performance on current and future projects.

A. Retrospectives** B. Corrective action plans C. Introspectives D. Culminations E. Evolutions

Organizations use __________ in conjunction with work breakdown structures to help management teams identify and eventually analyze risk.

A. Risk breakdown structures** B. Contingency breakdown structures C. Scenario analysis D. Organizational breakdown structure E. Risk assessment

The attempt to recognize and manage potential and unforeseen trouble spots that may occur when a project is implemented is known as

A. Risk forecasting. B. Risk management. ** C. Contingency planning. D. Scenario analysis. E. Disaster protection.

_______________ focuses on how to respond to events that have a positive impact on a project.

A. Risk management B. Opportunity management** C. Value management D. Contingency management E. Prospect management

A list of questions that address traditional areas of uncertainty on a project is termed a

A. Risk profile. ** B. Questionnaire. C. Research matrix. D. Query. E. Checklist.

Which of the following is NOT one of the steps in the risk management process?

A. Risk response development B. Risk assessment C. Risk identification D. Risk tracking** E. Risk response control

Which of the following cultural characteristics relates to the degree to which management focuses on outcomes rather than on techniques and processes used to achieve those outcomes?

A. Risk tolerance B. Reward criteria C. Conflict tolerance D. Means versus end orientation** E. Open-systems focus

The assessment of the external and internal environments is called _______ analysis.

A. SWOT (Strengths, Weaknesses, Opportunities, and Threats) ** B. Competitive C. Industry D. Market E. Strategic

Which of the following terms is often used to denote a project that a powerful, high-ranking official is advocating?

A. Sacred cow** The term 'sacred cow' is often used to denote a project that a powerful, high-ranking official is advocating. ** B. Pet project C. Political necessity D. Special undertaking E. Strategic ploy

An analysis carried out during and shortly after the project life cycle that attempts to capture positive and negative learning is represented in which of the following?

A. Scenario analysis B. Variance analyses C. Lessons learned D. Performance evaluation** E. Strategic objectives

Most changes on a project are related to

A. Scope Changes. B. Improvement Changes. C. Implementing Contingency Plans. D. All of these choices are correct**

The tendency for the project deliverables to expand over time-usually by changing requirements, specifications, and priorities-is called

A. Scope erosion. B. Scope creep. ** C. Project bloat. D. Scope enhancement. E. Project add-ons.

A ________ is defined as a piece of a product that delivers some useful functionality to a customer.

A. Scrum B. Value C. Spirit D. Feature** E. Priority

Scrum relies on three key roles. A person who facilitates the Scrum process and resolves impediments at the team and organizational level is called a

A. Scrum master. ** B. Project champion. C. Scrum leader. D. Product owner. E. Production coordinator.

A new holistic approach in new commercial product development efforts where the cross-functional team collaborating to develop a new product is compared to rugby, where the whole team tries to go the distance as a unit is known as

A. Scrum. ** B. Specific project management. C. Traditional project management. D. Prioritized WBS. E. Functional teams.

These are all guidelines a project manager should consider when EXCEPT

A. Select people with compatible work habits and personalities. B. Always assign the best people to the most difficult tasks. ** C. When possible, team veterans up with new hires. D. Select individuals with skillsets that complement each other. E. Have people work together early so that they can become familiar with each other.

Project governance does NOT include

A. Setting standards for project selection. B. Overseeing project management activities. C. Centralization of project processes and practices. D. Options for continuous improvement. E. Allowing project managers to plan the project the way they see fit. **

As the number of small projects increase within an organization's portfolio, what is a challenge an organization faces?

A. Sharing resources B. Measuring efficiency C. Managing risk D. Prioritizing projects E. All of these are challenges. **

Resources are adequate, but demand varies widely over the life of the project. Delaying noncritical activities to lower peak demand on resources is known as resource

A. Shifting. B. Effectiveness. C. Manipulating. D. Smoothing. ** E. Allocation.

The critical path in a project network is the

A. Shortest path through the network. B. Longest path through the network. ** C. Network path with the most difficult activities. D. Network path using the most resources. E. Network path with the most merge activities.

Which of the following describes the consensus method?

A. Should be used only for projects that require the same task, group of tasks, or product to be repeated several times B. Uses several people with relevant experience regarding the task at hand to make time and cost estimates C. Uses pooled experience of senior or middle managers to estimate the total project duration and cost** D. Uses the number of square feet to estimate the total cost and time of the project E. Uses weighted macro variables or major parameters such as the number of inputs or outputs to estimate the total cost and time of the project

Which of the following would be classified as an organizational external threat?

A. Slowing of the economy** B. Excellent employees C. Poor product quality D. Declining facilities E. High labor costs

The chances of a risk event occurring as a project proceeds through its life cycle tend to

A. Slowly rise. B. Drop sharply and then level out. C. Rise sharply and then level out. D. Remain about the same. E. Slowly drop. **

The cost impact of a risk event occurring as a project proceeds through its life cycle tends to

A. Slowly rise. ** B. Drop sharply and then level out. C. Rise sharply and then level out. D. Remain about the same. E. Slowly drop.

In a resource-constrained project the third priority in assigning resources is usually given to activities with the

A. Smallest duration. B. Least slack. C. Most slack. D. Lowest identification number. ** E. Highest cost.

Jan is trying to reallocate resources in a time-constrained project to create smoother resource utilization. She should first identify activities with the

A. Smallest duration. B. Least slack. C. Most slack. ** D. Lowest identification number. E. Highest cost.

In a resource-constrained project, the first priority in assigning resources is usually given to activities with the

A. Smallest duration. B. Least slack. ** C. Most slack. D. Lowest identification number. E. Highest cost.

In a resource-constrained project the second priority in assigning resources is usually given to activities with the

A. Smallest duration. ** B. Least slack. C. Most slack. D. Lowest identification number. E. Highest cost.

___________ represents the amount of work the team commits to complete during the next sprint.

A. Sprint backlog** B. Product backlog C. Project backlog D. Schedule backlog E. Task backlog

Scrum uses a series of coordinated meetings to manage the development process. During which of the following is it discussed what was done since the last meeting, what will be done before the next meeting, and if anything is limiting performance?

A. Sprint planning meeting B. Release planning meeting C. Sprint review meeting D. Daily Scrum meeting** E. Sprint retrospective meeting

Scrum uses a series of coordinated meetings to manage the development process. During which of the following are goals and the general plan for the project established?

A. Sprint planning meeting B. Release planning meeting** C. Sprint review meeting D. Daily scrum meeting E. Sprint retrospective meeting

Scrum uses a series of coordinated meetings to manage the development process. Which of the following is held at the start of each sprint? During this meeting the product owner and development team negotiate which product backlog items the team will attempt during the next sprint.

A. Sprint planning meeting** B. Release planning meeting C. Sprint review meeting D. Daily Scrum meeting E. Sprint retrospective meeting

Project ________ varies according to the extent the project scope is known and stable and the technology to be used is known and proven.

A. Stability B. Balance C. Unity D. Uncertainty** E. Degree

In order for lessons learned to be effective and usable by others a(n) ___________ needs to be assigned to assure it is properly documented and understood.

A. Stakeholder B. Owner** C. Project Manager D. Software Developer

The requirement for a freshly poured foundation to cure before beginning construction is an example of which of the following type of lag?

A. Start to Start B. Start to Finish C. Finish to Finish D. Finish to Start** E. Any of these could be correct.

If testing cannot be completed any earlier than four days after the prototype has been built, what type of lag exists?

A. Start to Start B. Start to Finish C. Finish to Finish** D. Finish to Start E. Any of these could be correct.

System documentation cannot end until three days after testing has started. This is an example of which kind of lag?

A. Start to Start B. Start to Finish** C. Finish to Finish D. Finish to Start E. Any of these could be correct.

Concurrent engineering, which has dramatically reduced the development time for new products, relies on what kind of lag?

A. Start to Start lags** B. Start to Finish lags C. Finish to Finish lags D. Finish to Start lags E. Any of these could be correct.

Which of the following is the correct order for the strategic management process?

A. Strategies, mission, objectives, projects B. Objectives, projects, mission, strategies C. Mission, strategies, objectives, projects** D. Objectives, mission, strategies, projects E. Projects, mission, strategies, objectives

Which of the following is NOT true about an organization's strategy?

A. Strategy determines how an organization will compete. B. Strategy is implemented through projects. C. Only top management must understand strategy. ** D. Project selection should be clearly aligned with strategy. E. Project management plays a key role in supporting strategy.

A series of coordinated, related, multiple projects that continue over an extended time period and are intended to achieve a goal is known as a

A. Strategy. B. Program. ** C. Campaign. D. Crusade. E. Venture.

Which of the following combinations represents the extremes of project organization?

A. Strong matrix and balanced matrix B. Functional and projectized** C. Projectized and balanced matrix D. Projectized and strong matrix E. Strong matrix and functional

Which of the below is not considered a strength for a matrix organization?

A. Strong project focus B. Flexibility C. Easier post-project transition D. Streamlined project selection**

Rachel is working on a project that technically allows three activities to be done at the same time. If they were to be implemented at the same time, she would need 5 contractors in order for the activities to be completed on time. There are only 3 available for her to use. This is an example of what type of constraint?

A. Technical B. People** C. Equipment D. Physical E. Materials

Two dimensions within the project management process are

A. Technical and sociocultural. ** B. Cost and time. C. Planned and unexpected. D. Established and new. E. Unique and reoccurring.

The ability of a 911 emergency system to identify the caller's phone number and location is considered to be a

A. Technical requirement. ** B. Milestone. C. Project limit. D. Project exclusion. E. Project deliverable.

Risks that can result in a system or process that will not work are known as

A. Technical risks. ** B. Funding risks. C. Schedule risks. D. Cost risks. E. Unnecessary risks.

When determining project uncertainty, _________ can be a source of unpredictability.

A. Technology** B. Clients C. Vendors D. Sponsors E. WBS

Tony has realized that two activities in his project cannot be done at the same time because not enough resources are available. Activity 3 is critical and has a duration of 5 days. Activity 4 has 2 days of slack and a duration of 2 days. How will he decide which activity should be scheduled first?

A. The activity with the smallest duration B. The activity with the least slack** C. The activity with the most slack D. The activity with the lowest identification number E. The activity with the highest cost

In a resource-constrained project, which of the following is most likely to be changed?

A. The completion date** B. The budget C. Project quality D. Resource levels E. Scope creep

Which organization's culture is NOT a culture a project manager has to be able to operate in or interact with?

A. The culture of their parent organization B. The culture of government and regulatory agencies C. The culture of vendors and subcontractors D. The culture of the project's customer or client E. All of these are cultures a project manager has to be able to operate in or interact with. **

Who is responsible for determining how tasks will be done in a weak matrix project management structure?

A. The functional manager** B. The project manager C. Both the functional manager and the project manager are responsible D. There is no rule established for who takes responsibility. E. This is negotiated

How is project scope defined?

A. The length of your project and how much it will cost B. The deliverables or outputs during the course of the project C. The range of resources you have available and their capabilities D. What you expect to deliver to your customer when the project is complete** E. The range of customer expectations

A project screening matrix typically contains all of the following EXCEPT

A. The list of available projects. B. Specific criteria. C. Weights assigned to specific criteria. D. Costs to complete each project. ** E. All of these are typically contained.

A project selection process that is strongly linked to strategy results in

A. The most profit. B. Better utilization of the organization's resources. ** C. More projects. D. A larger and more diverse organization. E. Stronger core competencies.

The implications of an identified change need to be assessed by:

A. The primary project stakeholder. B. The Chief Fiscal Officer. C. A person with expertise related to the change. ** D. The authorizing project manager.

The purpose of project evaluation is to assess how well

A. The project team performed. B. The team members performed. C. The project manager performed. D. The project team and team members performed. E. The project team, team members and project manager performed. **

Which of the following is NOT true when managing a portfolio system?

A. The qualities of a particular project are assessed within the context of existing projects. B. It does not require a constant effort. ** C. Within a small organization it can be managed by a small group of key employees. D. It requires input from senior management. E. It involves monitoring and adjusting criteria to reflect the strategic focus of the organization.

At the project level, which of the following is a factor that should influence the choice of project management structure?

A. The size of the project B. The novelty of the project C. Budget and time constraints D. The strategic importance of the project E. All of these are factors that should influence the choice of project management structure. **

When completing a backward pass, you carry the LS to the next preceding activity to establish the LF, unless the next preceding activity is a burst activity, in which case you select

A. The smallest LS of all its immediate successor activities to establish the LF. ** B. The largest ES of all its immediate successor activities to establish the LF. C. The average LS of all its immediate successor activities to establish the LF. D. The smallest ES of all its immediate successor activities to establish the LF. E. The largest LS of all its immediate successor activities to establish the LF.

Which of the following is NOT true of a development team using Scrum methodology?

A. The team is self-organizing. B. They have the authority to change features and priorities at the end of each sprint. ** C. The team is typically made up of 5 to 9 people. D. They are responsible for achieving the commitments they make at the sprint planning and review meetings. E. There are no designated roles or titles.

It is common to use the functional organizational model when

A. There is direct influence from outside organizations B. The project manager has functional authority over any of the department heads C. One functional area plays a dominant role in the project** D. A technical organizational model will not work

What is the relationship between organizational culture and estimating?

A. There is no relationship. B. Cultural norms affect the accuracy of estimates. ** C. Culture determines whether estimates are made. D. Estimating alters cultural norms. E. Estimating and culture are independent.

Which of the following does NOT help describe a bottom-up estimating approach?

A. They are made by someone who uses experience or information from someone else to determine overall project cost and duration. ** B. They establish low-cost, efficient methods for completing activities. C. They typically comes from the people actually doing the work and who are most knowledgeable about the task at hand. D. Estimates are made at the work package level and then "rolled up" to determine estimates for major deliverables and for the project itself. E. They can take place after the project has been planned in detail.

Which of the following is true about hammock activities?

A. They are used to identify the use of fixed resources or costs over a segment of a project. ** B. They are a combination of Start to Start and Start to Finish lags. C. They are activities in which the costs are not subject to change. D. They are an alternative description for the critical path. E. They are highly sensitive.

Which of the following is NOT true of project management structures?

A. They provide a framework for launching and implementing projects. B. They appropriately balance the needs of both the parent organization and the project. C. In selecting a management structure, the culture of the organization is not a huge consideration. ** D. The project itself should be considered when determining which structure is best. E. They help determine who has most authority in regard to managing the project.

Traditional approaches to project management concentrate firmly on

A. Thorough planning up front. ** B. New technology. C. Flexibility. D. Change. E. Iterative development.

In reviewing the status of her project with top management, Shirley was told that there are only two programmers that she can use for her project. Her project is classified as __________ constrained.

A. Time B. Quality C. Cost D. Performance E. Resource ** **A resource-constrained project is one that assumes the level of resources available cannot be exceeded. If the resources are inadequate, it will be acceptable to delay the project, but as little as possible.

Regina's boss has told her that her project is very important. If the critical path is delayed, she will be given whatever she needs to get it back on schedule. Her project is classified as ________ constrained.

A. Time** B. Quality C. Cost D. Performance E. Resource

Most of the scheduling methods available today require the project manager to classify the project as either _______ constrained or ______ constrained.

A. Time, quality B. Quality, resource C. Cost, time D. Quality, cost E. Time, resource **

Why do project managers need to understand their organization's mission and strategy?

A. To reduce project duration and increase the number of projects implemented B. So they can make appropriate decisions and adjustments and be effective project advocates** C. It is only important for senior management to understand the organization's mission and strategy. D. To get their job done and increase opportunities for promotion E. So that they can make sure the customer is satisfied

Reasons why estimating time and cost are important include all of the following EXCEPT

A. To schedule work. B. To determine how long the project should take and cost. C. To develop cash flow needs. D. To determine how well the project is progressing. E. To help establish a project selection process. **

In practice, estimating processes are frequently classified as

A. Top down & bottom up. **

The amount of delay within a task that will not delay the overall project is known as a

A. Total Slack. ** B. Estimated Effort. C. Opportunity Cost. D. Both Total Slack and Opportunity Cost are correct.

Which of the following can be used without coordinating with managers of succeeding activities?

A. Total slack B. Free slack** C. Critical float D. Float pad E. Slip pad

The amount of time an activity can be delayed and yet not delay the project is termed

A. Total slack. ** B. Free slack. C. Critical float. D. Float pad. E. Slip pad.

Change management systems are designed to accomplish all of the following EXCEPT

A. Track all changes that are to be implemented. B. Review, evaluate, and approve or disapprove proposed changes formally. C. Identify expected effects of proposed changes on schedule and budget. D. Reflect scope changes in baseline and performance measures. E. All of these are examples of what change management systems are designed to accomplish. **

While it may be true that Mega Projects are by nature extremely difficult to estimate, another factor identified in the consistent pattern of estimating difficulties is:

A. Unidentified risks. B. Deception. ** C. Economic downturn. D. Both unidentified risks and economic downturn. **The deception may be intentional or unintentional.

Which of these is NOT part of the "technical dimension" of project management?

A. WBS B. Budgets C. Problem solving Resource Allocation & Scope** D. Schedules E. Status reports

A project budget report is showing our project as spending $35,000 against a budgeted amount of $40,000. Which of the following is true?

A. We are spending less than we should for the project. B. We are doing a good job managing the project. C. We should check to see if all the bills have been paid. D. We have more money to put into budget reserves. E. We can't be sure how the project is going. **

In which of the following is the balance of authority strongly in favor of the functional managers?

A. Weak matrix** B. Balanced matrix C. Strong matrix D. Matrix E. Neutral matrix

Which of the following questions does the organization's mission statement answer?

A. What are our long-term strategies? B. What are our long-term goals and objectives? C. How do we operate in the existing environment? D. What do we want to become? E. All of these are answered by the mission statement. **

Having a strong communication plan can go a long way toward mitigating project problems. A communication plan should address all of the following EXCEPT

A. When the information will be communicated. B. How information should be communicated and to whom. C. Which methods will be used to gather and store information. D. What information needs to be collected and are there limits as to who has access to it. E. All of these should be addressed in a communication plan. **

Which of the following is a good condition for bottom-up estimating?

A. When the project involves strategic decision making B. When the project is internal and small C. When there is a fixed price contract** D. When there is high uncertainty involved in the project E. When there is an unstable scope

Which of the following is true of multiweighted scoring models?

A. Will include quantitative criteria B. Will include qualitative criteria C. Each criterion is assigned a weight. D. Projects with higher scores are considered more desirable. E. All of these are true. **

All of the following are ways the WBS helps in managing projects EXCEPT

A. With cost and time estimates the WBS makes it possible to plan, schedule and budget the project. B. It provides management with information appropriate to each level. C. Can be used to define communication channels. D. Allows the project manager to establish the overall objective of the project. ** E. As it is developed, organizational units and individuals can be assigned responsibility of work packages.

One way for a project manager to communicate the authority granted to individual project members is to publish a

A. Work Breakdown Structure. B. Project Plan. C. Responsibility Matrix. ** D. Project Communication Plan.

When deciding which staff to team-up to work on work packages, factors to consider are:

A. Work habits. B. Practical Experience. C. Years of working in the company. D. All of these choices are correct. **

All of the following are usually included in a work package EXCEPT

A. Work to be done. B. The time needed to complete the work. C. A single person who is responsible for its completion. D. All the costs for the work package. E. All of these are included in a work package. **

Project management is important to understand when people are a part of a project team because they

A. Work with others to create a schedule and budget. B. Need to understand project priorities so they can make independent decisions. C. Need to be able to monitor and report project progress. D. Need to understand the project charter or scope statement that defines the objectives and parameters of the project. E. All of these are reasons it is important for project team members to understand project management. **

Gene is trying to order the concrete needed to continue his project. However, the supplier will not be able to deliver it until next week. This is an example of what kind of resource constraint?

A. Working capital B. People C. Equipment D. Information E. Materials **

A special truck that George needs on his project has been scheduled on another project. This is an example of what type of resource constraint?

A. Working capital B. People C. Equipment** D. Information E. Materials

The major deliverable when closing out a project that includes a causal analysis and identification of lessons learned is known as

A. Wrapping up a Project. B. Project Audit. ** C. Evaluation of Performance. D. Evaluation of Management.

A SWOT analysis provides the Project Manager with

A. a direct linkage to goals. B. identifiable strategic alternative. C. potential critical issues facing the organization. D. identifiable strategic alternative and potential critical issues facing the organization. **

Project Management is a style that places a premium on

A. building relationships. B. including a diverse set of talent. C. maintenance operations. D. building relationships and including a diverse set of talent. **

People within an organization working on multiple efforts concurrently is an indicator of

A. completely allocated staff. B. shrewd scheduling. C. optimized processes. D. too many projects taken on at once. **

Regardless of the criteria differences among different types of projects, typically the most important criterion for project selection is

A. how the project will balance risk within the project portfolio. B. the project's fit to the organization strategy. ** C. compliance. D. nonfinancial. E. profit.

When leveling schedules to overcome resource constraints, ___________ is increased.

A. impact of risks B. scheduling complexity** C. cost D. amount of available slack **The complexity increases due to a number of factors, e.g., multiple start constraints, reduced slack, and increased number of critical tasks.

Typically, a project sponsor is

A. instrumental in approving a project. B. key to support a project to its completion. C. a lower-level staff member. D. instrumental in approving a project and key to support a project to its completion. **

In organizations where a majority of workers perform repetitive operations there is often a lack of

A. job security. B. singular purpose. C. a management hierarchy. D. administrative oversight. **

Project Priority Systems can resolve

A. lack of consensus and understanding among top and middle-managers. B. internal political issues. C. over-sharing of resources. D. **all of the above. = Project prioritization can give an objective viewpoint into some of the very subjective activities within an organization.

When creating a selection model, it is important to

A. make it mathematically complex so it cannot be "gamed." B. not use it as the final determination for project selection. ** C. assure the objectivity of the model. D. keep it secret from those submitting project proposals. The selection model should only exist to assist those in making a final determination.

An operational project is one that

A. must be completed. B. supports an organizations' long-run mission. C. can improve organizational performance. ** D. is completed to meet regulatory compliance. **There is no real purpose for an operational project other than to improve performance.

The strategic activity that focuses on what needs to be accomplished is

A. review and define the organizational mission. B. analyze and formulate strategies. C. set objectives to achieve strategy. D. implement strategies through projects. **

When a prioritization team is balancing projects, they consider all factors except for

A. risk. B. resource demand. C. leadership style. ** D. type of project.

When it comes to project prioritization, senior management is responsible for

A. setting the course for the organization. B. determining the priority of each project. C. developing a culture where everyone contributes to the project success. D. all of the above. **

One piece of information that the arrows within the Activity-on-Node network can convey is

A. the duration of an activity. B. the amount of risk inherent in an activity. C. how activities are related. ** D. None of these choices are correct.

If you are considering moving to a matrixed organization, you will need

A. time. B. budget allocated. C. strong leadership. D. Both time and strong leadership. **

Project Managers are

A. ultimately responsible for performance. B. not timid. C. a direct link to the customer. D. all of the above. **

A project does not include

A. unique elements. B. a specific objective. C. repetitive same or similar work. ** D. creating a new product or service.

A project lifecycle

A. will only ever consist of four phases. B. must be dogmatically followed. C. reduces the amount of planning necessary. D. can vary based on the industry. **

Identify and describe the phases included in the Scrum development process.

Analysis, design, build, test

The expected activity time in PERT analysis is calculated as:

B) the weighted average of a, m, and b, with m weighted 4 times as heavily as a and b. T=(a+4m+b)\6**

What are the characteristics of effective objectives?

Characteristics of effective objectives are that they are specific, measurable, assignable, realistic and related to time.

Why would a manager begin the evaluation process by asking the individual to evaluate his or her contributions to the project?

Comparing the employee's self-evaluation and anonymous feedback from others helps them to form a more realistic picture of their strengths and weaknesses

Large projects that have long time horizons and a very high complexity can be referred to as

D. Both Mega Projects and White Elephants. ** Both terms can be used, the question is to whether or not there is value realized from the project. If no real value, it is definitely a white elephant.

Refining Estimates may be necessary for a number of reasons. For example, a manager getting further into a project and obtaining a better understanding of what needs to be done to accomplish a project and meet the needs of the customer is an example of

D. Changes in project scope. ** As he or she gets further and further into the project, the manager obtains a better understanding of what needs to be done to accomplish the project. This may lead to major changes in project plans and costs. Likewise, if the project is a commercial project, changes often have to be made midstream to respond to new demands by the customer or competition.

Identify four wrap-up activities that are included in the closure process.

Delivery acceptance, shutting down and releasing resources, reassigning team members, closing accounts & paying bills, creating final report

When considering the agile project management process, at the end of each iteration

E. Stakeholders and customers review progress and reevaluate priorities. ** **At the end of each iteration, stakeholders and customers review progress and reevaluate priorities to ensure alignment with customer needs and company goals. Adjustments are made and a different iterative cycle begins. Each iteration incorporates the work of the previous iterations and adds new capabilities to the evolving product to produce the next, expanded version of the product.

Identify and briefly describe the four ways to respond to identified risks.

Not sure

Describe the relationship between the likelihood of a risk event occurring and the cost of fixing the risk event as a project proceeds through its life cycle.

Risk event likelihood is highest in the early stages of the project as more things are unknown about the project and its outcome, but cost of the risk event happening will increase as the projects life cycle proceeds because more has been spent on the project already

Why should performance reviews and pay reviews be done separately?

So employee will focus on constructive reviews and not focus only on pay changes and management doesn't have to defend its pay decisions during performance review

What is the purpose of using tools such as a risk assessment form and a risk severity matrix?

They allow the project team to prioritize risks that should be focused on by weighting them on factors such as impact, probability, and detectability as opposed to more qualitative methods.

Why might an organization be opposed to developing and implementing a thorough risk management process?

They might think that it would be too expensive, or they think that it is unrealistic that these risks would occur

When considering risk management, what is an opportunity? List and briefly describe 4 different responses to an opportunity.

• A positive risk 1. Exploit eliminate uncertainty associated with an opportunity 2. Enhance increase probability or impact of a positive risk 3. Share the ownership of an opportunity to another party who is best able to capture the opportunity for the benefit of the project 4. Accept passively accept the opportunity without efforts to increase its likelihood or impact

What is the difference between budget reserves and management reserves?

• Budget Reserves account for foreseen risks and are related to baseline components of the WBS • Management Reserves are used to cover major unforeseen risks applied to the total project such as a major scope change.

Identify and describe two limits or concerns associated with agile project management.

• Budget, schedule, and scope outcomes are highly uncertain • Company cultures and governance are often at odds with the collaborative and self-organizing nature of agile project management • Lack of experience with agile methods

Why should project managers be cautious about using the splitting scheduling technique?

• Can lead to high start and stop costs (either time adjusting or transportation costs) from moving people and resources from task to task before they complete either of them

Identify three reasons it is important to use an independent facilitator to collect and implement lessons learned to improve management of current and future projects.

• Can report to management without self-incriminating mistakes • Gets a 360 view of all participants • Team members will be more open to someone that was not involved

What is Change Control Management and what function does it perform?

• Change Control Management the process of reporting, controlling, and recording changes to the project baseline. It accepts, reject, and identifies all proposed changes and adjusts schedule and budget to reflect the reality of the project.

During the closure process, how does the project manager meet the challenge to keep the project team focused on the remaining project activities and delivery to the customer until the project is complete?

• Establish closure protocols early to make team accept the fact it will end and prepare to move on

Why is a schedule not a schedule until resources have been assigned? Provide a real life example that illustrates your explanation.

• If activities are scheduled in parallel, but there are not enough concurrent resources available to complete the tasks at the same time then the schedule is not realistic • If three activities are scheduled to occur at the same time and each takes one day, but there is only one person available to do each of the task then the schedule must be changed to have them be in succession and not parallel.

Why is it critical to form a time-phased budget? .

• In order to evaluate the project completion in terms of money spent per unit of work • If it is not time-phased it is impossible to know if the project is behind schedule and over budget or ahead of schedule and behind budget

What are the impacts of resource-constrained scheduling?

• Increases sensitivity and duration

What is 360-degree feedback? How can it be useful when conducting individual performance reviews?

• Information from multiple different sources from within the project including self-evaluation • It gives a more realistic picture of an individuals strengths and weaknesses in the project

Why is it important to make efforts to identify resource scheduling problems before the project is implemented?

• Leaves time to consider reasonable alternatives • Priorities can be reconsidered • Managers can borrow or share resources with other managers to create goodwill

What are three barriers to effective lessons learned?

• Lessons are not used across different departments within the company • The culture of the organization does not emphasize spending time on lessons learned • Lack of time • Lessons turn into blame sessions

What is the difference between lessons learned and retrospectives? Why is the retrospective methodology more effective?

• Lessons learned analyzes a past project to develop lessons learned from what did and didn't work to improve future projects • Retrospective uses an independent facilitator, minimum of three in-process learning gates during project life cycle, has an owner (team member)

What is the difference between mitigating a risk and a contingency plan? Provide real life examples that illustrate the difference.

• Mitigation of risk is done before a risk occurs in an effort to reduce the chance of a risk while a contingency plan is only put into effect if a possible foreseen risk event becomes a reality • Mitigation buying a generator so a project can continue if the power runs out (part of implementation plan) • Contingency Plan having a secondary supplier on call to supply a component if the original supplier is behind schedule or cannot fulfill the order

If your project has spent $50,000 versus a budget of $45,000 and it is a week ahead of schedule, is it a certainty that your project is doing well? Explain why or why not.

• Not necessarily, if the project is focused on keeping under cost then it is not as important to be ahead of schedule for the tradeoff of being over budget. • Also is the budget is not time-phased it is impossible to know what work has been done to accumulate that $50,000 of costs.

Briefly describe the roles of the product owner, the development team, and the Scrum master.

• Product Owner interacts with the project team on behalf of the customers to represent their interests throughout the project. Establishes necessary requirements and prioritizes them within the product backlog • Development Team responsible for delivering product, 5-9 people, self-organizing • Scrum Master facilitates the scrum process, essentially the project manager but they have no formal authority. Buffer between the team and outside interference.

After constructing a project network based on technical constraints and reviewing resource requirements throughout the project, Anne realizes many peaks and valleys in regard to resource usage. At one point Anne needs 6 developers, but top management has made it very clear that she will not have access to more than 4. Classify Anne's project in terms of her scheduling problem. What are her options at this point?

• Resource-constrained scheduling issue • Must delay non-critical activities to smooth resources peak demand to 4 or less • This will likely increase the total duration of the project unless the extra time can be absorbed by available slack ** When using resource-constrained scheduling, activities that were once scheduled to be completed at the same time now may have to be scheduled in sequence. What are the "rules of thumb" or heuristics that need to be followed to determine which activity is scheduled first? / • Least amount of slack, smallest duration, lowest identification number

What is a "trigger" and why is it important when planning contingencies?

• The event that causes the foreseen risk to become a reality. It is important because they are the events that must be monitored in order to deploy risk control methods effectively

What is the difference in project goals when using resource leveling on time-constrained projects and using it on resource-constrained projects?

• Time-Constrained must keep project within time deadlines, will generally increase budget by adding extra resources • Resource-Constrained cannot exceed set amount of peak resource usage, will increase project duration by delaying non-critical activities

Compare and contrast traditional approaches to project management and agile approaches to project management.

• Traditional attempts to plan exactly what will be achieved at the beginning with extensive budgeting and planning • Agile plans a high-level overview of the project and breaks it down incrementally while working with the customer to increase customization and focus on one feature at a time.