Giddens Concepts Combined (RNShade)

Match the activities listed with the appropriate functional level of ability: Use A for instrumental activities of daily living (IADLs) and use B for basic activities of daily living (BADLs). (Your answer should appear as letters separated by commas and spaces [e.g., A, A, A, A, A, A].) A. Uses a cane B. Bathes daily C. Takes medications as prescribed D. Dresses self E. Balances the checkbook F. Cleans the house

ANS: B, B, A, B, A, A Functional impairment, disability, or handicap refers to varying degrees of an individual's inability to perform the tasks required to complete normal life activities without assistance. IADLs are more complex skills that are essential to living in the community.

The lack of weight bearing leads to bone _________ and __________ from the skeletal system.

ANS: demineralization, calcium loss calcium loss, demineralization Weight bearing helps to strengthen the bone. Lack of weight bearing means that the bone is losing minerals and calcium that strengthen it.

During a nutritional assessment, the nurse calculates that a female patient's BMI is 27. The nurse would advise the patient to follow which of these recommendations? a. This measurement indicates that the patient is overweight and should follow a plan of diet and exercise to lose weight. b. This measurement indicates that the patient is underweight and will need to take measures to gain weight. c. This measurement indicates that the patient is morbidly obese and may be a candidate for bariatric surgery. d. This measurement indicates that the patient is of normal weight and should continue with current lifestyle.

ANS: A A BMI of 25 to 29.9 is in the overweight range. A BMI of <18.5 is in the underweight range. A BMI of 30 to 34.9 is obesity class I, a BMI of 35 to 39.9 is obesity class II, and a BMI of >40 is obesity class III (morbid obesity). A BMI of 19 to 24 is in the normal range.

The earliest and most sensitive assessment finding that would indicate an alteration in intracranial regulation would be a. change in level of consciousness. b. inability to focus visually. c. loss of primitive reflexes. d. unequal pupil size.

ANS: A A change in level of consciousness is the earliest and most sensitive indication of a change in intracranial processing. This is assessed with the Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS), which assesses eye opening and verbal and motor response. The inability to focus may indicate a change, but it is not one of the earliest indicators or a component of the GCS. Primitive reflexes refers to those reflexes found in a normal infant that disappear with maturation. These reflexes may reappear with frontal lobe dysfunction and may be tested for with a suspected brain injury, so it would be the reappearance of primitive reflexes. A change in pupil size or unequal pupils may indicate a change, but they are not one of the earliest indicators or a component of the GCS.

A female patient complains of a "scab that just won't heal" under her left breast. During your conversation, she also mentions chronic fatigue, loss of appetite, and slight cough, attributed to allergies. What are the nurse's next steps? a. Continue to conduct a symptom analysis to better understand the patient's symptoms and concerns. b. End the appointment and tell the patient to use skin protection during sun exposure. c. Suggest further testing with a cancer specialist and provide the appropriate literature. d. Tell her to put a bandage on the scab and set a follow-up appointment in one week.

ANS: A A comprehensive health history is vital to treating and caring for the patient. Often times, symptoms are vague. The nurse should conduct a symptom analysis to gather as much information as possible. Questions should address the duration of the symptoms and include the location, characteristics, aggravating and relief factors, and any treatments taken thus far.

The nurse is admitting an older adult with decompensated congestive heart failure. The nursing assessment reveals adventitious lung sounds, dyspnea, and orthopnea. The nurse should question which doctor's order? a. Intravenous (IV) 500 mL of 0.9% NaCl at 125 mL/hr b. Furosemide (Lasix) 20 mg PO now c. Oxygen via face mask at 8 L/min d. KCl 20 mEq PO two times per day

ANS: A A patient with decompensated heart failure has extracellular fluid volume (ECV) excess. The IV of 0.9% NaCl is normal saline, which should be questioned because it would expand ECV and place an additional load on the failing heart. Diuretics such as furosemide are appropriate to decrease the ECV during heart failure. Increasing the potassium intake with KCl is appropriate, because furosemide increases potassium excretion. Oxygen administration is appropriate in this situation of near pulmonary edema from ECV excess.

When planning to evaluate a patient's satisfaction with a teaching activity, the most appropriate strategy would be to a. include a survey instrument. b. observe for level of skill mastery. c. present information more than one time. d. provide for a return demonstration.

ANS: A A survey or questionnaires can be used to measure affective behavior change as well as patient satisfaction with the teaching experience. Observing for level of skill mastery would evaluate achievement of a psychomotor goal rather than satisfaction with the experience. Repeating information more than one time or in more than one way may be appropriate strategies to include in the teaching plan but would provide no evaluation data. Providing for a return demonstration would help in evaluating achievement of a psychomotor goal, not satisfaction with the activity.

Alan is a 30-year-old male admitted to the hospital with acute pancreatitis. He is in acute pain described as a 10/10, which is localized to the abdomen, periumbilical area, and some radiation to his back. The abdomen is grossly distended so it is difficult to assess. He is restless and agitated, with elevated pulse and blood pressure. An appropriate pain management plan of care may include a. IV Dilaudid q 4 hours prn, hydrocodone 5/500 PO q 6 hours prn, and acetaminophen. b. Norco 5/500 q 4 hours PO and Benadryl 25 mg PO q 6 hours. c. Phenergan 25 mg IM q 6 hours. d. Tylenol 325 mg q 6 hours.

ANS: A A variety of routes of administration are used to deliver analgesics. A principle of pain management is to use the oral route of administration whenever feasible. All of the first-line analgesics used to manage pain are available in short-acting and long-acting formulations. For patients who have continuous pain, a long-acting analgesic, such as modified-release oral morphine, oxycodone, or hydromorphone, or transdermal fentanyl, is used to treat the persistent baseline pain. A fast-onset, short-acting analgesic (usually the same drug as the long-acting) is used to treat breakthrough pain if it occurs. When the oral route is not possible, such as in patients who cannot swallow or are NPO or nauseated, other routes of administration are used, including intravenous (IV), subcutaneous, transdermal, and rectal. Norco, Benadryl, Phenergan, and Tylenol are not appropriate solo choices for acute pancreatitis with pain reported as 10/10.

The new director of case management assessed the need to improve the organization's patient satisfaction with the discharge process. Which statement below illustrates the vision that would lead the team to this goal? a. "The department will deliver reliable, collaborative, and compassionate discharge planning services to all patients." b. "The department will hold weekly meetings every Tuesday at 11:00 AM." c. "There will be implementation of a new uniform policy so staff can be readily identified." d. "Staff are encouraged to complain about difficult patients, families, and physicians."

ANS: A A vision is a statement about the long-term desired state for the department. The other choices describe specific actions, not a long-term vision statement.

A patient has been newly diagnosed with hypertension. The nurse assesses the need to develop a collaborative plan of care that includes a goal of adhering to the prescribed regimen. When the nurse is planning teaching for the patient, which is the most important initial learning goal? a. The patient will select the type of learning materials they prefer. b. The patient will verbalize an understanding of the importance of following the regimen. c. The patient will demonstrate coping skills needed to manage hypertension. d. The patient will verbalize the side effects of treatment.

ANS: A Adults learn best when given information they can understand that is tailored to their learning styles and needs. Verbalizing an understanding is important; however, the nurse will first need to teach the patient.

Which patient would the nurse identify as being at an increased risk for altered transport of oxygen? A patient with a. hemoglobin level of 8.0 b. bronchoconstriction and mucus c. peripheral arterial disease d. decreased thoracic expansion

ANS: A Altered transportation of oxygen refers to patients with insufficient red blood cells to transport the oxygen present. Bronchoconstriction and decreased thoracic expansion (spinal cord injury) would result in impairment of ventilation. Peripheral vascular disease would result in inadequate perfusion.

The nurse is listening for bowel sounds in a postoperative patient. The bowel sounds are slow, as they are heard only every 3 to 4 minutes. The patient asks the nurse why this is happening. The best response from the nurse would be which of the following? a. "Anesthesia during surgery and pain medication after surgery may slow peristalsis in the bowel." b. "Some people have a slower bowel than others, and this is nothing to be concerned about." c. "The foods you eat contribute to peristalsis, so you should eat more fiber in your diet." d. "Bowel peristalsis is slow because you are not walking. Get more exercise during the day."

ANS: A Anesthesia and pain medication used in conjunction with the surgery are affecting the peristalsis of the bowel. Having a slower bowel, eating certain food, or lack of exercise will not have a direct effect on the bowel.

The nurse preparing to care for a patient after a suspected stroke would question an order for a(n) a. antihypertensive. b. antipyretic. c. osmotic diuretic. d. sedative.

ANS: A Anti-hypertensive medications may be detrimental because the mean arterial pressure must be adequate to maintain cerebral blood flow and limit secondary injury. Fever can worsen the outcome after a stroke, and antipyretics can promote normothermia. Osmotic diuretics such as mannitol can decrease interstitial volume and decrease intracranial pressure. Short-acting sedatives can decrease intracranial pressure by reducing metabolic demand. Long-acting sedatives would be avoided to provide times for periodic neurologic assessments.

Aspects of safety culture that contribute to a culture of safety in a health care organization include a. communication. b. fear of punishment. c. malpractice implications. d. team nursing.

ANS: A Aspects that contribute to a culture of safety include leadership, teamwork, an evidence base, communication, learning, a just culture, and patient-centered care. Fear of professional or personal punishment and concern about malpractice implications are considered barriers to a culture of safety. No model of nursing care has been related to a culture of safety.

As a nurse in the emergency department, you are caring for a patient who is exhibiting signs of depression. What is a priority nursing intervention you should perform for this patient? a. Assess for depression and ask directly about suicide thoughts. b. Ask the care provider to prescribe blood lab work to assess for depression. c. Focus on the presenting problems and refer the patient for a mental health evaluation. d. Interview the patient's family to identify their concerns about the patient's behaviors.

ANS: A Assessing directly for thoughts of harm to self or others is a priority intervention for any patient exhibiting signs of a mental health disorder. It is estimated that 50% of individuals who succeed in suicide had visited a health care provider within the previous 24 hours. Currently there is no serum lab that identifies depression. The risk of self-harm is a priority safety issue that is monitored in all health care within the scope of the nurse. It is important to obtain information directly from the patient when possible, and then validate the information from family or other secondary sources.

A nursing student is doing a survey of fellow nursing students. Which ethical concept is the student following when calculating the risk-to-benefit ratio and concluding that no harmful effects were associated with a survey? a. Beneficence b. Human dignity c. Justice d. Human rights

ANS: A Beneficence is a term that is defined as promoting goodness, kindness, and charity. In ethical terms, beneficence means to provide benefit to others by promoting their good. Human dignity is the inherent worth and uniqueness of a person. Justice involves upholding moral and legal principles. Human rights are the basic rights of each individual.

A patient tells the nurse "My doctor thinks my problems with stress relate to the negative way I think about things, and he wants me to learn a new way of thinking." Which response would be in keeping with the doctor's recommendations? a. Teaching the patient to recognize, reconsider, and reframe irrational thoughts b. Encouraging the patient to imagine being in calming circumstances c. Teaching the patient to use instruments that give feedback about bodily functions d. Provide the patient with a blank journal and guidance about journaling

ANS: A Cognitive reframing focuses on recognizing and correcting maladaptive patterns of thinking that create stress or interfere with coping. Cognitive reframing involves recognizing the habit of thinking about a situation or issue in a fixed, irrational, and unquestioning manner. Helping the patient to recognize and reframe (reword) such thoughts so that they are realistic and accurate promotes coping and reduces stress. Thinking about being in calming circumstances is a form of guided imagery. Instruments that give feedback about bodily functions are used in biofeedback. Journaling is effective for helping to increase self-awareness. However, none of these last three interventions is likely to alter the patient's manner of thinking.

When discussing the purposes of health care informatics with a nurse during orientation, the nurse educator would be concerned if the nurse orientee said that one purpose would be to a. develop a cognitive science. b. improve disease tracking. c. improve the health provider's work flow. d. increase administrative efficiencies.

ANS: A Cognitive science is one of the theories that play a role in the implementation of informatics. Its development is not a purpose, and the nurse educator would use this incorrect response of the orientee to plan additional teaching about the purposes of health care informatics. Purposes of information health technology include to improve health provider work flow, improve health care quality, prevent medical errors, reduce health care costs, increase administrative efficiencies, decrease paperwork, and improve disease tracking.

A patient who has been diagnosed with depression is scheduled for cognitive therapy in addition to receiving prescribed antidepressant medication. The nurse understands that the goal of cognitive therapy will be met when what is reported by the patient? a. "I will tell myself that I am a good person when things don't go well at work." b. "My medications will make my problems go away." c. "My family will help take care of my children while I am in the hospital." d. "This therapy will improve my response to neurotransmitter impulses."

ANS: A Cognitive therapy helps patients restructure their patterns of thinking to various events or thoughts in a more healthy way. Medication alters neurotransmitters but does not make problems go away. Family support is important but is not the goal of cognitive therapy. Neurotransmitters are affected by medication and brain stimulation therapy, not by cognitive therapy.

The main features of complex adaptive systems that are relevant to nursing leadership are a. focused on creating organizational change and looking at the whole versus individual parts. b. defined by efforts of leadership to mandate organizational change. c. autocratic in nature with a top-down structure for change. d. dependent on employees knowing what change is necessary and acting independently.

ANS: A Complexity science posits that interactions of the parts within a system are more important than the individual parts. The autocratic top-down decision-making and mandates do not create a sustainable change. Being dependent on employees knowing what change is necessary and acting independently lacks interaction of leadership to stimulate change and adaptation among employees.

Critical Thinking: The nurse and the patient are conversing face to face. What communication technique is this? a. linguistic b. paralinguistic c. explicit d. metacommunication

ANS: A Conversing face to face, reading newspapers and books, and even texting are all common forms of linguistic communication. Paralinguistics include less recognizable but important means of transmitting messages such as the use of gestures, eye contact, and facial expressions. Explict communication is not a therapeutic communication technique. Metacommunication factors that affect how messages are received and interpreted would include internal personal states (such as disturbances in mood), environmental stimuli related to the setting of the communication, and contextual variables (such as the relationship between the people in the communication episode).

A nursing instructor assigns their clinical group the task of writing a journal depicting the student's clinical day. What is the most likely rationale for this assignment? a. Journaling allows reflection, an important critical thinking skill. b. Journaling gives you time to review what happened in your clinical. c. Journaling is a way to organize your thoughts about your experiences. d. Journaling teaches open-mindedness, a critical thinking disposition.

ANS: A Critical thinking requires reflection on what occurred, how data were processed, and how decisions were made. Journaling is one method of developing critical thinking skills. Journaling does give nurses time to review what happened in their clinical, but this statement does not go far enough in explaining the importance of the journal-writing process. Journaling may be a way to organize thoughts about one's experiences, but this statement is too narrow an explanation and does not account for the critical aspect of reflection. Open-mindedness is a critical thinking disposition that allows one to be tolerant of divergent views. Journaling can assist with developing this disposition, but only if what is written reflects that specific topic.

A home care nurse receives a physician order for a medication that the patient does not want to take because the patient has a history of side effects from this medication. The nurse carefully listens to the patient, considers it in light of the patient's condition, questions its appropriateness, and examines alternative treatments. This nurse would most likely a. call the physician, explain rationale, and suggest a different medication. b. consult an experienced nurse on whether there are other similar treatments. c. hold the drug until the physician returns to the unit and can be questioned. d. question other staff as to the physician's acceptance of nursing input.

ANS: A Determining how best to proceed on behalf of a patient's best health care outcomes may require clinical judgment. At the committed level of critical thinking, the nurse chooses an action after all possibilities have been examined. A home care nurse who is using good clinical judgment techniques should have confidence in their decision and may not have another nurse available as this is an autonomous setting. Holding the drug might jeopardize the patient's health, so this is not the best solution. The nurse working at this level of critical thinking makes choices based on careful examination of situations and alternatives; whether or not the physician is open to nursing input is not relevant.

The nurse is assessing a patient's personal traits using the Influential Characteristics on Motivation tool. What assessment parameters will be included in this assessment? a. Developmental, cognitive, and educational levels; emotional readiness; actual or perceived state of health or illness b. Psychologic availability, readiness of health care system, and level of difficulty and ambiguity of task c. Cultural expectations and customs and emotional ties such as love, intimacy, and sexual gratification d. Available human and physical resources and accessibility of health care facility

ANS: A Developmental, cognitive, and educational levels; emotional readiness; and actual or perceived state of health or illness are all personal motivational traits. Psychologic availability, readiness of health care system, and level of difficulty and ambiguity of task are environmental factors. Cultural expectations and customs and emotional ties such as love, intimacy, and sexual gratification are relationship motivators. Available human and physical resources and accessibility of health care facility are environmental motivators.

A 55-year-old male patient post-myocardial infarction (MI) queries the nurse caring for him whether he will be healthy enough for sexual activity after discharge from the hospital. The patient has been prescribed anti-hypertensives and beta-blockers. While health teaching, the nurse understands that the three phases of the four-stage model of the human sexual response cycle that are of concern for this patient include a. excitement, plateau, and orgasmic. b. plateau, orgasmic, and resolution. c. excitement, orgasmic, and resolution. d. arousal, excitement, and plateau.

ANS: A During these three phases, heart rate, blood pressure, and respirations increase steadily, increasing stress to the heart muscle. This would be the period of greatest concern for a patient who has recently experienced an MI. The plateau and orgasmic phases may be of physiologic concern to this patient, but during the resolution phase, vital signs return to normal, and muscles relax. Arousal is not a phase in the four-stage model of the human sexual response cycle, although some researchers feel this should be added.

While collecting a health history on a patient admitted for colon cancer, which of the following questions would be a priority to ask this patient? a. "Have you noticed any blood in your stool?" b. "Have you been experiencing nausea?" c. "Do you have back pain?" d. "Have you noticed any swelling in your abdomen?"

ANS: A Early colon cancer is often asymptomatic, with occult or frank blood in the stool being an assessment finding in a patient diagnosed with colon cancer. If pain is present, it is usually lower abdominal cramping. Constipation and diarrhea are more frequent findings than nausea or ascites.

The nurse is assessing a patient's differential white blood cell count. What implications would this test have on evaluating the adequacy of a patient's gas exchange? a. An elevation of the total white cell count indicates generalized inflammation. b. Eosinophil count will assist to identify the presence of a respiratory infection. c. White cell count will differentiate types of respiratory bacteria. d. Level of neutrophils provides guidelines to monitor a chronic infection.

ANS: A Elevation of total white cell count is indicative of inflammation that is often due to an infection. Upper respiratory infections are common problems in altering a patient's gas exchange. Eosinophil cells are increased in an allergic response. Neutrophils are more indicative of an acute inflammatory response. White cells do not assist to differentiate types of respiratory bacteria. Monocytes are an indicator of progress of a chronic infection.

What is the nurse's best response about developing diabetes to the patient whose father has type 1 diabetes mellitus? a. "You have a greater susceptibility for development of the disease because of your family history." b. "Your risk is the same as the general population, because there is no genetic risk for development of type 1 diabetes." c. "Type 1 diabetes is inherited in an autosomal dominant pattern. Therefore the risk for becoming diabetic is 50%." d. "Because you are a woman and your father is the parent with diabetes, your risk is not increased for eventual development of the disease. However, your brothers will become diabetic."

ANS: A Even though type 1 diabetes does not follow a specific genetic pattern of inheritance, those with one parent with type 1 diabetes are at an increased risk for development of the disease.

Exemplars of the health informatics concept include a. clinical research informatics. b. hardware and software. c. privacy and security. d. standard terminology.

ANS: A Exemplars of the health informatics concept include clinical health care informatics, clinical research informatics, public/population health informatics, and translational bioinformatics. Hardware and software, privacy and security, and standardized information systems and terminology are considered attributes related to the concept, not exemplars.

On admission to the clinic, the nurse notes a moderate amount of serous exudate leaking from the patient's wound. The nurse realizes that this fluid a. contains the materials used by the body in the initial inflammatory response. b. indicates that the patient has an infection at the site of the wound. c. is destroying healthy tissue. d. results from ineffective cleansing of the wound area.

ANS: A Exudate is fluid moved from the vascular spaces to the area around a wound. It contains the proteins, fluid, and white blood cells (WBCs) needed to contain possible pathogens at the site of injury. Exudate appears as part of all inflammatory responses and does not mean an infection is present. Exudate is part of normal inflammatory responses which contain self-monitoring mechanisms to help prevent damage to healthy tissue. Exudate appears at wound sites regardless of cleaning done to the area of injury.

A patient does not make eye contact with the nurse and is folding his arms at his chest. Which aspect of communication has the nurse assessed? a. Nonverbal communication b. A message filter c. A cultural barrier d. Social skills

ANS: A Eye contact and body movements are considered nonverbal communication. There are insufficient data to determine the level of the patient's social skills or whether a cultural barrier exists.

A nurse on the unit makes a error in the calculation of the dose of medication for a critically ill patient. The patient suffered no ill consequences from the administration. The nurse decides not to report the error or file an incident report. The nurse is violating which principle of ethics? a. Fidelity b. Individuality c. Justice d. Values clarification

ANS: A Fidelity is the principle that requires us to act in ways that are loyal. In the role of a nurse, such action includes keeping your promises, doing what is expected of you, performing your duties, and being trustworthy. Individuality is something that distinguishes one person or thing from others. Injustice is when a person is denied a right or entitlement. Values clarification is a tool that allows the nurse to examine personal values in terms of ethical situations.

The nurse is assessing a patient's functional performance. What assessment parameters will be most important in this assessment? a. Continence assessment, gait assessment, feeding assessment, dressing assessment, transfer assessment b. Height, weight, body mass index (BMI), vital signs assessment c. Sleep assessment, energy assessment, memory assessment, concentration assessment d. Healthy individual, volunteers at church, works part time, takes care of family and house

ANS: A Functional impairment, disability, or handicap refers to varying degrees of an individual's inability to perform the tasks required to complete normal life activities without assistance. Height, weight, BMI, and vital signs are physical assessment. Sleep, energy, memory, and concentration are part of a depression screening. Healthy, volunteering, working, and caring for family and house are functional abilities, not performance.

The nurse instructs a patient with type 1 diabetes mellitus to avoid which of the following drugs while taking insulin? a. Furosemide (Lasix) b. Dicumarol (Bishydroxycoumarin) c. Reserpine (Serpasil) d. Cimetidine (Tagamet)

ANS: A Furosemide is a loop diuretic and can increase serum glucose levels; its use is contraindicated with insulin. Dicumarol, an anticoagulant; reserpine, an anti-hypertensive; and cimetidine, an H2 receptor antagonist, do not affect blood glucose levels.

Critical Thinking: During a physical examination, the nurse notes that the patient's skin is dry and flaking, with patches of eczema, and suspects a nutritional deficiency. What additional data would the nurse expect to find to confirm the suspicion? a. Hair loss and hair that is easily removed from the scalp b. Inflammation of the tongue and fissured tongue c. Inflammation of peripheral nerves and numbness and tingling in extremities d. Fissures and inflammation of the mouth

ANS: A Hair loss (alopecia) and hair that is easily removed from the scalp (easy pluckability), like dry, flaking skin, is caused by essential fatty acid deficiency. Inflammation of the tongue (glossitis) and fissured tongue are manifestations of a niacin deficiency. Inflammation of peripheral nerves (neuropathy) and numbness and tingling in extremities (paresthesia) are manifestations of a thiamin deficiency. Fissures of the mouth (cheilosis) and inflammation of the mouth (stomatitis) are manifestations of a pyridoxine deficiency.

A cognitively impaired patient newly admitted to the hospital is experiencing signs of sundown syndrome. Which intervention is best for the nurse to implement? a. Leave a night light on in the room at all times. b. Leave the television on at night with the volume up. c. Restrain the patient to maintain safety during the confusion. d. Administer a sleeping medication to help the patient sleep.

ANS: A Having a night light on for the patient can help orient them to their surroundings. Having the flickering light and sound from a television will not help a confused patient remain calm or oriented. Restraining a patient will increase their agitation and actually increase their risk of injury if they try to get out of bed. Sleeping medications often increase confusion in cognitively impaired patients.

When caring for the patient after a head injury, the nurse would be most concerned with assessment findings which included respiratory changes, a. hypertension, and bradycardia. b. hypertension, and tachycardia. c. hypotension, and bradycardia. d. hypotension, and tachycardia.

ANS: A Hypertension with widening pulse pressure, bradycardia, and respiratory changes are the ominous late signs of increased intracranial pressure and indications of impending herniation (Cushing's triad). It is bradycardia, not tachycardia, which is the component of this ominous triad. It is hypertension, not hypotension, which is the component of this ominous triad.

The nurse is reviewing the care plan for a patient experiencing difficulty coping with stress. The nurse recognizes that an example of initiating a cognitive restructuring intervention to enhance coping abilities is which of the following? a. Identifying the cause of fear b. Accessing a community support group c. Identifying relaxation methods d. Reviewing an educational pamphlet

ANS: A Identifying the cause of a negative perception is the first step in restructuring how a patient perceives a stressor, also called cognitive restructuring. Accessing a community support group is an example of accessing resources to enhance coping. Identifying relaxation methods is an example of developing an action plan. Reviewing an educational pamphlet is an example of using education to enhance coping.

A staff nurse reports a medication error, failure to administer a medication at the scheduled time. An appropriate response of the charge nurse would be a. "We'll do a root cause analysis." b. "That means you'll have to do continuing education." c. "Why did you let that happen?" d. "You'll need to tell the patient and family."

ANS: A In a just culture the nurse is accountable for their actions and practice, but people are not punished for flawed systems. Through a strategy such as root cause analysis the reasons for errors in medication administration can be identified and strategies developed to minimize future occurrences. Requiring continued education may be an appropriate recommendation but not until data is collected about the event. Telling the patient is part of transparency and the sharing and disclosure among stakeholders, but it is generally the role of risk management staff, not the staff nurse.

A hospital is experiencing a drop in patient admissions, resulting in the implementation of a hiring freeze. What is a potential critical consequence of this internal organizational decision? a. A decrease in the availability of future nurses to hire b. A savings of salaries and benefits c. Increased scholarships to nursing students from the local high school d. Increased cross-training of current staff

ANS: A In an economic climate where hospitals are not hiring, nursing schools may limit enrollment which will limit the availability of future nurses available to be hired when the current nurses retire or reduce their hours. Salary savings is minimal as the number of patients, staffing, and revenue are closely aligned. Scholarships will decrease as hiring commitments to scholarship holders will no longer be in effect. Cross-training may occur, but it is not a critical consequence of a hiring freeze.

Understanding cultural differences in health care is important because it will help the nurse to understand the manner in which people decide on obtaining treatments and medical care. In independent cultures an individual will a. put himself first. b. consult family members for advice. c. ask for a second opinion. d. travel great distances to receive the best care.

ANS: A In independent cultures, an individual will put himself first in the case of a life-threatening illness, whereas even in dire circumstances, members of collectivist cultures may still consult other family members for the best course of action. In independent cultures, an individual will not consult with other family members, ask for a second opinion, or travel great distances to receive the best care.

A new graduate nurse (GN) is working with an experienced nurse to chart assessment findings. The GN notes that the physical therapist wrote on the chart that the patient is lazy and did not want to participate in assigned therapies this AM. The experienced nurse asks the GN what may be going on here. What is the best explanation for this statement? a. Data on the chart can sometimes be documented in a biased manner. b. Data on the chart changes as the patient's condition changes. c. Data on the chart is usually accurate and can be verified from the patient. d. Reading the chart is not a wise use of time as this can be time consuming and tedious.

ANS: A It is important that the nurse records only what is assessed, without adding judgments or interpretations to the record. Data do indeed change (and need to be charted) as the patient's condition changes, but this would not be the best answer to this question. Assessment data may at times be difficult to obtain, but that would not occur often enough to warrant a warning about the difficulty in charting it. Also, obtaining data is clearly a different activity from charting it. Charting can be time consuming and tedious, but this is not the most complete answer to this question.

The nurse is working with the interprofessional team to develop a plan of care for a patient who had a myocardial infarction 5 days ago and is about to go home. The team has decided to focus in-home rehabilitation on medications, regaining strength, and losing weight. What interventions will be in the initial plan of care if this patient is motivated by power? a. Develop a plan of exercise and weight loss that is assertive and entails beating the previous week's goal. b. Develop a plan of exercise and weight loss that is slow and gradually increases. c. Develop a plan of exercise and weight loss that enacts consequences if the plan is not followed. d. Develop a plan of exercise and weight loss that involves rewards and positive reinforcement from the health care team.

ANS: A It is important to be assertive with persons who are power motivators, because this will increase their chances of successful rehabilitation. Affiliative motivation is geared towards rewards and support and also slow, gradual changes. Avoidance motivation entails showing the person what will happen if they do not follow the treatment plan.

A new registered nurse asks the registered nurse (RN) preceptor what could be done to become more professional. The best response of the preceptor is a. "Attend nursing educational meetings." b. "Listen to other nurses." c. "Read the agency newsletter." d. "Pass the licensing exam."

ANS: A Knowledge and commitment are essential components of professionalism. Attending nursing educational meetings can promote collaborative learning with peers and maintenance of competence in an ever-changing health care environment. Listening can promote professionalism, and communication is certainly a component of professionalism; however, there is also a social sense to listening, and without the educational/learning component, this is not the best answer. An agency newsletter could include information about professional opportunities, but it is not the best answer. The new nurse would have already passed the licensing exam, the legal requirement to be considered a nurse.

A student nurse is studying clinical judgment theories and is working with Tanner's Model of Clinical Judgment. The student nurse can generalize the process as a. a reflective process where the nurse notices, interprets, responds, and reflects in action. b. one conceptual mechanism for critiquing ideas and establishing goal-oriented care. c. researching best practice literature to create care pathways for certain populations. d. assessing, diagnosing, implementing, and evaluating the nursing care plans.

ANS: A Looking across theories and definitions of clinical judgment, they all have in common the ability to reflect on data and choose actions. Reflection also considers evaluating the result of the actions to determine whether they were effective. Although critiquing ideas and establishing goal-oriented care could be considered part of a generalized statement of critical thinking, this is not broad enough without the reflection and evaluation. Clinical judgment would most likely be used to create care paths derived from the evidence; however, this is not the cornerstone of the Tanner Model. Clinical judgment is used when engaging in the nursing process, but this is too narrow in focus to capture the essence of critical thinking definitions and theories. Critical thinking is not synonymous with the nursing process.

An 82-year-old patient who is in the hospital awakens from sleep disoriented to where she is. The nurse reorients the patient to her surroundings and helps the patient return to sleep. What data does the nurse consider as a probable cause of the patient's confusion? a. Pain medication received earlier in the night b. The death of the patient's spouse 2 years ago c. The patient's history of diabetes d. The age of the patient

ANS: A Medications such as narcotics, hypertensives, sleeping meds, and others can cause disorientation and symptoms of delirium. The death of a spouse is more likely to cause depression than disorientation. A history of diabetes alone does not cause disorientation. Normal aging alone does not cause disorientation, although it is a risk factor.

A nurse is conducting community education classes on skin cancer. One participant says to the nurse: "I read that most melanomas occur on the face and arms in fair-skinned women. Is this true?" The nurse's most helpful response would be which of the following? a. "That is not correct. Melanoma is more commonly found on the torso or the lower legs of women." b. "That is correct, because the face and arms are exposed more often to the sun." c. "That is not correct. Melanoma occurs on the top of the head in men but is rare in women." d. "That is incorrect. Melanoma is most commonly seen in dark-skinned individuals."

ANS: A Melanoma is more commonly found on the torso or the lower legs in women. Melanoma can occur anywhere and is not associated with direct exposure. For example, an individual can have melanoma under the skin and on the soles of the feet. Dark-skinned individuals are less likely to get melanoma.

One of the biggest challenges facing current nursing practice is a. the number of aging Americans living with chronic disease. b. the number of patients entering into hospice programs. c. the number of cancer patients receiving supportive care. d. reduced length of stay in hospice care.

ANS: A Millions of Americans are living with one or more chronic debilitating diseases, and 7 out of 10 can expect to live with their diseases several years before dying. When coupled with the advancing age of the eight million baby boomers who now qualify for Medicare, this will soon create a huge demand on health care resources and community-based services.

A 19-year-old male has sustained a transaction of C-7 in an MVA rendering him a quadriplegic. He describes his pain as burning, sharp, and shooting. This is characteristic of a. neuropathic pain. b. ghost pain. c. mixed pain syndrome. d. nociceptive pain.

ANS: A Neuropathic pain results from the abnormal processing of sensory input by the nervous system as a result of damage to the brain, spinal cord, or peripheral nerves. Simply put, neuropathic pain is pathologic. Examples of neuropathic pain include postherpetic neuralgia, diabetic neuropathy, phantom pain, and post stroke pain syndrome. Patients with neuropathic pain use very distinctive words to describe their pain, such as "burning," "sharp," and "shooting." Ghost pain is pain associated with loss of a limb or digit. Mixed pain syndrome is not easily recognized, is unique with multiple underlying and poorly understood mechanisms like fibromyalgia and low back pain. Nociceptive pain refers to the normal functioning of physiological systems that leads to the perception of noxious stimuli (tissue injury) as being painful. Patients describe this type of pain as aching, cramping, or throbbing. Neuropathic pain is pathologic and results from abnormal processing of sensory input by the nervous system as a result of damage to the brain, spinal cord, or peripheral nerves. Patients describe this type of pain as burning, sharp, and shooting.

A nurse has committed a serious medication error and has reported their error to the hospital's adverse medication error hotline as well as to the unit manager. The manager is a firm believer in developing critical thinking skills. From this standpoint, what action by the manager would best nurture this ability in the nurse who made the error? a. Have the nurse present an in-service related to the cause of the error. b. Instruct the nurse to write a paper on how to avoid this type of error. c. Let the nurse work with more experienced nurses when giving medications. d. Send the nurse to refresher courses on medication administration.

ANS: A Nurturing critical thinking skills is done in part by turning errors into learning opportunities. If the nurse presents an in-service on the cause and prevention of the type of error committed, not only will the nurse learn something but many others nurses on the unit will learn from it to. This is the best example of developing critical thinking skills. This option would allow the nurse to learn from the mistake, which is a method of developing critical thinking skills, but the paper would benefit only the nurse, so this option is not the best choice. Letting the nurse work with more experienced nurses might be a good option in a very limited setting, for example, if the nurse is relatively new and the manager discovers a deficiency in the nurse's orientation or training on giving medications in that system. Otherwise, this option would not really be beneficial. Sending the nurse to refresher courses might be a solution, but it is directed at the nurse's learning, not critical thinking. The nurse might feel resentful at having to attend such classes, but even if they were helpful, only this one nurse is learning. Going to generic classes also does not address the specific reason this error occurred, and thus might be irrelevant. Critical thinking and learning can be enhanced by a presentation to the staff on the causes of the error.

The nurse is making a home visit to a child who has a chronic disease. Which finding has the greatest implication for acid-base aspects of this patient's care? a. Urine output is very small today. b. Whites of the eyes appear more yellow. c. Skin around the mouth is very chapped. d. Skin is sweaty under three blankets.

ANS: A Oliguria decreases the excretion of metabolic acids and is a risk factor for metabolic acidosis. Jaundice requires follow-up but is not an acid-base problem. Perioral chapped skin needs intervention but is not an acid-base issue. With three blankets, diaphoresis is not unusual.

While planning care for a patient experiencing fatigue due to chemotherapy, which of the following is the most appropriate nursing intervention? a. Prioritization and administration of nursing care throughout the day b. Completing all nursing care in the morning so the patient can rest the remainder of the day c. Completing all nursing care in the evening when the patient is more rested d. Limiting visitors, thus promoting the maximal amount of hours for sleep

ANS: A Pacing activities throughout the day conserves energy, and nursing care should be paced as well. Fatigue is a common side effect of cancer and treatment; and while adequate sleep is important, an increase in the number of hours slept will not resolve the fatigue. Restriction of visitors does not promote healthy coping and can result in feelings of isolation.

Controlling pain is important to promoting wellness. Unrelieved pain has been associated with a. prolonged stress response and a cascade of harmful effects system-wide. b. large tidal volumes and decreased lung capacity. c. decreased tumor growth and longevity. d. decreased carbohydrate, protein, and fat destruction.

ANS: A Pain triggers a number of physiologic stress responses in the human body. Unrelieved pain can prolong the stress response and produce a cascade of harmful effects in all body systems. The stress response causes the endocrine system to release excessive amounts of hormones, such as cortisol, catecholamines, and glucagon. Insulin and testosterone levels decrease. Increased endocrine activity in turn initiates a number of metabolic processes, in particular, accelerated carbohydrate, protein, and fat destruction, which can result in weight loss, tachycardia, increased respiratory rate, shock, and even death. The immune system is also affected by pain as demonstrated by research showing a link between unrelieved pain and a higher incidence of nosocomial infections and increased tumor growth. Large tidal volumes are not associated with pain while decreased lung capacity is associated with unrelieved pain. Decreased tumor growth and longevity are not associated with unrelieved pain. Decreased carbohydrate, protein, and fat are not associated with pain or stress response.

The nurse and a student nurse are discussing the effects of bed immobility on patients. The nurse knows that the student nurse understands the concept of mobility when she states, "Patients with impaired bed mobility a. have an increased risk for pressure ulcers." b. like to have extra visitors." c. need to have a mechanical soft diet." d. are prone to constipation."

ANS: A Patients who cannot move themselves in bed are more susceptible to pressure ulcers because they cannot relieve the pressure they feel. Extra visitors or diet consistency do not have any bearing on mobility. Constipation should not be a by-product of immobility if a bowel regimen is instituted.

The nurse would identify which patient as having a problem of impaired gas exchange secondary to a perfusion problem? A patient with a. peripheral arterial disease of the lower extremities b. chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) c. chronic asthma d. severe anemia secondary to chemotherapy

ANS: A Perfusion relates to the ability of the blood to deliver oxygen to the cellular level and return the carbon dioxide to the lung for removal. COPD and asthma are examples of a ventilation problem. Severe anemia is an example of a transport problem of gas exchange.

An 18-month-old female patient is diagnosed with her fifth ear infection in the past 10 months. The physician notes that the child's growth rate has decreased from the 60th percentile for height and weight to the 15th percentile over that same time period. The child has been treated for thrush consistently since the third ear infection. The nurse understands that the patient is at risk for a. primary immunodeficiency. b. secondary immunodeficiency. c. cancer. d. autoimmunity.

ANS: A Primary immunodeficiency is a risk for patients with two or more of the listed problems. Secondary immunodeficiency is induced by illness or treatment. Cancer is caused by abnormal cells that will trigger an immune response. Autoimmune diseases are caused by hyperimmunity.

Recommendations published in the IOM's report The future of nursing: Leading change, advancing health include that nurses a. teach, advocate, assess, and nurture. b. should have a graduate degree to practice. c. diagnose and recommend treatments. d. must have continuing education.

ANS: A Professional nurses teach, advocate, assess, and nurture. The IOM recommends that 80% of nurses have a minimum baccalaureate degree (not graduate degree) by 2020. Physicians diagnose and recommend treatments, and nurses provide the majority of these treatments. Lifelong learning is recommended, and some, not all, states require continuing education.

The nurse would expect to administer an anticoagulant to a patient following which surgery? a. Hip replacement b. Hysterectomy c. Abdominal aorta aneurism (AAA) repair d. Appendectomy

ANS: A Prophylactic anticoagulation is used for hip replacement because of the high risk of developing a deep vein thrombosis after hip replacement. Anticoagulants are not routinely administered to patients with hysterectomies, AAA repairs, and appendectomies.

Critical Thinking: The nurse administrator is doing a study that entails gathering data about new employees over a 10-year period. Which research method would be the best one to use for this type of study? a. Quantitative longitude cohort b. Qualitative longitudinal c. Qualitative interview d. Qualitative case study

ANS: A Quantitative research has been defined as being "focused on the testing of a hypothesis through objective observation and validation". The types of studies that make up this category include randomized controlled studies, cohort studies, longitudinal studies, case-controlled studies, and case reports. The other options are examples of quantitative, not qualitative, studies.

Preventing infection remains the most effective way of reducing the adverse consequences of sexually transmitted infections, in particular those that are not readily curable. Nurses are often able to reassure the patient enough to open dialog regarding possible exposure, testing, and treatment options. When assessing high-risk behaviors, which question specifically identifies a blood-related risk? a. "Have you ever received donor semen, eggs, or transplanted tissue?" b. "Have you ever exchanged sex for drugs, money, or shelter?" c. "How do you protect yourself from HIV and sexually transmitted infections?" d. "Have you ever injected drugs using shared equipment?"

ANS: A Receipt of any donated organ, tissue, semen, or eggs is considered a blood-related risk. Other blood-related risks include blood transfusion, sex with a person with hemophilia, or sharing equipment for tattoos and body piercing. The exchange of sex for money, drugs, or shelter is considered a drug use-related risk. Other drug use-related risks include having sex with a person who uses or shares, and having sex while stoned, high, or drunk so that you cannot remember the details. By using male condoms, female condoms, or other barriers, patient can protect themselves against sexual risk. Other high-risk behaviors in this category include: having sex against one's will, failing to use protection, having sex with a partner who is bisexual or gay, having anal intercourse, and sexual activity with an increased number of partners. Sharing equipment to inject street drugs or steroids is a drug use-related risk.

A GN appears to be second-guessing herself and is constantly calling on the other nurses to double-check their plan of care or rehearse what they will say to the doctor before she call on the patient's behalf. This seems to be annoying some of the nurse's coworkers. The nurse manager's best response to this situation is to a. explain to coworkers that this is a characteristic of critical thinking and is important for the GN to improve reasoning skills. b. agree with the staff and have someone follow and work more closely with a preceptor. c. have a talk with the nurse and suggest asking fewer questions. d. tell the staff that all new nurses go through this phase, and ignore their behavior.

ANS: A Reflection-on-action is critical for development of knowledge and improvement in reasoning. It is where learning from practice is incorporated into experience. Inquisitiveness is a characteristic of critical thinking and reflects a desire to learn even when the knowledge may not appear readily useful. The manager should promote this. Suggesting the nurse work more closely with a preceptor implies that the manager thinks the nurse needs to learn more and increase confidence. In reality, this nurse is demonstrating a characteristic of critical thinking. Suggesting that the nurse ask fewer questions would hamper the development of the nurse as a critical thinker. All new nurses do go through a phase of asking more questions at one time, but dismissing the nurse's behavior with this explanation is simplistic and will discourage critical thinking.

The acid-base status of a patient is dependent on normal gas exchange. Which patient would the nurse identify as having an increased risk for the development of respiratory acidosis? A patient with a. chronic lung disease with increased carbon dioxide retention b. acute anxiety, hyperventilation, and decreased carbon dioxide retention c. decreased cardiac output with increased serum lactic acid production d. gastric drainage with increased removal of gastric acid

ANS: A Respiratory acidosis is caused by an increase in retention of carbon dioxide, regardless of the underlying disease. A decrease in carbon dioxide retention may lead to respiratory alkalosis. An increase in production of lactic acid leads to metabolic acidosis. Removal of an acid (gastric secretions) will lead to a metabolic alkalosis.

Mr. Giuseppe is a 60-year-old Italian immigrant who presents for an annual physical. He is counseled about diagnostic testing including laboratory testing, colonoscopy, influenza vaccination, and pneumococcal vaccination. His reply is "If it ain't broke, don't try to fix it." Understanding that respect for traditions and fulfilling obligations is important in developing a nursing plan of care. Mr. Giuseppe's cultural orientation is towards a. short term. b. long term. c. leisurely term. d. noncommittal.

ANS: A Short-term cultural orientation is towards the present or past and emphasizes quick results. Long-term cultural orientation is towards the future and long-term rewards. Long-term-oriented cultures favor thrift, perseverance, and adopting to changing circumstances. Leisurely term and noncommittal are undefined in cultural orientation.

According to situational and contingency theory, which of the following is true? a. The theory challenges the concept that one leadership style is always best. b. The theory supports employee feelings, morale, and feedback during the change process. c. Motivation through inspiration and recognition is the focus for transforming employee behavior. d. A leader is someone who possesses great intelligence and decision-making authority.

ANS: A Situational and contingency theory challenges the assumption that there is "one best way" to lead. "The theory supports employee feelings, morale, and feedback during the change process" describes behavioral leadership. "Motivation through inspiration and recognition is the focus for transforming employee behavior" describes transformational leadership. "A leader is someone who possesses great intelligence and decision-making authority" describes Great Man or Trait theory.

The nurse is conducting a patient assessment. The patient tells the nurse that he has smoked two packs of cigarettes per day for 27 years. The nurse may find which data upon assessment? a. Blood pressure above the normal range b. Bounding pedal pulses c. Night blindness d. Reflux disease

ANS: A Smokers have a constriction of the blood vessels due to the tar and nicotine in cigarettes. This constriction may lead to hypertension. Bounding pulses, night blindness, and reflux disease do not have a direct link to smoking.

During history-taking, a patient tells the nurse that he is addicted to alprazolam (Xanax) and that he takes six 1 mg tablets a day. He quit cold turkey yesterday and now presents with extreme agitation, increased heart rate, and panic. The nurse suspects which disorder? a. Stress reaction b. DTs c. Overdose d. Relapse

ANS: A Stress reaction is a withdrawal symptom that can occur when detoxing too quickly. DTs are usually associated with alcohol withdrawal. Overdose of alprazolam would present with extreme drowsiness, confusion, muscle weakness, and loss of balance or coordination. The effects of alprazolam are dizziness, drowsiness, dry mouth, and lightheadedness.

A nurse manager recognizes that systems theory identifies that there is a social component within an organization that affects the overall functioning of the system. What indicator would demonstrate to the nurse manager that the social needs of an organization are being met? a. Most employees from the organization attend an annual holiday celebration. b. Separate eating areas for each discipline are set up in the cafeteria. c. Nurse managers are planning to move to a centralized area away from the care units. d. The summer softball teams are canceled due to lack of interest.

ANS: A Systems theory focuses on the needs and desires of people who work in the organization. Good attendance at a work-sponsored function indicates that staff enjoy interacting and are meeting social and relationship roles. Separating disciplines does not foster a sense of team. Moving administration away from staff limits interaction and informal conversations that build trust. Lack of participation in sponsored events such as a softball team indicates that staff relationships are not strong, and a social component is not being achieved within the work environment.

The nurse is assessing a patient's functional abilities and asks the patient, "How would you rate your ability to prepare a balanced meal?" "How would you rate your ability to balance a checkbook?" "How would you rate your ability to keep track of your appointments?" Which tool would be indicated for the best results of this patient's perception of their abilities? a. Functional Activities Questionnaire (FAQ)™ b. Mini Mental Status Exam (MMSE) c. 24hFAQ d. Performance-based functional measurement

ANS: A The FAQ is an example of a self-report tool which provides information about the patient's perception of functional ability. The MMSE assesses cognitive impairment. The 24hFAQ is used to assess functional ability in postoperative patients. Performance-based tools involve actual observation of a standardized task, completion of which is judged by objective criteria.

The nurse manager of a pediatric clinic could confirm that the new nurse recognized the purpose of the HEADSS Adolescent Risk Profile when the new nurse responds that it is used to assess for needs related to a. anticipatory guidance. b. low-risk adolescents. c. physical development. d. sexual development.

ANS: A The HEADSS Adolescent Risk Profile is a psychosocial assessment screening tool which assesses home, education, activities, drugs, sex, and suicide for the purpose of identifying high-risk adolescents and the need for anticipatory guidance. It is used to identify high-risk, not low-risk, adolescents. Physical development is assessed with anthropometric data. Sexual development is assessed using physical examination.

The nurse is presenting an in-service on the importance of collaborative communication. The nurse includes which critical event identified by the Joint Commission as an outcome of poor communication among health care team members? a. The occurrence of a patient event resulting in death or serious injury b. Decreased ability to document expenses of care provided c. Longer time to begin surgical cases d. Increased time to discharge patients to outpatient care

ANS: A The Joint Commission has identified that poor communication is the primary factor in the occurrence of sentinel events, or events resulting in unintended death or serious injury to patients. Lack of documentation, longer time to begin surgery, and increased delays in discharge all contribute to the management of health care, but do not result in critical patient outcomes.

Which of the following statements is true about health care in the US? a. The US spends more money on health care than any other nation. b. The US provides health care to every citizen. c. The US relies on government funding to treat most citizens. d. The US spends less money on pediatric care than other nations.

ANS: A The US spends more money on health care than any other country. The US does not provide health care to every citizen, nor does it rely entirely on government funding. The US does not spend less money on pediatric care but usually more than other countries.

When there is evidence that supports a screening for an individual patient but not for the general population, the nurse would expect the United States Preventive Services Task Force Grading to be what? a. No recommendation for or against b. Recommends c. Recommends against d. Strongly recommends

ANS: A The United States Preventive Services Task Force Grading is an example of how evidence is used to make guidelines and determine priority. When there is evidence that supports a screening for an individual patient but not for the general population, there is no recommendation for or against screening the general population. Recommends is the grading when there is high certainty that the net benefit is moderate or there is moderate certainty that the net benefit is moderate to substantial. Recommends against is the grading when there is moderate or high certainty that the intervention has no net benefit or that the harms outweigh the benefits. Strongly recommends is the grading when there is high certainty that the net benefit is substantial.

The nurse is examining the eyes of a newborn infant. If the nurse notes the absence of the red reflex, she would a. notify the physician. b. document the finding in the records. c. recheck the reflex after several hours. d. monitor the eye movements and pupil reactions closely.

ANS: A The absence of the red reflex suggests the presence of congenital cataracts, which is an abnormal finding. It will not change in several hours, nor do the eye movements and pupil reaction provide significant changes in this situation.

A patient is the primary caregiver for a disabled family member at home, and has now been unexpectedly hospitalized for surgery. What action can the nurse take to enhance the coping ability of the patient? a. Ask if there is another family member who can help at home while the patient is in the hospital. b. Plan to transfer the patient to a rehabilitation unit after surgery to allow uninterrupted time to recover. c. Coordinate an ambulance transfer of the family member to an alternate family member's home. d. Ask social services to assess what the patient's needs will be after discharge to home.

ANS: A The best action by the nurse is to help the patient develop an action plan to assess what resources may already be available to meet responsibilities at home. A long absence from the home on a rehabilitation unit does not address the immediate need to provide care for the disabled family member. An ambulance transfer to another family member is premature until the placement is identified as an appropriate placement based on the disabled person's needs, availability to provide the care by another, and distance of the transfer. Assessing the patient's needs after discharge does not address the immediate need to provide care for the disabled family person.

The nurse is faced with an ethical issue. When assessing the ethical issue, the nurse must first a. ask, "What is the issue?" b. identify all possible alternatives. c. select the best option from a list of alternatives. d. justify the choice of action or inaction.

ANS: A The first step in the situational assessment procedure is to find out the technical and scientific facts and assess the human dimension of the situation—the feelings, emotions, attitudes, and opinions. Trying to understand the full picture of a situation is time consuming and requires examination from many different perspectives, but it is worth the time and effort that is required to understand an issue fully before moving forward in the assessment procedure. Identifying alternatives is the second step in the situation assessment procedure. A set of alternatives cannot be established until an assessment has been completed. Selecting the best option is actually the third step in the situation assessment procedure. Options cannot be selected until an assessment has been done to define the issue. Justifying the action or inaction is the final step in the situational assessment procedure. No justification can be made until the assessment and action phases have been completed.

The most prominent goal of palliative care is to a. integrate into chronic disease management sooner rather than later. b. enroll the patient into the Medicare Hospice Benefit. c. ensure that the patient has a 6-month prognosis. d. reserve this type of care until the patient is actively dying.

ANS: A The goal of palliative care is to integrate symptom management interventions earlier into the course of chronic disease sooner rather than later. This helps to promote optimal quality of life.

The nurse is reviewing case files for children at risk for injury resulting in brain injury. Which child is at most risk for experiencing this type of violence? a. A Caucasian, six-month-old infant living with a single mother b. An African-American, 24-month-old child living with her grandmother c. A Mexican, three-year-old child living in an inner city apartment d. A Japanese, eight-year-old child living in a home with three generations of family

ANS: A The highest incidence of traumatic brain injury occurs in Caucasian children aged birth to 1 year, and the abuse occurs most often from women.

A patient complains of insomnia while in the hospital. Which nursing diagnosis would be a top priority for this patient? a. Anxiety related to hospitalization b. Ineffective Coping related to hospitalization c. Denial related to hospitalization d. High Risk for Insomnia related to hospitalization

ANS: A The information about the patient indicates that anxiety is an appropriate nursing diagnosis. The patient's data do not support Defensive Coping, Ineffective Denial, or Risk-Prone Health Behavior as problems for this patient.

A nurse is conducting a therapeutic session with a patient in the inpatient psychiatric facility. Which remark by the nurse would be an appropriate way to begin an interview session? a. "How shall we start today?" b. "Shall we talk about losing your privileges yesterday?" c. "Let's get started discussing your marital relationship." d. "What happened when your family visited yesterday?"

ANS: A The interview is patient centered; thus, the patient chooses issues. The nurse assists the patient by using communication skills and actively listening to provide opportunities for the patient to reach goals. In the distracters, the nurse selects the topic.

A patient reports that he is overwhelmed with anxiety. Which question would be most important to use in assessing the patient during your first meeting? a. "What kinds of things do you do to reduce or cope with your stress?" b. "Tell me about your family history—do any relatives have problems with stress?" c. "Tell me about exercise—how far do you typically run when you go jogging?" d. "Stress can interfere with sleep. How much did you sleep last night?"

ANS: A The most important data to collect during an initial assessment is that which reflects how stress is affecting the patient and how he is coping with stress at present. This data would indicate whether his distress is placing him in danger (e.g., by elevating his blood pressure dangerously or via maladaptive responses such as drinking) and would help you understand how he copes and how well his coping strategies and resources are serving him. Therefore, of the choices presented, the highest priority would be to determine what he is doing to cope at present, preferably via an open-ended or broad-opening inquiry. Family history, the extent of his use of exercise, and how much sleep he is getting are all helpful but seek data that is less of a priority. Also, the manner in which such data is sought here is likely to provide only brief responses (e.g., how much sleep he got on one particular night is probably less important than how much he is sleeping in general).

A mother is talking with the community-based nurse concerning her adult son. The son is mentally challenged and not able to live on his own. The mother is concerned about her son's welfare when she is no longer able to care for him. The best response by the nurse would be which of the following? a. "Let's look into the community resources that are available to assist you." b. "You have raised your son well, and he will be okay on his own." c. "Contact your distant relatives to see if anyone would take your son." d. "There are places for mentally challenged adults; let's place him there."

ANS: A The mother, with the assistance of the nurse, can research resources in the community that will service and care for her son when she is no longer able to do so. How the son is raised does not mean that he will be okay on his own. Distant relatives may not want or be able to care for the son, so this may not be a viable option. Placing the son is too general of an option, and he may not do well in this setting.

The community health nurse is assessing a family who has a chronically ill child. The child needs special care, and the nurse has to coordinate the care for the home setting. What behavior will the nurse assess for to know that the family can care for the child? a. The family is willing to learn about the care and share the caregiving needs. b. The mother is going to care for the child and the family herself. c. The older siblings are going to care for the child while the parents are at work. d. An outside agency will be coming to the home three times a week to give care.

ANS: A The nurse will look for a family who is willing to provide care plus support each other in this need. Having a situation where just siblings or a mother or an outside agency give care puts an undue burden on the caregiver and brings disharmony to the family.

The nurse is reviewing the patient's arterial blood gas results. The PaO2 is 96 mm Hg, pH is 7.20, PaCO2 is 55 mm Hg, and HCO3 is 25 mEq/L. What would the nurse expect to observe on assessment of this patient? a. Disorientation and tremors b. Tachycardia and decreased blood pressure c. Increased anxiety and irritability d. Hyperventilation and lethargy

ANS: A The patient is experiencing respiratory acidosis ( pH, and PaCO2 ) which may be manifested by disorientation, tremors, possible seizures, and decreased level of consciousness. Tachycardia and decreased blood pressure are not characteristic of a problem of respiratory acidosis. Increased anxiety and hyperventilation will cause respiratory alkalosis, which is manifested by an increase in pH and a decrease in PaCO2.

Nurses work to serve the population, and they know that the priority population who needs to be served by care coordination is the a. most vulnerable and the frail. b. uninsured and the very young. c. underinsured and the elderly population. d. whole population of the community.

ANS: A The priority population is the most vulnerable and the frail, because they have the most health care needs. Other populations do need health care, but they do not always have immediate need of the health care system.

The patient asks the nurse to explain the sinoatrial node in the heart. The nurse's best response would be, "The sinoatrial node a. provides the heart with the stimulation to beat in a normal rhythm." b. protects the heart from atherosclerotic changes." c. provides the heart with oxygenated blood." d. protects the heart from infection."

ANS: A The sinoatrial node is the natural pacemaker of the heart, and it assists the heart to beat in a normal rhythm. The sinoatrial node does not protect from atherosclerotic changes or infection, and it does not directly provide the heart with oxygenated blood.

For children and teens, the model that includes school-based services is the _____ Model a. Social b. Integrated c. Medically-Oriented

ANS: A The social models focus on community-based services, and the other models do not.

The nurse planning to assess the structure of a family would which question? a. "Who lives with you?" b. "Who does the grocery shopping?" c. "Who provides support in your family?" d. "How old are the members of your family?"

ANS: A The structure of the family includes who is in the family and what their relationship is. "Who does the shopping?" would provide information about family functioning. "Who provides support?" would provide information about family functioning. "How old are the members?" would provide information about family development.

The nurse is admitting a prenatal patient for diagnostic testing. While eliciting the psychosocial history, the nurse learns the patient smokes a pack of cigarettes daily, drinks a cup of cappuccino with breakfast, has smoked weed in the remote past, and is a social drinker. Which action should the nurse first take? a. Strongly advise immediate tobacco cessation b. Elimination of all caffeinated beverages c. Serum and urine testing for drug use and alcohol use d. Referral to a 12-step program

ANS: A There are numerous risk factors for women and men affecting reproductive health and pregnancy outcomes. These can be categorized into biophysical, psychosocial, sociodemographic, and environmental factors. Some of the risk factors for human reproduction fit into multiple categories. Psychosocial factors cover smoking, excessive caffeine, alcohol and drug abuse, psychologic status including impaired mental health, addictive lifestyles, spouse abuse, and noncompliance with cultural norms. Drinking a cup of a caffeinated beverage a day is not associated with adverse fetal outcomes usually. Serum and urine testing for drug/alcohol use is not required for stated marijuana use in the remote past. Patient referral to a 12-step program is usually advisable for current alcohol and/or drug use.

The nurse is caring for a postoperative patient who had an open appendectomy. The nurse understands that this patient should have some erythema and edema at the incision site 12 to 24 hours post operation if a. his immune system is functioning properly. b. he is properly vaccinated. c. he has an infection. d. the suppressor T-cells in his body are activated.

ANS: A Tissue integrity is closely associated with immunity. Openings in the integumentary system allow for the entrance of pathogens. If the immune response is functioning optimally, the body responds to the insult to the tissue by protecting the area from invasion of microorganisms and pathogens with inflammation. Routine vaccinations have no bearing on the body's response to intentional tissue impairment. The redness and swelling at the incision site in the first 12 to 24 hours is part of optimal immune functioning. A patient with erythema and edema that persist or worsen should be evaluated for infection. Suppressor T-cells help to control the immune response in the body.

The nurse is evaluating the need to refer a patient with osteoarthritis for a home care visit to be sure the patient can function in accomplishing daily activities independently. What is the nurse's first priority? a. Determine if the patient has had home visits before and if the experience was positive. b. Check the patient's ability to bathe without any assistance the next day. c. Have the patient demonstrate the learned skills at the end of the teaching session. d. Arrange a physical therapy visit before the patient is discharged from the hospital.

ANS: A To begin the assessment of adherence, it is first important to clarify with the patient (a) their beliefs and perceptions about their health risk status, (b) their existing knowledge about cardiovascular disease risk reduction, (c) any prior experience with health care professionals, and (d) their degree of confidence with controlling the disease. The other actions allow evaluation of the patient's short-term response to teaching.

A 28-year-old married woman received word that she is pregnant. Sadly, the patient is not able to carry the pregnancy because she suffers from long QT syndrome, which causes an abnormality of the heart, meaning any rush of adrenaline could prove fatal. The pregnant patient states, "I want to have this baby." The nurse realizes that this is a conflict that involves the ethical principle of a. utilitarianism. b. deontology. c. autonomy. d. veracity.

ANS: A Utilitarianism is an approach that is rooted in the assumption that an action or practice is right if it leads to the greatest possible balance of good consequences or to the least possible balance of bad consequences. An attempt is made to determine which actions will lead to the greatest ratio of benefit to harm for all persons involved in the dilemma. Veracity is telling the truth in personal communication as a moral and ethical requirement. Deontology is an approach that is rooted in the assumption that an action or practice is right if it leads to the greatest possible balance of good consequences or to the least possible balance of bad consequences. Autonomy is the principle of respect for the individual person. All persons have unconditional intrinsic value. People are self-determining agents who are entitled to decide their own destiny.

The nurse is planning to teach a patient how to use relaxation techniques to prevent elevation of blood pressure and heart rate. The nurse is teaching the patient to a. switch from the sympathetic mode of the autonomic nervous system to the parasympathetic mode. b. alter the internal state by modifying electronic signals related to physiologic processes. c. replace stress-producing thoughts and activities with daily stress-reducing thoughts and activities. d. reduce catecholamine production and promote the production of additional beta-endorphins.

ANS: A When the sympathetic nervous system is operative, the individual experiences muscular tension and an elevated pulse, blood pressure, and respiratory rate. Relaxation is achieved when the sympathetic nervous system is quieted and the parasympathetic nervous system is operative. Modifying electronic signals is the basis for biofeedback, a behavioral approach to stress reduction. Altering thinking and activities from more-stressful to less-stressful reflects the cognitive approach to stress management. Reducing catecholamine production is the basis for guided imagery's effectiveness.

During an assessment, the patient states that his bowel movements cause discomfort because the stool is hard and difficult to pass. As the nurse, you make which of the following suggestions to assist the patient with improving the quality of his bowel movement? (Select all that apply.) a. Increase fiber intake. b. Increase water consumption. c. Decrease physical exercise. d. Refrain from alcohol. e. Refrain from smoking.

ANS: A, B Increasing fiber assists in adding bulk to the stool. Increasing water assists in softening the stool and moving it through the large intestine. Decreasing exercise will have the opposite effect of slowing bowel movements. Refraining from alcohol and smoking have no direct effect on bowel movements.

The nurse is assessing the coping patterns of a newly admitted patient. What will the nurse include in this assessment? (Select all that apply.) a. Current stressors as perceived by the patient b. Use of drugs or alcohol c. Recent weight changes d. Age and height e. Temperature

ANS: A, B, C Stressors are subjective based on patient perception and assessment of stressors as part of a patient history. Stressors trigger coping behaviors that can include negative uses of drugs and alcohol and appetite changes that affect weight. Age, height, and temperature are not typically altered with coping, although pulse, respiratory rate, and blood pressure may be affected.

Components of a professional identity in nursing include which of the following? (Select all that apply.) a. Accountability b. Advocacy c. Autonomy d. Competence e. Culture

ANS: A, B, C, D The scope of professional identity in nursing includes: autonomy, knowledge, competence, professionalism, accountability, advocacy, collaborative practice, and commitment. Cultural sensitivity is important to professional nursing; however, culture is an inherent quality of nurses and patients, not a component of the professional identity.

Caregivers are often categorized by their relationship to the person being cared for. Which of the following are the roles? (Select all that apply.) a. Grandparent b. Spouse c. Parent d. Adult children e. Neighbor/friend f. Young children

ANS: A, B, C, D, E All of these options can provide care whether it is on a temporary or permanent basis. Young children do not provide care.

The nurse is admitting a child with a history of abuse. The nurse understands that the child may exhibit what behaviors that are consequences of being in an abusive environment? (Select all that apply.) a. Reliving abuse incidents b. Sleep disturbance c. Overeating d. Acting out behaviors e. Intermittent fever

ANS: A, B, D Posttraumatic stress disorder symptoms, depression symptoms, and aggression are all outcomes that children who are exposed to abuse experience. Overeating may be associated with some stressors, but it is not specifically indicative of abuse. Fever is not associated with abuse.

The focus of quality health care should be on which of the following items? (Select all that apply.) a. Excellent services b. Comprehensive communication c. Private hospital rooms d. Health team collaboration e. Culturally competent care

ANS: A, B, D, E Excellent services, communication, collaboration, and culturally competent care brings quality to the health care delivered to the patient. Private hospital rooms may be a preference by some patients, but they do not add to the quality of care.

When conducting a health history assessment, the nurse would want to know what important information about the patient's elimination status? (Select all that apply.) a. Recent changes in elimination patterns b. Changes in color, consistency, or odor of stool or urine c. Time of day patient defecates d. Discomfort or pain with elimination e. List of medications taken by patient f. Patient's preferences for toileting

ANS: A, B, D, E Recent changes in elimination patterns, color, consistency, or odor are important for the nurse to know concerning elimination. Discomfort or pain during elimination is important for the nurse to know. A nurse should also know which medications the patient is on as this may affect elimination. Time of day is not important, nor is the patient's preferences for toileting. They are personal preferences and do not affect elimination.

How does the Iowa model transcend mere nursing care? (Select all that apply.) a. It includes formalized internal feedback loops. b. Its triggers can have their origins practically anywhere. c. It generates change in practice solely through research. d. It implies a layer of policy development. e. It addresses multiple disciplines' impacts on quality.

ANS: A, B, D, E The triggers addressed within the Iowa model process can be problem focused and evolve from risk management data, process improvement data, benchmarking data, financial data, and clinical problems. The triggers can also be knowledge focused, such as new research findings, change in a national agency's or an organization's standards and guidelines, expanded philosophy of care, or questions from the institutional standards committee. Because the Iowa model is often implemented at a fairly high level of nursing or hospital administration, it scrutinizes the input of nursing and other disciplines in its process. Its output is applied as widely as possible throughout the organization, and it can affect policy within a multihospital system and even across systems. The success of EBP is determined by all involved, including health care agencies, administrators, nurses, physicians, and other health care professionals.

The nurse knows that which of the following medical conditions are most commonly associated with anxiety? Select all that apply: a. Cancer b. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease c. Hypothyroidism d. Dysrhythmias e. Encephalitis f. Hyperthyroidism

ANS: A, B, D, E, F A, B, D, E, and F are all associated with anxiety. Hypothyroidism is not associated with anxiety.

The nurse is making a home visit to a patient who was discharged from the hospital on Lovenox and warfarin following replacement of the patient's pacemaker. Which observation indicates excessive bleeding? (Select all that apply.) a. New ecchymosis on the abdomen b. A nosebleed that does not stop with pressure c. Pain of the lower extremity with flexion d. Extreme fatigue e. Pallor f. Sudden onset of severe headache

ANS: A, B, D, E, F Excessive bleeding includes large bruises that may be increasing in size, nosebleeds, extreme fatigue from decreased tissue oxygenation due to decreased hemoglobin, and sudden onset of a severe headache, which may indicate a cerebral hemorrhage. Pain in the lower extremity may be a result of a deep vein thrombosis. Pain of the legs with flexion may be associated with venous thrombosis.

The nurse is conducting a review of the literature for pain management techniques. Which of the following would the nurse consider when conducting research that yields solid EBP? (Select all that apply.) a. Search the literature to uncover evidence to answer the question. b. Evaluate the outcome. c. Use the nursing process to evaluate evidence. d. Evaluate the evidence found. e. Develop an answerable question. f. Develop a question that has not been answered. g. Apply the evidence to the practice situation.

ANS: A, B, D, E, G To facilitate the use of evidence, steps have been developed to systematically approach a question of patient care. The steps are outlined as follows: Develop an answerable question Search the literature to uncover evidence to answer the question Evaluate the evidence found Apply the evidence to the practice situation Evaluate the outcome The nursing process is a method of problem solving and can be used to develop a plan of care. Formulating a question that has not been answered in the research would be considered primary research. Therefore, there is no evidence in which to draw from.

A 23-year-old male veteran of the war in Iraq is admitted with a diagnosis of posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD) following his arrest for destroying his girlfriend's apartment. This is not his first angry outburst resulting in destruction of property. Which interventions by the nurse will be most helpful to this patient? (Select all that apply.) a. Allow opportunities for him to express his anger. b. Provide patient and family teaching regarding PTSD. c. Tell the patient that hurting himself will solve nothing. d. Report him to the authorities. e. Exhibit a nonjudgmental attitude. f. Reassure him that everything will be all right.

ANS: A, B, E Allowing appropriate opportunities for him to express his anger will help him learn how to control his emotions or express them in a socially acceptable manner. Providing education to the patient and family will help them learn why he behaves the way he does and how to prevent or redirect his anger. Options C, D, and F are nontherapeutic in that they undermine the nurse-patient relationship. Being nonjudgmental in interactions with patients is a basic tenet of developing a therapeutic relationship.

What are the major attributes of health care quality? (Select all that apply.) a. Conforms to standards b. Sound decision making c. High acuity patients d. Low health care costs e. Identifies adverse events

ANS: A, B, E Major attributes of health care quality include conformation to standards set by regulatory agencies, sound decision making regarding care, and identifying potential adverse events. High acuity of patients does not contribute to quality health care, because the care demand is increased, and low health care costs mean fewer services may be available.

The nurse is teaching primary prevention of cognitive impairment at a community health fair. Which topics would be included in the presentation? (Select all that apply.) a. Do not use substances such as cannabis (marijuana) and alcohol. b. Wear helmets when riding bicycles and motorcycles. c. Complete a Mini Mental Status Exam (MMSE) yearly. d. Correct acid-base imbalances related to underlying disease processes. e. Wear a seat belt whenever riding in a motorized vehicle. f. Complete a Confusion Assessment Method (CAM) scale yearly.

ANS: A, B, E Primary prevention attempts to prevent injury. Not using chemical substances, wearing a helmet, and wearing a seat belt are all measures to prevent injury to the brain, which protects cognitive function. An MMSE and CAM are secondary prevention, or screening tools performed once symptoms are present. Correcting acid-base imbalances from underlying disease processes is a tertiary prevention level, aimed at minimizing complications for disease already present.

Which of the following would be included in the assessment of a patient with diabetes mellitus who is experiencing a hypoglycemic reaction? (Select all that apply.) a. Tremors b. Nervousness c. Extreme thirst d. Flushed skin e. Profuse perspiration f. Constricted pupils

ANS: A, B, E When hypoglycemia occurs, blood glucose levels fall, resulting in sympathetic nervous system responses such as tremors, nervousness, and profuse perspiration. Dilated pupils would also occur, not constricted pupils. Extreme thirst, flushed skin, and constricted pupils are consistent with hyperglycemia.

The patient has recent bilateral, above-the-knee amputations and has developed C. difficile diarrhea. What assessments should the nurse use to detect ECV deficit in this patient? (Select all that apply.) a. Test for skin tenting. b. Measure rate and character of pulse. c. Measure postural blood pressure and heart rate. d. Check Trousseau's sign. e. Observe for flatness of neck veins when upright. f. Observe for flatness of neck veins when supine.

ANS: A, B, F ECV deficit is characterized by skin tenting; rapid, thready pulse; and flat neck veins when supine, which can be assessed in this patient. Although ECV deficit also causes postural blood pressure drop with tachycardia, this assessment is not appropriate for a patient with recent bilateral, above-the-knee amputations. Trousseau's sign is a test for increased neuromuscular excitability, which is not characteristic of ECV deficit. Flat neck veins when upright is a normal finding.

Individuals of low socioeconomic status are at an increased risk for infection because of which of the following? (Select all that apply.) a. Uninsured or underinsured status b. Easy access to health screenings c. High cost of medications d. Inadequate nutrition

ANS: A, C, D Individuals of low socioeconomic status tend to be part of the underinsured or uninsured population. Lack of insurance decreases accessibility to health care in general and health screening services specifically. High costs of medication and nutritious food also make this population at higher risk for infection.

Nurses can be health advocates in which of the following ways? (Select all that apply.) a. Supporting their professional nursing organization when discussing upcoming legislation b. Discussing the upcoming classes with a neighbor c. Rallying for coverage for childhood immunizations d. Arranging for a patient to meet with case management for home health care e. Discussing a patient they are concerned about with a fellow student in the public cafeteria

ANS: A, C, D Supporting a professional nursing organization, rallying for coverage for childhood immunizations, and arranging for a patient to meet with case management are examples of how nurses can be a positive influence on health care policy. Discussing an upcoming class with a neighbor is not effective because it could be determined to be negative. Talking about a patient in a public area is an example of inappropriate communication between health care workers and is a violation of patient confidentiality.

A nursing student is preparing a care plan for an assigned patient. When accessing the electronic medical record, what is acceptable information to view? (Select all that apply.) a. Laboratory data of the assigned patient b. Admission diagnosis for a patient who is a former neighbor c. The patient's age, date of birth, and gender d. The history and physical of the assigned patient e. A classmate's brother's chest x-ray report

ANS: A, C, D The laboratory data, age, date of birth, gender, history, and physical of an assigned patient are necessary for identification and care of the patient so it is acceptable to view this information in the electronic medical record. The patient information in the medical record, whether electronic or print, is only to be viewed by those who have a legitimate role in the patient's care. Viewing information on patients other than the assigned patient is not appropriate, because the student does not have a need to view the information for patient care. These are violations of patient privacy.

The nurse recognizes a potential health threat to an alcoholic patient who is using the drug disulfiram (Antabuse) when the nurse reads in the health record that the patient is also which of the following? (Select all that apply.) a. On blood thinners b. Taking diphenhydramine (Benadryl) tablets c. Ingesting alcohol d. On penicillin e. Using mouthwash

ANS: A, C, E Disulfiram increases the effect of anticoagulants such as warfarin (Coumadin). Ingesting alcohol may cause headache, nausea, vomiting, tachycardia, chest pain, or dizziness. Mouthwash can have alcohol as one of the main ingredients and should be checked prior to using.

The nurse would identify which body systems as directly involved in the process of normal gas exchange? (Select all that apply.) a. Neurologic system b. Endocrine system c. Pulmonary system d. Immune system e. Cardiovascular system f. Hepatic system

ANS: A, C, E The neurologic system controls respiratory drive; the respiratory system controls delivery of oxygen to the lung capillaries; and the cardiac system is responsible for the perfusion of vital organs. These systems are primarily responsible for the adequacy of gas exchange in the body. The endocrine and hepatic systems are not directly involved with gas exchange. The immune system primarily protects the body against infection.

In discussing disease prevention with a 15-year-old boy and his mother, the nurse identifies which of the following as risk factors for psychosis? (Select all that apply.) a. Father diagnosed with paranoid schizophrenia b. Rural residence c. Recent immigration from Ecuador d. Occasional cannabis use e. January birth date f. Physical abuse by the father

ANS: A, C, E, F Genetic predisposition has been identified as a risk factor for development of schizophrenia. Immigration, winter birth, and family difficulties such as abuse have also been identified as risk factors. Urban residence, not rural, and chronic cannabis use, not occasional, have also been identified.

Clients who are psychotic because of underlying psychiatric illness are treated with antipsychotic medications. Typical antipsychotic medications can improve positive symptoms in clients with schizophrenia. Positive symptoms include which of the following? (Select all that apply.) a. Hallucinations b. Disorganized speech and behavior c. Anhedonia d. Delusions e. Agitation

ANS: A, D, E Positive symptoms of schizophrenia include the distortion or exaggeration of normal behavior, such as when the client experiences hallucinations, delusions, or agitation. Negative symptoms are those that cause a loss of normal function, such as when the client exhibits disorganized speech and behavior and anhedonia.

The nurse assesses the patient and notes all of the following. Select all of the findings that indicate the systemic manifestations of inflammation. a. Oral temperature 38.6° C/101.5° F b. Thick, green nasal discharge c. Patient complaint of pain at 6 on a 0 to 10 scale on palpation of frontal and maxillary sinuses d. WBC 20 ´ 109/L e. Patient reports, "I'm tired all the time. I haven't felt like myself in days."

ANS: A, D, E Systemic manifestations of inflammatory response include elevated temperature, leukocytosis, and malaise and fatigue. Purulent exudates and pain are both considered local manifestations of inflammation.

An African American is at an increased risk for which of the following? (Select all that apply.) a. Vitamin D deficiency b. Type 1 diabetes c. Celiac disease d. Type 2 diabetes e. Hypertension f. Metabolic syndrome

ANS: A, D, E, F Type 1 diabetes and celiac disease are more common in Northern European heritage.

The nurse is assessing a patient with a mobility dysfunction and wants to gain insight into the patient's functional ability. What question would be the most appropriate? a. "Are you able to shop for yourself?" b. "Do you use a cane, walker, or wheelchair to ambulate?" c. "Do you know what today's date is?" d. "Were you sad or depressed more than once in the last 3 days?"

ANS: B "Do you use a cane, walker, or wheelchair to ambulate?" will assist the nurse in determining the patient's ability to perform self-care activities. A nutritional health risk assessment is not the functional assessment. Knowing the date is part of a mental status exam. Assessing sadness is a question to ask in the depression screening.

The home care nurse is assessing an older patient diagnosed with mild cognitive impairment (MCI) in the home setting. Which information is of concern? a. The patient's son uses a marked pillbox to set up the patient's medications weekly. b. The patient has lost 10 pounds (4.5 kg) during the last month. c. The patient is cared for by a daughter during the day and stays with a son at night. d. The patient tells the nurse that a close friend recently died.

ANS: B A 10-pound weight loss in 1 month could indicate cancer or may be an indication of further progression of memory loss. Depression is also another common cause of weight loss. The use of a marked pillbox and planning by the family for 24-hour care are appropriate for this patient. It is not unusual that an older patient would have friends who have died.

Critical Thinking: The nurse in the outpatient setting would like to conduct a research study that compares patients who take tramadol (Ultracet) to patients who take oxycodone hydrochloride and acetaminophen (Percocet) for managing back pain. Which quantitative research method should yield the best results? a. Longitude study b. Controlled study c. Systematic reviews/meta-analysis d. Survey study

ANS: B A controlled study is a type of quantitative research that seeks to control and examine the variables to determine effectiveness. In this case, the variables would be those that were administered tramadol (Ultracet) and those that were administered hydrochloride and acetaminophen (Percocet) for managing back pain. Correlational research methods help determine association between or among variables. A longitudinal study examines variables over a designated course of time. A systematic reviews/meta-analysis is a type of literature review and not a research method. A survey study is a type of qualitative research method.

Critical Thinking: The nurse is doing a nutritional assessment on a patient with hypertension. What foods would be recommended for this patient? a. regular diet b. low sodium diet c. pureed diet d. low sugar diet

ANS: B A low sodium diet will prevent water retention which could increase blood pressure. Patients with hypertension would not be on a regular diet due to sodium content. A pureed diet is indicated for stroke patients who may have impaired swallowing. A low sugar diet is indicated for patients with diabetes.

The nurse is developing a plan of care for a newly diagnosed hypertensive patient who is being discharged on medications and given the Dietary Approaches to Stop Hypertension (DASH) diet to follow. What statement by the patient signals to the nurse that the patient is motivated to learn? a. "I am sure the medications will help to bring down my blood pressure." b. "I can't wait to try the new recipes, and I'm hopeful I will lose weight." c. "Do I really need to follow the diet and take medications?" d. "I have my parents to blame for this. They both have high blood pressure."

ANS: B A patient who is motivated will see what the benefits of following the teaching will do for them. The patient who believes medications are the only solution may not be motivated to follow the prescribed diet. Blaming the parents for their condition does not show accountability or motivation for change.

At change-of-shift report, the nurse learns the medical diagnoses for four patients. Which patient should the nurse assess most carefully for development of hyponatremia? a. Vomiting all day and not replacing any fluid b. Tumor that secretes excessive antidiuretic hormone (ADH) c. Tumor that secretes excessive aldosterone d. Tumor that destroyed the posterior pituitary gland

ANS: B ADH causes renal reabsorption of water, which dilutes the body fluids. Excessive ADH thus causes hyponatremia. Excessive aldosterone causes ECV excess rather than hyponatremia. The posterior pituitary gland releases ADH; lack of ADH causes hypernatremia. Vomiting without fluid replacement causes ECV deficit and hypernatremia.

Critical Thinking: A crisis intervention nurse is training emergency department staff on treatment needs of persons in abusive relationships. What is a common difficulty staff encounter when caring for this population? a. There is not a good legal pathway to help persons in abusive relationships. b. The abused person may return to the abusive home setting. c. Hospital policies do not identify the legal care needed for abused persons. d. Because length of care is short in the emergency department, there is little staff can do for patients who have been abused.

ANS: B Abused persons return to abusive settings because they feel they have no other options or they fear reprisal from the abusive partner. There are policies in all health care facilities that describe the legal needs and the legal process that needs to be followed when caring for abused patients. Even in short-stay care settings there are interventions that can be helpful to a patient who has experienced abuse.

After the nurse implements a teaching plan for a newly diagnosed patient with hypertension, the patient can explain the information but fails to take the medications as prescribed. The nurse's next action would be to a. reeducate the patient, because learning did not occur because the patient's behavior did not change. b. assess the patient's perception and attitude towards the risks associated with not taking their anti-hypertensives. c. take full responsibility for helping the patient make dietary changes. d. ask the provider to prescribe a different medication, because the patient does not want to take this medication.

ANS: B Although the patient behavior has not changed, the patient's ability to explain the information indicates that learning has occurred. The nurse would need to ask what the patient's perceptions are of taking the medications to determine if the patient understands the ramifications of not taking the medication. The patient may be in the contemplation or preparation state (see Health Belief Model). The nurse should reinforce the need for change and continue to provide information and assistance with planning for change.

Strategies to include in a teaching plan for an adult who has repeatedly not followed the written discharge instructions would include a. individualized handout. b. instructional videos. c. Internet resources. d. self-help books.

ANS: B An instructional video would provide a visual/auditory approach for discharge instructions. Repeatedly not following written instructions is a clue that the patient may not be able to read or understand the information. While assessing the literacy level of an adult patient can be challenging, the information that they have not been able to follow previous written instructions would suggest that the nurse use an alternate strategy that does not require a high degree of literacy. An individualized handout would be written, very similar to previous instructions, and would not address a concern about literacy. Internet resources generally require an individual to be able to read, and although videos are available through the Internet, this is not the best response. Self-help books would be appropriate for an individual who reads. There is a question about whether this patient is literate, so these would not be the best choice.

The interprofessional core team includes members from a. nursing, medicine, pharmacy, and nutrition. b. medicine, nursing, social work, and clergy. c. medicine, nursing, physical therapists, and volunteers. d. nursing, home health aides, volunteers, and clergy.

ANS: B An interprofessional team approach involving health care professionals from different disciplines is central to optimal palliative care practice and quality outcomes. The interdisciplinary core team includes members from medicine, nursing, social work, and clergy. Ancillary disciplines are also included.

A patient who was diagnosed with senile dementia has become incontinent of urine. The patient's daughter asks the nurse why this is happening. The best response by the nurse is: a. "The patient is angry about the dementia diagnosis." b. "The patient is losing sphincter control due to the dementia." c. "The patient forgets where the bathroom is located due to the dementia." d. "The patient wants to leave the hospital."

ANS: B Anger, wanting to leave the hospital, and forgetting where the bathroom is really have no bearing on the urinary incontinence. The patient is incontinent due to the mental ability to voluntarily control the sphincter. This is happening because of the dementia.

A patient is being treated with an antibiotic. The nurse explains to the patient that this medication is required for the reduction of inflammation at the injury site because this medication a. will decrease the pain at the site. b. helps to kill the infection causing the inflammation. c. inhibits cyclooxygenase. d. will reduce the patient's fever.

ANS: B Antimicrobials treat the underlying cause of the infection which leads to inflammation. Analgesics and nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) help to treat pain. NSAIDs and other antipyretics are cyclooxygenase inhibitors. Antipyretics help to reduce fever.

A patient comes to the clinic with a complaint of painful, itchy feet. On interview, the patient tells the nurse that he is a college student living in a dormitory apartment that he shares with five other students. The nurse plans to teach the patient to a. not eat with the other students. b. avoid sharing razors and other personal items. c. have his CBC checked monthly. d. disinfect showers and bathroom floors weekly after use.

ANS: B Avoidance of sharing personal items like razors and hairbrushes can decrease the spread of pathogens that cause inflammation and infection. Not eating with the others in his college apartment won't relieve or prevent the spread of infection. A CBC monthly will not treat or prevent inflammation. Showers should be disinfected before and after each use.

A mother complains to the nurse at the pediatric clinic that her 4-year-old child always talks to her toys and makes up stories. The mother wants her child to have a psychologic evaluation. The nurse's best initial response is to a. refer the child to a psychologist. b. explain that playing make believe with dolls and people is normal at this age. c. complete a developmental screening. d. separate the child from the mother to get more information.

ANS: B By the end of the fourth year, it is expected that a child will engage in fantasy, so this is normal at this age. A referral to a psychologist would be premature based only on the complaint of the mother. Completing a developmental screening would be very appropriate but not the initial response. The nurse would certainly want to get more information, but separating the child from the mother is not necessary at this time.

The nurse is explaining to a student nurse about impaired central perfusion. The nurse knows the student understands this problem when the student states, "Central perfusion a. is monitored only by the physician." b. involves the entire body." c. is decreased with hypertension." d. is toxic to the cardiac system."

ANS: B Central perfusion does involve the entire body as all organs are supplied with oxygen and vital nutrients. The physician does not control the body's ability for perfusion. Central perfusion is not decreased with hypertension. Central perfusion is not toxic to the cardiac system.

The staff nurse who uses informatics in promoting quality patient care is most likely to access data in the domain of a. certified clinical information systems (CIS). b. clinical health care informatics. c. public health/population informatics. d. translational bioinformatics.

ANS: B Clinical health care informatics and the subset, nursing informatics, provides for the development of direct approaches to patients and their families which can be used by the staff nurse to promote quality patient care. Certified CIS refers to the tools for achieving quality outcomes, including electronic health records, clinical data repositories, decision support programs, and handheld devices—not the data. Public health/population informatics is the domain which relates information, computer science, and technology to public health science to improve the health of populations; this domain would provide data for the nurse working with communities. Translational bioinformatics refers to the research science domain where biomedical and genomic data are combined; it's a new term that describes the domain of where bioinformatics meets clinical medicine, generally for health care research rather than direct patient care.

To design and implement a decubitus ulcer risk management protocol in the electronic health record, the informatics nurse would first a. build the screens in the electronic health record. b. determine evidence supporting decubitus ulcer risk management. c. develop the training program for staff. d. select the appropriate standardized language.

ANS: B Collecting the evidence related to the issue is the first step in addressing a problem (remember the nursing process, the foundation of nursing practice). Based on the evidence, an assessment tool or tools and data needed from a patient perspective would be identified. The screens in the electronic record would be based on the workflow surrounding the patient assessment. A training program could not be developed until the protocol is adopted. The appropriate standardized language is selected based on what needs to be documented and what has been approved for use by the agency (e.g., ANA recognized terminologies).

An older adult has experienced severe depression for many years and is unable to tolerate most antidepressant medications due to adverse effects of the medications. He is scheduled for electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) as a treatment for his depression. What teaching should the nurse give the patient regarding this treatment? a. There are no special preparations needed before this treatment. b. Common side effects include headache and short-term memory loss. c. One treatment will be needed to cure the depression. d. This treatment will leave you unconscious for several hours.

ANS: B Common side effects of ECT include headache, sleepiness, short-term memory loss, nausea, and muscle aches. Preparations before and after the procedure are the same as any operative procedure involving the patient receiving anesthesia. Treatment is typically three sessions a week for 4 weeks, not once. Patients are not unconscious after the procedure due to the use of precisely placed electrodes and the use of anesthesia.

A 73-year-old male patient is seen in the home setting for a routine physical. The nurse notes which behavior as the most reassuring sign that the patient has been following the treatment plan for the diagnoses of hypertension, diabetes, and hyperlipidemia? a. The patient has a list of glucose readings for the past 10 days. b. The patient has a list of medications along with newly refilled meds. c. The patient has a list of all foods and beverages for a 3-day period. d. The patient verbalizes the side effects of all his medications.

ANS: B Confirming how often a patient renews or refills his/her prescriptions is a measurement of the patient's persistence with continuation of the treatment. Having a list of glucose readings or verbalizing side effects does not necessarily mean that the patient is compliant unless the readings were all normal, which is not indicated. Listing foods may not indicate the patient is following the treatment plan.

An unconscious patient is treated in the emergency department for head trauma. The patient is unconscious and on life support for 2 weeks prior to making a full recovery. The initial actions of the medical team are based on which ethical principle? a. Utilitarianism b. Deontology c. Autonomy d. Veracity

ANS: B Deontology is an approach that is rooted in the assumption that humans are rational and act out of principles that are consistent and objective and that compel them to do what is right. Deontologic theory claims that a decision is right only if it conforms to an overriding moral duty and wrong only if it violates that moral duty. Utilitarianism is an approach that is rooted in the assumption that an action or practice is right if it leads to the greatest possible balance of good consequences or to the least possible balance of bad consequences. An attempt is made to determine which actions will lead to the greatest ratio of benefit to harm for all persons involved in the dilemma. Autonomy is the principle of respect for the individual person. People are free to form their own judgments and perform whatever actions they choose. Veracity is defined as telling the truth in personal communication as a moral and ethical requirement

The nurse is seeing a patient who has been in the clinic eight times in the past 6 months for injuries from an abusive partner. The patient states, "I don't see any way to get away from my partner, and I can't keep going on like this." What assessment question is most important for the nurse to ask? a. "Do you have any family in the area that can help?" b. "Have you thought about hurting yourself or someone else?" c. "Have you thought about moving to a different city?" d. "Have you discussed this with anyone else?

ANS: B Depression and an increased risk of suicide are common outcomes from individuals experiencing interpersonal violence. It is critical that the nurse specifically assess for the risk of harm to the patient or to others during assessment. Asking if family or friends are available for support is good, but it is more important to assess for the safety concern of suicide or harm to others. It is not helpful to ask if a person who has stated that they don't see a way out has thought of leaving—their comment indicates that they can't see any solution. This situation is a high risk for suicide, or even homicide against the perpetrator.

The patient had diarrhea for 5 days and developed an acid-base imbalance. Which statement would indicate that the nurse's teaching about the acid-base imbalance has been effective? a. "To prevent another problem, I should eat less sodium during diarrhea." b. "My blood became too acid because I lost some base in the diarrhea fluid." c. "Diarrhea removes fluid from the body, so I should drink more ice water." d. "I should try to slow my breathing so my acids and bases will be balanced."

ANS: B Diarrhea causes metabolic acidosis through loss of bicarbonate, which is a base. Eating less sodium during diarrhea increases the risk of ECV deficit. Although diarrhea does remove fluid from the body, it also removes sodium and bicarbonate which need to be replaced. Rapid deep respirations are the compensatory mechanism for metabolic acidosis and should be encouraged rather than stopped.

A patient who was admitted 24 hours ago has become increasingly irritable and now says there are bugs on his bed. The nurse suspects a. alcohol-induced psychosis. b. delirium tremens (DTs). c. neurologic injury related to a fall. d. posttraumatic stress reaction.

ANS: B During the 6 to 96 hours after last alcohol use, patients may experience DTs, as evidenced by disorientation, nightmares, abdominal pain, nausea, and diaphoresis, as well as elevated temperature, pulse rate, and blood pressure measurement and visual and auditory hallucinations.

The nurse is providing health teaching to a group of mothers of school-aged children. Which statement by a mother indicates the need for additional instruction? a. "I will take my child to the audiologist because he doesn't seem to hear me except when I look directly at him." b. "Both of my children have the same eye medication, which is a real bonus, because I need only buy one bottle." c."Making my child wear ear plugs when she goes to a rock concert may save her hearing!" d. "I see now why when my child has a cold, he complains about everything tasting blah!"

ANS: B Each person should always have their own eye medication to prevent infection transfer between them. The child who only hears with direct visional contacts may be lip-reading and have a hearing loss. Exposure to loud noises is known to cause hearing loss. Sense of taste and smell can be altered by upper respiratory infections.

A patient is newly diagnosed with anxiety and placed on a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs). The nurse is developing the plan of care for this patient. How long will it take for this medication to become effective? a. The medication will become effective immediately. b. The medication may take up to 12 weeks to become effective. c. The medication may take up to 6 weeks to become effective. d. The medication may take up to 4 weeks to become effective.

ANS: B Efficacy may take at least 8 to 12 weeks. The other options are not realistic.

You are caring for a patient who has suffered a spinal cord injury. You are concerned about the patient's elimination status. As the nurse, your primary concern is to a. speak with the patient's family about food choices. b. establish a bowel and bladder program for the patient. c. speak with the patient about past elimination habits. d. establish a bedtime ritual for the patient.

ANS: B Establishing a bowel and bladder program for the patient is a priority to be sure that adequate elimination is happening for the patient with a spinal cord injury. Speaking with the family to determine food choices is okay, but it is not the primary concern. Speaking with the patient to know past elimination habits does not apply, because the spinal cord injury changes elimination habits. Establishing a bedtime ritual does not apply to elimination.

The nurse is planning discharge teaching for a patient taking clozapine (Clozaril). Which of the following is essential to include? a. Caution about sunlight exposure b. Reminder to call the clinic if fever, sore throat, or malaise develops c. Instructions regarding dietary restrictions d. A chart to record patient weight

ANS: B Fever, sore throat, and malaise are symptoms of agranulocytosis, a serious side effect of taking clozapine. Weekly blood counts are necessary to monitor for the condition. Sunlight exposure is a risk for persons taking chlorpromazine hydrochloride (Thorazine). There are no dietary restrictions for persons taking clozapine. While weight gain may occur when taking antipsychotic medication, daily monitoring is not required.

Which statement by a patient indicates additional teaching is required about the medication warfarin? a. "I will continue my diabetic diet and restrict sugar." b. "I will increase the intake of green, leafy vegetables for a more healthful diet." c. "I will restrict the intake of foods high in vitamin C." d. "I will increase the amount of protein in my diet to protect my kidneys."

ANS: B Foods such as green, leafy vegetables have high levels of vitamin K. Warfarin is an anticoagulant that acts by interfering with vitamin K-dependent clotting factors. If the amount of vitamin K is increased in the diet, the medication dose may need to be adjusted. A diabetic diet would be continued as indicated for a patient receiving warfarin. Vitamin C is not related to warfarin.

The plan of care for a patient newly diagnosed with diabetes includes health promotion with the tertiary prevention measure of a. avoiding carcinogens. b. foot screening techniques. c. glaucoma screening. d. seat belt use.

ANS: B Foot screening is considered a tertiary prevention measure, one that minimizes the problems with foot ulcers, an effect of diabetic disease and disability. Avoiding carcinogens is considered primary prevention—those strategies aimed at optimizing health and disease prevention in general and not linked to a single disease entity. Glaucoma screening is considered secondary screening—measures designed to identify individuals in an early state of a disease process so that prompt treatment can be started. Seat belt use is considered primary prevention—those strategies aimed at optimizing health and disease prevention in general and not linked to a single disease entity.

A nurse has designed an individualized nursing care plan for a patient, but the patient is not meeting goals. Further assessment reveals that the patient is not following through on many items. Which action by the nurse would be best for determining the cause of the problem? a. Assess whether the actions were too hard for the patient. b. Determine whether the patient agrees with the care plan. c. Question the patient's reasons for not following through. d. Reevaluate data to ensure the diagnoses are sound.

ANS: B Having patient and/or family provide input to the care plan is vital in order to gain support for the plan of action. The actions may have been too difficult for the patient, but this is a very narrow item to focus on. The nurse might want to find out the rationale for the patient not following through, but instead of directly questioning the patient, which can sound accusatory, it would be best to offer some possible motives. Reevaluation should be an ongoing process, but the more likely cause of the patient's failure to follow through is that the patient did not participate in making the plan of care.

Two nurses are discussing health care in the past and the present. The two nurses know which of the following to be true about health care in the present? a. Health care in the present is mostly provided by nurses. b. Health care in the present is controlled by third party payers. c. Health care in the present is controlled by physicians. d. Health care in the present is dictated by the patient.

ANS: B Health care in the past was controlled by physicians, because they provided the care. Health care in the present is controlled by third party payers, because they finance the care. Health care is provided by nurses, but patient care requires a team of health care workers to assist the patient. The patient is part of the team, but they do not dictate the health care. The patient works with the physician to bring about a good outcome.

Student nurses are being questioned by the nursing instructor about the health care coordination system. The instructor knows the students understand health care delivery when they state, "Health care a. is available for everyone at every time." b. needs are best met with a collaborative effort." c. is adequately meeting the needs of the homeless populations." d. needs are mostly in third world countries."

ANS: B Health care needs many times are not met by one discipline. When a collaborative effort is used, the patient is better served. Health care is not available for everyone, nor is it meeting the needs of the homeless population. Health care needs are worldwide, not just in third world countries.

The nurse is assessing the social support of a patient who is recently divorced and has moved from their hometown to the city due to change in jobs. Which response related to social support would be most therapeutic? a. Encourage the patient to begin dating again, perhaps with members of her church. b. Discuss how divorce support groups could increase coping and social support. c. Note that being so particular about potential friends reduces social contact. d. Discuss using the Internet as a way to find supportive others with similar values.

ANS: B High-quality social support enhances mental and physical health and acts as a significant buffer against distress. Low-quality support relationships are known to affect a person's coping effectiveness negatively. Resuming dating soon after a divorce could place additional stress on the patient rather than helping them cope with existing stressors. Developing relationships on the Internet probably would not substitute fully for direct contact with other humans and could expose the patient to predators misrepresenting themselves to take advantage of vulnerable persons.

A patient is diagnosed with a sprain to her right ankle after a fall. The patient asks the nurse about using ice on her injured ankle. The nurse should tell the patient that a. she should use ice only when the ankle hurts. b. ice should be applied for 15 to 20 minutes every 2 to 3 hours over the next 1 to 2 days. c. she should wrap an ice pack around the injured ankle for the next 24 to 48 hours. d. ice is not recommended for use on the sprain because it would inhibit the inflammatory response.

ANS: B Ice is used on areas of injury during the first 24 to 48 hours after the injury occurs to prevent damage to surrounding tissues from excessive inflammation. Ice should be used for a maximum of 20 minutes at a time every 2 to 3 hours. Ice must be used according to a schedule for it to be effective and not be overused. Using ice more often or for longer periods of time can cause additional tissue damage. Ice is recommended to inhibit the inflammatory process from damaging surrounding tissue.

At the well-child clinic, the nurse teaching a mother about health promotion activities describes immunizations as a. unique for children. b. primary prevention. c. secondary prevention. d. tertiary prevention.

ANS: B Immunizations/vaccinations are considered primary prevention measures, those strategies aimed at optimizing health and disease prevention in general. Immunizations/vaccinations are primary prevention measures for individuals across the life span, not just children. Secondary prevention measures are those designed to identify individuals in an early state of a disease process so that prompt treatment can be started. Tertiary prevention measures are those that minimize the effects of disease and disability.

A hospital organization is working to improve a feeling of being valued and respected among all staff members. Which action by administration would reinforce the feeling of being valued? a. Create professional pathways that require advanced education for any advancement of staff. b. Seek staff input when planning a remodeling project of patient rooms. c. Form committees that consist of upper management to plan organizational goals. d. Consistently schedule required staff meetings at the same time each month.

ANS: B Including staff at all levels of an organization in planning and projects demonstrates respect for the intelligence and creativity of the individual. Requiring advanced education for any advancement limits those with barriers to attending additional schooling; advancement should be available in a variety of ways to show the value of the individual. Committees that only consist of upper management cause a feeling of disconnect between staff and administration. Scheduling meetings at the same time does not consider those who work shifts and either have to come in on their day off or must disrupt sleep to attend.

A patient has been admitted for a skin graft following third degree burns to the bilateral calves. The plan of care involves 3 days inpatient and 6 months outpatient treatment, to include home care and dressing changes. When should the nurse initiate the educational plan? a. After the operation and the patient is awake b. On admission, along with the initial assessment c. The day before the patient is to be discharged d. When narcotics are no longer needed routinely

ANS: B Initial discharge planning begins upon admission. After the operation has been completed is too late to begin the discharge planning process. The day before discharge is too late for the nurse to gather all pertinent information and begin teaching and coordinating resources. After a complicated operation, the patient may well be discharged on narcotic analgesics. Waiting for the patient to not need them anymore might mean the patient gets discharged without teaching being done.

The nurse is caring for a patient with increased intracranial pressure. Which action is considered unsafe? a. Aligning the neck with the body b. Clustering many nursing activities c. Elevating the head of the bed 30 degrees d. Providing stool softeners or laxatives as ordered

ANS: B It is important to minimize stress and activities that could increase intracranial pressure. Combining many nursing activities could increase oxygen demand and intracranial pressure. This would not be safe. Interventions which can promote venous outflow can help decrease intracranial pressure. The stress of constipation or bowel movements can increase intracranial pressure; stool softeners or laxatives can minimize this.

A nurse manager has recently overheard several negative comments made by nurses on the unit about other nurses on the unit. The manager recognizes that the nurses are exhibiting what type of behavior that is detrimental to collaboration? a. Vertical violence b. Lateral violence c. Descending violence d. Personal violence

ANS: B Lateral violence undermines collaboration and occurs nurse-to-nurse. Vertical or descending violence implies one participant has a higher status than another. Personal violence falls in a legal category, and while it will hinder collaboration, it is not specific to coworkers.

The nursery nurse identifies a newborn at significant risk for hypothermic alteration in thermoregulation because the patient is a. large for gestational age. b. low birth weight. c. born at term. d. well nourished.

ANS: B Low birth weight and poorly nourished infants (particularly premature infants) and children are at greatest risk for hypothermia. A large for gestational age infant would not be malnourished. An infant born at term is not considered at significant risk. A well nourished infant is not at significant risk.

A nurse is interviewing at an agency owned by a national religious organization that serves homeless and uninsured patients. A large poster display shows a proposed addition that would add 16 beds to the facility that will be funded from profits of the previous 3 years of operation. The nurse recognizes that the agency is most likely what type of agency? a. For-profit b. Not-for-profit c. Publicly-owned d. Investor-owned

ANS: B Many religious organizations are privately owned and administer not-for-profit health facilities, where profits are returned into the facility for improvements or equipment. For-profit agencies distribute profits to shareholders. Publicly-owned facilities are government supported and not linked to religious organizations. Investor-owned agencies would be for-profit agencies with profits distributed to investors.

Jan is a 70-year-old retired nurse who is interested in nondrug, mind-body therapies, self-management, and alternative strategies to deal with joint discomfort from rheumatoid arthritis. What options should you consider in her plan of care considering her expressed wishes? a. Stationary exercise bicycle, free weights, and spinning class b. Mind-body therapies such as music therapy, distraction techniques, meditation, prayer, hypnosis, guided imagery, relaxation techniques, and pet therapy c. Chamomile tea and IcyHot gel d. Acupuncture and attending church services

ANS: B Mind-body therapies are designed to enhance the mind's capacity to affect bodily function and symptoms and include music therapy, distraction techniques, meditation, prayer, hypnosis, guided imagery, relaxation techniques, and pet therapy, among many others. Stationary exercise bicycle, free weights, and spinning are not mind-body therapies. They are classified as exercise therapies. Chamomile tea and IcyHot gel are not mid-body therapies per se. They are classified as herbal and topical thermal treatments. Acupuncture is an ancient Chinese complementary therapy, while attending church services is a religious prayer mind-body therapy capable of enhancing the mind's capacity to affect bodily function and symptoms.

The nurse is teaching a hospitalized patient to use mindfulness to reduce anxiety. Which statement by the nurse is appropriate? a. "How do you feel about what happened to you as a child? b. "How do you feel about what is going on right now?" c. "Remember a time when you were calm." d. "Tap your hands until the feeling goes away."

ANS: B Mindfulness trains the mind to think in the here and now, and emphasizes attentiveness to all sensations and feelings related to these experiences. Recalling and remembering being calm or previous experiences is not included in mindfulness training. Eye movement desensitization and reprocessing (EMDR) includes expression of feelings and memories while focusing on other stimuli such as sounds, hand taps, and/or eye movements.

A patient states that everything has been going great; however, the nurse observe the patient biting his nails and fidgeting. What assessment can the nurse make? The patient's communication type is a. linguistic. b. paralinguistic. c. explicit. d. inadequate.

ANS: B Mixed messages involve the transmission of conflicting or incongruent messages by the speaker. The patient's verbal message that all is well in the relationship is modified by the nonverbal behaviors denoting anxiety. Data are not present to support the choice of the verbal message being clear, explicit, or inadequate.

The nurse is assessing a patient's readiness to be discharged. What is the most appropriate question for the nurse to ask to determine the patient's learning needs before planning teaching activities? a. "What are your hobbies and occupation?" b. "What do you need to know before you go home from the hospital?" c. "Do you have any cultural or religious beliefs that you would like incorporated into your plan of care?" d. "What were your grades and learning style when you were in school?"

ANS: B Motivation and readiness to learn depend on what the patient values. The other questions are also important but do not address what information interests the patient most at present.

Understanding classifications of pain helps nurses develop a plan of care. A 62-year-old male has fallen while trimming tree branches sustaining tissue injury. He describes his condition as an aching, throbbing back. This is characteristic of a. neuropathic pain. b. nociceptive pain. c. chronic pain. d. mixed pain syndrome.

ANS: B Nociceptive pain refers to the normal functioning of physiological systems that leads to the perception of noxious stimuli (tissue injury) as being painful. Patients describe this type of pain as aching, cramping, or throbbing. Neuropathic pain is pathologic and results from abnormal processing of sensory input by the nervous system as a result of damage to the brain, spinal cord, or peripheral nerves. Patients describe this type of pain as burning, sharp, and shooting. Chronic pain is constant and unrelenting such as pain associated with cancer. Mixed pain syndrome is not easily recognized, is unique with multiple underlying and poorly understood mechanisms like fibromyalgia and low back pain.

A nurse working in a pediatric clinic recognizes that which child is most at risk for cognitive impairment? a. An infant who is being fed reconstituted powdered formula b. A toddler living in an older home that is being remodeled c. A preschooler who attends a play group 3 days a week d. A school-age child who rides a school bus 5 days a week

ANS: B Older homes frequently have lead-based paint; paint chips generated by remodeling put toddlers, who often put foreign objects in their mouths, at risk for exposure to lead which is a known toxic substance that can affect cognitive function. Powdered formulas, attendance at play groups, or riding on a school bus are not known to impair cognitive development.

A thorough assessment of sexual health includes laboratory and other diagnostic procedures. Tests are ordered at the provider's discretion based upon gender and lifestyle of the patient. A 37-year-old heterosexual African-American man has come for his annual health screening. Which test must the nurse ensure is ordered for this patient? a. Human papilloma virus (HPV) b. Prostate-specific antigen (PSA) c. HIV d. Venereal disease research laboratory (VDRL)

ANS: B PSA testing is recommended annually for men at increased risk for prostate cancer. This includes men with a family history or those of African-American descent. HPV testing would likely be ordered for patients with genital warts. This might not be necessary for this patient. Tests for HIV should be ordered for patients that belong to high-risk populations, including men who have sex with men, and all pregnant women. All sexually active men and women should have a VDRL and rapid plasma reagin performed.

Palliative care used in the management of a patient with symptomatic chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is an example of which of the following? a. Palliative care is used when the patient is beginning to die. b. Palliative care is used to help manage the symptoms that often accompany COPD. c. Hospice nurses must be involved to provide palliative care in a cancer patient. d. Patient must be enrolled into the Medicare Hospice Benefit to receive palliative care.

ANS: B Palliation is the relief or management of symptoms without providing a cure. To palliate is to reduce the severity of an actual or potential life-threatening condition or a chronic debilitating illness. Palliation is not equivalent to cure, but it is the reduction of undesirable effects resulting from the incurable disease or condition.

A patient suffered a brain injury from a motor vehicle accident and has no brain activity. The patient has a living will which states no heroic measures. The family requests that no additional heroic measures be instituted for their son. The nurse respects this decision in keeping with the principle of a. accountability. b. autonomy. c. nonmaleficence. d. veracity.

ANS: B Patients and families must be treated in a way that respects their autonomy and their ability to express their wishes and make informed choices about their treatment. Accountability is inherent in the nurse's ethical obligation to uphold the highest standards of practice and care, assume full personal and professional responsibility for every action, and commit to maintaining quality in the skill and knowledge base of the profession. Nonmaleficence is a principle that implies a duty not to inflict harm. In ethical terms, nonmaleficence means to abstain from injuring others and to help others further their own well-being by removing harm and eliminating threats. Veracity means telling the truth as a moral and ethical requirement.

The patient is brought to the emergency department after a motor vehicle accident. The patient is diagnosed with internal bleeding. The nurse's primary concern is to monitor for a. mental alertness. b. perfusion. c. pain. d. reaction to medications.

ANS: B Perfusion is the correct answer, because with internal bleeding, the nurse should monitor vital signs to be sure perfusion is happening. Mental alertness, pain, and medication reactions are important but not the primary concern.

The nurse assessed four patients at the beginning of the shift. Which finding should the nurse report most urgently to the physician? a. Swollen ankles in patient with compensated heart failure b. Positive Chvostek's sign in patient with acute pancreatitis c. Dry mucous membranes in patient taking a new diuretic d. Constipation in patient who has advanced breast cancer

ANS: B Positive Chvostek's sign indicates increased neuromuscular excitability, which can progress to dangerous laryngospasm or seizures and thus needs to be reported first. The other assessment findings are less urgent and need further assessment. Bilateral ankle edema is a sign of ECV excess, and follow-up is needed, but the situation is not immediately life-threatening. Dry mucous membranes in a patient taking a diuretic may be associated with ECV deficit; however, additional assessments of ECV deficit are required before reporting to the physician. Constipation has many causes, including hypercalcemia and opioid analgesics, and it needs action, but not as urgently as a positive Chvostek's sign.

The nurse would incorporate which of the following into the plan of care as a primary prevention strategy for reduction of the risk for cancer? a. Yearly mammography for women aged 40 years and older b. Using skin protection during sun exposure while at the beach c. Colonoscopy at age 50 and every 10 years as follow-up d. Yearly prostate specific antigen (PSA) and digital rectal exam for men aged 50 and over

ANS: B Primary prevention of cancer involves avoidance to known causes of cancer, such as sun exposure. Secondary screening involves physical and diagnostic examination.

A diabetic patient presents to the diabetes clinic with A1c levels of 7.5%. The nurse has met this patient for the first time. When applying principles of Theory of Planned Behavior (TPB), which teaching strategy by the nurse is most likely to be effective? a. Provide information on the importance of blood glucose control in maintenance of long-term health and evaluate how the patient has been following the prescribed regime. b. Establish a rapport with the patient by complimenting them on what they did correctly, and ask what strategies they have tried thus far. c. Refer the patient to a certified diabetic educator, because the educator is an expert on management of diabetes complications. d. Have the patient explain what medications they are on and what diet they should be following.

ANS: B Principles of a TPB indicate that the patient will need to establish a good rapport with the nurse in order to talk about nonadherence. If the patient finds it difficult to discuss their diabetes self-management and adherence with the nurse, the patient may not open up to the nurse. Although a referral to an educator is a good idea, it would be better to use this resource as a follow-up for this visit. Having the patient verbalize medications and diet is not part of the TPB method.

A nurse is caring for a patient in the emergency department who has been a victim of intimate partner violence. What is most important for the nurse to include in the plan of care? a. Medication to calm the perpetrator of the violence b. A list of community resources c. A referral for self-defense training d. A referral to the victim's religious advisor

ANS: B Providing education that will address immediate safety needs for the patient is a priority action for the nurse. The nurse is not creating a plan for the perpetrator, nor is it the responsibility of the victim to receive medication for another person. Self-defense training does not meet the immediate safety concern for the patient and may aggravate the perpetrator further. Accessing support from a religious advisor is good for ongoing support, but it does not address the immediate need for safety information.

A patient in the outpatient setting was diagnosed with atopic dermatitis. What interventions will the plan of care focus primarily on? a. Decreasing pain b. Decreasing pruritus c. Preventing infection d. Promoting drying of lesions

ANS: B Pruritus is the major manifestation of atopic dermatitis and causes the greatest morbidity. The urge to scratch may be mild and self-limiting, or it may be intense, leading to severely excoriated lesions, infection, and scarring.

A student nurse is talking with his instructor. The student asks how quality of care is evaluated. The best response by the instructor is "Quality of care is evaluated a. by the patient getting well." b. on the basis of process and outcomes." c. by the physician's assessment." d. by the patient's satisfaction."

ANS: B Quality of care is evaluated by process and outcomes. If the outcomes are achieved, then the care has achieved what is was designed to do. The patient getting well may be an action of the body doing what it is supposed to do and not quality of care; the same can be said of the physician's assessment. The patient's satisfaction is subjective according to his or her perceptions and not the quality of care.

The management of a community hospital is trying to encourage a more collaborative environment among staff members. Which concept is most important for management to develop first? a. Post educational posters about how well collaboration is being performed b. Highlight that no single profession can meet the needs of all patients c. Provide meetings for each department on how their role affects patients d. Begin implementing evaluations of collaborative skills on annual performance reviews

ANS: B Recognizing that collaboration needs all professions to provide patient-centered care is an important first step to implementing a different philosophy in the hospital. Posting an evaluation of performance before education will not encourage participation. Collaboration requires an understanding of more than your own discipline. It is unfair to evaluate staff on a requirement that they have not been introduced to.

Strategies to include in a community program for senior citizens related to dealing with cold winter temperatures would include a. avoiding hot beverages. b. shopping at an indoor mall. c. using a fan at low speed. d. walking slowly in the park.

ANS: B Shopping indoors where there is protection from the elements and temperature control is one strategy to avoid cold temperatures. Hot beverages can help an individual deal with cold weather. Avoiding breezes and air currents is recommended to conserve body temperature. Physical activity can increase body temperature, and if the senior is going to walk in the park, weather-appropriate (warm) clothing and a usual or brisk pace, not a slow pace, would be recommended.

Which level of government is responsible for the regulation of a nurse's license? a. Federal government b. State government c. Local government d. International coalition

ANS: B State boards of nursing oversee the regulation of nursing practice. These agencies are established by legislatures to implement and enforce laws through a rule-making process. Federal, local, and international coalitions are not correct, because they do not have control of the state boards of nursing.

An 80-year-old male patient is in the ICU status fractured femur and MVA. You are making rounds and notice he is somnolent, with no response to verbal or physical stimulation. He has been on round the clock opioids doses q 4 hours. The best immediate course of nursing action is to a. call a Code Blue. b. stop opioid; consider administering naloxone, call Rapid Response Team (Code Blue); stay with patient, stimulate, and support respiration as indicated by patient status. c. call the primary hospitalist in charge of patient. d. call the anesthesia provider on call.

ANS: B Stop opioid; consider administering naloxone; call Rapid Response Team (Code Blue); stay with patient, stimulate, and support respiration as indicated by patient status; notify primary or anesthesia provider; and monitor respiratory status and sedation level closely until sedation level is stable at less than 3 and respiratory status is satisfactory. Calling a Code Blue solely for a somnolent patient is not indicated as a solitary response. Calling the hospitalist assigned to the patient is an option only after the immediate treatment plan is enacted to reverse the opioid. Calling anesthesia is appropriate after stopping the opioid first.

After shunt procedure, the nurse would monitor the patient's neurologic status by using the a. electroencephalogram. b. GCS. c. National Institutes of Health Stroke Scale. d. Monro-Kellie doctrine.

ANS: B The GCS gives a standardized numeric score of the neurologic patient assessment. An electroencephalogram is used in diagnosing and localizing the area of seizure origin. This scale is an example of one type of specific tool for nurses to use when assessing a patient following stroke. The Monroe-Kellie doctrine is not an assessment or monitoring strategy; it describes the interrelationship of volume and compliance of the three cranial components, brain tissue, cerebral spinal fluid, and blood.

Which nursing observation would indicate that the nurse hold the medication warfarin (Coumadin)? a. An INR (international normalize ratio) of 1.8 b. An INR of 4.8 c. A partial thromboplastin time (APTT) level of 25 seconds d. An APTT level of 35 seconds

ANS: B The INR of 4.8 is too high. The dosage of warfarin is adjusted to maintain an INR between 2 and 3. A level of 4.8 indicates that the patient is at risk for excessive bleeding. An INR of 1.8 is below the therapeutic range and would indicate the need for warfarin. APPT is not used to monitor effectiveness of the dose for warfarin.

When a diabetic patient asks about maintaining adequate blood glucose levels, which of the following statements by the nurse relates most directly to the necessity of maintaining blood glucose levels no lower than about 74 mg/dl? a. "Glucose is the only type of fuel used by body cells to produce the energy needed for physiologic activity." b. "The central nervous system cannot store glucose and needs a continuous supply of glucose for fuel." c. "Without a minimum level of glucose circulating in the blood, erythrocytes cannot produce ATP." d. "The presence of glucose in the blood counteracts the formation of lactic acid and prevents acidosis."

ANS: B The brain cannot synthesize or store significant amounts of glucose; thus a continuous supply from the body's circulation is needed to meet the fuel demands of the central nervous system.

A female infertility patient is found to be hypoestrogenic at the preconceptual clinic visit. She asks the nurse why she has never been able to get pregnant. Which response is best? a. Circulating estrogen contributes to secondary sex characteristics. b. Estrogen deficiency prevents the ovum from reaching the uterus and may be a factor in infertility. c. Hyperestrogen may be preventing the zona pellucida from forming an ovum protective layer. d. The corona radiata is preventing fertilization of the ovum.

ANS: B The cilia in the tubes are stimulated by high estrogen levels, which propel the ovum toward the uterus. Without estrogen, the ovum won't reach the uterus. The results of a series of events occurring in the ovary cause an expulsion of the oocyte from the ovarian follicle known as ovulation. The ovarian cycle is driven by multiple important hormones: 1) gonadotropic hormone, 2) follicle stimulating hormone (FSH), and 3) luteinizing hormone (LH). The cilia in the tubes are stimulated by high 4) estrogen levels, which propel the ovum toward the uterus. The zona pellucida (inner layer) and corona radiata (outer layer) form protective layers around the ovum. If an ovum is not fertilized within 24 hours of ovulation by a sperm, it is usually reabsorbed into a woman's body. A patient who is hypoestrogenic would not have excess circulating estrogen. A patient with low estrogen would not be classified as hyperestrogenic. Without sufficient estrogen, there can be no fertilization of the ovum.

A client previously diagnosed as psychotic expresses to the nurse that he is seeing spiders climbing up the walls in his room and he is concerned that they will get into his bed. The nurse's best response to this behavior is to a. ignore his remarks. b. express doubt that there are spiders on the wall. c. ask the client if he also sees spiders in the day room. d. tell the client there are no spiders and he should stop worrying about it.

ANS: B The client is experiencing visual hallucinations. Appropriate care for this client would not include reinforcing his hallucinations, being dismissive of him, or ignoring him. Expressing reasonable doubt is the correct answer.

When considering the trajectory of a specific disease, what is the most important concept? a. Hospital admissions b. Physical functioning c. Quality of life d. Symptom management

ANS: B The disease trajectory occurs from the onset of a life-limited diagnosis until death. Physical functioning determines the decline in the patient's physical status. Decline in status is used to determine when to intervene with palliative and end-of-life care.

The focus for The Joint Commission (TJC) is _____ and _____ in the delivery of health care. a. cost containment; safety b. safety; quality c. quality; assessment d. assessment; evaluation

ANS: B The focus of TJC is quality and safety for patient care. TJC does not address cost containment, assessment of care, or evaluation of care.

The most appropriate measure for a nurse to use in assessing core body temperature when there are suspected problems with thermoregulation is a(n) a. oral thermometer. b. rectal thermometer. c. temporal thermometer scan. d. tympanic membrane sensor.

ANS: B The most reliable means available for assessing core temperature is a rectal temperature, which is considered the standard of practice. An oral temperature is a common measure but not the most reliable. A temporal thermometer scan has some limitations and is not the standard. The tympanic membrane sensor could be used as a second source for temperature assessment.

To be an effective nursing leader today requires effective collaboration, which is modeled by which answer below? a. The nursing manager of the observation unit was certain the psychology department would assist the unit with a motivational plan, so she did not request their assistance. b. The nursing manager of the observation unit worked with the psychology department and physical therapy to develop a motivational plan for patients on the unit. c. The nursing director of behavioral health services followed the administrative directive to reduce services and refused to provide services for patients on other units. d. Frustrated by the trend of patients unwilling to work with therapy, the unit manager recommended that these patients be placed on another unit.

ANS: B The nursing manager works collaboratively with other departments to solve the patient care issue. In the other choices, the unit manager does not involve collaboration to resolve the patient concern.

Which set of assessment data is consistent for a patient with severe infection that could lead to system failure? a. Blood pressure (BP) 92/52, pulse (P) 56 beats/min, respiratory rate (RR) 10 breaths/min, urine output 1200 mL in past 24 hours b. BP 90/48, P 112 beats/min, RR 26 breaths/min, urine output 240 mL in past 24 hours c. BP 112/64, P 98 beats/min, RR 18 breaths/min, urine output 2400 mL in past 24 hours d. BP 152/90, P 52 beats/min, RR 12 breaths/min, urine output 4800 mL in past 24 hours

ANS: B The patient with severe infection presents with low BP and compensating elevations in pulse to move lower volumes of blood more rapidly and respiration to increase access to oxygen. Urine output decreases to counteract the decreased circulating blood volume and hypotension. These vital signs are all too low: Blood pressure (BP) 92/52, pulse (P) 56 beats/min, respiratory rate (RR) 10 breaths/min, urine output 1200 mL in past 24 hours. The patient with severe infection does have a low BP, but the pulse and respiratory rate increase to compensate. This data is all within normal limits: BP 112/64, P 98 beats/min, RR 18 breaths/min, urine output 2400 mL in past 24 hours. This set of data reflects an elevated BP with a decrease in pulse and respiratory rates along with normal urine output: BP 152/90, P 52 beats/min, RR 12 breaths/min, urine output 4800 mL in past 24 hours. None of these is a typical response to severe infection.

The patient's perception of his or her care is not as important as the outcome of the care. a. True b. False

ANS: B The patient's perception of his or her care is just as important as the outcome of the care. If the patient perceives the care as meeting the aspects of quality, then patient satisfaction increases.

When assessing a 22-year-old male patient, the nurse learns that he smokes a pack of cigarettes daily. The patient tells the nurse, "I enjoy smoking and have no plans to quit." Which nursing diagnosis is most appropriate? a. Health Seeking Behaviors related to cigarette use b. Ineffective Health Maintenance related to tobacco use c. Readiness for Enhanced Self-Health Management related to smoking d. Deficient Knowledge related to long-term effects of cigarette smoking

ANS: B The patient's statement indicates that he is not considering smoking cessation. Ineffective Health Maintenance is defined as the inability to identify, manage, and/or seek out help to maintain health.

A diabetic patient who is hospitalized tells the nurse, "I don't understand why I can keep my blood sugar under control at home with diet alone, but when I get sick, my blood sugar goes up." Which response by the nurse is appropriate? a. "It is probably just coincidental that your blood sugar is high when you are ill." b. "Stressors such as illness cause the release of hormones that increase blood sugar." c. "Increased blood sugar occurs because the kidneys are not able to metabolize glucose as well during stressful times." d. "Your diet is different here in the hospital than at home, and that is the most likely cause of the increased glucose level."

ANS: B The release of cortisol, epinephrine, and norepinephrine increases blood glucose levels. The increase in blood sugar is not coincidental. The kidneys do not control blood glucose. A diabetic patient who is hospitalized will be on an appropriate diet to help control blood glucose.

Prior to drug administration the nurse reviews the seven rights, which include right patient, right medication, right time, right dose, right education, right documentation, and right a. room. b. route. c. physician. d. manufacturer.

ANS: B The right route (e.g., oral or intramuscular) is an essential component to verify prior to the administration of any drug. The patient does not need to be in a specific location. There may be a number of physicians caring for a patient who prescribe medications for any given patient. A similar drug may be made by a number of different companies, and checking the manufacturer is not considered one of the seven rights. However, the nurse will want to be aware of a difference, because different companies prepare the same medication in different ways with different inactive ingredients, which can affect patient response.

Which of the following components are included in health policy at the state level? a. Americans with Disabilities Act of 1990 b. Scope of nursing practice c. Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) of 1996 d. Patient Safety and Quality Improvement Act of 2005

ANS: B The scope of nursing practice is correct, because it is controlled at the state level by state boards of nursing. The Americans with Disabilities Act of 1990, the HIPAA of 1996, and the Patient Safety and Quality Improvement Act of 2005 are all regulated at the national level.

The nurse is caring for a patient who is being discharged home after a splenectomy. What information on immune function needs to be included in this patient's discharge planning? a. The mechanisms of the inflammatory response b. Basic infection control techniques c. The importance of wearing a face mask in public d. Limiting contact with the general population

ANS: B The spleen is one of the major organs of the immune system. Without the spleen, the patient is at higher risk for infection; so, the nurse must be sure that the patient understands basic principles of infection control. The patient with a splenectomy does not need to understand the mechanisms of inflammatory response. The patient with a splenectomy does not need to wear a face mask in public as long as the patient understands and maintains the basic principles of infection control. The patient who has had a splenectomy does not need to limit contact with the general population as long as the patient understands and maintains the basic principles of infection control.

A nurse is educating a 21-year-old lifeguard about the risk of skin cancer and the need to wear sunscreen. Which statement by the patient indicates that they need further teaching? a. "I wear a hat and sit under the umbrella when not in the water." b. "I don't bother with sunscreen on overcast days." c. "I use a sunscreen with the highest SPF number." d. "I wear a UV shirt and limit exposure to the sun by covering up."

ANS: B The sun's rays are as damaging to skin on cloudy, hazy days as on sunny days. The other options will all prevent skin cancer.

During the examination of the ear, a dark yellow substance is noted in the ear canal. The tympanic membrane is not visible. The patient's wife complains that he never hears what she says lately. These findings would suggest that the nurse prepare the patient for a. tympanoplasty. b. irrigation of the ear. c. pure tone test. d. otoscopic exam by a specialist.

ANS: B The symptoms are consistent with blockage of the ear canal with cerumen, which then needs to be removed by irrigation, so that further examination of the ear drum and hearing can be accomplished. A tympanoplasty is only warranted if there has been a perforation, which is unknown at the present.

A patient on a medical surgical unit has a platelet count of 90,000 per mm3. The nurse knows to include which of the following precautions in discharge instructions? a. Use a standard safety razor for shaving. b. Use a soft bristle toothbrush. c. Have aggressive dental care immediately to prevent dental caries. d. Do not eat fresh fruit.

ANS: B The use of a soft bristle toothbrush will help prevent bleeding of the gums in a patient with thrombocytopenia. The blade of a safety razor can nick or cut the skin and cause bleeding. Dental care can cause gum bleeding. The consumption of fresh fruit is not part of bleeding precautions.

The patient has severe hyperthyroidism and will have surgery tomorrow. What assessment is most important for the nurse to assess in order to detect development of the acid-base imbalance for which the patient has highest risk? a. Urine output and color b. Level of consciousness c. Heart rate and blood pressure d. Lung sounds in lung bases

ANS: B Thyroid hormone increases metabolic rate, causing a patient with severe hyperthyroidism to have high risk of metabolic acidosis from increased production of metabolic acids. Metabolic acidosis decreases level of consciousness. Changes in urine output, urine color, and lung sounds are not signs of metabolic acidosis. Although metabolic acidosis often causes tachycardia, many other factors influence heart rate and blood pressure, including thyroid hormone.

A male patient suffered a brain injury from a motor vehicle accident and has no brain activity. The spouse has come up to see the patient every day for the past 2 months. She asks the nurse, "Do you think when he moves his hands he is responding to my voice?" The nurse feels bad because she believes the movements are involuntary, and the prognosis is grim for this patient. She states, "He can hear you, and it appears he did respond to your voice." The nurse is violating which principle of ethics? a. Autonomy b. Veracity c. Utilitarianism d. Deontology

ANS: B Veracity is the principle of telling the truth in a given situation. Autonomy is the principle of respect for the individual person; this concept states that humans have incalculable worth or moral dignity. Utilitarianism is an approach that is rooted in the assumption that an action or practice is right if it leads to the greatest possible balance of good consequences or to the least possible balance of bad consequences. Giving the spouse false reassurance is not a good consequence. Deontologic theory claims that a decision is right only if it conforms to an overriding moral duty and wrong only if it violates that moral duty. Persons are to be treated as ends in themselves and never as means to the ends of others.

When teaching an Asian patient with newly diagnosed diabetes, the nurse notes the patient nodding yes to everything that is being said. With a better understanding of cultural interdependence in self-concept, a nurse should immediately a. write everything down for the patient to refer to later. b. prompt further to elicit additional questions or concerns. c. call the recognized elder for this patient. d. call the oldest male relative for help with decision making.

ANS: B When a nurse provides nutritional education to a patient who is from a culture that values greater power distance, it might appear that the patient is willing to accept all that the nurse suggests, when further prompting would elicit additional questions or concerns. The patient from a collectivist culture will usually consult family members for a best course of action. It is not acceptable for nurses to take it upon themselves to call the recognized elder or oldest male relative for help with decision making. While writing everything down may be OK for some cultures, with Asian patients it may be best to prompt further to elicit additional questions or concerns.

A patient who has been in the hospital for several weeks is about to be discharged. The patient is weak from the hospitalization and asks the nurse to explain why this is happening. The nurse's best response is "You are weak because a. your iron level is low. This is known as anemia." b. of your immobility in the hospital. This is known as deconditioning." c. of your poor appetite. This is known as malnutrition." d. of your medications. This is known as drug induced weakness."

ANS: B When a person is ill and immobile the body becomes weak. This is known as deconditioning. Anemia, malnutrition, and medications may have an adverse effect on the body, but this is not known as deconditioning.

An accountable care organization (ACO) seeks to deliver which of the following aspects of health care? (Select all that apply.) a. Lessen Medicare payments b. Integrate care c. Enhance evidence-based practices d. Manage acute conditions e. Support hospice charges

ANS: B, C ACOs work to integrate care, manage chronic conditions, and enhance the use of evidence-based practices. They do not have any involvement with Medicare payments, the management of acute conditions, or hospice care.

The home health nurse has an acute immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) patient who has chronic diarrhea. Which assessments should the nurse use to detect the fluid and electrolyte imbalances for which the patient has high risk? (Select all that apply.) a. Bilateral ankle edema b. Weaker leg muscles than usual c. Postural blood pressure and heart rate d. Positive Trousseau's sign e. Flat neck veins when upright f. Decreased patellar reflexes

ANS: B, C, D Chronic diarrhea has high risk of causing ECV deficit, hypokalemia, hypocalcemia, and hypomagnesemia because it increases fecal excretion of sodium-containing fluid, potassium, calcium, and magnesium. Appropriate assessments include postural blood pressure and heart rate for ECV deficit; weaker leg muscles than usual for hypokalemia; and positive Trousseau's sign for hypocalcemia and hypomagnesemia. Bilateral ankle edema is a sign of ECV excess, which is not likely with chronic diarrhea. Flat neck veins when upright is a normal finding. Decreased patellar reflexes is associated with hypermagnesemia, which is not likely with chronic diarrhea.

Which statements said by patients indicate that the nurse's teaching regarding prevention of acid-base imbalances is successful? (Select all that apply.) a. "Baking soda is an effective inexpensive antacid." b. "I shall take my insulin on time every day." c. "My aspirin is on a high shelf away from children." d. "I have reliable transportation to dialysis sessions." e. "Fasting is a great way to lose weight rapidly."

ANS: B, C, D Taking insulin as prescribed helps prevent diabetic ketoacidosis. Safeguarding aspirin from children prevents metabolic acidosis from increased acid intake. Regular dialysis reduces the risk of metabolic acidosis from decreased renal excretion of metabolic acid. Baking soda is sodium bicarbonate and should not be used as an antacid due to the risk of metabolic alkalosis. Fasting without carbohydrate intake is a risk factor for starvation ketoacidosis.

Strategies that a nurse could use in a motivational interview to increase the chances of change include which of the following? (Select all that apply.) a. Educating the patient on the physical damage the substance is causing b. Encouraging the patient to think of ways to change environmental triggers to abuse substances c. Asking the patient how they think substance abuse affects their family life d. Explaining to the patient that substance abuse affects everyone in the family and give examples e. Asking the patient what methods they think would work and encouraging participating in self-help groups

ANS: B, C, E Empowering the patient by helping them see what effect the abuse has on their life is a key component of motivation. Educating the patient is too much like lecturing and may cause resistance. Explaining how the family responds to the problem may elicit guilt and resistance.

A student nurse is discussing Medicare coverage with the clinical instructor. The instructor knows the student understands Medicare when the student makes this which statement(s)? (Select all that apply.) a. Medicare covers all patients while they are in the hospital. b. Medicare is funded by the federal government. c. Medicare is for persons 65 years old and older. d. Medicare is partially funded by private third-party payers. e. Medicare is for patients who are disabled and/or have end-stage renal disease.

ANS: B, C, E Medicare is funded by the federal government. It covers people who are 65 years old and older, disabled people, and patients who have end-stage renal disease. It does not cover all patients in the hospital, because some patients do not qualify for Medicare. It is not funded by third-party payers.

Which activities are appropriate for the nurse to collaborate with a patient? (Select all that apply.) a. Prescribing a new medication dose b. Health promotion activities c. End-of-life comfort decisions d. Interpreting laboratory results e. Lifestyle changes to improve health

ANS: B, C, E Nurses should include patients and their families when exploring health promotion activities, end-of-life decisions, lifestyle changes, and treatment options. Prescribed medication doses are initiated by educated professionals, although the patient gives feedback on the effectiveness of medications. Patients are not trained to interpret lab results, but patients rely on health professionals to explain results to them.

Many grandparents today are caring for grandchildren in place of a parent. Identify the reasons why this phenomenon is happening. (Select all that apply.) a. Children prefer living with their grandparents. b. Parents are incarcerated. c. Parents are deceased. d. Grandparents are better caregivers. e. Parents are mentally ill. f. Parents are substance abusers.

ANS: B, C, E, F Grandparents are usually caring for children because the parents are deceased, in prison, substance abusers, or mentally ill and cannot care for the children. The fact that children prefer to live with the grandparents or the grandparents may be better caregivers is not a main reason for this phenomenon to happen.

The nurse is caring for a patient with a diagnosed case of Clostridium difficile. The nurse expects to implement which of the following interventions? (Select all that apply.) a. Administration of protease inhibitors b. Use of personal protective equipment c. Patient teaching on methods to inhibit transmission d. Preventing visitors from entering the room e. Administration of intravenous fluids f. Strict monitoring of intake and output

ANS: B, C, E, F Protease inhibitors are used for treatment of viral infections, not bacterial infections. The nurse wants to protect visitors from exposure to the bacteria and protect the patient from secondary infection while immunocompromised, but the patient will need the support of family and close friends. Contact isolation precautions must be strictly followed along with the use of personal protective equipment and teaching on methods to inhibit transmission to help break the chain of infection. Intravenous fluids and strict intake and output monitoring will be important for the patient suffering the effects of Clostridium difficile, because it causes diarrhea with fluid loss.

Which statements are true about the Iowa model of EBP? (Select all that apply.) a. It addresses utilization of research findings at an individual level. b. It prioritizes pressing items of interest related to quality of care. c. Individual nurses enact an Iowa decision tree when they examine risk management data. d. It identifies triggers capable of posing hazard or benefit. e. It reiterates that innovators embrace change far earlier than laggards.

ANS: B, D The Iowa model of EBP provides direction for the development of EBP in a clinical agency. This EBP model was initially developed in 1994 and revised in 2001. In a health care agency, there are triggers that initiate the need for change, and the focus should always be to make changes based on best evidence. These triggers can be problem focused and evolve from risk management data, process improvement data, benchmarking data, financial data, and clinical problems. The triggers can also be knowledge focused, such as new research findings, change in a national agency's or an organization's standards and guidelines, expanded philosophy of care, or questions from an institutional standards committee.

Care coordination models should be adopted in health care facilities. If models are not put into practice, the shortcomings of the health care system may display which of the following items? (Select all that apply.) a. Decrease in patients b. Fragmented services c. Low birth weight newborns d. Cost inefficiencies e. Poor health outcomes f. Increased pharmacy costs

ANS: B, D, E Fragmented services, cost inefficiencies, and poor health outcomes may be some of the shortcomings seen in health care without the proper model in place to guide the health care delivery system.

The patient is hyperventilating from anxiety and abdominal pain. Which assessment findings should the nurse attribute to respiratory alkalosis? (Select all that apply.) a. Skin pale and cold b. Tingling of fingertips c. Heart rate of 102 d. Numbness around mouth e. Cramping in feet

ANS: B, D, E Hyperventilation is a risk factor for respiratory alkalosis. Respiratory alkalosis can cause perioral and digital paresthesias and pedal spasms. Pallor, cold skin, and tachycardia are characteristic of activation of the sympathetic nervous system, not respiratory alkalosis.

A 65-year-old female patient has been admitted to the medical/surgical unit. The nurse is assessing the patient's risk for falls so that falls prevention can be implemented if necessary. Select all the risk factors that apply from this patient's history and physical. (Select all that apply.) a. Being a woman b. Taking more than six medications c. Having hypertension d. Having cataracts e. Muscle strength 3/5 bilaterally f. Incontinence

ANS: B, D, E, F Adverse effects of medications can contribute to falls. Cataracts impair vision, which is a risk factor for falls. Poor muscle strength is a risk factor for falls. Incontinence of urine or stool increases risk for falls. Men have a higher risk for falls. Hypertension itself does not contribute to falls. Dizziness does contribute to falls.

The parents of a newborn question the nurse about the need for vaccinations: "Why does our baby need all those shots? He's so small, and they have to cause him pain." The nurse can explain to the parents that which of the following are true about vaccinations? (Select all that apply.) a. Are only required for infants b. Are part of primary prevention for system disorders c. Prevent the child from getting childhood diseases d. Help protect individuals and communities e. Are risk free f. Are recommended by the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC)

ANS: B, D, F Immunizations are considered part of primary prevention, help protect individuals from contracting specific diseases and from spreading them to the community at large, and are recommended by the CDC. Immunizations are recommended for people at various ages from infants to older adults. Vaccination does not guarantee that the recipient won't get the disease, but it decreases the potential to contract the illness. No medication is risk free.

An 80-year-old patient has a hearing deficit which he states is getting worse; his hearing aid needs to be replaced. He states he attends church but cannot understand the sermon anymore. He hates to go out to events because his hearing aid makes everything "noisy." He notes "nothing is the same." During the assessment he asks the nurse to repeat the question frequently. Nursing diagnoses would include which of the following? (Select all that apply.) a. Altered growth and development b. Social isolation c. Chronic confusion d. Activity intolerance e. Hopelessness f. Spiritual distress

ANS: B, E, F His lack of hearing has interfered with his social activities, including his church. There is no support for inability to be active physically, nor does he show signs of confusion. Because the loss is recent, growth and development were not affected.

The nurse is assessing a patient for the adequacy of ventilation. What assessment findings would indicate the patient has good ventilation? (Select all that apply.) a. Respiratory rate is 24 breaths/min. b. Oxygen saturation level is 98%. c. The right side of the thorax expands slightly more than the left. d. Trachea is just to the left of the sternal notch. e. Nail beds are pink with good capillary refill. f. There is presence of quiet, effortless breath sounds at lung base bilaterally.

ANS: B, E, F Oxygen saturation level should be between 95 and 100%; nail beds should be pink with capillary refill of about 3 seconds; and breath sounds should be present at base of both lungs. Normal respiratory rate is between 12 and 20 breaths/min. The trachea should be in midline with the sternal notch. The thorax should expand equally on both sides.

Barriers to patient education the nurse considers in implementing a teaching plan include a. family resources. b. high school education. c. hunger and pain. d. need perceived by patient.

ANS: C A patient who is hungry or in pain has limited ability to concentrate or learn. Family resources would be considered in developing a plan of care and could be an asset or a barrier to patient education. The patient's educational level would be considered in planning teaching strategies but would not be a barrier to education. A need perceived by a patient would provide motivation for learning and would not be a barrier.

The most appropriate resources to include when planning to provide patient education related to a goal in the psychomotor domain would be a. diagnosis-related support groups. b. Internet resources. c. manikin practice sessions. d. self-directed learning modules.

ANS: C A teaching goal in the psychomotor domain should be matched with teaching strategies in the psychomotor domain, such as demonstration, practice sessions with a manikin, and return demonstrations. Diagnosis-related support groups would be most effective with goals in the affective domain. Internet resources would be most effective for goals in the cognitive domain. Self-directed learning modules would be most effective for goals in the cognitive domain.

What percentage of hip fractures are the result of falls? a. 50% b. 80% c. 90% d. 100%

ANS: C About 90% of falls end with a hip fracture

The nurse is counseling women at a crisis shelter about risk factors for increased intimate partner violence. What event is most likely to trigger an increase in abusive behaviors? a. Moving to a new community b. Starting a new job c. Becoming pregnant d. The death of a grandfather

ANS: C Abuse is not likely to decrease, and can often increase when a woman becomes pregnant. Moving, starting a new job, and a death in the family are all stressors, but they are not identified as factors that specifically increase violence more than pregnancy.

The nurse is assessing a patient before hanging an IV solution of 0.9% NaCl with KCl in it. Which assessment finding should cause the nurse to hold the IV solution and contact the physician? a. Weight gain of 2 pounds since last week b. Dry mucous membranes and skin tenting c. Urine output 8 mL/hr d. Blood pressure 98/58

ANS: C Administering IV potassium to a patient who has oliguria is not safe, because potassium intake faster than potassium output can cause hyperkalemia with dangerous cardiac dysrhythmias. Dry mucous membranes, skin tenting, and blood pressure 98/58 are consistent with the need for IV 0.9% NaCl. Weight gain of 2 pounds in a week does not necessarily indicate fluid overload, because it can be from increased nutritional intake. Only an overnight weight gain indicates a fluid gain.

The school nurse is assessing coping skills of high school students who attend an alternative school for students at high risk to not graduate. What is the priority concern that the nurse has for this student population? a. Altered vital sign readings b. Inaccurate perceptions of stressors c. Increased risk for suicide d. Decreased access to alcoholic beverages

ANS: C Adolescents with poor coping have increased risk for drug and alcohol use, risky sexual behaviors, and suicide. Pulse, respiratory rate, and blood pressure may change during stress, but patient safety is the priority concern. Adolescents may have inaccurate perceptions of stressors, and this actually increases the risk for unsafe behaviors. Adolescents under stress are more at risk for increasing their access to alcohol and illegal drugs.

When reviewing the purposes of a family assessment, the nurse educator would identify a need for further teaching if the student responded that family assessment is used to gain an understanding of the family a. development. b. function. c. political views. d. structure.

ANS: C An understanding of the political views of family members is not a primary purpose of a family assessment. A family assessment provides the nurse with information and an understanding of family dynamics. This is important to nurses for the provision of quality health care. A family assessment provides an understanding of family development, function, and structure.

The nurse is reviewing new medication orders for several patients in a long-term care facility. Which patient does the nurse recognize as being at the highest risk for having cognitive impairment related to prescribed medications? a. The patient prescribed an antibiotic for a urinary tract infection b. The patient prescribed a cholinesterase inhibitor for early Alzheimer's disease c. The patient prescribed a beta-blocker for hypertension d. The patient prescribed a bisphosphonate for osteoporosis

ANS: C Anti-hypertensives such as the beta-blockers can cause adverse changes in cognition. While an infection can affect cognition, antibiotics do not generally cause cognitive changes. The cholinesterase inhibitors are prescribed to slow the progression in cognitive decline for patients diagnosed with Alzheimer's disease. Bisphosphonates are used for osteoporosis and are not generally a risk for altered cognition.

The nurse is triaging a hysterical patient in the ER. The patient is crying, with uncontrollable spasms, trembling, and shouting. It is important to identify manifestation of illness in order to effectively treat a patient. The nurse identifies this as a culture-bound syndrome called a. shenjing sharo. b. loco de la cabeza. c. ataque de nervios. d. neuroasthenia.

ANS: C Ataque de nervios is a Latin-Caribbean culture-bound syndrome that usually occurs in response to a specific stressor and is characterized by dissociation or trance-like states, crying, uncontrollable spasms, trembling, or shouting. Shenjeng sharo refers to "weakness of nerves" in Chinese culture; it is caused by a decrease in vital energy that reduces the function of the internal organ systems and lowers resistance to disease. Loco de la cabeza is a Spanish phrase meaning crazy in the mind and not necessarily manifested by physical symptoms. Neuroasthenia is an Asian term characterized by extreme fatigue after mental effort and bodily weakness of persistent duration.

When teaching a patient with a family history of hypertension about health promotion, the nurse describes blood pressure screening as _____ prevention. a. illness b. primary c. secondary d. tertiary

ANS: C Blood pressure screening is considered secondary prevention. It is a measure designed to identify individuals in an early state of a disease process so that prompt treatment can be started. Illness prevention is considered primary prevention. Primary prevention measures are those strategies aimed at optimizing health and disease prevention in general and not linked to a single disease entity. Tertiary prevention measures are those that minimize the effects of disease and disability.

The nurse is working on a plan of care with her patient which includes turning and positioning and adequate nutrition to help the patient maintain intact skin integrity. The nurse helps the patient to realize that this breaks the chain of infection by eliminating a a. host. b. mode of transmission. c. portal of entry. d. reservoir.

ANS: C Broken or impaired skin creates a portal of entry for pathogens. By maintaining intact tissue, the patient and the nurse have broken the chain of infection by eliminating a portal of entry. Host is incorrect because you are not eliminating the person or organism. Intact tissue does not eliminate the mode of transmission. Skin can still be used to transfer pathogens regardless of it being intact or broken. Intact skin does not eliminate the location for pathogens to live and grow.

A patient is talking with the nurse about hip fractures. The patient would like to know the best approach to strengthen the bones. The nurse's best response is which of the following? a. "Walk at least 5 miles every day for exercise." b. "Wear proper fitting shoes to prevent tripping." c. "Talk with your physician about a calcium supplement." d. "Stand up slowly so you don't feel faint."

ANS: C Calcium strengthens the bones. A calcium supplement will help strengthen bones as they may be affected by aging, illness, or trauma. Walking several miles will help strengthen the bones but a calcium supplement is a good addition. Wearing proper shoes and standing slowly to prevent dizziness is important but they will not prevent fractures.

Critical Thinking: The nurse is seeking clarification of a statement that was made by a patient. What is the best way for the nurse to seek clarification? a. "What are the common elements here?" b. "Tell me again about your experiences." c. "Am I correct in understanding that..." d. "Tell me everything from the beginning."

ANS: C Clarification ensures that both the nurse and patient share mutual understanding of the communication. The distracters encourage comparison rather than clarification and present implied questions that suggest the nurse was not listening.

The emphasis on understanding cultural influence on health care is important because of a. disability entitlements. b. HIPAA requirements. c. increasing global diversity. d. litigious society.

ANS: C Culture is an essential aspect of health care because of increasing diversity. Disability entitlements refer to defined benefits for eligible mental or physically disabled beneficiaries in relation to housing, employment, and health care. HIPAA requirements refers to the HIPAA Privacy Rule, which protects the privacy of individually identifiable health information; the HIPAA Security Rule, which sets national standards for the security of electronic protected health information; and the confidentiality provisions of the Patient Safety Rule, which protect identifiable information being used to analyze patient safety events and improve patient safety. Litigious society refers to excessively ready to go to law or initiate a lawsuit.

The nurse is sitting with the family of a patient who has just received the diagnosis of dementia. The family asks for information on what treatment will be needed to cure the condition. How does the nurse respond? a. "Hormone therapy will reverse the condition." b. "Vitamin C and zinc will reverse the condition." c. "There is no treatment that reverses dementia." d. "Dementia can be reversed with diet, exercise, and medications."

ANS: C Currently there is no proven treatment that has been shown to reverse dementia, although some treatments can slow the progression of the illness. Hormone therapy, vitamin therapy, diet, and exercise are all important for overall health but do not reverse the progression of dementia.

Symptoms of sexual dysfunction and altered body image often coexist with prolapse of the female reproductive organs. Nursing care requires a great deal of sensitivity, because many women are embarrassed by their condition. Your patient is a 44-year-old married woman who is complaining of painful intercourse and incontinence. Clinical evaluation reveals that the patient has a cystocele. Which treatment option is most appropriate for this patient? a. Pelvic floor training b. Vaginal pessaries c. Surgical correction d. Lifestyle changes

ANS: C Depending on the cause, a cystocele can be readily corrected by surgery. Pelvic muscle floor training (Kegel exercises) will most definitely help with symptoms of urinary incontinence. This alone is not adequate treatment for this patient. Vaginal pessaries are an excellent treatment modality for uterine prolapse. Lifestyle changes such as weight loss, avoiding constipation, and reducing high-impact exercise, such as running, will all help the patient with pelvic organ prolapse. Although these modalities will provide relief, they will not correct the cystocele without surgical intervention.

Mr. K, an 80-year-old patient, is being discharged after he was diagnosed with diabetes mellitus and retinopathy. His daughter has been part of the discharge instruction process. Understanding of the instructions is evident in when the daughter says which of the following? a. "I will make sure that Dad always wears warm socks." b. "Dad needs to wear his glasses so he can delay the onset of macular degeneration." c. "I will ask the home health aide to carefully inspect Dad's feet every day when she helps him bathe." d. "We will give him only warm foods, so that he doesn't burn his mouth."

ANS: C Diabetes increases risk of peripheral neuropathy, and it is hard to inspect one's own feet. Though socks that fit well are important, warmth is not the main issue. Glasses do not affect the onset of eye disorders, including macular degeneration. The sensory deficit regarding perception of heat and cold is usually associated with the distal extremities.

Critical Thinking: During a physical examination, the nurse notes that the patient's skin is dry and flaking, with patches of eczema. Which nutritional deficiency might be present? a. Vitamin C b. Vitamin B c. Essential fatty acid d. Protein

ANS: C Dry and scaly skin is a manifestation of essential fatty acid deficiency. Vitamin C deficiency causes bleeding gums, arthralgia, and petechiae. Vitamin B deficiency is too large a category to consider. Specific categories of vitamin B deficiency have been identified, such as pyridoxine and thiamine. Protein deficiency causes decreased pigmentation and lackluster hair.

The nurse reviews the patient's complete blood count (CBC) results and notes that the neutrophil levels are elevated, but monocytes are still within normal limits. This indicates _____ inflammatory response. a. chronic b. resolved c. early stage acute d. late stage acute

ANS: C Elevated neutrophils and monocytes within normal limits are findings indicative of early inflammatory response. Neutrophils increase in just a few hours, while it takes the body days to increase the monocyte levels. Chronic inflammation results in varying elevations in WBCs dependent on multiple issues. Elevated neutrophils are not indicative of resolved inflammation. Elevations in monocytes occur later in the inflammatory response.

A nurse is instructing her patient with ulcerative colitis regarding the need to avoid enteric coated medications. The nurse knows that the patient understands the reason for this teaching when he states which of the following? a. "The coating on these medications is irritating to my intestines." b. "I need a more immediate response from my medications than can be obtained from enteric coated medications." c. "Enteric coated medications are absorbed lower in the digestive tract and can be irritating to my intestines or inadequately absorbed by my inflamed tissue." d. "I don't need to use these medications because they cause diarrhea, and I have had enough trouble with diarrhea and rectal bleeding over the past weeks."

ANS: C Enteric coatings on medications are designed to prevent breakdown and absorption of the medication until lower in the digestive tract, usually to prevent stomach irritation or to reach a certain point in the digestive tract for optimal absorption. For the patient with ulcerative colitis, the intestinal lining is inflamed or susceptible to inflammation and can have impaired absorption; therefore, enteric coated medications should be avoided. The coating is not irritating, but the medication can be. The response time of the medication is not a concern in this instance. Enteric coated medicines do not cause diarrhea simply because they are enteric coated.

The annual report for a hospital shows that external environment factors are affecting the amount of new staff hired. What is a likely factor contributing to this outcome? a. The recent implementation of becoming a not-for-profit institution b. The implementation of a hospital electronic medical record system c. A national recession that has been occurring for 3 years d. The closure of a hospital-based school of nursing due to lack of funding

ANS: C External environmental factors that affect organizations are conditions or events that occur outside the control of the agency, such as new health laws, governmental regulations, or economic trends. Internal environmental factors occur within the organizational structure and include such factors as technology issues, changes in personnel roles, or the implementation of new policies.

After a management decision to admit terminal care patients to a medical unit, the nursing manager notes that nursing staff on the unit appear tired and anxious. Staff absences from work are increasing. The nurse manager is concerned that staff may be experiencing stress and burnout at work. What action would be best for the manager to take that will help the staff? a. Ask administration to require staff to meditate daily for at least 30 minutes. b. Have a staff psychologist available on the unit once a week for required counseling. c. Have training sessions to help the staff understand their new responsibilities. d. Ask support staff from other disciplines to complete some nursing tasks to provide help.

ANS: C Feeling unprepared for work responsibilities contributes to stress and poor coping in the workplace. Administration cannot require that staff participate in meditation or counseling sessions, although these can be recommended and encouraged. Asking other disciplines to assume nursing tasks is not appropriate for their scope of practice.

To plan early intervention and care for a child with a developmental delay, the nurse would consider knowledge of the concepts most significantly impacted by development, including a. culture. b. environment. c. functional status. d. nutrition.

ANS: C Function is one of the concepts most significantly impacted by development. Others include sensory-perceptual, cognition, mobility, reproduction, and sexuality. Knowledge of these concepts can help the nurse anticipate areas that need to be addressed. Culture is a concept that is considered to significantly affect development; the difference is the concepts that affect development are those that represent major influencing factors (causes), hence determination of development and would be the focus of preventive interventions. Environment is considered to significantly affect development. Nutrition is considered to significantly affect development.

A patient was diagnosed with hypertension. The patient asks the nurse how this disease could have happened to them. The nurse's best response is "Hypertension a. happens to everyone sooner or later. Don't be concerned about it." b. can happen from eating a poor diet, so change what you are eating." c. can happen from arterial changes that impede the blood flow." d. happens when people do not exercise, so you should walk every day."

ANS: C Hardening of the arteries from atherosclerosis can cause hypertension in the patient. Hypertension does not happen to everyone. Changing the patient's diet and exercising may be a positive life change, but these answers do not explain to the patient how the disease could have happened.

The nurse is developing a care plan for a patient who has low motivation and nonadherence with blood glucose monitoring. Which statement by the patient would indicate to the nurse that the patient is not motivated and will most likely not comply? a. "I do not like to test my sugar, but I do it because my wife nags me." b. "I forget to check my sugar once in a while." c. "I don't see or feel any different when I do keep my blood sugars under control." d. "I have no idea what the signs of low blood sugar are."

ANS: C If patients do not perceive any benefit from changing their behavior, sustaining the change becomes very difficult. Having someone remind the patient is more likely to reinforce compliance. Forgetting to check glucose occasionally may indicate the patient needs memory cues or joggers. The patient who doesn't know the signs of low glucose will need further teaching.

While caring for a patient preparing for a kidney transplant, the nurse knows that the patient understands teaching on immunosuppression when she states which of the following? a. "My body will treat the new kidney like my original kidney." b. "I will have to make sure that I avoid being around people." c. "The medications that I take will help prevent my body from attacking my new kidney." d. "My body will only have a problem with my new kidney if the donor is not directly related to me."

ANS: C Immunosuppressant therapy is initiated to inhibit optimal immune response. This is necessary in the case of transplantation, because the normal immune response would cause the body to recognize the new tissue as foreign and attack it. The body will identify the new kidney as foreign and will not treat it as the original kidney. While patients with transplants must be careful about exposure to others, especially those who are or might be ill, and practice adequate and consistent infection control techniques, they don't have to avoid people or social interaction. The new kidney brings foreign cells regardless of relationship between donor and recipient.

Women who are given the job of caretaker for aging relatives are subject to caregiver strain due to a. feminine attributes. b. unequal gender. c. fixed gender roles. d. female inequality.

ANS: C In cultures with more fixed gender roles, women are usually given the role of caretaker for aging relatives and may suffer the stresses of caregiver strain. Feminine attributes refers to harmonious relationships, modesty, and taking care of others. Unequal gender refers to roles of males and females being unevenly distributed. Female inequality refers to female gender and roles being less than or unequal to male roles.

A patient with hypertension is prescribed a low-sodium diet. The patient's teaching plan includes this goal: "The patient will select a 2-gram sodium diet from the hospital menu for the next 3 days." Which intervention would be most effective at increasing the patient's compliance with the diet? a. Check the sodium content of the patient's menu choices over the next 3 days. b. Ask the patient to identify which foods on the hospital menus are high in sodium. c. Have the patient list favorite foods that are high in sodium and foods that could be substituted for these favorites. d. Compare the patient's sodium intake over the next 3 days with the sodium intake before the teaching was implemented.

ANS: C Including a patient's favorite foods will most likely increase compliance because the patient is not being deprived. Checking the sodium will be useful for teaching strategies but will not be the most effective means of increasing adherence.

An older adult who is cognitively impaired is admitted to the hospital with pneumonia. Which signs and symptoms would the nurse expect to be exhibited by the patient? a. Severe headache b. Flank pain c. Increased confusion d. Decreased blood glucose

ANS: C Increased confusion is a symptom that occurs in cognitively impaired patients who experience an infection. Severe headache occurs with migraines, meningitis, and other conditions. Flank pain occurs with pyelonephritis. Blood glucose typically increases with an infection.

The nurse caring for a patient would identify a need for additional interventions related to family dynamics when a. extended family offers to help. b. family members express concern. c. the ill member demands attention. d. memories are shared.

ANS: C It is not uncommon for the ill family member to become demanding and indicate that they deserve special treatment and care, and the supportive family may need assistance in understanding the dynamics of the illness in order to continue to be supportive. Offers from extended family to help can be indicative of positive dynamics. Concern expressed by family members can be indicative of positive dynamics. Sharing of family memories can be indicative of positive dynamics.

Jane and Janet have an established long-term relationship and are attending parenting classes in anticipation of finalizing adoption of baby Joan. Jane and Janet would be considered which type of family? a. Cohabiting b. Nuclear c. Same-sex d. Single parent

ANS: C Jane and Janet would be considered a same-sex family. Cohabiting refers to a couple who live together with no legal bond. Nuclear refers to the traditional male and female core family with one or more children. Single parent refers to a family with one adult and one or more children.

A diabetic patient is brought into the emergency department unresponsive. The arterial pH is 7.28. Besides the blood pH, which clinical manifestation is seen in uncontrolled diabetes mellitus and ketoacidosis? a. Oral temperature of 38.9° Celsius b. Severe orthostatic hypotension c. Increased rate and depth of respiration d. Extremity tremors followed by seizure activity

ANS: C Ketoacidosis decreases the pH of the blood, stimulating the respiratory control area of the brain to buffer the effects of the increasing acidosis. The rate and depth of respirations are increased (Kussmaul's respirations) to excrete more acids by exhalation.

The nursing unit director exhibits the definition of leadership in which of the following responses? a. The nurse manager refers the concern to the director of the department. b. The nurse manager corrects the concern with the patient directly and does not communicate her actions to the staff. c. The nurse manager meets with the staff to discuss the concern and identify solutions. d. The nurse manager tells the staff that they need to correct the situation by tomorrow and leaves the meeting.

ANS: C Leadership is defined as an interactive process that provides needed guidance and direction which is present in the correct answer. The other choices do not involve an interactive process with staff to resolve the concern.

The nurse is trying to help an obese diabetic patient who has 30 pounds to lose. The nurse is setting weight loss goals that the patient will attain. Which goals would most likely cause an increase in motivation in this patient? a. Follow American Diabetic Diet, lose 2 pounds a week, and 20 pounds in 2 months. b. Follow American Diabetic Diet, lose .5 pounds a week, and 5 pounds in 2 months. c. Follow American Diabetic Diet, lose 1 pound a week, and 10 pounds in 2 months. d. Follow American Diabetic Diet, lose 3 pounds a week, and 30 pounds in 2 months.

ANS: C Losing 1 pound a week is a moderately hard goal which should motivate the patient. Two pounds is too hard and may cause the patient to become discouraged. Half a pound is too easy and may not be perceived as a challenge. Three pounds is too hard, and the patient may become discouraged.

A patient has been resistant to treatment with antidepressant therapy. The care provider prescribes phenelzine (Nardil), a monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI) medication. What teaching is critical for the nurse to give the patient? a. Serum blood levels must be regularly monitored to assess for toxicity. b. To prevent side effects, the medication should be administered as an intramuscular injection. c. Eating foods such as blue cheese or red wine will cause side effects. d. This medication class may only be used safely for a few days at a time.

ANS: C MAOIs have serious food interactions when ingested with tyramine-containing foods such as aged or processed foods. Serum levels are routinely monitored when mood stabilizers such as lithium carbonate are prescribed. It is not necessary to administer this class intramuscularly. This medication takes several weeks to show effectiveness and should not be stopped abruptly; short-term use will not be effective.

Medical models coordinate medical services and were traditionally designed to be a. patient specific. b. nursing oriented. c. diagnosis specific. d. community oriented.

ANS: C Medical models focus on the patient's diagnosis. The medical model is not patient specific, nursing oriented, or community oriented.

The nurse is preparing to administer medications to a patient with rheumatoid arthritis (RA). The nurse explains to the patient that the goal of medication treatments for RA is to a. eradicate the disease. b. enhance immune response. c. control inflammation. d. manage pain.

ANS: C Medications for RA are intended to control the inflammation that results from the body's hyperimmune response. Autoimmune diseases like RA are chronic and currently have no curative treatments. Autoimmune diseases like RA are caused by hyperimmune response. The immune system needs to be suppressed, not enhanced. While the medications used for RA might help with pain management, the goal of medication intervention is to manage the inflammation.

The process of digestion is important for every living organism for the purpose of nourishment. Where does most digestion take place in the body? a. Large intestine b. Stomach c. Small intestine d. Pancreas

ANS: C Most digestion takes place in the small intestine. The main function of the large intestine is water absorption. The pancreas contains digestive enzymes; the stomach secrets hydrochloric acid to assist with food breakdown.

Two nurses are discussing health care quality. They agree on the statement that health care quality requires a. magnet status hospitals. b. fewer adverse events. c. collaboration of multiple health care agencies. d. increased patient education.

ANS: C Multiple health care agencies are able to collaborate and provide better outcomes for health care personnel and patients. Magnet status hospitals may be good, but the status does not always mean a quality outcome. Fewer adverse events and increased patient education are good, but they may be the result of other variables and not just quality of care rendered.

An elderly Chinese woman is interested in biologically based therapies to relieve osteoarthritis pain (OA). You are preparing a plan of care for her OA. Options most conducive to her expressed wishes may include a. Pilates, breathing exercises, and aloe vera. b. guided imagery, relaxation breathing, and meditation. c. herbs, vitamins, and tai chi. d. alternating ice and heat to relieve pain and inflammation.

ANS: C Nonpharmacologic strategies encompass a wide variety of nondrug treatments that may contribute to comfort and pain relief. These include the body-based (physical) modalities, such as massage, acupuncture, and application of heat and cold, and the mind-body methods, such as guided imagery, relaxation breathing, and meditation. There are also biologically based therapies which involve the use of herbs and vitamins, and energy therapies such as reiki and tai chi. Pilates, breathing exercises, aloe vera, guided imagery, relaxation breathing, meditation, and alternating ice and heat are multimodal therapies for pain management. They are not exclusively biologically based, which involves the use of herbs and vitamins.

A patient who had been complaining of intolerable stress at work has demonstrated the ability to use progressive muscle relaxation and deep breathing techniques. He will return to the clinic for follow-up evaluation in 2 weeks. Which data will best suggest that the patient is successfully using these techniques to cope more effectively with stress? a. The patient's wife reports that he spends more time sitting quietly at home. b. He reports that his appetite, mood, and energy levels are all good. c. His systolic blood pressure has gone from the 140s to the 120s (mm Hg). d. He reports that he feels better and that things are not bothering him as much.

ANS: C Objective measures tend to be the most reliable means of gauging progress. In this case, the patient's elevated blood pressure, an indication of the body's physiologic response to stress, has diminished. The wife's observations regarding his activity level are subjective, and his sitting quietly could reflect his having given up rather than improved. Appetite, mood, and energy levels are also subjective reports that do not necessarily reflect physiologic changes from stress and may not reflect improved coping with stress. The patient's report that he feels better and is not bothered as much by his circumstances could also reflect resignation rather than improvement.

The US health care system is different from that of other countries in which way? a. The US charges money from the private sector only. b. US health care is funded from private organizations. c. The US health care system is not entirely government funded. d. The US health care treats the older person first.

ANS: C Other countries fund the health care system so that every citizen may have health care. In addition they provide the option that citizens may purchase private health care too. The US has a combination of private companies and government agencies funding health care, so money is not coming from just the private sector. The older person in the population receives care according to the insurance coverage they have, but the care is not before anyone else.

While reviewing the complete blood count (CBC) of a patient on her unit, the nurse notes elevated basophil and eosinophil readings. The nurse realizes that this is most indicative of a _____ infection. a. bacterial b. fungal c. parasitic d. viral

ANS: C Parasitic infections are frequently indicated on a CBC by elevated basophil and eosinophil levels. Bacterial infections do not lead to elevated basophil and eosinophil levels but elevated B and T lymphocytes, neutrophils, and monocytes. Fungal infections do not lead to elevated basophil and eosinophil levels. Viral infections create elevations in B and T lymphocytes, neutrophils, and monocytes.

A nurse is teaching a group of businesspeople about disease transmission. He knows that he needs to reeducate when one of the participants states which of the following? a. "When traveling outside of the country, I need to be sure that I receive appropriate vaccinations." b. "Food and water supplies in foreign countries can contain microorganisms to which my body is not accustomed and has no resistance." c. "If I don't feel sick, then I don't have to worry about transmitted diseases." d. "I need to be sure to have good hygiene practices when traveling in crowded planes and trains."

ANS: C People can transmit pathogens even if they don't currently feel ill. Some carriers never experience the full symptoms of a pathogen. Travelers may need different vaccinations when traveling to countries outside their own because of variations in prevalent microorganisms. Food and water supplies in foreign countries can contain microorganisms that will affect a body unaccustomed to their presence. Adequate hygiene is essential when in crowded, public spaces like planes and other forms of public transportation.

During orientation to an emergency department, the nurse educator would be concerned if the new nurse listed which of the following as a risk factor for impaired thermoregulation? a. Impaired cognition b. Occupational exposure c. Physical agility d. Temperature extremes

ANS: C Physical agility is not a risk factor for impaired thermoregulation. The nurse educator would use this information to plan additional teaching to include medical conditions and gait disturbance as risk factors for hypothermia, because their bodies have a reduced ability to generate heat. Impaired cognition is a risk factor. Recreational or occupational exposure is a risk factor. Temperature extremes are risk factors for impaired thermoregulation.

The nurse is developing a care plan for a patient with ineffective coping skills. Which intervention would be an example of a problem-focused coping strategy? a. Scheduling a regular exercise program b. Attending a seminar on treatment options c. Identifying a confidant to share feelings d. Attending a support group for families

ANS: C Problem-focused strategies are used to find solutions or improvement to the underlying stressor, such as accessing community resources or attending educational seminars. Exercise, emotional support, and support groups are emotion-based strategies that create a feeling of well-being.

The scope of professional nursing practice is determined by the rules promulgated by which organization? a. American Nurses' Association (ANA) b. Institute of Medicine (IOM) c. State's Board of Nursing d. State's Nursing Association

ANS: C Professional nursing practice is regulated by each state's Board of Nursing. The ANA is the professional organization of registered nursing in the United States and may influence, but it does not regulate. The IOM collaborated with the Robert Wood Johnson Foundation to improve the fractured health care system in the United States, and it makes recommendations, not rules. The state nursing associations are state organizations of the ANA and may collaborate with the public and boards of nursing to promote nursing rules which improve health care.

A patient is to receive phototherapy for the treatment of psoriasis. What is the nursing priority for this patient? a. Obtaining a complete blood count (CBC) b. Protection from excessive heat c. Protection from excessive UV exposure d. Instructing the patient to take their multivitamin prior to treatment

ANS: C Protection from excessive UV exposure is important to prevent tissue damage. Protection from heat is not the most important priority for this patient. There is no need for vitamins or a CBC for patients with psoriasis.

A student nurse and clinical instructor are discussing quality in health care. The instructor knows the student understands when the student says, "Quality is a. apparent in all health care." b. an outcome of health care." c. seen and unseen in health care." d. achieved by collaboration in health care."

ANS: C Quality in health care is tangible and intangible. Quality in health care is not apparent in all health care, as many areas of health care are lacking. Quality of care does not always affect the outcome of care; the patient may recover no matter what care is given. Quality is not always achieved by collaboration.

A 17-year-old girl is hospitalized for appendicitis, and her mother asks the nurse why she is so needy and acting like a child. The best response of the nurse is that in the hospital, adolescents a. have separation anxiety. b. rebel against rules. c. regress because of stress. d. want to know everything.

ANS: C Regression to an earlier stage of development is a common response to stress. Separation anxiety is most common in infants and toddlers. Rebellion against hospital rules is usually not an issue if the adolescent understands the rules and would not create childlike behaviors. An adolescent may want to "know everything" with their logical thinking and deductive reasoning, but that would not explain why they would act like a child.

Many females experience problems achieving and maintaining a pregnancy. The ER nursing assessment of a child-bearing-age female shows back pain, elevated blood pressure, and leaking of clear fluid from the vagina. Maternal-fetal complications described above are most often associated with which child-bearing stage? a. Preconception b. First trimester c. Second-third trimester d. Postpartum

ANS: C Second and third trimester complications include anencephalus, chromosomal anomalies, gestational diabetes, group B strep, cystitis, pyelonephritis, cholecystitis, hypertension, preeclampsia, oligohydramnios, polyhydramnios, and premature rupture of membranes, etc. Leaking of clear fluid from the vagina with back pain and elevated BP is associated with premature rupture of membranes, a second trimester complication of pregnancy. Preconception is prior to becoming pregnant; postpartum is after delivery of the infant; and first trimester is not associated with premature rupture of the membranes usually.

A patient has been prescribed a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) antidepressant. After taking the new medication, the patient states, "This medication isn't working. I don't feel any different." What is the best response by the nurse? a. "I will call your care provider. Perhaps you need a different medication." b. "Don't worry. You can try taking it at a different time of day to help it work better." c. "It usually takes a few weeks for you to notice improvement from this medication." d. "Your life is much better now. You will feel better soon."

ANS: C Seeing a response to antidepressants takes 3 to 6 weeks. No change in medications is indicated at this point of treatment because there is no report of adverse effects from the medication. If nausea is present, taking the medication with food may help, but this is not reported by the patient, so a change in administration time is not needed. Telling a depressed patient that their life is better does not acknowledge their feelings.

A female patient comes to the clinic after missing one menstrual period. She lives in a house beneath electrical power lines which is located near an oil field. She drinks two caffeinated beverages a day, is a daily beer drinker, and has not stopped eating sweets. She takes a multivitamin and exercises daily. She denies drug use. Which finding in the history has the greatest implication for this patient's plan of care? a. Electrical power lines are a potential hazard to the woman and her fetus. b. Living near an oil field may mean the water supply is polluted. c. Alcohol exposure should be avoided during pregnancy due to teratogenicity. d. Eating sweets may cause gestational diabetes or miscarriage.

ANS: C Stages of development include ovum, embryonic, and fetal. The beginning of the fourth week to the end of the eighth week comprise the embryonic period. Teratogenicity is a major concern because all external and internal structures are developing in the embryonic period. A pregnant woman should avoid exposure to all potential toxins during pregnancy, especially alcohol, tobacco, radiation, and infections during embryonic development. Living in a house beneath power lines is not the greatest implication in this patient's plan of care as there are no definite risks to the developing fetus. Living near an oil field has no definite risks to the fetus. Eating sweets may contribute to maternal obesity, large for gestational age fetus, and maternal gestational diabetes but does not have the immediate implication of a daily beer drinker which can cause fetal alcohol syndrome.

A quality improvement committee is reviewing discharge surveys. Results show that patients and their families have difficulty finding departments and areas of the hospital. What action by the committee would best address this concern for the organization? a. Continue to review future surveys to monitor the situation. b. Give additional training to the receptionists and switchboard personnel to give better directions. c. Form a multidisciplinary committee to identify options to help travel through the hospital. d. Send a work order to the maintenance department requesting that brighter lights be installed.

ANS: C Successful organizations respect the input of all disciplines when searching for solutions for problems. Continuing to gather data delays solving a problem. There is no indication that verbal directions will solve the problem; additional measures may be required. Merely providing additional light may not solve the problem—multi-language signs or even remodeling may be identified by the committee as being needed.

The patient who had a hip replacement yesterday has a visual acuity of 20/200 after correction. To provide recreational activities during the rehabilitation phase, the nurse should a. place the television to the left or right of patient's visual field. b. encourage the patient to learn braille. c. suggest use of talking books. d. provide headphones for listening to music.

ANS: C Talking books would provide a quick, short-term means of entertainment. Braille might be recommended as a long-term solution to visual deficits. The placement of the television is not helpful with low acuity, unless the patient has macular degeneration. Headphones may be nice, but the patient has a visual deficit and no indication that hearing is a problem.

The home care nurse is trying to determine the necessary services for a 65-year-old patient who was admitted to the home care service status after left knee replacement. Which tool(s) will assist with this determination? a. Minimum Data Set (MDS) b. Functional Status Scale (FSS) c. 24-Hour Functional Ability Questionnaire (24hFAQ) d. The Edmonton Functional Assessment Tool

ANS: C The 24hFAQ assesses the postoperative patient in the home setting. The MDS is for nursing home patients. The FSS is for children. The Edmonton is for cancer patients.

A older patient has developed age spots and is concerned about skin cancer. How would the nurse instruct the patient to check himself or herself? a. "Limit the time you spend in the sun." b. "Monitor for signs of infection." c. "Monitor spots for color change." d. "Use skin creams to prevent drying."

ANS: C The ABCD method (check for asymmetry, border irregularity, color variation, and diameter) should be used to assess lesions for signs associated with cancer. Color change could be a sign of cancer and needs to be looked at by a dermatologist. Limiting time spent in the sun is a preventative measure but will not assist the patient in checking the skin or detecting skin cancer. Infection is usually not found in skin cancer. Skin creams have not been shown to prevent cancer nor would they assist in detecting skin cancer.

The most appropriate response of the nurse when a mother asks what the Denver II does is that it a. can diagnose developmental disabilities. b. identifies a need for physical therapy. c. is a developmental screening tool. d. provides a framework for health teaching.

ANS: C The Denver II is the most commonly used measure of developmental status used by health care professionals; it is a screening tool. Screening tools do not provide a diagnosis. Diagnosis requires a thorough neurodevelopment history and physical examination. Developmental delay, which is suggested by screening, is a symptom, not a diagnosis. The need for any therapy would be identified with a comprehensive evaluation, not a screening tool. Some providers use the Denver II as a framework for teaching about expected development, but this is not the primary purpose of the tool.

Essential elements of a standard order set to verify a medication order include a. volume only. b. number of tablets. c. metric dose/strength. d. hour of administration.

ANS: C The ISMP recommendations for standardized medication order sets include such elements as the drug name (generic followed by brand when appropriate), metric dose/strength, frequency and duration, route, and indication. Although a prescription may include volume or number of tablets, the essential component is dose or strength, because the volume or number of tablets may vary by manufacturer. The exact hour of administration can be based on factors such as the frequency, agency protocols, and patient preferences.

A nurse is explaining to a student nurse about perfusion. The nurse knows the student understands the concept of perfusion when the student states, "Perfusion a. is a normal function of the body, and I don't have to be concerned about it." b. is monitored by the physician, and I just follow orders." c. is monitored by vital signs and capillary refill." d. varies as a person ages, so I would expect changes in the body."

ANS: C The best method to monitor perfusion is to monitor vital signs and capillary refill. This allows the nurse to know if perfusion is adequate to maintain vital organs. The nurse does have to be concerned about perfusion. Perfusion is not only monitored by the physician but the nurse too. Perfusion does not always change as the person ages.

A patient who is dehydrated has been experiencing confusion. The daughter is concerned about taking the patient home in a confused state. What statement by the nurse is correct? a. "Don't worry; the patient should be fine once they are in a familiar environment." b. "I can make a referral for a home health aide to assist with the patient." c. "Once the dehydration is corrected, the patient's confusion should improve." d. "I can show you how to care for the patient once you return home."

ANS: C The confusion caused by an underlying medical condition is a temporary condition that can be corrected once the underlying condition is treated, in this case once the patient is rehydrated. It is not necessary to teach home care or make a referral to home health because it is not expected that the patient will be confused at discharge. Telling the daughter that there is nothing to worry about diminishes her concern and may decrease her trust in the nurse.

The economics of health care include a. Medicare and Medicaid dollars. b. patients' rights. c. equal distribution of health care. d. nurse salaries.

ANS: C The economics of health care include the equal distribution of health care services so everyone may be served when services are needed. Medicare and Medicaid, patients' rights, and nurse salaries do not factor into the economics of health care; they are only parts of the health care system.

Which branch of government is responsible for the execution of laws passed by legislatures? a. Legislative b. Judicial c. Executive d. Local

ANS: C The executive branch of federal and state governments is responsible for execution of laws passed. The legislative branch is responsible for passing laws. The judicial branch of government determines if rights are being upheld. Local governments are not considered a branch of the government.

The nurse preparing a teaching plan for a preschooler knows that, according to Piaget, the expected stage of development for a preschooler is a. concrete operational. b. formal operational. c. preoperational. d. sensorimotor.

ANS: C The expected stage of development for a preschooler (3 to 4 years old) is preoperational. Concrete operational describes the thinking of a school-age child (7 to 11 years old). Formal operational describes the thinking of an individual after about 11 years of age. Sensorimotor describes the earliest pattern of thinking from birth to 2 years old.

The nurse is counseling a woman who is caring for her 83-year-old father. The father has had mental changes and is becoming more confused. The father lives with the daughter in her home. The nurse knows the daughter understands the father's care needs when she states which of the following? a. "Dad will only need my help for a short time, and then he will get better." b. "I can leave dad alone during the day; I'll just deadbolt the door." c. "I can send dad to the adult daycare; that way I can work and care for him at night." d. "Dad misses mom since she passed; he will be okay in a few weeks."

ANS: C The father will be cared for at the adult daycare, and it is a nice alternative for the daughter. She will be able to work and know that her father is safe during the day. The daughter thinking the father will be okay in a few days is not realistic, nor can she deadbolt the door and lock him in the house.

The nurse is assigned a group of patients. Which patient would the nurse identify as being at increased risk for impaired gas exchange? A patient a. with a blood glucose of 350 mg/dL b. who has been on anticoagulants for 10 days c. with a hemoglobin of 8.5 g/dL d. with a heart rate of 100 beats/min and blood pressure of 100/60

ANS: C The hemoglobin is low (anemia), therefore the ability of the blood to carry oxygen is decreased. High blood glucose and/or anticoagulants do not alter the oxygen carrying capacity of the blood. A heart rate of 100 beats/min and blood pressure of 100/60 are not indicative of oxygen carrying capacity of the blood.

Interrelated concepts to professional nursing a nurse manager would consider when addressing concerns about the quality of health promotion include a. culture. b. development. c. evidence. d. nutrition.

ANS: C The interrelated concepts to professional nursing include evidence, health care economics, health policy, and patient education. Culture is a patient attribute concept. Development is a patient attribute concept. Nutrition is a health and illness concept.

The nurse is caring for a patient who is experiencing alcohol withdrawal. What is the main priority for this patient? a. Describe how the alcohol is causing the withdrawal effects. b. Leave the patient by him/herself so as not to cause agitation. c. Promote a safe, calm, and comfortable environment. d. Refer the patient to an alcohol-abuse counselor.

ANS: C The main priority is the patient's safety due to risk of harm from seizures, DTs, and anxiety. The nurse could provide referrals or discuss the relationship of alcohol to physical problems after the withdrawal period is over. Do not leave the patient alone, as many patients will need reassurance that they will survive the ordeal of withdrawal.

A young wife is talking with the nurse about her husband who is returning from the military. The wife confides that her husband is physically okay but is behaving differently. The nurse's best response is which of the following? a. "He is just trying to adjust to civilian life again; he'll be okay." b. "You should observe him closely, because he could attack you." c. "Many times people need care for emotional trauma." d. "Talk with your physician to get medication, and then put it in his food."

ANS: C The nurse is alerting the young wife to the fact that people who have experienced emotional trauma need care too. The nurse does not know how the husband is adjusting so the other options are incorrect.

A patient has not been sleeping well because he is worried about losing his job and not being able to support his family. The nurse takes the patient's vital signs and notes a pulse rate of 112 beats/min, respirations are 26 breaths/min, and his blood pressure is 166/88 instead his usual 110-120/76-84 range. Which nursing intervention or recommendation should be used first? a. Go to sleep 30 to 60 minutes earlier each night to increase rest. b. Relax by spending more time playing with his pet dog. c. Slow and deepen breathing via use of a positive, repeated word. d. Consider that a new job might be better than his present one.

ANS: C The patient is responding to stress with increased arousal of the sympathetic nervous system, as evident in his elevated vital signs. These will have a negative effect on his health and increase his perception of being anxious and stressed. Stimulating the parasympathetic nervous system (i.e., Benson's relaxation response) will counter the sympathetic nervous system's arousal, normalizing these vital-sign changes and reducing the physiologic demands stress is placing on his body. Other options do not address his physiologic response pattern as directly or immediately.

The nurse is assessing a patient using the CAGE Questionnaire. The patient answers yes to all of the questions. The nurse suspects alcoholism and feels the patient is in denial when the patient states which of the following? a. "I go to meetings once a day and still drink." b. "My family and friends have been avoiding me lately." c. "I don't have a problem with alcohol. I can quit anytime I want to." d. "I know it will be hard to quit, but I am willing to try."

ANS: C The patient may need help admitting that there is a problem. The CAGE is designed to objectively assist in assessing problems related to alcohol use. A patient who states they are going to meetings is admitting they have a problem even if they still drink. Admitting that quitting is difficult is acceptance that there is a problem. Reality is setting in for a patient who can see that family and friends are avoiding them.

A patient was given a patch test to determine what allergen was responsible for their atopic dermatitis. The provider prescribes a steroid cream. What important instructions should the nurse give to the patient? a. Apply the cream generously to affected areas. b. Apply a thin coat to affected areas. c. Apply a thin coat to affected areas; avoid the face and groin. d. Apply an antihistamine along with applying a thin coat of steroid to affected areas.

ANS: C The patient should avoid the face and groin area as these areas are sensitive and may become irritated or excoriated. An antihistamine cream would also excoriate the area if the pruritus is cause by an allergen. There may be a need to administer oral steroid if the rash is generalized.

The nurse assesses the outcomes of a motivational interview on a patient with a dual diagnosis of alcoholism with DTs and determines that the communication was nontherapeutic. What should the nurse's next priority be? a. Encourage the patient to think of ways to change environmental triggers to abuse substances. b. Ask the patient what methods they think would work and encourage participating in self-help groups. c. Notify provider to obtain order for oxazepam (Serax) and vitamin B infusion. d. Notify provider to obtain order for CT scan and psychologic consult.

ANS: C The patient will need to be treated for the psychosis prior to conducting the motivational interview, because the patient can become violent and nonreceptive to the interventions. Oxazepam and vitamin B are the two therapies that work for DTs.

The application of information processing that deals with the storage, retrieval sharing, and use of health care data, information, and knowledge for communication and decision making is the definition of a. computer science. b. health informatics. c. health information technology. d. nursing informatics.

ANS: C This is the definition of health information technology. Computer science is a branch of engineering that studies computation and computer technology, hardware, software, and the theoretical foundations of information and computation techniques. Health informatics is a discipline in which health data are stored, analyzed, and disseminated through the application of information and communication technology. Nursing informatics is a specialty that integrates nursing science, computer science, and information science to manage and communicate data, information, knowledge, and wisdom in nursing practice.

The nurse working at a women's health clinic is seeing a teenage female patient who has come in for a refill on her birth control medication and with a complaint of abdominal pain. When the nurse enters the room, the patient is sitting in the chair with her head down, rocking back and forth, does not make eye contact, and answers questions with no expression on her face. What assessment question would be important for the nurse to ask the patient? a. "What brings you to the clinic today?" b. "What can we do to help you today?" c. "Do you feel safe in your current relationship?" d. "Have you changed your diet lately?"

ANS: C This patient is exhibiting signs of being abused. It is important to ask about the safety of the patient. General questions about her visit do not give an opportunity for the patient to discuss her safety needs. While a diet change can cause stomach problems, this assessment would be addressed once safety is addressed.

Nursing demonstrates dedication to improving public health through a. changing health care standards. b. legal regulations. c. scope of practice. d. technology.

ANS: C Through the scope of practice, specialized knowledge, and code of ethics, the discipline of nursing has demonstrated its dedication to improving public health. The changing health care environment is one of the challenges to nursing, not an indicator of dedication. Legal regulations are generally promulgated by legislators rather than nurses to protect the public. A highly technological environment is considered a challenge to nursing rather than an indicator of dedication.

The nurse is caring for a patient with a progressive, degenerative muscle illness. The patient states that she would like to remain in her home with her daughter as long as possible. What action should the nurse take? a. Teach the patient muscle strengthening and stretching exercises. b. Tell the patient to make plans to move to an assisted-living facility. c. Discuss resources to help the patient and make appropriate referrals. d. Ask the patient to come in for daily physical therapy.

ANS: C To honor the patient's request to stay at home the nurse should make appropriate referrals for needed evaluation and assistance. Most nurses will not have the expertise to teach appropriate exercises for degenerative illness. Asking the patient to move to an assisted-living facility does not account for the patient's request. The patient has not been assessed for the need of daily therapy, and it is not likely that a patient with a degenerative illness will be able to make daily appointments for treatment as the illness progresses.

The hospital must reduce the number of readmissions from 11% to 8% in the next year. Which of the following best represents the transformational leadership style in accomplishing this goal? a. The director communicates the goal of reducing readmissions to the hospital operations team and tells them to submit their action plan by the end of the week. b. The organization charters three work teams to identify solutions for the top three causes for readmissions. These teams are given full authority to implement their solution. c. The director of quality develops a vision statement and action plan to achieve the goal. The director works directly with the involved departments to implement the action plan. d. The CEO communicates the goal to the organizational directors and managers and states that they are entrusted to solve the problem.

ANS: C Transformational leaders communicate a vision and motivate employees to accomplish the goal. The director who communicates the goal of reducing readmissions to the hospital operations team and tells them to submit their action plan by the end of the week leaves the solution to achieve the goal to the followers to develop without motivating them. The solution that is left to the work teams to resolve is not an example of transformational leadership. The CEO entrusts the managers and directors to solve the problem without giving them a vision or engaging in the solution with them.

The patient has type B chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) exacerbated by an acute upper respiratory infection. Which blood gas values should the nurse expect to see? a. pH high, PaCO2 high, HCO3- high b. pH low, PaCO2 low, HCO3- low c. pH low, PaCO2 high, HCO3- high d. pH low, PaCO2 high, HCO3- normal

ANS: C Type B COPD is a chronic disease that causes impaired excretion of carbonic acid, thus causing respiratory acidosis, with PaCO2 high and pH low. This chronic disease exists long enough for some renal compensation to occur, manifested by high HCO3-. Answers that include low or normal bicarbonate are not correct, because the renal compensation for respiratory acidosis involves excretion of more hydrogen ions than usual, with retention of bicarbonate in the blood. High pH occurs with alkalosis, not acidosis.

The nurse associates which assessment finding in the diabetic patient with decreasing renal function? a. Ketone bodies in the urine during acidosis b. Glucose in the urine during hyperglycemia c. Protein in the urine during a random urinalysis d. White blood cells in the urine during a random urinalysis

ANS: C Urine should not contain protein. Proteinuria in a diabetic heralds the beginning of renal insufficiency or diabetic nephropathy with subsequent progression to end stage renal disease. Chronic elevated blood glucose levels can cause renal hypertension and excess kidney perfusion with leakage from the renal vasculature. This leaking allows protein to be filtered into the urine.

The patient with which diagnosis should have the highest priority for teaching regarding foods that are high in magnesium? a. Severe hemorrhage b. Diabetes insipidus c. Oliguric renal disease d. Adrenal insufficiency

ANS: C When renal excretion is decreased, magnesium intake must be decreased also, to prevent hypermagnesemia. The other conditions are not likely to require adjustment of magnesium intake.

The nurse admitting a patient to the emergency department on a very hot summer day would suspect hyperthermia when the patient demonstrates a. decreased respirations. b. low pulse rate. c. red, sweaty skin. d. slow capillary refill.

ANS: C With hyperthermia, vasodilatation occurs causing the skin to appear flushed and warm or hot to touch. There is an increased respiration rate with hyperthermia. The heart rate increases with hyperthermia. With hypothermia there is slow capillary refill.

Sexual dysfunction is a negative consequence of human sexuality manifested by any disturbance to the psycho-physiologic changes that occur during the sexual response cycle. Which statements related to sexual dysfunction are correct? (Select all that apply.) a. Biological factors play a more significant role than psychologic factors. b. Sexual dysfunction is more prevalent among men than women. c. The best predictor of sexual health is emotional well-being. d. The patient with sexual dysfunction is at risk for anxiety and depression. e. Sexual dysfunction remains uncommon.

ANS: C, D The best predictor of sexual health is emotional well-being rather than the impairment of the physical aspects of sexual arousal and function. Nurses must remain cognizant that sexual dysfunction, regardless of the cause, is likely to result in a number of negative consequences including anxiety, stress, and depression. Although sexual arousal may be diminished by biological factors such as illness and hormone levels, psychologic factors such as anxiety, mood disorders, or stress play a more significant role in sexual health. Sexual dysfunction is more common in women, with 40 to 45% of women reporting symptoms as opposed to 20 to 30% of men. It appears that sexual dysfunction is very common among the general population, with rates varying from 20 to 50%.

A hospital organization is applying for Magnet© status to show excellence in nursing practice. What components would indicate that the hospital is meeting Magnet© principles? (Select all that apply.) a. The education budget for nursing has been cut to provide for new laboratory equipment. b. On average, 40% of new nurses are leaving within 1 year of hire. c. Nurses are active participants on all major hospital committees. d. Quality improvement projects are planned and evaluated by nurses. e. Patient care outcome data are reported in the annual executive board meeting.

ANS: C, D To gain Magnet© status, an organization must show that nurses are active participants in the organization administrative structure, fully involved in quality improvement projects, and are recognized as a valuable resource.

A nurse is developing a plan of care for a patient admitted with a diagnosis of bipolar disorder, manic phase. Which nursing diagnoses address priority needs for the patient? (Select all that apply.) a. Risk for caregiver strain b. Impaired verbal communication c. Risk for injury d. Imbalanced nutrition, less than body requirements e. Ineffective coping f. Sleep deprivation

ANS: C, D, F Risk for injury, poor nutrition, and impaired sleep are priority needs of the patient experiencing mania related to their impulsivity, inability to attend to activities of daily living such as diet and hygiene, and disruption of sleep. Caregiver strain is important to be addressed but is not a priority need on admission for the patient. Verbal communication improves when the mania is managed, and racing thoughts return to normal patterns. Ineffective coping will require stabilization of the acute phase along with cognitive therapy over time.

Florence Nightingale, the first nurse informatician, sought hospital data for comparison purposes to a. allow faster and accurate diagnosis. b. better coordinate care. c. improve the efficiency of care. d. show people how their money was spent.

ANS: D "They would show the subscribers how their money was being spent, what amount of good was really being done with it, or whether the money was not doing mischief rather than good" (Florence Nightingale, 1863). Although health information and informatics could fulfill the other purposes, none of these were the focus of Florence Nightingale's published purposes of her requests for hospital information.

During an interview, the nurse is discussing dietary habits with a patient. Which tool would be the best choice to use as a quick screening tool to assess dietary intake? a. Food diary b. Calorie count c. Comprehensive diet history d. 24-hour recall

ANS: D A 24-hour recall is useful as a quick screening tool to assess dietary intake. A food diary provides detailed information, but it is not convenient and requires a follow-up visit. A calorie count requires several days to collect data and requires a trained dietician to analyze the results. A comprehensive diet history may provide more accurate reflection of nutrient intake, but it is time consuming to acquire and requires a trained/skilled dietary interviewer.

The nurse is assessing intrinsic motivational levels of a patient who just had knee replacement surgery. Which behaviors would indicate that the patient is intrinsically motivated? a. Agrees to take blood thinners as prescribed because that is what the doctor prescribed b. Verbalizes an understanding of taking blood thinners postop to reduce risk of clotting c. Knows that exercise and physical therapy (PT) will help speed recovery d. Enjoys exercise and PT, asks for pamphlets to learn about rehab techniques

ANS: D A patient who enjoys exercise is intrinsically motivated. Taking medication as prescribed and verbalizing an understanding are extrinsic motivators. Exercising to promote healing is an example of extrinsic motivation.

A patient states that his/her legs have pain with walking that decreases with rest. The nurse observes absence of hair on the patient's lower leg and the patient has a thready posterior tibial pulse. How would the nurse position the patient's legs? a. Elevated b. Crossed at the knee c. Slightly bent with a pillow under the knees d. Dependent position

ANS: D A patient with arterial insufficiency is taught to position their legs in a dependent position to use gravity to help perfuse the tissues. Crossing legs at the knee may interfere with blood flow. Slightly bent legs do not enhance blood flow.

A sentinel event refers to an event that a. could have harmed a patient, but serious harm didn't occur because of chance. b. harms a patient as a result of underlying disease or condition. c. harms a patient by omission or commission, not an underlying disease or condition. d. signals the need for immediate investigation and response.

ANS: D A sentinel event is an unexpected occurrence involving death or serious physical or psychologic injury or the risk thereof called sentinel, because they signal the need for immediate investigation and response. A near-miss refers to an error or commission or omission that could have harmed the patient, but serious harm did not occur as a result of chance. Harm that relates to an underlying disease or condition provides the rationale for the close monitoring and supervision provided in a health care setting. An adverse event is one that results in unintended harm because of the commission or omission of an act.

While the nurse is obtaining the health history of a 75-year-old female patient, which of the following has the greatest implication for the development of cancer? a. Being a 75-year-old woman b. Family history of hypertension c. Cigarette smoking as a teenager d. Advancing age

ANS: D According to the American Cancer Society, 2007, the most important risk factor for cancer development is advancing age.

An obstetric multipara with triplets is placed on bed rest at 24 weeks' gestation. Her perinatologist is managing intrauterine growth restriction with serial ultrasounds. This is an example of a. antenatal diagnostics. b. primary prevention. c. secondary prevention. d. tertiary prevention.

ANS: D An example of tertiary prevention relating to reproductive health would be managing fetal intrauterine growth restriction by serial ultrasounds. This type of diagnostic maternal/fetal monitoring is performed to determine the best time for delivery due to potential fetal nutritional, circulatory, or pulmonary compromise. A cesarean section (operative delivery) may be performed if maternal or fetal conditions indicate that delivery is necessary. Antenatal diagnostics refers to prior to pregnancy. An example of primary prevention is teaching a high school class about reproductive health. An example of secondary prevention is prenatal care in the second trimester of pregnancy to prevent problems for the developing fetus.

In order to fully assess the patient and plan appropriate care including health teaching regarding sexuality, it is important for the nurse working in either a primary care or hospital setting to be cognizant that some groups of patients will have an increased risk for problems related to the concept of sexual health. Which patient is most at risk for sexual abuse? a. A recently divorced 50-year-old woman b. A Hispanic teenage girl c. A 30-year-old African-American male d. An individual with intellectual or developmental disabilities

ANS: D As more of these individuals move into mainstream society, it is important that sexual health is promoted, including teaching regarding sexual norms. Otherwise these individuals are likely victims of unhealthy sexual practices or sexual abuse. In today's society, the newly unpartnered are likely to begin dating and acquire one or more new sexual partners. This group is at significant risk for exposure to sexually transmitted infections and requires health teaching related to safer sexual practices. The Hispanic teenage girl is at increased risk for unintended teen pregnancy. Adolescent pregnancy puts an undue burden on the young woman during a crucial period of growth and development. Hispanic teens experience double the rate of pregnancy of Caucasian adolescents. Major health disparities continue to exist between African-Americans and their Caucasian counterparts—in particular a significantly increased risk for human immunodeficiency virus/acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (HIV/AIDS) and other sexually transmitted diseases.

A patient who was recently diagnosed with diabetes is having trouble concentrating. This patient is usually very organized and laid back. Which action should the nurse take? a. Ask the health care provider for a psychiatric referral. b. Administer the PRN sedative medication every 4 hours. c. Suggest the use of a home caregiver to the patient's family. d. Plan to reinforce and repeat teaching about diabetes management.

ANS: D Because behavioral responses to stress include temporary changes such as irritability, changes in memory, and poor concentration, patient teaching will need to be repeated. Psychiatric referral or home caregiver referral will not be needed for these expected short-term cognitive changes. Sedation will decrease the patient's ability to learn the necessary information for self-management.

The nurse is admitting a patient to the medical/surgical unit. Which communication technique would be considered appropriate for this interaction? a. "I've also had traumatic life experiences. Maybe it would help if I told you about them." b. "Why do you think you had so much difficulty adjusting to this change in your life?" c. "You will feel better after getting accustomed to how this unit operates." d. "I'd like to sit with you for a while to help you get comfortable talking to me."

ANS: D Because the patient is newly admitted to the unit, allowing the patient to become comfortable with the setting a technique that can assist in establishing the nurse-patient relationship. It helps build trust and convey that the nurse cares about the patient. The nurse should not reveal their life experiences as this is not therapeutic. Asking why the patient is having difficulty may provide insight; however, this would be best saved for an established relationship with the patient. Assuring the patient that they will feel better may not be true depending on the reason for the admission.

A patient's serum electrolytes are being monitored. The nurse notices that the potassium level is low. The nurse knows that the patient should be observed for a. tissue ischemia. b. brain malformations. c. intestinal blockage. d. cardiac dysthymia.

ANS: D Cardiac dysthymia is a possibility when serum potassium is high or low. Tissue ischemia, brain malformations, or intestinal blockage do not have a direct correlation to potassium irregularities.

The nurse is discussing care coordination with a patient. The patient asks the nurse to explain care coordination. The nurse's best response would be, "Care coordination a. is a cost effective method created by the community." b. forces the health care facilities in the community to work together." c. exists for the children and uninsured in the community." d. allows health care services to work together in the community."

ANS: D Care coordination allows all health care/community services to work together so that patient and family needs can be met. Care coordination does not focus on cost methods. Cost coordination does not exist just for children or the uninsured. No one service is forced to work with another service.

A patient expresses a strong interest in returning to their work, family, and hobbies after having a stroke. Which theory type would the nurse use to develop a plan of care for the best results of this patient's motivation style? a. Biological b. Field c. Sociologic d. Cognitive

ANS: D Cognitive theorists believe that attention, relevance, confidence, and satisfaction (ARCS) are the conditions that, when integrated, motivate someone to learn. Field theorists place significance on how achievement, power, the need for affiliation, and avoidance motives influence individual behavior. Sociologic theories are not involved in motivation.

A nursing instructor is talking about care coordination with nursing students. The instructor stresses which of the following to the students concerning care coordination? a. "A patient must ask for what they need in order to coordinate care." b. "The nurse does most of the work in care coordination." c. "Medical diagnoses are an integral part of care coordination." d. "Collaboration is a big part of care coordination."

ANS: D Collaboration is a big part of care coordination. Without the collaboration, there would be no care coordination. Patients asking for their needs to be met does not collaborate care. Nurses do not do all the work in care collaboration. Medical diagnoses are one small part that drives the need for care collaboration.

Components of the GCS the nurse would use to assess a patient after a head injury include a. blood pressure. b. cranial nerve function. c. head circumference. d. verbal responsiveness.

ANS: D Components of the GCS include eye opening, motor responsiveness, and verbal responsiveness. The nurse would want to assess the blood pressure, but this is not a component of the coma scale. Assessment of cranial nerve function is appropriate as alterations such as cranial nerve VI palsies may occur, but this is not part of the coma scale. Increases in head circumference are associated with alterations in intracranial pressure in infants, but this is not part of the coma scale.

The nurse is assessing a newly diagnosed diabetic, and the patient's readiness to learn about glucose monitoring. Before planning teaching activities, which approach would be most effective? a. Assist the patient with long-term goals and plan teaching according to these goals. b. Provide the patient with all the latest research from the Internet on glucose monitoring. c. Refer the patient to the diabetic specialist who can assist the patient with the glucometer. d. Assist the patient in developing realistic short-term goals.

ANS: D Concordance reflects development of an alliance with patients based on realistic expectations. Providing the patient with the research will not help with the practical skill of using the glucometer. Long-term goals are useful; however, the goals need to be immediate with a newly diagnosed patient learning a new skill. Referring the patient would be useful if the patient has not been able to grasp the concept after several attempts.

The nurse has been asked to administer a coping measurement instrument to a patient. What education would the nurse present to the patient related to this tool? a. "This tool will let us compare your stress to other patients in the hospital." b. "This tool is short because it only measures the negative stressors you are experiencing." c. "You will need to ask your parents about stressors you had as a child to complete this tool." d. "This tool will help assess recent positive and negative events you are experiencing."

ANS: D Coping measurement tools measure recent positive and negative life events as perceived by the individual. There is no objective scale for comparison with other patients because each person reacts differently to stressors. Both negative and positive events are assessed. Childhood stressors are not part of this type of evaluation as they are intended to measure recently occurring events.

A nurse is reported for taking prescribed patient medications for their personal use. Who has direct authority over deciding if the nurse may keep their professional license to continue practicing as a nurse? a. The hospital where the nurse is currently employed b. The American Nurses Association c. The National League for Nursing d. The State Board of Nursing who issued the license

ANS: D Decisions related to practice are the responsibility of the licensing body, or State Board of Nursing, who is charged with protecting the public. The hospital does not determine who is eligible for a professional license. The National League for Nursing is active in nursing education standards. The American Nurses Association helps develop standards of care and is politically active, but it does not enforce standards for individuals.

The nurse has telephone messages from four patients who requested information and assistance. Which one should the nurse refer to a social worker or community agency first? a. "Is there a place that I can dispose of my unused morphine pills?" b. "I want to lose at least 20 pounds without getting sick this time." c. "I think I have asthma because I cough when dogs are near." d. "I ran out of money and am cutting my insulin dose in half."

ANS: D Decreasing an insulin dose by half creates high risk of diabetic ketoacidosis, and this patient has the highest priority. The other patients have less priority due to lower risk situations with longer time course before development of an acid-base imbalance. The coughing when dogs are near is not a sign of a severe asthma episode that causes respiratory acidosis, although this patient does need attention after the insulin situation is handled. Disposing of morphine properly helps prevent respiratory acidosis from opioid overdose. Guidance regarding weight loss helps prevent starvation ketoacidosis.

The clinical nurse leader needs to identify the staff who must go home due to low census. Which answer below describes a democratic style of decision making? a. The clinical nurse leader identifies the staff person with the most vacation and asks them to go home. b. The clinical nurse leader tells the last person to show up for their shift to go home. c. The clinical nurse leader decides not to send anyone home because it is too difficult to decide who should lose hours. d. The clinical nurse leader asks the group if any of them would like the opportunity to go home and selects staff who volunteer.

ANS: D Democratic leaders use a participatory style of decision making. In the other choices, the clinical nurse leader makes the decision independent of the staff.

A patient who is taking prescribed lithium carbonate is exhibiting signs of diarrhea, blurred vision, frequent urination, and an unsteady gait. Which serum lithium level would the nurse expect for this patient? a. 0 to 0.5 mEq/L b. 0.6 to 0.9 mEq/L c. 1.0 to 1.4 mEq/L d. 1.5 or higher mEq/L

ANS: D Diarrhea, blurred vision, ataxia, and polyuria are all signs of lithium toxicity, which generally occurs at serum levels above 1.5 mEq/L. Serum levels within the normal range of 0.8 to 1.4 mEq/L are not likely to cause signs of toxicity.

The nurse is caring for a patient who received a bone marrow transplant 10 days ago. The nurse would monitor for which of the following clinical manifestations that could indicate a potentially life-threatening situation? a. Mucositis b. Confusion c. Depression d. Mild temperature elevation

ANS: D During the first 100 days after a bone marrow transplant, patients are at high risk for life-threatening infections. The earliest sign of infection in an immunosuppressed patient can be a mild fever. Mucositis, confusion, and depression are possible clinical manifestations but are representative of less life-threatening complications.

A patient with a diagnosis of depression and suicidal ideation was started on an antidepressant 1 month ago. When the patient comes to the community health clinic for a follow-up appointment he is cheerful and talkative. What priority assessment must the nurse consider for this patient? a. The medication dose needs to be decreased. b. Treatment is successful, and medication can be stopped. c. The patient is ready to return to work. d. Specific assessment for suicide plan must be evaluated.

ANS: D Energy levels increase as depression lifts; this may increase the risk of completing a suicide plan. An increase in mood would not indicate a decrease or discontinuation of prescribed medication. The patient may be ready to return to work, but assessment for suicide risk in a patient who has had suicidal ideation is the priority assessment.

A student asks the instructor about health care economics. The instructor knows the student understands when the student states which of the following? a. "The elderly population uses most of the health care services." b. "Everyone should have health insurance to obtain services." c. "Health care dollars should be partitioned by the government." d. "Resources will be needed to serve health care issues."

ANS: D Every health care issue needs resources to bring it to fruition. Without the resources, the health care issue would not be served. The elderly are a large part of the population, but that does not change the economics of health care. Everyone does not have health insurance, so that statement would not enter into health care economics. Last, all health care dollars are not partitioned by the government; third party payers exist.

The nurse in the psychiatric unit is involved in a research study for a depression medication. In the study, patients are randomly assigned to one depression medication and the other group is receiving no medication to treat the depression. What method of research are the patients involved with? a. Descriptive b. Correlational c. Quasi-experimental d. Experimental

ANS: D Experimental tests an intervention and includes both a control group and random assignment. This research study tests an intervention and includes both a control group and random assignment. Descriptive defines the magnitude of a concept and its characteristics. Correlational determines association between or among variables. Quasi-experimental tests an intervention and lacks either a control group or random assignment.

The RN at the Preconception Counseling Clinic takes a male history for infertility evaluation. Which finding has the greatest implication for this patient's care? a. Practice of nightly masturbation b. Primary anovulation c. High testosterone levels d. Impotence due to alcohol ingestion

ANS: D Factors affecting male infertility include impotence due to alcohol. Nightly masturbation and high testosterone levels do not have the greatest implication on male infertility in a patient with admitted alcohol issues. Primary anovulation refers to female infertility, so it is not a consideration for this question about male infertility.

A 3-month-old infant is at increased risk for developing anemia. The nurse would identify which principle contributing to this risk? a. The infant is becoming more active. b. There is an increase in intake of breast milk or formula. c. The infant is unable to maintain an adequate iron intake. d. A depletion of fetal hemoglobin occurs.

ANS: D Fetal hemoglobin is present for about 5 months. The fetal hemoglobin begins deteriorating, and around 2 to 3 months the infant is at increased risk of developing an anemia due to decreasing levels of hemoglobin. Breast milk or formula is the primary food intake up to around 6 months. Often iron supplemented formula is offered, and/or an iron supplement is given if the infant is breastfed.

One of the first nurse researchers to document evidence-based practice for nursing was Florence Nightingale. What did Nightingale incorporate into her practice that made her practice different from her colleagues? a. Nightingale gathered scientific data. b. Nightingale calculated statistics to report her findings. c. Nightingale communicated her findings to powerful others. d. Nightingale based her nursing practice on her findings.

ANS: D Florence Nightingale had tried to develop the role of researcher by using evidence from her practice and implementing these findings. Evidence-based practice (EBP) includes conducting quality studies, synthesizing the study findings into the best research evidence available, and using that research evidence effectively in practice. Although gathering scientific data, calculating statistics to report findings, and communicating findings to powerful others are all important components of conducting research, Nightingale's action that most appropriately reflects the current nursing research priority is that she based her nursing practice on her findings.

The nurse is assessing a patient's functional ability. Which activities most closely match the definition of functional ability? a. Healthy individual, works outside the home, uses a cane, well groomed b. Healthy individual, college educated, travels frequently, can balance a checkbook c. Healthy individual, works out, reads well, cooks and cleans house d. Healthy individual, volunteers at church, works part time, takes care of family and house

ANS: D Functional ability refers to the individual's ability to perform the normal daily activities required to meet basic needs; fulfill usual roles in the family, workplace, and community; and maintain health and well-being. The other options are good; however, each option has advanced or independent activities in the context of the option.

Mobility for the patient changes throughout the life span; this is known as the process of a. aging and illness. b. illness and disease. c. health and wellness. d. growth and development.

ANS: D Growth and development happens from infancy to death. Muscular changes are always happening, and these changes affect the individual and his or her performance in life. Aging, illness, health, and wellness do have an effect on a person, but they don't always affect mobility.

The school nurse talking with a high school class about the difference between growth and development would best describe growth as a. processes by which early cells specialize. b. psychosocial and cognitive changes. c. qualitative changes associated with aging. d. quantitative changes in size or weight.

ANS: D Growth is a quantitative change in which an increase in cell number and size results in an increase in overall size or weight of the body or any of its parts. The processes by which early cells specialize are referred to as differentiation. Psychosocial and cognitive changes are referred to as development. Qualitative changes associated with aging are referred to as maturation.

A definition of health policy includes which of the following elements? a. Funding for public education b. Appropriation of funds for roadwork c. Selection of congressional members of committees d. Public policy made to support health-related goals

ANS: D Health policy is defined as public policies pertaining to health that are the result of an authoritative public decision-making process. Public education funding, appropriation of funding for roads, and selection of members of committees are not part of health care policy. They are under a different funding arm of the government.

To plan early intervention and care for an infant with Down syndrome, the nurse considers knowledge of other physical development exemplars such as a. cerebral palsy. b. failure to thrive. c. fetal alcohol syndrome. d. hydrocephaly.

ANS: D Hydrocephaly is also a physical development exemplar. Cerebral palsy is an exemplar of adaptive developmental delay. Failure to thrive is an exemplar of social/emotional developmental delay. Fetal alcohol syndrome is an exemplar of cognitive developmental delay.

The patient's laboratory report today indicates severe hypokalemia, and the nurse has notified the physician. Nursing assessment indicates that heart rhythm is regular. What is the most important nursing intervention for this patient now? a. Raise bed side rails due to potential decreased level of consciousness and confusion. b. Examine sacral area and patient's heels for skin breakdown due to potential edema. c. Establish seizure precautions due to potential muscle twitching, cramps, and seizures. d. Institute fall precautions due to potential postural hypotension and weak leg muscles.

ANS: D Hypokalemia can cause postural hypotension and bilateral muscle weakness, especially in the lower extremities. Both of these increase the risk of falls. Hypokalemia does not cause edema, decreased level of consciousness, or seizures.

A patient tells the nurse, "I'm told that I should reduce the stress in my life, but I have no idea where to start." Which would be the best initial nursing response? a. "Why not start by learning to meditate? That technique will cover everything." b. "In cases like yours, physical exercise works to elevate mood and reduce anxiety." c. "Reading about stress and how to manage it might be a good place to start." d. "Let's talk about what is going on in your life and then look at possible options."

ANS: D In this case, the nurse lacks information about what stressors the patient is coping with or about what coping skills are already possessed. As a result, further assessment is indicated before potential solutions can be explored. Suggesting further exploration of the stress facing the patient is the only option that involves further assessment rather than suggesting a particular intervention.

To promote a safety culture, the nurse manager preparing the staff schedule considers the anticipated census in planning the number and experience of staff on any given shift. The human factor primarily addressed with this consideration is/are a. available supplies. b. interdisciplinary communication. c. interruptions in work. d. workload fluctuations.

ANS: D Including an adequate number of staff members with experience caring for anticipated patients is a strategy to manage the workload and potential fluctuations. A safety culture requires organizational leadership (e.g., the nurse manager) that gives attention to human factors such as managing workload fluctuations. This strategy also applies principles of crew resource management in that it addresses workload distribution. Lack of supplies can create a challenge for safe care but could not be addressed with the schedule. Concerns with communication and coordination across disciplines, including power gradients, and excessive professional courtesy can create hazards but would not be the best answer. Strategies to minimize interruptions in work are essential but would not be the best answer in this situation.

The nurse who is certified as a Critical Care Registered Nurse (CCRN™) represents the unit on the organizational performance improvement team. This is an example of _____ leadership. a. formal b. unit c. organizational d. informal

ANS: D Informal leaders are recognized as leaders because of their capabilities and actions. Formal leaders are recognized because of the position they hold such as director or manager. Unit leadership refers to the leader of the particular unit. Organizational leadership refers to any leader within the organization.

When describing patient education approaches, the nurse educator would explain that informal teaching is an approach that a. addresses group needs. b. follows formalized plans. c. has standardized content. d. often occurs one-to-one.

ANS: D Informal teaching is individualized one-on-one teaching which represents the majority of patient education done by nurses that occurs when an intervention is explained or a question is answered. Group needs are often the focus of formal patient education courses or classes. Informal teaching does not necessarily follow a specific formalized plan. It may be planned with specific content, but it is individualized responses to patient needs. Formal teaching involves the use of a curriculum/course plan with standardized content.

Primary prevention strategies to reduce the occurrence of head injuries would include a. blood pressure control. b. smoking cessation. c. maintaining a healthy weight. d. violence prevention.

ANS: D Injury prevention measures such as wearing a seat belt, helmet use, firearm safety, and violence prevention programs reduce the risk of traumatic brain injuries. Blood pressure control and exercising can decrease the risk of vascular disease, impacting the cerebral arteries, rather than head injuries. Smoking cessation is one primary prevention strategy which can decrease the risk of vascular disease. Maintaining a healthy weight can decrease the risk of vascular disease.

Factors which would alert the nurse to negative/dysfunctional family dynamics include a. aging of family members. b. chronic illness of a family member. c. disability of a family member. d. intimate partner violence.

ANS: D Intimate partner violence is an exemplar of negative/dysfunctional family dynamics. Aging of family members is an exemplar of changes to family dynamics. Chronic illness of a family member is an exemplar of changes to family dynamics. Disability of a family member is an exemplar of changes to family dynamics.

Mr. Smith is complaining of decreased appetite. He states he just finished taking his antibiotics for an episode of pneumonia. The nurse's best response would be which of the following? a. "Your wife should increase the spices in your food, as the pneumonia changes your sense of smell." b. "Notify your doctor immediately, because this is a concerning reaction to the medication." c. "You need to take an appetite stimulant, as your body will need good nutrition to recover from the infection." d. "You should see an improvement in the next week or so. Call if this continues."

ANS: D Many medications cause a change in sense of taste, including antibiotics. This is temporary and does not require interventions. Pneumonia affects the lower respiratory tract, and is less likely to cause change in smell. The short-term effects of the antibiotic should not necessitate major concern regarding diet intake, including stimulants.

A newly licensed nurse is assigned to an experienced nurse for training on a medical unit of a hospital. What type of nurse-to-nurse collaboration does this assignment demonstrate? a. Interprofessional collaboration b. Shared governance collaboration c. Interorganizational collaboration d. Mentoring collaboration

ANS: D Mentoring is a collaborative partnership between a novice nurse and an expert nurse to help transition a nurse through career development, personal growth, and socialization into the profession. Interprofessional collaboration is working with several disciplines. Shared governance is a type of management for nursing. Interorganizational collaboration often includes teams from inside and outside an organization to meet a common goal.

Many middle-aged adults are called the "sandwich" generation because they are caring for their children and their aging parents. The aging parents need care due to a. mental clarity. b. immobility. c. blindness. d. multiple chronic illnesses.

ANS: D Multiple chronic illnesses come with the aging process. Middle-aged adults are becoming the caregivers for the generation before them and the one after them. Mental clarity is a positive aspect of aging and does not need care. Immobility and blindness do not always mean that the person needs direct care.

The nurse requests that a mother give permission for a hearing test in a newborn infant. The mother questions the importance of such a test. The nurse correctly responds with which of the following statements? a. "This will help us to identify your baby's risk for ear infections the first year of life." b. "Hearing is important so your baby hears and responds to your voice, which makes you feel like a mother." c. "Socialization skills include the need to hear in order to interpret the emotional aspect of the words that are spoken to your child." d. "Imitation of sounds is the first step in language development, and it is important to identify alterations early."

ANS: D Newborn screening of hearing does not identify risk of infection but only of sensory responses. The baby's response to the mother is important to bonding, but this not the most important reason to evaluate hearing. Likewise, socialization and tone recognition are functions of hearing, but the most significant reason to test hearing is to identify losses and provide compensatory ways to encourage language development.

The most appropriate initial nursing intervention when the nurse notes dysfunctional interactions and lack of family support for a patient would be to a. enforce hospital visiting policies. b. monitor the dysfunctional interactions. c. notify the primary care provider. d. role model appropriate support.

ANS: D Nurses can, at times, role model more appropriate interactions or provide suggestions for improving communication and interactions among family members. If the nurse determines that the number of visitors has a negative impact on the patient, hospital policy may be to limit visitors, but that would not be the initial action. Monitoring the dysfunctional interactions would not be an adequate response. The primary care provider should certainly be notified, but that would not be the initial response.

Which statement correctly describes the nurses' role in collaboration? a. State boards of nursing mandate that collaboration can only occur in hospitals. b. Collaboration should occur only with physicians. c. Collaboration occurs only between nurses with the same level of education. d. Collaboration may occur in health-related research.

ANS: D Nurses collaborate with many different persons, including patients, managers, educators, and researchers. Collaboration does not occur only with physicians or nurses of equivalent educational background, but with anyone who is working towards meeting patient goals. Collaboration occurs in any health care setting as well as community and home settings.

A primary prevention tool used for colon cancer screening is a. abdominal x-rays. b. blood, urea, and nitrogen (BUN) testing. c. serum electrolytes. d. occult blood testing.

ANS: D Occult blood testing will reveal unseen blood in the stool, and this may signal a potentially serious bowel problem like colon cancer. BUN is used to evaluate kidney function. Serum electrolytes and abdominal x-rays are not related to colon cancer screening.

A female college student is planning to become sexually active. She is considering birth control options and desires a method in which ovulation will be prevented. To prevent ovulation while reaching 99% effectiveness in preventing pregnancy, which option should be given the strongest consideration? a. Intrauterine device b. Coitus interruptus c. Natural family planning d. Oral contraceptive pills

ANS: D Oral contraceptive pills prevent ovulation and are 99% effective in preventing pregnancy when taken as directed. Intrauterine devices, coitus interruptus, and natural family planning will not prevent ovulation while reaching 99% effectiveness in preventing pregnancy,so they are not recommended for this college student.

Palliative care does everything except a. promote comfort. b. reduce disease exacerbations. c. decrease acute care hospital admissions. d. promote a cure for chronic disease.

ANS: D Palliation is the reduction of symptoms without elimination of the cause. Palliative care refers to the provision of care for patients who are diagnosed with a disease or condition without a cure.

Today most patients are living for several years before dying with multiple chronic conditions, such as COPD, congestive heart failure, diabetes, and obesity. These concomitant diseases contribute to multiple symptoms that interfere with the patient's quality of life. What type of care would you consider for this patient? a. End-of-life care b. Supportive care c. Comfort care d. Palliative care

ANS: D Palliative care provides optimal symptom management in the setting of multiple chronic conditions. The relief and management of these symptoms help to promote improved quality of life for the patient and help to maintain physical functioning.

The nurse is talking to the unlicensed assistive personnel about moving a patient in bed. The nurse knows the unlicensed assistive personnel understands the concept of mobility and proper moving techniques when he or she states, "Patients must a. have a trapeze over the bed to move properly." b. move themselves in bed to prevent immobility." c. always have a two-person assist to move in bed." d. be moved correctly in bed to prevent shearing."

ANS: D Patients must be moved properly in bed to prevent shearing of the skin. Having a trapeze over the bed is only functional is the patient can assist in the moving process. A two-person assist is good, but the patient still needs to be moved properly. A patient may move himself or herself if he or she is able, but shearing may still occur.

The nurse is developing a care plan for a patient newly admitted to a unit that cares for patients with cognitive impairment. What is an important component of care for the patients on this unit? a. Allow food selections from a menu with several choices. b. Schedule frequent field trips off the unit for cognitive stimulation. c. Plan for attendance at activities with several other patients on the unit. d. Plan for a structured daily routine of events and caregivers.

ANS: D Patients with a cognitive impairment benefit from a predictable routine and consistent caregivers. Trips off of the unit may confuse the patient and disrupt their normal routine. Offering too many selections causes confusion and can lead to agitation. Being in large groups for activities can overstimulate the patient and lead to agitation and fear.

In order to provide the best intervention for a patient, the nurse is often responsible for obtaining a sample of exudate for culture. This test will identify a. whether a patient has an infection. b. where an infection is located. c. what cells are being utilized by the body to attack an infection. d. what specific type of pathogen is causing an infection.

ANS: D People can transmit pathogens even if they don't currently feel ill. Some carriers never experience the full symptoms of a pathogen. A CBC will identify that the patient has an infection. Inspection and radiography will help identify where an infection is located. The CBC with differential will identify the white blood cells being used by the body to fight an infection. The culture will grow the microorganisms in the sample for identification of the specific type of pathogen.

In caring for a patient following lobectomy for lung cancer, which of the following should the nurse include in the plan of care? a. Position the patient on the operative side only. b. Avoid administering narcotic pain medications. c. Keep the patient on strict bed rest. d. Instruct the patient to cough and deep breathe.

ANS: D Postoperative deep breathing and coughing is important to promote oxygenation and clearing of secretions. Pain medications will be given to lessen pain and allow for deep breathing and coughing. Strict bed rest is not instituted, because early ambulation will help lessen postoperative complications such as deep vein thrombosis. Prolonged lying on the operative side is avoided.

The nurse planning care for a patient with hypothermia would consider knowledge of similar exemplars including a. heat exhaustion. b. heat stroke. c. infection. d. prematurity.

ANS: D Prematurity, frost bite, environmental exposure, and brain injury are considered exemplars of hypothermia. Heat exhaustion is an exemplar of hyperthermia. Heat stroke is an exemplar of hyperthermia. Infection is an exemplar of hyperthermia.

Which clinical management prevention concept would the nurse identify as representative of secondary prevention? a. Decreasing venous stasis and risk for pulmonary emboli b. Implementation of strict hand washing routines c. Maintaining current vaccination schedules d. Prevention of pneumonia in patients with chronic lung disease

ANS: D Prevention of and treatment of existing health problems to avoid further complications is an example of secondary prevention. Primary prevention includes infection control (hand washing), smoking cessation, immunizations, and prevention of postoperative complications.

Which patient scenario describes the best example of professional collaboration? a. The nurse, physician, and physical therapist have all visited separately with the patient. b. The nurse, physical therapist, and physician have all developed separate care plans for the patient. c. The nurse mentions to the physical therapist that the patient may benefit from a muscle strengthening evaluation. d. The nurse and physician discuss the patient's muscle weakness and initiate a referral for physical therapy.

ANS: D Professional collaboration includes team management and referral to needed providers to meet patient needs. Each discipline retains responsibility for their own scope of practice but recognizes the expertise of other providers. Working separately does not develop a comprehensive plan of care. Casual mentioning of patient needs does not follow professional communication channels and frequently delays needed interventions.

A female patient is anxious after receiving the news that she needs a breast biopsy to rule out breast cancer. The nurse is assisting with a breast biopsy. Which relaxation technique will be best to use at this time? a. Massage b. Meditation c. Guided imagery d. Relaxation breathing

ANS: D Relaxation breathing is the easiest of the relaxation techniques to use. It will be difficult for the nurse to provide massage while assisting with the biopsy. Meditation and guided imagery require more time to practice and learn.

A patient newly diagnosed with depression states, "I have had other people in my family say that they have depression. Is this an inherited problem?" What is the nurse's best response? a. "There are a lot of mood disorders that are caused by many different causes. Inheriting these disorders is not likely." b. "Current research is focusing on fluid and electrolyte disorders as a cause for mood disorders." c. "All of your family members raised in the same area have probably learned to respond to problems in the same way." d. "Members of the same family may have the same biological predisposition to experiencing mood disorders."

ANS: D Research is showing a genetic or hereditary role in the predisposition of experiencing mood disorders. These tendencies can be inherited by family members. Fluid and electrolyte imbalances cause many problems, but neurotransmitters in the brain are more directly linked to mood disorders. Mood disorders are not a learned behavior, but are linked to neurotransmitters in the brain.

The nurse is implementing a plan of care for a patient newly diagnosed with type 2 diabetes mellitus. The plan includes educating the patient about diet choices. The patient states that they enjoy exercising and understand the need to diet; however, they can't see living without chocolate on a daily basis. Using the principles of responding in the Model of Clinical Judgment, how would the nurse proceed with the teaching? a. The nurse explains to the patient that chocolate has a high glycemic index. The nurse then focuses on foods that have low glycemic indexes and provides a list for the patient to choose from. b. The nurse explains that the patient may eat whatever they would like as long as the patient's glucose reading and A1c remain stable. c. The nurse derives a new nursing diagnosis of Knowledge Deficit and readjusts the plan of care to include additional sessions with the registered dietician. d. The nurse examines the patient's daily glucose log and incorporates the snack into the time of day that has the lowest readings. The nurse then follows up and evaluates the response in 1 week.

ANS: D Responding entails adjusting the plan of care to the particular patient issue through one or more nursing interventions. In this case, the nurse is working with the patient's wishes, knowing that the patient will most likely cheat. The patient will be allowed to "cheat." The plan will be evaluated to be sure the snack does not elevate the glucose excessively and be readjusted if warranted. While it is true that most chocolate has a high glycemic index, providing a list of foods that do not include the one thing the patient enjoys will most likely lead to nonadherence to the diet. Advising the patient that they can have whatever they want to eat may lead to further dietary indiscretions and cause side effects such as obesity or high glucose readings. Knowledge Deficit is an inaccurate diagnosis for this patient as evidenced by the patient stating they understand the need to exercise and the need to diet.

A client with schizophrenia has relapsed and has been identified as being in stage four of relapse. Behavior which is most consistent with this stage of relapse would include a. expressing feelings of anxiety. b. expressing feelings of being overwhelmed. c. bizarre behaviors and speech. d. presence of hallucinations.

ANS: D Schizophrenic clients who relapse go through five stages. Correctly identifying which stage the relapsing client is in is important so that interventions can be specific to the behavior. Expressing feelings of anxiety would be part of stage two, expressing feelings of being overwhelmed would be part of stage one, and bizarre behaviors and speech would be part of stage three. Presence of hallucinations is consistent with stage four, psychotic disorganization.

The primary health care nurse would recommend screening based on known risk factors, because they can a. eliminate the possibility of developing a condition. b. identify appropriate treatment guidelines. c. initiate treatment of a condition or disease. d. make a substantial difference in morbidity and mortality.

ANS: D Screenings are typically indicated and recommended if the effort makes a substantial difference in morbidity and/or mortality of conditions, and they are safe, cost effective, and accurate. Ideally a screening measure will accurately differentiate individuals who have a condition from those who do not have a condition 100% of the time; however, there may be a false-negative result, or the patient may develop a condition after the screening was conducted. A screening does not specify treatment guidelines; the screen provides results, and the health care provider identifies the treatment. The goal of screening is to identify individuals in an early state of a disease so that prompt treatment can be initiated. The screening results are used for this purpose.

The nurse educator would identify a need for further teaching when the student lists the types of learning as a. affective. b. cognitive. c. psychomotor. d. self-directed.

ANS: D Self-directed is one approach to learning but is not considered a type or domain of learning. Self-directed would be a cognitive way of learning. Affective (feelings/attitude), cognitive (knowledge), and psychomotor (skills/performance) are the main domains of learning.

A volunteer at the senior center asks the visiting nurse why the senior citizens always seem to be complaining about temperatures. The nurse's best response is that older people have a diminished ability to regulate body temperature because of a. active sweat glands. b. increased circulation. c. peripheral vasoconstriction. d. slower metabolic rates.

ANS: D Slower metabolic rates are one factor that reduces the ability of older adults to regulate temperature and be comfortable when there are any temperature changes. As the body ages, the sweat glands decrease in number and efficiency. Older adults have reduced circulation. The body conserves heat through peripheral vasoconstriction, and older adults have a decreased vasoconstrictive response, which impacts ability to respond to temperature changes.

A patient has cellulitis on the right forearm. The nurse would anticipate orders to administer medications to eradicate a. Candida albicans. b. group A beta-hemolytic streptococci. c. Staphylococcus aureus. d. Streptococcus pyogenes.

ANS: D Streptococcus pyogenes is the usual cause of cellulitis, although other pathogens may be responsible. A small abrasion or lesion can provide a portal for opportunistic or pathogenic infectious organisms to infect deeper tissues.

The strategy to avoid medication errors endorsed by the Institute for Safe Medication Practices (ISMP) to differentiate products with look-alike names is referred to as a. automatic alerts. b. bar coding. c. computer order entry. d. tallman lettering.

ANS: D Tallman lettering is a term coined by ISMP to describe the practice of using unique letter characteristics of similar drug names known to have been confused with one another. Tallman lettering is used to differentiate products with look-alike names such as BenaDRYL (antihistamine) and BenaZEPRIL (ace inhibitor). The other options are examples of safety-enhancing technologies strategies designed to minimize drug errors, but they are not directed at look-alike medications. Automatic alerts are computer-generated alarms that can be programmed to occur with such things as allergies and incompatible medications. Bar coding is used with medication administration systems that can be programmed to match patient identification bracelets with documentation. Computer order entry systems are designed to include components of a standard medication order.

A patient asks the nurse what the purpose of the Wood's light is. Which response by the nurse is accurate? a. "We will put an anesthetic on your skin to prevent pain." b. "The lamp can help detect skin cancers." c. "Some patients feel a pressure-like sensation." d. "It is used to identify the presence of infectious organisms and proteins associated with specific skin conditions."

ANS: D The Wood's light examination is the use of a black light and darkened room to assist with physical examination of the skin. The examination does not cause discomfort.

A 45-year-old man is brought to the emergency department presenting with a respiratory rate of 6 breaths/min, and cardiac dysrhythmias. The most appropriate question the nurse should ask the patient's friend is a. "Does he take amphetamines or uppers?" b. "Has he ever used LSD?" c. "Have you two been out of the country in the last 2 days?" d. "Is he using any opioids such as heroin?"

ANS: D The clinical manifestations of an opioid overdose include seizures, shock, respiratory depression, dysrhythmias, and altered level of consciousness. An opioid overdose is a medical emergency. Amphetamine overdose is ruled out because it causes hypertension and central nervous system disturbances such as paranoia, panic, and delusions. LSD overdose would also manifest with hypertension and tachypnea along with hallucinations and possible loss of contact with reality. Travel outside the country is unrelated.

The priority nursing intervention for a patient suspected to be hypothermic would be to a. assess vital signs. b. hydrate with intravenous (IV) fluids. c. provide a warm blanket. d. remove wet clothes.

ANS: D The first thing to do with a patient suspected to be hypothermic is to remove wet clothes, because heat loss is five times greater when clothing is wet. Assessing vital signs is important, but the wet clothes should be removed first. Hydration is very important with hyperthermia and the associated danger of dehydration, but there is not a similar risk with hypothermia. A warm blanket over wet clothes would not be an effective warming strategy.

The nurse recognizes which patient as having the greatest risk for undiagnosed diabetes mellitus? a. Young white man b. Middle-aged African-American man c. Young African-American woman d. Middle-aged Native American woman

ANS: D The highest incidence of diabetes in the United States occurs in Native Americans. With age, the incidence of diabetes increases in all races and ethnic groups.

Which of the following is the intent of HIPAA? a. Release of patient information for purposes of insurance reimbursement b. Prevent health care providers from billing for procedures done for the insured person c. Protect patients from reviewing their own medical records d. Limit the ability of health care providers to sell patient information to outside sources

ANS: D The intent of HIPAA is to protect patient information and prevent it from being sold to outside agencies. The right of heath care providers to bill for services is necessary for patient payment is and not prohibited. Patients have the right to view their own patient information.

Interrelated concepts to the professional nursing role a nurse manager would consider when addressing concerns about the quality of patient education include a. adherence. b. developmental level. c. motivation. d. technology.

ANS: D The interrelated concepts to the professional role of a nurse include health promotion, leadership, technology/informatics, quality, collaboration, and communication. Adherence, culture, developmental level, family dynamics, and motivation are considered interrelated concepts to patient attributes and preference.

Critical Thinking: The nurse identifies the family with a child graduating from college as being in the family life cycle of a. single young adult leaving home. b. new couple joins their families through marriage or living together. c. families with young children. d. launching children and moving on.

ANS: D The launching children and moving cycle occurs when the children become independent and establish their own home, as when they graduate and begin to establish their own lives, separate from the family of origin. The single young adult leaving home cycle occurs when the "child" establishes their own home away from the family they grew up with. The new couple joins their families through marriage or living together cycle begins when a couple establishes a household separate from the family of origin. The families with young children cycle begins with the addition of a child to the family.

To promote safety, the nurse manager sensitive to point of care (sharp end) and systems level (blunt end) exemplars works closely with staff to address the point of care exemplars such as a. care coordination. b. documentation. c. electronic records. d. fall prevention.

ANS: D The most common safety issues at the sharp end include prevention of decubitus ulcers, medication administration, fall prevention, invasive procedures, diagnostic workup, recognition of/action on adverse events, and communication. These are the most common issues the staff nurse providing direct patient care encounters. Each of the other options are classified as systems level exemplars.

The nurse is developing an interdisciplinary plan of care using the Roper-Logan-Tierney Model of Nursing for a patient who is currently unconscious. Which interventions would be most critical to developing a plan of care for this patient? a. Eating and drinking, personal cleansing and dressing, working and playing b. Toileting, transferring, dressing, and bathing activities c. Sleeping, expressing sexuality, socializing with peers d. Maintaining a safe environment, breathing, maintaining temperature

ANS: D The most critical aspects of care for an unconscious patient are safe environment, breathing, and temperature. Eating and drinking are contraindicated in unconscious patients. Toileting, transferring, dressing, and bathing activities are BADLs. Sleeping, expressing sexuality, and socializing with peers are a part of the Roper-Logan-Tierney Model of Nursing; however, these are not the most critical for developing the plan of care in an unconscious patient.

The nurse is caring for a patient experiencing an allergic reaction to a bee sting who has an order for BenaDRYL. The only medication in the patient's medication bin is labeled BenaZEPRIL. The nurse contacts the pharmacy for the correct medication to avoid what type of error? a. Communication b. Diagnostic c. Preventive d. Treatment

ANS: D The nurse avoided a treatment error, giving the wrong medication. Benazepril is an ace inhibitor used to treat blood pressure. According to Leape, treatment errors occur in the performance of an operation, procedure, or test; in administering a treatment; in the dose or method of administering a drug; or in avoidable delay in treatment or in responding to an abnormal test. Communication errors refer to those that occur from a failure to communicate. Diagnostic errors are the result of a delay in diagnosis, failure to employ indicated tests, use of outmoded tests, or failure to act on results of monitoring or testing. Preventive errors occur when there is inadequate monitoring or failure to provide prophylactic treatment or follow-up of treatment.

The nurse is caring for a patient who was started on intravenous antibiotic therapy earlier in the shift. As the second dose is being infused, the patient reports feeling dizzy and having difficulty breathing and talking. The nurse notes that the patient's respirations are 26 breaths/min with pulse 112 beats/min and weak. The nurse suspects that the patient is experiencing a(n) a. suppressed immune response. b. hyperimmune response. c. allergic reaction. d. anaphylactic reaction.

ANS: D The patient is exhibiting signs and symptoms of an anaphylactic reaction to the medication. These signs and symptoms during administration of a medication do not correspond to a suppressed immune response but a type of hyperimmune response. While the patient is experiencing a hyperimmune response, the signs and symptoms allow for a more specific response. While the patient is experiencing an allergic reaction, the signs and symptoms presented in the scenario allow for a more specific response.

The nurse is instructing the nursing assistant to prevent pressure ulcers in a frail older patient; the nursing assistant understands the instruction when she agrees to a. bathe and dry the skin vigorously to stimulate circulation. b. keep the head of the bed elevated 30 degrees. c. limit intake of fluid and offer frequent snacks. d. turn the patient at least every 2 hours.

ANS: D The patient should be turned at least every 2 hours as permanent damage can occur in 2 hours or less. If skin assessment reveals a stage I ulcer while on a 2-hour turning schedule, the patient must be turned more frequently. Limiting fluids will prevent healing; however, offering snacks is indicated to increase healing particularly if they are protein based, because protein plays a role in healing. Use of doughnuts, elevated heads of beds, and overstimulation of skin may all stimulate, if not actually encourage, dermal decline.

What interrelated constructs facilitate a nurse to become culturally competent? a. Cultural diversity, self-awareness, cultural skill, and cultural knowledge b. Cultural desire, self-awareness, cultural knowledge, and cultural identity c. Cultural desire, self-awareness, cultural knowledge, and cultural diversity d. Cultural desire, self-awareness, cultural knowledge, and cultural skill

ANS: D The process of cultural competence consists of four interrelated constructs: cultural desire, self-awareness, cultural knowledge, and cultural skill. Cultural diversity in the context of health care refers to achieving the highest level of health care for all people by addressing societal inequalities and historical and contemporary injustices. Cultural identity is the norms, values, beliefs, and behaviors of a culture learned through families and group members.

The qualities of leadership, clinical expertise and judgment, mentorship, and lifelong learning would describe a nurse who is a(n) a. administrator. b. certified nurse specialist. c. practitioner. d. professional.

ANS: D The qualities listed are those of a professional nurse. The other options are all nurses who may have these qualities, but the focus of their title includes qualities not essential for the professional nurse. The administrator would have management qualities; the clinical nurse specialist would have specialty area knowledge; and the practitioner would meet legal requirements as a health care provider.

Which of the following patients would the nurse anticipate the collaborative treatment of regular phlebotomies? a. Hemophilia b. Thrombocytopenia c. Eosinophilia d. Polycythemia

ANS: D The removal of blood by using phlebotomy is used for thrombocytopenia to decrease the blood volume and decrease blood viscosity to prevent the formation of blood clots. Hemophilia and thrombocytopenia would not benefit from phlebotomy; eosinophilia is an overproduction of eosinophils from an abnormal allergic reaction and is treated with removal of the agent the person is allergic to and possibly administration of steroids.

An older patient presents to the outpatient clinic with a chief complaint of headache and insomnia. In gathering the history, the nurse notes which factors as contributing to this patient's chief complaint? a. The patient is responsible for caring for two school-age grandchildren. b. The patient's daughter works to support the family. c. The patient is being treated for hypertension and is overweight. d. The patient has recently lost her spouse and needed to move in with her daughter.

ANS: D The stress of losing a loved one and having to move are important contributing factors for stress-related symptoms in older people. Caring for children will increase the patient's sense of worth. Being overweight and being treated for hypertension are not the most likely causes of insomnia or headache. The patient's daughter may have added stress due to working, but this should not directly affect the patient.

Critical Thinking: A patient states, "I had a bad nightmare. When I woke up, I felt emotionally drained, as though I hadn't rested well." Which response by the nurse would be an example of interpersonal therapeutic communication? a. "It sounds as though you were uncomfortable with the content of your dream." b. "I understand what you're saying. Bad dreams leave me feeling tired, too." c. "So, all in all, you feel as though you had a rather poor night's sleep?" d. "Can you give me an example of what you mean by a 'bad nightmare'?"

ANS: D The technique of clarification is therapeutic and helps the nurse examine meaning. The distracters focus on patient feelings but fail to clarify the meaning of the patient's comment.

A nurse manager finds an unsigned note reporting that patient care standards are not consistently being followed. Within the organizational structure, what is the best action for the manager? a. Schedule a staff meeting to ask staff who left the note. b. Send an email reminder that all staff need to review the policy and procedure book. c. Wait for a staff member to come forward who is willing to be identified. d. Form a small group to explore why staff are not comfortable reporting errors.

ANS: D There are significant problems in an organization where staff are not willing to openly discuss problems, especially problems that affect patient care. A focus group can help identify what is preventing a sense of comfort to reveal problems. Scheduling a meeting is unlikely to have the person admit to complaining about care provided by coworkers in front of coworkers. A request to review policies and procedures is so broad the staff will not be able to identify a specific problem that needs to be corrected. Unless organizational changes are made, it is unlikely that staff will decide to come forward when they would not do so in the first place.

The nurse is assisting a 79-year-old patient with information about diet and weight loss. The patient has a body mass index (BMI) of 31. How should the nurse instruct this patient? a. "Your weight is within normal limits. Continue maintaining with current lifestyle choices." b. "You are a little overweight. Cut down on calories and increase your activity, and you should be fine." c. "You are morbidly obese, and we would like to schedule you an appointment to speak with a bariatric specialist about surgery." d. "You are considered obese and will need to consult with your doctor about a plan that includes exercises, not diet, to decrease weight."

ANS: D This patient is at an increased risk for sarcopenia and should be instructed to increase activity that includes strength training to prevent muscle loss. Diet is not indicated. A BMI of 31 is considered obese; however, this patient does not qualify for surgical intervention until BMI reaches over 35.

Mrs. J, a 57-year-old woman, walks into the emergency department with complaints of "not feeling well." Her blood pressure is 145/95, pulse 85 beats/min, respirations 24 breaths/min, and blood sugar 300. Upon inspection, the nurse notices that Mrs. J has an open wound on the bottom of her foot, but the patient states she is not aware of this. The nurse interprets this response as a. normal in the older adult. b. a need for the patient to be evaluated for cognitive impairment. c. a side effect of anti-hypertensive medication. d. pathologic impairment of sensory responses.

ANS: D Though at 57 she is borderline for "older," this degree of sensory impairment at this age is not expected. Lack of sensation does not imply lack of knowledge, but rather decreased ability to perceive the stimuli. Anti-hypertensive medication does not typically cause decreased skin sensation. This is more common in antineoplastic drugs. Most likely Ms. J has diabetes, which is causing decreased sensation. The not feeling well is secondary to a change in blood sugar secondary to the wound response.

The nurse is caring for a 32-year-old woman diagnosed with schizophrenia. The woman tells the nurse, "The news on TV last night was all about me." This is an example of what kind of thought content? a. Thought insertion b. Thought broadcasting c. Magical thinking d. Ideas of reference

ANS: D Thought insertion is a belief that others are placing thoughts in one's mind. Thought broadcasting is a belief that others can read one's thoughts. Magical thinking is a belief that one's thoughts can make an event happen. Ideas of reference refers to a person's belief that external events, like the evening news, have a direct personal reference to oneself.

The nurse is doing discharge teaching on a patient who has peripheral vascular disease and has poor circulation to the feet. Which learning goal should the nurse include in the teaching plan? a. The nurse will demonstrate the proper technique for trimming toenails. b. The patient will understand the rationale for proper foot care after instruction. c. The nurse will instruct the patient on appropriate foot care before discharge. d. The patient will post reminder stickers on their calendar to check feet every day and record scheduled appointments with podiatrist.

ANS: D To improve the patient adherence to treatment, it will be important to help them develop reminder strategies that fit into their lifestyle. Options A and C describe actions that the nurse will take, rather than behaviors that indicate that patient learning has occurred. Option B is too vague and nonspecific to measure whether learning has occurred.

A patient has been admitted to an acute care hospital unit. The nurse explains the hospital philosophy that the patient be an active part of planning their care. The patient verbalizes understanding of this request when they make which statement? a. "I will have to do whatever the physician says I need to do." b. "Once a plan is developed, it cannot be changed." c. "My insurance will not pay if I don't do what you want me to do." d. "We can work together to adjust my plan as we need to."

ANS: D Treatment plans need to be developed, evaluated, and adapted as needed based on the patient status and willingness to complete the prescribed care. Stating that the patient has to do whatever the care provider prescribes does not include the principle of collaboration. Care plans can be altered based on patient status. Insurance providers do not determine a patient's ability to complete prescribed care, although they do reimburse for standard care given.

The patient is receiving tube feedings due to a jaw surgery. What change in assessment findings should prompt the nurse to request an order for serum sodium concentration? a. Development of ankle or sacral edema b. Increased skin tenting and dry mouth c. Postural hypotension and tachycardia d. Decreased level of consciousness

ANS: D Tube feedings pose a risk for hypernatremia unless adequate water is administered between tube feedings. Hypernatremia causes the level of consciousness to decrease. The serum sodium concentration is a laboratory measure for osmolality imbalances, not ECV imbalances. Edema is a sign of ECV excess, not hypernatremia. Skin tenting, dry mouth, postural hypotension, and tachycardia all can be signs of ECV deficit.

The nurse manager of a medical/surgical unit wants to increase the use of health care technology on the unit and is working with an ANA-certified informatics nurse to reduce barriers to health information exchange, including a. basic informatics knowledge and skills. b. offering the best set of tools. c. privacy and security policies. d. unit-specific terminology.

ANS: D Unit-specific terminology would be a barrier to sharing health information because there could be confusion about terms. Standardized terminology within the electronic health record is critical for communicating care to the interprofessional team and exchanging health information. Competency in informatics including basic informatics knowledge and skills could facilitate the use of informatics; lack of competency could be a barrier. Offering the best set of tools could promote the ease of data entry and access. Privacy and security policies reduce legal and ethical concerns about sharing data, thus reducing barriers to health information exchange.

The nurse in a newly opened community health clinic is developing a program for the individuals considered at greatest risk for poor health outcomes. The group is considered the a. global community. b. sedentary society. c. unmotivated population. d. vulnerable populations.

ANS: D Vulnerable populations refers to groups of individuals who are at greatest risk for poor health outcomes. The entire world is the global community. Sedentary refers to the lifestyles of people worldwide who have epidemic rates of obesity and many other related chronic diseases. Unmotivated population refers to the individuals who have not demonstrated interest in changing.

To help decrease the threat of a melanoma in a blonde-haired, fair-skinned patient at risk, the nurse would advise the patient to do which of the following? a. Apply sunscreen 1 hour prior to exposure. b. Drink plenty of water to prevent hot skin. c. Use vitamins to help prevent sunburn by replacing lost nutrients. d. Apply sunscreen 30 minutes prior to exposure.

ANS: D Wearing sunglasses and sunscreen are recommended by the National Cancer Institute. Drinking water will help with heat exhaustion but will not prevent melanoma. Green tea, fish oil, soy products, and vitamin E are thought to be helpful in minimizing the risk of developing melanoma; however, vitamins do not prevent burn.

Primary strategies are those that are implemented in order to avoid the development of disease. These strategies can be either population-based or individually-based. As a school nurse, you are developing a curriculum for a junior human sexuality class. In order to provide the most up-to-date information, you are aware that the single most effective primary prevention strategy for preventing sexually transmitted diseases is a. a vaccine to prevent HPV infection. b. HIV screening. c. education directed at high-risk behaviors. d. the male condom.

ANS: D When used correctly, the male condom continues to be the single most effective method for preventing sexually transmitted diseases as well as being a very highly effective contraceptive agent. A significant primary prevention strategy is the recent introduction of a vaccine used to prevent cervical cancer and genital warts caused by HPV. One of two FDA-approved vaccines should be routinely administered to 11- and 12-year-old girls and can be given up to the age of 26. HIV screening is recommended for all sexually active teens by the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention. Screening for existing disease is a secondary prevention strategy. By educating teens towards behavior change related to high-risk behaviors, nurses may be able to reduce the risk for contracting sexually transmitted infections.

The ANA outlines expectations of the nursing profession in the a. Gallup poll. b. Goldman report. c. Social Policy Statement. d. social identity theory.

The ANA's Nursing's Social Policy Statement outlines expectations of nurses. The national Gallup poll has found nursing to be one of the most trusted professions for their honesty and ethical standards almost every year, but it does not outline expectations. Emma Goldman was a radical anarchist nurse who advocated and cared for indigent women in New York. She demonstrated the expectations of a professional nurse. Social identity theory posits that social identity is derived from group membership and that most people work to attain a positive social identity, and it not specific to nursing.

To prevent Wernicke's encephalopathy from heavy alcohol use, the nurse anticipates an order for which medications? a. Benzodiazepine b. Thiamine and B complex IV c. Vitamins C and D3 d. Klonopin

The B vitamins will prevent or reverse Wernicke's if given early enough. Benzodiazepines are often used to prevent and treat DTs and to decrease respiratory depression and hypertension. Vitamins C and D3 are not related to alcohol withdrawal. Klonopin is administered for hypertension and anxiety related to withdrawal.

The nurse and physician are explaining the home care that will be needed by a patient after discharge. The patient's spouse states angrily that it will not be possible to provide the care recommended. What is the best response by the nurse? a. "Let me review what is needed again." b. "It is important that you do what the physician has prescribed." c. "What concerns do you have about the prescribed care?" d. "I can come back after you talk with your spouse about the care."

The patient needs to be the focus of developing care plans, and communication is an important part of collaboration with the patient to discover barriers for the patient to follow recommendations. It is important to either provide solutions to the barriers or present other options. Reviewing the care again does not demonstrate willingness to have the patient be part of the team. Insisting that the patient do what is prescribed is autocratic and does not recognize the role the patient has in their care. Leaving the patient and spouse with the situation unresolved fosters distrust and more anger.