Hazmat
What is the flash point of gasoline? A) -43°F (-41°C) B) -23°F (-30°C) C) 10°F (-12°C) D) 23°F (-5°C)
A) -43°F (-41°C)
The duration of a TLV/STEL exposure is _____ minutes. A) 15 B) 30 C) 60 D) 90
A) 15
Which is a correct statement about emergency decontamination? A) It may be necessary to perform emergency decontamination without adequate control of runoff. B) Emergency decontamination is a rapid trip through the decontamination corridor. C) Emergency decontamination should not be performed where it will cause damage to the environment. D) Emergency decontamination should be thorough enough to remove all contaminants.
A) It may be necessary to perform emergency decontamination without adequate control of runoff
What is the minimum number of personnel for a hot zone entry team? A) 2 B) 3 C) 4 D) 5
A- 2
Which is the best reference to use for a hazardous materials transportation vehicle identified by a placard? A) Emergency Response Guidebook B) DOT Index of Registered Chemicals C) EPA spill management guide D) Chemical Abstract Service registry
A- ERG
Which marking system complies with the OSHA Hazard Communication Standard? A) Hazardous Materials Information System B) NFPA 704 C) Material safety data sheet D) DOT placard
A- Hazardous Materials Information System
Which form of decontamination typically involves the use of brushes? A) Technical B) Primary C) Secondary D) Gross
A- Technical
Which group within the NFPA produces the hazardous materials response standards? A) Technical Committee on Hazardous Materials Response Personnel B) Special Task Force on Hazardous Materials Substances, Responses, and Disposal C) Scientific and Technical Committee for Field Applications D) Study Group on the Integration of Applicable Hazardous Materials Regulations
A- Technical Committee on Hazardous Materials Response Personnel
In which type of decontamination is sawdust typically used? A) Absorption B) Adsorption C) Solidification D) Dilution
A- absorption
Which form of decontamination is effective only on flat surfaces? A) Absorption B) Dilution C) Disinfection D) Irrigation
A- absorption
Which material is commonly used for large-volume nonpressurized horizontal storage tank shells? A) Aluminum B) Polyethylene C) Manganese D) Carbon composite
A- aluminum
Which of the following is an identifying characteristic of an intermodal tank? A) A box-like steel frame B) Multiple full-length tank tubes C) An elliptical tank cross-section D) A sloping tank bottom
A- box-like steel frame
Which sort of change is combustion? A) Chemical B) Physical C) Endothermic D) Hypergolic
A- chemical
What is meant by "special populations"? A) Children or elderly B) Exposed citizens C) Exposed responders D) The responsible party
A- children or elderly
Which of the following actions is permitted for operations-level hazardous materials responders? A) Closing a remote valve B) Product transfer C) Overpackaging D) Rescue
A- closing a remote valve
Removal is a decontamination technique used for which material? A) Contaminated soil B) Animal carcasses C) Intact containers D) Any noncorrosive solid
A- contaminated soil
A contaminated victim coming into physical contact with a rescuer is an example of ________. A) cross-contamination B) contamination C) exposure D) infection
A- cross contamination
Which type of agent prevents the body from using oxygen? A) Cyanide compound B) Irritant C) Choking D) Nerve agent
A- cyanide compound
What is the term for the physical destruction or decomposition of clothing due to chemical exposure, general use, or ambient conditions? A) Degradation B) Corrosion C) Decomposition D) Deterioration
A- degradation
What is the term for the placement of impervious materials to form a barrier so as to limit the spread of a liquid hazardous material? A) Diking B) Damming C) Retaining D) Diverting
A- diking
Which control measure is often used with vapors? A) Dispersion B) Adsorption C) Dilution D) Diffusion
A- dispersion
Hazardous materials operations-level responders should perform only those actions that __________. A) do not involve contact with the material B) can be safely performed without the use of chemical-protective clothing C) do not require special training D) will not require decontamination
A- do not involve contact with the material
Which issue is of particular concern for a toxic release in a heavily populated area? A) Early planning for evacuation B) Aggressive containment tactics C) Minimizing environmental damage D) Rapid remediation and recovery
A- early planning for evacuation
Which of the following is an exposure protection tactic? A) Evacuation B) Isolation C) Establishment of control zones D) Decontamination
A- evacuation
What should be the primary focus when preplanning for hazardous materials incidents? A) Existing threats in the area B) History of past incidents C) The most vulnerable exposures D) Likely terrorist targets
A- existing threats in the area
Which factor favors the selection of shelter-in-place as a protective action? A) Fast-moving airborne contaminant B) Highly toxic release C) Explosive vapors D) Older, poorly maintained structures
A- fast-moving airborne contaminant
Which statement about the use of structural firefighting PPE at a hazardous materials incident is correct? A) It offers some chemical protection. B) It prevents direct skin contact. C) It provides protection against vapors. D) The shell resists absorption.
A- it offers some chemical protection
A high-pressure intermodal tank is commonly used to transport __________. A) liquefied gases B) cryogenic liquids C) flammable liquids D) corrosives
A- liquefied gases
What is commonly used to determine the pH of a hazardous material? A) Litmus paper B) Colorimetric indicator tubes C) Reagent solutions D) Ionizing test strip
A- litmus paper
HEPA filter efficiency is measured in units of __________. A) microns B) nanometers C) picometers D) ells
A- microns
Twitching is a hallmark of exposure to which type of agent? A) Nerve B) Blister C) Cyanide compound D) Choking
A- nerve
What is the minimum level of hazardous materials training for a hazardous materials officer? A) Operations B) Awareness C) Specialist D) Technician
A- operations
What does the "P" stand for in the acronym PEL? A) Permissible B) Potential C) Protective D) Preventable
A- permissable (permissable exposure limit)
What is the first priority at any hazardous material incident? A) Safety of fire fighters B) Rescue of victims C) Environmental protection D) Protection of exposed populations
A- safety of firefighters
Which personnel level receives more specialized hazardous materials training than the Technician level? A) Specialist B) Operations C) Technologist D) Expert
A- specialist
When a chemical change occurs, the event is usually accompanied by __________. A) the release of energy B) a physical change C) spattering or boiling D) the evolution of gas
A- the release of energy
During use of the shelter-in-place technique, the ventilation system should be __________. A) turned off B) set to recirculate C) set on "emergency" D) set to fresh air exchange
A- turned off
What is the term for shipping papers carried on railroad transportation? A) Waybill B) Freight bill C) Manifest D) Switch list
A- waybill
Which weather factor is the most important in a hazardous materials release? A) Wind direction B) Temperature C) Relative humidity D) Precipitation
A- wind direction
Which body part provides the fastest route of absorption? A) Fingers B) Scalp C) Eyes D) Ears
C- eyes
A motor vehicle accident causes a small gasoline spill. This is a Level _____ incident. A) I B) II C) III D) IV
B- 2
What is the minimum number of apparatus needed to perform mass decontamination? A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4
B- 2
What is the typical maximum pressure reading for a standard oxygen cylinder used in the medical field? A) 1000 psi (6900 kPa) B) 2000 psi (13,800 kPa) C) 3000 psi (20,700 kPa) D) 4000 psi (27,580 kPa)
B- 2000 psi (13,800 kPa)
The specific identity of a hazardous material should be confirmed by consulting a minimum of _____ sources. A) 2 B) 3 C) 4 D) 5
B- 3
For which situation is shelter-in-place the best option? A) When the majority of the exposed population are outdoors B) At an exposed healthcare facility C) When toxic release is probable but has not yet occurred D) With a slow-spreading toxic plume
B- At an exposed healthcare facility
Which federal agency enforces and publicizes laws and regulations governing transportation of hazardous materials? A) Environmental Protection Agency B) Department of Transportation C) Interstate Commerce Commission D) Department of Energy
B- DOT
By which acronym are the federal regulations detailing hazardous materials response competencies collectively known? A) HAZEL B) HAZWOPER C) SARA D) HSC/HHC
B- HAZWOPER (stands for Hazardous Waste Operations and Emergency Response)
What does the NFPA 704 marking system address? A) Initial actions at a material release B) Hazardous materials at fixed facilities C) Compliance with the Hazard Communication Standard D) Hazardous materials transportation
B- Hazardous materials at fixed facilities
What is OSHA terminology for a contaminated atmosphere that poses a severe threat to health? A) Ceiling level B) Immediately dangerous to life and health C) Short-term exposure limit D) Maximum exposure limit
B- IDLH
Which EPA level of chemical-protective clothing provides a high level of respiratory protection, but less skin protection? A) A B) B C) C D) D
B- Level B
The process in which one material soaks up another material like a sponge is termed _________. A) imbibition B) absorption C) adsorption D) retention
B- absorption
Compared to other types of incidents to which first responders are commonly called, hazardous material incidents typically ___________. A) are shorter in duration B) are more complicated C) produce a higher rate of false alarms D) result in more injuries
B- are more complicated
A responder grabs a tool that was used to handle a hazardous material. This is an example of __________. A) exposure B) cross-contamination C) indirect contamination D) secondary exposure
B- cross contamination
Which of the following occupies the warm zone? A) Command post B) Decontamination corridor C) Triage area D) Safe refuge area
B- decontamination corridor
Which form of decontamination usually consists of rapid removal of clothing and flushing with a hose line? A) Technical B) Emergency C) Primary D) Mass
B- emergency
Which item must be included on a pipeline warning sign? A) UN ID number B) Emergency contact number C) ERG guide number D) Signal word
B- emergency contact number
Which chemical-protective clothing is a single-piece garment that totally encloses the wearer? A) Splash suit B) Encapsulating suit C) Proximity suit D) Level D ensemble
B- encapsulating suit
According to the NFPA, what is defined as a material capable of posing an unreasonable risk to health, safety, or the environment? A) Contaminant B) Hazard C) Dangerous good D) Exposure
B- hazard
In the blue and yellow sections of the Emergency Response Guidebook (ERG), materials with a toxic inhalation hazard (TIH) are __________. A) underlined B) highlighted C) italicized D) in bold print
B- highlighted
In perfect circumstances, evacuation of residents is likely to take __________. A) minutes B) hours C) days D) weeks
B- hours
Which statement about solidification of a hazardous liquid is correct? A) It neutralizes the chemical properties of the liquid. B) It makes the material easier to handle. C) It simplifies the disposal process. D) In most cases it is an exothermic process.
B- it makes the material easier to handle
What is the primary concern at a hazardous materials incident? A) Confining the release B) Life safety C) Avoiding contamination D) Environmental protection
B- life safety
The time of onset for symptoms from the chemical agents used by terrorists is ________. A) seconds B) minutes to hours C) days D) weeks
B- minutes to hours
The DOT definition of hazardous materials focuses on those materials that are __________. A) intrinsically harmful B) not properly controlled C) transported in bulk D) in the process of transport
B- not properly controlled
Which of the following actions is reserved for technician-level hazardous materials responders? A) Decontamination B) Offensive C) Containment D) Defensive
B- offensive
Which information is critical for proper selection of PPE? A) Decontamination options B) Physical and chemical properties C) Proximity to contaminant D) Confinement method
B- physical and chemical properties
Which course of action is appropriate when a spilled material cannot be identified? A) Cover the material and await the arrival of additional resources B) Take conservative defensive measures C) Proceed as you would for a known substance D) Use dispersal/dilution tactics
B- take conservative defensive measures
Which of the following is considered a "dry" foam? A) AFFF B) Fluoroprotein foam C) Protein foam D) High-expansion foam
D- high-expansion foam
In general, which factor has the most influence on the actions taken at a hazardous materials incident? A) The initial actions of first responders B) The properties of the specific chemicals involved C) Fixed facility versus transportation accident D) Weather conditions
B- the properties of the specific chemicals involved
What does the "W" stand for in the acronym TLV/TWA? A) Warning B) Weighted C) Weapon D) Water
B- weighted (threshold limit value/time weighted average)
In the NFPA 704 marking system, which color indicates reactivity? A) Orange B) Yellow C) Red D) Green
B- yellow
Which section of the Emergency Response Guidebook (ERG) lists chemicals by their UN identification numbers? A) Green B) Yellow C) Blue D) Orange
B- yellow
What is the vapor density of air? A) 14.7 B) 7 C) 1 D) 0
C- 1
Which NFPA standard deals with various aspects of hazardous materials emergency response? A) 1901 B) 1002 C) 473 D) 10
C- 473 (Competencies for Emergency Medical Services Personnel Responding to Hazardous Materials/Weapons of Mass Destruction Incidents)
Approximately how many chemicals are registered for commercial use in the United States? A) 10,000 B) 25,000 C) 80,000 D) 200,000
C- 80,000
Which material is commonly used in the construction of encapsulating suits? A) Nomex® B) Nylon C) Butyl rubber D) PBI
C- Butyl rubber
Which cargo is carried by a highway tanker that has a smaller-diameter tank with several reinforcing rings around the circumference? A) Paving materials B) Nonportable water C) Corrosives D) Flammable liquids
C- Corrosives`
Are above-ground storage tanks pressurized or nonpressurized? A) Pressurized only B) Nonpressurized only C) Either D) Neither
C- Either
For which EPA level of chemical-protective clothing is the use of an APR permissible? A) A B) B C) C D) D
C- Level C
Which mnemonic helps fire fighters remember the seven categories of harm that can be caused by terrorism agents or other hazardous materials? A) WAFFLES B) PANOPRY C) TRACEMP D) CALLUPP
C- TRACEMP (thermal, radiation, asphyxiant, chemical, etiologic, mechanical, psychogenic)
Which of the following is the most toxic nerve agent? A) Sarin B) Soman C) VX D) Tabun
C- VX (human-made chemical warfare agent. It's yellowish, odorless and tasteless liquid that disrupts the body's nervous system to lethal effect. 10mg is enough to kill a person through skin contact although it can also kill through inhalation
When is technical decontamination performed relative to gross decontamination? A) At the same time B) Before C) After D) Either before or after is acceptable
C- after
What is the temperature at which a liquid continuously gives off vapors? A) Evaporation point B) Flash point C) Boiling point D) Fire point
C- boiling point
Absorption is a difficult technique for operations-level responders at a hazardous materials incident to implement because __________. A) absorbent materials require special handling B) large volumes of the absorbent are required C) close proximity to the hazardous material is required D) the absorption reaction is usually exothermic
C- close proximity to the hazardous material is required
Which control zone is referred to as the safe zone? A) Hot zone B) Warm zone C) Cold zone D) Free zone
C- cold zone
Taking steps to stop fluid from leaking from a tank is an example of which tactic? A) Confinement B) Mitigation C) Containment D) Control
C- containment
Which toxic chemical is produced by the burning of wood? A) Copper chlorate B) Organic peroxide C) Cyanide D) Acetic acid
C- cyanide
What is the most reliable way to determine how far to extend actual evacuation distances? A) Consultation with allied professionals B) ERG table of protective action distances C) Detection equipment D) Aerial photography
C- detection equipment
When are personnel working in impermeable chemical-protective clothing the most vulnerable to hypothermia? A) While donning the ensemble B) During exertion C) During the decontamination process D) While in rehabilitation
C- during the decontamination process
Which term means the volume increase that occurs when a liquid material changes to a gas? A) Coefficient of vaporization B) Evaporation rate C) Expansion ratio D) Evaporation volume
C- expansion ratio
What is most commonly contained in large, above-ground, horizontal storage tanks? A) Compressed gas B) Corrosive liquid C) Flammable or combustible liquids D) Liquid foodstuffs
C- flammable or combustible liquids
Which type of agent is also known as a riot-control agent? A) Deterrent B) Choking C) Irritant D) Smothering
C- irritant
Which term best describes the level of protection that structural firefighting PPE provides at a hazardous materials incident? A) None B) Minimal C) Limited D) Good
C- limited
Which class of protective clothing is limited to protecting the skin and eyes from chemical splashes? A) Chemical proximity B) Vapor-protective C) Liquid splash-protective D) Structural PPE with eye protection
C- liquid splash-protective
In which type of decontamination does the contaminant adhere to the surface of an added material? A) Absorption B) Adsorption C) Neutralization D) Solidification
C- neutralization
Which protective action is an operations-level responder permitted to take? A) Overpackaging B) Product transfer C) Operating a remote valve D) None of the above
C- operating a remote valve
What is the minimum level of hazardous materials training required to take defensive actions? A) Awareness B) Technician C) Operations D) Specialist
C- operations
Which detection instrument is used to monitor corrosive substances? A) Photoelectric ionizer B) Geiger C) pH meter D) Four-gas monitor
C- pH meter
There is a high risk of environment damage if a fire involving __________ is extinguished. A) explosives B) flammable gas C) pesticides D) oxidizers
C- pesticides
Ideally, when should response to a hazardous materials incident begin? A) Upon receipt of the alarm B) After identifying the materials involved C) During preincident planning D) Upon arrival at the scene
C- preincident planning
What is the first major heading on an MSDS (Material Safety Data Sheet)? A) Hazards Identification B) Safe Handling Guidelines C) Product Identification D) Composition
C- product identification
Which particle has a positive charge? A) Electron B) Photon C) Proton D) Neutron
C- proton
The systematic and thorough removal of contaminants is called __________ decontamination. A) primary B) secondary C) technical D) comprehensive
C- technical
What is a drawback to emulsifying (break down into smaller particles) a hazardous material? A) The process can be exothermic B) The process often increases clean-up costs C) The emulsification agents themselves may be hazardous D) The operation may create contaminated runoff
C- the emulsification agents themselves may be hazardous
Which factor is the most important when determining the level of PPE required for a hazardous materials incident? A) The size of the release B) The type of PPE available C) The physical state of the material D) The responders' experience with this material
C- the physical state of the material
What color is a DOT transportation placard for a poison? A) White upper half with black lower half B) Red C) White D) Orange
C- white
Why are flammable liquids with low boiling points dangerous? A) Ignition temperature is proportional to boiling point B) Such liquids react more readily with other substances C) Such liquids typically have a high vapor density D) Such liquids produce large volumes of flammable vapor at relatively low temperatures
D) Such liquids produce large volumes of flammable vapor at relatively low temperatures
Which section of the Emergency Response Guidebook (ERG) contains the guides? A) Green B) Yellow C) Blue D) Orange
D) orange
What is the maximum capacity of an intermodal tank? A) 1500 gallons (5700 L) B) 3000 gallons (11,350 L) C) 4500 gallons (17,000 L) D) 6000 gallons (22,700 L)
D- 6000 gallons (22,700 L)
Which free service can be accessed to connect fire fighters with chemical manufacturers, chemists, and other specialists during a chemical incident? A) National Response Center (NRC) B) Department of Transportation (DOT) C) Bureau of Explosives (BOE) D) CHEMTREC
D- CHEMTREC
What do Dewar containers hold? A) Foodstuffs B) Compressed gas C) Liquids for transport via air D) Cryogenic liquids
D- Cryogenic liquids
Which reference should responders consult first to determine protective action zones? A) The material data safety Sheet (MSDS) B) Spill modeling software C) A preincident plan D) Emergency Response Guide (ERG)
D- ERG
Which law requires businesses that handle chemicals to report the type, quantity, and storage methods for these chemicals to the local fire department? A) Local Emergency Planning Act B) Hazardous Waste Operations and Emergency Response Act C) Superfund Amendment and Reauthorization Act D) Emergency Planning and Community Right to Know Act
D- Emergency Planning and Community Right to Know Act
What is the term for the process by which people, animals, the environment, and equipment come into contact with a hazardous material? A) Contamination B) Absorption C) Contact D) Exposure
D- Exposure
Which of the following is an example of secondary contamination? A) Contamination by airborne vapors B) Contact with the material during a defensive operation C) Stepping in a contaminated liquid pool D) Handling a contaminated tool
D- Handling a contaminated tool
What is the appropriate agency to call upon discovery of a hazardous materials incident? A) National Fire Protection Association (NFPA) B) U.S. Fire Administration (USFA) C) Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) D) National Response Center (NRC)
D- National Response Center
What is the maximum concentration of a material that a person can be exposed to over a 40-hour workweek with no ill effects? A) TLV/STEL B) REL/W C) TLV/C D) TLV/TWA
D- TLV/TWA
Which resource is of particular value at a hazardous materials incident? A) American Red Cross B) FEMA field representatives C) Heavy equipment operators D) Technical specialists
D- Technical specialists
Which technique is commonly used for gross decontamination? A) Simple removal of clothing B) Three-step corridor C) Flush, strip, and flush D) A shower system
D- a shower system
Which statement about runoff during emergency decontamination is correct? A) Management of runoff should not be a consideration in emergency decontamination. B) Emergency decontamination methods do not produce runoff. C) Emergency decontamination should not proceed until measures for containment of runoff are taken. D) An effort should be made to divert runoff from drains, streams, or ponds.
D- an effort should be made to divert runoff from drains, streams, or ponds
Rusting steel is an example of __________ change. A) physical B) compositional C) morphological D) chemical
D- chemical
Defensive hazardous materials operations are those actions taken to _________. A) minimize the volume of the release B) control the incident perimeter and isolate the hazard C) prevent the situation from deteriorating D) contain the release from a safe distance
D- contain the release from a safe distance
Patching a breached container is an example of __________. A) retention B) repair C) confinement D) containment
D- containment
In general, which response objective is the highest level of risk that is permissible for operations-level responders? A) Offensive B) Containment C) Confinement D) Defensive
D- defensive
Skin contact with an alkaline material is most likely to cause __________. A) painless, weeping sores B) superficial burns C) a rapidly spreading rash D) dissolving skin tissue
D- dissolving skin tissue
For which situation is shelter-in-place the best option? A) When the exposed population is outdoors B) With a highly flammable release C) With a highly toxic cloud D) For a short-duration incident
D- for a short-duration incident
Which of the following is one of the four major categories of decontamination? A) Initial B) Precautionary C) Civilian D) Gross
D- gross
What does the blue section of the NFPA 704 marking system indicate? A) Flammability B) Reactivity C) Special symbols D) Health hazard
D- health hazard
What is the temperature at which a flammable liquid will ignite without any external ignition source? A) Fire point B) Flash point C) Lower explosive limit D) Ignition temperature
D- ignition temperature
How should evidence be decontaminated? A) It is not decontaminated B) Gross decontamination only C) Dry decontamination only D) In such a way to prevent any alteration of the evidence
D- in such a way to prevent any alteration of the evidence
Which statement about vapor-protective clothing is correct? A) It must be used with air-line-supplied SCBA. B) It is resistant to most chemicals. C) It can be worn by operations-level responders under some circumstances. D) It traps and retains the wearer's body heat.
D- it traps and retains the wearer's body heat
The bulk of the new chemicals introduced each year fall into one of three categories. Which of the following is one of them? A) Medicines B) Military products C) Paints and coatings D) Lawn care products
D- lawn care products
Why is controlling liquid spills difficult? A) Liquids evaporate before they can be recovered B) Liquid releases tend to be large C) Liquids generally are more hazardous than gases or solids D) A liquid takes the shape of its surroundings
D- liquid takes the shape of its surroundings
Which committee gathers and disseminates information about hazardous materials to the public? A) IAFC regional public education B) USFA public preparedness C) Insurance Services Office Loss Control D) Local emergency planning
D- local emergency planning
Which of these resources should be consulted first to determine the size of a hazardous materials incident? A) Chemical Abstracts Service release behavior model B) MSDS C) General Emergency Behavior Model (GEMBO) D) Preincident plan
D- preincident plan
What is the recommended treatment for heat exhaustion? A) Rapid cooling by any available means B) Prompt ALS transport to a medical facility C) Application of ice packs D) Rest and rehydration
D- rest and rehydration
How is absorbent most commonly applied to a hazardous materials spill? A) Broom B) Backpack pump C) Boom D) Shovel
D- shovel
What should be done if different references conflict in their recommendations regarding a particular hazardous material? A) Go with the recommendation that permits the greatest tactical flexibility B) Go with the recommendation that is the simplest to implement C) Take no action until an authoritative opinion is available D) Take the most conservative recommended course of action
D- take the most conservative recommended
Following mass decontamination, victims should be directed to the __________. A) treatment area B) accountability officer C) transportation unit D) triage area
D- triage area
What does the "W" stand for in the acronym HAZWOPER? A) Weapons B) Weather C) Wellness D) Waste
D- waste
