Hemo test2 and coag

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Specimen collected from an arm with a heparin lock or from a heparinized vascular access device (VAD). what do you do to correct this

Collect the blood from a vein rather than a VAD. If blood must be drawn from the VAD, flush it first with 5 mL of saline, and discard the first 5 mL of blood before collecting the specimen.

Which of the following may produce a falsely prolonged aPTT test result?

Collecting a specimen for aPTT testing from a heparinized vascular access device

The dilute Russell viper venom (dRVV) activated the coagulation cascade at factor X (FX), eliminating any interference in factors above the cascade. However the dRVV will be influenced by which of the following?

Deficiency of FV

increase in megakaryocytes, platelets

Essential thrombocytopenia

what is the most common type of acute myelogenous leukemia

FAB M2

which type of AML is often with DIC

Fab M3 (acute promyelocytic leukemia)

Bleeding in patients with lupus anticoagulants rarely occurs, but might be seen in patients with an inhibitor to which of the following factors?

Factor II

Which of these factors may be deficient if both the PT and aPTT are prolonged?

Factor II

In an elderly patient without any bleeding history, but has a prolonged aPTT and a normal PT, which of the following is the most common etiology?

Lupus inhibitor

All of the following activities are associated with platelets except

Lysis

Which of the following tests could be used to distinguish whether an abnormal screening coagulation test result (PT or aPTT) is caused by a factor deficiency or an inhibitor?.

Mixing Studies

Graded Question A pre-operative patient presents with a prolonged aPTT with a negative bleeding history. What test would be used in the next line of testing?

Mixing study

which age group has the highest WBC

Newborns

Cells show variation in morphology but no physiological impairment results from the variation.

Nonpathological

Which of the following statements is true regarding hyposegmented neutrophils?

Nucleus may be round, peanut-shaped or bilobed.

Cells show variations in morphology as a result of an abnormal response to a stimulus.

Pathological

Hyposegmented Polys normal function

Pegler-Huet

Patient has a hematocrit level above 55%. what corrective action should you take dealing with coag tubes

Prepare a specimen collection tube that contains less anticoagulant

This is a dry tap tear drop shape rbc, bone marrow fibrosis

Primary myelofibrosis

Warfarin therapy Liver disease Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) Vitamin K deficiency Liver conditions such as cirrhosis or hepatitis Inadequate level of Factors I, II, V, VII, and/or X

Prolonged PT

Presence of heparin Liver disease, other liver conditions Vitamin K deficiency Hemophilias DIC von Willebrand disease Lupus anticoagulant Inadequate levels of Factors I, II, V, VIII, IX, X, XI, and/or XII

Prolonged aPTT

Cells show variation in morphology as a normal body response to invasion by a bacteria or virus.

Reactive

Blood collection tube is inadequately filled. what is the corrective action

Recollect specimen ensuring proper fill to achieve a blood to anticoagulant ratio of 9:1.

type of myelodysplastics syndrome has blast with sideroblast <5%

Refractory anemia

You have just performed stat PT and aPTT tests on your coagulation instrument. Your results are as follows: PT = 12 seconds (normal range 10-13 seconds) aPTT = 24 seconds (normal range 21-34 seconds)

Report the results

Which of the following mechanisms involve a series of interrelated chemical processes that lead to the formation of durable fibrin strands?

Secondary Hemostasis

What are myelodysplastic syndromes (MDS)

Sometimes known as pre-leukaemia. Group of malignant disorders with dysplastic changes and ineffective haemotopoiesis. Often progress to AML. Variably affects any of the blood cell lines.

what are causes of monocytosis

TB, subacute bacterial endocarditis, and tissue destructions

The difference between the coagulation disorders Hemophilia A, and Hemophilia B, lies in:

The deficient factor, and the products used in treatment.

All of the following are activities associated with platelets except:

The degradation of fibrin strands during fibrinolytic processes.

The ultimate goal of secondary hemostasis is:

The formation of a fibrin clot.

A patient with a suspected LA is tested in the routine laboratory and has an aPTT of 31 sec (Ref. Range = 25-35 sec). The physician is not satisfied and requests the sample be sent to the special coagulation laboratory. The test is repeated in the special coagulation laboratory with a result of 39 sec. (Ref. Range = 25-35 sec). The reason that caused these different results can be attributed to which of the following?

The reagent in the special coagulation laboratory is more sensitive than the reagent in the routine laboratory.

When performing your mixing study, you aliquot your sample plasma and the pooled normal plasma to create your "mix". You then place the mix in a water bath to incubate for 90 minutes before testing your new mixed sample. What is the problem with the steps involved in the procedure above?

You have not run a PT or aPTT on the new mix before incubating

name several conditions that can cause neutrophilia

bacteria infection, inflammation, malignancy

Name several conditions that can cause neutrophilia

bacterial infections, inflammation, and malignancy

How does the WHO classify acute leukemia

based on cytogenetics, molecular genetics, and immunological markers

where is the marginating pool of neutrophils located

blood vessel walls

what is primary myelofibrosis

bone marrow filled with fibrous tissue

Platelet adhesion involves the absorption of this factor between receptors on the exposed subendothelial tissue, and by receptors on the platelets themselves?

von Willebrands factor

normal bone scan increase igm, increase serum viscosity. heavy chains

waldenstrom macroglobulinemia

when does a myelocyte become a meta myelocyte

when the nucleus becomes to indent

Not all antiphospholipid antibodies can be detected by a clotting assay. Additional testing by ELISA should be performed to detect anticardiolipin antibodies and what other antibody?

β2 GP1

What is (PT) Normal Range?

11-13 seconds

What is the ratio of patient plasma to pooled normal plasma that is usually used in the performance of a mixing study?

1:1

what is the apptt normal range

21-34

what is the normal reference range for WBC in adults

4.5-11.5x10(9)L

What is the MINIMUM percentage of each coagulation factor that must be present in a patient's plasma to produce a normal PT and aPTT test result?

40%

describe the blood picture in chronic lymphocytic leukemia

80-90% of small lymphocytes with hypercondensed nuclear chromatin smudge cells are common

what is the normal WBC in newborn

9.0-37.0x10(9)L

A 3.2% NaCitrated tube is recieved for LA testing. What is the required ratio of blood to anticoagulant?

9:1

Which of the following statements about anticoagulant therapy is false?

Heparin dosage is monitored by the clinician using the PT test.

this has reed Sternberg cell, stepwise predictable spread, bi-model incidence

Hodgkin lymphoma

What laboratory test result is commonly used to monitor oral anticoagulant therapy?

INR

Which of the following is considered one of the most common coagulation inhibitors?

Lupus anticoagulant (anti-phospholipid antibody)

what is contained in the granules of basophils

heparin, histamines, and inflammatory response

What is Pelger-Huet anomaly?

hyposegmented neutrophil, benign condition no shift to left

What is immunophenotyping?

identification of specific cell markers using labeled bodies

Niemann-Pick disease

sphingomyelinase deficiency results in macrophages that have sea blue-bubble appearance.

What are myeloproliferative neoplasms?

stem cell disorder characterized by increase in one or more myeloid cell lines

when are non specific esterase stains used

to I dentify cell of monocytic origins

why is further immunophenotyping important in ALL

to determine if the leukemia is a T or B cell

in acute leukemia, what is the first step in immunophenotyping

to differentiate AML and ALL

what is the myeloperoxidase stain used for

to differentiate acute myelogenous leukemia and acute lymphocytic leukemia

when is sudan black stain used

to differentiate aml and all

WBC abnormalities is a shift. What is the shift

to the left

What are Auer rods?

toxic granuels, seen in infection, inflammation, due to rapid cell maturation

what are dark blue granules in the cytoplasm of mature neutrophils called

toxic granulation

A thrombin time will detect heparin in a patient's plasma so that heparin does not produce a false-positive aPTT mixing study result. true or false

true

What are neoplasms?

unregulated growth of a single transformed cell

Patient is receiving heparin therapy. what is the corrective action

use a heparin digesting enzyme as a pretreatment before testing the PT or aPTT.

what conditions are associated with reactive lymphocytes

viral infections, mononucleosis

Of the following, which is the most common cause of a qualitative or functional platelet defect?

Aspirin effect

What may cause the following mixing studies results? Initial aPTT = 133 seconds 1:1 Mix aPTT pre-incubation = 33 seconds 1:1 Mix aPTT post-incubation = 124 seconds Please select the single best answer

A slow acting coagulation inhibitor

Which gene rearrangement is present in APL

A t(15;17)

We know that hemostatic events are triggered by a break in the inert epithelial lining of the vasculature, but what specific product(s) act as initiators?

ADP and Serotonin

ACQUIRED hemophilia A may be the result of which of the following conditions?

Anti-factor VIII inhibitor

Which of the following coagulation disorders can be attributed to a genetic platelet disorder, where giant platelets are commonly seen in the peripheral smear of an affected patient?

Bernard-Soulier Syndrome

All of the following are considered part of the routine evaluation that screens for coagulation abnormalities except:

Bethesda assay

Which of the following tests is used to quantify a coagulation inhibitor?

Bethesda assay

what are the 4 common MPNs

CML, PV, essential thrombocythemia, and primary myelofibrosis

The lupus inhibitor...

Causes prolongation of the aPTT

Which of the following coagulation factor(s) are found only in the extrinsic pathway.

Factor VII

Which of the following factors is not involved in the intrinsic pathway?

Factor VII

Mixing studies may help to determine the presence of which of the following

Factor deficiencies that prolong a PT and/or aPTT test result Coagulation inhibitors that prolong a PT and/or aPTT test result

All of the following processes occur during primary hemostasis except:

Fibrin strands are added to the newly formed clot.

The term that describes the process by which fibrin strands are broken down, then removed from an established clot is:

Fibrinolysis

this leukemia is TRAP positive, pancytopenia, splenomegaly

Hairy cell leukemia

What may prevent the detection of lupus anticoagulant in a plasma sample if the blood used for testing is not centrifuged for a sufficient time?

Increased platelets in the plasma sample

Which coagulation pathway is initiated when collagen is exposed, and involves the substances HMWK, Fletcher Factor, and Hageman Factor?

Intrinsic Pathway

The organ associated with the production of the vast majority of clotting factors is the:

Liver

Which of the following statements regarding hemophilia A is true?

The severity of the disease (bleeding) is related to the degree of deficiency

Which of the following statement is correct about the INR?

To calculate the INR, one needs to know the ISI, the PT of the patient, and the PT of the normal pooled plasma

Which of the following best represents the quantity of resultant bleed in order of smallest bleed to largest. (Assuming identical trauma)

Venuole -> Vein -> Artery

what is the typical WBC count in AML

WBC count is highest in M4

What is a leukamoid reaction?

a high WBC shift to the left due to infectious or inflammatory

Which of the following laboratory tests of hemostatic function is a screening test used to assess the functionality of both the intrinsic and common pathways?

aPTT

what is the major difference of acute and chronic leukemia

acute death is within months and deals with thrombocytopenia and anemia. Chronic may be years before diagnosis thrombocytopenia is rare and only adults

which is the most common leukemia in children

acute lymphoblastic anemia

cytochemical stains were ordered on the blood of a patient with acute leukemia. The results were myeloperoxidase positive, sudan black positive, napthol AS-D chloroacetate esterase positive alpha-napthyl acetate esterase negative. whi is the leukemia

acute myelogenous leukemia

the presence of aure rods and a positive myeloperoxidase stain are associated with which type of leukemia

acute myelogenous leukemia

this white cell disease has a large azurophilic granules what is the white cell disease

alder-reilly

what are the major groups of Fab

aml m0 to m7 and ALL is L1-L3

pre cursor b-cell are

cd 10, 19, 22, 24

Precursor T-cell ALL

cd 2, 4, 5, 8,

Large lysosomes, albinism, and an increased susceptibility to infection is indicative of what?

chediak-higashi

when does a band become a segmented neutrophil

chromatin connects the nuclear lobes

what is the type of leukemia in the elderly

chronic lymphocytic leukemia

this leukemia has mature lymphocytes , soccer ball nucleus

chronic lymphoid leukemia

increase myelocytic precursor from blast to mature neutrophil decrease Philadelphia chromosomes. what leukemia is this

chronic myelogenous leukemia

what are the conditions associated with absolute lymphocytosis

cmv, whooping cough toxoplasmosis

what are some causes of neutropenia

cytotoxic drugs, leukemia, vitamin b12 or folate deficiency

what are reactive atypical lymphocytes

differentiated T-cells responding to an antigen stimulus

what is terminal deoxynucleotidyl transferase

enzyme marker for primitive lymphoid cells

Having platelet poor plasma when testing for LA is important because platelets are a source of phospholipids and their presence will react with reagents resulting in a prolonged aPTT.

false

Which of the following would be acceptable as the "normal" plasma reagent to use in a mixing study?

for got the answer

which cell is not inhibited by tartaric acid 2

hair cell leukemia 2 Trap

at what stage do secondary granules first appear during granulocytes maturation

in the myelocyte

What is polycythemia vera?

increase production of RBC, granulocytes , platelets

what is essential thrombocythemia

increased production of platelets which leads to bleeding

when does a metamyelocyte become a band

indentation is half the diameter of the round nuclues

What is Waldenstrom Macroglobulinemia?

is a lymphocyte plasma cell proliferation disorder, high levels of IgM. high viscosity, rouleaux cryoglobulins are detected

what is the difference between leukemia and lymphoma

leukemia deals with unregulated proliferation of hematopoietic stem cells,. Lymphomas are malignant neoplasms of lymphoid cells in lymphatic tissue

What are F cells

leukemic promyelocytes in APL that bundles of Auer rods

what is the predominant WBC from 2 weeks to 4 years of age

lymphocytes

what are the hematologic findings in multiple myeloma

lymphocytosis and anemia is present. rouleaux Esr increased

what is the purpose of the diluent used when counting WBC in a hemacytometer

lyse the rbc , 2% acetic acid

what is the name of a tissue basophil

mast cell

large platelets low number , dohle bodies in seg, mono, lymphs, but does not affect leukocyte function what white cell disease is this

may-hegglin

which leukocytes are phagocytic

mono, neutrophils, eosinophils, basophils

this cell is 12-18 microns in diameter. The cytoplasm is voluminous, gray-blue, and filled with tiny pink granules and vacuoles. The nucleus is irregular in shape and convoluted.

monocyte

which is the largets wbc on a peripheral blood smear

monocytes

What are mononuclear cells?

monocytes and lymphocytes

what is hypersegmentation and what is its significances

more than 5 lobes, megaloblastic anemia

Name in order , the stages of development in the granulocytic series

myeloblast , promyelocyte, metamyelocyte, band, seg, neutrophil

neoplastic, clonal, stem cell disorders characterized by cytopenias what syndrome is this

myelodysplastic syndromes

If CD13, CD33, CD34 are found on cells from a patient with acute leukemia, what is the cell lineage

myeloid

meoplastic, clonal disorders, characterized by increases in the red cells, WBC and platelets

myeloproliferative neoplasm

what is the predominant WBC in adults

neutrophils

acute leukemia characteristics is microcytic, normocytic, macrocytic which one is it

normocytic, normochromic

why are plasma cell not seen on peripheral smear

not normally seen , may seen few in infection and multiple myeloma

this cell is round and 10-28 microns in diameter. The cytoplasm is deep blue and nongranular. The eccentric nucleus contains blocks of chromatin in a cartwheel configuration and is surrounded by a particular clear zone

plasma cell

this leukemia has 20% plasma cells in peripheral circulation

plasma cell leukemia

this myeloma gives you bone pain, sheets of plasma cells, rouleaux, and urinary secretion of bence jones protein.

plasma cell myeloma

this deals with janus kinase 2 mutations

polycythemia vera

what is the difference between primary and secondary granules

primary is non specific also known as azurophilic secondary deals with more specific contain lysozymes(neutro, lyso, eos)

Specimen is clotted. what corrective action do you take for coag

recollect

What are Dohle bodies?

remnants of RNA, pale blue inclusions

How is BCR/ABL1 dectected

reverse transcriptase polymerase chain reaction(RT-PCR

what is regenerative shift to the left

shift to left with high WBC count


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