ICND1 100-105 wowzer
The command ip route 192.168.100.160 255.255.255.224 192.168.10.2 was issued on a router. No routing protocols or other static routes are configured on the router. Which statement is true about this command? A. The interface with IP address 192.168.10.2 is on this router. B. The command sets a gateway of last resort for the router. C. Packets that are destined for host 192.168.100.160 will be sent to 192.168.10.2. D. The command creates a static route for all IP traffic with the source address 192.168.100.160.
Answer: C Explanation: Explanation/Reference: 160 it's actually network address of /27 so any address within the range of 160 network will be sent to 192.168.10.2
What is the default administrative distance of the OSPF routing protocol? A. 90 B. 100 C. 110 D. 120 E. 130 F. 170
Answer: C Explanation: Explanation/Reference: Default Distance Value Table This table lists the administrative distance default values of the protocols that Cisco supports: If the administrative distance is 255, the router does not believe the source of that route and does not install the route in the routing table.
Which layer of the OSI model controls the reliability of communications between network devices using flow control, sequencing and acknowledgments? A. Physical B. Data-link C. Transport D. Network
Answer: C Explanation:
Which protocol uses a connection-oriented service to deliver files between end systems? A. TFTP B. DNS C. FTP D. SNMP E. RIP
Answer: C Explanation: FTP is an acronym for File Transfer Protocol. As the name suggests, FTP is used to transfer files between computers on a network. You can use FTP to exchange files between computer accounts, transfer files between an account and a desktop computer, or access online software archives
What must occur before a workstation can exchange HTTP packets with a web server? A. A UDP connection must be established between the workstation and its default gateway. B. A UDP connection must be established between the workstation and the web server. C. A TCP connection must be established between the workstation and its default gateway. D. A TCP connection must be established between the workstation and the web server. E. An ICMP connection must be established between the workstation and its default gateway. F. An ICMP connection must be established between the workstation and the web server.
Answer: D Explanation: HTTP uses TCP port 80. http://pentestlab.wordpress.com/2012/03/05/common-tcpip-ports/
What does the "Inside Global" address represent in the configuration of NAT? A. the summarized address for all of the internal subnetted addresses B. the MAC address of the router used by inside hosts to connect to the Internet C. a globally unique, private IP address assigned to a host on the inside network D. a registered address that represents an inside host to an outside network
Answer: D Explanation: Explanation/Reference: NAT: Local and Global Definitions http://www.cisco.com/en/US/tech/tk648/tk361/technologies_tech_note09186a0080094837.shtml Cisco defines these terms as: Inside local address—The IP address assigned to a host on the inside network. This is the address configured as a parameter of the computer OS or received via dynamic address allocation protocols such as DHCP. The address is likely not a legitimate IP address assigned by the Network Information Center (NIC) or service provider. Inside global address—A legitimate IP address assigned by the NIC or service provider that represents one or more inside local IP addresses to the outside world. Outside local address—The IP address of an outside host as it appears to the inside network. Not necessarily a legitimate address, it is allocated from an address space routable on the inside. Outside global address—The IP address assigned to a host on the outside network by the host owner. The address is allocated from a globally routable address or network space. These definitions still leave a lot to be interpreted. For this example, this document redefines these terms by first defining local address and global address. Keep in mind that the terms inside and outside are NAT definitions. Interfaces on a NAT router are defined as inside or outside with the NAT configuration commands, ip nat inside destination and ip nat outside source . Networks to which these interfaces connect can then be thought of as inside networks or outside networks, respectively. Local address—A local address is any address that appears on the inside portion of the network. Global address—A global address is any address that appears on the outside portion of the network.
How many bits are contained in each field of an IPv6 address? A. 24 B. 4 C. 8 D. 16
Answer: D Explanation: Explanation/Reference: http://www.cisco.com/en/US/technologies/tk648/tk872/ technologies_white_paper0900aecd8026003d.pdf One of the key advantages IPv6 brings is the exponentially larger address space. The following will outline the basic address architecture of IPv6. 128-bit-long addresses Represented in hexadecimal format: Uses CIDR principles: prefix/prefix length x:x:x:x:x:x:x:x, where x is a 16-bit hex field. The last 64 bits are used for the interface ID
How many simultaneous Telnet sessions does a Cisco router support by default? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 E. 5 F. 6
Answer: E
Which transport layer protocol provides best-effort delivery service with no acknowledgment receipt required? A. HTTP B. IP C. TCP D. Telnet E. UDP
Answer: E Explanation: UDP provides a connectionless datagram service that offers best-effort delivery, which means that UDP does not guarantee delivery or verify sequencing for any datagrams. A source host that needs reliable communication must use either TCP or a program that provides its own sequencing and acknowledgment services.
Which of the following IP addresses are valid Class B host addresses if a default Class B mask is in use? (Choose two.) A. 10.6.8.35 B. 133.6.5.4 C. 192.168.5.9 D. 127.0.0.1 E. 190.6.5.4
B. 133.6.5.4 E. 190.6.5.4
OSPF routing uses the concept of areas. What are the characteristics of OSPF areas? (Choose Three.) A. Each OSPF area requires a loopback interface to be configured. B. Areas may be assigned any number from 0 to 65535. C. Area 0 is called the backbone area. D. Hierarchical OSPF networks do not require multiple areas. E. Multiple OSPF areas must connect to area 0. F. Single area OSPF networks must be configured in area 1.
B. Areas may be assigned any number from 0 to 65535. C. Area 0 is called the backbone area. E. Multiple OSPF areas must connect to area 0.
Which two statements describe the operation of the CSMA/CD access method? (Choose two.) A. In a CSMA/CD collision domain, multiple stations can successfully transmit data simultaneously. B. In a CSMA/CD collision domain, stations must wait until the media is not in use before transmitting. C. The use of hubs to enlarge the size of collision domains is one way to improve the operation of the CSMA/CD access method. D. After a collision, the station that detected the collision has first priority to resend the lost data. E. After a collision, all stations run a random backoff algorithm. When the backoff delay period has expired, all stations have equal priority to transmit data. F. After a collision, all stations involved run an identical backoff algorithm and then synchronize with each other prior to transmitting data.
B. In a CSMA/CD collision domain, stations must wait until the media is not in use before transmitting. E. After a collision, all stations run a random backoff algorithm. When the backoff delay period has expired, all stations have equal priority to transmit data.
Which three statements are correct about RIP version 2? (Choose three) A. It uses broadcast for its routing updates. B. It supports authentication. C. It is a classless routing protocol. D. It has a lower default administrative distance then RIP version 1. E. It has the same maximum hop count as RIP version 1. F. It does not send the subnet mask any updates.
B. It supports authentication. C. It is a classless routing protocol. E. It has the same maximum hop count as RIP version 1.
Refer to the output of the corporate router routing table shown in the graphic. The corporate router receives an IP packet with a source IP address of 192.168.214.20 and a destination address of 192.168.22.3. What will the router do with this packet? A. It will encapsulate the packet as Frame Relay and forward it out interface Serial 0/0.117. B. It will discard the packet and send an ICMP Destination Unreachable message out interface FastEthernet 0/0. C. It will forward the packet out interface Serial 0/1 and send an ICMP Echo Reply message out interface serial 0/0.102. D. It will change the IP packet to an ARP frame and forward it out FastEthernet 0/0.
B. It will discard the packet and send an ICMP Destination Unreachable message out interface FastEthernet 0/0.
Refer to the exhibit. SwitchA receives the frame with the addressing shown. According to the command output also shown in the exhibit, how will SwitchA handle this frame? A. It will drop the frame. B. It will forward the frame out port Fa0/6 only. C. It will flood the frame out all ports. D. It will flood the frame out all ports except Fa0/3.
B. It will forward the frame out port Fa0/6 only.
Refer to the exhibit. Mary is sending an instant message to Robert. The message will be broken into a series of packets that will traverse all network devices. What addresses will populate these packets as they are forwarded from Router1 to Router2? A. Option A B. Option B C. Option C D. Option D E. Option E
B. Option B
What are two common TCP applications? (Choose two.) A. TFTP B. SMTP C. SNMP D. FTP E. DNS
B. SMTP D. FTP
Refer to the topology and switching table shown in the graphic. Host B sends a frame to Host C. What will the switch do with the frame? A. Drop the frame B. Send the frame out all ports except port 0/2 C. Return the frame to Host B D. Send an ARP request for Host C E. Send an ICMP Host Unreachable message to Host B F. Record the destination MAC address in the switching table and send the frame directly to Host C
B. Send the frame out all ports except port 0/2
Refer to the exhibit. PC1 pings PC2. What three things will CORE router do with the data that is received from PC1? (Choose three.) A. The data frames will be forwarded out interface FastEthernet0/1 of CORE router. B. The data frames will be forwarded out interface FastEthernet1/0 of CORE router. C. CORE router will replace the destination IP address of the packets with the IP address of PC2. D. CORE router will replace the MAC address of PC2 in the destination MAC address of the frames. E. CORE router will put the IP address of the forwarding FastEthernet interface in the place of the source IP address in the packets. F. CORE router will put the MAC address of the forwarding FastEthernet interface in the place of the source MAC address.
B. The data frames will be forwarded out interface FastEthernet1/0 of CORE router. D. CORE router will replace the MAC address of PC2 in the destination MAC address of the frames. F. CORE router will put the MAC address of the forwarding FastEthernet interface in the place of the source MAC address.
Some routers have been configured with default routes. What are some of the advantages of using default routes? (Choose two) A. They establish routes that will never go down. B. They keep routing tables small. C. They require a great deal of CPU power. D. They allow connectivity to remote networks that are not in the routing table E. They direct traffic from the internet into corporate networks.
B. They keep routing tables small. D. They allow connectivity to remote networks that are not in the routing table
What are two recommended ways of protecting network device configuration files from outside network security threats? (Choose two.) A. Allow unrestricted access to the console or VTY ports. B. Use a firewall to restrict access from the outside to the network devices. C. Always use Telnet to access the device command line because its data is automatically encrypted. D. Use SSH or another encrypted and authenticated transport to access device configurations. E. Prevent the loss of passwords by disabling password encryption.
B. Use a firewall to restrict access from the outside to the network devices. D. Use SSH or another encrypted and authenticated transport to access device configurations.
Which two options will help to solve the problem of a network that is suffering a broadcast storm? (Choose two.) A. a bridge B. a router C. a hub D. a Layer 3 switch E. an access point
B. a router D. a Layer 3 switch
What is the purpose of assigning an IP address to a switch? A. provides local hosts with a default gateway address B. allows remote management of the switch C. allows the switch to respond to ARP requests between two hosts D. ensures that hosts on the same LAN can communicate with each other
B. allows remote management of the switch
Which three approaches can be used while migrating from an IPv4 addressing scheme to an IPv6 scheme? (Choose three) A. static mapping of IPv4 address to IPv6 addresses B. configuring IPv4 tunnels between IPv6 islands C. use DHCPv6 to map IPv4 addresses to IPv6 addresses D. use proxying and translation (NAT-PT) to translate IPv6 packets into IPv4 packets E. configure IPv6 directly F. enable dual-stack routing
B. configuring IPv4 tunnels between IPv6 islands D. use proxying and translation (NAT-PT) to translate IPv6 packets into IPv4 packets F. enable dual-stack routing
A network administrator cannot connect to a remote router by using SSH. Part of the show interfaces command is shown. router#show interfaces Serial0/1/0 is up, line protocol is down At which OSI layer should the administrator begin troubleshooting? A. physical B. data link C. network D. transport
B. data link
destination MAC address. What will the switch do with the frame? A. drop the frame B. forward it out of all ports except the one that received it C. forward it out of all ports D. store it until it learns the correct port
B. forward it out of all ports except the one that received it
Which of the following is true regarding the configuration of SwitchA? A. only 5 simultaneous remote connections are possible B. remote connections using ssh will require a username and password C. only connections from the local network will be possible D. console access to SwitchA requires a password
B. remote connections using ssh will require a username and password
Which IOS command is used to initiate a login into a VTY port on a remote router? A. router# login B. router# telnet C. router# trace D. router# ping E. router(config)# line vty 0 5 F. router(config-line)# login
B. router# telnet
Which two commands will display the current IP address and basic Layer 1 and 2 status of an interface? (Choose two.) A. router#show version B. router#show ip interface C. router#show protocols D. router#show controllers E. router#show running-config
B. router#show ip interface C. router#show protocols
Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator made the entries that are shown and then saved the configuration. From a console connection, what password or password sequence is required for the administrator to access privileged mode on Router1? A. cisco B. sanfran C. sanjose D. either cisco or sanfran E. either cisco or sanjose F. sanjose and sanfran
B. sanfran
A router has learned three possible routes that could be used to reach a destination network. One route is from EIGRP and has a composite metric of 20514560. Another route is from OSPF with a metric of 782. The last is from RIPv2 and has a metric of 4. Which route or routes will the router install in the routing table? A. the OSPF route B. the EIGRP route C. the RIPv2 route D. all three routes E. the OSPF and RIPv2 routes
B. the EIGRP route
Refer to the exhibit. How many collision domains are shown? A. one B. two C. three D. four E. six F. twelve
B. two
What is the default administrative distance of OSPF? A. 90 B. 100 C. 110 D. 120
C. 110
What is the default administrative distance of the OSPF routing protocol? A. 90 B. 100 C. 110 D. 120 E. 130 F. 170
C. 110
What is the subnet address of 172.16.159.159/22? A. 172.16.0.0 B. 172.16.128.0 C. 172.16.156.0 D. 172.16.159.0 E. 172.16.159.128 F. 172.16.192.0
C. 172.16.156.0
Refer to the exhibit. Given the output for this command, if the router ID has not been manually set, what router ID will OSPF use for this router? A. 10.1.1.2 B. 10.154.154.1 C. 172.16.5.1 D. 192.168.5.3
C. 172.16.5.1
What is the subnet address for the IP address 172.19.20.23/28? A. 172.19.20.0 B. 172.19.20.15 C. 172.19.20.16 D. 172.19.20.20 E. 172.19.20.32
C. 172.19.20.16
Given an IP address of 192.168.1.42 255.255.255.248, what is the subnet address? A. 192.168.1.8/29 B. 192.168.1.32/27 C. 192.168.1.40/29 D. 192.168.1.16/28 E. 192.168.1.48/29
C. 192.168.1.40/29
What is the network address for the host with IP address 192.168.23.61/28? A. 192.168.23.0 B. 192.168.23.32 C. 192.168.23.48 D. 192.168.23.56 E. 192.168.23.60
C. 192.168.23.48
OSPF is configured using default classful addressing. With all routers and interfaces operational, how many networks will be in the routing table of R1 that are indicated to be learned by OSPF? A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 5 E. 6 F. 7
C. 4
Refer to the exhibit. A user cannot reach any web sites on the Internet, but others in the department are not having a problem. What is the most likely cause of the problem? A. IP routing is not enabled. B. The default gateway is not in the same subnet. C. A DNS server address is not reachable by the PC. D. A DHCP server address is not reachable by the PC. E. NAT has not been configured on the router that connects to the Internet.
C. A DNS server address is not reachable by the PC.
On a Cisco switch, which protocol determines if an attached VoIP phone is from Cisco or from another vendor? A. RTP B. TCP C. CDP D. UDP
C. CDP
Which two statements describe the process identifier that is used in the command to configure OSPF on a router? (Choose two.) Router(config)# router ospf 1 A. All OSPF routers in an area must have the same process ID. B. Only one process number can be used on the same router. C. Different process identifiers can be used to run multiple OSPF processes D. The process number can be any number from 1 to 65,535. E. Hello packets are sent to each neighbor to determine the processor identifier.
C. Different process identifiers can be used to run multiple OSPF processes D. The process number can be any number from 1 to 65,535.
Refer to the exhibit. If the hubs in the graphic were replaced by switches, what would be virtually eliminated? A. broadcast domains B. repeater domains C. Ethernet collisions D. signal amplification E. Ethernet broadcasts
C. Ethernet collisions
Which protocol uses a connection-oriented service to deliver files between end systems? A. TFTP B. DNS C. FTP D. SNMP E. RIP
C. FTP
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is troubleshooting a connectivity problem on the serial interfaces. The output from the show interfaces command on both routers shows that the serial interface is up, line protocol is down. Given the partial output for the show running-config in the exhibit, what is the most likely cause of this problem? A. The serial cable is bad. B. The MTU is incorrectly configured. C. The Layer 2 framing is misconfigured. D. The IP addresses are not in the same subnet.
C. The Layer 2 framing is misconfigured.
Refer to the exhibit. A network device needs to be installed in the place of the icon labeled Network Device to accommodate a leased line attachment to the Internet. Which network device and interface configuration meets the minimum requirements for this installation? A. a router with two Ethernet interfaces B. a switch with two Ethernet interfaces C. a router with one Ethernet and one serial interface D. a switch with one Ethernet and one serial interface E. a router with one Ethernet and one modem interface
C. a router with one Ethernet and one serial interface
The ip helper-address command does what? A. assigns an IP address to a host B. resolves an IP address from a DNS server C. relays a DHCP request across networks D. resolves an IP address overlapping issue
C. relays a DHCP request across networks
From which of the following attacks can Message Authentication Code (MAC) shield your network? A. DoS B. DDoS C. spoofing D. SYN floods
C. spoofing
How many bits are contained in each field of an IPv6 address? A. 24 B. 4 C. 8 D. 16
D. 16
Refer to the exhibit. The internetwork is using subnets of the address 192.168.1.0 with a subnet mask of 255.255.255.224. The routing protocol in use is RIP version 1. Which address could be assigned to the FastEthernet interface on RouterA? A. 192.168.1.31 B. 192.168.1.64 C. 192.168.1.127 D. 192.168.1.190 E. 192.168.1.192
D. 192.168.1.190
Which option is a valid IPv6 address? A. 2001:0000:130F::099a::12a B. 2002:7654:A1AD:61:81AF:CCC1 C. FEC0:ABCD:WXYZ:0067::2A4 D. 2004:1:25A4:886F::1
D. 2004:1:25A4:886F::1
Which statement is true? A. An IPv6 address is 64 bits long and is represented as hexadecimal characters. B. An IPv6 address is 32 bits long and is represented as decimal digits. C. An IPv6 address is 128 bits long and is represented as decimal digits. D. An IPv6 address is 128 bits long and is represented as hexadecimal characters.
D. An IPv6 address is 128 bits long and is represented as hexadecimal characters.
Refer to the exhibit. The output is from a router in a large enterprise. From the output, determine the role of the router. A. A Core router. B. The HQ Internet gateway router. C. The WAN router at the central site. D. Remote stub router at a remote site.
D. Remote stub router at a remote site.
What does a host on an Ethernet network do when it is creating a frame and it does not have the destination address? A. Drops the frame B. Sends out a Layer 3 broadcast message C. Sends a message to the router requesting the address D. Sends out an ARP request with the destination IP address
D. Sends out an ARP request with the destination IP address
A network administrator is troubleshooting the OSPF configuration of routers R1 and R2. The routers cannot establish an adjacency relationship on their common Ethernet link. The graphic shows the output of the show ip ospf interface e0 command for routers R1 and R2. Based on the information in the graphic, what is the cause of this problem? A. The OSPF area is not configured properly. B. The priority on R1 should be set higher. C. The cost on R1 should be set higher. D. The hello and dead timers are not configured properly. E. A backup designated router needs to be added to the network. F. The OSPF process ID numbers must match.
D. The hello and dead timers are not configured properly.
Refer to the exhibit. Why did the device return this message? A. The command requires additional options or parameters B. There is no show command that starts with ru. C. The command is being executed from the wrong router mode. D. There is more than one show command that starts with the letters ru.
D. There is more than one show command that starts with the letters ru.
Which command is used to display the collection of OSPF link states? A. show ip ospf link-state B. show ip ospf lsa database C. show ip ospf neighbors D. show ip ospf database
D. show ip ospf database
A workstation has just resolved a browser URL to the IP address of a server. What protocol will the workstation now use to determine the destination MAC address to be placed into frames directed toward the server? A. HTTP B. DNS C. DHCP D. RARP E. ARP
E. ARP
Which address type does a switch use to make selective forwarding decisions? A. Source IP address B. Destination IP address C. Source and destination IP address D. Source MAC address E. Destination MAC address
E. Destination MAC address
Refer to the exhibit. The DHCP settings have recently been changed on the DHCP server and the client is no longer able to reach network resources. What should be done to correct this situation? A. Verify that the DNS server address is correct in the DHCP pool. B. Ping the default gateway to populate the ARP cache. C. Use the tracert command on the DHCP client to first determine where the problem is located. D. Clear all DHCP leases on the router to prevent address conflicts. E. Issue the ipconfig command with the /release and /renew options in a command window.
E. Issue the ipconfig command with the /release and /renew options in a command window.
At which layer of the OSI model does the protocol that provides the information that is displayed by the show cdp neighbors command operate? A. application B. transport C. network D. physical E. data link
E. data link
Refer to the exhibit. Host A is sending a packet to Host B for the first time. What destination MAC address will Host A use in the ARP request? A. 192.168.0.1 B. 172.16.0.50 C. 00-17-94-61-18-b0 D. 00-19-d3-2d-c3-b2 E. ff-ff-ff-ff-ff-ff F. 255.255.255.255
E. ff-ff-ff-ff-ff-ff
Answer: A Explanation: Explanation/Reference: The Router ID (RID) is an IP address used to identify the router and is chosen using the following sequencE. + The highest IP address assigned to a loopback (logical) interface. + If a loopback interface is not defined, the highest IP address of all active router's physical interfaces will be chosen. + The router ID can be manually assigned In this case, because a loopback interface is not configured so the highest active IP address 192.168.0.1 is chosen as the router ID.
R1 is configured with the default configuration of OSPF. From the following list of IP addresses configured on R1, which address will the OSPF process select as the router ID? A. 192.168.0.1 B. 172.16.1.1 C. 172.16.2.1 D. 172.16.2.225
Answer: B Explanation: Explanation/Reference: Hubs create single collision and broadcast domains.
Refer to the exhibit. How many collision domains are shown? A. one B. two C. three D. four E. six F.twelve
Answer: C Explanation: Explanation/Reference: After resuming the telnet session by using the Enter key after it has been suspended, it will resume back to the telnet session so it will be back to the router2> prompt.
Refer to the exhibit. If the resume command is entered after the sequence that is shown in the exhibit, which router prompt will be displayed? A. Router1> B. Router1# C. Router2> D. Router2#
Answer: B Explanation: Explanation/Reference: If the shut down commands are not entered, then CDP can exchange information between the two routers, else it would fail.
Refer to the exhibit. The two routers have had their startup configurations cleared and have been restarted. At a minimum, what must the administrator do to enable CDP to exchange information between R1 and R2? A. Configure the router with the cdp enable command. B. Enter no shutdown commands on the R1 and R2 fa0/1 interfaces. C. Configure IP addressing and no shutdown commands on both the R1 and R2 fa0/1 interfaces. D. Configure IP addressing and no shutdown commands on either of the R1 or R2 fa0/1 interfaces.
Answer: D Explanation: Explanation/Reference: Since it has /24 CIDR and it also has a non default administrative distance, the answer has to be option D.
Refer to the exhibit. Which command would you use to configure a static route on Router1 to network 192.168.202.0/24 with a nondefault administrative distance? A. router1(config)#ip route 1 192.168.201.1 255.255.255.0 192.168.201.2 B. router1(config)#ip route 192.168.202.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.201.2 1 C. router1(config)#ip route 5 192.168.202.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.201.2 D. router1(config)#ip route 192.168.202.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.201.2 5
Answer: B Explanation: Explanation/Reference: It should be one less than the switch IP to which it is connected so it will be B.
Refer to the exhibit. Which default gateway address should be assigned to HostA? A. 192.168.1.1 B. 192.168.1.65 C. 192.168.1.66 D. 192.168.1.129 E. 10.1.1.1 F. 10.1.1.2
Answer: A
Refer to the exhibit. Why was this message received? A. No VTY password has been set. B. No enable password has been set. C. No console password has been set. D. No enable secret password has been set. E. The login command has not been set on CON 0 F. The login command has not been set on the VTY ports.
Answer: B
Refer to the exhibit. What kind of cable should be used to make each connection that is identified by the numbers shown? A. 1 - Ethernet Crossover cable 2 - Ethernet straight-through cable 3 - Fiber Optic cable 4 - Rollover cable B. 1 - Ethernet straight-through cable 2 - Ethernet straight-through cable 3 - Serial cable 4 - Rollover cable C. 1 - Ethernet rollover cable 2 - Ethernet crossover cable 3 - Serial cable 4 - Null-modem cable D. 1 - Ethernet straight-through cable 2 - Ethernet Crossover cable 3 - Serial cable 4 - Rollover cable E. 1 - Ethernet straight-through cable 2 - Ethernet Crossover cable 3 - Serial cable 4 - Ethernet Straight-through cable
Answer: A,C Explanation: Explanation/Reference: This is obviously the default value for the route which is set between the routers and since it is entered in such a manner that it ensures connectivity between the stub network and any host lying beyond RouterA.
Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are correct? (Choose two.) A. This is a default route. B. Adding the subnet mask is optional for the ip route command. C. This will allow any host on the 172.16.1.0 network to reach all known destinations beyond RouterA. D. This command is incorrect, it needs to specify the interface, such as s0/0/0 rather than an IP address. E. The same command needs
Answer: D Explanation: Explanation/Reference: Answer D is correct because when you type the incomplete command having more same more command same up to types characters it shows display the ambiguous command error.
Refer to the exhibit. Why did the device return this message? A. The command requires additional options or parameters B. There is no show command that starts with ru. C. The command is being executed from the wrong router mode. D. There is more than one show command that starts with the letters ru.
Answer: C Explanation: Explanation/Reference: The subnet mast of the TFTP server needs to be in tune with the other network requirements else it won't be possible.
Refer to the exhibit. A TFTP server has recently been installed in the Atlanta office. The network administrator is located in the NY office and has made a console connection to the NY router. After establishing the connection they are unable to backup the configuration file and IOS of the NY router to the TFTP server. What is the cause of this problem? A. The NY router has an incorrect subnet mask. B. The TFTP server has an incorrect IP address. C. The TFTP server has an incorrect subnet mask. D. The network administrator computer has an incorrect IP address.
Answer: B,C
Refer to the exhibit. A company wants to use NAT in the network shown. Which commands will apply the NAT configuration to the proper interfaces? (Choose two.) A. R1(config)# interface serial0/1 R1(config-if)# ip nat inside B. R1(config)# interface serial0/1 R1(config-if)# ip nat outside C. R1(config)# interface fastethernet0/0 R1(config-if)# ip nat inside D. R1(config)# interface fastethernet0/0 R1(config-if)# ip nat outside E. R1(config)# interface serial0/1 R1(config-if)# ip nat outside source pool 200.2.2.18 255.255.255.252 F. R1(config)# interface fastethernet0/0 R1(config-if)# ip nat inside source 10.10.0.0 255.255.255.0
Answer: C Explanation: Explanation/Reference: http://www.thebryantadvantage.com/CCNACertificationExamTutorialDirectlyConnectedSerialInterf aces.htm Since the output is not forthcoming it shows that the type of cable attached is wrong, though the cable is connected since it shows the cable type. According to the figure DTE cable should connect to R1 on interface but while examining using show controllers serial 0/0 command it showing that a DCE is connected so the wrong type of cable is being used.
Refer to the exhibit. An administrator cannot connect from R1 to R2. To troubleshoot this problem, the administrator has entered the command shown in the exhibit. Based on the output shown, what could be the problem? A. The serial interface is configured for half duplex. B. The serial interface does not have a cable attached. C. The serial interface has the wrong type of cable attached. D. The serial interface is configured for the wrong frame size. E. The serial interface has a full buffer.
Answer: B Explanation: Explanation/Reference: The enable secret password takes precedence over the enable password, so sanfran will be used.
Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator made the entries that are shown and then saved the configuration. From a console connection, what password or password sequence is required for the administrator to access privileged mode on Router1? A. cisco B. sanfran C. sanjose D. either cisco or sanfran E. either cisco or sanjose F. sanjose and sanfran
Answer: A Explanation: Explanation/Reference: OSPF elects one DR per multi-access network. In the exhibit there are two DR so there must have more than one multi-access network.
Refer to the exhibit. Why are two OSPF designated routers identified on Core-Router? A. Core-Router is connected to more than one multi-access network. B. The router at 208.149.23.130 is a secondary DR in case the primary fails. C. Two router IDs have the same OSPF priority and are therefore tied for DR election D. The DR election is still underway and there are two contenders for the role.
Answer: C
The network administrator has found the following problem. The remote networks 172.16.10.0, 172.16.20.0, and 172.16.30.0 are accessed through the Central router's serial 0/0 interface. No users are able to access 172.16.20.0. After reviewing the command output shown in the graphic, what is the most likely cause of the problem? A. no gateway of last resort on Central B. Central router's not receiving 172.16.20.0 update C. incorrect static route for 172.16.20.0 D. 172.16.20.0 not located in Central's routing table
Answer: B,C Explanation: Explanation/Reference: http://www.cisco.com/en/US/tech/tk365/technologies_white_paper09186a0080094e9e.shtml#t6 The cost (also called metric) of an interface in OSPF is an indication of the overhead required to send packets across a certain interface. The cost of an interface is inversely proportional to the bandwidth of that interface. A higher bandwidth indicates a lower cost. There is more overhead (higher cost) and time delays involved in crossing a 56k serial line than crossing a 10M Ethernet line. The formula used to calculate the cost is: Cost = 10000 0000/bandwidth in bps For example, it will cost 10 EXP8/10 EXP7 = 10 to cross a 10M Ethernet line and will cost 10 EXP8/1544000 =64 to cross a T1 line. By default, the cost of an interface is calculated based on the bandwidth; you can force the cost of an interface with the ip ospf cost <value> interface subconfiguration mode command.
To allow or prevent load balancing to network 172.16.3.0/24, which of the following commands could be used in R2? (Choose two.) A. R2(config-if)#clock rate B. R2(config-if)#bandwidth C. R2(config-if)#ip ospf cost D. R2(config-if)#ip ospf priority E. R2(config-router)#distance ospf
Answer: A,F
A network administrator is connecting PC hosts A and B directly through their Ethernet interfaces as shown in the graphic. Ping attempts between the hosts are unsuccessful. What can be done to provide connectivity between the hosts? (Choose two.) A. A crossover cable should be used in place of the straight-through cable. B. A rollover cable should be used in place of the straight-through cable. C. The subnet masks should be set to 255.255.255.192 D. A default gateway needs to be set on each host. E. The hosts must be reconfigured to use private IP addresses for direct connections of this type. F. The subnet masks should be set to 255.255.255.0
What is the OSPF default frequency, in seconds, at which a Cisco router sends hello packets on a multiaccess network? A. 10 B. 40 C. 30 D. 20
A. 10
Which address are OSPF hello packets addressed to on point-to-point networks? A. 224.0.0.5 B. 172.16.0.1 C. 192.168.0.5 D. 223.0.0.1 E. 254.255.255.255
A. 224.0.0.5
A network administrator is connecting PC hosts A and B directly through their Ethernet interfaces as shown in the graphic. Ping attempts between the hosts are unsuccessful. What can be done to provide connectivity between the hosts? (Choose two.) A. A crossover cable should be used in place of the straight-through cable. B. A rollover cable should be used in place of the straight-through cable. C. The subnet masks should be set to 255.255.255.192 D. A default gateway needs to be set on each host. E. The hosts must be reconfigured to use private IP addresses for direct connections of this type. F. The subnet masks should be set to 255.255.255.0
A. A crossover cable should be used in place of the straight-through cable. F. The subnet masks should be set to 255.255.255.0
Which statements are TRUE regarding Internet Protocol version 6 (IPv6) addresses? (Choose three.) A. An IPv6 address is divided into eight 16-bit groups. B. A double colon (::) can only be used once in a single IPv6 address. C. IPv6 addresses are 196 bits in length. D. Leading zeros cannot be omitted in an IPv6 address. E. Groups with a value of 0 can be represented with a single 0 in IPv6 address.
A. An IPv6 address is divided into eight 16-bit groups. B. A double colon (::) can only be used once in a single IPv6 address. E. Groups with a value of 0 can be represented with a single 0 in IPv6 address.
Which two of the following are true regarding the configuration of RouterA? (Choose two.) A. At least 5 simultaneous remote connections are possible B. Only telnet protocol connections to RouterA are supported C. Remote connections to RouterA using telnet will succeed D. Console line connections will nevertime out due to inactivity E. Since DHCP is not used on Fa0/1 there is not a need to use the NAT protocol
A. At least 5 simultaneous remote connections are possible C. Remote connections to RouterA using telnet will succeed
Which parameter or parameters are used to calculate OSPF cost in Cisco routers? A. Bandwidth B. Bandwidth and Delay C. Bandwidth, Delay, and MTU D. Bandwidth, MTU, Reliability, Delay, and Load
A. Bandwidth
Refer to the exhibit. Why are two OSPF designated routers identified on Core-Router? A. Core-Router is connected to more than one multi-access network. B. The router at 208.149.23.130 is a secondary DR in case the primary fails. C. Two router IDs have the same OSPF priority and are therefore tied for DR election D. The DR election is still underway and there are two contenders for the role.
A. Core-Router is connected to more than one multi-access network.
An administrator has connected devices to a switch and, for security reasons, wants the dynamically learned MAC addresses from the address table added to the running configuration. What must be done to accomplish this? A. Enable port security and use the keyword sticky. B. Set the switchport mode to trunk and save the running configuration. C. Use the switchport protected command to have the MAC addresses added to the configuration. D. Use the no switchport port-security command to allow MAC addresses to be added to the configuration.
A. Enable port security and use the keyword sticky.
Refer to the exhibit. Serial 0/0 does not respond to a ping request from a host on the FastEthernet 0/0 LAN. How can this problem be corrected? A. Enable the Serial 0/0 interface. B. Correct the IP address for Serial 0/0. C. Correct the IP address for FastEthernet 0/0 D. Change the encapsulation type on Serial 0/0 E. Enable autoconfiguration on the Serial 0/0 interface
A. Enable the Serial 0/0 interface.
Which two statements describe characteristics of IPv6 unicast addressing? (Choose two.) A. Global addresses start with 2000::/3. B. Link-local addresses start with FE00:/12. C. Link-local addresses start with FF00::/10. D. There is only one loopback address and it is ::1. E. If a global address is assigned to an interface, then that is the only allowable address for the interface.
A. Global addresses start with 2000::/3. D. There is only one loopback address and it is ::1.
Which two characteristics apply to Layer 2 switches? (Choose two.) A. Increases the number of collision domains B. Decreases the number of collision domains C. Implements VLAN D. Decreases the number of broadcast domains E. Uses the IP address to make decisions for forwarding data packets
A. Increases the number of collision domains C. Implements VLAN
To what type of port would a cable with a DB-60 connector attach? A. Serial port B. Console port C. Ethernet port D. Fibre optic port
A. Serial port
Refer to the exhibit. An administrator replaced the 10/100 Mb NIC in a desktop PC with a 1 Gb NIC and now the PC will not connect to the network. The administrator began troubleshooting on the switch. Using the switch output shown, what is the cause of the problem? A. Speed is set to 100Mb/s. B. Input flow control is off. C. Encapsulation is set to ARPA. D. The port is administratively down. E. The counters have never been cleared.
A. Speed is set to 100Mb/s.
Refer to the exhibit. The junior network support staff provided the diagram as a recommended configuration for the first phase of a four-phase network expansion project. The entire network expansion will have over 1000 users on 14 network segments and has been allocated this IP address space. 192.168.1.1 through 192.168.5.255 192.168.100.1 through 192.168.100.255 What are three problems with this design? (Choose three.) A. The AREA 1 IP address space is inadequate for the number of users. B. The AREA 3 IP address space is inadequate for the number of users. C. AREA 2 could use a mask of /25 to conserve IP address space. D. The network address space that is provided requires a single network-wide mask. E. The router-to-router connection is wasting address space. F. The broadcast domain in AREA 1 is too large for IP to function.
A. The AREA 1 IP address space is inadequate for the number of users. C. AREA 2 could use a mask of /25 to conserve IP address space. E. The router-to-router connection is wasting address space.
Refer to the exhibit. The ports that are shown are the only active ports on the switch. The MAC address table is shown in its entirety. The Ethernet frame that is shown arrives at the switch. What two operations will the switch perform when it receives this frame? (Choose two.) A. The MAC address of 0000.00aa.aaaa will be added to the MAC address table. B. The MAC address of 0000.00dd.dddd will be added to the MAC address table. C. The frame will be forwarded out port fa0/3 only. D. The frame will be forwarded out fa0/1, fa0/2, and fa0/3. E. The frame will be forwarded out all the active ports.
A. The MAC address of 0000.00aa.aaaa will be added to the MAC address table. D. The frame will be forwarded out fa0/1, fa0/2, and fa0/3.
Which three statements are true about the operation of a full-duplex Ethernet network? (Choose three.) A. There are no collisions in full-duplex mode. B. A dedicated switch port is required for each full-duplex node. C. Ethernet hub ports are preconfigured for full-duplex mode. D. In a full-duplex environment, the host network card must check for the availability of the network media before transmitting. E. The host network card and the switch port must be capable of operating in full-duplex mode.
A. There are no collisions in full-duplex mode. B. A dedicated switch port is required for each full-duplex node. E. The host network card and the switch port must be capable of operating in full-duplex mode.
Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are correct? (Choose two.) A. This is a default route. B. Adding the subnet mask is optional for the ip route command. C. This will allow any host on the 172.16.1.0 network to reach all known destinations beyond RouterA. D. This command is incorrect, it needs to specify the interface, such as s0/0/0 rather than an IP address. E. The same command needs to be entered on RouterA so that hosts on the 172.16.1.0 network can reach network 10.0.0.0.
A. This is a default route. C. This will allow any host on the 172.16.1.0 network to reach all known destinations beyond RouterA.
Which of the following are types of flow control? (Choose three.) A. buffering B. cut-through C. windowing D. congestion avoidance E. load balancing
A. buffering C. windowing D. congestion avoidance
A receiving host has failed to receive all of the segments that it should acknowledge. What can the host do to improve the reliability of this communication session? A. decrease the window size B. use a different source port for the session C. decrease the sequence number D. obtain a new IP address from the DHCP server E. start a new session using UDP
A. decrease the window size
What information can be used by a router running a link-state protocol to build and maintain its topological database? (Choose two.) A. hello packets B. SAP messages sent by other routers C. LSAs from other routers D. beacons received on point-to-point links E. routing tables received from other link-state routers F. TTL packets from designated routers
A. hello packets C. LSAs from other routers
What two things does a router do when it forwards a packet? (Choose two.) A. switches the packet to the appropriate outgoing interfaces B. computes the destination host address C. determines the next hop on the path D. updates the destination IP address E. forwards ARP requests
A. switches the packet to the appropriate outgoing interfaces C. determines the next hop on the path
Answer: B Explanation: Explanation/Reference: HELLO messages are used to maintain adjacent neighbors so even when the network is converged, hellos are still exchanged. On broadcast and point-to-point links, the default is 10 seconds, on NBMA the default is 30 seconds. Although OSPF is a link-state protocol the full database from each router is sent every 30 minutes (not seconds) therefore, C and D are not correct.
After the network has converged, what type of messaging, if any, occurs between R3 and R4? A. No messages are exchanged B. Hellos are sent every 10 seconds. C. The full database from each router is sent every 30 seconds. D. The routing table from each router is sent every 60 seconds.
ROUTER# show ip route 192.168.12.0/24 is variably subnetted, 9 subnets, 3 masks C 192.168.12.64 /28 is directly connected, Loopback1 C 192.168.12.32 /28 is directly connected, Ethernet0 C 192.168.12.48 /28 is directly connected, Loopback0 O 192.168.12.236 /30 [110/128] via 192.168.12.233, 00:35:36, Serial0 C 192.168.12.232 /30 is directly connected, Serial0 O 192.168.12.245 /30 [110/782] via 192.168.12.233, 00:35:36, Serial0 O 192.168.12.240 /30 [110/128] via 192.168.12.233, 00:35:36, Serial0 O 192.168.12.253 /30 [110/782] via 192.168.12.233, 00:35:37, Serial0 O 192.168.12.249 /30 [110/782] via 192.168.12.233, 00:35:37, Serial0 O 192.168.12.240/30 [110/128] via 192.168.12.233, 00:35:36, Serial 0 To what does the 128 refer to in the router output above? A. OSPF cost B. OSPF priority C. OSPF hop count D. OSPF ID number E. OSPF administrative distance
Answer: A Explanation: Explanation/Reference: The first parameter is the Administrative Distance of OSPF (110) while the second parameter is the cost of OSPF.
Which address are OSPF hello packets addressed to on point-to-point networks? A. 224.0.0.5 B. 172.16.0.1 C. 192.168.0.5 D. 223.0.0.1 E. 254.255.255.255
Answer: A Explanation: Explanation/Reference: Why Does the show ip ospf neighbor Command Reveal Neighbors in the Init State? http://www.cisco.com/en/US/tech/tk365/ technologies_tech_note09186a0080093f11.shtml OSPF hello packets have a destination address of 224.0.0.5 (the all ospf routers multicast address).
What is the OSPF default frequency, in seconds, at which a Cisco router sends hello packets on a multi-access network? A. 10 B. 40 C. 30 D. 20
Answer: A Explanation: Explanation/Reference: On broadcast multiacess and point-to-point links, the default is 10 seconds. On NBMA, the default is 30 seconds.
What should be part of a comprehensive network security plan? A. Allow users to develop their own approach to network security. B. Physically secure network equipment from potential access by unauthorized individuals. C. Encourage users to use personal information in their passwords to minimize the likelihood of passwords being forgotten. D. Delay deployment of software patches and updates until their effect on end-user equipment is well known and widely reported. E. Minimize network overhead by deactivating automatic antivirus client updates.
Answer: B
How many addresses will be available for dynamic NAT translation when a router is configured with the following commands? Router(config)#ip nat pool TAME 209.165.201.23 209.165.201.30 netmask 255.255.255.224 Router(config)#ip nat inside source list 9 pool TAME A. 7 B. 8 C. 9 D. 10 E. 24 F. 32
Answer: B Explanation: Explanation/Reference: 209.165.201.23 to 209.165.201.30 provides for 8 addresses.
Which two commands will display the current IP address and basic Layer 1 and 2 status of an interface? (Choose two.) A. router#show version B. router#show ip interface C. router#show protocols D. router#show controllers E. router#show running-config
Answer: B,C
R1 is configured with the default configuration of OSPF. From the following list of IP addresses configured on R1, which address will the OSPF process select as the router ID? A. 192.168.0.1 B. 172.16.1.1 C. 172.16.2.1 D. 172.16.2.225
A. 192.168.0.1
Which IP addresses are valid for hosts belonging to the 10.1.160.0/20 subnet? (Choose three.) A. 10.1.168.0 B. 10.1.176.1 C. 10.1.174.255 D. 10.1.160.255 E. 10.1.160.0 F. 10.1.175.255
A. 10.1.168.0 C. 10.1.174.255 D. 10.1.160.255
Refer to the exhibit. The network is converged.After link-state advertisements are received from Router_A, what information will Router_E contain in its routing table for the subnets 208.149.23.64 and 208.149.23.96? A. 208.149.23.64[110/13] via 190.173.23.10, 00:00:07, FastEthemet0/0 208.149.23.96[110/13] via 190.173.23.10, 00:00:16, FastEthemet0/0 B. 208.149.23.64[110/1] via 190.172.23.10, 00:00:07, Serial1/0 208.149.23.96[110/3] via 190.173.23.10, 00:00:16, FastEthemet0/0 C. 208.149.23.64[110/13] via 190.173.23.10, 00:00:07, Serial1/0 208.149.23.96[110/13] via 190.173.23.10, 00:00:16, Serial1/0 208.149.23.96[110/13] via 190.173.23.10, 00:00:16, FastEthemet0/0 D. 208.149.23.64[110/3] via 190.172.23.10, 00:00:07, Serial1/0 208.149.23.96[110/3] via 190.173.23.10, 00:00:16, Serial1/0
A. 208.149.23.64[110/13] via 190.173.23.10, 00:00:07, FastEthemet0/0 208.149.23.96[110/13] via 190.173.23.10, 00:00:16, FastEthemet0/0
Refer to the exhibit. The enterprise has decided to use the network address 172.16.0.0. The network administrator needs to design a classful addressing scheme to accommodate the three subnets, with 30, 40, and 50 hosts, as shown. What subnet mask would accommodate this network? A. 255.255.255.192 B. 255.255.255.224 C. 255.255.255.240 D. 255.255.255.248 E. 255.255.255.252
A. 255.255.255.192
Identify the four valid IPv6 addresses. (Choose four.) A. :: B. ::192:168:0:1 C. 2000:: D. 2001:3452:4952:2837:: E. 2002:c0a8:101::42 F. 2003:dead:beef:4dad:23:46:bb:101
A. :: B. ::192:168:0:1 E. 2002:c0a8:101::42 F. 2003:dead:beef:4dad:23:46:bb:101
A company has placed a networked PC in a lobby so guests can have access to the corporate directory. A security concern is that someone will disconnect the directory PC and re-connect their laptop computer and have access to the corporate network. For the port servicing the lobby, which three configuration steps should be performed on the switch to prevent this? (Choose three.) A. Enable port security. B. Create the port as a trunk port. C. Create the port as an access port. D. Create the port as a protected port. E. Set the port security aging time to 0. F. Statically assign the MAC address to the address table. G. Configure the switch to discover new MAC addresses after a set time of inactivity.
A. Enable port security. C. Create the port as an access port. F. Statically assign the MAC address to the address table.
Which of the following statements are TRUE regarding Cisco access lists? (Choose two.) A. In an inbound access list, packets are filtered as they enter an interface. B. In an inbound access list, packets are filtered before they exit an interface. C. Extended access lists are used to filter protocol-specific packets. D. You must specify a deny statement at the end of each access list to filter unwanted traffic. E. When a line is added to an existing access list, it is inserted at the beginning of the access list.
A. In an inbound access list, packets are filtered as they enter an interface. C. Extended access lists are used to filter protocol-specific packets.
What is the purpose of the switchport command? Switch(config-if)# switchport port-security maximum 1 Switch(config-if)# switchport port-security macaddress 0018.DE8B.4BF8 A. It ensures that only the device with the MAC address 0018.DE8B.4BF8 will be able to connect to the port that is being configured. B. It informs the switch that traffic destined for MAC address 0018.DE8B.4BF8 should only be sent to the port that is being configured. C. It will act like an access list and the port will filter packets that have a source or destination MAC of 0018.DE8B.4BF8. D. The switch will shut down the port of any traffic with source MAC address of 0018.DE8B.4BF8.
A. It ensures that only the device with the MAC address 0018.DE8B.4BF8 will be able to connect to the port that is being configured.
Which of the following describe the process identifier that is used to run OSPF on a router? (Choose two) A. It is locally significant. B. It is globally significant. C. It is needed to identify a unique instance of an OSPF database. D. It is an optional parameter required only if multiple OSPF processes are running on the router. E. All routers in the same OSPF area must have the same process ID if they are to exchange routing information.
A. It is locally significant. C. It is needed to identify a unique instance of an OSPF database.
Which statements describe the routing protocol OSPF? (Choose three.) A. It supports VLSM. B. It is used to route between autonomous systems. C. It confines network instability to one area of the network. D. It increases routing overhead on the network. E. It allows extensive control of routing updates. F. It is simpler to configure than RIP v2.
A. It supports VLSM. C. It confines network instability to one area of the network. E. It allows extensive control of routing updates.
Refer to the exhibit. A network has been planned as shown. Which three statements accurately describe the areas and devices in the network plan? (Choose three.) A. Network Device A is a switch. B. Network Device B is a switch. C. Network Device A is a hub. D. Network Device B is a hub. E. Area 1 contains a Layer 2 device. F. Area 2 contains a Layer 2 device.
A. Network Device A is a switch. D. Network Device B is a hub. E. Area 1 contains a Layer 2 device.
Refer to the exhibit. Why was this message received? A. No VTY password has been set. B. No enable password has been set. C. No console password has been set. D. No enable secret password has been set. E. The login command has not been set on CON 0 F. The login command has not been set on the VTY ports.
A. No VTY password has been set.
ROUTER# show ip route 192.168.12.0/24 is variably subnetted, 9 subnets, 3 masks C 192.168.12.64 /28 is directly connected, Loopback1 C 192.168.12.32 /28 is directly connected, Ethernet0 C 192.168.12.48 /28 is directly connected, Loopback0 O 192.168.12.236 /30 [110/128] via 192.168.12.233, 00:35:36, Serial0 C 192.168.12.232 /30 is directly connected, Serial0 O 192.168.12.245 /30 [110/782] via 192.168.12.233, 00:35:36, Serial0 O 192.168.12.240 /30 [110/128] via 192.168.12.233, 00:35:36, Serial0 O 192.168.12.253 /30 [110/782] via 192.168.12.233, 00:35:37, Serial0 O 192.168.12.249 /30 [110/782] via 192.168.12.233, 00:35:37, Serial0 O 192.168.12.240/30 [110/128] via 192.168.12.233, 00:35:36, Serial 0 To what does the 128 refer to in the router output above? A. OSPF cost B. OSPF priority C. OSPF hop count D. OSPF ID number E. OSPF administrative distance
A. OSPF cost
The network manager has requested a 300-workstation expansion of the network. The workstations are to be installed in a single broadcast domain, but each workstation must have its own collision domain. The expansion is to be as cost-effective as possible while still meeting the requirements. Which three items will adequately fulfill the request? (Choose three). A. One IP subnet with a mask of 255.255.254.0 B. Two IP subnets with a mask of 255.255.255.0 C. Seven 48-port hubs D. Seven 48-port switches E. One router interface F. Seven router interfaces
A. One IP subnet with a mask of 255.255.254.0 D. Seven 48-port switches E. One router interface
Select three options which are security issues with the current configuration of SwitchA. (Choose three.) A. Privilege mode is protected with an unencrypted password B. Inappropriate wording in banner message C. Virtual terminal lines are protected only by a password requirement D. Both the username and password are weak E. Telnet connections can be used to remotely manage the switch F. Cisco user will be granted privilege level 15 by default
A. Privilege mode is protected with an unencrypted password B. Inappropriate wording in banner message D. Both the username and password are weak
On a live network, which commands will verify the operational status of router interfaces? (Choose two.) A. Router# show interfaces B. Router# show ip protocols C. Router# debug interface D. Router# show ip interface brief E. Router# show start
A. Router# show interfaces D. Router# show ip interface brief
What two things can the technician determine by successfully pinging from this computer to the IP address 172.16.236.1? (Choose two) A. The network card on the computer is functioning correctly. B. The default static route on the gateway router is correctly configured. C. The correct default gateway IP address is configured on the computer. D. The device with the IP address 172.16.236.1 is reachable over the network. E. The default gateway at 172.16.236.1 is able to forward packets to the internet.
A. The network card on the computer is functioning correctly. D. The device with the IP address 172.16.236.1 is reachable over the network.
What happens when computers on a private network attempt to connect to the Internet through a Cisco router running PAT? A. The router uses the same IP address but a different TCP source port number for each connection. B. An IP address is assigned based on the priority of the computer requesting the connection. C. The router selects an address from a pool of one-to-one address mappings held in the lookup table. D. The router assigns a unique IP address from a pool of legally registered addresses for the duration of the connection.
A. The router uses the same IP address but a different TCP source port number for each connection.
Refer to the exhibit. The exhibit is showing the topology and the MAC address table. Host A sends a data frame to host D. What will the switch do when it receives the frame from host A? A. The switch will add the source address and port to the MAC address table and forward the frame to host D. B. The switch will discard the frame and send an error message back to host A. C. The switch will flood the frame out of all ports except for port Fa0/3. D. The switch will add the destination address of the frame to the MAC address table and forward the frame to host D.
A. The switch will add the source address and port to the MAC address table and forward the frame to host D.
What OSPF command, when configured, will include all interfaces into area 0? A. network 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.255 area 0 B. network 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 area 0 C. network 255.255.255.255 0.0.0.0 area 0 D. network all-interfaces area 0
A. network 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.255 area 0
Which characteristics are representative of a link-state routing protocol? (Choose three.) A. provides common view of entire topology B. exchanges routing tables with neighbors C. calculates shortest path D. utilizes event-triggered updates E. utilizes frequent periodic updates
A. provides common view of entire topology C. calculates shortest path D. utilizes event-triggered updates
A receiving host has failed to receive all of the segments that it should acknowledge. What can the host do to improve the reliability of this communication session? A. decrease the window size B. use a different source port for the session C. decrease the sequence number D. obtain a new IP address from the
Answer: A
To what type of port would a cable with a DB-60 connector attach? A. Serial port B. Console port C. Ethernet port D. Fibre optic port
Answer: A
What is the purpose of the switchport command? Switch(config-if)# switchport port-security maximum 1 Switch(config-if)# switchport port-security mac-address 0018.DE8B.4BF8 A. It ensures that only the device with the MAC address 0018.DE8B.4BF8 will be able to connect to the port that is being configured. B. It informs the switch that traffic destined for MAC address 0018.DE8B.4BF8 should only be sent to the port that is being configured. C. It will act like an access list and the port will filter packets that have a source or destination MAC of 0018.DE8B.4BF8. . The switch will shut down the port of any traffic with source MAC address of 0018.DE8B.4BF8.
Answer: A
An administrator has connected devices to a switch and, for security reasons, wants the dynamically learned MAC addresses from the address table added to the running configuration. What must be done to accomplish this? A. Enable port security and use the keyword sticky. B. Set the switchport mode to trunk and save the running configuration. C. Use the switchport protected command to have the MAC addresses added to the configuration. D. Use the no switchport port-security command to allow MAC addresses to be added to the configuration.
Answer: A Explanation: Explanation/Reference: http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/switches/lan/catalyst6500/ios/12.2SX/configuration/guide/port_s ec.pdf One can configure MAC addresses to be sticky. These can be dynamically learned or manually configured, stored in the address table, and added to the running configuration. If these addresses are saved in the configuration file, the interface does not need to dynamically relearn them when the switch restarts, hence enabling security as desired.
What happens when computers on a private network attempt to connect to the Internet through a Cisco router running PAT? A. The router uses the same IP address but a different TCP source port number for each connection. B. An IP address is assigned based on the priority of the computer requesting the connection. C. The router selects an address from a pool of one-to-one address mappings held in the lookup table. D. The router assigns a unique IP address from a pool of legally registered addresses for the duration of the connection.
Answer: A Reference: http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/security/asa/asa82/configuration/guide/nat_staticpat.html Static PAT translations allow a specific UDP or TCP port on a global address to be translated to a specific port on a local address. That is, both the address and the port numbers are translated. Static PAT is the same as static NAT, except that it enables you to specify the protocol (TCP or UDP) and port for the real and mapped addresses. Static PAT enables you to identify the same mapped address across many different static statements, provided that the port is different for each statement. You cannot use the same mapped address for multiple static NAT statements. Port Address Translation makes the PC connect to the Internet but using different TCP source port.
Which statements are TRUE regarding Internet Protocol version 6 (IPv6) addresses? (Choose three.) A. An IPv6 address is divided into eight 16-bit groups. B. A double colon (::) can only be used once in a single IPv6 address. C. IPv6 addresses are 196 bits in length. D. Leading zeros cannot be omitted in an IPv6 address. E. Groups with a value of 0 can be represented with a single 0 in IPv6 address.
Answer: A,B,E Explanation: Explanation/Reference: IPv6 addresses are divided into eight 16-bit groups, a double colon (::) can only be used once in an IPv6 address, and groups with a value of 0 can be represented with a single 0 in an IPv6 address. The following statements are also true regarding IPv6 address: -IPv6 addresses are 128 bits in length. -Eight 16-bit groups are divided by a colon (:). -Multiple groups of 16-bit 0s can be represented with double colon (::). -Double colons (::) represent only 0s. -Leading zeros can be omitted in an IPv6 address. -The option stating that IPv6 addresses are 196 bits in length is incorrect. -IPv6 addresses are 128 bits in length. -The option stating that leading zeros cannot be omitted in an IPv6 address is incorrect. Leading zeros can be omitted in an IPv6 address.
Which three statements are true about the operation of a full-duplex Ethernet network? (Choose three.) A. There are no collisions in full-duplex mode. B. A dedicated switch port is required for each full-duplex node. C. Ethernet hub ports are preconfigured for full-duplex mode. D. In a full-duplex environment, the host network card must check for the availability of the network media before transmitting. E. The host network card and the switch port must be capable of operating in full-duplex mode.
Answer: A,B,E Explanation: Half-duplex Ethernet is defined in the original 802.3 Ethernet and Cisco says you only use one wire pair with a digital signal running in both directions on the wire. It also uses the CSMA/CD protocol to help prevent collisions and to permit retransmitting if a collision does occur. If a hub is attached to a switch, it must operate in half-duplex mode because the end stations must be able to detect collisions. Half-duplex Ethernet—typically 10BaseT—is only about 30 to 40 percent efficient as Cisco sees it, because a large 10BaseT network will usually only give you 3- to 4Mbps—at most. Full-duplex Ethernet uses two pairs of wires, instead of one wire pair like half duplex. Also, full duplex uses a point-to-point connection between the transmitter of the transmitting device and the receiver of the receiving device, which means that with full-duplex data transfer, you get a faster data transfer compared to half duplex. And because the transmitted data is sent on a different set of wires than the received data, no collisions occur. The reason you don't need to worry about collisions is because now Full-duplex Ethernet is like a freeway with multiple lanes instead of the single-lane road provided by half duplex. Full-duplex Ethernet is supposed to offer 100 percent efficiency in both directions; this means you can get 20Mbps with a 10Mbps Ethernet running full duplex, or 200Mbps for FastEthernet.
Identify the four valid IPv6 addresses. (Choose four.) A. :: B. ::192:168:0:1 C. 2000:: D. 2001:3452:4952:2837:: E. 2002:c0a8:101::42 F. 2003:dead:beef:4dad:23:46:bb:101
Answer: A,B,E,F Explanation: Explanation/Reference: http://www.intermapper.com/ipv6validator http://www.ripe.net/lir-services/new-lir/ipv6_reference_card.pdf
What two things does a router do when it forwards a packet? (Choose two.) A. switches the packet to the appropriate outgoing interfaces B. computes the destination host address C. determines the next hop on the path D. updates the destination IP address E. forwards ARP requests
Answer: A,C Explanation: Explanation/Reference: Without following these two processes namely switching the packet to appropriate interface and telling the packet where to go by providing it with a destination IP address, the purpose of the same would not be solved.
Given a Class C IP address subnetted with a /30 subnet mask, how many valid host IP addresses are available on each of the subnets? A. 1 B. 2 C. 4 D. 8 E. 252 F. 254
Answer: B Explanation: Explanation/Reference: /30 CIDR corresponds to mask 55.255.255.252 whose binary is 11111100 which means 6 subnet bits and 2 host bits which means 62 subnets and 2 hosts per subnet.
Which of the following describe the process identifier that is used to run OSPF on a router? (Choose two) A. It is locally significant. B. It is globally significant. C. It is needed to identify a unique instance of an OSPF database. D. It is an optional parameter required only if multiple OSPF processes are running on the router. E. All routers in the same OSPF area must have the same process ID if they are to exchange routing information.
Answer: A,C Explanation: Explanation/Reference: https://learningnetwork.cisco.com/thread/6248 They are locally significant only, and have no bearing on the structure of any OSPF packet or LSA update. So you can have a separate process-id on every single router in your network if you so desire!
Which two characteristics apply to Layer 2 switches? (Choose two.) A. Increases the number of collision domains B. Decreases the number of collision domains C. Implements VLAN D. Decreases the number of broadcast domains E. Uses the IP address to make decisions for forwarding data packets
Answer: A,C Explanation: Layer 2 switches offer a number of benefits to hubs, such as the use of VLANs and each switch port is in its own separate collision domain, thus eliminating collisions on the segment.
Which of the following statements are TRUE regarding Cisco access lists? (Choose two.) A. In an inbound access list, packets are filtered as they enter an interface. B. In an inbound access list, packets are filtered before they exit an interface. C. Extended access lists are used to filter protocol-specific packets. D. You must specify a deny statement at the end of each access list to filter unwanted traffic. E. When a line is added to an existing access list, it is inserted at the beginning of the access list.
Answer: A,C Explanation: Explanation/Reference: In an inbound access list, packets are filtered as they enter an interface. Extended access lists are used to filter protocol specific packets. Access lists can be used in a variety of situations when the router needs to be given guidelines for decision-making. These situations include: Filtering traffic as it passes through the router To control access to the VTY lines (Telnet) To identify "interesting" traffic to invoke Demand Dial Routing (DDR) calls To filter and control routing updates from one router to another There are two types of access lists, standard and extended. Standard access lists are applied as close to the destination as possible (outbound), and can only base their filtering criteria on the source IP address. The number used while creating an access list specifies the type of access list created. The range used for standard access lists is 1 to 99 and 1300 to 1999. Extended access lists are applied as close to the source as possible (inbound), and can base their filtering criteria on the source or destination IP address, or on the specific protocol being used. The range used for extended access lists is 100 to 199 and 2000 to 2699. Other features of access lists include: Inbound access lists are processed before the packet is routed. Outbound access lists are processed after the packet has been routed to an exit interface. An "implicit deny" is at the bottom of every access list, which means that if a packet has not matched any preceding access list condition, it will be filtered (dropped). Access lists require at least one permit statement, or all packets will be filtered (dropped). One access list may be configured per direction for each Layer 3 protocol configured on an interface The option stating that in an inbound access list, packets are filtered before they exit an interface is incorrect. Packets are filtered as they exit an interface when using an outbound access list. The option stating that a deny statement must be specified at the end of each access list in order to filter unwanted traffic is incorrect. There is an implicit deny at the bottom of every access list. When a line is added to an existing access list, it is not inserted at the beginning of the access list. It is inserted at the end. This should be taken into consideration. For example, given the following access list, executing the command access-list 110 deny tcp 192.168.5.0 0.0.0.255 any eq www would have NO effect on the packets being filtered because it would be inserted at the end of the list, AFTER the line that allows all traffic. access-list 110 permit ip host 192.168.5.1 any access-list 110 deny icmp 192.168.5.0 0.0.0.255 any echo access-list 110 permit any any
Which IP addresses are valid for hosts belonging to the 10.1.160.0/20 subnet? (Choose three.) A. 10.1.168.0 B. 10.1.176.1 C. 10.1.174.255 D. 10.1.160.255 E. 10.1.160.0 F. 10.1.175.255
Answer: A,C,D Explanation: Explanation/Reference: All IP address in IP ranges between: 10.1.160.1 and 10.1.175.254 are valid as shown below Address: 10.1.160.0 00001010.00000001.1010 0000.00000000 Netmask: 255.255.240.0 = 20 11111111.11111111.1111 0000.00000000 Wildcard: 0.0.15.255 00000000.00000000.0000 1111.11111111 Which implies that: Network: 10.1.160.0/20 00001010.00000001.1010 0000.00000000 HostMin: 10.1.160.1 00001010.00000001.1010 0000.00000001 HostMax: 10.1.175.254 00001010.00000001.1010 1111.11111110 Broadcast: 10.1.175.255 00001010.00000001.1010 1111.11111111
Which of the following are types of flow control? (Choose three.) A. buffering B. cut-through C. windowing D. congestion avoidance E. load balancing
Answer: A,C,D Explanation: Explanation/Reference: http://www.info-it.net/cisco/ccna/exam-tips/flow-control.php During Transfer of data, a high speed computer is generating data traffic a lot faster than the network device can handle in transferring to destination, so single gateway or destination device cannot handle much amount of traffic that is called "Congestion". Buffering - The technique is used to control the data transfer when we have congestion, when a network device receive a data it stores in memory section and then transfer to next destination this process called "Buffering". Windowing Whereas Windowing is used for flow control by the Transport layer. Say the sender device is sending segments and the receiver device can accommodate only a fixed number of segments before it can accept more, the two devices negotiate the window size during the connection setup. This is done so that the sending device doesn't overflow the receiving device's buffer. Also the receiving device can send a single acknowledgement for the segments it has received instead of sending an acknowledgement after every segment received. Also, this window size is dynamic meaning, the devices can negotiate and change the window size in the middle of a session. So if initially the window size is three and the receiving device thinks that it can accept more number of segments in its buffer it can negotiate with the sending device and it increase it to say 5 for example. Windowing is used only by TCP since UDP doesn't use or allow flow control.
A company has placed a networked PC in a lobby so guests can have access to the corporate directory. A security concern is that someone will disconnect the directory PC and re-connect their laptop computer and have access to the corporate network. For the port servicing the lobby, which three configuration steps should be performed on the switch to prevent this? (Choose three.) A. Enable port security. B. Create the port as a trunk port. C. Create the port as an access port. D. Create the port as a protected port. E. Set the port security aging time to 0. F. Statically assign the MAC address to the address table. G. Configure the switch to discover new MAC addresses after a set time of inactivity.
Answer: A,C,F Explanation: Explanation/Reference: If port security is enabled and the port is only designated as access port, and finally static MAC address is assigned, it ensures that even if a physical connection is done by taking out the directory PC and inserting personal laptop or device, the connection cannot be made to the corporate network, hence ensuring safety.
On a live network, which commands will verify the operational status of router interfaces? (Choose two.) A. Router# show interfaces B. Router# show ip protocols C. Router# debug interface D. Router# show ip interface brief E. Router# show start
Answer: A,D Explanation: Explanation/Reference: Both these commands will show the current status of the interfaces, either in show or debug mode both will display the information.
Which two statements describe characteristics of IPv6 unicast addressing? (Choose two.) A. Global addresses start with 2000::/3. B. Link-local addresses start with FE00:/12. C. Link-local addresses start with FF00::/10. D. There is only one loopback address and it is ::1. E. If a global address is assigned to an interface, then that is the only allowable address for the interface.
Answer: A,D Explanation:
The network manager has requested a 300-workstation expansion of the network. The workstations are to be installed in a single broadcast domain, but each workstation must have its own collision domain. The expansion is to be as cost-effective as possible while still meeting the requirements. Which three items will adequately fulfill the request? (Choose three). A. One IP subnet with a mask of 255.255.254.0 B. Two IP subnets with a mask of 255.255.255.0 C. Seven 48-port hubs D. Seven 48-port switches E. One router interface F. Seven router interfaces
Answer: A,D,E Explanation: Explanation/Reference: of 255.255.254.0 can absorb 510 hosts being 23 bits mask and also 7*48 port switches can handle this much hosts and router interface is required to be minimum to avoid unnecessary wastage hence the answers.
Which IOS command is used to initiate a login into a VTY port on a remote router? A. router# login B. router# telnet C. router# trace D. router# ping E. router(config)# line vty 0 5 F. router(config-line)# login
Answer: B Explanation: Explanation/Reference: VTY ports are telnet ports hence command B will initiate login to the telnet port.
A switch has 48 ports and 4 VLANs. How many collision and broadcast domains exist on the switch (collision, broadcast)? A. 4, 48 B. 48, 4 C. 48, 1 D. 1, 48 E. 4, 1
Answer: B Explanation: A switch uses a separate collision domain for each port, and each VLAN is a separate broadcast domain.
The following commands are entered on the router: Burbank(config)# enable secret fortress Burbank(config)# line con 0 Burbank(config-line)# login Burbank(config-line)# password n0way1n Burbank(config-line)# exit Burbank(config)# service password-encryption What is the purpose of the last command entered? A. to require the user to enter an encrypted password during the login process B. to prevent the vty, console, and enable passwords from being displayed in plain text in the configuration files C. to encrypt the enable secret password D. to provide login encryption services between hosts attached to the router
Answer: B Explanation: Certain types of passwords, such as Line passwords, by default appear in clear text in the configuration file. You can use the service password-encryption command to make them more secure. Once this command is entered, each password configured is automatically encrypted and thus rendered illegible inside the configuration file (much as the Enable/Enable Secret passwords are). Securing Line passwords is doubly important in networks on which TFTP servers are used, because TFTP backup entails routinely moving config files across networks—and config files, of course, contain Line passwords.
Which network device functions only at Layer 1 of the OSI model? A. Bridge B. Hub C. NIC D. Router E. Switch
Answer: B Explanation: Most hubs are amplifying the electrical signal; therefore, they are really repeaters with several ports. Hubs and repeaters are Layer 1 (physical layer) devices.
How does a switch differ from a hub? A. A switch does not induce any latency into the frame transfer time. B. A switch tracks MAC addresses of directly-connected devices. C. A switch operates at a lower, more efficient layer of the OSI model. D. A switch decreases the number of broadcast domains. E. A switch decreases the number of collision domains.
Answer: B Explanation: Some of the features and functions of a switch include: A switch is essentially a fast, multi-port bridge, which can contain dozens of ports. Rather than creating two collision domains, each port creates its own collision domain. In a network of twenty nodes, twenty collision domains exist if each node is plugged into its own switch port. If an uplink port is included, one switch creates twenty-one single-node collision domains. A switch dynamically builds and maintains a Content-Addressable Memory (CAM) table, holding all of the necessary MAC information for each port. For a detailed description of how switches operate, and their key differences to hubs, see the reference link below. ReferencE. http://www.cisco.com/warp/public/473/lan-switch-cisco.shtml
What is the purpose of assigning an IP address to a switch? A. provides local hosts with a default gateway address B. allows remote management of the switch C. allows the switch to respond to ARP requests between two hosts D. ensures that hosts on the same LAN can communicate with each other
Answer: B Explanation: Switch is a layer 2 device and doesn't use network layer for packet forwarding. The IP address may be used only for administrative purposes such as Telnet access or for network management purposes.
A switch receives a frame on one of its ports. There is no entry in the MAC address table for the destination MAC address. What will the switch do with the frame? A. drop the frame B. forward it out of all ports except the one that received it C. forward it out of all ports D. store it until it learns the correct port
Answer: B Explanation: Understanding this concept is prime for understanding that when switch receives the data frame from the host not having the MAC address already in the MAC table, it will add the MAC address to the source port on the MAC address table and sends the data frame. If the switch already has the MAC address in it's table for the destination, it will forward the frame directly to the destination port. If it was not already in it's MAC table, then they frame would have been flooded out all ports except for the port that it came from.
Why would a network administrator configure port security on a switch? A. to prevent unauthorized Telnet access to a switch port B. to prevent unauthorized hosts from accessing the LAN C. to limit the number of Layer 2 broadcasts on a particular switch port D. block unauthorized access to the switch management interfaces
Answer: B Explanation: You can use the port security feature to restrict input to an interface by limiting and identifying MAC addresses of the stations allowed to access the port. When you assign secure MAC addresses to a secure port, the port does not forward packets with source addresses outside the group of defined addresses. If you limit the number of secure MAC addresses to one and assign a single secure MAC address, the workstation attached to that port is assured the full bandwidth of the port. If a port is configured as a secure port and the maximum number of secure MAC addresses is reached, when the MAC address of a station attempting to access the port is different from any of the identified secure MAC addresses, a security violation occurs. Also, if a station with a secure MAC address configured or learned on one secure port attempts to access another secure port, a violation is flagged.
If a host experiences intermittent issues that relate to congestion within a network while remaining connected, what could cause congestion on this LAN? A. half-duplex operation B. broadcast storms C. network segmentation D. multicasting
Answer: B Explanation: Explanation/Reference: A broadcast storm can consume sufficient network resources so as to render the network unable to transport normal traffic.
Which command enables IPv6 forwarding on a Cisco router? A. ipv6 host B. ipv6 unicast-routing C. ipv6 local D. ipv6 neighbor
Answer: B Explanation: Explanation/Reference: Enabling IPv6 on Cisco IOS Software Technology http://www.ciscopress.com/articles/article.asp?p=31948&seqNum=4 The first step of enabling IPv6 on a Cisco router is the activation of IPv6 traffic forwarding to forward unicast IPv6 packets between network interfaces. By default, IPv6 traffic forwarding is disabled on Cisco routers. The ipv6 unicast-routing command is used to enable the forwarding of IPv6 packets between interfaces on the router. The syntax for this command is as follows: Router(config)#ipv6 unicast-routing The ipv6 unicast-routing command is enabled on a global basis.
How can you ensure that only the MAC address of a server is allowed by switch port Fa0/1? A. Configure port Fa0/1 to accept connections only from the static IP address of the server. B. Configure the server MAC address as a static entry of port security. C. Use a proprietary connector type on Fa0/1 that is incomputable with other host connectors. D. Bind the IP address of the server to its MAC address on the switch to prevent other hosts from spoofing the server IP address.
Answer: B Explanation: Explanation/Reference: When the MAC address is configured as static entry, no other address is allowed.
Which one of the following IP addresses is the last valid host in the subnet using mask 255.255.255.224? A. 192.168.2.63 B. 192.168.2.62 C. 192.168.2.61 D. 192.168.2.60 E. 192.168.2.32
Answer: B Explanation: Explanation/Reference: With the 224 there are 8 networks with increments of 32 One of these is 32 33 62 63 where 63 is broadcast so 62 is last valid host out of given choices.
A network administrator cannot connect to a remote router by using SSH. Part of the show interfaces command is shown. router#show interfaces Serial0/1/0 is up, line protocol is down At which OSI layer should the administrator begin troubleshooting? A. physical B. data link C. network D. transport
Answer: B Explanation: Explanation/Reference: https://learningnetwork.cisco.com/thread/12389 I think the indication here is "Serial 0 is up, line protocol is down". What causes this indication? Correct me if I am wrong. When you have this indication, a cable unplugged is not a correct answer. If you check the output of your "show interface serial 0" command again, you should notice it as "Serial 0 is down, line protocol is down. Under the "show ip int brief" you should see status = down and protocol = down as opposed to up, down. Because you disconnected the cable, layer 1 will go down, which is indicated by the serial 0 down status. The line protocol status is for layer 2. So, a cable unplugged is not a correct answer to "Serial 0 is up, line protocol is down". Hope this helps.
Which two of these functions do routers perform on packets? (Choose two.) A. Examine the Layer 2 headers of inbound packets and use that information to determine the next hops for the packets B. Update the Layer 2 headers of outbound packets with the MAC addresses of the next hops C. Examine the Layer 3 headers of inbound packets and use that information to determine the next hops for the packets D. Examine the Layer 3 headers of inbound packets and use that information to determine the complete paths along which the packets will be routed to their ultimate destinations E. Update the Layer 3 headers of outbound packets so that the packets are properly directed to valid next hops F. Update the Layer 3 headers of outbound packets so that the packets are properly directed to their ultimate destinations
Answer: B,C Explanation: Explanation/Reference: This is the basic function of the router to receive incoming packets and then forward them to their required destination. This is done by reading layer 3 headers of inbound packets and update the info to layer 2 for further hopping.
Which two of these statements are true of IPv6 address representation? (Choose two.) A. There are four types of IPv6 addresses: unicast, multicast, anycast, and broadcast. B. A single interface may be assigned multiple IPv6 addresses of any type. C. Every IPv6 interface contains at least one loopback address. D. The first 64 bits represent the dynamically created interface ID. E. Leading zeros in an IPv6 16 bit hexadecimal field are mandatory.
Answer: B,C Explanation: Explanation/Reference: http://www.cisco.com/en/US/technologies/tk648/tk872/ technologies_white_paper0900aecd802600 3d.pdf A single interface may be assigned multiple addresses of any type (unicast, anycast, multicast). Every IPv6-enabled interface must contain at least one loopback and one link-local address. Optionally, every interface can have multiple unique local and global addresses. IPv6 host addresses can be assigned in multiple ways: Static configuration Stateless autoconfiguration DHCPv6 When IPv6 is used over Ethernet networks, the Ethernet MAC address can be used to generate the 64-bit interface ID for the host. This is called the EUI-64 address.
Which three statements are correct about RIP version 2? (Choose three) A. It uses broadcast for its routing updates. B. It supports authentication. C. It is a classless routing protocol. D. It has a lower default administrative distance then RIP version 1. E. It has the same maximum hop count as RIP version 1. F. It does not send the subnet mask any updates.
Answer: B,C,E
Which statements accurately describe CDP? (Choose three.) A. CDP is an IEEE standard protocol. B. CDP is a Cisco proprietary protocol. C. CDP is a datalink layer protocol. D. CDP is a network layer protocol. E. CDP can discover directly connected neighboring Cisco devices. F. CDP can discover Cisco devices that are not directly connected.
Answer: B,C,E Explanation: CDP (Cisco Discovery Protocol) is a proprietary protocol designed by Cisco to help administrators collect information about both locally attached and remote devices. By using CDP, you can gather hardware and protocol information about neighbor devices containing useful info for troubleshooting and documenting the network.
How does TCP differ from UDP? (Choose two.) A. TCP provides best effort delivery. B. TCP provides synchronized communication. C. TCP segments are essentially datagrams. D. TCP provides sequence numbering of packets. E. TCP uses broadcast delivery.
Answer: B,D
Which command can you use to manually assign a static IPV6 address to a router interface? A. ipv6 address PREFIX_1::1/64 B. ipv6 autoconfig 2001:db8:2222:7272::72/64 C. ipv6 autoconfig D. ipv6 address 2001:db8:2222:7272::72/64
Answer: D
What are two recommended ways of protecting network device configuration files from outside network security threats? (Choose two.) A. Allow unrestricted access to the console or VTY ports. B. Use a firewall to restrict access from the outside to the network devices. C. Always use Telnet to access the device command line because its data is automatically encrypted. D. Use SSH or another encrypted and authenticated transport to access device configurations. E. Prevent the loss of passwords by disabling password encryption.
Answer: B,D
Some routers have been configured with default routes. What are some of the advantages of using default routes? (Choose two) A. They establish routes that will never go down. B. They keep routing tables small. C. They require a great deal of CPU power. D. They allow connectivity to remote networks that are not in the routing table E. They direct traffic from the internet into corporate networks.
Answer: B,D Explanation: Explanation/Reference: Cisco administration 101: What you need to know about default routes Reference: http://www.techrepublic.com/article/cisco-administration-101-what-you-need-to-know-aboutdefault-routes/
Which two options will help to solve the problem of a network that is suffering a broadcast storm? (Choose two.) A. a bridge B. a router C. a hub D. a Layer 3 switch E. an access point
Answer: B,D Explanation: Routers and layer 3 switches will not propagate broadcast traffic beyond the local segment, so the use of these devices is the best method for eliminating broadcast storms.
What are two common TCP applications? (Choose two.) A. TFTP B. SMTP C. SNMP D. FTP E. DNS
Answer: B,D Explanation: SMTP uses TCP port 25, while FTP uses TCP ports 20 and 21. http://pentestlab.wordpress.com/2012/03/05/common-tcpip-ports/
Which two statements describe the IP address 10.16.3.65/23? (Choose two.) A. The subnet address is 10.16.3.0 255.255.254.0. B. The lowest host address in the subnet is 10.16.2.1 255.255.254.0. C. The last valid host address in the subnet is 10.16.2.254 255.255.254.0 D. The broadcast address of the subnet is 10.16.3.255 255.255.254.0. E. The network is not subnetted.
Answer: B,D Explanation: Explanation/Reference: The mask 255.255.254.0 (/23) used with a Class A address means that there are 15 subnet bits and 9 host bits. The block size in the third octet is 2 (256 - 254). So this makes the subnets in 0, 2, 4, 6, etc., all the way to 254. The host 10.16.3.65 is in the 2.0 subnet. The next subnet is 4.0, so the broadcast address for the 2.0 subnet is 3.255. The valid host addresses are 2.1 through 3.254
Which two characteristics describe the access layer of the hierarchical network design model? (Choose two.) A. layer 3 support B. port security C. redundant components D. VLANs E. PoE
Answer: B,D Explanation: http://www.ciscopath.com/content/61/ http://www.mcmcse.com/cisco/guides/hierarchical_model.shtml Access layer The main purpose of the access layer is to provide direct connection to devices on the network and controlling which devices are allowed to communicate over it. The access layer interfaces with end devices, such as PCs, printers, and IP phones, to provide access to the rest of the network. The access layer can include routers, switches, bridges, hubs, and wireless access points (AP). Switch features in the Access layer:
Which three approaches can be used while migrating from an IPv4 addressing scheme to an IPv6 scheme? (Choose three) A. static mapping of IPv4 address to IPv6 addresses B. configuring IPv4 tunnels between IPv6 islands C. use DHCPv6 to map IPv4 addresses to IPv6 addresses D. use proxying and translation (NAT-PT) to translate IPv6 packets into IPv4 packets E. configure IPv6 directly F. enable dual-stack routing
Answer: B,D,F Explanation: Explanation/ Reference: http://www.opus1.com/ipv6/howdoitransitiontoipv6.html Connecting IPv6 islands with tunnels An IPv6 island is a network made of IPv6 links directly connected by IPv6 routers. In the early days of IPv6 deployment, there are many IPv6 islands. IPv6 in IPv4 tunnels are used to connect those islands together. In each island, one (or more) dual stack routers are designated to encapsulate and decapsulate IPv6 packets within IPv4 packets. Different mechanisms have been developed to manage tunnels: automatic tunnels3, configured tunnels3, tunnel brokers3, 6over43, 6to43,... Reference 2: http://www.petri.co.il/ipv6-transition.htm Network Address Translation - Protocol Translation (NAT-PT) The NAT-PT method enables the ability to either statically or dynamically configure a translation of a IPv4 network address into an IPv6 network address and vice versa. For those familiar with more typically NAT implementations, the operation is very similar but includes a protocol translation function. NAT-PT also ties in an Application Layer Gateway (ALG) functionality that converts Domain Name System (DNS) mappings between protocols. Dual Stack The simplest approach when transitioning to IPv6 is to run IPv6 on all of the devices that are currently running IPv4. If this is something that is possible within the organizational network, it is very easy to implement. However, for many organizations, IPv6 is not supported on all of the IPv4 devices; in these situations other methods must be considered.
Which of the following IP addresses are valid Class B host addresses if a default Class B mask is in use? (Choose two.) A. 10.6.8.35 B. 133.6.5.4 C. 192.168.5.9 D. 127.0.0.1 E. 190.6.5.4
Answer: B,E Explanation: Explanation/Reference: The IP addresses 133.6.5.4 and 190.6.5.4 are both valid Class B addresses when a default mask is in use. The Class B default mask is 255.255.0.0 and the range of valid addresses is 128.0.0.0- 191.255.255.255. The IP address 10.6.8.35 is a Class A address. The Class A default mask is 255.0.0.0 and the range of valid addresses is 1.0.0.0 - 127.255.255.255, with the exception of the range 127.0.0.1 - 127.255.255.255, which is reserved and cannot be assigned. The IP address 192.168.5.9 is a Class C address. The Class C default mask is 255.255.255.0 and the range of valid addresses is 192.0.0.0 - 223.255.255.255. The IP address 127.0.0.1 is a Class A address, but it comes from a reserved portion that cannot be assigned. The range 127.0.0.1 - 127.255.255.255 is used for diagnostics, and although any address in the range will work as a diagnostic address, 127.0.0.1 is known as the loopback address. If you can ping this address, or any address in the 127.0.0.1 - 127.255.255.255 range, then the NIC is working and TCP/IP is installed. The Class A default mask is 255.0.0.0 and the range of valid addresses is 1.0.0.0 - 127.255.255.255, with the exception of the range 127.0.0.1 - 127.255.255.255, which is reserved and cannot be assigned.
Which router command will configure an interface with the IP address 10.10.80.1/19? A. router(config-if)# ip address 10.10.80.1/19 B. router(config-if)# ip address 10.10.80.1 255.255.0.0 C. router(config-if)# ip address 10.10.80.1 255.255.255.0 D. router(config-if)# ip address 10.10.80.1 255.255.224.0 E. router(config-if)# ip address 10.10.80.1 255.255.240.0 F. router(config-if)# ip address 10.10.80.1 255.255.255.240
Answer: D Explanation: Explanation/Reference: 255.255.224 equal /19 in CIDR format hence the answer
Which two statements describe the operation of the CSMA/CD access method? (Choose two.) A. In a CSMA/CD collision domain, multiple stations can successfully transmit data simultaneously. B. In a CSMA/CD collision domain, stations must wait until the media is not in use before transmitting. C. The use of hubs to enlarge the size of collision domains is one way to improve the operation of the CSMA/CD access method. D. After a collision, the station that detected the collision has first priority to resend the lost data. E. After a collision, all stations run a random backoff algorithm. When the backoff delay period has expired, all stations have equal priority to transmit data. F. After a collision, all stations involved run an identical backoff algorithm and then synchronize with each other prior to transmitting data.
Answer: B,E Explanation: Ethernet networking uses Carrier Sense Multiple Access with Collision Detect (CSMA/CD), a protocol that helps devices share the bandwidth evenly without having two devices transmit at the same time on the network medium. CSMA/CD was created to overcome the problem of those collisions that occur when packets are transmitted simultaneously from different nodes. And trust me, good collision management is crucial, because when a node transmits in a CSMA/CD network, all the other nodes on the network receive and examine that transmission. Only bridges and routers can effectively prevent a transmission from propagating throughout the entire network! So, how does the CSMA/CD protocol work? Like this: when a host wants to transmit over the network, it first checks for the presence of a digital signal on the wire. If all is clear (no other host is transmitting), the host will then proceed with its transmission. But it doesn't stop there. The transmitting host constantly monitors the wire to make sure no other hosts begin transmitting. If the host detects another signal on the wire, it sends out an extended jam signal that causes all nodes on the segment to stop sending data (think, busy signal). The nodes respond to that jam signal by waiting a while before attempting to transmit again. Back off algorithms determine when the colliding stations can retransmit. If collisions keep occurring after 15 tries, the nodes attempting to transmit will then time out.
An administrator must assign static IP addresses to the servers in a network. For network192.168.20.24/29, the router is assigned the first usable host address while the sales server is given the last usable host address. Which of the following should be entered into the IP properties box for the sales server? A. IP address: 192.168.20.14 Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.248 Default Gateway: 192.168.20.9 B. IP address: 192.168.20.254 Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.0 Default Gateway: 192.168.20.1 C. IP address: 192.168.20.30 Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.248 Default Gateway: 192.168.20.25 D. IP address: 192.168.20.30 Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.240 Default Gateway: 192.168.20.17 E. IP address: 192.168.20.30 Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.240 Default Gateway: 192.168.20.25
Answer: C
What is the subnet address for the IP address 172.19.20.23/28? A. 172.19.20.0 B. 172.19.20.15 C. 172.19.20.16 D. 172.19.20.20 E. 172.19.20.32
Answer: C
An administrator is in the process of changing the configuration of a router. What command will allow the administrator to check the changes that have been made prior to saving the new configuration? A. Router# show startup-config B. Router# show current-config C. Router# show running-config D. Router# show memory E. Router# show flash F. Router# show processes
Answer: C Explanation: Explanation/Reference: This command followed by the appropriate parameter will show the running config hence the admin will be able to see what changes have been made, and then they can be saved.
On a Cisco switch, which protocol determines if an attached VoIP phone is from Cisco or from another vendor? A. RTP B. TCP C. CDP D. UDP
Answer: C Explanation: http://computernetworkingnotes.com/cisco-devices-administration-and-configuration/ciscodiscoveryprotocol. html The Cisco Unified IP Phone uses CDP to communicate information such as auxiliary VLAN ID, per port power management details, and Quality of Service (QoS) configuration information with the Cisco Catalyst switch. Cisco Discovery Protocol (CDP) is a proprietary protocol designed by Cisco to help administrators collect information about both locally attached and remote devices. By using CDP, you can gather hardware and protocol information about neighbor devices, which is useful info for troubleshooting the network. CDP messages are generated every 60 seconds as multicast messages on each of its active interfaces. The information shared in a CDP packet about a Cisco device includes the following: Name of the device configured with the hostname command IOS software version Hardware capabilities, such as routing, switching, and/or bridging Hardware platform, such as 2600, 2950, or 1900 The layer-3 address(es) of the device the interface the CDP update was generated on.
Which IP address is a private address? A. 12.0.0.1 B. 168.172.19.39 C. 172.20.14.36 D. 172.33.194.30 E. 192.169.42.34
Answer: C Explanation: Explanation/Reference:
Given an IP address of 192.168.1.42 255.255.255.248, what is the subnet address? A. 192.168.1.8/29 B. 192.168.1.32/27 C. 192.168.1.40/29 D. 192.168.1.16/28 E. 192.168.1.48/29
Answer: C Explanation: Explanation/Reference: 248 mask uses 5 bits (1111 1000) 42 IP in binary is (0010 1010) The base subnet therefore is the lowest binary value that can be written without changing the output of an AND operation of the subnet mask and IP... 1111 1000 AND 0010 1010 equals 0010 1000 - which is .40 /24 is standard class C mask. Adding the 5 bits from the .248 mask gives /29
What is the network address for the host with IP address 192.168.23.61/28? A. 192.168.23.0 B. 192.168.23.32 C. 192.168.23.48 D. 192.168.23.56 E. 192.168.23.60
Answer: C Explanation: Explanation/Reference: Convert bit-length prefix to quad-dotted decimal representation, then from it find the number of bits used for subnetting you can find previously calculated number of subnets by separating subnets each having value of last bit used for subnet masking Find that your IP address is in which subnet, that subnet's first address is network address and last address is broadcast address. Based on above steps the answer is option C
What is the subnet address of 172.16.159.159/22? A. 172.16.0.0 B. 172.16.128.0 C. 172.16.156.0 D. 172.16.159.0 E. 172.16.159.128 F. 172.16.192.0
Answer: C Explanation: Explanation/Reference: Converting to binary format it comes to 11111111.11111111.11111100.00000000 or 255.255.252.0 Starting with 172.16.0.0 and having increment of 4 we get.
If an Ethernet port on a router was assigned an IP address of 172.16.112.1/20, what is the maximum number of hosts allowed on this subnet? A. 1024 B. 2046 C. 4094 D. 4096 E. 8190
Answer: C Explanation: Explanation/Reference: Each octet represents eight bits. The bits, in turn, represent (from left to right): 128, 64, 32 , 16 , 8, 4, 2, 1 Add them up and you get 255. Add one for the all zeros option, and the total is 256. Now take away one of these for the network address (all zeros) and another for the broadcast address (all ones). Each octet represents 254 possible hosts. Or 254 possible networks. Unless you have subnet zero set on your network gear, in which case you could conceivably have 255. The CIDR addressing format (/20) tells us that 20 bits are used for the network portion, so the maximum number of networks are 2^20 minus one if you have subnet zero enabled, or minus 2 if not. You asked about the number of hosts. That will be 32 minus the number of network bits, minus two. So calculate it as (2^(32-20))-2, or (2^12)-2 = 4094
From which of the following attacks can Message Authentication Code (MAC) shield your network? A. DoS B. DDoS C. spoofing D. SYN floods
Answer: C Explanation: Explanation/Reference: Message Authentication Code (MAC) can shield your network from spoofing attacks. Spoofing, also known as masquerading, is a popular trick in which an attacker intercepts a network packet, replaces the source address of the packets header with the address of the authorized host, and reinserts fake information which is sent to the receiver. This type of attack involves modifying packet contents. MAC can prevent this type of attack and ensure data integrity by ensuring that no data has changed. MAC also protects against frequency analysis, sequence manipulation, and ciphertext-only attacks. MAC is a secure message digest that requires a secret key shared by the sender and receiver, making it impossible for sniffers to change both the data and the MAC as the receiver can detect the changes. A denial-of-service (DoS) attack floods the target system with unwanted requests, causing the loss of service to users. One form of this attack generates a flood of packets requesting a TCP connection with the target, tying up all resources and making the target unable to service other requests. MAC does not prevent DoS attacks. Stateful packet filtering is the most common defense against a DoS attack. A Distributed Denial of Service attack (DDoS) occurs when multiple systems are used to flood the network and tax the resources of the target system. Various intrusion detection systems, utilizing stateful packet filtering, can protect against DDoS attacks. In a SYN flood attack, the attacker floods the target with spoofed IP packets and causes it to either freeze or crash. A SYN flood attack is a type of denial of service attack that exploits the buffers of a device that accept incoming connections and therefore cannot be prevented by MAC. Common defenses against a SYN flood attack include filtering, reducing the SYN-RECEIVED timer, and implementing SYN cache or SYN cookies.
The ip helper-address command does what? A. assigns an IP address to a host B. resolves an IP address from a DNS server C. relays a DHCP request across networks D. resolves an IP address overlapping issue
Answer: C Explanation: Explanation/Reference: http://cisconet.com/tcpip/dhcp/107-how-to-use-ip-helper-address-to-connect-remote-dhcpserver. html When the DHCP client sends the DHCP request packet, it doesn't have an IP address. So it uses the all-zeroes address, 0.0.0.0, as the IP source address. And it doesn't know how to reach the DHCP server, so it uses a general broadcast address, 255.255.255.255, for the destination. So the router must replace the source address with its own IP address, for the interface that received the request. And it replaces the destination address with the address specified in the ip helper-address command. The client device's MAC address is included in the payload of the original DHCP request packet, so the router doesn't need to do anything to ensure that the server receives this information.
In the configuration of NAT, what does the keyword overload signify? A. When bandwidth is insufficient, some hosts will not be allowed to access network translation. B. The pool of IP addresses has been exhausted. C. Multiple internal hosts will use one IP address to access external network resources. D. If the number of available IP addresses is exceeded, excess traffic will use the specified address pool.
Answer: C Explanation: Explanation/Reference: http://evilrouters.net/2009/07/09/configuring-basic-nat-with-overloading/ Overloading (having multiple clients all NAT'd to the same IP address) is probably the most common implementation (especially for those of us who run NAT on a Cisco box at home!).
What is the purpose of flow control? A. To ensure data is retransmitted if an acknowledgement is not received. B. To reassemble segments in the correct order at the destination device. C. To provide a means for the receiver to govern the amount of data sent by the sender. D. To regulate the size of each segment.
Answer: C Explanation: Explanation/Reference: http://whatis.techtarget.com/definition/flow-control Flow control is the management of data flow between computers or devices or between nodes in a network so that the data can be handled at an efficient pace. Too much data arriving before a device can handle it causes data overflow, meaning the data is either lost or must be retransmitted. For serial data transmission locally or in a network, the Xon/Xoff protocol can be used. For modem connections, either Xon/Xoff or CTS/RTS (Clear to Send/Ready to Send) commands can be used to control data flow. In a network, flow control can also be applied by refusing additional device connections until the flow of traffic has subsided.
Which statements are true regarding ICMP packets? (Choose two.) A. They acknowledge receipt of TCP segments. B. They guarantee datagram delivery. C. TRACERT uses ICMP packets. D. They are encapsulated within IP datagrams. E. They are encapsulated within UDP datagrams.
Answer: C,D Explanation: Ping may be used to find out whether the local machines are connected to the network or whether a remote site is reachable. This tool is a common network tool for determining the network connectivity which uses ICMP protocol instead of TCP/IP and UDP/IP. This protocol is usually associated with the network management tools which provide network information to network administrators, such as ping and traceroute (the later also uses the UDP/IP protocol). ICMP is quite different from the TCP/IP and UDP/IP protocols. No source and destination ports are included in its packets. Therefore, usual packet-filtering rules for TCP/IP and UDP/IP are not applicable. Fortunately, a special "signature" known as the packet's Message type is included for denoting the purposes of the ICMP packet. Most commonly used message types are namely, 0, 3, 4, 5, 8, 11, and 12 which represent echo reply, destination unreachable, source quench, redirect, echo request, time exceeded, and parameter problem respectively. In the ping service, after receiving the ICMP "echo request" packet from the source location, the destination
An administrator is working with the 192.168.4.0 network, which has been subnetted with a /26 mask. Which two addresses can be assigned to hosts within the same subnet? (Choose two.) A. 192.168.4.61 B. 192.168.4.63 C. 192.168.4.67 D. 192.168.4.125 E. 192.168.4.128 F. 192.168.4.132
Answer: C,D Explanation: Only the values of host with 67 and 125 fall within the range of /26 CIDR subnet mask, all others lie beyond it.
The network administrator is using a Windows PC application that is called putty.exe for remote communication to a switch for network troubleshooting. Which two protocols could be used during this communication? (Choose two.) A. SNMP B. HTTP C. Telnet D. RMON E. SSH
Answer: C,E
What does administrative distance refer to? A. the cost of a link between two neighboring routers B. the advertised cost to reach a network C. the cost to reach a network that is administratively set D. a measure of the trustworthiness of a routing information source
Answer: D Explanation: Explanation/Reference: http://www.cisco.com/en/US/tech/tk365/ technologies_tech_note09186a0080094195.shtml Administrative distance is the feature that routers use in order to select the best path when there are two or more different routes to the same destination from two different routing protocols. Administrative distance defines the reliability of a routing protocol. Each routing protocol is prioritized in order of most to least reliable (believable) with the help of an administrative distance value. Administrative distance is the first criterion that a router uses to determine which routing protocol to use if two protocols provide route information for the same destination. Administrative distance is a measure of the trustworthiness of the source of the routing information. The smaller the administrative distance value, the more reliable the protocol.
What does a host on an Ethernet network do when it is creating a frame and it does not have the destination address? A. Drops the frame B. Sends out a Layer 3 broadcast message C. Sends a message to the router requesting the address D. Sends out an ARP request with the destination IP address
Answer: D Explanation: In this case, it will send out an ARP request for MAC address of the destination IP (assuming it doesn't already have it in its table) and then address it to the destination's MAC address.
What is the best practice when assigning IP addresses in a small office of six hosts? A. Use a DHCP server that is located at the headquarters. B. Use a DHCP server that is located at the branch office. C. Assign the addresses by using the local CDP protocol. D. Assign the addresses statically on each node.
Answer: D Explanation: Explanation/Reference: Its best to use static addressing scheme where the number of
When configuring NAT, the Internet interface is considered to be what? A. local B. inside C. global D. outside
Answer: D Explanation: Explanation/Reference: Network address translation or NAT requires the Internet to be considered as an outside interface else it won't serve the purpose it intends to.
Which OSI layer header contains the address of a destination host that is on another network? A. application B. session C. transport D. network E. data link F. physical
Answer: D Explanation: Explanation/Reference: Only network address contains this information. To transmit the packets the sender uses network address and datalink address. But the layer 2 address represents just the address of the next hop device on the way to the sender. It is changed on each hop. Network address remains the same.
Which layer of the TCP/IP stack combines the OSI model physical and data link layers? A. Internet layer B. transport layer C. application layer D. network access layer
Answer: D Explanation: Explanation/Reference: The Internet Protocol Suite, TCP/IP, is a suite of protocols used for communication over the internet. The TCP/ IP model was created after the OSI 7 layer model for two major reasons. First, the foundation of the Internet was built using the TCP/IP suite and through the spread of the World Wide Web and Internet, TCP/IP has been preferred. Second, a project researched by the Department of Defense (DOD) consisted of creating the TCP/IP protocols. The DOD's goal was to bring international standards which could not be met by the OSI model. Since the DOD was the largest software consumer and they preferred the TCP/IP suite, most vendors used this model rather then the OSI. Below is a side by side comparison of the TCP/IP and OSI models.
Which statement about IPv6 is true? A. Addresses are not hierarchical and are assigned at random. B. Only one IPv6 address can exist on a given interface. C. There are 2.7 billion addresses available. D. Broadcasts have been eliminated and replaced with multicasts.
Answer: D Explanation: Explanation/Reference: http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/cc757359(v=ws.10).aspx IPv6 has three types of addresses, which can be categorized by type and scope: Unicast addresses. A packet is delivered to one interface. Multicast addresses. A packet is delivered to multiple interfaces. Anycast addresses. A packet is delivered to the nearest of multiple interfaces (in terms of routing distance). IPv6 does not use broadcast messages. Unicast and anycast addresses in IPv6 have the following scopes (for multicast addresses, the scope are built into the address structure): Link-local. The scope is the local link (nodes on the same subnet). Site-local. The scope is the organization (private site addressing). Global. The scope is global (IPv6 Internet addresses). In addition, IPv6 has special addresses such as the loopback address. The scope of a special address depends on the type of special address. Much of the IPv6 address space is unassigned.
Which statement is true? A. An IPv6 address is 64 bits long and is represented as hexadecimal characters. B. An IPv6 address is 32 bits long and is represented as decimal digits. C. An IPv6 address is 128 bits long and is represented as decimal digits. D. An IPv6 address is 128 bits long and is represented as hexadecimal characters.
Answer: D Explanation: Explanation/Reference: http://www.cisco.com/en/US/technologies/tk648/tk872/ technologies_white_paper0900aecd802600 3d.pdf One of the key advantages IPv6 brings is the exponentially larger address space. The following will outline the basic address architecture of IPv6. 128-bit-long addresses Represented in hexadecimal format: Uses CIDR principles: prefix/prefix length x:x:x:x:x:x:x:x, where x is a 16-bit hex field The last 64 bits are used for the interface ID
Which option is a valid IPv6 address? A. 2001:0000:130F::099a::12a B. 2002:7654:A1AD:61:81AF:CCC1 C. FEC0:ABCD:WXYZ:0067::2A4 D. 2004:1:25A4:886F::1
Answer: D Explanation: Explanation/Reference: http://www.ipv6.com/articles/general/IPv6-Addressing.htm IPv6 Address Notation IPv6 addresses are denoted by eight groups of hexadecimal quartets separated by colons in between them. Following is an example of a valid IPv6 address: 2001:cdba:0000:0000:0000:0000:3257:9652 Any four-digit group of zeroes within an IPv6 address may be reduced to a single zero or altogether omitted. Therefore, the following IPv6 addresses are similar and equally valid: 2001:cdba:0000:0000:0000:0000:3257:9652 2001:cdba:0:0:0:0:3257:9652 2001:cdba::3257:9652 The URL for the above address will be of the form: http://[2001:cdba:0000:0000:0000:0000:3257:9652]/
Which address type does a switch use to make selective forwarding decisions? A. Source IP address B. Destination IP address C. Source and destination IP address D. Source MAC address E. Destination MAC address
Answer: E Explanation: Switches analyze the destination MAC to make its forwarding decision since it is a layer 2 device. Routers use the destination IP address to make forwarding decisions.
A workstation has just resolved a browser URL to the IP address of a server. What protocol will the workstation now use to determine the destination MAC address to be placed into frames directed toward the server? A. HTTP B. DNS C. DHCP D. RARP E. ARP
Answer: E Explanation: The RARP protocol is used to translate hardware interface addresses to protocol addresses. The RARP message format is very similar to the ARP format. When the booting computer sends the broadcast ARP request, it places its own hardware address in both the sending and receiving fields in the encapsulated ARP data packet. The RARP server will fill in the correct sending and receiving IP addresses in its response to the message. This way the booting computer will know its IP address when it gets the message from the RARP server
At which layer of the OSI model does the protocol that provides the information that is displayed by the show cdp neighbors command operate? A. application B. transport C. network D. physical E. data link
Answer: E Explanation: http://computernetworkingnotes.com/cisco-devices-administration-and-configuration/ciscodiscoveryprotocol. html CDP is a device discovery protocol that runs over Layer 2 (the data link layer) on all Cisco manufactured devices (routers, bridges, access servers, and switches) and allows network management applications to discover Cisco devices that are neighbors of already known devices. With CDP, network management applications can learn the device type and the Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) agent address of neighboring devices running lower-layer, transparent protocols. CDP allows devices to share basic configuration information without even configuring any protocol specific information and is enabled by default on all interfaces. CDP is a Datalink Protocol occurring at Layer 2 of the OSI model. CDP is not routable and can only go over to directly connected devices. CDP is enabled, by default, on all Cisco devices. CDP updates are generated as multicasts every 60 seconds with a hold-down period of 180 seconds for a missing neighbor. The no cdp run command globally disables CDP, while the no cdp enable command disables CDP on an interface. Use show cdp neighbors to list out your directly connected Cisco neighboring devices. Adding the detail parameter will display the layer-3 addressing configured on the neighbor.
Refer to the exhibit. What kind of cable should be used to make each connection that is identified by the numbers shown? A. 1 - Ethernet Crossover cable 2 - Ethernet straight-through cable 3 - Fiber Optic cable 4 - Rollover cable B. 1 - Ethernet straight-through cable 2 - Ethernet straight-through cable 3 - Serial cable 4 - Rollover cable C. 1 - Ethernet rollover cable 2 - Ethernet crossover cable 3 - Serial cable 4 - Null-modem cable D. 1 - Ethernet straight-through cable 2 - Ethernet Crossover cable 3 - Serial cable 4 - Rollover cable E. 1 - Ethernet straight-through cable 2 - Ethernet Crossover cable 3 - Serial cable 4 - Ethernet Straight-through cable
B. 1 - Ethernet straight-through cable 2 - Ethernet straight-through cable 3 - Serial cable 4 - Rollover cable
Refer to the exhibit. Which default gateway address should be assigned to HostA? A. 192.168.1.1 B. 192.168.1.65 C. 192.168.1.66 D. 192.168.1.129 E. 10.1.1.1 F. 10.1.1.2
B. 192.168.1.65
Which one of the following IP addresses is the last valid host in the subnet using mask 255.255.255.224? A. 192.168.2.63 B. 192.168.2.62 C. 192.168.2.61 D. 192.168.2.60 E. 192.168.2.32
B. 192.168.2.62
Given a Class C IP address subnetted with a /30 subnet mask, how many valid host IP addresses are available on each of the subnets? A. 1 B. 2 C. 4 D. 8 E. 252 F. 254
B. 2
A switch has 48 ports and 4 VLANs. How many collision and broadcast domains exist on the switch (collision, broadcast)? A. 4, 48 B. 48, 4 C. 48, 1 D. 1, 48 E. 4, 1
B. 48, 4
How many addresses will be available for dynamic NAT translation when a router is configured with the following commands? Router(config)#ip nat pool TAME 209.165.201.23 209.165.201.30 netmask 255.255.255.224 Router (config)#ip nat inside source list 9 pool TAME A. 7 B. 8 C. 9 D. 10 E. 24 F. 32
B. 8
What is the default maximum number of equal-cost paths that can be placed into the routing table of a Cisco OSPF router? A. 2 B. 8 C. 16 D. unlimited
B. 8
Which two of these statements are true of IPv6 address representation? (Choose two.) A. There are four types of IPv6 addresses: unicast, multicast, anycast, and broadcast. B. A single interface may be assigned multiple IPv6 addresses of any type. C. Every IPv6 interface contains at least one loopback address. D. The first 64 bits represent the dynamically created interface ID. E. Leading zeros in an IPv6 16 bit hexadecimal field are mandatory.
B. A single interface may be assigned multiple IPv6 addresses of any type. C. Every IPv6 interface contains at least one loopback address.
How does a switch differ from a hub? A. A switch does not induce any latency into the frame transfer time. B. A switch tracks MAC addresses of directly-connected devices. C. A switch operates at a lower, more efficient layer of the OSI model. D. A switch decreases the number of broadcast domains. E. A switch decreases the number of collision domains.
B. A switch tracks MAC addresses of directly-connected devices.
Refer to the exhibit. Assume that all router interfaces are operational and correctly configured. In addition, assume that OSPF has been correctly configured on router R2. How will the default route configured on R1 affect the operation of R2? A. Any packet destined for a network that is not directly connected to router R2 will be dropped immediately. B. Any packet destined for a network that is not referenced in the routing table of router R2 will be directed to R1. R1 will then send that packet back to R2 and a routing loop will occur. C. Any packet destined for a network that is not directly connected to router R1 will be dropped. D. The networks directly connected to router R2 will not be able to communicate with the 172.16.100.0, 172.16.100.128, and 172.16.100.64 subnetworks. E. Any packet destined for a network that is not directly connected to router R2 will be dropped immediately because of the lack of a gateway on R1.
B. Any packet destined for a network that is not referenced in the routing table of router R2 will be directed to R1. R1 will then send that packet back to R2 and a routing loop will occur.
Which statements accurately describe CDP? (Choose three.) A. CDP is an IEEE standard protocol. B. CDP is a Cisco proprietary protocol. C. CDP is a datalink layer protocol. D. CDP is a network layer protocol. E. CDP can discover directly connected neighboring Cisco devices. F. CDP can discover Cisco devices that are not directly connected.
B. CDP is a Cisco proprietary protocol. C. CDP is a datalink layer protocol. E. CDP can discover directly connected neighboring Cisco devices.
How can you ensure that only the MAC address of a server is allowed by switch port Fa0/1? A. Configure port Fa0/1 to accept connections only from the static IP address of the server. B. Configure the server MAC address as a static entry of port security. C. Use a proprietary connector type on Fa0/1 that is incomputable with other host connectors. D. Bind the IP address of the server to its MAC address on the switch to prevent other hosts from spoofing the server IP address.
B. Configure the server MAC address as a static entry of port security.
Refer to the exhibit. The two connected ports on the switch are not turning orange or green. What would be the most effective steps to troubleshoot this physical layer problem? (Choose three.) A. Ensure that the Ethernet encapsulations match on the interconnected router and switch ports. B. Ensure that cables A and B are straight-through cables. C. Ensure cable A is plugged into a trunk port. D. Ensure the switch has power. E. Reboot all of the devices. F. Reseat all cables.
B. Ensure that cables A and B are straight-through cables. D. Ensure the switch has power. F. Reseat all cables.
Refer to the exhibit. The two routers have had their startup configurations cleared and have been restarted. At a minimum, what must the administrator do to enable CDP to exchange information between R1 and R2? A. Configure the router with the cdp enable command. B. Enter no shutdown commands on the R1 and R2 fa0/1 interfaces. C. Configure IP addressing and no shutdown commands on both the R1 and R2 fa0/1 interfaces. D. Configure IP addressing and no shutdown commands on either of the R1 or R2 fa0/1 interfaces.
B. Enter no shutdown commands on the R1 and R2 fa0/1 interfaces.
Refer to the exhibit. A network associate has configured OSPF with the command: City(config-router)# network 192.168.12.64 0.0.0.63 area 0 After completing the configuration, the associate discovers that not all the interfaces are participating in OSPF. Which three of the interfaces shown in the exhibit will participate in OSPF according to this configuration statement? (Choose three.) A. FastEthernet0 /0 B. FastEthernet0 /1 C. Serial0/0 D. Serial0/1.102 E. Serial0/1.103 F. Serial0/1.104
B. FastEthernet0 /1 C. Serial0/0 D. Serial0/1.102
Refer to the exhibit. As packets travel from Mary to Robert, which three devices will use the destination MAC address of the packet to determine a forwarding path? (Choose three.) A. Hub1 B. Switch1 C. Router1 D. Switch2 E. Router2 F. Switch3
B. Switch1 D. Switch2 F. Switch3
After the network has converged, what type of messaging, if any, occurs between R3 and R4? A. No messages are exchanged B. Hellos are sent every 10 seconds. C. The full database from each router is sent every 30 seconds. D. The routing table from each router is sent every 60 seconds.
B. Hellos are sent every 10 seconds.
Which network device functions only at Layer 1 of the OSI model? A. Bridge B. Hub C. NIC D. Router E. Switch
B. Hub
Refer to the exhibit. Host A can communicate with Host B but not with Hosts C or D. How can the network administrator solve this problem? A. Configure Hosts C and D with IP addresses in the 192.168.2.0 network. B. Install a router and configure a route to route between VLANs 2 and 3. C. Install a second switch and put Hosts C and D on that switch while Hosts A and B remain on the original switch. D. Enable the VLAN trunking protocol on the switch.
B. Install a router and configure a route to route between VLANs 2 and 3.
Which statement describes the process ID that is used to run OSPF on a router? A. It is globally significant and is used to represent the AS number. B. It is locally significant and is used to identify an instance of the OSPF database. C. It is globally significant and is used to identify OSPF stub areas. D. It is locally significant and must be the same throughout an area.
B. It is locally significant and is used to identify an instance of the OSPF database.
Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are true about the loopback address that is configured on RouterB? (Choose two.) A. It ensures that data will be forwarded by RouterB. B. It provides stability for the OSPF process on RouterB. C. It specifies that the router ID for RouterB should be 10.0.0.1. D. It decreases the metric for routes that are advertised from RouterB. E. It indicates that RouterB should be elected the DR for the LAN.
B. It provides stability for the OSPF process on RouterB. C. It specifies that the router ID for RouterB should be 10.0.0.1.
What are two benefits of using a single OSPF area network design? (Choose two.) A. It is less CPU intensive for routers in the single area. B. It reduces the types of LSAs that are generated. C. It removes the need for virtual links. D. It increases LSA response times. E. It reduces the number of required OSPF neighbor adjacencies.
B. It reduces the types of LSAs that are generated. C. It removes the need for virtual links.
What should be part of a comprehensive network security plan? A. Allow users to develop their own approach to network security. B. Physically secure network equipment from potential access by unauthorized individuals. C. Encourage users to use personal information in their passwords to minimize the likelihood of passwords being forgotten. D. Delay deployment of software patches and updates until their effect on end-user equipment is well known and widely reported. E. Minimize network overhead by deactivating automatic antivirus client updates.
B. Physically secure network equipment from potential access by unauthorized individuals.
Refer to the exhibit. A company wants to use NAT in the network shown. Which commands will apply the NAT configuration to the proper interfaces? (Choose two.) A. R1(config)# interface serial0/1 R1(config-if)# ip nat inside B. R1(config)# interface serial0/1 R1(config-if)# ip nat outside C. R1(config)# interface fastethernet0/0 R1(config-if)# ip nat inside D. R1(config)# interface fastethernet0/0 R1(config-if)# ip nat outside E. R1(config)# interface serial0/1 R1(config-if)# ip nat outside source pool 200.2.2.18 255.255.255.252 F. R1(config)# interface fastethernet0/0 R1(config-if)# ip nat inside source 10.10.0.0 255.255.255.0
B. R1(config)# interface serial0/1 R1(config-if)# ip nat outside C. R1(config)# interface fastethernet0/0 R1(config-if)# ip nat inside
To allow or prevent load balancing to network 172.16.3.0/24, which of the following commands could be used in R2? (Choose two.) A. R2(config-if)#clock rate B. R2(config-if)#bandwidth C. R2(config-if)#ip ospf cost D. R2(config-if)#ip ospf priority E. R2(config-router)#distance ospf
B. R2(config-if)#bandwidth C. R2(config-if)#ip ospf cost
Which commands are required to properly configure a router to run OSPF and to add network 192.168.16.0/24 to OSPF area 0? (Choose two.) A. Router(config)# router ospf 0 B. Router(config)# router ospf 1 C. Router(config)# router ospf area 0 D. Router(config-router)# network 192.168.16.0 0.0.0.255 0 E. Router(config-router)# network 192.168.16.0 0.0.0.255 area 0 F. Router(config-router)# network 192.168.16.0 255.255.255.0 area 0
B. Router(config)# router ospf 1 E. Router(config-router)# network 192.168.16.0 0.0.0.255 area 0
How does TCP differ from UDP? (Choose two.) A. TCP provides best effort delivery. B. TCP provides synchronized communication. C. TCP segments are essentially datagrams. D. TCP provides sequence numbering of packets. E. TCP uses broadcast delivery.
B. TCP provides synchronized communication. D. TCP provides sequence numbering of packets.
Two routers named Atlanta and Brevard are connected by their serial interfaces as shown in the exhibit, but there is no data connectivity between them. The Atlanta router is known to have a correct configuration. Given the partial configurations shown in the exhibit, what is the problem on the Brevard router that is causing the lack of connectivity? A. A loopback is not set. B. The IP address is incorrect. C. The subnet mask is incorrect. D. The serial line encapsulations are incompatible. E. The maximum transmission unit (MTU) size is too large. F. The bandwidth setting is incompatible with the connected interface.
B. The IP address is incorrect.
Refer to the exhibit. The MAC address table is shown in its entirety. The Ethernet frame that is shown arrives at the switch. What two operations will the switch perform when it receives this frame? (Choose two.) A. The switch will not forward a frame with this destination MAC address. B. The MAC address of 0000.00aa.aaaa will be added to the MAC Address Table. C. The MAC address of ffff.ffff.ffff will be added to the MAC address table. D. The frame will be forwarded out all active switch ports except for port fa0/0. E. The frame will be forwarded out fa0/0 and fa0/1 only. F. The frame will be forwarded out all the ports on the switch.
B. The MAC address of 0000.00aa.aaaa will be added to the MAC Address Table. D. The frame will be forwarded out all active switch ports except for port fa0/0.
The network administrator is testing connectivity from the branch router to the newly installed application server. What is the most likely reason for the first ping having a success rate of only 60 percent? A. The network is likely to be congested, with the result that packets are being intermittently dropped. B. The branch router had to resolve the application server MAC address. C. There is a short delay while NAT translates the server IP address. D. A routing table lookup delayed forwarding on the first two ping packets. E. The branch router LAN interface should be upgraded to FastEthernet.
B. The branch router had to resolve the application server MAC address.
Which two statements describe the IP address 10.16.3.65/23? (Choose two.) A. The subnet address is 10.16.3.0 255.255.254.0. B. The lowest host address in the subnet is 10.16.2.1 255.255.254.0. C. The last valid host address in the subnet is 10.16.2.254 255.255.254.0 D. The broadcast address of the subnet is 10.16.3.255 255.255.254.0. E. The network is not subnetted.
B. The lowest host address in the subnet is 10.16.2.1 255.255.254.0. D. The broadcast address of the subnet is 10.16.3.255 255.255.254.0.
Refer to the exhibit. When running OSPF, what would cause router A not to form an adjacency with router B? A. The loopback addresses are on different subnets. B. The values of the dead timers on the routers are different. C. Route summarization is enabled on both routers. D. The process identifier on router A is different than the process identifier on router B.
B. The values of the dead timers on the routers are different.
Which two of these functions do routers perform on packets? (Choose two.) A. Examine the Layer 2 headers of inbound packets and use that information to determine the next hops for the packets B. Update the Layer 2 headers of outbound packets with the MAC addresses of the next hops C. Examine the Layer 3 headers of inbound packets and use that information to determine the next hops for the packets D. Examine the Layer 3 headers of inbound packets and use that information to determine the complete paths along which the packets will be routed to their ultimate destinations E. Update the Layer 3 headers of outbound packets so that the packets are properly directed to valid next hops F. Update the Layer 3 headers of outbound packets so that the packets are properly directed to their ultimate destinations
B. Update the Layer 2 headers of outbound packets with the MAC addresses of the next hops C. Examine the Layer 3 headers of inbound packets and use that information to determine the next hops for the packets
If a host experiences intermittent issues that relate to congestion within a network while remaining connected, what could cause congestion on this LAN? A. half-duplex operation B. broadcast storms C. network segmentation D. multicasting
B. broadcast storms
Select two options which are security Issues which need to be modified before RouterA is used? (Choose two.) A. unencrypted weak password is configured to protect privilege mode B. inappropriate wording in banner message C. the virtual terminal lines have a weak password configured D. virtual terminal lines have a password, but it will not be used E. configuration supports un-secure web server access
B. inappropriate wording in banner message D. virtual terminal lines have a password, but it will not be used
Which command enables IPv6 forwarding on a Cisco router? A. ipv6 host B. ipv6 unicast-routing C. ipv6 local D. ipv6 neighbor
B. ipv6 unicast-routing
Which two characteristics describe the access layer of the hierarchical network design model? (Choose two.) A. layer 3 support B. port security C. redundant components D. VLANs E. PoE
B. port security D. VLANs
The following commands are entered on the router: Burbank(config)# enable secret fortress Burbank(config)# line con 0 Burbank(config-line)# login Burbank(config-line)# password n0way1n Burbank(config-line)# exit Burbank(config)# service password-encryption What is the purpose of the last command entered? A. to require the user to enter an encrypted password during the login process B. to prevent the vty, console, and enable passwords from being displayed in plain text in the configuration files C. to encrypt the enable secret password D. to provide login encryption services between hosts attached to the router
B. to prevent the vty, console, and enable passwords from being displayed in plain text in the configuration files
Why would a network administrator configure port security on a switch? A. to prevent unauthorized Telnet access to a switch port B. to prevent unauthorized hosts from accessing the LAN C. to limit the number of Layer 2 broadcasts on a particular switch port D. block unauthorized access to the switch management interfaces
B. to prevent unauthorized hosts from accessing the LAN
Why do large OSPF networks use a hierarchical design? (Choose three.) A. to decrease latency by increasing bandwidth B. to reduce routing overhead C. to speed up convergence D. to confine network instability to single areas of the network E. to reduce the complexity of router configuration F. to lower costs by replacing routers with distribution layer switches
B. to reduce routing overhead C. to speed up convergence D. to confine network instability to single areas of the network
An administrator is working with the 192.168.4.0 network, which has been subnetted with a /26 mask. Which two addresses can be assigned to hosts within the same subnet? (Choose two.) A. 192.168.4.61 B. 192.168.4.63 C. 192.168.4.67 D. 192.168.4.125 E. 192.168.4.128 F. 192.168.4.132
C. 192.168.4.67 D. 192.168.4.125
Which IP address is a private address? A. 12.0.0.1 B. 168.172.19.39 C. 172.20.14.36 D. 172.33.194.30 E. 192.169.42.34
C. 172.20.14.36
If an Ethernet port on a router was assigned an IP address of 172.16.112.1/20, what is the maximum number of hosts allowed on this subnet? A. 1024 B. 2046 C. 4094 D. 4096 E. 8190
C. 4094
The network administrator is using a Windows PC application that is called putty.exe for remote communication to a switch for network troubleshooting. Which two protocols could be used during this communication? (Choose two.) A. SNMP B. HTTP C. Telnet D. RMON E. SSH
C. Telnet E. SSH
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has configured a Catalyst 2950 switch for remote management by pasting into the console the configuration commands that are shown in the exhibit. However, a Telnet session cannot be successfully established from a remote host. What should be done to fix this problem? A. Change the first line to interface fastethernet 0/1. B. Change the first line to interface vlan 0/1. C. Change the fifth line to ip default-gateway 192.168.17.241. D. Change the fifth line to ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.17.1. E. Change the sixth line to line con 0.
C. Change the fifth line to ip default-gateway 192.168.17.241.
An administrator must assign static IP addresses to the servers in a network. For network 192.168.20.24/29, the router is assigned the first usable host address while the sales server is given the last usable host address. Which of the following should be entered into the IP properties box for the sales server? A. IP address: 192.168.20.14 Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.248 Default Gateway: 192.168.20.9 B. IP address: 192.168.20.254 Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.0 Default Gateway: 192.168.20.1 C. IP address: 192.168.20.30 Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.248 Default Gateway: 192.168.20.25 D. IP address: 192.168.20.30 Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.240 Default Gateway: 192.168.20.17 E. IP address: 192.168.20.30 Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.240 Default Gateway: 192.168.20.25
C. IP address: 192.168.20.30 Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.248 Default Gateway: 192.168.20.25
In the configuration of NAT, what does the keyword overload signify? A. When bandwidth is insufficient, some hosts will not be allowed to access network translation. B. The pool of IP addresses has been exhausted. C. Multiple internal hosts will use one IP address to access external network resources. D. If the number of available IP addresses is exceeded, excess traffic will use the specified address pool.
C. Multiple internal hosts will use one IP address to access external network resources.
Refer to the exhibit. After the power-on-self test (POST), the system LED of a Cisco 2950 switch turns amber. What is the status of the switch? A. The POST was successful. B. The switch has a problem with the internal power supply and needs an external power supply to be attached. C. POST failed and there is a problem that prevents the operating system from being loaded. D. The switch has experienced an internal problem but data can still be forwarded at a slower rate. E. The switch passed POST, but all the switch ports are busy.
C. POST failed and there is a problem that prevents the operating system from being loaded.
The command ip route 192.168.100.160 255.255.255.224 192.168.10.2 was issued on a router. No routing protocols or other static routes are configured on the router. Which statement is true about this command? A. The interface with IP address 192.168.10.2 is on this router. B. The command sets a gateway of last resort for the router. C. Packets that are destined for host 192.168.100.160 will be sent to 192.168.10.2. D. The command creates a static route for all IP traffic with the source address 192.168.100.160.
C. Packets that are destined for host 192.168.100.160 will be sent to 192.168.10.2.
Refer to the exhibit. A technician pastes the configurations in the exhibit into the two new routers shown. Otherwise, the routers are configured with their default configurations. A ping from Host1 to Host 2 fails, but the technician is able to ping the S0/0 interface of R2 from Host 1. The configurations of the hosts have been verified as correct. What could be the cause of the problem? A. The serial cable on R1 needs to be replaced. B. The interfaces on R2 are not configured properly C. R1 has no route to the 192.168.1.128 network. D. The IP addressing scheme has overlapping subnetworks. E. The ip subnet-zero command must be configured on both routers.
C. R1 has no route to the 192.168.1.128 network.
Refer to the exhibit. If CDP is enabled on all devices and interfaces, which devices will appear in the output of a show cdp neighbors command issued from R2? A. R2 and R3 B. R1 and R3 C. R3 and S2 D. R1, S1, S2, and R3 E. R1, S1, S2, R3, and S3
C. R3 and S2
An administrator is in the process of changing the configuration of a router. What command will allow the administrator to check the changes that have been made prior to saving the new configuration? A. Router# show startup-config B. Router# show current-config C. Router# show running-config D. Router# show memory E. Router# show flash F. Router# show processes
C. Router# show running-config
Refer to the exhibit. If the resume command is entered after the sequence that is shown in the exhibit, which router prompt will be displayed? A. Router1> B. Router1# C. Router2> D. Router2#
C. Router2>
Which statements are true regarding ICMP packets? (Choose two.) A. They acknowledge receipt of TCP segments. B. They guarantee datagram delivery. C. TRACERT uses ICMP packets. D. They are encapsulated within IP datagrams. E. They are encapsulated within UDP datagrams.
C. TRACERT uses ICMP packets. D. They are encapsulated within IP datagrams.
Refer to the exhibit. A TFTP server has recently been installed in the Atlanta office. The network administrator is located in the NY office and has made a console connection to the NY router. After establishing the connection they are unable to backup the configuration file and IOS of the NY router to the TFTP server. What is the cause of this problem? A. The NY router has an incorrect subnet mask. B. The TFTP server has an incorrect IP address. C. The TFTP server has an incorrect subnet mask. D. The network administrator computer has an incorrect IP address.
C. The TFTP server has an incorrect subnet mask.
A network administrator is trying to add a new router into an established OSPF network. The networks attached to the new router do not appear in the routing tables of the other OSPF routers. Given the information in the partial configuration shown below, what configuration error is causing this problem? Router(config)# router ospf 1 Router(config-router)# network 10.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 area 0 A. The process id is configured improperly. B. The OSPF area is configured improperly. C. The network wildcard mask is configured improperly. D. The network number is configured improperly. E. The AS is configured improperly. F. The network subnet mask is configured improperly.
C. The network wildcard mask is configured improperly.
Refer to the exhibit. A network technician is asked to design a small network with redundancy. The exhibit represents this design, with all hosts configured in the same VLAN. What conclusions can be made about this design? A. This design will function as intended. B. Spanning-tree will need to be used. C. The router will not accept the addressing scheme. D. The connection between switches should be a trunk. E. The router interfaces must be encapsulated with the 802.1Q protocol.
C. The router will not accept the addressing scheme.
Refer to the exhibit. An administrator cannot connect from R1 to R2. To troubleshoot this problem, the administrator has entered the command shown in the exhibit. Based on the output shown, what could be the problem? A. The serial interface is configured for half duplex. B. The serial interface does not have a cable attached. C. The serial interface has the wrong type of cable attached. D. The serial interface is configured for the wrong frame size. E. The serial interface has a full buffer.
C. The serial interface has the wrong type of cable attached.
What is the purpose of flow control? A. To ensure data is retransmitted if an acknowledgement is not received. B. To reassemble segments in the correct order at the destination device. C. To provide a means for the receiver to govern the amount of data sent by the sender. D. To regulate the size of each segment.
C. To provide a means for the receiver to govern the amount of data sent by the sender.
Which layer of the OSI model controls the reliability of communications between network devices using flow control, sequencing and acknowledgments? A. Physical B. Data-link C. Transport D. Network
C. Transport
Refer to the exhibit. What must be configured to establish a successful connection from Host A to switch SW-A through router RT-A? A. VLAN 1 on RT-A B. IP routing on SW-A C. default gateway on SW-A D. crossover cable connecting SW-A and RT-A
C. default gateway on SW-A
The network administrator has found the following problem. The remote networks 172.16.10.0, 172.16.20.0, and 172.16.30.0 are accessed through the Central router's serial 0/0 interface. No users are able to access 172.16.20.0. After reviewing the command output shown in the graphic, what is the most likely cause of the problem? A. no gateway of last resort on Central B. Central router's not receiving 172.16.20.0 update C. incorrect static route for 172.16.20.0 D. 172.16.20.0 not located in Central's routing table
C. incorrect static route for 172.16.20.0
What command sequence will configure a router to run OSPF and add network 10.1.1.0 /24 to area 0? A. router ospf area 0 network 10.1.1.0 255.255.255.0 area 0 B. router ospf network 10.1.1.0 0.0.0.255 C. router ospf 1 network 10.1.1.0 0.0.0.255 area 0 D. router ospf area 0 network 10.1.1.0 0.0.0.255 area 0 E. router ospf network 10.1.1.0 255.255.255.0 area 0 F. router ospf 1 network 10.1.1.0 0.0.0.255
C. router ospf 1 network 10.1.1.0 0.0.0.255 area 0
Refer to the exhibit. If the router Cisco returns the given output and has not had its router ID set manually, what value will OSPF use as its router ID? A. 192.168.1.1 B. 172.16.1.1 C. 1.1.1.1 D. 2.2.2.2
D. 2.2.2.2
What must occur before a workstation can exchange HTTP packets with a web server? A. A UDP connection must be established between the workstation and its default gateway. B. A UDP connection must be established between the workstation and the web server. C. A TCP connection must be established between the workstation and its default gateway. D. A TCP connection must be established between the workstation and the web server. E. An ICMP connection must be established between the workstation and its default gateway. F. An ICMP connection must be established between the workstation and the web server.
D. A TCP connection must be established between the workstation and the web server.
Refer to the exhibit. A technician is troubleshooting a host connectivity problem. The host is unable to ping a server connected to Switch_A. Based on the results of the testing, what could be the problem? A. A remote physical layer problem exists. B. The host NIC is not functioning. C. TCP/IP has not been correctly installed on the host. D. A local physical layer problem exists.
D. A local physical layer problem exists.
What is the best practice when assigning IP addresses in a small office of six hosts? A. Use a DHCP server that is located at the headquarters. B. Use a DHCP server that is located at the branch office. C. Assign the addresses by using the local CDP protocol. D. Assign the addresses statically on each node.
D. Assign the addresses statically on each node.
Which statement about IPv6 is true? A. Addresses are not hierarchical and are assigned at random. B. Only one IPv6 address can exist on a given interface. C. There are 2.7 billion addresses available. D. Broadcasts have been eliminated and replaced with multicasts.
D. Broadcasts have been eliminated and replaced with multicasts.
The internetwork infrastructure of company XYZ consists of a single OSPF area as shown in the graphic. There is concern that a lack of router resources is impeding internetwork performance. As part of examining the router resources, the OSPF DRs need to be known. All the router OSPF priorities are at the default and the router IDs are shown with each router. Which routers are likely to have been elected as DR? (Choose two.) A. Corp-1 B. Corp-2 C. Corp-3 D. Corp-4 E. Branch-1 F. Branch-2
D. Corp-4 F. Branch-2
Refer to the exhibit. A problem with network connectivity has been observed. It is suspected that the cable connected to switch port Fa0/9 on Switch1 is disconnected. What would be an effect of this cable being disconnected? A. Host B would not be able to access the server in VLAN9 until the cable is reconnected. B. Communication between VLAN3 and the other VLANs would be disabled. C. The transfer of files from Host B to the server in VLAN9 would be significantly slower. D. For less than a minute, Host B would not be able to access the server in VLAN9. Then normal network function would resume.
D. For less than a minute, Host B would not be able to access the server in VLAN9. Then normal network function would resume.
Refer to the exhibit. For security reasons, information about RTA, including platform and IP addresses, should not be accessible from the Internet. This information should, however, be accessible to devices on the internal networks of RTA. Which command or series of commands will accomplish these objectives? A. RTA(config)#no cdp run B. RTA(config)#no cdp enable C. RTA(config)#interface s0/0 RTA(config-if)#no cdp run D. RTA(config)#interface s0/0 RTA(config-if)#no cdp enable
D. RTA(config)#interface s0/0 RTA(config-if)#no cdp enable
Refer to the graphic. R1 is unable to establish an OSPF neighbor relationship with R3. What are possible reasons for this problem? (Choose two.) A. All of the routers need to be configured for backbone Area 1. B. R1 and R2 are the DR and BDR, so OSPF will not establish neighbor adjacency with R3. C. A static route has been configured from R1 to R3 and prevents the neighbor adjacency from being established. D. The hello and dead interval timers are not set to the same values on R1 and R3. E. EIGRP is also configured on these routers with a lower administrative distance. F. R1 and R3 are configured in different areas.
D. The hello and dead interval timers are not set to the same values on R1 and R3. F. R1 and R3 are configured in different areas.
Refer to the exhibit. After configuring two interfaces on the HQ router, the network administrator notices an error message. What must be done to fix this error? A. The serial interface must be configured first. B. The serial interface must use the address 192.168.1.2 C. The subnet mask of the serial interface should be changed to 255.255.255.0 D. The subnet mask of the FastEthernet interface should be changed to 255.255.255.240 E. The address of the FastEthernet interface should be changed to 192.168.1.66
D. The subnet mask of the FastEthernet interface should be changed to 255.255.255.240
What does administrative distance refer to? A. the cost of a link between two neighboring routers B. the advertised cost to reach a network C. the cost to reach a network that is administratively set D. a measure of the trustworthiness of a routing information source
D. a measure of the trustworthiness of a routing information source
What does the "Inside Global" address represent in the configuration of NAT? A. the summarized address for all of the internal subnetted addresses B. the MAC address of the router used by inside hosts to connect to the Internet C. a globally unique, private IP address assigned to a host on the inside network D. a registered address that represents an inside host to an outside network
D. a registered address that represents an inside host to an outside network
Which command can you use to manually assign a static IPV6 address to a router interface? A. ipv6 address PREFIX_1::1/64 B. ipv6 autoconfig 2001:db8:2222:7272::72/64 C. ipv6 autoconfig D. ipv6 address 2001:db8:2222:7272::72/64
D. ipv6 address 2001:db8:2222:7272::72/64
Which OSI layer header contains the address of a destination host that is on another network? A. application B. session C. transport D. network E. data link F. physical
D. network
Which layer of the TCP/IP stack combines the OSI model physical and data link layers? A. Internet layer B. transport layer C. application layer D. network access layer
D. network access layer
When configuring NAT, the Internet interface is considered to be what? A. local B. inside C. global D. outside
D. outside
Which router command will configure an interface with the IP address 10.10.80.1/19? A. router(config-if)# ip address 10.10.80.1/19 B. router(config-if)# ip address 10.10.80.1 255.255.0.0 C. router(config-if)# ip address 10.10.80.1 255.255.255.0 D. router(config-if)# ip address 10.10.80.1 255.255.224.0 E. router(config-if)# ip address 10.10.80.1 255.255.240.0 F. router(config-if)# ip address 10.10.80.1 255.255.255.240
D. router(config-if)# ip address 10.10.80.1 255.255.224.0
Refer to the exhibit. Which command would you use to configure a static route on Router1 to network 192.168.202.0/24 with a nondefault administrative distance? A. router1(config)#ip route 1 192.168.201.1 255.255.255.0 192.168.201.2 B. router1(config)#ip route 192.168.202.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.201.2 1 C. router1(config)#ip route 5 192.168.202.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.201.2 D. router1(config)#ip route 192.168.202.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.201.2 5
D. router1(config)#ip route 192.168.202.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.201.2 5
Refer to the exhibit. What is the simplest way to configure routing between the regional office network 10.89.0.0/20 and the corporate network? A. router1(config)#ip route 10.89.0.0 255.255.240.0 10.89.16.2 B. router2(config)#ip route 10.89.3.0 255.255.0.0 10.89.16.2 C. router1(config)#ip route 10.89.0.0 255.255.240.0 10.89.16.1 D. router2(config)#ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.89.16.1
D. router2(config)#ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.89.16.1
Refer to the exhibit. A person is trying to send a file from a host on Network A of the JAX Company to a server on Network Z of the XYZ Company. The file transfer fails. The host on Network A can communicate with other hosts on Network A. Which command, issued from router RTA, would be the most useful for troubleshooting this problem? A. show flash: B. show history C. show version D. show interfaces E. show controllers serial
D. show interfaces
Refer to the exhibit. The host in Kiev sends a request for an HTML document to the server in Minsk. What will be the source IP address of the packet as it leaves the Kiev router? A. 10.1.0.1 B. 10.1.0.5 C. 10.1.0.6 D. 10.1.0.14 E. 10.1.1.16 F. 10.1.2.8
E. 10.1.1.16
Refer to the exhibit. All devices attached to the network are shown. How many collision domains are present in this network? A. 2 B. 3 C. 6 D. 9 E. 15
E. 15
How many simultaneous Telnet sessions does a Cisco router support by default? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 E. 5 F. 6
E. 5
Refer to the exhibit. If host A sends an IP packet to host B, what will the source physical address be in the frame when it reaches host B? A. 10.168.10.99 B. 10.168.11.88 C. A1:A1:A1:A1:A1:A1 D. B2:B2:B2:B2:B2:B2 E. C3:C3:C3:C3:C3:C3 F. D4:D4:D4:D4:D4:D4
E. C3:C3:C3:C3:C3:C3
What is the effect of using the service password-encryption command? A. Only the enable password will be encrypted. B. Only the enable secret password will be encrypted. C. Only passwords configured after the command has been entered will be encrypted. D. It will encrypt the secret password and remove the enable secret password from the configuration. E. It will encrypt all current and future passwords.
E. It will encrypt all current and future passwords.
Refer to the exhibit. SwitchA receives the frame with the addressing shown in the exhibit. According to the command output also shown in the exhibit, how will SwitchA handle this frame? A. It will drop the frame. B. It will forward the frame out port Fa0/6 only. C. It will forward the frame out port Fa0/3 only. D. It will flood the frame out all ports. E. It will flood the frame out all ports except Fa0/3.
E. It will flood the frame out all ports except Fa0/3.
Which transport layer protocol provides best-effort delivery service with no acknowledgment receipt required? A. HTTP B. IP C. TCP D. Telnet E. UDP
E. UDP
Refer to the exhibit. HostX is transferring a file to the FTP server. Point A represents the frame as it goes toward the Toronto router. What will the Layer 2 destination address be at this point? A. abcd.1123.0045 B. 192.168.7.17 C. aabb.5555.2222 D. 192.168.1.1 E. abcd.2246.0035
E. abcd.2246.0035
Answer: C
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is troubleshooting a connectivity problem on the serial interfaces. The output from the show interfaces command on both routers shows that the serial interface is up, line protocol is down. Given the partial output for the show running-config in the exhibit, what is the most likely cause of this problem? A. The serial cable is bad. B. The MTU is incorrectly configured. C. The Layer 2 framing is misconfigured. D. The IP addresses are not in the same subnet. Answer: C
Answer: C Explanation: Explanation/Reference: Only a router can terminate a leased line attachment access circuit, and only a router can connect two different IP networks. Here, we will need a router with two interfaces, one serial connection for the line attachment and one Ethernet interface to connect to the switch on the LAN.
Refer to the exhibit. A network device needs to be installed in the place of the icon labeled Network Device to accommodate a leased line attachment to the Internet. Which network device and interface configuration meets the minimum requirements for this installation? A. a router with two Ethernet interfaces B. a switch with two Ethernet interfaces C. a router with one Ethernet and one serial interface D. a switch with one Ethernet and one serial interface E. a router with one Ethernet and one modem interface
Answer: A,D,E Explanation: Switches use a separate collision domain for each port, so device A must be a switch. Hubs, however, place all ports in the same collision domain so device B is a hub. Switches reside in layer 2 while hubs are layer 1 devices.
Refer to the exhibit. A network has been planned as shown. Which three statements accurately describe the areas and devices in the network plan? (Choose three.) A. Network Device A is a switch. B. Network Device B is a switch. C. Network Device A is a hub. D. Network Device B is a hub. E. Area 1 contains a Layer 2 device. F. Area 2 contains a Layer 2 device.
Answer: C Explanation: Explanation/Reference: The proposed addressing scheme is on the same network.
Refer to the exhibit. A network technician is asked to design a small network with redundancy. The exhibit represents this design, with all hosts configured in the same VLAN. What conclusions can be made about this design? A. This design will function as intended. B. Spanning-tree will need to be used. C. The router will not accept the addressing scheme. D. The connection between switches should be a trunk. E. The router interfaces must be encapsulated with the 802.1Q protocol.
Answer: D
Refer to the exhibit. A person is trying to send a file from a host on Network A of the JAX Company to a server on Network Z of the XYZ Company. The file transfer fails. The host on Network A can communicate with other hosts on Network A. Which command, issued from router RTA, would be the most useful for troubleshooting this problem? A. show flash: B. show history C. show version D. show interfaces E. show controllers serial
Answer: D
Refer to the exhibit. A problem with network connectivity has been observed. It is suspected that the cable connected to switch port Fa0/9 on Switch1 is disconnected. What would be an effect of this cable being disconnected? A. Host B would not be able to access the server in VLAN9 until the cable is reconnected. B. Communication between VLAN3 and the other VLANs would be disabled. C. The transfer of files from Host B to the server in VLAN9 would be significantly slower. D. For less than a minute, Host B would not be able to access the server in VLAN9. Then normal network function would resume.
Answer: D
Refer to the exhibit. A technician is troubleshooting a host connectivity problem. The host is unable to ping a server connected to Switch_A. Based on the results of the testing, what could be the problem? A. A remote physical layer problem exists. B. The host NIC is not functioning. C. TCP/IP has not been correctly installed on the host. D. A local physical layer problem exists.
Answer: C Explanation: Explanation/Reference: Without a static route pointing to host 2 network the router is unaware of the path to take to reach that network and reply traffic cannot be sent.
Refer to the exhibit. A technician pastes the configurations in the exhibit into the two new routers shown. Otherwise, the routers are configured with their default configurations. A ping from Host1 to Host 2 fails, but the technician is able to ping the S0/0 interface of R2 from Host 1. The configurations of the hosts have been verified as correct. What could be the cause of the problem? A. The serial cable on R1 needs to be replaced. B. The interfaces on R2 are not configured properly C. R1 has no route to the 192.168.1.128 network. D. The IP addressing scheme has overlapping subnetworks. E. The ip subnet-zero command must be configured on both routers.
Answer: C
Refer to the exhibit. A user cannot reach any web sites on the Internet, but others in the department are not having a problem. What is the most likely cause of the problem? A. IP routing is not enabled. B. The default gateway is not in the same subnet. C. A DNS server address is not reachable by the PC. D. A DHCP server address is not reachable by the PC. E. NAT has not been configured on the router that connects to the Internet.
Answer: C Explanation: Explanation/Reference: http://www.cisco.com/en/US/products/hw/switches/ps607/products_tech_note09186a0080125913. shtml Each time you power up the switch, eight Power-On Self Tests (POSTs) run automatically. POSTs check the most important system components before the switch begins to forward packets. When the switch begins the POST, the port status LEDs display amber for two seconds, and then display green. As each test runs, the port status LEDs go out. 1x is the first to go out. The port status LEDs for ports 2x through 8x go out sequentially as the system completes a test. When the POST completes successfully, the port status LEDs go out. This indicates that the switch is operational. If a test fails, the port status LED associated with the test displays amber. The system LED also displays amber. NotE. From Cisco IOS Software Release 11.2(8.5) SA6 onwards, the port and system LEDs both remain amber after a POST failure. In the earlier Cisco IOS Software Releases, only the LEDs of failed linked ports remained amber.
Refer to the exhibit. After the power-on-self test (POST), the system LED of a Cisco 2950 switch turns amber. What is the status of the switch? A. The POST was successful. B. The switch has a problem with the internal power supply and needs an external power supply to be attached. C. POST failed and there is a problem that prevents the operating system from being loaded. D. The switch has experienced an internal problem but data can still be forwarded at a slower rate. E. The switch passed POST, but all the switch ports are busy.
Answer: E Explanation: A switch uses a separate collision domain for each port so there are a total of 9 for each device shown. In addition to this, the switch to switch connections (3) are a separate collision domain. Finally, we add the switch to router connections (2) and the router to router connection (1) for a total of 15.
Refer to the exhibit. All devices attached to the network are shown. How many collision domains are present in this network? A. 2 B. 3 C. 6 D. 9 E. 15
Answer: A
Refer to the exhibit. An administrator replaced the 10/100 Mb NIC in a desktop PC with a 1 Gb NIC and now the PC will not connect to the network. The administrator began troubleshooting on the switch. Using the switch output shown, what is the cause of the problem? A. Speed is set to 100Mb/s. B. Input flow control is off. C. Encapsulation is set to ARPA. D. The port is administratively down. E. The counters have never been cleared.
Answer: B,D,F Explanation: Switches use the destination MAC address information for forwarding traffic, while routers use the destination IP address information. Local Area Networks employ Layer 2 Switches and Bridges to forward and filter network traffic. Switches and Bridges operate at the Data Link Layer of the Open System Interconnect Model (OSI). Since Switches and Bridges operate at the Layer 2 they operate more intelligently than hubs, which work at Layer 1 (Physical Layer) of the OSI. Because the switches and bridges are able to listen to the traffic on the wire to examine the source and destination MAC address. Being able to listen to the traffic also allows the switches and bridges to compile a MAC address table to better filter and forward network traffic. To accomplish the above functions switches and bridges carry out the following tasks: MAC address learning by a switch or a bridge is accomplished by the same method. The switch or bridge listens to each device connected to each of its ports and scan the incoming frame for the source MAC address. This creates a MAC address to port map that is cataloged in the switches/bridge MAC database. Another name for the MAC address table is content addressable memory or CAM table. When a switch or bridge is listening o the network traffic, it receives each frame and compares it to the MAC address table. By checking the MAC table the switch/ bridge are able o determine which port the frame came in on. If the frame is on the MAC table the frame is filtered or transmitted on only that port. If the switch determines that the frame is not on the MAC table, the frame is filtered or transmitted on only that port. If the switch determines that the frame is not on the MAC table, the frame is forwarded out to all ports except the incoming port.
Refer to the exhibit. As packets travel from Mary to Robert, which three devices will use the destination MAC address of the packet to determine a forwarding path? (Choose three.) A. Hub1 B. Switch1 C. Router1 D. Switch2 E. Router2 F. Switch3
Answer: E Reference: http://www.technicalhowto.com/protocols/arp/arp.html For the initial communication, Host A will send a broadcast ARP (all F's) to determine the correct address to use to reach the destination. ARP sends an Ethernet frame called an ARP request to every host on the shared link-layer segment. The Ethernet header includes the source host MAC address and a destination address of all Fs representing a broadcast frame. The ARP request contains the sender's MAC and IP address and the target (destination) IP address. The target's MAC address is set to all 0s.
Refer to the exhibit. Host A is sending a packet to Host B for the first time. What destination MAC address will Host A use in the ARP request? A. 192.168.0.1 B. 172.16.0.50 C. 00-17-94-61-18-b0 D. 00-19-d3-2d-c3-b2 E. ff-ff-ff-ff-ff-ff F. 255.255.255.255
Answer: E Explanation: For packets destined to a host on another IP network, the destination MAC address will be the LAN interface of the router. Since the FTP server lies on a different network, the host will know to send the frame to its default gateway, which is Toronto.
Refer to the exhibit. HostX is transferring a file to the FTP server. Point A represents the frame as it goes toward the Toronto router. What will the Layer 2 destination address be at this point? A. abcd.1123.0045 B. 192.168.7.17 C. aabb.5555.2222 D. 192.168.1.1 E. abcd.2246.0035
Answer: C Explanation: Explanation/Reference: A Cisco device enabled with CDP sends out periodic interface updates to a multicast address in order to make itself known to neighbors. Since it is a layer two protocol, these packets are not routed. So the devices detected would be immediate connected neighbors.
Refer to the exhibit. If CDP is enabled on all devices and interfaces, which devices will appear in the output of a show cdp neighbors command issued from R2? A. R2 and R3 B. R1 and R3 C. R3 and S2 D. R1, S1, S2, and R3 E. R1, S1, S2, R3, and S3
Answer: E Explanation: When packets transfer from one host to another across a routed segment, the source IP address always remains the same source IP address, and the source physical (MAC) address will be the existing router's interface address. Similarly, the destination IP address always remains the same and the destination physical (MAC) address is the destination router's interface address.
Refer to the exhibit. If host A sends an IP packet to host B, what will the source physical address be in the frame when it reaches host B? A. 10.168.10.99 B. 10.168.11.88 C. A1:A1:A1:A1:A1:A1 D. B2:B2:B2:B2:B2:B2 E. C3:C3:C3:C3:C3:C3 F. D4:D4:D4:D4:D4:D4
Answer: B Explanation: The Source and Destination IP address is not going to change. Host 1 IP address will stay as being the source IP and the Host 2 IP address will stay the destination IP address. Those two are not going to change. For the MAC address it is going to change each time it goes from one hope to another. (Except switches... they don't change anything) Frame leaving HOST 1 is going to have a source MAC of Host 1 and a destination MAC of Router 1. Router 1 is going to strip that info off and then will make the source MAC address of Router1's exiting interface, and making Router2's interface as the destination MAC address. Then the same will happen... Router2 is going to change the source/destination info to the source MAC being the Router2 interface that it is going out, and the destination will be Host2's MAC address.
Refer to the exhibit. Mary is sending an instant message to Robert. The message will be broken into a series of packets that will traverse all network devices. What addresses will populate these packets as they are forwarded from Router1 to Router2? A. Option A B. Option B C. Option C D. Option D E. Option E
Answer: A Explanation: Explanation/Reference: Serial 0/0 interface is administratively down therefore, you will have to run the "no shutdown" command to enable the interface for data.
Refer to the exhibit. Serial 0/0 does not respond to a ping request from a host on the FastEthernet 0/0 LAN. How can this problem be corrected? A. Enable the Serial 0/0 interface. B. Correct the IP address for Serial 0/0. C. Correct the IP address for FastEthernet 0/0 D. Change the encapsulation type on Serial 0/0 E. Enable autoconfiguration on the Serial 0/0 interface
Answer: E Explanation: When frame receives the frame, it checks the source address on MAC table if MAC address found in MAC table it tries to forward if not in MAC table adds the Address on MAC table. After checking the source address, it checks the destination address on MAC table, if MAC address found on MAC table it forwards to proper ports otherwise floods on all ports except the source port.
Refer to the exhibit. SwitchA receives the frame with the addressing shown in the exhibit. According to the command output also shown in the exhibit, how will SwitchA handle this frame? A. It will drop the frame. B. It will forward the frame out port Fa0/6 only. C. It will forward the frame out port Fa0/3 only. D. It will flood the frame out all ports. E. It will flood the frame out all ports except Fa0/3.
Answer: D
Refer to the exhibit. SwitchA receives the frame with the addressing shown. According to the command output also shown in the exhibit, how will SwitchA handle this frame? A. It will drop the frame. B. It will forward the frame out port Fa0/6 only. C. It will flood the frame out all ports. D. It will flood the frame out all ports except Fa0/3.
Answer: E
Refer to the exhibit. The DHCP settings have recently been changed on the DHCP server and the client is no longer able to reach network resources. What should be done to correct this situation? A. Verify that the DNS server address is correct in the DHCP pool. B. Ping the default gateway to populate the ARP cache. C. Use the tracert command on the DHCP client to first determine where the problem is located. D. Clear all DHCP leases on the router to prevent address conflicts. E. Issue the ipconfig command with the /release and /renew options in a command window.
Answer: B,D Explanation: If the switch already has the MAC address in its table for the destination, it will forward the frame directly to the destination port. If it was not already in its MAC table, then they frame would have been flooded out all ports except for the port that it came from.
Refer to the exhibit. The MAC address table is shown in its entirety. The Ethernet frame that is shown arrives at the switch. What two operations will the switch perform when it receives this frame? (Choose two.) A. The switch will not forward a frame with this destination MAC address. B. The MAC address of 0000.00aa.aaaa will be added to the MAC Address Table. C. The MAC address of ffff.ffff.ffff will be added to the MAC address table. D. The frame will be forwarded out all active switch ports except for port fa0/0. E. The frame will be forwarded out fa0/0 and fa0/1 only. F. The frame will be forwarded out all the ports on the switch.
Answer: A Explanation: Subnet mask A i.e. 255.255.255.192 with CIDR of /26 which means 64 hosts per subnet which are sufficient to accommodate even the largest subnet of 50 hosts.
Refer to the exhibit. The enterprise has decided to use the network address 172.16.0.0. The network administrator needs to design a classful addressing scheme to accommodate the three subnets, with 30, 40, and 50 hosts, as shown. What subnet mask would accommodate this network? A. 255.255.255.192 B. 255.255.255.224 C. 255.255.255.240 D. 255.255.255.248 E. 255.255.255.252
Answer: A Explanation: When switch receives the data frame from the host not having the MAC address already on the MAC table, it will add the MAC address to source port on MAC address table and sends the data frame.
Refer to the exhibit. The exhibit is showing the topology and the MAC address table. Host A sends a data frame to host D. What will the switch do when it receives the frame from host A? A. The switch will add the source address and port to the MAC address table and forward the frame to host D. B. The switch will discard the frame and send an error message back to host A. C. The switch will flood the frame out of all ports except for port Fa0/3. D. The switch will add the destination address of the frame to the MAC address table and forward the frame to host D.
Answer: E Explanation: Although the source and destination MAC address will change as a packet traverses a network, the source and destination IP address will not unless network address translation (NAT) is being done, which is not the case here.
Refer to the exhibit. The host in Kiev sends a request for an HTML document to the server in Minsk. What will be the source IP address of the packet as it leaves the Kiev router? A. 10.1.0.1 B. 10.1.0.5 C. 10.1.0.6 D. 10.1.0.14 E. 10.1.1.16 F. 10.1.2.8
Answer: D Explanation: Explanation/Reference: Subnet mask 255.255.255.224 with CIDR of /27 which results in 32 hosts per. 192.168.1.31 is the broadcast address for subnet '0' 192.168.1.64 is the network address for subnet '2' 192.168.1.127 is the broadcast address for subnet '3' 192.168.1.192 is the network address for subnet '6'
Refer to the exhibit. The internetwork is using subnets of the address 192.168.1.0 with a subnet mask of 255.255.255.224. The routing protocol in use is RIP version 1. Which address could be assigned to the FastEthernet interface on RouterA? A. 192.168.1.31 B. 192.168.1.64 C. 192.168.1.127 D. 192.168.1.190 E. 192.168.1.192
Answer: B Explanation: Explanation/Reference: Initially the MAC address had to be resolved, but later on it was confirmed to ping went straight away
Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator is testing connectivity from the branch router to the newly installed application server. What is the most likely reason for the first ping having a success rate of only 60 percent? A. The network is likely to be congested, with the result that packets are being intermittently dropped. B. The branch router had to resolve the application server MAC address. C. There is a short delay while NAT translates the server IP address. D. A routing table lookup delayed forwarding on the first two ping packets. E. The branch router LAN interface should be upgraded to FastEthernet.
Answer: D
Refer to the exhibit. The output is from a router in a large enterprise. From the output, determine the role of the router. A. A Core router. B. The HQ Internet gateway router. C. The WAN router at the central site. D. Remote stub router at a remote site.
Answer: A,D Explanation: Explanation/Reference: If the switch already has the MAC address in its table for the destination, it will forward the frame directly to the destination port. If it was not already in its MAC table, then they frame would have been flooded out all ports except for the port that it came from. It will also add the MAC address of the source device to its MAC address table
Refer to the exhibit. The ports that are shown are the only active ports on the switch. The MAC address table is shown in its entirety. The Ethernet frame that is shown arrives at the switch. What two operations will the switch perform when it receives this frame? (Choose two.) A. The MAC address of 0000.00aa.aaaa will be added to the MAC address table. B. The MAC address of 0000.00dd.dddd will be added to the MAC address table. C. The frame will be forwarded out port fa0/3 only. D. The frame will be forwarded out fa0/1, fa0/2, and fa0/3. E. The frame will be forwarded out all the active ports.
Answer: B,D,F
Refer to the exhibit. The two connected ports on the switch are not turning orange or green. What would be the most effective steps to troubleshoot this physical layer problem? (Choose three.) A. Ensure that the Ethernet encapsulations match on the interconnected router and switch ports. B. Ensure that cables A and B are straight-through cables. C. Ensure cable A is plugged into a trunk port. D. Ensure the switch has power. E. Reboot all of the devices. F. Reseat all cables.
Answer: D Explanation: Explanation/Reference: The fourth command makes it possible for all hosts beyond R2 and all hosts beyond R1 to interact with each other, hence it is the most simplest technique.
Refer to the exhibit. What is the simplest way to configure routing between the regional office network 10.89.0.0/20 and the corporate network? A. router1(config)#ip route 10.89.0.0 255.255.240.0 10.89.16.2 B. router2(config)#ip route 10.89.3.0 255.255.0.0 10.89.16.2 C. router1(config)#ip route 10.89.0.0 255.255.240.0 10.89.16.1 D. router2(config)#ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.89.16.1
Answer: C Explanation: In order for the switch to reach networks that are not local, such as networks attached to different interfaces of the router, it will need to set its default gateway to be the IP address of the attached router.
Refer to the exhibit. What must be configured to establish a successful connection from Host A to switch SW-A through router RT-A? A. VLAN 1 on RT-A B. IP routing on SW-A C. default gateway on SW-A D. crossover cable connecting SW-A and RT-A
Answer: A,D Explanation: Explanation/Reference: The source and destination addresses are on the same network therefore, a default gateway is not necessary for communication between these two addresses.
Refer to the exhibit. What two things can the technician determine by successfully pinging from this computer to the IP address 172.16.236.1? (Choose two) A. The network card on the computer is functioning correctly. B. The default static route on the gateway router is correctly configured. C. The correct default gateway IP address is configured on the computer. D. The device with the IP address 172.16.236.1 is reachable over the network. E. The default gateway at 172.16.236.1 is able to forward packets to the internet.
Answer: C Explanation: Explanation/Reference: The default gateway for remote session is 192.168.17.241 and not the one given in the exhibit.
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has configured a Catalyst 2950 switch for remote management by pasting into the console the configuration commands that are shown in the exhibit. However, a Telnet session cannot be successfully established from a remote host. What should be done to fix this problem? A. Change the first line to interface fastethernet 0/1. B. Change the first line to interface vlan 0/1. C. Change the fifth line to ip default-gateway 192.168.17.241. D. Change the fifth line to ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.17.1. E. Change the sixth line to line con 0.
Answer: B Explanation: Explanation/Reference: Two VLANs require a router in between otherwise they cannot communicate through a simple switch mechanism
Refer to the exhibit. Host A can communicate with Host B but not with Hosts C or D. How can the network administrator solve this problem? A. Configure Hosts C and D with IP addresses in the 192.168.2.0 network. B. Install a router and configure a route to route between VLANs 2 and 3. C. Install a second switch and put Hosts C and D on that switch while Hosts A and B remain on the original switch. D. Enable the VLAN trunking protocol on the switch.
Answer: B,D,F
Refer to the exhibit. PC1 pings PC2. What three things will CORE router do with the data that is received from PC1? (Choose three.) A. The data frames will be forwarded out interface FastEthernet0/1 of CORE router. B. The data frames will be forwarded out interface FastEthernet1/0 of CORE router. C. CORE router will replace the destination IP address of the packets with the IP address of PC2. D. CORE router will replace the MAC address of PC2 in the destination MAC address of the frames. E. CORE router will put the IP address of the forwarding FastEthernet interface in the place of the source IP address in the packets. F. CORE router will put the MAC
Answer: A,C,E Explanation: Explanation/Reference: The given IP addresses of areas 1 and 3 along with network masks of 24 cannot accommodate 500 users so are inadequate, while the area 2 is having over capacity so its network mask can be reduced to 25 to accommodate the only 60 users it has.
Refer to the exhibit. The junior network support staff provided the diagram as a recommended configuration for the first phase of a four-phase network expansion project. The entire network expansion will have over 1000 users on 14 network segments and has been allocated this IP address space. 192.168.1.1 through 192.168.5.255 192.168.100.1 through 192.168.100.255 What are three problems with this design? (Choose three.) A. The AREA 1 IP address space is inadequate for the number of users. B. The AREA 3 IP address space is inadequate for the number of users. C. AREA 2 could use a mask of /25 to conserve IP address space. D. The network address space that is provided requires a single network-wide mask. E. The router-to-router connection is wasting address space. F. The broadcast domain in AREA 1 is too large for IP to function.
Answer: D Explanation: Explanation/Reference: http://www.cisco.com/en/US/tech/tk962/technologies_tech_note09186a00801aa000.shtml#topicen ab When CDP is enabled globally using the cdp run command, it is enabled by default on all supported interfaces (except for Frame Relay multipoint subinterfaces) to send and receive CDP information. You can disable CDP on an interface that supports CDP with the no cdp enable command. Router#show cdp neighbors Capability Codes: R - Router, T - Trans Bridge, B - Source Route Bridge S - Switch, H - Host, I - IGMP, r - Repeater Router# On this router, CDP is enabled on Serial 1 and Ethernet 0 interfaces. Disable CDP on the Serial 1 interface and verify if the neighbor device is discovered on the serial 1 interface, as this output shows: Router#configure terminal Enter configuration commands, one per line. End with CNTL/Z. Router(config)#interface s1 Router(config-if)#no cdp enable Router(config-if)# Z Router#4w5D. %SYS-5-CONFIG_I: Configured from console by console
Refer to the exhibit. For security reasons, information about RTA, including platform and IP addresses, should not be accessible from the Internet. This information should, however, be accessible to devices on the internal networks of RTA. Which command or series of commands will accomplish these objectives? A. RTA(config)#no cdp run B. RTA(config)#no cdp enable C. RTA(config)#interface s0/0 RTA(config-if)#no cdp run D. RTA(config)#interface s0/0 RTA(config-if)#no cdp enable
Answer: B
Refer to the output of the corporate router routing table shown in the graphic. The corporate router receives an IP packet with a source IP address of 192.168.214.20 and a destination address of 192.168.22.3. What will the router do with this packet? A. It will encapsulate the packet as Frame Relay and forward it out interface Serial 0/0.117. B. It will discard the packet and send an ICMP Destination Unreachable message out interface FastEthernet 0/0. C. It will forward the packet out interface Serial 0/1 and send an ICMP Echo Reply message out interface serial 0/0.102. D. It will change the IP packet to an ARP frame and forward it out FastEthernet 0/0.
Answer: B
Refer to the topology and switching table shown in the graphic. Host B sends a frame to Host C. What will the switch do with the frame? A. Drop the frame B. Send the frame out all ports except port 0/2 C. Return the frame to Host B D. Send an ARP request for Host C E. Send an ICMP Host Unreachable message to Host B F. Record the destination MAC address in the switching table and send the frame directly to Host C
What is the effect of using the service password-encryption command? A. Only the enable password will be encrypted. B. Only the enable secret password will be encrypted. C. Only passwords configured after the command has been entered will be encrypted. D. It will encrypt the secret password and remove the enable secret password from the configuration. E. It will encrypt all current and future passwords.
What is the effect of using the service password-encryption command? A. Only the enable password will be encrypted. B. Only the enable secret password will be encrypted. C. Only passwords configured after the command has been entered will be encrypted. D. It will encrypt the secret password and remove the enable secret password from the configuration. E. It will encrypt all current and future passwords. Answer: E Explanation: Explanation/Reference: Encryption further adds a level of security to the system as anyone having access to the database of passwords cannot reverse the process of encryption to know the actual passwords which isn't the case if the passwords are stored simply.
