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The nurse is assessing the characteristics of a patient's pain. Match the characteristic to the question a nurse will ask to determine that specific characteristic. a. Could you rate your pain on a scale of 0 to 10? b. How often does it recur? c. Could you point to the area of pain? d. Do certain activities worsen the pain? e. What does the pain feel like? 1.Timing 2.Location 3.Severity 4.Quality 5.Aggravating factors

1.ANS:B 2.ANS:C 3.ANS:A 4.ANS:E 5.ANS:D

The nurse is caring for a group of patients who have sleeping disruptions. Match the condition to the intervention the nurse will use. a. Use continuous positive airway pressure. b. Offer a small meal several hours before bedtime. c. Administer antidepressants. d. Administer modafinil (Provigel). e. Do not startle. f. Administer benzodiazepine-like drugs. 1.Cataplexy 2.Narcolepsy 3.Insomnia 4.Hiatal hernia 5.Sleepwalking 6.Obstructive sleep apnea

1.ANS:C 2.ANS:D 3.ANS:F 4.ANS:B 5.ANS:E 6.ANS:A

. A nurse is caring for a patient who has poor tissue perfusion as the result of hypertension. When the patient asks what to eat for breakfast, which meal should the nurse suggest? a. A cup of nonfat yogurt with granola and a handful of dried apricots b. Whole wheat toast with butter and a side of bacon c. A bowl of cereal with whole milk and a banana d. Omelet with sausage, cheese, and onions

A A 2000-calorie diet of fruits, vegetables, and low-fat dairy foods that are high in fiber, potassium, calcium, and magnesium and low in saturated and total fat helps prevent and reduce the effects of hypertension. Nonfat yogurt with granola is a good source of calcium, fiber, and potassium; dried apricots add a second source of potassium. Although cereal and a banana provide fiber and potassium, skim milk should be substituted for whole milk to decrease fat. An omelet with sausage and cheese is high in fat. Butter and bacon are high in fat.

.A nurse is providing discharge teaching for a patient with a fractured humerus. The patient is going home with hydrocodone. Which important patient education does the nurse provide? a. "You need to drink plenty of fluids and eat a diet high in fiber." b. "Narcotics can be addictive, so do not take them unless you are in severe pain." c. "Be sure to eat a meal high in fat before taking the medication, to avoid a stomach ulcer." d. "As your pain severity lessens, you will begin to give yourself once-daily intramuscular injections."

A A common side effect of opioid analgesics is constipation. Therefore, the nurse encourages the patient to drink fluids and eat fiber to prevent constipation. Although medications can be irritating to the stomach, eating a diet high in fat does not prevent gastric ulcers. To best manage pain, the patient needs to take pain medication before painful procedures or activities or before pain becomes severe. As the patient's pain gets better, the strength of the medications will decrease. IM, IV, and topical analgesics are used for more severe and chronic pain.

A patient has carbon dioxide retention from lung problems. Which type of diet will the nurse most likely suggest for this patient? a. Low-carbohydrate b. Low-caffeine c. High-caffeine d. High-carbohydrate

A A low-carbohydrate diet is best. Diets high in carbohydrates play a role in increasing the carbon dioxide load for patients with carbon dioxide retention. As carbohydrates are metabolized, an increased load of carbon dioxide is created and excreted via the lungs. A low- or high-caffeine diet is not as important as the carbohydrate load.

The nurse is caring for a group of patients. Which task may the nurse delegate to the nursing assistive personnel (NAP)? a. Administer a back massage to a patient with pain. b. Assessment of pain for a patient reporting abdominal pain. c. Administer patient-controlled analgesia for a postoperative patient. d. Assessment of vital signs in a patient receiving epidural analgesia.

A A massage may be delegated to an NAP. Pain assessment is a nursing function and cannot be delegated to an NAP. Administration of patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) cannot be delegated to an NAP. Assessment of vital signs is a licensed nursing function; the NAP can take vital signs for a patient receiving epidural analgesia.

A nurse is caring for a group of patients. Which patient will the nurse see first? a. A patient who received morphine and has a pulse of 62 beats/min, respirations 10 breaths/min, and blood pressure 110/60 mm Hg b. A patient lying very still in bed who reports no pain but is pale with warm, dry skin c. A patient with severe pain who is nauseated and feels like he or she is about to vomit d. A patient writhing and moaning from abdominal pain after abdominal surgery

A A respiratory rate of 10 indicates respiratory depression. A rare adverse effect of opioids in opioid-naïve patients (patients who have used opioids around the clock for less than approximately 1 week) is respiratory depression. Naloxone (Narcan) may be administered. While the other patients are experiencing pain and do need to be seen, they are not the priority since respirations are not affected.

A nurse teaches the patient about the gate control theory. Which statement made by a patient reflects a correct understanding about the relationship between the gate control theory of pain and the use of meditation to relieve pain? a. "Meditation controls pain by blocking pain impulses from coming through the gate." b. "Meditation alters the chemical composition of pain neuroregulators, which closes the gate." c. "Meditation will help me sleep through the pain because it opens the gate." d. "Meditation stops the occurrence of pain stimuli."

A According to this theory, gating mechanisms located along the central nervous system regulate or block pain impulses. Pain impulses pass through when a gate is open and are blocked when a gate is closed. Nonpharmacologic pain-relief measures, such as meditation, work by closing the gates, which keeps pain impulses from coming through. Meditation does not open pain gates or stop pain from occurring. Meditation also does not have an effect on pain neuroregulators.

A nurse is planning care for an older-adult patient who is experiencing pain. Which statement made by the nurse indicates the supervising nurse needs to follow up? a. "As adults age, their ability to perceive pain decreases." b. "Older patients may have low serum albumin in their blood, causing toxic effects of analgesic drugs." c. "Patients who have dementia probably experience pain, and their pain is not always well controlled." d. "It is safe to administer opioids to older adults as long as you start with small doses and frequently assess the patient's response to the medication."

A Aging does not affect the ability to perceive pain. This misconception must be corrected by the supervising nurse. All the other statements are true and require no follow-up. Opioids are safe to use in older adults as long as they are slowly titrated and the nurse frequently monitors the patient. Patients with dementia most likely experience unrelieved pain because their pain is difficult to assess. Older adults frequently eat poorly, resulting in low serum albumin levels. Many drugs are highly protein bound. In the presence of low serum albumin, more free drug (active form) is available, thus increasing the risk for side and/or toxic effects.

The nurse is careful to monitor a patient's cardiac output. Which goal is the nurse trying to achieve? a. To determine peripheral extremity circulation b. To determine oxygenation requirements c. To determine cardiac dysrhythmias d. To determine ventilation status

A Cardiac output indicates how much blood is being circulated systemically throughout the body to the periphery. The amount of blood ejected from the left ventricle each minute is the cardiac output. Oxygen status would be determined by pulse oximetry and the presence of cyanosis. Cardiac dysrhythmias are an electrical impulse monitored through ECG results. Ventilation status is measured by respiratory rate, pulse oximetry, and capnography. Capnography provides instant information about the patient's ventilation. Ventilation status does not depend solely on cardiac output.

The nurse is teaching a student nurse about pain assessment scales. Which statement by the student indicates effective teaching? a. "You cannot use a pain scale to compare the pain of my patient with the pain of your patient." b. "When patients say they don't need pain medication, they aren't in pain." c. "A patient's behavior is more reliable than the patient's report of pain." d. "Pain assessment scales determine the quality of a patient's pain."

A Do not use a pain scale to compare the pain of one patient to that of another. Pain is subjective and cannot be compared to the pain of another patient. Some patients do not express their pain (stoic) or do not wish to take medications to relieve the pain. This does not mean they aren't in pain. A patient's behavior is not more reliable than the patient's report of pain. Pain scales help determine severity or intensity, not quality.

Which nursing observation of the patient in intensive care indicates the patient is sleeping comfortably during NREM sleep? a. Eyes closed, lying quietly, respirations 12, heart rate 60 b. Eyes closed, tossing in bed, respirations 18, heart rate 80 c. Eyes closed, mumbling to self, respirations 16, heart rate 68 d. Eyes closed, lying supine in bed, respirations 22, heart rate 66

A During NREM sleep, biological functions slow. During sleep, the heart rate decreases to 60 beats/min or less. The patient experiences decreased respirations, blood pressure, and muscle tone. Heart rates above 60 are too high and respirations of 22 are too high to indicate comfortable NREM sleep.

The nurse is discussing lack of sleep with a middle-aged adult. Which area should the nurse most likely assess to determine a possible cause of the lack of sleep? a. Anxiety b. Loud teenagers c. Caring for pets d. Late night television

A During middle adulthood, the total time spent sleeping at night begins to decline. Anxiety, depression, and certain physical illnesses can affect sleep, and women can experience menopausal symptoms. Insomnia is common because of the changes and stresses associated with middle age. Teenagers, caring for pets, and late night television can influence the amount of sleep; however, these are not the most common causes of insomnia in this age group.

The patient is breathing normally. Which process does the nurse consider is working properly when the patient inspires? a. Stimulation of chemical receptors in the aorta b. Reduction of arterial oxygen saturation levels c. Requirement of elastic recoil lung properties d. Enhancement of accessory muscle usage

A Inspiration is an active process, stimulated by chemical receptors in the aorta. Reduced arterial oxygen saturation levels indicate hypoxemia, an abnormal finding. Expiration is a passive process that depends on the elastic recoil properties of the lungs, requiring little or no muscle work. Prolonged use of the accessory muscles does not promote effective ventilation and causes fatigue.

A nurse is caring for a patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) who is receiving 2 L/min of oxygen. Which oxygen delivery device is most appropriate for the nurse to administer the oxygen? a. Nasal cannula b. Simple face mask c. Non-rebreather mask d. Partial non-rebreather mask

A Nasal cannulas deliver oxygen from 1 to 6 L/min. All other devices (simple face mask, non-rebreather mask, and partial non-rebreather mask) are intended for flow rates greater than 6 L/min.

The nurse is completing an assessment on an older-adult patient who is having difficulty falling asleep. Which condition will the nurse further assess for in this patient? a. Depression b. Mild fatigue c. Hypertension d. Hypothyroidism

A Older adults and other individuals who experience depressive mood problems experience delays in falling asleep, earlier appearance of REM sleep, frequent awakening, feelings of sleeping poorly, and daytime sleepiness. A person who is moderately fatigued usually achieves restful sleep, especially if the fatigue is the result of enjoyable work or exercise. Hypertension often causes early-morning awakening and fatigue. Alcohol speeds the onset of sleep. Hypothyroidism decreases stage 4 sleep.

The nurse is caring for a patient on the medical-surgical unit who is experiencing an exacerbation of asthma. Which intervention will be most appropriate to help this patient sleep? a. Place bed in semi-Fowler's position. b. Offer iron-rich foods for meals. c. Provide a snack before bedtime. d. Encourage the patient to read.

A Placing the patient in a semi-Fowler's position eases the work of breathing. Respiratory disease often interferes with sleep. Patients with chronic lung disease such as emphysema or asthma are short of breath and frequently cannot sleep without two or three pillows to raise their heads. Iron-rich food may help a patient with restless legs syndrome. Providing a snack and encouraging the patient to read may be good interventions for patients, but the most appropriate would be raising the head of the bed.

The nurse is caring for a patient with fluid volume overload. Which physiological effect does the nurse most likely expect? a. Increased preload b. Increased heart rate c. Decreased afterload d. Decreased tissue perfusion

A Preload refers to the amount of blood in the left ventricle at the end of diastole; an increase in circulating volume would increase the preload of the heart. Afterload refers to resistance; increased pressure would lead to increased resistance, and afterload would increase. A decrease in tissue perfusion would be seen with hypovolemia. A decrease in fluid volume would cause an increase in heart rate as the body is attempting to increase cardiac output.

The nurse is preparing an older-adult patient's evening medications. Which treatment will the nurse recognize as relatively safe for difficulty sleeping in older adults? a. Ramelteon (Rozerem) b. Benzodiazepine c. Antihistamine d. Kava

A Ramelteon (Rozerem), a melatonin receptor agonist, is well tolerated and appears to be effective in improving sleep by improving the circadian rhythm and shortening time to sleep onset. It is safe for long- and short-term use particularly in older adults. The use of benzodiazepines in older adults is potentially dangerous because of the tendency of the drugs to remain active in the body for a longer time. As a result, they also cause respiratory depression, next-day sedation, amnesia, rebound insomnia, and impaired motor functioning and coordination, which leads to increased risk of falls. Caution older adults about using over-the-counter antihistamines because their long duration of action can cause confusion, constipation, and urinary retention. Kava promotes sleep in patients with anxiety; it should be used cautiously because of its potential toxic effects on the liver.

The patient has right-sided heart failure. Which finding will the nurse expect when performing an assessment? a. Peripheral edema b. Basilar crackles c. Chest pain d. Cyanosis

A Right-sided heart failure results from inability of the right side of the heart to pump effectively, leading to a systemic backup. Peripheral edema, distended neck veins, and weight gain are signs of right-sided failure. Basilar crackles can indicate pulmonary congestion from left-sided heart failure. Cyanosis and chest pain result from inadequate tissue perfusion.

The nurse is providing an educational session on sleep regulation for new nurses in the Sleep Disorder Treatment Center. Which statement by the nurses will best indicate that the teaching is effective? a. "If the patient has a disease process in the central nervous system, it can influence the functions of sleep." b. "If the patient has a disease process in the cranial nerves, it can influence the functions of sleep." c. "If the patient has an interruption in the urinary pathways, it can influence the functions of sleep." d. "If the patient has an interruption in the spinal reflexes, it can influence the functions of sleep."

A Sleep involves a sequence of physiological states maintained by the central nervous system. It is associated with changes in the peripheral nervous, endocrine, cardiovascular, respiratory, and muscular systems. A disease process associated with the cranial nerves, urinary pathway, or spinal reflexes may influence a person's ability to sleep, but the best answer is the central nervous system.

The nurse is caring for a 4-year-old child who has pain. Which technique will the nurse use to best assess pain in this child? a. Use the FACES scale. b. Check to see what previous nurses have charted. c. Ask the parents if they think their child is in pain. d. Have the child rate the level of pain on a 0 to 10 pain scale.

A The FACES scale assesses pain in children who are verbal. Because a 4-year-old is verbal, this is an appropriate scale to use with this child. Assessing pain intensity in children requires special techniques. Young children often have difficulty expressing their pain. Parents' statement of pain is not an effective way to assess pain in children because children's statements are the most important. The 0 to 10 pain scale is too difficult for a 4-year-old child to understand. Previous documentation by nurses will tell you what the child's pain has been but will not tell you the child's current pain intensity.

A nurse is reviewing the electrocardiogram (ECG) results. Which portion of the conduction system does the nurse consider when evaluating the P wave? a. SA node b. AV node c. Bundle of His d. Purkinje fibers

A The P wave represents the electrical conduction through both atria; the SA node initiates electrical conduction through the atria. The AV node conducts down through the bundle of His and the Purkinje fibers to cause ventricular contraction.

A nurse explains the function of the alveoli to a patient with respiratory problems. Which information about the alveoli's function will the nurse share with the patient? a. Carries out gas exchange b. Regulates tidal volume c. Produces hemoglobin d. Stores oxygen

A The alveolus is a capillary membrane that allows gas exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide during respiration. The alveoli do not store oxygen, regulate tidal volume, or produce hemoglobin.

The nurse is caring for two patients; both are having a hysterectomy. The first patient is having the hysterectomy after a complicated birth. The second patient has uterine cancer. What will most likely influence the experience of pain for these two patients? a. Meaning of pain b. Neurological factors c. Competency of the surgeon d. Postoperative support personnel

A The degree and quality of pain perceived by a patient are related to the meaning of the pain. The patient's perception of pain is influenced by psychological factors, such as anxiety and coping, which in turn influence the patient's experience of pain. Each patient's experience is different. Neurological factors can interrupt or influence pain perception, but neither of these patients is experiencing alterations in neurological function. The knowledge, attitudes, and beliefs of nurses, health care providers, the surgeon, and other health care personnel about pain affect pain management but do not necessarily influence a patient's pain perceptions.

A nurse is caring for a patient with rheumatoid arthritis who is now going to be taking 2 acetaminophen (Tylenol) tablets every 6 hours to control pain. Which part of the patient's social history is the nurse most concerned about? a. Patient drinks 1 to 2 glasses of wine every night. b. Patient smokes 2 packs of cigarettes a day. c. Patient occasionally uses marijuana. d. Patient takes antianxiety medications.

A The major adverse effect of acetaminophen is hepatotoxicity (liver toxicity). Because both alcohol and acetaminophen are metabolized by the liver, when taken together, they can cause liver damage. Smoking cigarettes and smoking marijuana are not healthy behaviors, but their effects on health are not affected by acetaminophen. Antianxiety medications can be taken with acetaminophen.

A nurse is caring for a group of patients. Which patient should the nurse see first? a. A patient with hypercapnia wearing an oxygen mask b. A patient with a chest tube ambulating with the chest tube unclamped c. A patient with thick secretions being tracheal suctioned first and then orally d. A patient with a new tracheostomy and tracheostomy obturator at bedside

A The mask is contraindicated for patients with carbon dioxide retention (hypercapnia) because retention can be worsened; the nurse must see this patient first to correct the problem. All the rest are using correct procedures and do not need to be seen first. A chest tube should not be clamped when ambulating. Clamping a chest tube is contraindicated when ambulating or transporting a patient. Clamping can result in a tension pneumothorax. Use nasotracheal suctioning before pharyngeal suctioning whenever possible. The mouth and pharynx contain more bacteria than the trachea. Keep tracheostomy obturator at bedside with a fresh (new) tracheostomy to facilitate reinsertion of the outer cannula if dislodged.

The nurse is caring for a patient who has been in holding in the emergency department for 24 hours. The nurse is concerned about the patient's experiencing sleep deprivation. Which action will be best for the nurse to take? a. Expedite the process of obtaining a medical-surgical room for the patient. b. Pull the curtains shut, dim the lights, and decrease the number of visitors. c. Obtain an order for a hypnotic medication to help the patient sleep. d. Ask everyone in the unit to try to be quiet so the patient can sleep.

A The most effective treatment for sleep deprivation is elimination or correction of factors that disrupt the sleep pattern. Obtaining a private room in the medical-surgical unit for the patient will help with decreasing stimuli and promoting more rest than an individual can obtain in an emergency department even with the interventions mentioned.

The nurse is completing a sleep assessment on a patient. Which tool will the nurse use to complete the assessment? a. Visual analog scale b. Cataplexy scale c. Polysomnogram d. RAS scale

A The visual analog scale is utilized for assessing sleep quality. Cataplexy, or sudden muscle weakness during intense emotions such as anger, sadness, or laughter, occurs at any time during the day; there is no cataplexy scale for sleep assessment. A polysomnogram involves the use of EEG, EMG, and EOG to monitor stages of sleep and wakefulness during nighttime sleep; this is used in a sleep laboratory study. Researchers believe that the ascending reticular activating system (RAS) located in the upper brainstem contains special cells that maintain alertness and wakefulness; however, there is no assessment tool called the RAS scale.

A nurse is caring for a patient with continuous cardiac monitoring for heart dysrhythmias. Which rhythm will cause the nurse to intervene immediately? a. Ventricular tachycardia b. Atrial fibrillation c. Sinus rhythm d. Paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia

A Ventricular tachycardia and ventricular fibrillation are life-threatening rhythms that require immediate intervention. Ventricular tachycardia is a life-threatening dysrhythmia because of the decreased cardiac output and the potential to deteriorate into ventricular fibrillation or sudden cardiac death. Atrial fibrillation is a common dysrhythmia in older adults and is not as serious as ventricular tachycardia. Sinus rhythm is normal. Paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia is a sudden, rapid onset of tachycardia originating above the AV node. It often begins and ends spontaneously.

A nurse is caring for a patient with chronic pain from arthritis. Which action is best for the nurse to take? a. Give pain medications around the clock. b. Administer pain medication before any activity. c. Give pain medication after the pain is a 7/10 on the pain scale. d. Administer pain medication only when nonpharmacological measures have failed.

A When a patient with arthritis has chronic pain, the best way to manage pain is to take medication regularly throughout the day to maintain constant pain relief. "Before any activity" is nonspecific, and the medication may not have time to work before activity. If the patient waits until having pain (7/10) to take the medication, pain relief takes longer. Nonpharmacological measures are used in conjunction with medications unless requested otherwise by the patient.

The nurse is evaluating outcomes for the patient with insomnia. Which key principle will the nurse consider during this process? a. The patient is the best evaluator of sleep. b. The nurse is the best evaluator of sleep. c. Effective interventions are the best evaluators of sleep. d. Observations of the patient are the best evaluators of sleep.

A With regard to problems with sleep, the patient is the source for evaluating outcomes. The patient is the only one who knows whether sleep problems have improved and what has been successful. Interventions are not the best indicator; achievement of goals according to the patient is the best. Observations do provide needed data, but in the case of insomnia, the patient is the source for evaluating the restfulness of sleep.

The nurse is caring for a patient who has not been able to sleep well while in the hospital, leading to a disrupted sleep-wake cycle. Which assessment findings will the nurse monitor for in this patient? (Select all that apply.) a. Changes in physiological function such as temperature b. Decreased appetite and weight loss c. Anxiety, irritability, and restlessness d. Shortness of breath and chest pain e. Nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea f. Impaired judgment

A, B, C, F The biological rhythm of sleep frequently becomes synchronized with other body functions. Changes in body temperature correlate with sleep pattern. When the sleep-wake cycle becomes disrupted, changes in physiological function such as temperature can occur. Patients can experience decreased appetite, loss of weight, anxiety, restlessness, irritability, and impaired judgment. Gastrointestinal and respiratory/cardiovascular symptoms such as shortness of breath and chest pain are not symptoms of a disrupted sleep cycle.

The patient and the nurse discuss the need for sleep. After the discussion, the patient is able to state factors that hinder sleep. Which statements indicate the patient has a good understanding of the teaching? (Select all that apply.) a. "Drinking coffee at 7 PM could interrupt my sleep." b. "Staying up late for a party can interrupt sleep patterns." c. "Exercising 2 hours before bedtime can decrease relaxation." d. "Changing the time of day that I eat dinner can disrupt sleep." e. "Worrying about work can disrupt my sleep." f. "Taking an antacid can decrease sleep."

A, B, D, E

The nurse is administering ibuprofen (Advil) to an older patient. Which assessment data causes the nurse to hold the medication? (Select all that apply.) a. Patient states allergy to aspirin. b. Patient states joint pain is 2/10 and intermittent. c. Patient reports past medical history of gastric ulcer. d. Patient reports last bowel movement was 4 days ago. e. Patient experiences respiratory depression after administration of an opioid medication.

A, C NSAIDs can cause bleeding, especially in the gastrointestinal (GI) tract; therefore, NSAIDs are most likely contraindicated in this patient. Patients with an allergy to aspirin or have asthma are sometimes also allergic to other NSAIDs. The nurse needs to verify that the health care provider is aware of the history of GI bleeding and of allergy to aspirin before administering ibuprofen. NSAIDs do not interfere with bowel function and are used for the treatment of mild to moderate acute intermittent pain. NSAIDs also do not suppress the central nervous system by causing respiratory depression.

The nurse is caring for a patient in the intensive care unit who is having trouble sleeping. The nurse explains the purpose of sleep and its benefits. Which information will the nurse include in the teaching session? (Select all that apply.) a. NREM sleep contributes to body tissue restoration. b. During NREM sleep, biological functions increase. c. Restful sleep preserves cardiac function. d. Sleep contributes to cognitive restoration. e. REM sleep decreases cortical activity.

A, C, D Sleep contributes to physiological and psychological restoration. NREM sleep contributes to body tissue restoration. It allows the body to rest and conserve energy. This benefits the cardiac system by allowing the heart to beat fewer times each minute. During stage 4, the body releases growth hormone for renewal and repair of specialized cells such as the brain. During NREM sleep, biological functions slow. REM sleep is necessary for brain tissue restoration and cognitive restoration and is associated with a change in cerebral blood flow and increased cortical activity.

A nurse is teaching a patient about patient-controlled analgesia (PCA). Which statement made by the patient indicates to the nurse that teaching is effective? a. "I will only need to be on this pain medication." b. "I feel less anxiety about the possibility of overdosing." c. "I can receive the pain medication as frequently as I need to." d. "I need the nurse to notify me when it is time for another dose."

B A PCA is a device that allows the patient to determine the level of pain relief delivered, reducing the risk of overdose. The PCA infusion pumps are designed to deliver a specific dose that is programmed to be available at specific time intervals (usually in the range of 8 to 15 minutes) when the patient activates the delivery button. A limit on the number of doses per hour or 4-hour interval may also be set. This can help decrease a patient's anxiety related to possible overdose. Its use also often eases anxiety because the patient is not reliant on the nurse for pain relief. Other medications, such as oral analgesics, can be given in addition to the PCA machine. One benefit of PCA is that the patient does not need to rely on the nurse to administer pain medication; the patient determines when to take the medication.

A patient who had a motor vehicle crash 2 days ago is experiencing pain and is receiving patient-controlled analgesia (PCA). Which assessment finding indicates effective pain management with the PCA? a. The patient is sleeping and is difficult to arouse. b. The patient rates pain at a level of 2 on a 0 to 10 scale. c. The patient has sufficient medication left in the PCA syringe. d. The patient presses the control button to deliver pain medication.

B A level of 2 on a scale of 0 to 10 is evidence of effective pain management. The effectiveness of pain-relief measures is determined by the patient. If the patient is satisfied with the amount of pain relief, then pain measures are effective. A patient who is sleeping and is difficult to arouse is possibly oversedated; the nurse needs to assess this patient further. The amount of medication left in the PCA syringe does not indicate whether pain management is effective or not. Pressing the button shows that the patient knows how to use the PCA but does not evaluate pain management.

The nurse determines that an older-adult patient is at risk for infection due to decreased immunity. Which plan of care best addresses the prevention of infection for the patient? a. Inform the patient of the importance of finishing the entire dose of antibiotics. b. Encourage the patient to stay up-to-date on all vaccinations. c. Schedule patient to get annual tuberculosis skin testing. d. Create an exercise routine to run 45 minutes every day.

B A nursing care plan for preventative health measures should be reasonable and feasible. Keeping up-to-date on vaccinations is important because vaccine reduces the severity of illnesses and serious complications. Determine if and when the patient has had a pneumococcal or influenza (flu) vaccine. This is especially important when assessing older adults because of their increased risk for respiratory disease. Although it is important to finish the full course of antibiotics, it is not a preventative health measure. Scheduling annual tuberculosis skin tests does not address prevention and is an unreliable indictor of tuberculosis in older patients. The exercise routine should be reasonable to increase compliance; exercise is recommended only 3 to 4 times a week for 30 to 60 minutes, and walking, rather than running, is an efficient method.

A nurse is caring for a patient who recently had spinal surgery. The nurse knows that patients usually experience acute pain following this type of surgery. The patient refuses to get up and walk and is not moving around in the bed. However, the patient is stoic and denies experiencing pain at this time. What most likely explains this patient's behavior? a. The surgery successfully cured the patient's pain. b. The patient's culture is possibly influencing the patient's experience of pain. c. The primary health care provider did not prescribe the correct amount of medication. d. The nurse is allowing personal beliefs about pain to influence pain management at this time.

B A patient's culture or beliefs about pain often influence the patient's expression of pain. In this case, the patient has just had surgery, and the nurse knows that this surgical procedure usually causes patients to experience pain. It is important at this time for the nurse to examine cultural and ethnic factors that are possibly affecting the patient's lack of expression of pain at this time. Even if surgery corrects neurological factors that create chronic pain, surgery causes pain in the acute period. The patient has not taken any pain medication so this is an unrealistic assumption; most pain medications have standard dosages. The nurse is not allowing personal beliefs to influence pain management because the nurse is attempting to determine the reason why the patient is not verbalizing the experience of pain.

The nurse needs to closely monitor the oxygen status of an older-adult patient undergoing anesthesia because of which age-related change? a. Thinner heart valves cause lipid accumulation and fibrosis. b. Diminished respiratory muscle strength may cause poor chest expansion. c. Alterations in mental status prevent patients' awareness of ineffective breathing. d. An increased number of pacemaker cells make proper anesthesia induction more difficult.

B Age-related changes in the thorax that occur from ossification of costal cartilage, decreased space between vertebrae, and diminished respiratory muscle strength lead to problems with chest expansion and oxygenation,whereby the patient will have difficulty excreting anesthesia gas. The nurse needs to monitor the patient's oxygen status carefully to make sure the patient does not retain too much of the drug. Older adults experience alterations in cardiac function as a result of calcification of the conduction pathways, thicker and stiffer heart valves caused by lipid accumulation and fibrosis, and a decrease in the number of pacemaker cells in the SA node. Altered mental status is not a normal age-related change; it indicates possible cardiac and/or respiratory problems.

A nurse teaches a patient about atelectasis. Which statement by the patient indicates an understanding of atelectasis? a. "Atelectasis affects only those with chronic conditions such as emphysema." b. "It is important to do breathing exercises every hour to prevent atelectasis." c. "If I develop atelectasis, I will need a chest tube to drain excess fluid." d. "Hyperventilation will open up my alveoli, preventing atelectasis."

B Atelectasis develops when alveoli do not expand. Breathing exercises, especially deep breathing and incentive spirometry, increase lung volume and open the airways, preventing atelectasis. Deep breathing also opens the pores of Kohn between alveoli to allow sharing of oxygen between alveoli. Atelectasis can affect anyone who does not deep breathe. A chest tube is for pneumothorax or hemothorax. It is deep breathing, not hyperventilation, that prevents atelectasis.

A nurse is caring for a patient with chronic pain. Which statement by the nurse indicates an understanding of pain management? a. "This patient says the pain is a 5 but is not acting like it. I am not going to give any pain medication." b. "I need to reassess the patient's pain 1 hour after administering oral pain medication." c. "It wasn't time for the patient's medication, so when it was requested, I gave a placebo." d. "The patient is sleeping, so I pushed the PCA button."

B Be sure to evaluate after an appropriate period of time. For instance, oral medications usually peak in about 1 hour, whereas IVP medications peak in 15 to 30 minutes. Ask a patient if a medication alleviates the pain when it is peaking. Because oral medications usually peak in about an hour, you need to reassess the patient's pain within an hour of administration. Nurses must believe any patient report of pain, even if nonverbal communication is not consistent with pain ratings. The patient is the only person who should push the PCA button. Pushing the PCA when a patient is sleeping is dangerous and may lead to narcotic overdose or respiratory depression. Giving the patient a placebo and telling the patient it is medication is unethical.

The nurse is assessing how a patient's pain is affecting mobility. Which assessment question is most appropriate? a. "Have you considered working with a physical therapist?" b. "What activities, if any, has your pain prevented you from doing?" c. "Would you please rate your pain on a scale from 0 to 10 for me?" d. "When does your pain medication typically take effect on your pain?"

B Because the nurse is interested in knowing whether the patient's pain is affecting mobility, the priority assessment question is to ask the patient how the pain affects ability to participate in normal activities of daily living. Although a physical therapist is a good resource to have, especially if pain is severely affecting mobility, considering working with a physical therapist does not describe the effect of pain on the patient's mobility. Assessing quality of pain and effectiveness of pain medication does not help the nurse to understand how it is affecting the patient's mobility.

A patient has sleep deprivation. Which statement by the patient will indicate to the nurse that outcomes are being met? a. "I wake up only once a night to go to the bathroom." b. "I feel rested when I wake up in the morning." c. "I go to sleep within 30 minutes of lying down." d. "I only take a 20-minute nap during the day."

B Being able to sleep and feeling rested would indicate that outcomes are being met for sleep deprivation. Limiting a nap to 20 minutes is an intervention to promote sleep. Going to sleep within 30 minutes indicates a goal for insomnia. Waking up only once may indicate nocturia is improving but does not relate to sleep deprivation.

. The home health nurse recommends that a patient with respiratory problems install a carbon monoxide detector in the home. What is the rationale for the nurse's action? a. Carbon monoxide detectors are required by law in the home. b. Carbon monoxide tightly binds to hemoglobin, causing hypoxia. c. Carbon monoxide signals the cerebral cortex to cease ventilations. d. Carbon monoxide combines with oxygen in the body and produces a deadly toxin.

B Carbon monoxide binds tightly to hemoglobin; therefore, oxygen is not able to bind to hemoglobin and be transported to tissues, causing hypoxia. A carbon monoxide detector is not required by law, does not signal the cerebral cortex to cease ventilations, and does not combine with oxygen but with hemoglobin to produce a toxin.

The nurse is having a conversation with an adolescent regarding the need for sleep. The adolescent states that it is common to stay up with friends several nights a week. Which action should the nurse take next? a. Talk with the adolescent's parent about staying up with friends and the need for sleep. b. Discuss with the adolescent sleep needs and the effects of excessive daytime sleepiness. c. Refer the adolescent for counseling about alcohol abuse problems. d. Take no action for this normal occurrence.

B Discussion regarding adolescent sleep needs should first occur with the adolescent. Although it may be common for this adolescent to want to visit with friends and experience activities that go late into the night, these activities can and do impact the hours of sleep and the physical needs of the adolescent, no matter the reason for the late nights, and they do need to be addressed. The nurse will address the adolescent, not the parents. Addressing alcohol abuse problems is not the next step but may be required later. While staying up late may be a normal occurrence for this adolescent, action is required.

The nurse is caring for an infant in the intensive care unit. Which information should the nurse consider when planning care for this patient? a. Infants cannot be assessed for pain. b. Infants respond behaviorally and physiologically to painful stimuli. c. Infants cannot tolerate analgesics owing to an underdeveloped metabolism. d. Infants have a decreased sensitivity to pain when compared with older children.

B Infants cannot verbally express their pain, but they do express pain with behavioral cues (facial expressions, crying) and physiological indicators (changes in vital signs). Infants can tolerate analgesics, but proper dosing and close monitoring are essential. Infants and older children have the same sensitivity to pain. Pain can be assessed even though the neonate cannot verbalize; the nurse can observe behavioral clues. Nurses use behavioral cues and physiological responses to assess pain in infants.

An oriented patient has recently had surgery. Which action is best for the nurse to take to assess this patient's pain? a. Assess the patient's body language. b. Ask the patient to rate the level of pain. c. Observe the cardiac monitor for increased heart rate. d. Have the patient describe the effect of pain on the ability to cope.

B One of the most subjective and therefore most useful characteristics for reporting pain is its severity. Therefore, the best way to assess a patient's pain is to ask the patient to rate the pain. Nonverbal communication, such as body language, is not as effective in assessing pain, especially when the patient is oriented. Heart rate sometimes increases when a patient is in pain, but this is not a symptom that is specific to pain. Pain sometimes affects a patient's ability to cope, but assessing the effect of pain on coping assesses the patient's ability to cope; it does not assess the patient's pain.

The nurse is assessing a patient for opioid tolerance. Which finding supports the nurse's assessment? a. The patient needed a substantial dose of naloxone (Narcan). b. The patient needs increasingly higher doses of opioid to control pain. c. The patient no longer experiences sedation from the usual dose of opioid. d. The patient asks for pain medication close to the time it is due around the clock.

B Opioid tolerance occurs when a patient needs higher doses of an opioid to control pain. Naloxone (Narcan) is an opioid antagonist that is given to reverse the effects of opioid overdose. Taking pain medications regularly around the clock is an effective way to control pain. The pain medication for this patient is most likely effectively managing the patient's pain because the patient is not asking for the medication before it is due. A patient no longer experiencing a side effect (sedation) of an opioid does not indicate opioid tolerance.

A nurse is caring for a patient who was in a motor vehicle accident that resulted in cervical trauma to C4. Which assessment is the priority? a. Pulse b. Respirations c. Temperature d. Blood pressure

B Respirations and oxygen saturation are the priorities. Cervical trauma at C3 to C5 usually results in paralysis of the phrenic nerve. When the phrenic nerve is damaged, the diaphragm does not descend properly, thus reducing inspiratory lung volumes and causing hypoxemia. While pulse and blood pressure are important, respirations are the priority. Temperature is not a high priority in this situation.

The nurse is beginning a sleep assessment on a patient. Which question will be most appropriate for the nurse to ask initially? a. "What is going on?" b. "How are you sleeping?" c. "Are you taking any medications?" d. "What did you have for dinner last night?"

B Sleep is a subjective experience. Only the patient is able to report whether or not it is sufficient and restful. Asking patients how they are sleeping is an introductory question. After this beginning question is asked, problems with sleep such as the nature of the problem, signs and symptoms, onset and duration of the issue, severity, predisposing factors, and the effect on the patient can be assessed. What is going on is too broad and open ended for information about sleep to be obtained specifically. Medications and food intake can be part of the detailed assessment of sleep issues.

A nurse is caring for a patient who fell on the ice and has connective tissue damage in the wrist and hand. The patient describes the pain as throbbing. Which type of pain does the nurse document in this patient's medical record? a. Visceral pain b. Somatic pain c. Centrally generated pain d. Peripherally generated pain

B Somatic pain comes from bone, joint, connective tissue, or muscle. Visceral pain arises from the visceral (internal) organs such as the GI tract and pancreas. Peripherally generated pain in the peripheral nerves can be caused by polyneuropathies or mononeuropathies. Centrally generated pain results from injury to the central or peripheral nervous system, causing deafferentation or sympathetically maintained pain.

The nurse is caring for a patient to ease modifiable factors that contribute to pain. Which areas did the nurse focus on with this patient? a. Age and gender b. Anxiety and fear c. Culture and ethnicity d. Previous pain experiences and cognitive abilities

B Some examples of modifiable contributors to pain are anxiety and fear. The nurse can take measures to ease the patient's anxiety and fear related to pain. Age, gender, culture, ethnicity, cognitive abilities, and previous pain experience are all nonmodifiable factors that the nurse can help the patient to understand, but the nurse cannot alter them.

A patient arrives at the emergency department experiencing a headache and rates the pain as 7 on a 0 to 10 pain scale. Which nonpharmacological intervention does the nurse implement for this patient while awaiting orders for pain medication from the health care provider? a. Reassures the patient that the provider will come to the emergency department soon b. Softly plays music that the patient finds relaxing c. Frequently reassesses the patient's pain scores d. Teaches the patient how to do yoga

B The appropriate nonpharmacological pain-management intervention is to quietly play music that the patient finds relaxing. Music diverts a person's attention away from pain and creates relaxation. Reassessing the patient's pain scores is done during evaluation. Building the patient's expectation of the provider's arrival does not address the patient's pain. Although yoga promotes relaxation, nurses teach relaxation techniques only when a patient is not experiencing acute pain. Because the patient is having acute pain, this is not an appropriate time to provide patient teaching.

A nurse is teaching staff about the conduction of the heart. In which order will the nurse present the conduction cycle, starting with the first structure? 1. Bundle of His 2. Purkinje network 3. Intraatrial pathways 4. Sinoatrial (SA) node 5. Atrioventricular (AV) node a. 5, 4, 3, 2, 1 b. 4, 3, 5, 1, 2 c. 4, 5, 3, 1, 2 d. 5, 3, 4, 2, 1

B The conduction system originates with the SA node, the "pacemaker" of the heart. The electrical impulses are transmitted through the atria along intraatrial pathways to the AV node. It assists atrial emptying by delaying the impulse before transmitting it through the Bundle of His and the ventricular Purkinje network.

The nurse is teaching a new mother about the sleep requirements of a neonate. Which comment by the patient indicates a correct understanding of the teaching? a. "I can't wait to get the baby home to play with the brothers and sisters." b. "I will ask my mom to come after the first week, when the baby is more alert." c. "I can get the baby on a sleeping schedule the first week while my mom is here." d. "I won't be able to nap during the day because the baby will be awake."

B The patient indicates an understanding when asking the mother to come after the first week. The neonate up to the age of 3 months averages about 16 hours of sleep a day, sleeping almost constantly during the first week. The baby will sleep rather than play. The baby will not be on a sleeping schedule the first week home. The mother will be able to nap since the baby sleeps 16 hours a day.

A patient is receiving opioid medication through an epidural infusion. Which action will the nurse take? a. Restrict fluid intake. b. Label the tubing that leads to the epidural catheter. c. Apply a gauze dressing to the epidural catheter insertion site. d. Ask the nursing assistive personnel to check on the patient at least once every 2 hours.

B To reduce the accidental administration of IV medications into the epidural catheter, the tubing that leads to the epidural catheter needs to be labeled clearly. The epidural insertion site needs to be covered by a transparent dressing to prevent infection and allow the nurse to assess the site. Patients receiving epidural anesthesia need to be monitored every 15 minutes until stabilized and then at least hourly for 12 to 24 hours.

Upon auscultation of the patient's chest, the nurse hears a whooshing sound at the fifth intercostal space. What does this finding indicate to the nurse? a. The beginning of the systolic phase b. Regurgitation of the mitral valve c. The opening of the aortic valve d. Presence of orthopnea

B When regurgitation occurs, there is a backflow of blood into an adjacent chamber. For example, in mitral regurgitation the mitral leaflets do not close completely. When the ventricles contract, blood escapes back into the atria, causing a murmur, or "whooshing" sound. The systolic phase begins with ventricular filling and closing of the aortic valve, which is heard as the first heart sound, S1. Orthopnea is an abnormal condition in which a patient uses multiple pillows when reclining to breathe easier or sits leaning forward with arms elevated.

A community health nurse is providing an educational session at the senior center on how to promote sleep. Which practices should the nurse recommend? (Select all that apply.) a. Take a nap in the afternoon. b. Sleep where you sleep best. c. Use sedatives as a last resort. d. Watch television right before sleep. e. Decrease fluids 2 to 4 hours before sleep. f. Get up if unable to fall asleep in 15 to 30 minutes.

B, C, E, F The nurse should instruct the patient to sleep where he or she sleeps best, to use sedatives as a last resort, to decrease fluid intake to cut down on bathroom trips, and, if unable to sleep in 15 to 30 minutes, to get up out of bed. Naps should be eliminated if they are not part of the individual's routine schedule, and if naps are taken, they should be limited to 20 minutes or less a day. Television can stimulate and disrupt sleep patterns.

The nurse suspects the patient has increased afterload. Which piece of equipment should the nurse obtain to determine the presence of this condition? a. Pulse oximeter b. Oxygen cannula c. Blood pressure cuff d. Yankauer suction tip catheter

C A blood pressure cuff is needed. The diastolic aortic pressure is a good clinical measure of afterload. Afterload is the resistance to left ventricular ejection. In hypertension the afterload increases, making cardiac workload also increase. A pulse oximeter is used to monitor the level of arterial oxygen saturation; it will not help determine increased afterload. While an oxygen cannula may be needed to help decrease the effects of increased afterload, it will not help determine the presence of afterload. A Yankauer suction tip catheter is used to suction the oral cavity.

A patient has a myocardial infarction. On which primary blood vessel will the nurse focus care to reduce ischemia? a. Superior vena cava b. Pulmonary artery c. Coronary artery d. Carotid artery

C A myocardial infarction is the lack of blood flow due to obstruction to the coronary artery, which supplies the heart with blood. The superior vena cava returns blood back to the heart. The pulmonary artery supplies deoxygenated blood to the lungs. The carotid artery supplies blood to the brain.

The nurse has brought a patient the scheduled pain medication. The patient asks the nurse to wait to give pain medication until the time for the dressing change, which is 2 hours away. Which response by the nurse is most therapeutic? a. "This medication will still be providing you relief at the time of your dressing change." b. "OK, swallow this pain pill, and I will return in a minute to change your dressing." c. "Would you like medication to be given for dressing changes in addition to your regularly scheduled medication?" d. "Your medication is scheduled for this time, and I can't adjust the time for you. I'm sorry, but you must take your pill right now."

C Additional doses of medication can be given to patients in certain circumstances, as with an extensive dressing change, when the health care provider is notified that more medication is needed. It is the nurse's responsibility to communicate with the provider and with the patient about a pain-control plan that works for both. By asking to hold off on the dose, the patient is indicating that the dressing changes are extremely painful. The regularly scheduled dose might not be as effective for the patient 2 hours later when the dressing change is scheduled. Oral medications take 30 to 60 minutes to take effect. If the nurse began the dressing change right then, the medication would not have been absorbed yet. The patient has the right to refuse to take a medication.

A nurse auscultates heart sounds. When the nurse hears S2, which valves is the nurse hearing close? a. Aortic and mitral b. Mitral and tricuspid c. Aortic and pulmonic d. Mitral and pulmonic

C As the ventricles empty, the ventricular pressures decrease, allowing closure of the aortic and pulmonic valves, producing the second heart sound, S2. The mitral and tricuspid produce the first heart sound, S1. The aortic and mitral do not close at the same time. The mitral and pulmonic do not close at the same time.

A nurse is caring for a patient who recently had abdominal surgery and is experiencing severe pain. The patient's blood pressure is 110/60 mm Hg, and heart rate is 60 beats/min. Additionally, the patient does not appear to be in any distress. Which response by the nurse is most therapeutic? a. "Your vitals do not show that you are having pain; can you describe your pain?" b. "OK, I will go get you some narcotic pain relievers immediately." c. "What would you like to try to alleviate your pain?" d. "You do not look like you are in pain."

C Be sure the patient is a partner in making decisions about the best approaches for managing pain. A patient knows the most about his or her pain and is an important partner in selecting successful pain therapies. The nurse must believe that a patient is in pain whenever the patient reports that he or she is in pain, even if the patient does not appear to be in pain. The nurse must be careful to not judge the patient based on vital signs or nonverbal communication and must not assume that the patient is seeking narcotics. The patient is a partner in pain management, so going to get narcotics to treat the pain without consulting with the patient first is not appropriate.

A patient has heart failure and cardiac output is decreased. Which formula can the nurse use to calculate cardiac output? a. Myocardial contractility × Myocardial blood flow b. Ventricular filling time/Diastolic filling time c. Stroke volume × Heart rate d. Preload/Afterload

C Cardiac output can be calculated by multiplying the stroke volume and the heart rate. The other options are not measures of cardiac output.

The nurse is evaluating the effectiveness of guided imagery for pain management as used for a patient who has second- and third-degree burns and needs extensive dressing changes. Which finding best indicates the effectiveness of guided imagery? a. The patient's facial expressions are stoic during the procedure. b. The patient rates pain during the dressing change as a 6 on a scale of 0 to 10. c. The patient's need for analgesic medication decreases during the dressing changes. d. The patient asks for pain medication during the dressing changes only once throughout the procedure.

C If the patient needs less pain medication during dressing changes, then guided imagery is helping to manage the patient's pain. The purpose of guided imagery is to allow the patient to alter the perception of pain. Guided imagery works in conjunction with analgesic medications, potentiating their effects. A rating of 6 on a 0 to 10 scale indicates that the patient is having moderate pain and shows that this patient is not experiencing pain relief at this time. A person who is stoic is not showing feelings, which makes it difficult to know whether or not the patient is experiencing pain. Having to ask for pain medication during the dressing changes indicates the guided imagery is not effective.

A patient has obstructive sleep apnea. Which assessment is the priority? a. Gastrointestinal function b. Neurological function c. Respiratory status d. Circulatory status

C In obstructive sleep apnea, the upper airway becomes partially or completely blocked, diminishing nasal airflow or stopping it. The person still attempts to breathe because the chest and abdominal movement continue, which results in loud snoring and snorting sounds. According to the ABCs of prioritizing care, airway and respiratory status takes priority over gastrointestinal, circulatory, and neurologic functioning.

A nurse is caring for a 5-year-old patient whose temperature is 101.2° F. The nurse expects this patient to hyperventilate. Which factor does the nurse remember when planning care for this type of hyperventilation? a. Anxiety over illness b. Decreased drive to breathe c. Increased metabolic demands d. Infection destroying lung tissues

C Increased body temperature (fever) increases the metabolic rate, thereby increasing carbon dioxide production. The increased carbon dioxide level stimulates an increase in the patient's rate and depth of respiration, causing hyperventilation. Anxiety can cause hyperventilation, but this is not the direct cause from a fever. Sleep causes a decreased respiratory drive; hyperventilation speeds up breathing. The cause of the fever in this question is unknown.

The patient presents to the clinic with reports of irritability, being sleepy during the day, chronically not being able to fall asleep, and being tired. Which nursing diagnosis will the nurse document in the plan of care? a. Anxiety b. Fatigue c. Insomnia d. Sleep deprivation

C Insomnia is experienced when the patient has chronic difficulty falling asleep, frequent awakenings from sleep, and/or short sleep or nonrestorative sleep. It is the most common sleep-related complaint and includes symptoms such as irritability, excessive daytime sleepiness, not being able to fall asleep, and fatigue. Anxiety is a vague, uneasy feeling of discomfort or dread accompanied by an autonomic response. Fatigue is an overwhelming sustained sense of exhaustion with decreased capacity for physical and mental work at a usual level. Sleep deprivation is a condition caused by dyssomnia and includes symptoms caused by illness, emotional distress, or medications.

While performing an assessment, the nurse hears crackles in the patient's lung fields. The nurse also learns that the patient is sleeping on three pillows to help with the difficulty breathing during the night. Which condition will the nurse most likely observe written in the patient's medical record? a. Atrial fibrillation b. Myocardial ischemia c. Left-sided heart failure d. Right-sided heart failure

C Left-sided heart failure results in pulmonary congestion, the signs and symptoms of which include shortness of breath, cough, crackles, and paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea (difficulty breathing when lying flat). Right-sided heart failure is systemic and results in peripheral edema, weight gain, and distended neck veins. Atrial fibrillation is often described as an irregularly irregular rhythm; rhythm is irregular because of the multiple pacemaker sites. Myocardial ischemia results when the supply of blood to the myocardium from the coronary arteries is insufficient to meet myocardial oxygen demands, producing angina or myocardial infarction.

A nurse is caring for a patient who is experiencing pain following abdominal surgery. Which information is important for the nurse to share with the patient when providing patient education about effective pain management? a. "To prevent overdose, you need to wait to ask for pain medication until you begin to experience pain." b. "You should take your medication after you walk to make sure you do not fall while you are walking." c. "We should work together to create a schedule to provide regular dosing of medication." d. "When you experience severe pain, you will need to take oral pain medications."

C One way to maximize pain relief while potentially decreasing opioid use is to administer analgesics around the clock (ATC) rather than on a prn basis. This approach ensures a more constant therapeutic blood level of an analgesic. Working with the patient to design a schedule allows the patient to be a full partner in the care provided. The nurse should not wait until pain is experienced because it takes medications 10-30 minutes to begin to relieve pain. The nurse administers pain medications before painful activities, such as walking, and administers intravenous medications when a patient is having severe pain.

. A nurse is caring for a patient who is taking warfarin (Coumadin) and discovers that the patient is taking garlic to help with hypertension. Which condition will the nurse assess for in this patient? a. Increased cholesterol level b. Distended jugular vein c. Bleeding d. Angina

C Patients taking warfarin (Coumadin) for anticoagulation prolong the prothrombin time (PT)/international normalized ratio (INR) results if they are taking gingko biloba, garlic, or ginseng with the anticoagulant. The drug interaction can precipitate a life-threatening bleed. Increased cholesterol levels are associated with saturated fat dietary intake. A distended jugular vein and peripheral edema are associated with damage to the right side of the heart. Angina is temporary ischemia of the heart muscle.

The nurse is caring for a patient who is having trouble sleeping. Which action will the nurse take? a. Suggest snug-fitting nightwear. b. Provide a favorite beverage. c. Encourage deep breathing. d. Walk with the patient.

C Relaxation exercises such as slow, deep breathing for 1 or 2 minutes relieve tension and prepare the body for rest. Instruct patients to wear loose-fitting nightwear. Walking and drinking a favorite beverage would not necessarily encourage sleep.

. A nurse is teaching the patient with mitral valve problems about the valves in the heart. Starting on the right side of the heart, describe the sequence of the blood flow through these valves. 1. Mitral 2. Aortic 3. Tricuspid 4. Pulmonic a. 1, 3, 2, 4 b. 4, 3, 2, 1 c. 3, 4, 1, 2 d. 2, 4, 1, 3

C The blood flows through the valves in the following direction: tricuspid, pulmonic, mitral, and aortic.

A nurse receives an order from a health care provider to administer hydrocodone and acetaminophen (Vicodin ES 7.5/750), to a patient who is experiencing 8/10 postsurgical pain. The order is to give 2 tablets every 6 hours by mouth as needed for pain. What is the nurse's next bestaction? a. Give the Vicodin ES to the patient immediately because the patient is experiencing severe pain. b. Ask the health care provider for a nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drug (NSAID) order. c. Ask the health care provider to verify the dosage and frequency of the medication. d. Give the Vicodin ES in addition to playing soothing music for the patient.

C The maximum 24-hour dosage for acetaminophen is 4 grams. If the patient took 2 tablets of Vicodin ES every 6 hours, the patient would take in 6 grams of acetaminophen in 24 hours (2 tablets = 750 + 750 = 1500 4 [could have 4 doses in 24 hours every 6 hours] = 6000 mg = 6 g). This exceeds the safe dosage of acetaminophen, so the best action is to question this order. Giving the medication as ordered would possibly result in the patient's taking more acetaminophen than is considered a safe dose. Acetaminophen overdose can result in liver failure. NSAIDs are used to treat mild to moderate pain. At this moment, the patient is experiencing severe pain. Implementing music therapy is a nursing intervention and is an independent nursing action that can be instituted with pain medication, but the possible acetaminophen dose is the priority.

An older-adult patient is visiting the clinic after a fall during the night. The nurse obtains information on what medications the patient takes. Which medication most likely contributed to the patient's fall? a. Melatonin b. L-tryptophan c. Benzodiazepine d. Iron supplement

C The most likely cause is a benzodiazepine. If older patients who were recently continent, ambulatory, and alert become incontinent or confused and/or demonstrate impaired mobility, the use of benzodiazepines needs to be considered as a possible cause. This can contribute to a fall in an older adult. Short-term use of melatonin has been found to be safe, with mild side effects of nausea, headache, and dizziness being infrequent. Iron supplements may be given to patients with restless legs syndrome. Some substances such as L-tryptophan, a natural protein found in foods such as milk, cheese, and meats, promote sleep; while it does promote sleep, it is not the most likely to cause mobility problems.

The patient has just been diagnosed with narcolepsy. The nurse teaches the patient about management of the condition. Which information from the patient will cause the nurse to intervene? a. Takes antidepressant medications b. Naps shorter than 20 minutes c. Sits in hot, stuffy rooms d. Chews gum

C The nurse will intervene about sitting in a hot, stuffy room as this will make the narcolepsy worse so this needs to be corrected. Patients with narcolepsy need to avoid factors that increase drowsiness (e.g., alcohol, heavy meals, exhausting activities, long-distance driving, and long periods of sitting in hot, stuffy rooms). Patients are treated with antidepressants, and management techniques involve scheduling naps no longer than 20 minutes and chewing gum. Additional management techniques include exercise, light high-protein meals, deep breathing, and taking vitamins.

The nurse is caring for a patient in the sleep lab. Which assessment finding indicates to the nurse that the patient is in stage 4 NREM? a. The patient awakens easily. b. The patient's eyes rapidly move. c. The patient is difficult to awaken. d. The patient's vital signs are elevated.

C The patient is difficult to arouse, vital signs are significantly lower, and this stage lasts about 15 to 30 minutes. Stage 4 NREM is the deepest stage of sleep. Lighter sleep is seen in stages 1 and 2, where the patient awakens easily. REM sleep is characterized by rapid eye movement.

A nurse is preparing a patient for nasotracheal suctioning. In which order will the nurse perform the steps, beginning with the first step? 1. Insert catheter. 2. Apply suction and remove. 3. Have patient deep breathe. 4. Encourage patient to cough. 5. Attach catheter to suction system. 6. Rinse catheter and connecting tubing. a. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 b. 4, 5, 1, 2, 3, 6 c. 5, 3, 1, 2, 4, 6 d. 3, 1, 2, 5, 4, 6

C The steps for nasotracheal suctioning are as follows: Verify that catheter is attached to suction; have patient deep breathe; insert catheter; apply intermittent suction for no more than 10 seconds and remove; encourage patient to cough; and rinse catheter and connecting tubing with normal saline.

The nurse is preparing pain medications. To which patient does the nurse anticipate administering an opioid fentanyl patch? a. A 15-year-old adolescent with a fractured femur b. A 30-year-old adult with cellulitis c. A 50-year-old patient with prostate cancer d. An 80-year-old patient with a broken hip

C Transdermal fentanyl (patch), which is 100 times more potent than morphine, is available for opioid-tolerant patients with cancer or chronic pain (prostate cancer). It delivers predetermined doses that provide analgesia for up to 72 hours. The other patients are expected to experience acute pain (fractured femur, cellulitis, and broken hip). Therefore, they will most likely benefit from oral or IV opioids for short-term pain relief.

A nurse is teaching a health class about the heart. Which information from the class members indicates teaching by the nurse is successful for the flow of blood through the heart, starting in the right atrium? a. Right ventricle, left ventricle, left atrium b. Left atrium, right ventricle, left ventricle c. Right ventricle, left atrium, left ventricle d. Left atrium, left ventricle, right ventricle

C Unoxygenated blood flows through the venae cavae into the right atrium, where it is pumped down to the right ventricle; the blood is then pumped out the pulmonary artery and is returned oxygenated via the pulmonary vein to the left atrium, where it flows to the left ventricle and is pumped out to the rest of the body via the aorta.

A patient's heart rate increased from 94 to 164 beats/min. What will the nurse expect? a. Increase in diastolic filling time b. Decrease in hemoglobin level c. Decrease in cardiac output d. Increase in stroke volume

C With a sustained heart rate greater than 160 beats/min, diastolic filling time decreases, decreasing stroke volume and cardiac output. The hemoglobin level would not be affected.

A young mother has been hospitalized for an irregular heartbeat (dysrhythmia). The night nurse makes rounds and finds the patient awake. Which action by the nurse is most appropriate? a. Inform the patient that it is late and time to go to sleep. b. Ask the patient if she would like medication for sleep. c. Recommend a good movie that is on television tonight. d. Take time to sit and talk with the patient about her inability to sleep.

D A nurse on the night shift needs to take time to sit and talk with patients unable to sleep. This helps to determine the factors keeping patients awake. Assessment is the first step of the nursing process; therefore assessment needs to be done first and involves ascertaining the cause of the patient's inability to sleep. Patients who are admitted to the hospital for uncertain diagnoses can be stressed and worried about the testing and outcomes. In addition, a young mother can be worried about the care of her children and those caring for the children. This uncertainty and change in routine can cause difficulty in resting or falling asleep. A distraction such as a television may or may not work for the patient. After assessment is completed, a sedative may or may not be in order. Telling the patient that it is late and time to go to sleep is not a therapeutic response for an adult who is under stress.

A patient who has had type 2 diabetes for 26 years is beginning to experience peripheral neuropathy in the feet and lower leg. The nurse is providing education to the patient to prevent injury to the feet by wearing shoes or slippers when walking. Which statement made by the nurse best explains the rationale for this instruction? a. "Wearing shoes blocks pain perception and helps you adapt to pain, which ends up protecting your feet." b. "Shoes provide nonpharmacological pain relief to people with diabetes and peripheral neuropathy." c. "The neurological gates open when wearing shoes, which protects your feet." d. "If you step on something without shoes, you might not feel it; this could possibly cause injury to your foot."

D Any factor that interrupts or influences normal pain reception or perception (e.g., spinal cord injury, peripheral neuropathy, or neurological disease) affects a patient's awareness of and response to pain. The patient will no longer have protective reflexes to prevent injury to the feet. Wearing shoes prevents the patient from injuring the feet because they protect the feet. Shoes do not block pain perception, and they do not help people adapt to pain. Shoes are not a form of nonpharmacological pain relief. Wearing shoes will not have an effect on opening or closing the pain gates.

The nurse is caring for a patient with respiratory problems. Which assessment finding indicates a late sign of hypoxia? a. Elevated blood pressure b. Increased pulse rate c. Restlessness d. Cyanosis

D Cyanosis, blue discoloration of the skin and mucous membranes caused by the presence of desaturated hemoglobin in capillaries, is a late sign of hypoxia. Elevated blood pressure, increased pulse rate, and restlessness are early signs of hypoxia.

The nurse is teaching about the process of exchanging gases through the alveolar capillary membrane. Which term will the nurse use to describe this process? a. Ventilation b. Surfactant c. Perfusion d. Diffusion

D Diffusion is the process of gases exchanging across the alveoli and capillaries of body tissues.Ventilation is the process of moving gases into and out of the lungs. Surfactant is a chemical produced in the lungs to maintain the surface tension of the alveoli and keep them from collapsing. Perfusion is the ability of the cardiovascular system to carry oxygenated blood to tissues and return deoxygenated blood to the heart.

The nurse is caring for an adolescent with an appendectomy who is reporting difficulty falling asleep. Which intervention will be most appropriate? a. Close the door to decrease noise from unit activities. b. Adjust temperature in the patient's room to 21° C (70° F). c. Ensure that the night-light in the patient's room is working. d. Encourage the discontinuation of a soda and chocolate nightly snack.

D Discontinuing the soda and chocolate nightly snack will be most beneficial for this patient since it has two factors that will cause difficulty falling asleep. Coffee, tea, colas, and chocolate act as stimulants, causing a person to stay awake or to awaken throughout the night. Personal preference influences the temperature of the room, as well as the lighting of the room. Noise can be a factor in the unit and can awaken the patient, but caffeine can make it difficult to fall asleep.

The nurse is administering pain medication for several patients. Which patient does the nurse administer medication to first? a. The patient who needs to be premedicated before walking b. The patient who has a PCA running that needs the syringe replaced c. The patient who needs to take a scheduled dose of maintenance pain medication d. The patient who is experiencing 8/10 pain and has an immediate order for pain medication

D Immediate (STAT) medications need to be given as soon as possible. In addition, this patient is the priority because of the report of severe pain. The other patients need pain medication, but their situations are not as high a priority as that of the patient with the STAT medication order.

A woman is in labor and refuses to receive any sort of anesthesia medication. Which alternative treatment is best for this patient? a. Transcutaneous electrical nerve stimulation (TENS) b. Herbal supplements with analgesic effects c. Pudendal block (regional anesthesia) d. Relaxation and guided imagery

D In the case of a patient in labor, relaxation with guided imagery is often an effective supplement for pain management because it provides women with a sense of control over their pain. Relaxation and guided imagery can be used during any phase of health or illness. TENS units are typically used to manage postsurgical and procedural pain. Herbal supplements need to be evaluated for safety during pregnancy. Additionally, some patients consider herbal supplements to be another form of medication, and they are not typically used to control acute pain. A pudendal block is a type of regional anesthesia (injection or infusion of local anesthetics to block a group of sensory nerve fibers); use of it does not respect the patient's wishes for nonpharmacological pain control.

A nurse is providing medication education to a patient who just started taking ibuprofen. Which information will the nurse include in the teaching session? a. Ibuprofen helps to depress the central nervous system to decrease pain perception. b. Ibuprofen reduces anxiety, which will help you cope with your pain. c. Ibuprofen binds with opiate receptors to reduce your pain. d. Ibuprofen inhibits the production of prostaglandins.

D NSAIDs like ibuprofen likely work by inhibiting the synthesis of prostaglandins to inhibit cellular responses to inflammation. Ibuprofen does not depress the central nervous system, nor does it enhance coping with pain. Opioids bind with opiate receptors to modify perceptions of pain.

The nurse adds a nursing diagnosis of ineffective breathing pattern to a patient's care plan. Which sleep condition caused the nurse to assign this nursing diagnosis? a. Insomnia b. Narcolepsy c. Sleep deprivation d. Obstructive sleep apnea

D Obstructive sleep apnea (OSA) occurs when the muscles or structures of the oral cavity or throat relax during sleep. The upper airway becomes partially or completely blocked, diminishing airflow or stopping it for as long as 30 seconds. The person still attempts to breathe because chest and abdominal movements continue, resulting in snoring or snorting sounds. With narcolepsy, the person feels an overwhelming wave of sleepiness and falls asleep. Insomnia is characterized by chronic difficulty falling asleep. Sleep deprivation is a condition caused by dyssomnia. OSA is the only one of these conditions that results in blockage of the airway and impacts the ability to breathe.

A patient has inadequate stroke volume related to decreased preload. Which treatment does the nurse prepare to administer? a. Diuretics b. Vasodilators c. Chest physiotherapy d. Intravenous (IV) fluids

D Preload is affected by the circulating volume; if the patient has decreased fluid volume, it will need to be replaced with fluid or blood therapy. Preload is the amount of blood in the left ventricle at the end of diastole, often referred to as end-diastolic volume. Giving diuretics and vasodilators will make the situation worse. Diuretics causes fluid loss; the patient is already low on fluids or the preload would not be decreased. Vasodilators reduced blood return to the heart, making the situation worse; the patient does not have enough blood and fluid to the heart or the preload would not be decreased. Chest physiotherapy is a group of therapies for mobilizing pulmonary secretions. Chest physiotherapy will not help this cardiovascular problem.

A nurse is preparing to suction a patient. The pulse is 65 and pulse oximetry is 94%. Which finding will cause the nurse to stop suctioning? a. Pulse 75 b. Pulse 80 c. Oxygen saturation 91% d. Oxygen saturation 88%

D Stop when oxygen saturation is 88%. Monitor patient's vital signs and oxygen saturation during procedure; note whether there is a change of 20 beats/min (either increase or decrease) or if pulse oximetry falls below 90% or 5% from baseline. If this occurs, stop suctioning. A pulse rate of 75 is only 10 beats different from the start of the procedure. A pulse rate of 80 is 15 beats different from the start of suctioning. Oxygen saturation of 91% is not 5% from baseline or below 90%.

A nurse is teaching the staff about the sleep cycle. Which sequence will the nurse include in the teaching session? a. NREM Stage 1, 2, 3, 4, REM b. NREM Stage 1, 2, 3, 4, 3, 2, 1, REM c. NREM Stage 1, 2, 3, 4, REM, 4, 3, 2 REM d. NREM Stage 1, 2, 3, 4, 3, 2, REM

D The cyclical pattern usually progresses from stage 1 through stage 4 of NREM, followed by a reversal from stages 4 to 3 to 2, ending with a period of REM sleep. The others are incorrect sequences.

The nurse is caring for a patient who suddenly experiences chest pain. What is the nurse's first priority? a. Call the rapid response team. b. Start an intravenous (IV) line. c. Administer pain-relief medications. d. Ask the patient to rate and describe the pain.

D The nurse's ability to establish a nursing diagnosis, plan and implement care, and evaluate the effectiveness of care depends on an accurate and timely assessment. The other responses are all interventions; the nurse cannot know which intervention is appropriate until the nurse completes the assessment.

A single parent is discussing the sleep needs of a preschooler with the nurse. Which information will the nurse share with the parent? a. "Most preschoolers sleep soundly all night long." b. "It is important that the 5-year-old get a nap every day." c. "On average, the preschooler needs to sleep 10 hours a night." d. "Preschoolers may have trouble settling down after a busy day."

D The preschooler usually has difficulty relaxing or settling down after long, active days. By the age of 5, naps are rare for children, except those for whom a siesta is a custom. Preschoolers frequently awaken during the night. On average, a preschooler needs about 12 hours of sleep.

The nurse is caring for a postpartum patient. The patient's labor has lasted over 28 hours within the hospital; the patient has not slept and is disoriented to date and time. Which nursing diagnosis will the nurse document in the patient's care plan? a. Insomnia b. Impaired parenting c. Ineffective coping d. Sleep deprivation

D This patient has been deprived of sleep by staying awake during a 28-hour labor. Disorientation is one potential sign of sleep deprivation. In this scenario, there is a clear cause for the patient's lack of sleep, and it is a one-time episode. Insomnia, on the other hand, is a chronic disorder whereby patients have difficulty falling asleep, awaken frequently, or sleep only for a short time. This scenario does not indicate that this has been a chronic problem for this patient. Although ineffective coping can manifest as a sleep disturbance, clear evidence shows that it was labor that deprived this patient of sleep, not an inability to cope. It could be difficult to care for an infant when sleep deprived; however, this scenario gives no evidence that this mother displays impaired parenting and is not caring adequately for her child or lacks the skills to do so.

.The nurse is caring for a young-adult patient on the medical-surgical unit. When doing midnight checks, the nurse observes the patient awake, putting a puzzle together. Which information will the nurse consider to best explain this finding? A. The patient misses family and is lonely. B. The patient was waiting to talk with the nurse. C. The patient has been kept up with the noise on the unit. D. The patient's sleep-wake cycle preference is late evening.

D This patient is awake and alert enough to do a puzzle. The individual's sleep-wake preference is probably late evening. All persons have biological clocks that synchronize their sleep-wake cycle. This explains why some individuals fall asleep in the early evening, whereas others go to bed at midnight or early morning. Waiting to talk with the nurse, being lonely, and noise on the unit may contribute to lack of sleep, but the best explanation for the patient being awake is the biological clock.

A nurse is assessing a patient who started to have severe pain 3 days ago. When the nurse asks the patient to describe the pain, the patient states, "The pain feels like it is in my stomach. It is a burning pain, and it spreads out in a circle around the spot where it hurts the most." Which type of pain does the nurse document the patient is having at this time? a. Superficial pain b. Idiopathic pain c. Chronic pain d. Visceral pain

D Visceral pain arises from visceral organs, such as those from the gastrointestinal tract. Visceral pain is diffuse and radiates in several directions and can have a burning quality. Superficial pain has a short duration and is usually a sharp pain arising from the skin. Pain of an unknown cause is called idiopathic pain. Chronic pain lasts longer than 6 months.