Imaging Procedures

Which of the following positions would best demonstrate the proximal tibofibular articulation?

45-degree internal rotation

Correct preparation for a patient scheduled for an upper gastrointestinal (GI) series is most likely to be

NPO after midnight

Which of the following projections or positions will best demonstrate subacromial or subcoracoid dislocation?

PA oblique scapular Y

Subject/object unsharpness can result from all of the following except when

anatomic object(s) of interest is/are in the path of the CR

Which of the following is recommended to better demonstrate the tarsometatarsal joints in a dorsoplanter projection of the foot?

angel the CR 10 degrees posteriorly

The lumbar vertebral lamina is represented by what part of the "scotty dog" seen in a correctly positioned oblique lumbar spine?

body

Correct preparation for a patient scheduled for a lower GI series is most likely to be

cathartics and cleansing enemas

In which projection of the foot are the interspaces between the first and second cuneiforms best deomonstrated?

lateral oblique foot

Patients are instructed to remove all jewelry, hair clips, metal prostheses, coins, and credit cards before entering he room for an examination in

magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)

In which of the following projections is the talofibular joint best demonstrated?

medial oblique

Which of the following projections of the ankle would best demonstrate the mortise?

medial oblique 15-20 degrees

The ossified portion of a long bone where cartilage has been replaced by bone is known as the

metaphysis

Which of the following is demonstrated in a 25-degree RPO positon with the CR entering 1 inch medial to the elevated ASIS?

left scaroiliac joint

What is the name of the condition that results in the forward slipping of one vertebra on the one below it?

spondylolisthesis

During myelography, contrast medium is introduced into the

subarachnoid space

In myelography, the contrast medium generally is injected into the

subarachnoid space between the third and fourth lumbar vertebrae

Which of the following skull positions will demonstrate the cranial base, sphenoidal sinuses, atlas, and odontoid process?

submentovertical (SMV)

Deoxygenated blood from the head and thorax is returned to the heart by the

superior vena cava

What portion of the humerus articulates with the ulna to help form the elbow joint?

trochlea

The term valgus refers to

turned outward

Which of the following guidelines should be followed when performing radiographic examinations on pediatric patients?

use restraint only when necessary

which of the following examinations is used to demonstrate vesicoureteral reflux?

voiding cystourethrogram

Sternoclavicular articulations are likely to be demonstrated in all of the following except

weight-bearing

Which of the following projections is most likely to demonstrate the carpal pisiform free of superimposition?

AP (medail) oblique

Which of the following will best demonstrate the size and shape of the liver and kidneys?

AP abdomen

Which of the following positions would be the best choice for a right shoulder examination to rule out fracture?

AP and scapular Y

Which of the following views would best demonstrate arthritic changes in the knees?

AP erect

An acromioclavicular separation will be best demonstrated in the following projection

AP erect, both shoulders

Which of the following projections will best demonstrate the tarsal navicular with minimal superimposition?

AP oblique, medial rotation

Which of the following projections can be used to supplement the traditional "open-mouth" projection when the upper portion of the odontoid process cannot be well demonstrated?

AP or PA through the foramen magnum

Medial displacement of a tibial fracture would be best demonstrated in the

AP projection

Narrowing of the upper airway, as seen in pediatric croup, can be best visualized in the

AP projection

Free air in the abdominal cavity is best demonstrated in which of the following positions?

AP projection, left lateral decubitus position

Arteries and veins enter and exit the medial aspect of each lung at the

hilus

Which of the following should be performed to rule out subluxation or fracture of the cervical spine?

horizontal beam lateral

The body habitus having short and wide heart and lung area and a high transverse stomach is the

hypersthenic

The sternoclavicular joints are best demonstrated with the patient PA and

in a slight oblique position, affected side adjacent to the IR

Which of the following bony landmarks is in the same transverse plane as L2-3?

inferior costal margin

To demonstrate esophageal varices, the patient must be examined in

the recumbent position

The laryngeal prominence is formed by the

thyroid cartilage

A lateral projection of the larynx is occasionally required to rule out foreign body, polyps, or tumor. The CR should be directed

to the level of the laryngeal prominence

To demonstrate a profile view of the glenoid fossa, the patient is AP recumbent and obliqued 45 degrees

toward the affected side

During an air-contrast BE, in what part of the colon is air most likely to be visualized with the body in the AP recumbent position?

transverse colon

With the patient recumbent on the x-ray table with the head lower than the feet, the patient is said to be in the

trendelenburg position

For an AP projection of the knee on a patient whose measurement from ASIS to tabletop is 21 cm, which CR direction will best demonstrate the knee joint?

0 degrees (perpendicular)

A kyphotic curve is formed by which of the following? 1. Sacral vertebrae 2. Thoracic vertebrae 3. Lumbar vertebrae

1 and 2 only

A patient unable to extend his or her arm is seated at the end of the x-ray table, elbow flexed 90 degrees. The CR is directed 45 degrees medially. Which of the following structures will be demonstrated best? 1. Radial head 2. Capitulum 3. Coronoid process

1 and 2 only

A radiolucent sponge can be placed under the patient's waist for a lateral porjection of the lumbarsacral spine to 1. make the vertebral column parallel with the IR 2. place the intervertebral disk spaces perpendicular to the IR 3. decrease the amount of SR reaching the IR

1 and 2 only

During IV urography, the prone position generally is recommended to demonstrate 1. the filling of the ureters 2. the renal pelvis 3. the superior calyces

1 and 2 only

Elements of correct positioning for PA projection of the chest include 1. Weight evenly distributed on feet 2. Elevation of the chin 3. Shoulders elevated and rolled forward

1 and 2 only

Endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP) usually involves 1. cannulation of the hepatopancreatic ampulla 2. introduction of contrast medium into the common bile duct 3. introduction of barium directly into the duodenum

1 and 2 only

Examples of synovial pivot articulations include the 1. atlantoaxial joint 2. radioulnar joint 3. temporomandibular joint

1 and 2 only

For which of the following conditions is operative cholangiography a useful tool? 1. Patency of the biliary ducts 2. Biliary tract calculi 3. Duodenal calculi

1 and 2 only

In the AP projcetion of the ankle, the 1. plantar surface of the foot is verticle 2. fibula projects more distally than the tibia 3. calcaneus is well visualized

1 and 2 only

In the lateral projection of the foot, the 1. plantar surface should be perpendicular to the IR 2. metatarsals are superimposed 3. talofibular joint should be visualized

1 and 2 only

Orthoroentgenography, or radiographic measurement of long bones of an upper or lower extremity, requires which of the following accessories? 1. Bell-Thompson scale 2. Bucky tray 3. Cannula

1 and 2 only

Structures comprising the neural, or vertebral, arch include 1. pedicles 2. laminae 3. body

1 and 2 only

Structures involved in blowout fractures include the 1. orbital floor 2. inferior rectus muscle 3. zygoma

1 and 2 only

Structures located in the right lower quadrant (RLQ) include the following 1. cecum 2. vermiform appendix 3. sigmoid

1 and 2 only

Terms used to describe movement include 1. plantar flexion 2. valgus 3. oblique

1 and 2 only

The female bony pelvis differs from the male bony pelvis in the following way(s) 1. The male greater/false pelvis is deep 2. the male acetabulum faces more laterally 3. The female coccyx is more vertical

1 and 2 only

The right posterior oblique position (Judet method) of the right acetabulum will demonstrate the 1. anterior rim of the right acetabulum 2. right iliac wing 3. right anterior iliopubic column

1 and 2 only

The type(s) of articulations lacking a joint cavity include 1. Fibrous 2. Cartilaginous 3. Synovial

1 and 2 only

To make a patient as comfortable as possible during a single-contrast barium enema (BE), the radiographer should 1. instruct the patient to relax the abdominal muscles to prevent intra-abdominal pressure 2. instruct the patient to concentrate on breathing deeply to reduce colonic spasm 3. prepare a warm barium suspension (98-105 degree F) to aid in retention

1 and 2 only

To reduce the amount of scattered radiation reaching the IR in CR/DR imaging of the lumbosacral region, which of the following is (are) recommended? 1. close collimation 2. lead mat on table posterior to the patient 3. decreased SID

1 and 2 only

Types of mechanical obstruction found in pediatric patients include 1. volvulus 2. intussusception 3. paralytic ileus

1 and 2 only

When examining a patient whose elbow is in partial flexion, how should an AP projection be obtained? 1. With humerus parallel to IR, CR perpendicular 2. With forearm parallel to IR, CR perpendicular 3. Through the partially flexed elbow, resting on the olecranon process, CR perpendicular

1 and 2 only

Which of the following are characteristics of the hypersthenic body type? 1. Short, wide, transverse heart 2. High and peripheral large bowel 3. Diaphragm positioned low

1 and 2 only

Which of the following are components of a trimalleolar fracture? 1. Fractured lateral malleolus 2. Fractured medial malleolus 3. Fractured anterior tibia

1 and 2 only

Which of the following articulations may be described as diarthrotic? 1. condyloid 2. sellar 3. Gomphosis

1 and 2 only

Which of the following bones participate(s) in the formation of the knee joint? 1. Femur 2. Tibia 3. Patella

1 and 2 only

Which of the following can be used to demonstrate the intercondyloid fossa? 1. Prone, knee flexed 40 degrees, CR directed caudad 40 degrees to the popliteal fossa 2. supine, IR under flexed knee, CR directed cephalad to knee, perpendicular to tibia 3. prone, patella parallel to IR, heel rotated 5 to 10 degrees lateral, CR perpendicular to knee joint

1 and 2 only

Which of the following interventional procedures can be used to increase the diameter of a stenosed vessel? 1. Percutaneous transluminal angioplasty (PTA) 2. Stent Placement 3. Peripherally inserted central catheter (PICC line)

1 and 2 only

Which of the following is (are) required for a lateral projection of the skull? 1. The IOML is parallel to the IR 2. The MSP is parallel to the IR 3. The CR enters 3/4 inch superior and anterior to the EAM

1 and 2 only

Which of the following is (are) true regarding radiographic examination of the acromioclavicular joints? 1. The procedure is performed in the erect position 2. Use of weights can improve demonstration of the joints 3. the procedure should be avoided if dislocation or separation is suspected

1 and 2 only

Which of the following positions demonstrates the sphenoid sinuses? 1. Modified Waters (mouth open) 2. Lateral 3. PA axial

1 and 2 only

Which of the following should be demonstrated in a true AP projection of the clavicle? 1. Clavicular body 2. Acromioclavicular joint 3. Sternocostal joint

1 and 2 only

Which of the following statements is (are) correct with respect to evaluation criteria for a PA projection of the chest for lungs? 1. Sternal extremities of clavicles are equidistant from vertebral borders 2. Ten posterior ribs are demonstrated above the diaphragm 3. The esophagus is visible in the midline

1 and 2 only

Which of the following structures should be visualized through the foramen magnum in an AP axial projection (Towne method) of the skull for occipital bone? 1. Posterior clinoid processes 2. Dorsum sella 3. Posterior arch of C1

1 and 2 only

which of the following blood chemistry levels must the radiographer check prior to exretory urography? 1. Creatinine 2. Blood urea nirtogen (BUN) 3. Red blood cells (RBCs)

1 and 2 only

Demonstration of the posterior fat pad on the lateral projection of the adult elbow can be caused by 1. trauma or other pathology 2. greater than 90-degree flexion 3. less than 90-degree flexion

1 and 3 only

In the lateral projection of the anke, the 1. talotibial joint is visualized 2. talofibular joint is visualized 3. tibia and fibula are superimposed

1 and 3 only

The true lateral position of the skull uses which of the following principles? 1. Interpupillary line perpendicular to the IR 2. MSP perpendicular to the IR 3. Infraorbitomeatal line (IOML) parallel to the transverse axis of the IR

1 and 3 only

Which of the following articulations participate(s) in formation of the ankle mortise? 1. talotibial 2. talocalcaneal 3. talofibular

1 and 3 only

Which of the following is (are) part of the bony thorax? 1. Manubrium 2. clavicles 3. 24 ribs

1 and 3 only

Which of the following precautions should be observed when radiographing a patient who has sustained a traumatic injury to the hip? 1. When a fracture is suspected, manipulation of the affected extremity should be performed by a physician 2. The AP axiolateral projection should be avoided 3. To evaluate the entire region, the pelvis typically is included in the initial examination.

1 and 3 only

Which of the following statements is (are) true regarding a PA projection of the paranasal sinuses? 1. The OML is elevated 15 degrees from the horizontal 2. The petrous pyramids completely fill the orbits 3. The frontal and ethmoidal sinuses are visualized

1 and 3 only

In the lateral projection of the scapula, the 1. vertebral and axillary borders are superimposed 2. acromion and coracoid processes are superimposed 3. inferior angle is superimposed on the ribs

1 only

Which of the following is (are) demonstrated in an AP axial projection of the cervical spine? 1. C3-7 cervical bodies 2. Intervertebral foramina 3. zygpophyeal joints

1 only

Which of the following is (are) located on the anterior aspect of the femur? 1. Patellar surface 2. Intertrochanteric crest 3. Linea aspera

1 only

Which of the following is (are) proximal to the tibal plateau? 1. Intercondyloid fossa 2. Tibial condyles 3. Tibial tuberosity

1 only

in which of the following tangential axial projections of the patella is complete relaxation of the quadriceps femoris required for an accurate diagnosis? 1. supine flexion 45 degrees (Merchant) 2. prone flexion 90 degrees (Settegast) 3. prone flexion 55 degrees (Hughston)

1 only

During GI radiography, the position of the stomach may very depending on 1. the respiratory phase 2. body habitus 3. patient position

1, 2 and 3

For the AP projection of the scapula, the 1. patient's arm is abducted at right angles to the body 2. patient's elbow is flexed with the hand supinated 3. exposure is made during quiet breathing

1, 2 and 3

Hysterosalpingography may be performed for demonstration of 1. uterine tubal patency 2. mass lesions in the uterine cavity 3. uterine position

1, 2 and 3

In a lateral projection of the normal knee, the 1. fibular head should be somewhat superimposed on the proximal tibia 2. patellofemoral joint should be visualized 3. femoral condyles should be superimposed

1, 2 and 3

Ingestion of barium sulfate is contraindicated in which of the following situations? 1. Suspected perforation of a hollow viscus 2. Suspected large bowel obstruction 3. Preoperative patients

1, 2 and 3

Inspiration and expiration projections of the chest are performed to demonstrate 1. partial or complete collapse of pulmonary lobe(s) 2. air in the pleural cavity 3. foreign body

1, 2 and 3

Prior to the start of an IVU, which of the following procedures should be carried out? 1. Have patient empty the bladder 2. Review the patient's allergy history 3. Check the patient's creatinine level

1, 2 and 3

To demonstrate the entire circumference of the radial head, exposure(s) must be made with the 1. epicondyles perpendicular to the IR 2. hand pronated and supinated as much as possible 3. hand lateral and in internal rotation

1, 2 and 3

When evaluating a PA axial projection of the skull with a 15 degree caudal angle, the radiographer should see 1. petrous pyramids in the lower third of the orbits 2. equal distance from the lateral border of the skull to the lateral rim of the orbit bilaterally 3. symmetrical petrous pyramids

1, 2 and 3

Which of the following are mediastinal structures? 1. Heart 2. Trachea 3. Esophagus

1, 2 and 3

Which of the following equipment is necessary for ERCP? 1. A fluoroscopic unit with imaging device and tilt-table capabilities 2. A fiberoptic endoscope 3. Polyethylene catheters

1, 2 and 3

Which of the following factors can contribute to hypertension? 1. Obesity 2. Smoking 3. Stress

1, 2 and 3

Which of the following is (are) effective in reducing exposure to sensitive tissues for frontal views during scoliosis examinations? 1. Use of PA position 2. Use of breast shields 3. Use of compensating filtration

1, 2 and 3

Which of the following may be used to evaluate the glenohumeral joint? 1. Scapular Y projection 2. Inferosuperior axial 3. Thransthoracic lateral

1, 2 and 3

Which of the following statements is (are) correct, with respect to a left lateral projection of the chest? 1. The MSP must be perfectly vertical and parallel to the IR 2. The right posterior ribs will be projected slightly posterior to the left posterior ribs 3. Arms must be raised high to prevent upper-arm soft-tissue superimposition on lung field.

1, 2 and 3

Which of the following statements regarding knee x-ray arthrography is (are) true? 1. Ligament tears can be demonstrated 2. Sterile technique is observed 3. MRI can follow x-ray

1, 2 and 3

Which of the following statements regarding myelography is (are) correct? 1. Spinal puncture may be performed in the prone or flexed lateral position 2. Contrast medium distribution is regulated through x-ray tube angulation 3. The patient's neck must be in extension during Trendelenburg positions

1, 2 and 3

Which of the following statements regarding the Norgaard method, "Ball-Catcher's position," is (are) correct? 1. Bilateral AP oblique hands are obtained 2. It is used for early detection of rheumatoid arthritis 3. The hands are obliqued about 45 degrees, palm up

1, 2 and 3

In a lateral projection of the nasal bones, the CR is directed

1/2 inch distal to the nasion

With a patient in the PA position and the OML perpendicular to the table, a 15-20 degree caudal angulation would place the petrous ridges in the lower third of the orbit. To achieve the same result in a baby or a small child, it is necessary for the radiographer to modify the angulation to

10 to 15 degrees caudal

In the anterior oblique position of the cervical spine, the CR should be directed

15 degrees caudad to C4

With the patient in the PA position, which of the following tube angle and direction combinations is correct for an axial projection of the clavicle?A

15 to 30 degrees caudad

A lateral projection of the hand in extension is often recommended to evaluate 1. a fracture 2. a foreign body 3. soft tissue

2 and 3 only

AP stress studies of the ankle may be performed 1. to demonstrate fractures of the distal tibia and fibula 2. following inversion or eversion injuries 3. to demonstrate a ligament tear

2 and 3 only

Below-diaphragm ribs are better demonstrated when 1. The patient is in the AP erect position 2. respiration is suspended at the end of full exhalation 3. the patient is in the recumbent position

2 and 3 only

Central ray angulation may be required for 1. magnification of anatomic structures 2. foreshortening or self-superimposition 3. superimposition of overlying structures

2 and 3 only

During atrial systole, blood flows into the 1. right ventricle via the mitral valve 2. left ventricle via the biscuspid valve 3. right ventricle via the tricuspid valve

2 and 3 only

During chest radiography, the act of inspiration 1. elevates the diaphragm 2. raises the ribs 3. depresses the abdominal viscera

2 and 3 only

Evaluation criteria for a lateral projection of the humerus include 1. epicondyles parallel to the IR 2. lesser tubercle in profile 3. suprimposed epicondyles

2 and 3 only

Important considerations for radiographic examinations of traumatic injuries to the upper extremity include 1. the joint closest to the injured site should be supported during movement of the limb 2. both joints must be included in long bone studies 3. two views, at 90 degrees to each other, are required

2 and 3 only

Myelography is a diagnostic examination used to demonstrate 1. internal disk lesions 2. posttraumatic swelling of the spinal cord 3. posterior disk herniation

2 and 3 only

Shoulder arthrography is performed to 1. evaluate humeral luxation 2. demonstrate complete or partial rotator cuff tear 3. evaluate the glenoid labrum

2 and 3 only

The CR is parallel it the intervertebral foramina in the following projection(s) 1. Lateral cervical spine 2. Lateral thoracic spine 3. Lateral lumbar spine

2 and 3 only

The act of expiration will cause the 1. diaphragm to move inferiorly 2. sternum and ribs to move inferiorly 3. diaphragm to move superiorly

2 and 3 only

The axiolateral, or horizontal beam, projection of the hip requires the IR to be placed 1. Parallel to the central ray (CR) 2. parallel to the long axis of the femoral neck 3. in contact with the lateral surface of the body

2 and 3 only

The four major arteries supplying the brain include the 1. brachiocephalic artery 2. common carotid arteries 3. vertebral arteries

2 and 3 only

The upper surface of the foot may be described as the 1. planter surface 2. anterior surface 3. dorsum

2 and 3 only

Ulnar flexion/deviation will best demonstrate which carpal(s)? 1. Medial carpals 2. lateral carpals 3. Scaphoid

2 and 3 only

Valid evaluation criteria for a lateral projection of the forearm requires that 1. the epicondyles be parallel to the IR 2. the radius and ulna be superimposed distally 3. the radial tuberosity should face anteriorly

2 and 3 only

Which of the following articulate(s) with the bases of the metatarsals? 1. The heads of the first row of phalanges 2. The cuboid 3. The cuneiforms

2 and 3 only

Which of the following bones participate(s) in the formation of the obturator foramen? 1. Ilium 2. Ischium 3. pubis

2 and 3 only

Which of the following is (are) appropriate technique(s) for imaging a patient with a possible traumatic spine injury? 1. Instruct the patient to turn slowly and stop if anything hurts 2. Maneuver the x-ray tube instead of moving the patient 3. Call for help and use the log-rolling method to turn the patient

2 and 3 only

Which of the following is (are) associated with a Colle's fracture? 1. Transverse fracture of the radial head 2. Chip fracture of the ulnar styloid 3. Posterior or backward displacement

2 and 3 only

Which of the following is (are) demonstrated in a lateral projection of the cervical spine? 1. Intervertebral foramina 2. Zygapophyseal joints 3. Intervertebral joints

2 and 3 only

Which of the following positions can be used to demonstrate the axillary ribs of the right thorax? 1. RAO 2. LAO 2. RPO

2 and 3 only

Which of the following projections require(s) that the humeral epicondyles by perpendicular to the IR? 1. AP humerus 2. Lateral forearm 3. Internal rotation shoulder

2 and 3 only

Which of the following statements regarding the scapular Y projection of the shoulder is (are) true? 1. The midsagittal plane should be about 60 degrees to the IR 2. The scapular borders should be superimposed on the humeral shaft 3. An oblique projection of the shoulder is obtained

2 and 3 only

Which of the following structures is (are) located in the right upper quadrant (RUQ)? 1. Spleen 2. Gallbaldder 3. Hepatic flexure

2 and 3 only

The AP projection of the coccyx requires that the CR be directed 1. 15 degrees cephalad 2. 2 inches superior to the pubic symphysis 3. to a level midway between the ASIS and pubic symphysis

2 only

To visualize or "open" the right sacroiliac joint, the patient is positioned

25 to 30 degrees LPO

The articular facets of L5-S1 are best demonstrated in a(n)

30 degree oblique

Which of the following positions will demonstrate the lumbosacral zygapophyseal articulation?

30-degree RPO

Which of the following fracture classifications describes a small bony fragment pulled from a bony process?

Avulsion fracture

At what level do the carotid arteries bifurcate?

C4

To demonstrate the mandibular body in the PA position, the

CR is directed perpendicular to the IR

Following the ingestion of a fatty meal, what hormone is secreted by the duodenal mucosa to stimulate contraction of the gallbaldder?

Cholecystokinin

Which of the following examinations most likely would be performed to diagnose Wilm's tumor?

IVU

A type of cancerous bone tumor occurring in children and young adults and arising from bone marrow is

Ewing sarcoma

Which of the following conditions is often the result of ureteral or stricture?

Hydronephrosis

Which of the following examinations involves the introduction of a radiopaque contrast medium through a uterine cannula?

Hysterosalpingogram

How should a chest examination to rule out air-fluid levels be obtained on a patient with traumatic injuries?

Include a lateral chest examination performed in dorsal decubitus position

In which position of the shoulder is the greater tubercle seen superimposed on the humeral head?

Internal rotation

Which position of the shoulder demonstrates the lesser tubercle in profile medially?

Internal rotation

Which of the following positions will most effectively move the gallbladder away from the vertebrae in an asthenic patient?

LAO

During an upper gastrointestinal (GI) examination, a stomach of average shape demonstrates a barium-filled fundus and double contrast of the pylorus and duodenal bulb. The position used is most likely

LPO

Which of the following positions is most likely to place the right kidney parallel to the IR?

LPO

The lumbar transverse process is represented by what part of the "Scotty dog" seen in a correctly positioned oblique lumbar spine view?

Nose

Which of the following conditions is limited specifically to the tibial tuberosity?

Osgood-Schlatter disease

A frontal view of the sternum is best accomplished in which of the following positions?

RAO

Which of the following positions will best demonstrate the right zygapophyseal articulations of the lumbar vertebrae?

RPO

With the patient's head in a PA position and the CR directed 20 degrees cephalad, which part of the mandible will be best visualized?

Rami

The sternal angle is at approximately the same level as the

T5

All the following statements regarding an exact PA projection of the skull are true except

The midsagittal plane (MSP) is parallel to the IR

The floor of the cranium includes all the following bones except

The occipital bone

All the following statements regarding respiratory structures are true except

The right lung has two fissures

To demonstrate the first two cervical vertebrae in the AP projection, the patient is positioned so that

a line between the maxillary occlusal plane and the mastoid tip is vertical

The condition that results from a persistent connection between the fetal aorta and pulmonary artery is

a patent ductus arteriosus

Which of the following women is likely to have the most homogenous glandular breast tissue?

a postpubertal adolescent

In the AP axial projection, or bilateral "frog-leg" position, which of the following is most likely to place the long axes of the femoral necks parallel with the plane of the IR?

abducted 40 degrees from the vertical

Movement of a part toward the midline of the body is termed

adduction

Which of the following techniques would provide a posterior (PA) projection of the gastroduodenal surface of a barium-filled high and transverse stomach?

angle the CR 35 to 45 degrees cephalad

The relationship between the ends of fractured long bones is referred to as

apposition

Which of the following sequences correctly describes the path of blood flow as it leaves the left ventricle?

arteries, arterioles, cappillaries, venules, veins

The inhalation of liquid or solid particles into the nose, throat, or lungs is referred to as

aspiration

The patient's chin should be elevated during chest radiography to

avoid superimposition on the apices

What projection of the os calsis is obtained with the leg extended, the planter surface of the foot vertical and perpendicular to the IR, and the CR directed 40 degrees cephalad?

axial plantodorsal projection

The junction of the sagittal and coronal sutures is the

bregma

Which of the anatomic structures listed below is seen most anteriorly in a lateral projection of the chest?

cardiac apex

With the patient in the PA position and the OML and CR perpendicular to the IR, the resulting radiograph will demonstrate the petrous pyramids

completely within the orbits

In which type of fracture are the splintered ends of bone forced through the skin?

compound

An injury to a structure located on the side opposite that of the primary injury is referred to as

contrecoup

With the patient seated at the end of the x-ray table, elbow flexed 80 degrees, and the CR directed 45 degrees laterally from the shoulder to the elbow joint, which of the following structures will be demonstrated best?

coronoid process

Which type of articulation is evaluated in arthrography?

diarthrodial

The term that refers to parts away from the source or beginning is

distal

What structure is located midway between the anterosuperior iliac spine (ASIS) and pubic symphysis?

dome of the acetabulum

Which of the following positions is obtained with the patient lying supine on the radiographic table with the CR directed horizontally to the iliac crest?

dorsal decubitus position

Standard radiographic protocols may be reduced to include two views, at right angles to each other, in which of the following situations?

emergency and trauma radiography

Flattening of the hemidiaphragms is characteristic of which of the following conditions?

emphysema

The secondary center of ossification in long bones is the

epiphysis

Which of the following positions is essential in radiography of the paranasal sinuses?

erect

With the PA, the MSP centered to the grid, the OML forming a 37-degree angle with the IR, and the CR perpendicular and exiting the acanthion, which of the following is best demonstrated?

facial bones

With which of the following does the trapezium articulate?

first metacarpal

Which of the following is a functional study used to demonstrate the degree of AP motion present in the cervical spine?

flexion and extension laterals

The uppermost portion of the iliac crest is at approximately the same level as the

fourth lumbar vertebra

Double-contrast examinations of the stomach or large bowel are performed to better visualize the

gastric or bowel mucosa

The most significant risk factor for breast cancer is

gender

The term used to describe the presence of blood in vomit is

hematemesis

Which of the following barium-filled anatomic structures is best demonstrated in the LPO position?

hepatic flexure

The AP Trendelenburg position is often used during an upper GI examination to demonstrate

hiatal hernia

What is the position of the stomach in a hypersthenic patient?

high and horizontal

All the following structures are associated with the posteriro femur except

intertrochanteric line

In the anterior oblique position of the cervical spine, the structures best seen are the

intervertebral foramina nearest the IR

Which of the following is a major cause of bowel obstruction in children?

intussusception

Which of the following structures is located at the level of the interspace between the second and third thoracic vertebrae?

jugular notch

The long, flat structures that project posteromedially from the pedicles are the

laminae

All elbow fat pads are best demonstrated in which position?

lateral

Which of the following positions is required to demonstrate small amounts of air in the peritoneal cavity?

lateral decubitus, affected side up

Which of the following positions will separate the radial head, neck, and tuberosity from superimposition on the ulna?

lateral oblique

Which of the following projections of the elbow will demonstrate the radial head free of ulnar superimposition?

lateral oblique

The proximal radius and ulna are seen free of superimposition in the following projection

lateral oblique elbow

All of the following statements regarding the use of iodinated contrast agents with patients taking metformin hydrochloride are true except

metformin should be withheld 48 hours before IV iodinated contrast studies

The plane that passes vertically through the body, dividing it into anterior and posterior halves, is termed the

midcoronal plane

The thoracic zygapophyseal joints are demonstrated with the

midsagittal plane 20 degrees to the IR

For the average patient, the CR for a lateral projection of a barium-filled stomach should enter

midway between the midcoronal line and the anterior abdominal surface

To evaluate the interphalangeal joints in the oblique and lateral positions, the fingers

must be supported parallel to the IR

An intrathecal injection is associated with which of the following examiantions?

myleogram

The most proximal protion of the pharynx is the

nasopharynx

Which of the following is an important consideration to avoid excessive metacarpophalangeal joint overlap in the oblique projection of the hand?

oblique the hand no more than 45 degrees

In the AP axial projection (Towne method) of the skull, with the CR directed 30 degrees caudad to the orbiomeatal line (OML) and passing midway between the external auditory meati, which of the following is best demonstrated?

occipital bone

The type of ileus characterized by cessation of peristalsis is termed

paralytic

Lateral deviation of the nasal septum may be best demonstrated in the

parietoacanthal (Water's method) projection

Which of the following positions will provide an AP projection of the L5-S1 interspace?

patient AP with 30 to 35 degree angle cephalad

The innominate bone is located in the

pelvis

in which of the following positons/projections will the talocalcaneal joint be visualized?

plantodorsal projection of the os calcis

Which of the following is a condition in which an occluded blood vessel stops blood flow to a portion of the lungs?

pulmonary embolism

The contraction and expansion of arterial walls in accordance with forceful contraction and relaxationof the heart are called

pulse

Which of the following is proximal to the carpal bones?

radial styloid process

Tracheotomy is an effective technique used to restore breathing when there is

respiratory pathway obstruction above the larynx

Which of the following radiologic procedures requires that a contrast medium be injected into the renal pelvis via a catheter placed within the ureter?

retrograde urography

All the following positions are likely to be employed for both single- and double- contrast examinations of the large bowel except

right and left lateral decubitus abdomen

The ileocecal valve normally is located in which of the following body regions?

right iliac

During a double-contrast BE, which of the following positions would afford the best double-contrast visualization of the lateral wall of the descending colon and the medial wall of the ascending colon?

right lateral decubitus

Aspirated foreign bodies in older children and adults are most likely to lodge in the

right main stem bronchus

Pacemaker electrodes can be introduced through a vein in the chest or upper extremity, from where they are advanced to the

right ventricle

The outermost wall of the digestive tract is the

serosa

All the following statements regarding large bowel radiography are true except

single-contrast studies help to demonstrate intraluminal lesions

The functions of which body system include mineral homeostasis, protection, and triglyceride storage?

skeletal

Which of the following sinus groups is demonstrated with the patient positioned as for a parietoacanthal projection (Water's method) with the CR directed through the patient's open mouth?

sphenoidal

In which of the following positions can the sesamoid bones of the foot be demonstrated to be free of superimposition with the metatarsals or phalanges?

tangential metatarsals/toes

Which of the following positions is used to demonstrate vertical patellar fractures and the patellofemoral articulation?

tangential patella

The projection/method often used to detect carpal canal defect is

tangential projection wrist, Gaynor-Hart method

All the following are palpable bony landmarks used in radiography of the pelvis except

the femoral neck

The tissue that occupies the central cavity of the adult long bone body/shaft is

yellow marrow