Immunology - All Sets
A Fab fragment consists of: two heavy chains. two light chains. one light chain and one-half of a heavy chain. one light chain and an entire heavy chain.
one light chain and one-half of a heavy chain.
Toll-like receptors bind to: cytokines. the Fc portion of IgG. acute-phase proteins. pathogen-associated molecular patterns.
pathogen-associated molecular patterns.
The VDRL test on cerebrospinal fluid for neurosyphilis: A. is very sensitive. B. uses a higher antigen volume than the serum test. C. does not require the use of a microscope. D. is very specific.
D. is very specific.
A speckled nuclear pattern in an antinuclear antibody test indicates: -antibody to DNA-histone complex. -anti-RNA antibody. -antibody to an extractable nuclear antigen. -anticentromere antibody.
antibody to an extractable nuclear antigen.
In the following equation, what is the ratio of bound radioactive (*) antigen to bound patient antigen (w:x)? 8Ag* + 4Ag + 6Ab ---> (w) Ag*Ab + (x) AgAb + (y) Ag* + (z) Ag 8:6 2:1 1:6 1:3
2:1
In the following equation, what is the ratio of free radioactive (*) antigen to free patient antigen (the ratio of y/z) after addition of the antibody and after all reactants have reached equilibrium? 10 Ag* + 5 Ag + 3 Ab ---> (w) Ag*Ab + (x) AgAb + (y) Ag* + (z) Ag -3:1 -5:1 -1:2 -2:1
2:1
A woman who has a history of ovarian cancer in her family goes to her physician for a "cancer test." What is the test that is most likely to be positive if the woman has ovarian cancer? -Carcinoembryonic antigen -Human chorionic gonadotropin -Alpha-fetoprotein -Cancer antigen 125
Cancer antigen 125
Which of the following best describes competitive binding assays? -A limited number of binding sites are present. -The concentration of patient antigen is directly proportional to the label detected. -All patient antigen present is allowed to bind. -Labeled and unlabeled analyte are present in equal amounts.
A limited number of binding sites are present.
Which of the following statements about severe combined immunodeficiency is true? A. It may be associated with a signal transduction defect. B. It occurs only in males. C. It is accompanied by hypergammaglobulinemia. D. Patients can be vaccinated with live virus.
A. It may be associated with a signal transduction defect.
An autosomal-recessive form of severe combined immunodeficiency can be caused by a deficiency in: A. JAK3. B. Bruton's tyrosine kinase. C. ataxia-telangiectasia kinase D. mevalonate kinase.
A. JAK3.
Which statement regarding laboratory diagnosis of Borrelia miyamotoi infection is true? A. Polymerase chain reaction may become a valuable diagnostic tool. B. Antibody tests are not subject to cross-reactivity with Lyme antibody tests. C. The organism is routinely cultured from blood. D. Well-established ELISA kits for B miyamotoi antibody that have been approved by the Food and Drug Administration are available.
A. Polymerase chain reaction may become a valuable diagnostic tool.
Serology is performed on a patient with a rash and fever. Results are: rubella IgM = positive; rubella IgG = positive; measles IgM = negative; measles IgG = positive; varicella-zoster IgM = negative; varicella-zoster IgG = negative. What is the interpretation of these results? A. Acute infection with rubella virus B. Acute infection with measles virus C. Not immune to measles or rubella viruses D Immune to varicella-zoster virus only
Acute infection with rubella virus
Which of the following is a clinical application for tumor markers? Monitoring All of the above Diagnosis Screening
All of the above
The precipitation of immune complexes in small blood vessels under the skin that occurs when antigen is injected in an animal with large amounts of circulating antibody describes which of the following? -Delayed hypersensitivity -Serum sickness -Anaphylaxis -Arthus reaction
Arthus reaction
A patient undergoes a skin graft from the back to cover a damaged area on the neck. This is an example of what type of transplant? -Allograft -Autograft -Xenograft -Heterograft
Autograft
What is the correct order of protein migration from the anode to the cathode, following serum protein electrophoresis? A. Gamma, beta, alpha 2, alpha 1, albumin B. Albumin, alpha 1, alpha 2, beta, and gamma C. Beta, gamma, alpha 2, and alpha 1, albumin D. Albumin, gamma, alpha 1, alpha 2, beta
B. Albumin, alpha 1, alpha 2, beta, and gamma
Which bacterium does not cause fever? A. Mycoplasma pneumoniae B. Helicobacter pylori C. Rickettsia rickettsii D. Streptococcus pyogenes
B. Helicobacter pylori
A patient whose malignant clone is positive for the CD markers CD15 and CD30 is most likely to have what clinical disease? A. Non-Hodgkin lymphoma B. Hodgkin lymphoma C. Acute lymphocytic leukemia D. Hairy-cell leukemia
B. Hodgkin lymphoma
A patient's total IgG is in the normal range, but he suffers from recurrent infections with encapsulated bacteria such as Streptococcus pneumoniae and Haemophilus influenza. T-cell functions are all normal. What is the most likely cause of the infections? A. Selective IgA deficiency B. IgG subclass deficiency C. Common variable immunodeficiency D. Tyrosine kinase deficiency
B. IgG subclass deficiency
The RPR and VDRL tests differ from each other in which of the following ways? A. Principle for detecting antigen-antibody complexes B. Method for reading or visualizing the reaction C. Specificity of antibody detected D. Specificity of antigen detected
B. Method for reading or visualizing the reaction
In which technique is the signal amplified instead of the target DNA? -Branched DNA amplification -Solution hybridization -Polymerase chain reaction -Transcription-mediated amplification
Branched DNA amplification
Which of the following is a cause of a biological false-positive in the nontreponemal assays for syphilis? A. Prozone B. Reagents too cold C. Autoimmune disease D. Sera dried on card
C. Autoimmune disease
What is the main reason testing for cold agglutinins is no longer recommended to diagnose infection with Mycoplasma pneumonia? A. Very few people develop anti-I antibodies. B. It is difficult to perform. C. False positives may be caused by certain viruses. D. It requires expensive instrumentation.
C. False positives may be caused by certain viruses.
Malignant plasma cells exhibiting CD38, CD56, and CD138 are found in: A. monoclonal gammopathy of undetermined significance. B. chronic myeloid leukemia. C. multiple myeloma. D. Waldenström macroglobulinemia.
C. multiple myeloma.
Which factors are found in all three pathways? -C5 through C9 -C1qrs, C3, and C5 -Factors B and D -C4, C2, and C3
C5 through C9
Which complement factor polymerizes to cause lysis of a foreign cell? -C9 -C5 -C6 -C8
C9
Which of the following is an important function of the complement system? -Stimulation of growth of T cells -Increased production of antibody -Decrease in vascular permeability -Clearance of antigen-antibody complexes
Clearance of antigen-antibody complexes
Which of the following cells that participate in cell-mediated immunity are antigen specific and directly cytotoxic for target cells? Macrophages Th1 cells Cytotoxic T cells Natural killer cells
Cytotoxic T cells
The cold agglutinins that develop in patients infected with Mycoplasma pneumoniae are: A. IgM that reacts with ASO antigens on M pneumoniae. B. IgG specific for M pneumoniae. C. IgG specific for M pneumoniae exotoxin. D. IgM that reacts with I antigen on red blood cells.
D. IgM that reacts with I antigen on red blood cells.
What is meant by semiconservative replication of DNA? -One copy is the same, and another copy is different. -DNA uses RNA to make new copies. -Only part of the molecule is reproduced at one time. -Each strand is the template for another strand.
Each strand is the template for another strand.
Which cytokine might be given therapeutically to a patient with severe anemia? -Erythropoietin -IL-4 -TGF-beta -Interferon-alpha
Erythropoietin
Serology assays are useful in the diagnosis of Aspergillus infections from bronchial lavage samples in immunocompromised patients True False
False
The Southern blot test is the specific confirmatory test for HIV infection. -True -False
False
To correctly read a complement-dependent cytotoxicity test, the technologist should record the -number of viable cells. -True -False
False
When HIV replicates, the DNA in the viral genome is transcribed into RNA. -True -False
False
Characteristics of heterophile antigens include which of the following? Found in unrelated plants or animals but cross-react with the same antibody One's own self-antigens Any antigens used for immunization All of the above
Found in unrelated plants or animals but cross-react with the same antibody
Which preformed mediator has a mode of action similar to that of histamine? -PGD2 -Heparin -LTB4 -ECF-A
Heparin
Extremely high analyte concentrations can cause false-negative results (hook effect) in which type of assay? -Heterogeneous competitive -Homogeneous noncompetitive -Homogeneous competitive -Heterogeneous noncompetitive
Heterogeneous noncompetitive
In which of the following conditions would you not see an increase in alpha-fetoprotein? -Hepatitis -Hypercholesteremia -Pregnancy -Hepatocellular carcinoma
Hypercholesteremia
Which class makes up 70% to 80% of total serum immunoglobulins? IgA IgG IgM IgE
IgG
Which immunoglobulin appears first in the primary response? IgG IgM IgA IgE
IgM
Which of the following must be matched between donor and recipient as closely as possible to avoid rejection of a tissue transplant? Haptens MHC molecules Transporters associated with antigen processing Beta-2 microglobulins
MHC molecules
The lectin pathway is initiated by the presence of which of the following? -Mannose -C1qrs -Antibody -C3
Mannose
Which of the following is characteristic of natural immunity? It involves memory. T lymphocytes play a major role. It involves specificity. Mechanisms are always present and fully functional.
Mechanisms are always present and fully functional.
Which white cell in the peripheral blood migrates into tissue to become a macrophage? Eosinophil Basophil Neutrophil Monocyte
Monocyte
A plasma cell differs from a B cell in which way? Plasma cells are only found in peripheral blood. Only plasma cells secrete circulating antibody. Plasma cells secrete cytokines. Plasma cells are an immature form in B-cell development.
Only plasma cells secrete circulating antibody.
A patient's serum sample is added to a solution containing particulate antigen, but no agglutination is observed. What should be done next? -Perform serial dilutions of the sample. -Report out as a negative test. -Read the reaction in dim light. -Add more particulate antigen.
Perform serial dilutions of the sample.
How should you pack specimens for transport? -Place them loosely in a transport cooler on top of dry ice. -Place them upright in a rack within a cardboard box. -Place them in a metal leak-proof box upright in a sealed internal container or bag. -Place them in a plastic zip-top bag and insert the bag into a padded mailing envelope.
Place them in a metal leak-proof box upright in a sealed internal container or bag.
The "CREST" variant of which disease is associated with the presence of an anticentromere antibody? -Mixed connective tissue disease -Progressive systemic sclerosis (scleroderma) -Rheumatoid arthritis -Systemic lupus erythematosus
Progressive systemic sclerosis (scleroderma)
What does the acronym PASS stand for? -Pull, aim, squeeze, sweep -Pass, activate, sweep, scram -Pull, alarm, squeeze, sweep -Pass, activate, scram, scream
Pull, aim, squeeze, sweep
Multiple cytokines are activated to cause similar biological effects. What is this process called? -Redundancy -Pleiotropy -Synergism -Antagonism
Redundancy
A 27-year-old female patient who is pregnant is undergoing serological testing as a precaution because of a recent food poisoning episode in which she ate undercooked pork at a picnic. The laboratory tests revealed positive IgG antibodies and negative IgM antibodies to toxoplasmosis. What do these test results indicate? She has an active infection, and there is risk of transmission to the fetus. She does not have an active infection, and there is no risk to the fetus. She has a chronic infection, and there is minimal risk to the fetus. She has an active infection, and there is no risk to the fetus.
She does not have an active infection, and there is no risk to the fetus.
A parasite accesses a target cell in a host, thus hiding its antigens from the host's immune system. This survival strategy is known as antigenic mimicry. immunologic subversion. antigenic concealment shedding
antigenic concealment
The cells that primarily function by secreting large amounts of cytokines are: plasma cells. B cells. T helper cells. cytotoxic T cells.
T helper cells.
A blowout pipette would be labeled: -ML. -TD. -TC. -SD
TC.
What is the best procedure for removing gloves when leaving the laboratory? -Take gloves off last and leave. -Take gloves off and wash hands. -Leave gloves on and remove them outside of the laboratory. -Leave gloves on, rinse gloves with water, and then remove them outside of the laboratory.
Take gloves off and wash hands.
For a probe to hybridize to the target, which condition must be met? -The target can only be RNA. -The target must have the same bases. -The target must be double-stranded. -The target must have complementary bases.
The target must have complementary bases.
Macrophages recognize target cells using which of the following? MHC class I molecules Toll-like receptors Antigen-specific receptors Killer cell inhibitory receptors
Toll-like receptors
A patient who has recently traveled to Africa presents to the physician with a possible parasitic infection. The physician orders serological testing. Which of the following conditions is best detected via serological testing? Ascariasis Lyme disease Malaria Toxoplasmosis
Toxoplasmosis
CD4 T cells play a central role in the immune response system by regulating the activities of B and T lymphocytes. -True -False
True
The percent (%) panel reactive antibody (%PRA) is the proportion of lymphocytes in the panel killed by the patient's serum and complement. -True -False
True
To determine a patient's HLA type using the complement-dependent cytotoxicity test, which of the following must be used? -Purified T cells -A single antiserum from a commercial source -Viable lymphocytes -Complement from patient serum
Viable lymphocytes
A laboratory technologist receives blood samples via the pneumatic tube system. One of the tubes breaks in the carrier. To break the chain of infection, what should the laboratory technologist do? -Wear gloves before handling the broken sample. -Open the bag in the tube station without gloves. -Pour the blood that spilled out into a new tube. -Send the sample back to the sending station as is.
Wear gloves before handling the broken sample.
A substance that is too small to stimulate antibody production by itself unless it is attached to a larger carrier molecule is called: an autoantigen. a cross-reacting antigen. a hapten. an alloantigen.
a hapten.
A blood sample is processed, and the resulting serum is pink. This indicates: -a normal serum sample. -definite evidence of bacterial contamination. -a hemolyzed serum sample, which may adversely affect testing. -a hemolyzed serum sample, but hemolysis is common and can be ignored.
a hemolyzed serum sample, which may adversely affect testing.
Homogeneous staining of the nucleus in an antinuclear antibody test indicates: -antibody to DNA-histone complexes. -antibody to extractable nuclear antigens. -anticentromere antibody. -anti-RNA antibody.
antibody to DNA-histone complexes.
How close a measured value is to the actual (true) value is called: -accuracy. -precision. -analytic specificity. -analytic sensitivity.
accuracy.
A macromolecule that is capable of eliciting an immune response in an immunocompetent host is called: an antigen. an antibody. a hapten. an acute-phase reactant.
an antigen.
In a polymerase chain reaction, the threshold cycle represents: -an indication of the original amount of target in the sample. -the minimum amount of target that can be amplified. -the maximum number of cycles that can be carried out before the amplicons saturate the solution. -the degree of complementarity between the primers and the target.
an indication of the original amount of target in the sample.
If crossed lines result in an Ouchterlony immunodiffusion reaction with antigens A and B, this indicates that antigens A and B: -share a common epitope, with B being a more complex antigen. -are entirely different. -share a common epitope, with A being a more complex antigen. -are identical.
are entirely different.
Antigen-independent differentiation of B cells occurs in the: bone marrow. spleen. lymph node. Peyer's patches.
bone marrow.
Innate immunity can be characterized as: specific. slow to respond. dependent upon neutrophils and macrophages. involving memory.
dependent upon neutrophils and macrophages.
The purpose of negative selection of B cells is to: eliminate B cells that don't express mu. prevent activation of B cells in the bone marrow. direct more B cells to become plasma cells. eliminate B cells that are specific for self-antigens.
eliminate B cells that are specific for self-antigens.
For diapedesis to occur: CD16 receptors must be bound. microbes must be phagocytized. endothelial cells must contract. NADPH must be activated.
endothelial cells must contract.
A fluorescent signal in flow cytometry is generated by: -light reflected off cells passing through a laser beam. -fluorochromes that absorb energy from a laser beam and then release the energy as longer-wavelength light. -cell metabolism. -light scattered by fluorochromes.
fluorochromes that absorb energy from a laser beam and then release the energy as longer-wavelength light.
If complement interferes with test results, the serum sample should be: -centrifuged at 3,000 g for 30 minutes. -heated to 56°C for 30 minutes. -treated with an anticoagulant. -frozen and thawed before testing.
heated to 56°C for 30 minutes.
A protein released from a virally infected cell that protects other cells from viral invasion best describes: -interferon-alpha. -IL-4. -IL-3. -TNF.
interferon-alpha.
Cytokines exhibit pleiotropy, which refers to: -one cytokine inhibiting the activity of another cytokine. -multiple cytokines affecting the same cell. -one cytokine affecting multiple cells. -cytokines acting together to affect a cell
one cytokine affecting multiple cells.
As measured in flow cytometry, cells that are the smallest and have the least granules would be identified as: -lymphocytes. -monocytes. -granulocytes. -erythrocytes.
lymphocytes
All of the following are considered part of natural immunity EXCEPT: eosinophils. lymphocytes. acute-phase reactants. neutrophils.
lymphocytes.
Anaphylactic reactions are mediated by: -mast cells. -macrophages. -natural killer cells. -lymphocytes.
mast cells.
Rubeola virus causes: A. mumps. B. shingles. C. measles. D. chickenpox.
measles.
The measurement of light scattered at an angle by the antigen-antibody complexes in a solution is called: -equivalency. -agglutination. -nephelometry. -turbidimetry.
nephelometry.
All of the following are involved in adaptive immunity EXCEPT: memory. lymphocytes. specificity. neutrophils.
neutrophils.
The defense mechanism carried out by natural killer cells involves: recognition of a specific antigen. MHC class II-mediated killing. perforin- and granzyme-mediated killing. phagocytosis.
perforin- and granzyme-mediated killing.
Proteins that form channels in target cell membranes are called: perforins. granzymes. opsonins. pentraxins.
perforins.
The individual nucleotides along a single strand of DNA are held together by: -disulfide bonds. -hydrogen bonds. -peptide bonds. -phosphodiester bonds.
phosphodiester bonds.
Which of the following genes is responsible for the coding of reverse transcriptase? -env -pol -gag -tat
pol
Systemic lupus erythematosus is characterized by: -absence of immune complexes. -HLA-DR antigens expressed on thyroid epithelial cells. -increase in cells lining the synovial membrane. -presence of dsDNA antibodies.
presence of dsDNA antibodies.
Each class II MHC molecule has specificity for: any endogenous peptide. related peptides that share a similar peptide sequence. one very specific peptide sequence. native, conformational epitopes.
related peptides that share a similar peptide sequence.
In most flow cytometers, labeled cells: -scatter the light and emit fluorescence. -absorb both fluorescence and light. -scatter the light and absorb fluorescence. -absorb fluorescence and emit electronic impulses.
scatter the light and emit fluorescence.
A radial immunodiffusion test is run for 72 hours. The concentration of the antigen is then calculated using the: -log of the diameter of the precipitation ring. -radius of the precipitation ring. -square of the diameter of the precipitation ring. -diameter of the precipitation ring.
square of the diameter of the precipitation ring.
The main target of IL-3 is: -macrophages. -stem cells. -antigen-activated B cells. -antigen-activated T cells.
stem cells.
The theory that lymphocytes are preprogrammed to respond to a particular type of antigen best describes: the clonal selection theory. Ehrlich's side-chain theory. the spontaneous generation theory. Edelman's antibody-formation theory.
the clonal selection theory.
Serology is the study of: -white blood cells -red blood cells. -the liquid components of the blood, especially antibodies. -platelets.
the liquid components of the blood, especially antibodies.
A newborn infant tests positive for anti-HBc IgG. This result is evidence that: A.the infant is infected with hepatitis B. B. the mother was infected with hepatitis B. C.both mother and infant are infected with hepatitis B. D. both mother and infant are immune to hepatitis B.
the mother was infected with hepatitis B.
The primary response is characterized by: the recognition of antigens by naïve B cells. the recognition of antigens by memory B cells. the production of large amounts of IgG. a very short lag period. a long duration of high titer.
the recognition of antigens by naïve B cells.
A hypersensitivity reaction characterized by the presence of IgG that reacts with soluble antigen best describes: -type III hypersensitivity. -type II hypersensitivity. -asthma. -contact dermatitis.
type III hypersensitivity.
A tumor-specific antigen is: -unique to the tumor of an individual patient. -a general marker for all known human tumors. -a specific marker for leukemias. -nonspecific to all patient populations.
unique to the tumor of an individual patient.
A patient has a hepatitis B profile performed and is positive for hepatitis B surface antibody only. This patient: A. was vaccinated against hepatitis B. B. had a previous hepatitis B infection. C. is a chronic carrier of hepatitis B. D. has acute hepatitis B.
was vaccinated against hepatitis B.