Instrument-Ch. 1- Weather

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4960-4 - On initial climb-out after takeoff and with the autopilot engaged, you encounter icing conditions. In this situation you can expect: A - Ice to accumulate on the underside of the wings due to the higher AOA B - The autopilot to hold the vertical speed, if the anti-icing boots are working C - The increased airflow under the wings to prevent the accumulation of ice

A - Ice to accumulate on the underside of the wings due to the higher AOA

4124 Unsaturated air flowing up slope will cool at the rate of approximately (dry adiabatic lapse rate) A- 3 degrees C per 1,000 ft B- 2 degrees C per 1,000 ft C- 2.5 degrees C per 1,000 ft

A- 3 degrees C per 1,000 ft

4114 What feature is associated with a temperature inversion? A- a stable layer of air B- an unstable layer of air C- air mass thunderstorms

A- a stable layer of air

4136 Which weather phenomenon is always associated with the passage of frontal system? A- a wind change B- an abrupt decrease in pressure C- clouds, either ahead or behind the front

A- a wind change

4755 While flying 3 degree glide slope, a headwind shears to a tailwind. Which conditions should the pilot expect on the glide slope? A- airspeed and pitch attitude decrease and there is a tendency to go below glide slope B- airspeed and pitch attitude increase and there is a tendency to go above glide slope C- airspeed and pitch attitude decrease and there is a tendency to remain on the glide slope

A- airspeed and pitch attitude decrease and there is a tendency to go below glide slope

4970 Preventing ice form causing a hazard for aircraft certificated for flight into known icing conditions is accomplished by 1. spraying alcohol or glycol solution on the aircraft before takeoff 2. a deicing system on the aircraft 3. an anti-icing system on the aircraft A- all 3 are true B- 2 and 3 are true C- 1 is true

A- all 3 are true

4164 In which situation is advection fog most likely to form? A- an air mass moving inland from the coast in B- a light breeze blowing colder air out to sea C- warm, moist air settling over a warmer surface under no-wind conditions

A- an air mass moving inland from the coast in

4968 When flying through stratiform clouds, the best way to alleviate icing is by A- changing altitude to one with above freezing temperatures or where temperatures are colder than -10 degrees C B- slowly climbing out of the icing layer C- always descending to find warm air below

A- changing altitude to one with above freezing temperatures or where temperatures are colder than -10 degrees C

4165 In which localities is advection fog most likely to occur? A- coastal areas B- mountainous slopes C- level inland areas

A- coastal areas

4116 The general characteristics of unstable air are A- good visibility, showery precipitation, and cumuliform type clouds B- good visibility, steady precipitation, and stratiform type clouds C- poor visibility, intermittent precipitation and cumuliform type clouds

A- good visibility, showery precipitation, and cumuliform type clouds

4971 Which is true with regards to icing A- heavy icing on the leading edge is not as bas as light icing on the upper surface B- smooth ice on the upper surface will cause minimal if any problems C- light icing is worse than heavy icing

A- heavy icing on the leading edge is not as bas as light icing on the upper surface

4125 A temperature inversion will normally form only A- in stable air B- in unstable air C- when a stratiform layer merged with a cumuliform mass

A- in stable air

4972 What is the most likely reason for buffeting or vibrations after extending the flaps during or exiting ice conditions? A- incipient tailplane stall B- aerodynamic stall due to increased angle of attack C- aerodynamic instability due to ice accumulation forward of the ailerons

A- incipient tailplane stall

4210 A pilot reporting turbulence that momentarily causes slight erratic changes in altitude and/or attitude should be report it as A- light turbulence B- moderate turbulence C- light chop

A- light turbulence

4144 Which weather phenomenon is always associated with a thunderstorm? A- lightning B- heavy rain showers C- supercooled raindrops

A- lightning

4156 Under which condition does advection fog usually form? A- moist air moving over colder ground or water B- warm, moist air settling over a cool surface under no-wind conditions C- a land breeze blowing a cold air mass over a warm water current

A- moist air moving over colder ground or water

4112 The most frequent type of ground or surface based temperature inversion is that produced by A- radiation on a clear, relatively still night B- warm air being lifted rapidly aloft in the vicinity of the mountainous terrain C- the movement of colder air under warm air, or the movement of warm air over cold air

A- radiation on a clear, relatively still night

4127 Frontal waves normally form on A- slow moving cold fronts or stationary fronts B- slow moving warm fronts and strong occluded fronts C- rapidly moving cold fronts or warm fronts

A- slow moving cold fronts or stationary fronts

4200 Which weather conditions should be expected beneath a low-level temperature inversion layer when the relative humidity is high? A- smooth air and poor visibility due to fog, haze or low clouds B- light wind shear and pour visibility due to haze and light rain C- turbulent air and poor visibility due to fog, low stratus-type clouds and showery precipitation

A- smooth air and poor visibility due to fog, haze or low clouds

4257 (refer to figure 13) What effect will a microburst encounter have upon the aircraft in position 4? A- strong tailwind B- Strong updraft C- significant performance increase

A- strong tailwind

4142 If squalls are reported at your destination, what wind conditions should you anticipate? A- sudden, increases in wind speed of at least 16 knots rising to 22 knots or more, lasting for at least 1 minute B- peak gusts of at least 35 knots for a sustained period of 1 minute or longer C- rapid variation in wind direction of at least 20 degrees and changes in speed of at least 10 knots between peaks and lulls

A- sudden, increases in wind speed of at least 16 knots rising to 22 knots or more, lasting for at least 1 minute

4126 which weather phenomenon signals the beginning of the mature stage of a thunderstorm? A- the start of rain at the surface B- growth rate of cloud is maximum C- strong turbulence in the cloud

A- the start of rain at the surface

4102 - What temperature condition is indicated if wet snow is encountered at your flight altitude? A- the temperature is above freezing at your altitude B- the temperature is below freezing at your altitude C- you are flying from a warm air mass into a cold air mass

A- the temperature is above freezing at your altitude

4101 To which meteorological condition does the term "dew point" mean A- the temperature to which air must be cooled to become saturated B- the temperature at which condensation and evaporation are equal C- the temperature at which dew will always form

A- the temperature to which air must be cooled to become saturated

4964 If a pilot encounters freezing dribble, he can assume that A- there is warmer air above B- the freezing dribble will accumulate as rime ice C- since freezing dribble is supercooled it is not a concern for structural icing

A- there is warmer air above

4149 Fair weather cumulus clouds often indicate A- turbulence at and below cloud level B- poor visibility C- smooth flying conditions

A- turbulence at and below cloud level

4950 During an IFR cross-country flight you picked up rime icing which you estimate is 1/2" thick on the leading edge of the wings. You are now below the clouds at 2000 feet AGL and are approaching your destination airport under VFR. Visibility under the clouds is more than 10 miles, winds at the destination airport are 8 knots right down the runway, and the surface temperature is 3 degrees Celsius. You decide to: A- use a faster than normal approach and land with speed B- approach and land at your normal speed since the ice is not thick enough to have any noticeable effect C- fly your approach slower than normal to lessen the "wind chill" effect and break up the ice

A- use a faster than normal approach and land with speed

4167 What situation is most conductive to the formation of radiation fog? A- warm, moist over low, flatland areas on clear, calm nights B- moist, tropical air moving over cold, offshore water C- the movement of cold air over much warmer water

A- warm, moist over low, flatland areas on clear, calm nights

4104 Clouds, fog, or dew will always form when A- water vapor condenses B- water vapor is present C- the temperature and dew point are equal

A- water vapor condenses

4140 What is a characteristic of low-level wind shear as it relates to frontal activity? A- with a warm front, then most critical period is before the front passes the airport B- with a cold front, the most critical period is just before the front passes the airport C- turbulence will always exist in wind-shear conditions

A- with a warm front, then most critical period is before the front passes the airport

4096 The primary cause of all changes in Earth's weather is A-variation of solar energy received by the Earth's regions B-changes in air pressure over the Earth's surface C- movement of the air masses

A-variation of solar energy received by the Earth's regions

4113 If the air temperature is at +8 degrees C at an elevation of 1,350 ft and a standard (average) temperature lapse rate exists, what will be the approximate freezing level? A- 3,350 ft MSL B- 5,350 ft MSL C- 9,350 ft MSL

B- 5,350 ft MSL

4739 Thrust is managed to maintain IAS, and glide slope is being flown. What characteristics should be observed when a headwind shears to be a constant tailwind? A- PITCH ATTITUDE: increases REQUIRED THRUST: increased, then reduced VERTICAL SPEED: increases IAS: increases then decreases B- PITCH ATTITUDE: decreases REQUIRED THRUST: increases then reduced VERTICAL SPEED: increases IAS: increases then decreases C- PITCH ATTITUDE: increases REQUIRED THRUST: reduced then increased VERTICAL SPEED decrease IAS decreases then increases

B- PITCH ATTITUDE: decreases REQUIRED THRUST: increases then reduced VERTICAL SPEED: increases IAS: increases then decreases

4917 When a climb or descent through an inversion or wind-shear zone is being performed, the pilot should be alert for which of then following change in airplane performance? A- a fast rate of climb and a slow rate of descent B- a sudden change in airspeed C- a sudden surge pf thrust

B- a sudden change in airspeed

4103 The amount of water vapor which air can hold largely depends on A- relative humidity B- air temperature C- stability of air

B- air temperature

4121 Stability can be determined from which measurement of the atmosphere ? A- low-level winds B- ambient lapse rate C- atmospheric pressure

B- ambient lapse rate

4916 If severe turbulence is encountered during your IFR flight, the airplane should be slowed to the design maneuvering speed because the A- maneuvering of the airplane will be increases B- amount of excess load that can be imposed on the wing will be decreased C- airplane will start at a lower angle of attack, giving an increased margin of safety

B- amount of excess load that can be imposed on the wing will be decreased

4163 Fog is usually prevalent in industrial areas because A- atmospheric stabilization around cities B- an abundance of condensation nuclei from combustion products C- increased temperatures due to industrial heating

B- an abundance of condensation nuclei from combustion products

4974 How should deicing boots be used after exiting flight in icing conditions? A- boots do not need to be operated after leaving icing conditions B- continue to cycle the boots several times to remove residual ice left behind after normal boot operation C- only continue to cycle the boots if you are concerned ice may continue to accumulate

B- continue to cycle the boots several times to remove residual ice left behind after normal boot operation

4128 Which characteristics of an unstable cold air mass moving over a warm surface? A- cumuliform clouds, turbulence, and poor visibility B- cumuliform clouds, turbulence, and good visibility C- stratiform clouds, smooth air, and poor visibility

B- cumuliform clouds, turbulence, and good visibility

4129 Which clouds have the greatest turbulence? A- towering cumulus B- cumulonimbus C- altocumulus castellanus

B- cumulonimbus

4143 During the life cycle of a thunderstorm, which stage is characterized predominately by downdrafts? A- cumulus B- dissipating C- mature

B- dissipating

4106 Winds at 5,000 ft AGL on a particular fight are southwesterly while most of the surface winds are southerly. This difference in direction is primarily due to A- stronger pressure gradient at higher altitudes B- friction between the winds and the surface C- stronger Coriolis force at the surface

B- friction between the winds and the surface

4133 Which family of clouds is least likely to contribute to structural icing on an aircraft? A- low clouds B- high clouds C- clouds with extensive vertical development

B- high clouds

4160 If you fly into severe turbulence, which flight condition should you attempt to maintain? A- constant airspeed B- level flight attitude C- constant altitude and constant speed

B- level flight altitude

4720 When passing through an abrupt wind shear which involves a shift from a tailwind to a headwind, what power management would normally be required to maintain a constant indicated airspeed and ILS glide slope? A- higher than normal power initially, followed by a further increase as the wind shear is encountered, then a decrease B- lower than normal power initially, followed by a further decrease as the wind shear is encountered, then an increase C- higher than normal power initially, followed by a decrease as the shear is encountered, then an increase

B- lower than normal power initially, followed by a further decrease as the wind shear is encountered, then an increase

4965 When flying though supercooled water droplets, the first sign of structural ice accumulation would be A- the leading edge of the wings B- on the probes and antennas c- the windshield

B- on the probes and antennas

4961 If icing is suspected on an airplane equipped with deicing equipment, the pilot should A- first confirm ice with the ice light prior to deploying the pneumatic boots B- operate the pneumatic deicing system several times to clear up the ice C- operate the pneumatic deicing system once to allow time for the ice removal

B- operate the pneumatic deicing system several times to clear up the ice

4258 (refer to figure 13) How will the aircraft in position 4 be affected by a microburst encounter? A- performance increasing with a tailwind and updraft B- performance decreasing with a tailwind and downdraft C- performance decreasing with a headwind and downdraft

B- performance decreasing with a tailwind and downdraft

4960-3 A generally recommended practice for autopilot usage during cruise flight in icing contains is A- having the autopilot continuously engaged while monitoring the system for abnormal trim, trim rate, or attitude B- periodically disengaging the autopilot and hand flying the airplane C- periodically disengaging and immediately reengaging the altitude hold function

B- periodically disengaging the autopilot and hand flying the airplane

4147 What is an indication that downdrafts have developed and the thunderstorm cell has entered the mature stage? A- the anvil top has completed its development B- precipitation begins to fall from the cloud base C- a gust front forms

B- precipitation begins to fall from the cloud base

4131 The suffix "nimbus" used in naming clouds means a A- cloud with extensive vertical development B- rain cloud C- dark massive, towering cloud

B- rain cloud

4960-1 What should pilots do if icing is detected while also experiencing a rolling condition? A- lower the flaps to decrease airspeed B- set the power and angle of attack for a controlled descent C- Retract the flaps and increase power

B- set the power and angle of attack for a controlled descent

4145 Which thunderstorms generally produce the most severe conditions, such as heavy hail and destructive winds? A- warm front B- squall line C- air masses

B- squall line

4117 Which is characteristic of stable air? A- fair weather cumulus clouds B- stratiform clouds C- unlimited visibility

B- stratiform clouds

4105 What causes surface winds to flow across the isobars at an angle rather than parallel to the isobars? A- Coriolis force B- surface friction C- the greater density of the air at the surface

B- surface friction

4962 The first place ice is likely to form on an aircraft is the A- wings B- tailplane C- windshield

B- tailplane

4153 What is an operational consideration if you fly into rain which freezes on impact? A- you have flown into an area of thunderstorms B- temperatures are above freezing at some higher altitude C- you have flown through a cold front

B- temperatures are above freezing at some higher altitude

4967 Expect clear ice to form on the leading edge of airfoils when A- liquid water and snow combine with ice B- temperatures are close to freezing, there is a large volume of liquid water precipitation, and the aircraft is at high speeds C- the precipitation is small droplets and the aircraft is at low airspeeds

B- temperatures are close to freezing, there is a large volume of liquid water precipitation, and the aircraft is at high speeds

4122 What determines the structure or type of clouds which form as a result of air being forced to ascend? A- the method by which air is lifted B- the stability of the air before lifting occurs C- the amount of condensation nuclei present after lifting occurs

B- the stability of the air before lifting occurs

4971.1 What is the purpose of a weeping wing? A- the weeping wind can be used in place of spoilers to slow the aircraft B- the weeping win provides leading edge protection against icing C- the weeping wing provides additional camber for aerodynamic lifting

B- the weeping win provides leading edge protection against icing

4107 What relationship exists between the winds at 2,000 ft above the surface and the surface winds A- the winds at 2,000 ft and the surface winds flow in the same direction, but the surface winds are weaker due to friction B- the winds at 2,000 ft tend to parallel the isobars while the surface winds cross the isobars at an angle toward lower pressure and are weaker C- the surface winds tend to veer to the right of the 2,000 ft and are usually weaker

B- the winds at 2,000 ft tend to parallel the isobars while the surface winds cross the isobars at an angle toward lower pressure and are weaker

4159 What enhances the growth rate perception A- advective action B- upward currents C- cyclonic movement

B- upward currents

4966 What actions should the pilot take in the event of suspected tailplane icing during an approach? A- leave the autopilot on to assist flying the approach B- use partial or no flaps and no autopilot C- hand fly the approach until the IAF and then use the autopilot

B- use partial or no flaps and no autopilot

4973 The best technique for using deicing boots is to A- allow ice to build first to reduce likelihood of ice bridging B- use them immediately upon visual detection of any ice C- cycle several times after exiting to obtain a clean wing

B- use them immediately upon visual detection of any ice

4132 The presence of standing lenticular altocumulus clouds is a good indication of A- jet stream B- very strong turbulence C- heavy icing conditions

B- very strong turbulence

4168 The strength and location of the jet stream is normally A- stronger and father north in the winter B- weaker and farther north in the summer C- stringer and farther north in the summer

B- weaker and farther north in the summer

4255 (refer to figure 13) When penetrating a microburst, which aircraft will experience an increase in performance without a change in pitch or power? A- 3 B- 2 C- 1

C- 1

4254 (refer to figure 13) If involved with a microburst encounter, in which aircraft positions will the most severe downdrafts occur? A- 4 and 5 B- 2 and 3 C- 3 and 4

C- 3 and 4

4155 A jet wind is defined as wind of A- 30 knots or greater B- 40 knots or greater C- 50 knots or greater

C- 50 knots or greater

4252 Maximum downdrafts in a microburst encounter may be as strong as A- 8,000 ft/minute B- 7,000 ft/minute C- 6,000 ft/minute

C- 6,000 ft/minute

4095 How much colder than standard temperatures the forecast temperature at 9,000 ft, as indicated in the following except from the Winds and Temperature Aloft Forecast? FT 6000 9000 0737-04 1043-10 A- 3 degrees C B- 10 degrees C C- 7 degrees C

C- 7 degrees C

4253 An aircraft that encounters a headwind of 45 knots, within a microburst, may be expect a total shear across the microburst of A- 40 knots B- 80 knots C- 90 knots

C- 90 knots

4227 Which feature is associated with the tropopause? A- Absence of wind and turbulent conditions B- Absolute upper limit of cloud formation C- Abrupt change in temperature lapse rate

C- Abrupt change in temperature lapse rate

4161 Which precipitation type normally indicates freezing rain at higher altitudes? A- snow B- hail C- ice pellets

C- Ice pellets

4141 What is indicated by the term "embedded thunderstorms"? A- severe thunderstorms are embedded within a squall line B- thunderstorms are predicted to develop in a stable air mass C- Thunderstorms are obscured by massive cloud layers and cant be seen

C- Thunderstorms are obscured by massive cloud layers and cant be seen

4959 Tailplane icing can be detected by A- a slow and steady decrease in altitude B- flaps failing to operate C- a sudden change in elevator force or uncommanded nose-down pitch

C- a sudden change in elevator force or uncommanded nose-down pitch

4166 What type of fog depend upon a wind in order to exist? A- stream fog and down slope fog B- precipitation-induced fog and ground fog C- advection fog and up slope fog

C- advection fog and up slope fog

4137 Where do squall lines most often develop? A- in an occluded front B- in a cold air mass C- ahead of a cold front

C- ahead of a cold front

4727 While flying a 3 degree glide slope, a constant tailwind shears to a calm wind. Which conditions should the pilot expect? A- airspeed and pitch attitude decrease and there is a tendency to go below glide slope B- airspeed and pitch attitude increase and there is a tendency to go below glide slope C- airspeed and pitch attitude increase and there is a tendency to go above glide slope

C- airspeed and pitch attitude increase and there is a tendency to go above glide slope

4169 Which conditions are favorable for the formation of radiation fog? A- moist air moving over colder ground or water B- cloudy sky and a light wind moving saturated warm air over a cool surface C- clear sky, little or no wind, small temperature/dew point spread, and over a land surface

C- clear sky, little or no wind, small temperature/dew point spread, and over a land surface

4118 What type of clouds can be expected when an unstable air mass is forced to ascend a mountain slope? A- layered clouds with little vertical development B- stratified clouds with considerable association turbulence C- clouds with extensive vertical development

C- clouds with extensive vertical development

4108 Which force, in the Northern Hemisphere, acts at a right angle to the wind and deflects it to the right until parallel to the isobars? A- centrifugal B- pressure gradient C- coriolis

C- coriolis

4158 An air mass is a body of air that A- has similar cloud formations associated with it B- creates a wind shift as it moves across the Earth's surface C- covers an extensive area and has fairly uniform properties of temperature and moisture

C- covers an extensive area and has fairly uniform properties of temperature and moisture

4238 Hazardous wind shear is commonly encountered near the ground A- during periods when the wind velocity is stronger than 35 knots B- during periods when the wind velocity is stronger than 35 knots and near mountain valleys C- during periods of strong temperature inversion and near thunderstorms

C- during periods of strong temperature inversion and near thunderstorms

4162 Which weather condition can be expected when moist air flows from a relatively warm surface to a colder surface? A- increased visibility B- convective turbulence due to surface heating C- fog

C- fog

4152 In which meteorological environment is aircraft structural icing most likely to have the highest rate of accumulation ? A- cumulonimbus clouds B- high humidity and freezing temperature C- freezing rain

C- freezing rain

4151 Why is frost considered hazardous to flight operation? A- frost changes the basic aerodynamic shape of the airfoil B-nfrost decreases control effectiveness C- frost causes early airflow separation resulting in a loss of lift

C- frost causes early airflow separation resulting in a loss of lift

4094 A common type of ground or surface based temperature inversion is that which is produced by A- warm air being lifted rapidly aloft in the vicinity of the mountainous terrain B- the movement of colder air over warm air, or the movement of warm air under cold air C- ground radiation on clear, cool nights when the wind is right

C- ground radiation on clear, cool nights when the wind is right

4134 What are the four families of clouds? A- stratus, cumulus, nimbus, and cirrus B- clouds formed by updrafts, fronts, cooling layers of air, and precipitation into warm air C- high, middle, low, and those with extensive middle development

C- high, middle, low, and those with extensive middle development

4157 A high cloud is composed of mostly A- ozone B- condensation nuclei C- Ice crystals

C- ice crystals

4969 The most hazardous aspect of structural icing is that A- it can cause breakage of antennas B- it can cause blockage of the pilot tube and/or static ports affecting aircraft instruments C- it can result in aerodynamic degradation including loss of lift

C- it can result in aerodynamic degradation including loss of lift

4150 What is an important characteristic of wind shear? A- it is an atmospheric condition that is associated exclusively with zones of convergence B- the Coriolis phenomenon in both high and low level air masses is the principal generating force C- it is an atmospheric condition that may be associated with a low-level temperature inversion, a jet stream, or frontal zone

C- it is an atmospheric condition that may be associated with a low-level temperature inversion, a jet stream, or frontal zone

4139 What is an important characteristic of wind shear? A- its primarily associated with the lateral vortices generated by thunderstorms B- It usually exists only in the vicinity of thunderstorms, but may be found near a strong temperature inversion C- it may be associated with either a wind shift or a wind speed gradient at any level in the atmosphere

C- it may be associated with either a wind shift or a wind speed gradient at any level in the atmosphere

4958 When icing is detected, particularly while operating an aircraft without deicing equipment, the pilot should A- fly to an area with liquid precipitation B- fly to a lower altitude C- leave the area of precipitation or go to an altitude where the temperature is above freezing

C- leave the area of precipitation or go to an altitude where the temperature is above freezing

4135 Where can wind shear associated with a thunderstorm be found? A- in front of the thunderstorm cell (anvil side) and on the right side of the cell B- in the front of the thunderstorm cell and directly under the storm C- on all sides of the thunderstorm cell and directly under the storm

C- on all sides of the thunderstorm cell and directly under the storm

4119 What are the characteristics of stable air? A- good visibility, steady precipitation, and stratus type clouds B- poor visibility, intermittent precipitation, and cumulus type clouds C- poor visibility, steady precipitation, and stratus type clouds

C- poor visibility, steady precipitation, and stratus type clouds

4171 Test data indicate that ice, snow, or frost having a thickness and roughness similar to medium or coarse sandpaper on the leading edge and upper surface of an airfoil A- reduced lift by as much as 50% and increase drag by as much as 50% B- increase drag and reduce lift by as much as 25% C- reduce lift by as much as 30% and increase drag by 40%

C- reduce lift by as much as 30% and increase drag by 40%

4097 A characteristic of the stratosphere is: A- an overall decrease of temperature with an increase in altitude B- a relatively even base altitude of approximately 35,000 feet C- relatively small changes in temperature with an increase in altitude

C- relatively small changes in temperature with an increase in altitude

4960 If tailplane icing or a tailplane stall is detected, the pilot should A- lower the flaps to decrease airspeed B- decrease power to Vfe C- retract flaps and increase power

C- retract flaps and increase power

4251 What is the expected duration of an individual microburst? A- two minutes with maximum winds lasting approximately 1 minute B- one microburst may continue for as long as 2 to 4 hours C- seldom longer than 15 minutes from the time the burst strikes the ground until dissipation

C- seldom longer than 15 minutes from the time the burst strikes the ground until dissipation

4146 Which procedure is recommended if a pilot should unintentionally penetrate embedded thunderstorm activity? A- reverse aircraft heading or proceed toward an area of known VFR conditions B- reduce airspeed to maneuvering speed and maintain a constant altitude C- set power for recommended turbulence turbulence penetration airspeed and attempt to maintain a level flight attitude

C- set power for recommended turbulence turbulence penetration airspeed and attempt to maintain a level flight attitude

4256 (refer to figure 13) The aircraft in position 3 will experience which effect in a microburst encounter? A- decreasing headwind B- increasing tailwind C- significant performance increase

C- significant performance increase

4115 What type of clouds will be formed if very stable moist air is forced up slope? A- first stratified clouds and then vertical clouds B- vertical clouds with increasing height C- stratified clouds with little vertical development

C- stratified clouds with little vertical development

4098 Steady precipitation, in contrast to showers, preceding a front is an indication of A- stratiform clouds with moderate turbulence B- cumuliform clouds with little or no turbulence C- stratiform clouds with little or no turbulence

C- stratiform clouds with little or no turbulence

4148 What are the requirements for the formation of a thunderstorm? A- a cumulus cloud with sufficient moisture B- a cumulus cloud with sufficient moisture and an inverted lapse rate C- sufficient moisture, an unstable lapse rate, and a lifting action

C- sufficient moisture, an unstable lapse rate, and a lifting action

4100 Which conditions result in the formation of frost? A- the temperature of collecting surface is at or below freezing and small droplets of moisture are falling B- When dew forms and the temperature is below freezing C- temperature of the collecting surface is below the dew point of surrounding air and the dew point is colder than freezing

C- temperature of the collecting surface is below the dew point of surrounding air and the dew point is colder than freezing

4099 The presence of ice pellets at the surface is evidence that A- there are thunderstorms in the area B- a cold front has passed C- there is freezing rain at higher altitudes

C- there is freezing rain at higher altitudes

4130 Standing lenticular clouds, in mountainous areas indicate A- an inversion B-unstable air C- turbulence

C- turbulence

4120 What are some characteristics of unstable air? A- nimbostratus clouds and good surface visibility B- turbulence and poor surface visibility C- turbulence and good surface visibility

C- turbulence and good surface visibility

4960-2 What autopilot function should you turn off if icing is suspected? A- HDG mode B- AUTO Approach mode C- turn autopilot off

C- turn autopilot off

4123 Which of the following combinations of weather producing variables would likely result in cumuliform-clear- type icing in clouds? A- unstable, moist air, and no lifting mechanism B- stable, dry air, and orographic lifting C- unstable, moist air, and orographic lifting

C- unstable, moist air, and orographic lifting

4138 Where does wind shear occur? A- exclusively in thunderstorms B- wherever there is an abrupt decrease in pressure and/or temperature C- with either a wind shift or a wind speed gradient at any level in the atmosphere

C- with either a wind shift or a wind speed gradient at a ny level in the atmosphere

4154 The average height of the troposphere in the middle latitudes is A- 20,000 ft B- 25,000 ft C- 37,000 ft

C-37,000 ft


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