Intro to Criminal Justice 1-3

Because of a mental disease or defect, Joanna did not perceive the physical nature or consequences of her conduct, she was able to __________. a. claim a mistake of face b. use duress as a defense c. plead insanity d. avoid a competency hearing

c. plead insanity

Which statement about probation demographics is accurate? a. The majority of probationers are African American. b. Most probationers are males between the ages of 18 and 25. c. Women are less likely to be sentenced to probation than to prison. d. A disproportionate number of African Americans are in the probation population.

d. A disproportionate number of African Americans are in the probation population.

Why are self-reported surveys most useful in juvenile facilities or a prison? a. Law enforcement officials can insist on interviews b. Only criminals are present in these settings c. These are the only groups self-reported surveys should be focused on d. The group to be studied is already gathered in an institutional setting

d. the group to be studied is already gathered in an institutional setting

Which of the following is NOT a new development in DNA fingerprinting technology? a. phenotyping b. touch DNA c. familial searches d. trace evidence

d. trace evidence

Why are public order crimes sometimes referred to as victimless crimes? a. They are not truly crimes b. They are only recognized in some states c. They often harm only the offender d. There is never a victim

c. They often harm only the offender.

Which offense is most likely to be heard in a specialty court? a. disorderly conduct b. firearm owners' identification violation c. shoplifting d. trespassing on private property

b. firearm owners' identification violation

A victim of domestic abuse makes a plea to the judge to sentence her husband to probation so he can continue to support his family. The judge is amenable to probation but believes the offender needs strict supervision. What sentence would meet the judge's and victim's goals? a. day reporting center b. home confinement with home detention c. home confinement with home incarceration d. suspended sentence

b. home confinement with home detention

The exclusionary rule prohibits the use of _______. a. excessive force b. illegally seized evidence c. police interrogations d. proable cause

b. illegally seized evidence

The fact that incarcerating criminals guarantees that they will NOT be a danger to society, at least for the length of their prison terms, supports which philosophical reason for sentencing? a. rehabilitation b. incapacitation c. deterrence d. retribution

b. incapacitation

The Miranda warning most greatly affects one of the most important aspects of criminal investigation, the __________. a. seizure b. interrogation c. arrest d. search

b. interrogation

Which of the following is NOT relevant when a court is deciding whether a correctional institute has violated an inmate's Eighth Amendment rights? a. the concept of "cruel and unusual" punishment b. the reasonable expectation of privacy c. the "identifiable human needs" standard d. the "deliberate indifference" standard

b. the reasonable expectation of privacy

In Roper v. Simmons, the Supreme Court ruled that juveniles cannot be considered among __________. a. responsible people b. the worst offenders c. consenting adults d. American citizens

b. the worst offenders

How many states provide facilities where inmates and their infant children can live together? a. 50 b. 26 c. 9 d. 42

c. 9

Which agency is the Federal Bureau of Investigation (FBI) a part of? a. Department of Homeland Security b. Federal Emergency Management Agency (FEMA) c. Department of Justice d. U.S. Marshals Service

c. Department of Justice

Which of the following is a key difference between random patrols and directed patrols? a. Random patrols target a specific type of crime, whereas directed patrols do not. b. Directed patrols target specific areas, whereas random patrols do not. c. Directed patrols target a specific type of crime, whereas random patrols do not. d. Random patrols target specific areas, whereas directed patrols do not.

c. Directed patrols target a specific type of crime, whereas random patrols do not.

Which of the following statements is true regarding the need for discretion in formal and informal criminal justice processes? a. Discretion can only be used within the confines of the formal criminal justice process b. Discretion can only be used within the confines of the informal criminal justice process c. Discretion is necessary in both the informal and formal criminal justice processes d. Discretion is not a part of the formal or informal criminal justice process

c. Discretion is necessary in both the informal and formal criminal justice processes

How do discretionary release and mandatory release differ? a. Discretionary release is determined by a parole board based on the convict's behavior and other criteria, while mandatory release is determined by the judge when the offender is sentenced. b. Discretionary release allows a convict to be eligible for parole after serving a designated percentage of the sentence, while mandatory release requires a convict to serve a sentence in full. c. Discretionary release allows a convict to be eligible for parole based on a parole board's decision, while mandatory release requires a convict be released after serving a designated percentage of the sentence. d. Discretionary release gives time off for good behavior, while mandatory release requires a convict to serve a designated percentage of the sentence with no time off for good behavior.

c. Discretionary release allows a convict to be eligible for parole based on a parole board's decision, while mandatory release requires a convict be released after serving a designated percentage of the sentence.

Which offender is most likely to be eligible for probation? a. Felicity, a heroin addict, has been convicted of prostitution, her first offense. b. Heloise, on probation for shoplifting, has been convicted of identity theft. c. Imogene, who has a precious conviction for marijuana possession, has been convicted of possession of drug paraphernalia. d. Genevieve, a single mother of two infants, has been convicted of being the getaway driver in a bank robbery where a security guard was shot.

c. Imogene, who has a precious conviction for marijuana possession, has been convicted of possession of drug paraphernalia.

What is the main difference between determinate and indeterminate sentencing? a. Determinate sentencing is handed down by a jury, whereas indeterminate sentencing is handed down by a judge. b. Determinate sentencing sets minimum and maximum guidelines for the amount of time to be served, whereas indeterminate sentencing sets exact amounts of time to be served. c. Indeterminate sentencing sets minimum and maximum guidelines for the amount of time to be served, whereas determinate sentencing sets exact amounts of time to be served. d. Determinate sentencing is handed down by a judge, whereas indeterminate sentencing is handed down by a jury.

c. Indeterminate sentencing sets minimum and maximum guidelines for the amount of time to be served, whereas determinate sentencing sets exact amounts of time to be served.

Which of the following is true of the conflict model? a. It holds that conflicts will resolve themselves in a just society b. It assumes that conflict in society is uncommon, but when it does occur punishment is essential c. It holds that criminal law should be determined by those with influence in the community d. It holds that society's members will naturally agree on norms and values

c. It holds that criminal law should be determined by those with influence in the community.

Which of the following is NOT true of drug abuse? a. It causes bodily harm b. It causes psychological harm c. It involves only illicit drugs d. It harms third parties

c. It involves only illicit drugs

Which of the following is not true of justice? a. It is a difficult concept to define b. It means that all individuals are equal before the law c. It is not linked to the idea of fairness d. It means that all individuals are free from arbitrary arrest

c. It is not linked to the idea of fairness

Which of the following is true of sentencing disparity? a. It is always linked to sentencing discrimination. b. It is never linked to sentencing discrimination. c. It is sometimes linked to sentencing discrimination. d. It is the same phenomenon as sentencing discrimination.

c. It is sometimes linked to sentencing discrimination.

Which of the following is true of reasonable force? a. It only pertains to the use of deadly force. b. It only pertains to the use of nondeadly force. c. It pertains to the use of both nondeadly force and deadly force. d. It pertains to neither the use of nondeadly force nor deadly force.

c. It pertains to the use of both nondeadly force and deadly force.

Which of the following is true of the due process model? a. it places primary emphasis on the right of the individual to be protected from crime and violence b. It places primary emphasis on the right of society to be protected from the power of the government c. It places primary emphasis on the right of the individual to be protected from the power of the government d. . It places primary emphasis on the right of society to be protected from crime and violence

c. It places primary emphasis on the right of the individual to be protected from the power of the government.

Which of the following is true of arrests and arrest warrants? a. Most arrests are made with a valid warrant. b. Law enforcement officers must always have a warrant to make an arrest. c. Most arrests are made without a warrant. d. Most arrests are made with an invalid warrant.

c. Most arrests are made without a warrant.

Why did the Supreme Court establish the "deliberate indifference" standard in 1976? a. to reestablish the absence of constitutional rights among prisoners b. to repeal the previous "hands-off" doctrine from decades before c. to ensure a certain level of health care is afforded to prisoners d. to reemphasize the minimalist care toward prison inmates

c. to ensure a certain level of health care is afforded to prisoners

Which law enforcement agency is primarily responsible for operating county jails in the United States? a. the state police b. the U.S. Marshals Service c. the sheriff's department d. the local police department

c. the sheriff's department

All of the following have contributed to the growth of prison populations in the last several decades EXCEPT a. in expanded incarceration of women b. the drug war c. the tendency for prosecutors to seek downward departures d. inmates serving more time for each crime

c. the tendency for prosecutors to seek downward departures

Which characteristic distinguishes a parolee from a probationer? a. first-time offender b. convicted of a petty offense c. time-serving prisoner d. convicted

c. time-serving prisoner

Which of the following is NOT one of the three general goals of inmate discipline policies? a. to ensure a safe and orderly living environment b. to teach values and respectful behavior for future release c. to create a hardened barrier between inmate and officer d. to instill respect for authority of correctional officers

c. to create a hardened barrier between inmate and officer

Which two amendments to the U.S. Constitution provide that no person should be deprived of "life, liberty, or property without due process of law"? a. First and Fourth Amendments b. Third and Nineteenth Amendments c. Second and Eleventh Amendments d. Fifth and Fourteenth Amendments

d. Fifth and Fourteenth Amendments

What is violence in prison primarily used to establish? a. a sense of familiarity from the outside world b. a prisoner/corrections officer (CO) barrier c. a denial of any parole likelihood d. a hierarchy among prisoners

d. a hierarchy among prisoners

Which of the following is NOT one of the reasons for the increase of the inmate population over the past two decades? a. stricter drug law enforcement b. inmates serving more time c. increased probability of incarceration d. a reduction in federal prisons

d. a reduction in federal prisons

According to the routine activities theory, most criminal acts require all of the following EXCEPT ________. a. the absence of a capital guardian b. a suitable target c. a likely offender d. a sensible motive

d. a sensible motive

The interlocking network of law enforcement agencies, courts, and corrections institutions designed to enforce criminal laws and protect society from criminal behavior is _________. a. federalism b. the consensus model c. the conflict model d. the criminal justice system

d. the criminal justice system

Which of the following is NOT one of the four elements that must be present for an arrest to take place? a. the authority to arrest b. the intent to arrest c. seizure or detention d. the permission to arrest

d. the permission to arrest

Which of the following can best be defined as an explanation of a happening or circumstance that is based on observation, experimentation, and reasoning? a. hypothesis b. scientific method c. correlation d. theory

d. theory

All of the following are true of private prisons EXCEPT a. there are perverse incentives to incarcerate more people for longer when there is a profit motive b. having private businesses punish people is ethically questionable c. they cost significantly less to operate d. they are safer than state-run prisons

d. they are safer than state-run prisons

Which of the following does NOT affect sentencing length? a. aggravating and mitigating circumstances b. seriousness of the crime c. race and gender d. time to apprehension

d. time to apprehension

Why might a judge use preventive detention? a. to speed up otherwise lengthy trial processes b. to allow a defendant the chance to remain silent c. to reduce otherwise excessive bail requirements d. to act in the best interests of the community

d. to act in the best interests of the community

What is the primary explanation for violence in prison? a. competition for scarce resources b. in order for correctional officers to establish dominance over prisoners c. symbolic expression of frustration from the prison experience d. to establish a hierarchy among prisoners

d. to establish a hierarchy among prisoners

What are the dual purposes of probation? a. to punish the offender and to base the punishment on the severity of crime b. to punish the offender and to protect society c. to punish the offender and to rehabilitate the offender d. to rehabilitate the offender and to protect society

d. to rehabilitate the offender and to protect society

Which of the following is NOT one of the four major types of prisons? a. medium-security b. minimum-security c. maximum-security d. virtual-security

d. virtual-security

In which of the following scenarios is a Miranda warning required? a. when the police do not ask the suspect any questions that are testimonial in nature b. when a person volunteers information before the police have asked a question c. during a stop and frisk, when no attempt at an arrest has been made d. when the police have taken a suspect into custody and are questioning him or her

d. when the police have taken a suspect into custody and are questioning him or her

Justin and Brandon are discussing an acquaintance who was convicted of a drug charge. He was sentenced to probation with the condition he receive drug treatment. Which statement provides a justification for his community-based correction? a. "He was really lucky. So many other people have been arrested for the same thing and ended up in prison." b. "I hope he takes advantage of the drug treatment and gets off drugs for good." c. "He'll probably make lots of new connections in drug treatment and expand his trade." d. "The drug treatment program he's enrolled in costs less than the private one his parents wanted to send him to."

b. "I hope he takes advantage of the drug treatment and gets off drugs for good."

How many U.S. courts of appeals does the United States have? a. 1 b. 13 c. 94 d. 50

b. 13

What is the key difference between a mitigating circumstance and an aggravating circumstance? a. A mitigating circumstance restricts a judge's choices for sentencing, whereas an aggravating circumstance allows for more flexibility. b. A mitigating circumstance may result in a lighter sentence handed down, whereas an aggravating circumstance can lead to a harsher penalty. c. An aggravating circumstance restricts a judge's choices for sentencing, whereas a mitigating circumstance allows for more flexibility. d. An aggravating circumstance may result in a lighter sentence handed down, whereas a mitigating circumstance can lead to a harsher penalty.

b. A mitigating circumstance may result in a lighter sentence handed down, whereas an aggravating circumstance can lead to a harsher penalty.

What is the best way to describe the responsibilities of local law enforcement officers such as police officers and sheriff's deputies? a. Local officers spend most of their time arresting offenders and performing other duties that are directly related to getting criminals off the streets. b. Although the public focuses on their crime fighting and law enforcement duties, local officers provide numerous services in the community that are not directly related to enforcing criminal laws c. Local officers best serve the community by preventing crimes before they occur, not by arresting wrongdoers after the crimes have been committed. d. Because local law enforcement agencies lack the training and resources to cope with social problems such as mental illness, homelessness, and drug abuse, local officers do not involve themselves with such noncriminal activities

b. Although the public focuses on their crime fighting and law enforcement duties, local officers provide numerous services in the community that are not directly related to enforcing criminal laws

What does the "hands-off" doctrine do? a. Sets a standard of "no rules" and "lawlessness" inside of prison walls. b. Assumes that the care of inmates should be left to prison officials. c. Revokes any constitutional rights otherwise afforded to prisoners. d. Requires judges to dispense prison punishments and disciplines.

b. Assumes that the care of inmates should be left to prison officials.

How do the U.S. Immigrations and Customs Enforcement (ICE) and U.S. Customs and Border Protection (CBP) agencies differ? a. CBP partners with foreign countries to disrupt smuggling operations, while ICE enforces custom laws. b. CBP keeps unauthorized persons and goods from crossing our borders, while ICE detains and removes persons and goods that are in the United States illegally. c. CBP investigates persons who are in the United States illegally, while ICE deports immigrants who have entered the country illegally or overstayed their visas. d. CBP polices the flow of legal trade and travel across U.S. borders, while ICE enforces free trade regulations.

b. CBP keeps unauthorized persons and goods from crossing our borders, while ICE detains and removes persons and goods that are in the United States illegally.

Which of the following technologies has all but replaced fingerprint evidence in many types of criminal investigations? a. ballistics b. DNA fingerprinting c. trace evidence d. toxicology

b. DNA fingerprinting

When is it certain that sentencing discrimination has occurred? a. Mitigating or aggravating circumstances have a disproportionate effect on sentences. b. Disparities can be attributed to extralegal variables such as the defendant's gender or race. c. Disparities exist among sentences handed down to criminals for similar crimes. d. Criminals receive similar sentences for different crimes of unequal seriousness.

b. Disparities can be attributed to extralegal variables such as the defendant's gender or race.

Roughly, what percentage of inmates in the United States suffers from a chronic medical condition? a. Three-quarters b. Half c. One-third d. One-quarter

b. Half

Which of the following is NOT one of the four basic functions of the police? a. preserve peace b. ensure justice c. provide services d. enforce laws

b. ensure justice

Jails are chronically __________. a. rehabilitative b. overcrowded c. underpopulated d. violent

b. overcrowded

Which of the following is a key difference between a stop and a frisk? a. A stop briefly detains a suspect, while a frisk is a protective measure for law enforcement officers. b. A frisk briefly detains a suspect, while a stop is a protective measure for law enforcement officers. c. Without a warrant, law enforcement officers can only frisk suspicious people, they cannot stop them. d. Without a warrant, law enforcement officers can only stop suspicious people, they cannot frisk them.

a. A stop briefly detains a suspect, while a frisk is a protective measure for law enforcement officers.

Why have many police officers become proficient in emergency medical procedures? a. As first responders, the police provide any necessary assistance until other agencies can provide these services b. Most police departments require police officers to be just as proficient in providing emergency medical services as in enforcing crimes c. Many off-duty police officers moonlight as firefighters or private emergency medical services providers d. Police officers share the duty to provide emergency medical services with fire departments and other emergency medical services providers

a. As first responders, the police provide any necessary assistance until other agencies can provide these services

Which is a minimum requirement for a police officer in most police departments in the United States? a. Be 21 years old or older b. Possess at least a two-year college degree c. Born in the United States d. Have never been convicted of a crime

a. Be 21 years old or older

According to research, which statement is TRUE regarding female police officers? a. Female officers compose no more than 13 percent of police officers b. Female officers are as likely to use deadly force as male officers c. About 15 percent of female officers hold high-ranking position d. A large percentage of female officers are victims of domestic violence

a. Female officers compose no more than 13 percent of police officers

The U.S. Supreme Court ruled that states had a responsibility to provide a public defender to indigent individuals in __________. a. Gideon v. Wainwright b. United States v. Zolin c. Elonis v. United States d. Strickland v. Washington

a. Gideon v. Wainwright

Which prisoner is most likely to be given a discretionary release? a. Henry, who was in an accident that killed his best friend while driving drunk and has successfully completed a drug treatment program b. Frank, who has three offenses for burglary and theft and was convicted of beating a homeowner he surprised during a burglary c. Ivan, who was convicted of possessing images of child porn and who has refused to acknowledge his actions were a crime d. Gareth, who was convicted of sexual assault of his sixteen-year-old girlfriend when he was 18 and has threatened to retaliate against her older brother, who reported him

a. Henry, who was in an accident that killed his best friend while driving drunk and has successfully completed a drug treatment program

Which of the following is true of victims' rights in the United States? a. In 2013, several members of Congress introduced a Victims' Rights Amendment b. Today, there is a Victims' Rights Amendment to the U.S. Constitution c. Victims play many important roles after a crime against them has occurred d. Victims have meaningful say in the prosecution of the offender who committed the crime against them

a. In 2013, several members of Congress introduced a Victims' Rights Amendment

Which detail BEST helps explain why prisons are considered total institutions? a. Inmates develop their own economy, based not on money but on the trade of valued items such as food, contraband cell phones, illegal drugs, and sexual favors b. Some inmates are more comfortable inside prison than living on the outside, and therefore expend all their energies establishing themselves in the prison's power structure rather than striving for release c. The number of state and federal prisoners over the age of forty has increased dramatically since the turn of the century d. State corrections budgets are straining under the financial pressures caused by the health care needs of numerous mentally and physically ill inmates

a. Inmates develop their own economy, based not on money but on the trade of valued items such as food, contraband cell phones, illegal drugs, and sexual favors

Why do experts believe that the absence of the three most important aspects of prison governance would result in inmates that are much more difficult to control? a. Inmates will come to see their imprisonment as unpleasant and unfair. b. Inmates would rather have strict governance than sovereignty. c. Inmates know they are better off monitored than unmonitored. d. Inmates overwhelmingly prefer some forms of isolationism.

a. Inmates will come to see their imprisonment as unpleasant and unfair.

Why is evidence that is considered the "fruit of the poisoned tree" inadmissible? a. It is acquired by using illegally obtained evidence. b. It is evidence obtained through the "good faith" exception. c. It is evidence obtained from a separate investigation. d. It is not in any way relevant to the case.

a. It is acquired by using illegally obtained evidence.

Which of the following is true of circumstantial evidence? a. It is indirect evidence. b. It is inadmissible in court. c. It is factual. d. It is a form of direct evidence.

a. It is indirect evidence.

Which of the following is NOT true of the Bill of Rights? a. It only offers citizens protection against the federal government and its laws b. It serves as the basis for procedural safeguards of the accused in the United States c. It includes protections against double jeopardy and self-incrimination d. It comprises the first 10 amendments to the U.S. Constitution

a. It only offers citizens protection against the federal government and its laws.

Which of the following is true of the crime control model? a. It places primary emphasis on the right of society to be protected from crime and violence b. It places primary emphasis on the right of the individual to be protected from crime and violence c. It places primary emphasis on the right of the individual to be protected from the power of the government d. It places primary emphasis on the right of society to be protected from the power of the government

a. It places primary emphasis on the right of society to be protected from crime and violence.

Self-reported surveys provide us information on crimes in what way? a. They report criminal acts (detected or not) that were perpetrated by the survey taker b. They give us information on people's experiences with reporting crime c. They give us information on people's experiences with victim advocacy agencies d. They report victimizations that have occurred to the survey taker

a. They report criminal acts (detected or not) that were perpetrated by the survey taker

Why did the U.S. Supreme Court NOT completely eliminate police discretion in matters of the use of deadly force? a. It recognized that police officers must be able to make split-second decisions based on the circumstances facing the officer. b. It acknowledged that even the highest court in the land could not effectively put limits on police actions. c. It tried to, but other court decisions and precedents in the areas of deadly force prevented it from doing so. d. It had no intention to even slightly limit or regulate the use of deadly force in law enforcement practices.

a. It recognized that police officers must be able to make split-second decisions based on the circumstances facing the officer.

Why is DNA fingerprinting so useful and reliable in criminal investigations? a. No two people, save for identical twins, have the same genetic code. b. It can be used in conjunction with ballistics. c. Fingerprints are often left behind at crime scenes. d. It is a simple and inexpensive testing procedure.

a. No two people, save for identical twins, have the same genetic code.

Which of the following is true of prisoners and health care? a. Prisoners have a constitutional right to adequate health care. b. Prisoners' health care is a matter of privatized insurance. c. Prisoners' health care costs are a small percentage of a prison's total expenses. d. Prisoners have no explicit rights to health care.

a. Prisoners have a constitutional right to adequate health care.

What is the main difference between prisons and jails? a. Prisons incarcerate convicted felons, whereas jails house misdemeanor offenders and pretrial detainees. b. Prisons are run by the federal government, whereas jails are run by the states. c. Jails are run by the federal government, whereas prisons are run by the states. d. Jails incarcerate convicted felons, whereas prisons house and hold offenders of misdemeanors.

a. Prisons incarcerate convicted felons, whereas jails house misdemeanor offenders and pretrial detainees.

Which of the following statements about prosecutors is FALSE? a. Prosecutors represent the victims of crimes. b. Prosecutors need to balance the rights of the victim with those of the accused and public's best interests. c. Prosecutors often use their position as a stepping-stone to higher political office. d. The chief prosecutor is usually an elected position.

a. Prosecutors represent the victims of crimes.

Which is an example of the U.S. Supreme Court making criminal policy through judicial review? a. The Court declares a law unconstitutional. b. The Court confirms the decision of a lower court. c. The Court approves a bill that has been vetoed by the president. d. The Court determines and clarifies the meaning of a phrase or clause in a statute.

a. The Court declares a law unconstitutional.

Why is it almost always easier to win monetary damages in a civil trial than it is to win a conviction in a criminal trial? a. The burden of proof is much greater in criminal trial b. Criminals commit much harsher acts against society c. Constitutional law is not a factor in most criminal trials. d. Law enforcement officials are not involved in most civil trials

a. The burden of proof is much greater in criminal trial

Five justices, including the chief justice, write concurring opinions to the Supreme Court's opinion. Which of the following is NOT true about this situation? a. The majority of the justices agreed with the Court's opinion but disagreed with the rationale for it. b. The majority of the justices disagreed with the Court's opinion. c. The chief justice was not in the majority. d. The rationale for the Court's opinion was based on a duality opinion.

a. The majority of the justices agreed with the Court's opinion but disagreed with the rationale for it.

Which is an example of the patronage system? a. The mayor appoints a good friend, Alec, to the chief of police position in exchange for Alec's promise to support him in an upcoming election b. Emma, a police officer in the Mayfair Police Department, tells her friend Sacha about an opening in the department and agrees to give her a reference if she applies for a position c. Rosa applies for a low-salary position as a dispatcher based on the recruiter's promise that the experience will give her an advantage when the police department freeze is lifted d. Marvin agrees to cover for Bart being late to work in exchange for $50 and the promise to cover for him in the future

a. The mayor appoints a good friend, Alec, to the chief of police position in exchange for Alec's promise to support him in an upcoming election

According to the rational choice theory, when is a person likely to commit a crime? a. The perceived benefits are greater than the potential costs b. The perceived costs are greater than the potential benefits c. The perceived benefits and the potential costs are equal d. There are neither perceived benefits nor potential costs

a. The perceived benefits are greater than the potential costs

In the process of the scientific method, which of the following is true of theories and hypotheses? a. There must be a hypothesis before there can be an accepted theory b. A theory is just another name for a hypothesis c. There must be a theory before there can be a constructed hypothesis d. Hypotheses and theories are unrelated in the scientific method

a. There must be a hypothesis before there can be an accepted theory

What is the significance of the high number of children who have a parent in prison in this country to the trend of prison populations in the future? a. These children are much more likely to be incarcerated themselves someday. b. These children grow up with a negative view of the prison system. c. These children are much less likely to be incarcerated themselves someday. d. These children become role models against criminal behavior and activity.

a. These children are much more likely to be incarcerated themselves someday.

Which statement about offenders who are convicted of a violent crime is true? a. They are eligible for consideration for probation but are less likely to be granted it. b. They are ineligible for consideration for parole. c. They are ineligible for consideration for probation. d. They are eligible for consideration of nontraditional forms of probation.

a. They are eligible for consideration for probation but are less likely to be granted it.

Which of the following is true of private prisons? a. They operate as any business, viewing inmates as commodities and sources of profits. b. In recent years, the number of inmates they house has skyrocketed. c. Their existence is being threatened by new surpluses at state and federal levels. d. They are completely autonomous, with no state or federal government involvement.

a. They operate as any business, viewing inmates as commodities and sources of profits.

Which of the following is true of men and women who are released after serving long prison sentences? a. They suffer a higher rate of physical and mental health problems. b. They become employed in higher paying and more skilled jobs, on average. c. They are less likely to raise delinquent children who also end up incarcerated in the future. d. They are less likely to commit crimes than those who have never served time.

a. They suffer a higher rate of physical and mental health problems.

What is the main difference between white-collar crime and organized crime? a. While both white-collar crime and organized crime involve illegal activity to obtain a business advantage, only in organized crime are those illegal acts also committed by illegal organizations b. While both white-collar crime and organized crime involve illegal activity to obtain a business advantage, only in white-collar crime are those illegal acts also committed by illegal organizations c. While white-collar crime involves illegal activity to obtain a business advantage, there is no profit sought in most organized crime scenarios d. While organized crime involves illegal activity to obtain a business advantage, there is no such business advantage sought in most white-collar crime scenarios

a. While both white-collar crime and organized crime involve illegal activity to obtain a business advantage, only in organized crime are those illegal acts also committed by illegal organizations

Which statement about the differences between criminal courts and civil courts is FALSE? a. a prosecutor imitates criminal proceedings by filing charges against a defendant, while in civil court a prosecutor initiates proceeding by filing a lawsuit against a plaintiff b. a criminal court is concerned with protecting society from harm, while a civil court is concerned with resolving disputes involving individuals or entities c. in criminal court, a defendant is found guilty of committing a crime, while in civil court a defendant is found liable of wrongdoing d. a defendant who loses in criminal court faces a possible punishment of being incarcerated, while a defendant who loses in civil court will usually, at worst, be required to pay monetary damages to compensate for the wrong that has been done

a. a prosecutor imitates criminal proceedings by filing charges against a defendant, while in civil court a prosecutor initiates proceeding by filing a lawsuit against a plaintiff

Which of the following does the Sixth Amendment grant? a. a right to a "speedy" trial b. protection against double jeopardy c. a right to reasonable bail d. protection against self-incrimination

a. a right to a "speedy" trial

When a suspect has evidence that he or she was elsewhere at the time of a crime, that suspect has a(n) __________. a. alibi b. attendant circumstance c. conspiracy d. motive

a. alibi

What is the master jury list made up of? a. all of the eligible jurors in a community b. the jurors favorable to the prosecution c. the jurors favorable to the defense d. all standby members for a grand jury

a. all of the eligible jurors in a community

When two variables tend to vary together, what is said to exist between them? a. correlation b. causation c. scientific method d. hypothesis

a. correlation

Which grouping shows the tiers of a typical state court system from lowest to highest tier? a. courts of limited jurisdiction, trial courts of general jurisdiction, intermediate appellate courts, state supreme court b. trial courts of general jurisdiction, intermediate appellate courts, superior courts, state supreme court c. trial courts of general jurisdiction, courts of limited jurisdiction, intermediate appellate courts, state supreme court d. trial courts of general jurisdiction, superior courts, intermediate appellate courts, state supreme court

a. courts of limited jurisdiction, trial courts of general jurisdiction, intermediate appellate courts, state supreme court

In a criminal trial, the main objective of the defense is to _________. a. create a reasonable doubt b. establish a hung jury c. factually prove innocence d. move for a mistrial

a. create a reasonable doubt

In the landmark case of Roper v. Simmons, the Supreme Court ruled that the execution of offenders under the age of 18 was __________. a. cruel and usual punishment b. allowed only in first degree murder cases c. allowed under the Eighth Amendment d. only allowed in federal capital cases

a. cruel and usual punishment

Disillusionment with the somewhat vague nature of sentencing often leads politicians to support which of the following? a. determinate sentencing b. indeterminate sentencing c. rehabilitation d. restorative justice

a. determinate sentencing

The strategy of preventing crime through the threat of punishment is known as: a. deterrence b. retribution c. rehabilitation d. incapacitation

a. deterrence

The moral principles that govern a person's perception of right and wrong make up that person's _______. a. ethics b. due process c. adjudication d. discretion

a. ethics

According to procedural due process, the law must be carried out by a method that is ________. a. fair and orderly b. substantive c. universally accepted d. arbitrary

a. fair and orderly

Which of the following concepts means that government powers are shared by the national government and the states? a. federalism b. due process c. justice d. discretion

a. federalism

When scientists study ancestral or evolutionary developments, they are engaging in a branch of biology that deals with traits that are passed from one generation to another through genes. This is the study of ________. a. genetics b. psychology c. sociology d. biology

a. genetics

According to Cohen and Felson, which of the following four items would most likely be stolen? a. gold watch b. kid's bicycle c. pair of sneakers d. skateboard

a. gold watch

A reduction in time served by prisoners based on good behavior, conformity to rules, and other positive behavior a. good time b. mitigation c. time served d. parole

a. good time

Which of the following describes a community based form of early release that places inmates in residential centers and allows them to reintegrate with society? a. halfway house b. work release c. parole d. probation

a. halfway house

A police officer can stop, or briefly detain, a person for questioning if the officer ____________. a. has reasonable suspicion that the person has engaged or is engaging in criminal activity b. is within "a reasonable distance" of the U.S. border with Mexico or Canada c. wants to frisk the person for illegal drugs that may be hidden in the person's clothing d. has probable cause to believe that the person has committed or is about to commit a crime

a. has reasonable suspicion that the person has engaged or is engaging in criminal activity

Targeted areas for directed patrols are often referred to as __________. a. hot spots b. crime maps c. dispatch units d. community areas

a. hot spots

All police departments see calls for service as their primary causes for action. This model is known as __________. a. incident-driven policing b. random patrolling c. computer-aided dispatch (CAD) d. directed patrolling

a. incident-driven policing

When a suspect's confession has been improperly coerced, it is _________. a. invalid b. self-incriminating c. warrantless d. admissible

a. invalid

Which of the following is true of critical thinking? a. it is required for an ethical response b. it requires reaching a conclusion as quickly as possible c. it is the quality of fairness that must exist within the criminal justice system d. it does not address the many ethical challenges inherent in the criminal justice system

a. it is required for an ethical response

Which of the following is NOT one of the common problems of jail inmates that make them notoriously challenging? a. litigiousness b. physical health problems c. mental illness d. substance abuse and dependency

a. litigiousness

An individual who was arrested for stealing $100,000 from her employer is most likely to have a bail hearing in a __________. a. local trial court b. federal court c. specialty court d. magistrate court

a. local trial court

Why are police departments saddled with an increasing number of cold cases? a. low clearance rates b. inferior DNA technologies c. the dependency on forensics d. new focus on domestic terrorism

a. low clearance rates

Which of the following is NOT one of the elements essential of any crime? a. motive b. concurrence c. mens rea d. actus reus

a. motive

In the 1970s, planners at the Bureau of Federal Prisons decided to upgrade the traditional jail design with the goal of improving conditions for both the staff and the inmates. The result was the __________. a. new-generation jail b. state penitentiary c. rehabilitative jail d. federal penitentiary

a. new-generation jail

In an alibi defense strategy, the defense attempts to prove that the defendant should be found not guilty because he or she was __________. a. not at or near the scene of the crime b. acting in self-defense c. insane at the time the crime took place d. under extreme duress

a. not at or near the scene of the crime

Sometimes, local values and federal law will conflict with one another. When this happens, states or localities can and have passed which of the following types of laws that seek to void federal legislation within their borders? a. nullification laws b. constitutional laws c. administrative laws d. case laws

a. nullification laws

All of the following are justifications for community corrections EXCEPT __________. a. only the most dangerous criminals need to be imprisoned b. reintegrating the offender into society reduces the risk of recidivism c. alternative modes of punishment are appropriate for many offenders of petty crimes d. it is more economical for nonviolent offenders to serve their sentences in the community

a. only the most dangerous criminals need to be imprisoned

According to Michael Gottfredson and Travis Hirschi, what can "low self-control" (a personality trait formed in childhood) usually be attributed to? a. poor parenting b. random environmental factors c. poor educational experiences d. genetics

a. poor-parenting

How do victim impact statements help judges and juries to make more informed sentencing decisions? a. providing them with an understanding of all the consequences of the crime b. persuading judges or jurors to make a decision on the defendant's guilt or innocence c. allowing more time to pass between the end of the trial and the sentencing phases d. explaining in detail the guidelines allowed in sentencing for a particular crime

a. providing them with an understanding of all the consequences of the crime

Which of the following is NOT a name for the public officer responsible for deciding to try a case against an individual suspected of wrongdoing? a. public defender b. state attorney c. public prosecutor d. district attorney

a. public defender

Which type of exception to the Miranda rule did the Supreme Court create in 1984? a. public safety b. discretionary c. international d. probable cause

a. public safety

What is probable cause? a. reasonable grounds to believe that an offense has been or is being committed b. proof beyond a reasonable doubt that a crime took place and the suspect committed it c. an officer's hunch based on training and experience d. the legal doctrine that tainted evidence obtained in good faith may be admissible in court

a. reasonable grounds to believe that an offense has been or is being committed

Which of the following is NOT one of the four sources that may provide probable cause? a. reasonable suspicion b. personal observation c. association d. information

a. reasonable suspicion

In which era was the professional model of policing introduced? a. reform era b. political era c. community era d. intelligence-led era

a. reform era

Evidence will not be admitted in court unless it is ________. a. relevant evidence b. direct evidence c. factual evidence d. circumstantial evidence

a. relevant evidence

Which of the following is the principle that the rules of a legal system apply equally to all persons, institutions, and entities—public or private—that make up a society? a. rule of law b. statutory law c. constitutional law d. civil law

a. rule of law

Why are warrants usually NOT needed in international airports and seaports, and near international boundaries? a. the border area exception to the probable cause requirement in these locations b. the insufficient police force presence in these locations c. the number of foreign criminals in these locations d. the absence of national law and policy in these locations

a. the border area exception to the probable cause requirement in these locations

Which concept holds that criminal law is shaped by the communal values of a society and is designed to set the boundaries for acceptable behavior within that society? a. the consensus model b. the informal criminal justice system c. the conflict model d. the due process model

a. the consensus model

Why have police departments across the country been forced to adopt Next Generation 911 systems? a. the growing number of 911 calls coming from mobile phones b. the decreasing number of community-based reports c. the decreasing number of patrol officers on the streets d. the growing number of random patrols in inner cities

a. the growing number of 911 calls coming from mobile phones

In creating the bifurcated process, the Supreme Court affirmed the importance of what in capital cases? a. the jury b. the Constitution c. the judge d. the law

a. the jury

Which excuse defenses is commonly offered by defendants in sexual assault and rape cases? a. the mistake of fact defense b. the duress defense c. the intoxication defense d. the mistake of law defense

a. the mistake of fact defense

Which of the following would most likely be used by an officer to legally seize potentially criminal property that he or she sees during the course of a routine traffic stop? a. the plain view doctrine b. a search warrant c. a signed affidavit d. the "good faith" exception

a. the plain view doctrine

Identify a TRUE statement about attorney-client privilege. a. the privilege requires defense attorneys to keep all communications with a client concerning past criminal activity confidential, unless the client agrees otherwise b. the privilege applies to information about a future crime that a client passes along to his defense attorney c. the privilege covers communications between prosecutors and witnesses AND between defense attorneys and defendants d. the privilege requires defense attorneys to inform a judge or prosecutor when a client confesses to a crime involving sexual abuse of a minor

a. the privilege requires defense attorneys to keep all communications with a client concerning past criminal activity confidential, unless the client agrees otherwise

Which statement about the roles and responsibilities of trial judges is FALSE? a. the trial judge has few, if any, duties to carry out before the beginning of the trial b. judges are expected to be completely objective, making decisions based only on the evidence and the rule of law c. during the trial, the judge's rile is comparable to that of a referee in a sporting match d. at times, the trial judge will be called to decide the guilt or innocence of the defendant

a. the trial judge has few, if any, duties to carry out before the beginning of the trial

According to sociologist William Westly, what is the "blue curtain"? a. the unspoken code that separates the police from the civilians they are meant to protect b. the invisible wall that separates the various job levels within the police department c. the psychological barrier that separates police officers from internal affairs departments d. the dangerous veil that, when "lifted," can mean mayhem and violence targeting police

a. the unspoken code that separates the police from the civilians they are meant to protect

Which was the first state to create a Sentencing Guidelines Commission with a mandate to construct and monitor the use of a determinate sentencing structure? a. Minnesota b. Texas c. California d. Massachusetts

a.Minnesota

Which of the following statements about a law enforcement officer's use of deadly force is FALSE? a. An officer's use of deadly force can be considered "reasonable" even if such force was not actually needed to protect the officer or others b. If a police officer mistakenly but reasonably decides to use deadly force in a situation that does not actually require such force, a court usually will rule that the force was unjustified c. To properly decide whether the use of deadly force by a law enforcement officer was reasonable, a court must take into account the entirety of the circumstances surrounding the use-of-force incident d. Police officers charged in criminal court with crimes relating to the improper use of deadly force are for the most part, cleared of wrongdoing by judges and juries

b. If a police officer mistakenly but reasonably decides to use deadly force in a situation that does not actually require such force, a court usually will rule that the force was unjustified

Why does the informal criminal justice system not always benefit from measured, rational decision making? a. law enforcement agencies have a duty to investigate every crime b. Individual judgment can be tainted by personal bias or erroneous or irrational thinking c. Discretion is an unrealistic expectation in law enforcement officials d. Rigid rules of law often need discretion in interpretation and procedure

b. Individual judgment can be tainted by personal bias or erroneous or irrational thinking

Women make up about 30 percent of a police department in a mid-sized, racially diverse southwestern city. Despite a higher-than-national average percentage of women on the force, the police department is actively recruiting women to join the department. What is the most likely reason for its recruitment of women? a. It wants the makeup of the police department to reflect the demographics of the community b. It believes policewomen possess unique skills that make them more effective than men in some situations c. It believes there is no difference between the skills of policewomen and policemen d. It believes policewomen are as physically capable as policemen

b. It believes policewomen possess unique skills that make them more effective than men in some situations

Why is rehabilitation considered to be the most "humane" goal of punishment? a. It focuses on ridding society of the criminal element while the convict is in prison. b. It focuses on treating and possibly even curing criminals of their proclivities toward crime. c. In only a few instances does it include the use of the death penalty. d. It focuses on deterring both society and the criminal from repeating the criminal behavior.

b. It focuses on treating and possibly even curing criminals of their proclivities toward crime.

What effect does the presence of correctional officers have on violence in prisons? a. It has been proven to have no effect. b. It has a lessening effect. c. It has a worsening effect. d. It virtually removes any and all violence.

b. It has a lessening effect.

Which of the following is not true of the consensus model? a. It holds that criminal acts are acts that conflict with shared values and beliefs b. It holds that criminal law should be determined by those with influence in the community c. It assumes that a society's members will naturally agree on norms and values d. It holds that criminal acts are acts that are deemed harmful to society

b. It holds that criminal law should be determined by those with influence in the community.

Why might an aging population be a contributing factor to a declining violent crime rate? a. Older Americans are more often victims of violent crimes b. Older Americans are less likely to be violent criminals c. An aging population also means a shrinking population d. Older Americans tend to live away from inner cities

b. Older Americans are less likely to be violent criminals.

Which of the following best describes one's "duty to retreat"? a. One must, given the opportunity, help others in need b. One must, given the opportunity, run away to avoid conflict or assault c. One must, in all circumstances, run from criminal activity or harm d. One must, no matter the circumstances, never resort to use of deadly force

b. One must, given the opportunity, run away to avoid conflict or assault.

Why might plea bargaining appeal to a defendant? a. Plea bargaining removes the chance that a judge will disagree about the guilt of the defendant. b. Plea bargaining allows defendants a small measure of control over their fate. c. Plea bargaining is often the best a defense attorney can do for his or her client. d. Plea bargaining is often the quickest, most efficient way to dispose of caseloads.

b. Plea bargaining allows defendants a small measure of control over their fate.

Which of the following is NOT a reason that American courts will generally support a police officer's freedom to make discretionary on-the-job decisions? a. Police officers often find themselves in extreme situations that involve the risk of harm or death, and must be given the leeway to make split-second decisions to react to such situations b. Police work is "individualistic," and different police officers necessarily have different styles in carrying out their duties c. Experience and training places law enforcement agents in a better position than most other people (including judges) to make decisions about high stress situations d. Police officers are considered to be, for the most part, honest and ethical

b. Police work is "individualistic," and different police officers necessarily have different styles in carrying out their duties

What started the private prison "revolution"? a. Citizens didn't want to part with more of their tax dollars. b. States couldn't build prison spaces fast enough. c. The stock market wasn't growing quickly enough. d. Prisoners weren't getting proper care and training.

b. States couldn't build prison spaces fast enough.

What is the difference between subject-matter and geographic jurisdiction? a. Subject-matter jurisdiction refers to a lower level court, and geographic jurisdiction refers to a higher level court. b. Subject-matter jurisdiction is based on area of law, and geographic jurisdiction is based on physical territory. c. Subject-matter jurisdiction is restricted to specific types of cases, and geographic jurisdiction has unlimited authority to hear and decide all types of cases. d. Subject-matter jurisdiction is based on crimes of low severity, and geographic jurisdiction is based on felonies and more serious crimes.

b. Subject-matter jurisdiction is based on area of law, and geographic jurisdiction is based on physical territory.

Critics of the use of victim impact statements (VISs) claim that they interject prejudicial evidence into the sentencing process, which they say should NOT be governed by _________. a. law b. emotion c. reason d. opinion

b. emotion

What did the Supreme Court rule in its 1972 Furman v. Georgia case? a. The death penalty should only be administered by the states and not the federal government. b. The death penalty, as administered by the states, violated the Eighth Amendment. c. The death penalty was too heavily restricted and should be more widely administered. d. The death penalty had no place among the choices for punishment in the United States.

b. The death penalty, as administered by the states, violated the Eighth Amendment.

In which of the following ways did the U.S. Supreme Court, in 2004, modify the discretion afforded to law enforcement officers when it comes to the use of deadly force? a. The high court ruled that this force could only be used if there was a clear and imminent threat to the officer's life. b. The high court ruled that this force could be "reasonable" even if it was not needed to protect the officer or others in the area. c. The high court ruled that this force could not be used under any circumstances, regardless of a threat to the life of the officer or others. d. The high court ruled that this force could be "reasonable" in any circumstance involving any type of weapon used by the suspect.

b. The high court ruled that this force could be "reasonable" even if it was not needed to protect the officer or others in the area.

Which of the following is NOT true of the negative consequences of America's high rates of incarceration? a. There will be a ripple effect on children growing up with incarcerated fathers. b. The high incarceration numbers have made the privatization of prisons impossible. c. The incarcerated offenders themselves suffer from physical and mental health problems. d. The problems have a disproportionate impact on members of minority groups.

b. The high incarceration numbers have made the privatization of prisons impossible.

Which statement about private security is true? a. Most police departments prohibit off-duty police officers working as security. b. The main purpose of private security is to deter crime. c. Security guards typically have training similar to a law enforcement agent. d. In most states, security guards are not authorized to use force.

b. The main purpose of private security is to deter crime.

What characteristics do federal and appellate state judges have in common? a. The majority are appointed for life. b. The majority are male and white. c. The majority will face elections at some point in their careers. d. The majority are recognized as legitimate by members of minorities.

b. The majority are male and white.

What has been the impact of the Sentencing Reform Act (SRA), passed by Congress in 1984? a. The nation has seen dramatically lighter sentences. b. The nation has seen dramatically harsher sentences. c. The nation has seen more delays in sentencing. d. There has been no real impact.

b. The nation has seen dramatically harsher sentences.

Why might a judge sentence an offender to intensive supervision probation rather than a day reporting center? a. The offender needs a high level of supervision. b. The offender needs more supervision than traditional probation but can be appropriately monitored with a probation officer with a low caseload. c. The offender has reintegrated into the community but needs supervision to prevent recidivism. d. The offender requires more supervision than traditional probation but is not considered a threat to the community.

b. The offender needs more supervision than traditional probation but can be appropriately monitored with a probation officer with a low caseload.

Which of the following is NOT one of the four criteria that must be met for law enforcement officers to make a warrantless seizure of an item? a. The discovery of the item is inadvertent. b. The officer has explicit permission by the suspect to seize the item. c. The officer immediately recognizes the illegal nature of the item. d. The officer is legally in a position to notice the item in question.

b. The officer has explicit permission by the suspect to seize the item.

Which of the following is a reason why law enforcement officers tend to insulate themselves from civilians? a. Those on the other side of the law in large part make up the criminal population. b. The only other people who can understand the stresses of police work are fellow officers. c. Successful law enforcement necessitates separating from general society. d. Civilians prefer to have minimal interaction with law enforcement officers.

b. The only other people who can understand the stresses of police work are fellow officers.

Why are court reversals of wrongful convictions becoming more commonplace? a. Prisons have become too overcrowded b. There have been technological advances in DNA testing c. Probation has been shown to be more effective than incarceration d. More offenders are hiring private attorneys to appeal their cases

b. There have been technological advances in DNA testing

Ch. 12 Why are prison cultures unique among other institutions? a. They are either all male or all female. b. They are total institutions. c. They have a hierarchical structure. d. They have an organizational culture.

b. They are total institutions.

Why are prisons considered to be total institutions? a. They only release a certain percentage of their population. b. They encompass every aspect of an inmate's life. c. They are almost always gender-specific. d. They can be run by either state or federal governments.

b. They encompass every aspect of an inmate's life.

Which of the following is a benefit of halfway houses? a. They give ex-cons complete freedom, allowing them to quickly reenter society. b. They provide a less institutionalized living environment than a prison or jail. c. They are run almost identically to a prison or jail. d. They allow little to no freedom for prisoners to "revisit" their deviant ways.

b. They provide a less institutionalized living environment than a prison or jail.

Which federal law enforcement agency is primarily responsible for apprehending non-U.S. citizens who are living and working in the United States without permission from the federal government? a. U.S. Border Patrol b. U.S. Immigration and Customs Enforcement (ICE) c. Federal Bureau of Investigation (FBI) d. Department of Homeland Security (DHS)

b. U.S. Immigration and Customs Enforcement (ICE)

Which of the following did the Supreme Court find in Terry v. Ohio (1968)? a. When an object is in "plain view," it can be seized during a routine traffic stop. b. When "reasonable" suspicion exists, a stop and inquiry procedure is justified. c. When there exists imminent danger, "knock and talk" need not be practiced. d. When there exists "probable cause," no search warrant is necessary for entry.

b. When "reasonable" suspicion exists, a stop and inquiry procedure is justified.

A woman was convicted of armed robbery of a convenience store. Following her conviction, it was discovered the prosecution withheld from the defense evidence that supported the woman's alibi on the night of the robbery. What is this an example of? a. a duty of fairness violation b. a Brady Rule violation c. an attorney-client privilege violation d. a Strickland standard violation

b. a Brady Rule violation

What is another name for a U.S. district court? a. a federal appellate court b. a federal trial court c. a dual court d. a state trial court

b. a federal trial court

The United States Supreme Court has defined custody as ___________. a. existing in any situation in which a suspect is speaking to a law enforcement officer b. a formal arrest or any situation in which a reasonable person would not feel free to remove himself or herself from the control of the police c. applying only when a suspect is under the control of the police because that suspect has been arrested d. the use of force or mental intimidation by law enforcement

b. a formal arrest or any situation in which a reasonable person would not feel free to remove himself or herself from the control of the police

What does an aging prison population mean for state and federal prison budgets? a. a lesser strain, because aging inmates are more likely to be quickly released than younger ones b. a greater strain, because older inmates can be up to three times more expensive to incarcerate than younger ones c. a lesser strain, because older inmates can be up to three times less expensive to incarcerate than younger ones d. a lesser strain, because older inmates garner up to three times more private financial aid than younger ones

b. a greater strain, because older inmates can be up to three times more expensive to incarcerate than younger ones

What is a grand jury? a. a jury that is hung, resulting in a mistrial b. a jury that is called to decide whether probable cause exists c. a jury of members that is set aside in case needed later d. an extra-large jury that is made up of twice as many jurors

b. a jury that is called to decide whether probable cause exists

What is one of the unintended consequences of high rates of incarceration in America? a. lower rates of child abuse b. acute social and financial problems for children of the incarcerated c. higher rates of substance abuse treatment/recovery among the formerly incarcerated d. increased crime rates

b. acute social and financial problems for children of the incarcerated

Which of the following best defines the process of prisonization? a. release of prisoners by unusual methods b. adaptation to the prison culture c. segregation of men from women in prisons d. structural setting-up of a prison facility

b. adaptation to the prison culture

Along the criminal justice process continuum, which of the following steps comes between "prosecution and pretrial services" and "sentencing and sanctions"? a. corrections b. adjudication c. probation d. entry into the system

b. adjudication

Which of the following is best described as the act of apprehending a suspect for the purpose of detaining him or her on a criminal charge? a. a search and seizure b. an arrest c. profiling d. a stop and frisk

b. an arrest

Field training gives police recruits the opportunity to __________. a. complete an in-house training program in a controlled, militarized environment b. apply concepts learned in a police academy under the supervision of a training officer c. learn specialized skills to qualify for special assignments d. learn the requisite skills of a police officer on the job rather than in a classroom

b. apply concepts learned in a police academy under the supervision of a training officer

Which is an example of the police using their power of arrest to preserve the peace? a. arresting an intoxicated person walking home from a bar b. arresting a street protester who has attracted a loud and angry crowd c. arresting a man who has stabbed his wife d. arresting a woman who purchased alcohol for a minor

b. arresting a street protester who has attracted a loud and angry crowd

CH.6 If a police officer sees a person with a known criminal background in a place where criminal activity is openly taking place, the officer has reasonable suspicion to stop that person because of __________. a. information b. association c. personal observation d. evidence

b. association

An individual is entitled to representation by a defense attorney __________. a. during an interview, but not an interrogation b. at any time when the individual's rights may be denied c. as soon as the individual has been arraigned d. once the prosecutor decides to exercise authority over the individual

b. at any time when the individual's rights may be denied

When does the constitutional guarantee of a speedy trial NOT apply? a. when an especially heinous crime has been committed b. before a person has been accused of a crime c. when there is weak evidence to support the prosecution's case d. when the defendant is held on preventive detention

b. before a person has been accused of a crime

On average, which of the following sentencing options is a judge least likely to choose? a. fines b. capital punishment c. imprisonment d. probation

b. capital punishment

Generally, a not guilty plea in the face of strong evidence is part of a strategy to __________. a. avoid public pressures b. challenge a crucial part of evidence c. avoid a plea bargain d. confuse jurors

b. challenge a crucial part of evidence

Who is the chief law enforcement officer of most counties? a. district attorney b. county sherriff c. local mayor d. chief of police

b. county sheriff

What function of the court system is being referred to when an individual says, "I want justice for the victim. The offender must pay for his crimes"? a. bureaucratic b. crime control c. due process d. rehabilitation

b. crime control

Drugs and crime are related in three general ways. Which of the following is NOT one of the ways drugs and crime are related? a. the drug-using lifestyle b. drug-induced victimization c. drug-related offenses d. drug-defined offenses

b. drug-induced victimization

Under what circumstance must suspects be read their Miranda rights? a. when an officer intends to use deception to illicit a confession b. during custodial interrogation c. upon arrest d. anytime they are questioned

b. during custodial interrogation

A criminal justice professional's ability to rely on discretion when making on-the-job decisions means that he or she ___________. a. should focus primarily on the wishes of the public to guide his or her actions b. is able to use his or her personal judgement when the formal rules allow for one or more possible choices c. is free to disregard the law when the law is wrongful or misguided d. cannot allow personal ethics or morals to introduce an element of bias into the decision-making process

b. is able to use his or her personal judgement when the formal rules allow for one or more possible choices

In 2012 the U.S. Supreme Court overturned the Stolen Valor Act, which made it a crime to falsely claim that one had earned military honors or medals, arguing that a false statement that does no obvious harm is protected by the First Amendment. This is an example of a. moral entrepreneurship b. judicial review c. concurrent jurisdiction d. judicial activism

b. judicial review

Ch. 9 Which principle holds that the severity of the punishment must be in proportion to the severity of the crime and is the principle that retribution relies on? a. incapacitation b. just deserts c. rehabilitation d. deterrence

b. just deserts

Which of the following is an example of laws that primarily focus on protecting the values and norms of society—in other words, expressions of public morality? a. laws against murder b. laws against prostitution c. laws against theft d. laws against rape

b. laws against prostitution

Mala in se crimes that are inherently immoral. What term describes crimes that are not immoral, but are wrong because they are declared illegal? a. mala decree b. mala prohibita c. prohibita decree d. de facto

b. mala prohibita

The vast majority of all inmates leaving prison do so through one of the __________. a. furlough mechanisms b. parole mechanisms c. expiration release mechanisms d. pardon mechanisms

b. parole mechanisms

A crime is a wrong against society that is ________. a. Static and unchanging b. Proclaimed by law c. Punishable by the individual victim d. Universally accepted as wrong among all societies

b. proclaimed by law

For those who favor due process values in the American court system, the primary purpose of the courts is to __________. a. ensure that society's best interests are served by Beverly punishing those defendants who pose a danger to the community and reintegrating into the community those defendants who do not pose a future threat b. provide defendants with a fair chance to achieve justice in their efforts against the immense power of prosecutors, who are backed by the resources of the government c. protect society by ensuring that factually guilty defendants are convicted and punished for their wrongdoing d. disposing of cases in a timely and efficient manner so that society can rely on the smooth operation of the criminal justice system

b. provide defendants with a fair chance to achieve justice in their efforts against the immense power of prosecutors, who are backed by the resources of the government

All of the following are important for good prison governance EXCEPT a. services such as vocational training and remedial education programs b. providing a sense of contentment or purpose c. providing a sense of order d. amenities such as clean living conditions and acceptable food

b. providing a sense of contentment or purpose

The philosophy that society is best served when wrongdoers are provided the resources needs to eliminate criminality from their behavioral pattern a. restorative justice b. rehabilitation c. deterrence d. incapacitation

b. rehabilitation

Which of the following is NOT among the main issues focused on by those who heatedly debate the death penalty? a. arbitrariness b. reliability c. deterrence d. fallibility

b. reliability

Where criminal law is concerned with guilt, civil law is concerned with _______. a. motive b. responsibility c. innocence d. morality

b. responsibility

The philosophy that those who commit criminal acts should be punished for breaking society's rules to the extent required by just deserts a. rehabilitation b. retribution c. deterrence d. incapacitation

b. retribution

Sociologist Jack Katz suggests that the rewards of crime may not only be financial, they may be "__________." a. altruistic b. sensual c. cognitive d. physical

b. sensual

An offender is sentenced to 60 days in jail followed by two years of probation. What type of sentencing arrangement is this? a. intermittent incarceration b. split sentence c. shock incarceration d. suspended sentence

b. split sentence

__________________ involves a method of selecting judges that combines appointment and election. a. the "French" system b. the Missouri Plan c. the Great Compromise d. the Docket

b. the Missouri Plan

What is the largest obstacle to successful prisoner reentry? a. the lack of assistance facilities on the outside b. the fact that life behind bars is very different from life on the outside c. the lack of preparedness procedures within prisons d. the societal biases and prejudices regarding returning prisoners

b. the fact that life behind bars is very different from life on the outside

Which of the following is NOT a relevant factor in determining whether consent is voluntary? a. the age of the consenting subject b. the nature of the crime being investigated c. the length of the questioning d. any coercive behavior by the police

b. the nature of the crime being investigated

In which situation would a law enforcement officer probably need to obtain a warrant based on probable cause before engaging in a search of the suspect's property? a. the officer has pulled over the suspect for speeding and, while writing the ticket, notices a sawed-off shotgun propped up in the passenger seat b. the officer has arrested a suspect in his dorm for making battery threats and wants to search the contents of the cell phone in his pocket c. the officer wants to run a computer check of the license plate of a random car parked in an area of the city known for drug dealing d. the officer wants to search the contents of the suspect's garbage that has been left on the curb for collection

b. the officer has arrested a suspect in his dorm for making battery threats and wants to search the contents of the cell phone in his pocket

Which of the following is generally true of jails (as opposed to prisons)? a. they are operated by the federal and state governments b. they house those who are awaiting trial or have recently been arrested, in addition to convicts c. they generally hold inmates found guilty of serious crimes d. they offer a wide variety of rehabilitation and educational programs for long-term prisoners

b. they house those who are awaiting trial or have recently been arrested, in addition to convicts

What is the purpose of the preliminary hearing? a. to allow the judge a chance to determine the correct amount of bail to set b. to determine whether the evidence presented is sufficient for the case to go to trial c. to allow the defense the chance to hear the prosecution's case against the defendant d. to determine whether there is enough evidence to accuse the suspect of committing a crime

b. to determine whether the evidence presented is sufficient for the case to go to trial

The primary legal function of the law is to maintain social order by protecting citizens from criminal harm. The primary social function of the law is ______________. a. also to maintain social order by protecting citizens from criminal harm b. to express morality and publicly condemn c. to protect citizens from the power of the state d. to provide individual victims with a means of redress

b. to express morality and publicly condemn

Which of the following is not one of Megan Kurlychek's four specific goals of our criminal justice system? a. to support victims of crimes and return them to their pre-crime status b. to outline which values within society should not be upheld by the system c. to determine when an offense has been committed and punish appropriately d. to protect society from potential future crimes of the most dangerous

b. to outline which values within society should not be upheld by the system

According to the text, what is the primary benefit of having a racially and ethnically diverse police force? a. to improve the perceptions of law enforcement in racially and ethnically diverse communities b. to provide an accurate representation of the human resource talent in the united states c. to eliminate mistrust of police officers in general d. to offer minority candidates equal employment opportunities

b. to provide an accurate representation of the human resource talent in the united states

What is the primary purpose of day reporting centers? a. to provide a low-cost alternative to jail or prison b. to reduce jail and prison overcrowding c. to provide prisonlike control for offenders serving their sentence in the community d. to provide treatment services for eligible probationers and parolees

b. to reduce jail and prison overcrowding

Under which circumstances do law enforcement agents not have to announce their identity before entering a dwelling? a. when they believe a crime has occurred b. under exigent circumstances c. under no circumstances d. when they have a search warrant

b. under exigent circumstances

Female police applicants can overcome one of the major obstacles to a woman being hired by a police department by __________. a. forming a relationship with a higher-level officer to mentor them b. undergoing physical training prior to the entry-level physical ability tests c. asking the Equal Employment Opportunity Commission (EEOC) to intervene on their behalf d. specializing in a skill such as intelligence gathering that does not rely on physical strength

b. undergoing physical training prior to the entry-level physical ability tests

Which is an example of a punitive condition placed on a probationer? a. reporting to the probation officer b. wearing an electronic monitor c. receiving anger management counseling d. maintaining employment

b. wearing an electronic monitor

Which of the following is NOT an example in which a criminal defendant may be tried for a second time for the same act? a. when the second trial is in a different state b. when the defendant waives his or her right c. when the first trial resulted in a hung jury d. when the second trial is in civil court

b. when the defendant waives his or her right

Why are most arrests made without a warrant? a. Most police officers have not been properly trained in probable cause. b. Most arrests are made with a disregard for the rules and policies set in place. c. Most arrests are the result of quick police reaction to the commission of a crime. d. Most criminals need not be afforded their constitutional rights.

c. Most arrests are the result of quick police reaction to the commission of a crime.

Which of the following is NOT true of the repeat victimization theory? a. A relatively small number of victims are involved in a disproportionate number of crimes b. Drug and alcohol use increase the chances of revictimization c. Past victimization is not a strong predictor of future victimization d. Certain populations are more likely to be victims of crimes than other

c. Past victimization is not a strong predictor of future victimization

According to the text, why is there a high demand for secondary policing? a. Off-duty police have a stronger presence than private security guards. b. Public officers are more flexible than private security guards. c. Public officers are more skilled than private security guards. d. Off-duty police have the authority to use force to stop a felony, whereas private security guards do not.

c. Public officers are more skilled than private security guards.

What do sentencing guidelines do? a. Further add to the inequities of disparity of judicial sentencing. b. Minimize the influence of aggravating or mitigating circumstances. c. Require judges to dispense legislatively determined sentences. d. Allow judges full discretion and flexibility in their sentencing.

c. Require judges to dispense legislatively determined sentences.

Which of the following is a key difference between the Pennsylvania and New York penitentiary theories of the 1800s? a. The Pennsylvania system operated on the congregate system, whereas the New York system was based on the idea of separate confinement. b. The Pennsylvania system was based on the idea of education and rehabilitation, whereas the New York system believed in cruel, brutal measures. c. The Pennsylvania system was based on the idea of separate confinement, whereas the New York system operated on the congregate system. d. The Pennsylvania system believed in cruel, brutal measures, whereas the New York system was based on the idea of education and rehabilitation.

c. The Pennsylvania system was based on the idea of separate confinement, whereas the New York system operated on the congregate system.

Which of the following is true of prison riots? a. They are commonplace in state prisons, but not in federal prisons. b. They are commonplace in federal prisons, but not in state prisons. c. They are relatively rare in both state and federal prisons. d. They are commonplace in both state and federal prisons.

c. They are relatively rare in both state and federal prisons.

Which of the following is NOT true of victim impact statements? a. They can be given in writing. b. They have proven to be controversial. c. They can only be given in person. d. They are given during sentencing hearings.

c. They can only be given in person.

When can suspects waive their Fifth Amendment Miranda rights in speaking to a police officer and still have their remarks used against them? a. They are coerced to do so. b. They are guilty of the crime. c. They do so voluntarily. d. They are unrepresented by a lawyer.

c. They do so voluntarily.

Why do some critics of private prisons see them as inherently unjust? a. They believe businesspeople can only focus on profits and gain, not rehabilitation. b. They feel that the prisoners in private prisons are treated unfairly and cruelly. c. They feel that only the government has the authority to punish wrongdoers. d. They believe recidivism rates are higher among these private institutions.

c. They feel that only the government has the authority to punish wrongdoers.

Which of the following is true of most prosecutors? a. They almost never rely on "offense seriousness" in their decision-making. b. They base most decisions on their own belief in the guilt of the suspect. c. They have a screening process for deciding when to prosecute and when not to. d. They nolle all of their cases, regardless of severity of the crime involved.

c. They have a screening process for deciding when to prosecute and when not to.

Which of the following is NOT true of jails? a. They are often the first contact that citizens have with the corrections system. b. Their populations are overwhelmingly young adult males. c. They house, in total, many more inmates than do prisons in the United States. d. They are often used as holding places for those moving on to prison after trial.

c. They house, in total, many more inmates than do prisons in the United States.

What is the concern for jails in the future, given the emphasis on reducing prison populations? a. They, too, will strive to reduce their populations, making them virtually obsolete. b. They will cease to exist in the future due to the heavy increase in violent offenders. c. They will be forced to house many more low level offenders than they have in the past. d. They will become privatized by local, state, and federal businesses and firms.

c. They will be forced to house many more low level offenders than they have in the past.

The general law toward inmates is summed up in which amendment?a. First Amendment b. Fourth Amendment c. Thirteenth Amendment d. Fourteenth Amendment

c. Thirteenth Amendment

Which of the following federal agencies is responsible for preventing counterfeit currency? a. Federal Bureau of Investigation b. U.S. Marshals Service c. U.S. Secret Service d. Department of the Treasury

c. U.S. Secret Service

What is the main complaint of victims' right advocates? a. Victims should be allowed to be present at trials b. Victims should not have to be a witness against their attackers c. Victims should not be so powerless in the judicial process against their assailant d. Victims should not have so much say in the prosecution of criminals

c. Victims should not be so powerless in the judicial process against their assailant

What, exactly, are "private" prisons? a. prisons with lower levels of security and authority b. prisons that incarcerate only corporate criminals c. prisons that are run by businesses or firms to make a profit d. prisons that are run without the use of a head warden

c. prisons that are run by businesses or firms to make a profit

What is the difference between ballistics and toxicology? a. While both ballistics and toxicology focus on drugs within the body, only ballistics is truly a medical field. b. While both ballistics and toxicology are concerned with firearms, only toxicology focuses on ammunition. c. While ballistics is concerned with firearms, toxicology is concerned with drugs or toxins in the body. d. While ballistics is concerned with drugs or poison in the body, toxicology is concerned with firearms.

c. While ballistics is concerned with firearms, toxicology is concerned with drugs or toxins in the body.

What is the main difference between case law and statutory law? a. While both case law and statutory law are made by judges, only statutory law is truly enforceable b. While both case law and statutory law are created by legislatures, only case law is amenable c. While case law is judge-made law, statutory law is created by legislatures d. While case law is created by legislatures, statutory law is judge-made law

c. While case law is judge-made law, statutory law is created by legislatures

Which of the following is a key difference between nondeadly force and deadly force? a. While nondeadly force has limitations and restrictions, deadly force does not. b. While nondeadly force should only be used when serious harm would result without its use, deadly force does not carry with it such limiting guidelines. c. While deadly force should only be used when serious harm would result without its use, nondeadly force does not carry such restrictive guidelines. d. While deadly force has limitations and restrictions, nondeadly force does not.

c. While deadly force should only be used when serious harm would result without its use, nondeadly force does not carry such restrictive guidelines.

What is a writ of certiorari? a. a request by a party for the U.S. Supreme Court to review the decision of an appellate court b. a decision by the U.S. Supreme Court to hear a case that was decided by an appellate court c. a request by the U.S. Supreme Court to a lower court to send up the records of a case d. the decision, or opinion, of the U.S. Supreme Court after it has heard a case

c. a request by the U.S. Supreme Court to a lower court to send up the records of a case

Which of the following is NOT part of most stop and frisk procedures? a. a brief detaining of the suspicious person b. a pat down of the person's outer clothing c. a thorough search of the person's possessions d. a belief that a person is suspicious

c. a thorough search of the person's possessions

According to the American Bar Association's code of legal ethics, defense attorneys have an obligation to __________. a. pursue justice for victims b. present the truth to the court c. advocate for their client d. defend innocent clients only

c. advocate for their client

Which of the following is true of when plea bargaining usually takes place? a. after the pretrial hearing but before bail is set b. after the trial but before the sentencing c. after the arraignment but before the trial d. after bail is set but before the arraignment

c. after the arraignment but before the trial

Who is a victim? a. any person who has committed a new crime after having already been convicted of that crime b. any person who has given up his or her basic rights guaranteed by the U.S. constitution c. any person against whom a crime has been committed d. any person who has been processed into the criminal justice system

c. any person against whom a crime has been committed

What is "fruit of the poisoned tree"? a. any incriminating statements made while a suspect was intoxicated on drugs or alcohol b. any evidence that leads investigators to yet more evidence (such as discovery of a receipt that leads to surveillance footage) c. any physical or verbal evidence police are able to acquire by using illegally obtained evidence d. any spontaneous admission a suspect makes before Miranda warnings are read

c. any physical or verbal evidence police are able to acquire by using illegally obtained evidence

Which of the following policies or programs is NOT designed to help offenders with desistance? a. work release programs b. life skills classes c. background checks d. eliminating questions about prior arrests from employment applications

c. background checks

When one person physically attacks another, it is known as ________. When someone merely leads another to believe that he or she will be physically harmed, it is known as __________ a. robbery; murder b. assault; battery c. battery; assault d. murder; robbery

c. battery; assault

How does problem-oriented policing rectify a devotion of too many of a police department's resources to reacting to calls for service? a. by assigning patrol officers to specific areas of specific neighborhoods in efforts to respond to crimes more quickly b. by adding additional support-staff roles such as dispatchers to enhance reaction and response times c. by moving beyond simply responding to incidents and instead attempting to solve the root causes of crime d. by focusing greater efforts on broader reaching criminal investigations, forensics, and other detective-based work

c. by moving beyond simply responding to incidents and instead attempting to solve the root causes of crime

Which of the following is NOT an example of a strict liability law? a. drug-control statutes b. traffic laws c. child endangerment laws d. health and safety regulations

c. child endangerment laws

The steps that corrections administrators take to determine the security risk posed by each incoming inmate, and by extension the type of prison to which the inmate will be sent, is called the _______________. a. maximum-security process b. lockdown process c. classification process d. separation process

c. classification process

To improve trust within their communities, a number of police departments have turned to a system by which law enforcement officials form partnerships with local leaders to address difficult issues such as police use of force and arrest policies, which is known as __________. a. crime mapping b. directed patrol c. collaborative reform d. problem-oriented policing

c. collaborative reform

Which grouping shows the three levels of home monitoring from least restrictive to most restrictive? a. home detention > home incarceration > curfew b. home detention > curfew > home incarceration c. curfew > home detention > home incarceration d. curfew > home incarceration > home detention

c. curfew > home detention > home incarceration

To convinces a judge or jury that a defendant is guilty, a prosecutor must _______________________. a. demonstrate that the defendant has previously been found liable of wrongdoing in a civil trial b. prove that it is more likely that the defendant committed the crime than it is that the defendant did not commit the crime c. establish that the defendant's guilt is the only possible reasonable explanation for the criminal act in question d. show by clear and convincing evidence that the defendant committed the criminal act in question

c. establish that the defendant's guilt is the only possible reasonable explanation for the criminal act in question

Approaches or strategies that have been extensively researched and shown consistently to produce the desired outcomes are known as ________. a. reinvestment strategies b. discretions c. evidence-based practices d. discretionary practices

c. evidence-based practices

What is the name of the power-sharing system of government adopted by the United States in which individual states are permitted to enact laws that reflect the values of their inhabitants? a. direct democracy b. the crime control model c. federalism d. the dual court system

c. federalism

Determinate sentencing can also be referred to as __________. a. flexible sentencing b. judicial sentencing c. fixed sentencing d. indeterminate sentencing

c. fixed sentencing

Which court has NO restrictions on the subject matter of the cases it can hear? a. civil court b. special subject-matter court c. general jurisdiction court d. limited jurisdiction court

c. general jurisdiction court

In most states, judges impose the terms of probation based on __________. a. the recommendations of the jury b. criteria established by legislation c. individual discretion. d. criteria established by the corrections system

c. individual discretion

An approach that measures the risk of criminal behavior associated with certain individuals or locations so as to predict when and where such criminal behavior is most likely to occur in the future is known as ________. a. proactive policing b. community policing c. intelligence-led policing d. problem-oriented policing

c. intelligence-led policing

The duties of the Federal Bureau of Investigation (FBI) include primary responsibility for all of the following EXCEPT __________. a. providing homicide investigation to police departments with high violent crime rates b. searching for children who have been kidnapped by a noncustodial parent c. investigating the illegal sale, possession, and use of firearms d. identifying the victims of fires and airplane crashes

c. investigating the illegal sale, possession, and use of firearms

Double marginality is a situation in which a minority police officer __________. a. discriminates against members of his or her own race or ethnicity b. gives preferential treatment to members of his or her own race or ethnicity c. is viewed with suspicion by both other police officers and members of his or her own minority group d. is considered a traitor by members of his or her own race or ethnicity for enforcing the law against members of that race or ethnicity

c. is viewed with suspicion by both other police officers and members of his or her own minority group

Which description offers the best explanation of the exclusionary rule? a. it allows prosecutors to present, in court, evidence seized by an invalid warrant if the police officer who served the invalid warrant was unaware of any constitutional irregularities b. it is a tactic often successfully used by defense attorneys to convince judges that evidence improperly obtained by law enforcement officers should be kept out of court c. it requires judges to keep evidence out of trial proceedings if that evidence is the product of an unreasonable search or seizure by law enforcement d. it allows prosecutors to present "tainted" evidence in court if the police officers involved would have eventually discovered the evidence using proper procedures

c. it requires judges to keep evidence out of trial proceedings if that evidence is the product of an unreasonable search or seizure by law enforcement

Ethics in criminal justice is most closely related to which of the following concepts? a. corrections b. adjudication c. justice d. investigation

c. justice

Suppose a law enforcement officer takes deliberate steps to conceal a colleague's wrongdoing. In essence, that officer has made the decision that _________. a. duty is a more important value than accountability b. police corruption is more important than noble cause corruption c. loyalty is a more important value than honesty d. honesty is a more important value than ethics

c. loyalty is a more important value than honesty

About half of adult felony cases brought to prosecutors by police are dismissed through a __________. a. voir dire b. habeas corpus c. nolle prosequi d. nolo contendere

c. nolle prosequi

Judges at the state level are selected in all of the following ways EXCEPT __________. a. nomination by the governor and confirmation by the upper chamber of the state legislature b. a merit selection process c. nomination by the president and confirmation by the Senate d. partisan and nonpartisan elections

c. nomination by the president and confirmation by the Senate

According to the M'Naghten rule, a person is legally insane and therefore not criminally responsible if, at the time of the offense, he or she was _______. a. influenced by an irresistible impulse to commit the crime b. under the wrongful threat of another person c. not able to distinguish between right and wrong d. physically forced to ingest an intoxicating substance

c. not able to distinguish between right and wrong

The Uniform Crime Report attempts to measure the overall rate of crime in the United States by organizing ________. a. national and international crimes b. only violent, repeat-offender crime c. offenses known to law enforcement d. federal criminal activity

c. offenses known to law enforcement

Factors influencing the growth of the private security industry include all of the following EXCEPT __________. a. the need to prevent unauthorized access to transportation hubs, power plants, and financial centers b. budget cuts in state and local police departments c. pension reforms that have decreased the incomes of law enforcement officers d. crimes in the workplace such as shoplifting and employee theft

c. pension reforms that have decreased the incomes of law enforcement officers

Established by the U.S. Supreme Court, the Brady rule holds that ____________. a. both the prosecution and the defense must share with each other all evidence relevant to the guilt or innocence of the defendant b. prosecutors must not bring charges against suspects they reasonably believe to be innocent of criminal behavior c. prosecutors must disclose to the defense any evidence or information that reasonably might help establish the defendant's innocence d. defense attorneys must represent a client no matter how repugnant they find their acts

c. prosecutors must disclose to the defense any evidence or information that reasonably might help establish the defendant's innocence

Which of the following is NOT one of the three levels of law enforcement? a. federal b. state c. regional d. local

c. regional

A judge sentences a first-time offender convicted of a low-level drug offense to probation based on the condition the offender receives drug-abuse therapy. Which function of the court influenced the judge's decision? a. crime control b. due process c. rehabilitation d. bureaucratic

c. rehabilitation

Purported improper judicial discretion is often the first reason given for two phenomena that plague the criminal justice system. Which of the following is one of these two phenomena? a. mitigating circumstances b. aggravating circumstances c. sentencing disparity d. plea bargaining

c. sentencing disparity

In which type of sentencing arrangement is the offender allowed to petition the court to be released on probation? a. split sentence b. suspended sentence c. shock incarceration d. intermittent incarceration

c. shock incarceration

Ralph is on probation for possession of a narcotic. He is subject to random drug testing and is required to attend drug counseling. What types of conditions were placed on his probation? a. standard and treatment conditions b. punitive and treatment conditions c. standard, punitive, and treatment conditions d. standard and punitive conditions

c. standard, punitive, and treatment conditions

Which argument best summarizes the position of those who oppose state laws that legalize the sale and possession of small amounts of marijuana for personal use? a. such laws free up scarce law enforcement resources to focus on more serious criminal activity b. such laws are hypocritical because they do not acknowledge that alcohol, although legal, causes harm to society c. such laws fail to protect society from the harms caused by marijuana use d. such laws are unfair

c. such laws fail to protect society from the harms caused by marijuana use

Which of the following is NOT a common criticism of mandatory minimum sentencing laws? a. such laws appear to discriminate against African American and Latino offenders b. by mandating harsh sentences, such laws have contributed to high rates of imprisonment in the United States c. such laws lead to more frequent death sentences as a cost-saving measure to avoid lengthy prison terms d. such laws remove the discretion of judges to hand down the proper sentences in individual cases

c. such laws lead to more frequent death sentences as a cost-saving measure to avoid lengthy prison terms

A person's procedural due process rights are violated when ________ a. the government (either federal or state) infringes on that person's "life, liberty, or property" by violating the Victims' Rights Amendment to the U.S. Constitution b. a state government improperly deprives that person of "life, liberty, or property" using a method that would be constitutionally acceptable under federal law c. that person is deprived of "life, liberty, or property" through unfair or arbitrary legal techniques by the government or some other powerful institution d. that person's "life, liberty, or property" in significantly impacted by a law that is clearly unfair or arbitrary

c. that person is deprived of "life, liberty, or property" through unfair or arbitrary legal techniques by the government or some other powerful institution

What is the "dark figure of crime"? a. the amount of crime that occurs during the night b. the amount of crime that does get reported c. the amount of crime that goes unreported d. the amount of violent crime that occurs in the country

c. the amount of crime that goes unreported

What is jurisdiction? a. the laws that govern what cases a court can hear and decide b. the geographic location of a court that is allowed to hear and decide a case c. the authority of a court to hear and decide a case within an area of law or geographic territory d. the authority of a judge to hear and decide a case in a specific court

c. the authority of a court to hear and decide a case within an area of law or geographic territory

The criminal justice system relies on discretion to alleviate the many pressures it faces. What is meant by discretion in this context? a. a series of "routinized operation" with the end goal of getting the criminal defendant from point A to point B to point C b. a set of interactive parts that, when functioning properly, achieve a desired result c. the authority to choose between and among alternative courses of action, based on individual judgment and conscience d. the moral principles that govern a person's perception of right and wrong

c. the authority to choose between and among alternative courses of action, based on individual judgment and conscience

Which of the following best describes the internal affairs unit (IAU)? a. the body by which police procedures are defined b. the authority that affords officers deadly force justification c. the mechanism for investigations within a police department d. the organization that advocates for police action

c. the mechanism for investigations within a police department

The courtroom workgroup is made up of the judge, the prosecutor, and the defense attorney. It may also include all of the following participants EXCEPT: a. clerk of court b. court reporter c. the press or media d. bailiff

c. the press or media

Which model of inmate behavior explains prison riots by focusing on the frustration inmates feel when their already difficult living conditions are made more difficult through hardships such as bad plumbing, poor food, and decreased contact with their loved ones? a. the therapeutic model b. the prison segregation model c. the relative deprivation model d. the security threat group model

c. the relative deprivation model

Which of the following is not one of the three rights afforded to victims under the Crime Victims' Rights Act of 2004? a. the right to be present b. the right to be heard c. the right to be vindicated d. the right to be informed

c. the right to be vindicated

What is the purpose of an impact incarceration program? a. to provide greater supervision of probationers than traditional probation allows b. to shock an offender into complying with the law by a brief imprisonment before probation c. to instill self-discipline and self-respect through a military-style training program d. to provide a low-cost alternative to jail or prison

c. to instill self-discipline and self-respect through a military-style training program

The bifurcated process means that for capital cases, there should be a(n) __________. a. state and a federal process b. ongoing process c. two-stage process d. simplified process

c. two-stage process

What must a jury's verdict be in most jurisdictions for there to be either an acquittal or a conviction in a criminal case? a. majority b. split c. unanimous d. hung

c. unanimous

An offender is convicted of a domestic crime and receives a more lenient sentence than he expected. Pleased with his sentence, he tells a friend, "The judge was really fair so I expect I'll be out of here on parole before you know it." How likely is his prediction? a. somewhat unlikely because there is no way to predict when the offender will be eligible for parole b. fairly likely because the sentencing shows the court considers this an offense that does not require extensive punishment c. uncertain because parole is determined by the parole board, not the judge d. fairly likely because the sentencing shows the court wants to punish the offender, but does not consider the offender a threat to society

c. uncertain because parole is determined by the parole board, not the judge

What is the main difference between an indictment and an information? a. An indictment is issued before trial, whereas an information is issued after trial. b. A prosecutor issues an indictment, whereas a grand jury issues an information. c. An information is issued before trial, whereas an indictment is issued after trial. d. A prosecutor issues an information, whereas a grand jury issues an indictment.

d. A prosecutor issues an information, whereas a grand jury issues an indictment.

When does a custodial interrogation occur? a. A suspect is stopped and frisked because of suspicion of wrongdoing. b. A suspect's property is seized after a warrantless search. c. A suspect's home is entered after a "knock and talk." d. A suspect is under arrest or is deprived of his or her freedom.

d. A suspect is under arrest or is deprived of his or her freedom.

Which is an example of a suspended sentence? a. An offender is sentenced to 90 days and is eligible for early release based on good behavior. b. An offender is sentenced to spend every weekend in prison for one year followed by a year of probation. c. An offender is sentenced to one year in prison and may petition for probation after 30 days. d. An offender is sentenced to one year in prison, but the sentence is waived unless the offender reoffends.

d. An offender is sentenced to one year in prison, but the sentence is waived unless the offender reoffends.

Which of the following agencies is NOT a part of the Department of Homeland Security? a. U.S. Secret Service b. U.S. Coast Guard c. Federal Emergency Management Agency d. Bureau of Alcohol, Tobacco, Firearms, and Explosives

d. Bureau of Alcohol, Tobacco, Firearms, and Explosives

What is a consequence of applying the principles of intelligence-led policing to issues of terrorism? a. Local law enforcement agencies have taken on many of the responsibilities of federal law enforcement agencies b. Federal law enforcement agencies have taken on many of the responsibilities of local law enforcement agencies c. Federal law enforcement agencies now have authority over many local law enforcement agencies d. Cooperation between federal and local law enforcement has increased

d. Cooperation between federal and local law enforcement has increased

Which is a characteristic of an appellate court? a. Reviews the evidence of a case. b. Is concerned with questions of fact. c. Determines a defendant's guilt or innocence. d. Determines if errors were made regarding questions of law.

d. Determines if errors were made regarding questions of law.

What is the difference between crime and deviance a. Crime is a subjective concept b. Only crimes do not conform to the norms of a society c. Deviance is a much stronger offense than crime d. Deviant acts are not necessarily crimes

d. Deviant acts are not necessarily crimes.

Which of the following is a key difference between direct evidence and circumstantial evidence? a. Circumstantial evidence can be used in legal proceedings, whereas direct evidence cannot. b. Direct evidence can be used in legal proceedings, whereas circumstantial evidence cannot. c. Circumstantial evidence is factual, whereas direct evidence only creates an inference that a fact exists. d. Direct evidence is factual, whereas circumstantial evidence only creates an inference that a fact exists.

d. Direct evidence is factual, whereas circumstantial evidence only creates an inference that a fact exists.

By creating an atmosphere that is conducive to professionalism, which of the following will police departments most likely do? a. Discourage the "blue curtain" from developing. b. Discourage a zero-tolerance policy. c. Encourage weak police-community relationships. d. Encourage ethical policing.

d. Encourage ethical policing.

Which of the following does cross-examination NOT attempt to do? a. Create doubt in jurors' minds about opposing witness reliability. b. Show opposing witness testimony to be hearsay. c. Test the truthfulness of opposing witnesses. d. Encourage opposing witnesses to "plead the Fifth."

d. Encourage opposing witnesses to "plead the Fifth."

Which of the following best describes the "good faith" exception to the exclusionary rule? a. Evidence may not be admissible if the suspect offers it voluntarily but without a lawyer. b. Evidence may be admissible if the officer is in "hot pursuit" of a suspected offender. c. Evidence may not be admissible if the officer uses illegal procedures to obtain it. d. Evidence may be admissible if the officer is unaware of a warrant's technical invalidity.

d. Evidence may be admissible if the officer is unaware of a warrant's technical invalidity.

CH.8 Which amendment gives a suspect "the right to remain silent"? a. Fourth Amendment b. First Amendment c. Sixth Amendent d. Fifth Amendment

d. Fifth Amendment

Which amendment protects against double jeopardy? a. First Amendment b. Sixth Amendment c. Fourth Amendment d. Fifth Amendment

d. Fifth Amendment

What is a furlough? a. a release at the end of a sentence b. a form of executive clemency c. a strategy to prepare inmates for recidivism d. a temporary release from prison

d. temporary release from prison

What is the key difference between general deterrence and specific deterrence? a. Specific deterrence sets an example for society at large, whereas general deterrence focuses only on the individual being punished. b. General deterrence relies on rehabilitation, whereas specific deterrence relies on incapacitation. c. General deterrence relies on incapacitation, whereas specific deterrence relies on rehabilitation. d. General deterrence sets an example for society at large, whereas specific deterrence focuses only on the individual being punished.

d. General deterrence sets an example for society at large, whereas specific deterrence focuses only on the individual being punished.

Which of the following did sociologist Ruth D. Peterson's research project reveal about violent crime rates in the neighborhoods of Columbus, Ohio? a. Neither higher levels of disadvantage within neighborhoods nor the ethnic or racial makeup of neighborhoods were linked to higher violent crime rates b. Higher levels of disadvantage within neighborhoods and the ethnic or racial makeup of neighborhoods were equally linked to higher violent crime rates c. Ethnic or racial makeup within neighborhoods was linked to higher violent crime rates, but the higher levels of disadvantage within neighborhoods were not d. Higher levels of disadvantage within neighborhoods were linked to higher violent crime rates, but the ethnic or racial makeup of neighborhoods were not

d. Higher levels of disadvantage within neighborhoods were linked to higher violent crime rates, but the ethnic or racial makeup of neighborhoods were not

Which of the following is not one of the three measurements on which the FBI and local law enforcement agencies base their information in compiling the Uniform Crime Report? a. the number of crimes reported b. police employee data c. the number of persons arrested d. historical statistical crime data

d. Historical statistical crime data

What is the main difference between the inmates in federal and state prisons? a. Inmates in federal prisons are most likely to have been convicted of minor crimes, whereas inmates in state prisons are most likely to have been convicted of major felonies. b. Inmates in federal prisons are most likely to have been convicted of violent crimes, whereas inmates in state prisons are most likely to have been convicted of drug crimes. c. Inmates in state prisons are most likely to have been convicted of minor crimes, whereas inmates in federal prisons are most likely to have been convicted of major felonies. d. Inmates in state prisons are most likely to have been convicted of violent crimes, whereas inmates in federal prisons are most likely to have been convicted of drug crimes.

d. Inmates in state prisons are most likely to have been convicted of violent crimes, whereas inmates in federal prisons are most likely to have been convicted of drug crimes.

Which of the following is true of the task of managing jail inmate populations? a. It is completed by a highly trained and federally employed staff. b. It is done to a much greater success than in most prisons. c. It is a task performed identically to that same task in prisons. d. It falls disproportionately on untrained jail staff.

d. It falls disproportionately on untrained jail staff.

Which of the following is true of the prison inmate population in the United States over the past two decades? a. It has remained the same. b. It has nearly doubled. c. It has been cut in half. d. It has nearly tripled.

d. It has nearly tripled.

Why is the U.S. Constitution thought of as the supreme law of the land? a. No other law in the United States is federally enforceable b. It is the only law in the United States c. It represents unchangeable U.S. law d. It is the basis of all laws in the United States

d. It is the basis of all laws in the United States

Which of the following is true of the congregate penitentiary system? a. Its main tenet was the complete isolation of inmates. b. It was replaced by the system of separate confinement. c. Its popularity and use across the country began in the 1960s. d. It saw prisoners eating and working together during the daytime.

d. It saw prisoners eating and working together during the daytime.

What is the significance of the U.S. Supreme Court case Tennessee v. Garner (1985)? a. It declared the "stop and frisk" practices of law enforcement officers to be unconstitutional. b. It cited legitimate means by which law enforcement officers could interrogate suspects. c. It recognized and legitimized the need for internal affairs departments in police departments. d. It set the standards for the use of deadly force by law enforcement officers.

d. It set the standards for the use of deadly force by law enforcement officers.

How has the mission of the Federal Bureau of Investigation (FBI) changed since 2001? a. It focuses on crimes that cross international borders rather than domestic crimes. b. It shifted its focus from crime control to crime prevention. c. It focuses on predicting crime patterns rather than crime enforcement and investigation. d. It shifted its focus from law enforcement to national security.

d. It shifted its focus from law enforcement to national security.

Which of the following is true regarding the recognition of crime victims' rights? a. Crime victims' rights have been recognized since the beginning of the formal criminal justice system in the United States b. It is not universally accepted c. It has not yet been addressed by any of the states in the United States d. It was brought to public importance in the 1970s

d. It was brought to public importance in the 1970s

When comparing local police departments and sheriff's departments, which of the following is FALSE? a. Both law enforcement agencies are responsible for many of the same tasks, including crime investigation and routine patrol b. Sheriffs' departments are more likely to be involved in county court and jail operations and to perform certain services such as search and rescue c. Police chiefs are usually appointed while sheriffs are usually elected d. Local police departments are more likely to carry out civil and criminal processes, such as serving eviction notices and court summonses

d. Local police departments are more likely to carry out civil and criminal processes, such as serving eviction notices and court summonses

Which of the following is a key difference between voluntary and involuntary intoxication as a criminal defense? a. Involuntary intoxication is never allowed as a criminal defense b. Only with voluntary intoxication is a person physically forced to ingest an intoxicating substance c. Voluntary intoxication is never allowed as a criminal defense d. Only with involuntary intoxication is a person physically forced or deceived to ingest an intoxicating substance

d. Only with involuntary intoxication is a person physically forced or deceived to ingest an intoxicating substance.

Which statement about sworn officers in the United States is true? a. About 10 percent of all police chiefs in the United States today are women b. Women police officers are proportionately represented in most police departments today c. Prior to 1968, African Americans represented about 10 percent of all sworn officers in the United States d. Prior to 1968, police departments were more likely to hire an African American than a woman

d. Prior to 1968, police departments were more likely to hire an African American than a woman

Which statement about probation and parole is FALSE? a. Probation is a sentence; parole is an early release. b. Probation is determined by a judge; parole is determined by a parole authority. c. Both probationers and parolees are under the supervision of community corrections officers. d. Probationers serve their sentences in the community; parolees serve their sentences in prison or jail.

d. Probationers serve their sentences in the community; parolees serve their sentences in prison or jail.

Which of the following is true of the insanity plea? a. Criminal law in the United States has outright rejected its use as a defense b. It has largely been an uncontroversial defense in criminal hearing c. It has only been used as a defense in the United States for the last 25 years d. States across the country apply different tests to determine insanity

d. States across the country apply different tests to determine insanity

What did a survey by researchers Jack Greene and Carl Klockars reveal about the Wilmington (Delaware) Police Department? a. The police spent roughly the same amount of time on enforcing laws, providing services, and preventing crime. b. The police split their time almost evenly between enforcing laws and preventing crime. c. The police spent almost about two-thirds of their time enforcing crimes and the remainder split between providing services to the community and preventing crimes. d. The police spent about half of their time enforcing laws and the other half providing services to the community.

d. The police spent about half of their time enforcing laws and the other half providing services to the community.

What does the deprivation model contend? a. A more hierarchical structure of prison inmates leads to a more orderly population. b. The culture in prisons is, by its very nature, one of deprivation and degradation. c. The more prisoners are deprived, the more likely they will cooperate within the structure. d. The stressful conditions of prison life lead to aggressive inmate behavior.

d. The stressful conditions of prison life lead to aggressive inmate behavior.

Why is probation the most common form of punishment handed down by judges? a. Victims groups and the public at large believe probation to be the most "humane" form of punishment a judge can administer. b. Most criminals are better rehabilitated through probation than through any other form of punishment available to judges. c. Most judges err on the side of caution, and probation is a sentence that cannot be overturned by a higher court. d. The vast majority of crimes committed are of a minor nature, warranting something less than imprisonment and something more than fines alone.

d. The vast majority of crimes committed are of a minor nature, warranting something less than imprisonment and something more than fines alone.

Which statement concerning local and federal law enforcement is FALSE? a. Federal law enforcement agencies are generally authorized to deal with limited areas of criminal law, while local law enforcement agencies have the authority to investigate and combat many different forms of criminal behavior b. It is not uncommon for federal and local police departments to cooperate with each other to protect local communities from criminal behavior c. Sheriff's departments are usually responsible for keeping order in local and state courtrooms, while the U.S. Marshals Service provides security in federal courtrooms d. There are more federal law enforcement officers than local law enforcement officers on duty in the United States

d. There are more federal law enforcement officers than local law enforcement officers on duty in the United States

According to the social disorganization theory, why do people who experience rapid social change ultimately turn to drug use and abuse? a. They partake in violent criminal activity b. They experience great financial hardship c. They experience a great sense of emotional loss d. They become disaffiliated from mainstream society

d. They become disaffiliated from mainstream society

Which of the following is true of most female inmates and their families? a. They have no desire to remain connected. b. They are too embarrassed by their crimes to connect. c. They remain closely connected through frequent visits and calls. d. They find the costs of staying in touch too high.

d. They find the costs of staying in touch too high.

Why are some prisoners allowed an expiration release? a. The governor of the state in which they are incarcerated officially terminates their time. b. The parole board decides they are fit to return to society ahead of schedule. c. They have been deemed fit to leave prison for a few days or up to a week, and then return. d. They served the maximum amount of time on the sentence, minus good-time credits.

d. They served the maximum amount of time on the sentence, minus good-time credits.

Why do medium-security prisons use less restrictive measures to prevent violence and escapes? a. Their efforts are focused more on rehabilitation. b. They typically have much smaller budgets. c. They are private prisons with different priorities. d. They typically house less dangerous inmates.

d. They typically house less dangerous inmates.

Which statement BEST describes the "hands-off" doctrine generally followed by American courts when it comes to inmate rights? a. Courts always favor the security needs of the correctional institution over the rights of inmates b. By law, when an offender is convicted of a crime and incarcerated in a jail or prison, that person no longer enjoys the protection of the U.S. Constitution c. Neither slavery nor involuntary servitude, except as a punishment for crime whereof the party shall have been duly convicted, shall exist within the United States d. Unless the rights violation is particularly unreasonable, in most cases the courts will defer to the expertise of penal administrators and correctional officers and resist makings rulings that favor the inmate

d. Unless the rights violation is particularly unreasonable, in most cases the courts will defer to the expertise of penal administrators and correctional officers and resist makings rulings that favor the inmate

After the initial appearance, most defendants will be released. Which of the following might prevent that release? a. a lack of probable cause b. a refusal to remain silent c. a release on recognizance d. a failure to post bail

d. a failure to post bail

The Uniform Crime Report divides the criminal offenses it measures into two major categories. Part I offenses are those crimes that, due to their seriousness and frequency, are recorded by the FBI to give a general idea of the "crime picture" in the United States. What are Part II offenses? a. all crimes not recorded by the FBI or any other agency b. only those crimes that result in arraignment, a formal charge, and conviction c. any crimes recorded by the FBI that fall into the misdemeanor category d. all crimes recorded by the FBI that do not fall into category of Part 1 offenses

d. all crimes recorded by the FBI that do not fall into the category of Part I offenses

Victims of crimes can attend parole hearings __________. a. and give testimony about how the crime has affected them, and these statements are heavily weighted along with other criteria to determine whether to grant parole b. and give testimony about how the crime has affected them, and their statements are used by parole boards to determine whether to grant an offender parole c. but they are not allowed to introduce new information about how the crime has affected them d. and give testimony about how the crime has affected them, but these statements have little influence on the parole board's decision

d. and give testimony about how the crime has affected them, but these statements have little influence on the parole board's decision

Which term does NOT refer to the court in which almost every case begins? a. court with original jurisdiction b. trial court c. court of the first instance d. appellate court

d. appellate court

Why have community-based corrections increased in popularity? a. because halfway houses and residential centers are no longer viable options b. because all convicts need and benefited from incarceration in jails c. because federal correction have deferred to the states and localities d. because jails and prisons have been plagued with problems of funding and overcrowding

d. because jails and prisons have been plagued with problems of funding and overcrowding

How does duress cause a person to perform an unlawful act that he or she would otherwise not perform? a. by a lack of responsibility due to mental instability b. by the taking of intoxicants c. by ignorance of the law or a mistake of law d. by the wrongful threat of another person

d. by the wrongful threat of another person

Despite active recruitment of African Americans, many police departments today have been unable to hire more African Americans for all of the following reasons EXCEPT a low number of African American __________. a. candidates who pass written exams b. applicants c. candidates who pass background checks d. candidates who want to work in predominantly white communities

d. candidates who want to work in predominantly white communities

The fact that fewer than one in three adults arrested for a felony see the inside of a prison cell is explained by which of the following? a. nolo contendere b. pretrial detention c. preventive detention d. case attrition

d. case attrition

If an appellate judge reverses and remands a case, the __________. a. judge determines the guilt or innocence of the defendant b. judge overthrows the existing sentence or sets a new sentence c. case is sent to a higher-level appellate court for review d. case is sent back to the trial court for a new trial

d. case is sent back to the trial court for a new trial

What two categories can all law be divided into? a. individual law and societal law b. constitutional law and social law c. case law and administrative law d. civil law and criminal law

d. civil law and criminal law

The main benefit of intelligence-led policing to contemporary police departments is that it allows police departments to use technology to __________. a. gain meaningful interactions with the public b. capture criminals c. sharpen the art of policing d. collect data to predict crime patterns

d. collect data to predict crime patterns

What are hot spots? a. no-go zones that officers do not actively patrol unless requested b. warmer areas of the city where temperature and crime are correlated c. potentially sensitive targets like schools, churches, and hospitals d. concentrated areas of high crime

d. concentrated areas of high crime

An offender who was sentenced to home confinement is required to wear a continuously signaling device. What level of home monitoring is being used to monitor his home confinement? a. home detention or home incarceration b. home incarceration c. home detention d. curfew, home detention, or home incarceration

d. curfew, home detention, or home incarceration

Which of the following statements about the death penalty is FALSE? a. mentally retarded people and children have been sentenced to death in America b. the jury, not the judge, determines whether to sentence a convicted offender to death c. the number of executions has been dropping d. death penalty cases cost taxpayers significantly less than life imprisonment

d. death penalty cases cost taxpayers significantly less than life imprisonment

Which of the following is a recent phenomenon focused on reversing the inmate population trends of the past two decades? a. mitigation b. isolationism c. rehabilitation d. decarceration

d. decarceration

Which of the following is NOT one of the concerns relating to female inmates identified by researchers at the University of Cincinnati? a. parental stress b. mental health problems c. sexual abuse d. defiant attitudes

d. defiant attitudes

The goal of reentry is to act as a flashlight for convicts by promoting __________. a. recidivism b. education c. rehabilitation d. desistance

d. desistance

What is a primary focus of the bureaucratic function of the court? a. ensuring individuals' constitutional rights are protected b. ensuring victims of crimes receive justice c. ensuring offenders receive appropriate sentences d. ensuring cases go through the court efficiently

d. ensuring cases go through the court efficiently

_____________ is the process by which one jurisdiction surrenders a person accused or convicted of violating another jurisdiction's criminal law to the second jurisdiction a. concurrent jurisdiction b. judicial review c. writ of certiorari d. extradition

d. extradition

Which of the following is NOT a qualification to be a juror? a. 18 years of age or older b. free of felony convictions c. citizen of the united states d. gainfully employed

d. gainfully employed

The primary legal function of the law is to maintain social order by protecting citizens from criminal harm. Which of the following is not one the generalized harms included in this? a. harms to individual citizens' physical safety b. harms to society's interests collectively c. harms to individual citizens' property d. harms to the constitution's provisions

d. harms to the constitution's provisions

Which of the following is not one of the four contributing factors that James Alan Fox uses to explain the recent trend toward declining violent crime rates? a. continued improvement in law enforcement b. more lenient marijuana laws in many states c. longer prison terms for offenders d. a healthier economy, especially within inner cities

d. healthier economy, especially within inner cities

Police corruption is best defined as the misuse of authority by a law enforcement officer __________. a. with reckless regard for the safety of others b. in a manner that promotes or advances racial profiling c. that conflicts with constitutional restraints d. in a manner designed to produce personal gain

d. in a manner designed to produce personal gain

Why is statutory rape a crime even when the underage person is consenting? a. Most exchanges between minors and adults who do not know each other are considered to be illegal b. In many states there is no leniency for sexual acts of any type or with any age discrepancy c. Statutory rape is defined in the Constitution and so therefore cannot be interpreted in any way d. In the eyes of the law the underage person is considered incapable of making a rational decision on the matter

d. in the eyes of the law the underage person is considered incapable of making a rational decision on the matter

A strategy for preventing crime by detaining wrongdoers in prison, thereby separating them from the community and reducing criminal opportunities a. rehabilitation b. retribution c. deterrence d. incapacitation

d. incapacitation

On average, which of the following best describes the relationship between prison staff and inmates? a. fueled by hatred and anger b. empowered by power and authority c. defined by respect and admiration d. marked by mutual distrust

d. marked by mutual distrust

Any circumstances accompanying the commission of a crime that may justify a lighter sentence are known as a. aggravating circumstances b. justifications c. excuses d. mitigating circumstances

d. mitigating circumstances

Most female offenders are incarcerated for __________. a. violent attacks b. endangerment to children c. motor vehicle related crimes d. nonviolent drug crimes

d. nonviolent drug crimes

A law enforcement officer is justified in using deadly force against a suspect if the ___________. a. use of nondeadly force against the suspect is unlikely to result in the suspect's capture and arrest b. officer has little doubt that it is necessary to prevent his or her death c. officer reasonably believes that the suspect has committed a felony and that the suspect is in the act of fleeing the scene of the crime d. officers reasonably believes that such force is necessary to protect himself or herself or another person from serious bodily injury or death

d. officers reasonably believes that such force is necessary to protect himself or herself or another person from serious bodily injury or death

How does society make a police officer's duty more clear and, in the process, help eliminate discretion from the decision-making process? a. running for office b. joining the police force c. demonstrating d. passing adequately specific laws

d. passing adequately specific laws

Which of the following is usually the largest division within a police department? a. cold cases b. forensics c. investigation d. patrol

d. patrol

In addition to the four criteria needed to legally seize property under the plain view doctrine, to believe that any item in plain view is potentially connected to criminal activity, what must law enforcement officers have to believe that any item in plain view is potentially connected to criminal activity? a. an affidavit b. a search warrant c. undeniable proof d. probable cause

d. probable cause

What is the most commonly used correctional treatment? a. incarceration b. heavy fines c. capital punishment d. probation

d. probation

Which of the following was NOT one of the three basic types of police corruption defined by the Knapp Commission in the 1970s? a. mooching b. bribery c. shakedowns d. profiling

d. profiling

Which of the following would NOT be a lawyer who might represent a defendant in a criminal trial? a. public defender b. defense attorney c. court-appointed attorney d. public prosecutor

d. public prosecutor

Ch. 10 Community corrections are based on which function of the court? a. due process b. crime control c. bureaucratic d. rehabilitation

d. rehabilitation

Which of the following is NOT one of the three most important aspects of prison governance? a. order b. services c. amenities d. rehabilitation

d. rehabilitation

Which of the following is NOT one of the four categories of ethical dilemmas as defined by criminologists Joycelyn M. Pollock and Ronald F. Becker? a. discretion b. loyalty c. duty d. responsibility

d. responsibility

Marisol is a candidate for a police officer position in a large metropolitan area. She should expect any of the following background checks and tests EXCEPT a(n) __________. a. interview with her spouse b. psychological screening test c. credit check d. review of her email activity

d. review of her email activity

The most frequent exception to the warrant requirement involves ______. a. "in plain view" searches b. "hot pursuit" searches c. searches near international borders d. searches incident to arrest

d. searches incident to arrest

Ch. 11 The Pennsylvania penitentiary operated on the assumption that what provided the best hope of rehabilitating the criminal spirit? a. torture and brutality b. cruel and unusual punishment c. education and training d. silence and labor

d. silence and labor

Which of the following types of prisons is reserved for the "worst of the worst"? a. maximum-security prisons b. medium-security prisons c. minimum-security prisons d. supermax prisons

d. supermax prisons