ISTQB Foundation Level

You have been given the following set of test cases to run. You have been instructed to run them in order by risk and to accomplish the testing as quickly as possible to provide feedback to the developers as soon as possible. Given this information, what is the best order in which to run these tests? ID Duration Risk Dependency 1 30minutes Low 6 2 10minutes Medium none 3 45minutes High 1 4 30minutes High 2 5 10minutes Medium 4 6 15minutes Low 2 a. 2, 4, 5, 6, 1, 3 b. 4, 3, 2, 5, 6, 1 c. 2, 5, 6, 4, 1, 3 d. 6, 1, 3, 2, 4, 5

A (A is correct because it addresses the highest risk and fastest tests first. It runs a fast medium test before a slow and more dependent high risk test because this will give feedback to the developers more quickly.)

Which of the following is an experience-based testing technique? a. Error guessing b. Intuitive testing c. Oracle-based testing d. Exhaustive testing

A (A is correct, per syllabus. B and C are not testing techniques. D is not possible unless the code is trivial and is not an experience-based technique)

If impact analysis indicates that the overall system could be significantly affected by system maintenance activities, why should regression testing be executed after the changes? a. To ensure the system still functions as expected with no introduced issues b. To ensure no unauthorized changes have been applied to the system c. To assess the scope of maintenance performed on the system d. To identify any maintainability issues with the code

A (A is correct, per syllabus. By definition, regression testing is looking for areas in which the system may have regressed (gone backwards). B is incorrect as the purpose of regression is not to monitor malicious or erroneous activities by the developers. C is incorrect as it is not in scope of regression testing but would be a consideration for the impact analysis. D is incorrect because regression testing will not identify maintainability issues - that will have to be done via static analysis or specific maintainability tests.)

Which of the following is a benefit of static analysis? a. Defects can be identified that might not be caught by dynamic testing b. Early defect identification requires less documentation c. Early execution of the code provides a gauge of code quality d. Tools are not needed because reviews are used instead of executing code

A (A is correct, per syllabus. Static analysis with a static analyzer can be used to find defects such as uninitialized variables that could be difficult to catch with dynamic testing. B is incorrect because defects will still need to be documented regardless of how early they are found. C is incorrect because this is dynamic analysis. D is incorrect because static analysis usually requires the use of tools.)

If the developers are releasing code for testing that is not version controlled, what process is missing? a. Configuration management b. Debugging c. Test and defect management d. Risk analysis

A (A is correct. Configuration management is missing if the code is not being properly versioned and tracked)

What is error guessing? a. A testing technique used to guess where a developer is likely to have made a mistake b. A technique used for assessing defect metrics c. A development technique to verify that all error paths have been coded d. A planning technique used to anticipate likely schedule variances due to faults

A (A is correct. Error guessing is a technique used to anticipate where developers are likely to make errors and to create tests to cover those areas. B, C and D are not correct.)

Which of the following is a good reason to use experience-based testing? a. You can find defects that might be missed by more formal techniques b. You can test for defects that only experienced users would encounter c. You can target the developer's efforts to the areas that users will be more likely to use d. It is supported by strong tools and can be automated

A (A is correct. Experience-based testing is often used to fill in the gaps left by the more formal testing techniques. B is not correct because it is used by experienced testers and has nothing to do with the experience level of the users. C is not correct because it is a test technique, not a development technique. D is not correct. There is not much tool support for these techniques and automation is not usually a goal because the effectiveness depends on the experience of the tester)

In an iterative lifecycle model, which of the following is an accurate statement about testing activities? a. For every development activity, there should be a corresponding testing activity b. For every testing activity, appropriate documentation should be produced, versioned and stored c. For every development activity resulting in code, there should be a testing activity to document test cases d. For every testing activity, metrics should be recorded and posted to a metrics dashboard for all stakeholders

A (A is correct. For any lifecycle model, this is a correct statement. B is not correct because some testing activities may not produce documentation, such as reviews. C is not correct because test cases are not always written, particularly in an Agile lifecycle (which is an iterative lifecycle) where only exploratory testing might be used. D is not correct because not all testing activities produce metrics (such as test case creation, reviews, etc.) and, even if they did, not all stakeholders would be interested in those metrics)

If you need to provide a report showing test case execution coverage of the requirements, what do you need to track? a. Traceability between the test cases and the requirements b. Coverage of the risk items by test case c. Traceability between the requirements and the risk items d. Coverage of the requirements by the test cases that have been designed

A (A is correct. In order to show the test execution coverage of the requirements you will need traceability between the requirements and the test cases. As the test cases are executed this traceability can be used to record tests executed against the requirements. B is not correct because it's looking for requirements coverage, not risk coverage. C is not correct because it's looking for test execution, not risk items. D is not correct because it's looking for test cases that have been executed, not just designed.)

Which of the following is an example of a tool that supports static testing? a. A tool that assists with tracking the results of reviews b. A defect tracking tool c. A test automation tool d. A tool that helps design test cases for security testing

A (A is correct. Reviews are a form of static testing and a tool that supports reviews is an example of a tool that supports static testing. B is an example of a management tool used for defect management. C is an example of a test execution tool. D is an example of a test design tool.)

In what way does root cause analysis contribute to process improvement? a. Helps to better identify and correct the root cause of defects b. Outlines how development teams can code faster c. Specifies the desired root causes to be achieved by other teams d. Contributes to the justification of future project funding

A (A is correct. Root cause analysis can determine common causes of issues. Addressing these common causes by process improvement can increase quality. B is incorrect because root cause analysis will not make the developers code faster, better maybe, not faster. C is incorrect because root causes generally are not good things that should be transferred between teams. D is not correct because it will not improve funding)

Which of the following is the activity that compares the planned test progress to the actual test progress? a. Test monitoring b. Test planning c. Test closure d. Test control

A (A is correct. Test monitoring involves the ongoing comparison of actual progress against the test plan. B is incorrect because it defines testing objectives. C is incorrect because the activities have already completed and the project is closing down. D is incorrect because test control is when you take actions to correct any issues observed during monitoring.)

Which of the following is a benefit of test independence? a. Testers have different biases than developers b. Testers are isolated from the development team c. Testers lack information about the test object d. Testers will accept responsibility for quality

A (A is correct. Testers bring different biases than the developers have, so they may be able to see different types of failures and check for assumptions the developers may have made. B and C are disadvantages. D is definitely a disadvantage and is sometimes seen in the developers losing their sense of responsibility for quality.)

Level of risk is determined by which of the following? a. Likelihood and impact b. Priority and risk rating c. Probability and practicality d. Risk identification and mitigation

A (A is correct. The combination of likelihood and impact is normally used to determine the overall risk level (sometimes called the risk priority number).)

Which of the following is a correct statement? a. A developer makes a mistake which causes a defect that may be seen as a failure during dynamic testing b. A developer makes an error which results in a failure that may be seen as a fault when the software is executed c. A developer has introduced a failure which results in a defect that may be seen as a mistake during dynamic testing d. A developer makes a mistake which causes a bug that may be seen as a defect when the software is executed

A (A is correct. The developer makes a mistake/error which causes a defect/fault/bug which may cause a failure when the code is dynamically tested or executed. B is incorrect because fault and failure are reversed. C is incorrect because failure and mistake are reversed. D is incorrect because it's a failure that's seen during execution, not the defect itself. The failure is a symptom of the defect.)

For a formal review, at what point in the process are the entry and exit criteria defined? a. Planning b. Review initiation c. Individual review d. Fixing and reporting

A (A is correct. The entry and exit criteria should be defined during the planning step in the review process. These should be evaluated at each step to ensure the product is ready for the next step in the process. B, C and D are not correct because the criteria should already be defined by this point.)

You are working in a team of testers who are all writing test cases. You have noticed that there is a significant inconsistency with the length and amount of detail in the different test cases. Where should the test case guidelines have been documented? a. The test plan b. The test approach c. The test case template d. The project plan

A (A is correct. The level of detail and structure for the test documentation should be included in the test plan.)

Why is it important to define usage guidelines for a new tool? a. Because this is a proven success factor in tool deployment b. Because this will ensure the licensing restrictions are enforced c. Because management needs to understand the details of the tool usage d. Because this will provide the information needed for the cost/benefit analysis

A (A is correct. This is one of the success factors in tool deployment. B is not correct because the usage guidelines are for the actual users, not the overall organization which is where the licensing requirements might be a concern. C is not correct because management is not focusing on the details. D is not correct because the cost/benefit information needs to be gathered long before the tool is procured.)

What is the primary purpose of a test execution tool? a. It runs automated test scripts to test the test object b. It automatically records defects in the defect tracking system c. It analyzes code to determine if there are any coding standard violations d. It tracks test cases, defects and requirements traceability

A (A is correct. This is the primary purpose of the test execution tools. B may be something the tool can do, but this is not the primary purpose. C is a static analysis tool and D is a test management tool.)

Given that the testing being performed has the following attributes: based on interface specifications; focused on finding failures in communication; the test approach uses both functional and structural test types. Which of the following test levels is MOST likely being performed? a) Component integration testing. b) Acceptance testing. c) System testing. d) Component testing.

A (Considering the scenario and the syllabus (2.2): 1. 'testing is based on interface specifications' - the test basis for component integration testing includes interface specifications (along with communication protocol specification), while these are not included for any of the other test levels 2. 'testing is focused on finding failures in communication' - failures in the communication between tested components is included as a typical failure for component integration testing, but failures in communication is not included for any of the other test levels 3. 'the test approach uses both functional and structural test types' - functional and structural test types are both included as possible approaches for component integration testing, and would also be appropriate for any of the other test levels, although they are only otherwise explicitly mentioned in the syllabus for system testing Thus, option A is correct.)

You are testing an unattended gasoline pump that only accepts credit cards. Once the credit card is validated, the pump nozzle placed into the tank, and the desired grade selected, the customer enters the desired amount of fuel in gallons using the keypad. The keypad only allows the entry of digits. Fuel is sold in tenths (0.1) of a gallon, up to 50.0 gallons. Which of the following is a minimum set of desired amounts that covers the equivalence partitions for this input? a) 0.0, 20.0, 60.0 b) 0.0, 0.1, 50.0 c) 0.0, 0.1, 50.0, 70.0 d) -0.1, 0.0, 0.1, 49.9, 50.0, 50.1

A (Per 4.2.1, there are three equivalence partitions: - No sale completed (0.0 gallons) - A valid sale occurs (0.1 to 50.0 gallons) - An invalid amount is selected (50.1 or more gallons) So, the correct and incorrect answers are as follows: a) Is correct: this set of input values has exactly one test per equivalence partition. b) Is not correct: this set of input values has does not cover the invalid amount partition. c) Is not correct: this set of input values has two tests for the valid sale equivalence partition, which is not the minimum. d) Is not correct: this set of input values covers the three-point boundary values for the two boundaries, not the minimum number required to cover the equivalence partitions.)

Which of the following BEST matches the descriptions with the different categories of test techniques? 1. Coverage is measured based on a selected structure of the test object. 2. The processing within the test object is checked. 3. Tests are based on defects' likelihood and their distribution. 4. Deviations from the requirements are checked. 5. User stories are used as the test basis. Black - Black-box test techniques White - White-box test techniques Experience - Experience-based test techniques a) Black - 4, 5 White - 1, 2 Experience - 3 b) Black - 3 White - 1, 2 Experience - 4, 5 c) Black - 4 White - 1, 2 Experience - 3, 5 d) Black - 1, 3, 5 White - 2 Experience - 4

A (The correct pairing of descriptions with the different categories of test techniques, according to the syllabus (4.1.1) is: Black-box test techniques Deviations from the requirements are checked (4) User stories are used as the test basis (5) White-box test techniques Coverage is measured based on a selected structure of the test object (1) The processing within the test object is checked (2) Experience-based test techniques Tests are based on defects' likelihood and their distribution (3) Thus, option A is correct.)

Which of the following is a typical test objective? a) Preventing defects b) Repairing defects c) Comparing actual results to expected results d) Analyzing the cause of failure

A (a) Correct answer. This is an objective listed in section 1.1. b) Is not correct: this is debugging per section 1.1.2. c) Is not correct: this is an activity within the test execution group of activities within the test process described in section 1.4.2. d) Is not correct: this is part of debugging per section 1.1.2.)

Which of the following is MOST likely to be used as a reason for using a pilot project to introduce a tool into an organization? a) The need to evaluate how the tool fits with existing processes and practices and determining what would need to change. b) The need to evaluate the test automation skills and training, mentoring and coaching needs of the testers who will use the tool. c) The need to evaluate whether the tool provides the required functionality and does not duplicate existing test tools. d) The need to evaluate the tool vendor in terms of the training and other support they provide.

A (a) Correct: As per syllabus (6.2.2). b) Is not correct: The evaluation of the test automation skills and training, mentoring and coaching needs of the testers who will use the tool should have been performed as part of the tool selection activity, as per syllabus (6.2.1). c) Is not correct: The decision on whether the tool provides the required functionality and does not duplicate existing tools should have been performed as part of the tool selection activity, as per syllabus (6.2.1). d) Is not correct: The evaluation of the tool vendor in terms of the training and other support they provide should have been performed as part of the tool selection activity, as per syllabus (6.2.1).)

Which of the following is MOST likely to be an example of a PRODUCT risk? a) The expected security features may not be supported by the system architecture. b) The developers may not have time to fix all the defects found by the test team. c) The test cases may not provide full coverage of the specified requirements. d) The performance test environment may not be ready before the system is due for delivery.

A (a) Correct: If the expected security features are not supported by the system architecture, then the system could be seriously flawed. As the system being produced is the problem here, it is a product risk. b) Is not correct: If the developers run over budget, or run out of time, that is a problem with the running of the project - it is a project risk. c) Is not correct: If the test cases do not provide full coverage of the requirements, this means the testing may not fulfil the requirements of the test plan - it is a project risk. d) Is not correct: If the test environment is not ready, this means the testing may not be done, or it may have to be done on a different environment and it is impacting how the project is run - it is a project risk.)

Which of the following tasks is MOST LIKELY to be performed by the test manager? a) Write test summary reports based on the information gathered during testing. b) Review tests developed by others. c) Create the detailed test execution schedule. d) Analyze, review, and assess requirements, specifications and models for testability

A (a) Correct: One of the typical tasks of a test manager from the syllabus (5.1.2). b) Is not correct: One of the typical tasks of a tester from the syllabus (5.1.2). c) Is not correct: One of the typical tasks of a tester from the syllabus (5.1.2). d) Is not correct: One of the typical tasks of a tester from the syllabus (5.1.2).)

Which of the following statements BEST describes how test cases are derived from a use case? a) Test cases are created to exercise defined basic, exceptional and error behaviors performed by the system under test in collaboration with actors. b) Test cases are derived by identifying the components included in the use case and creating integration tests that exercise the interactions of these components. c) Test cases are generated by analyzing the interactions of the actors with the system to ensure the user interfaces are easy to use. d) Test cases are derived to exercise each of the decision points in the business process flows of the use case, to achieve 100% decision coverage of these flows.

A (a) Correct: The syllabus (4.2.5) explains that each use case specifies some behavior that a subject can perform in collaboration with one or more actors. It also (later) explains that tests are designed to exercise the defined behaviors (basic, exceptional and errors). b) Is not correct: Use cases normally specify requirements, and so do not 'include' the components that will implement them. c) Is not correct: Tests based on use cases do exercise interactions between the actor and the system, but they are focused on the functionality and do not consider the ease of use of user interfaces. d) Is not correct: Tests do cover the use case paths through the use case, but there is no concept of decision coverage of these paths, and certainly not of business process flows.)

Which of the following is a true statement about exploratory testing? a) More experienced testers who have tested similar applications and technologies are likely to do better than less experienced testers at exploratory testing b) Exploratory testing does not identify any additional tests beyond those that would result from formal test techniques c) The time required to complete an exploratory testing session cannot be predicted in advance d) Exploratory testing can involve the use of black-box techniques but not white-box techniques

A (a) Is correct: exploratory testing is a form of experience-based testing, which benefits from the skills and experience of the tester, per section 4.4. b) Is not correct: per section 4.4.2, exploratory testing is useful to complement formal testing techniques. c) Is not correct: per section 4.4.2, in session-based test management, exploratory testing is conducted within a defined time-box, and the tester uses a test charter containing test objectives to guide the testing. d) Is not correct: per section 4.4.2, exploratory testing can incorporate the use of other black-box, white-box, and experience-based techniques referenced in this syllabus)

Which of the following tools is most useful for reporting test metrics? a) Test management tool b) Static analysis tool c) Coverage tool d) Security tool

A (a) Is correct: per 6.1.1, test management tools support the activities associated with test manager discussed in chapter 5, including metrics. b) Is not correct: per section 3.1, static code analysis metrics would have to do with the code only, not testing as a whole. c) Is not correct: per section 6.1.1., these tools report on test basis coverage and code coverage only, not testing as a whole. d) Is not correct: per section 6.1.1, security tools focus on one specific area, not testing as a whole.)

In a formal review, what is the role name for the participant who runs an inspection meeting? a) Facilitator b) Programmer c) Author d) Project manager

A (a) Is correct: per section 3.2.2, the facilitator or moderator runs the review meetings. b) Is not correct: this is not a role name for a formal review participant per section 3.2.2. c) Is not correct: per section 3.2.2, the facilitator or moderator runs the review meetings. d) Is not correct: per section 3.2.2, the facilitator or moderator runs the review meetings)

A batch application has been in production unchanged for over two years. It runs overnight once a month to produce statements that will be e-mailed to customers. For each customer, the application goes through every account and lists every transaction on that account in the last month. It uses a nested-loop structure to process customers (outer loop), each customer's accounts (middle loop), and each account's transactions (inner loop). One night, the batch application terminates prematurely, failing to e-mail statements to some customers, when it encounters a customer with one account for which no transactions occurred in the last month. This is a very unusual situation and has not occurred in the years since this application was placed in production. While fixing the defect, a programmer asks you to recommend test techniques that are effective against this kind of defect. Which of the following test techniques would most likely have been able to detect the underlying defect? a) Decision testing b) Statement testing c) Checklist-based testing d) Error guessing

A (a) Is correct: per section 4.3.3, for a loop construct, statement coverage only requires that all statements within the loop are executed, but decision coverage requires testing of both the conditions where the loop is executed and when it is bypassed. b) Is not correct: per section 4.3.3, for a loop construct, statement coverage only requires that all statements within the loop are executed, but decision coverage requires testing of both the conditions where the loop is executed and when it is bypassed. c) Is not correct: per section 4.4.3, checklists are based on experience, defect and failure data, knowledge about what is important for the user, and an understanding of why and how software fails, none of which is likely to have led to the inclusion of such a test condition. d) Is not correct: while, per section 4.4.1, it's possible that someone might anticipate a developer making the mistaken assumption that there would always be at least one transaction in a month for every account, only decision testing, per 4.4.3, guarantees testing of that condition.)

Which of the following is a common test metric often used to monitor BOTH test preparation and test execution? a) Test case status b) Defect find/fix rates c) Test environment preparation d) Estimated cost to find the next defect

A (a) Is correct: per section 5.3.1, percentage of test cases prepared is a common metric during test preparation while percentage of test cases passed, failed, not run, etc., are common during test execution. b) Is not correct: defect reports are typically filed during test execution, based on failures found (see section 5.6). c) Is not correct: test environment preparation is part implementation and would generally be complete before test execution (see section 1.4). d) Is not correct: defects are typically reported during test execution, based on failures found (see section 5.6), so the cost to find the next defect is available during test execution only.)

You have been given the following requirement: A user must log in to the system with a valid username and password. If they fail to enter the correct combination three times, they will receive an error and will have to wait 10 minutes before trying again. The test terminates when the user successfully logs in. How many test cases are needed to provide 100% state transition coverage? a. 1 b. 2 c. 4 d. 5

B

Consider the following list of undesirable outcomes that could occur on a mobile app development effort: A. Incorrect totals on reports B. Change to acceptance criteria during acceptance testing C. Users find the soft keyboard too hard to use with your app D. System responds too slowly to user input during search string entry E. Testers not allowed to report test results in daily standup meetings Which of the following properly classifies these outcomes as project and product risks? a) Product risks: B, E; Project risks: A, C, D b) Product risks: A, C, D; Project risks: B, E c) Product risks: A, C, D, E Project risks: B d) Product risks: A, C Project risks: B, D, E

B (As described in section 5.5.2, product risks exist when a work product may fail to satisfy legitimate needs, while project risks are situations that could have a negative impact on the project's ability to achieve its objectives. So: A. Incorrect totals on reports = product risk B. Change to acceptance criteria during acceptance testing = project risk C. Users find the soft keyboard too hard to use with your app = product risk D. System responds too slowly to user input during search string entry = product risk E. Testers not allowed to report test results in daily standup meetings = project risk Therefore, the correct and incorrect answers are as follows: a) Is not correct: this list is entirely backwards. b) Correct. c) Is not correct: while e is about product quality and product risks, the failure to communicate test results is a project risk per the syllabus. d) Is not correct: product risks can be functional and nonfunctional, so d is also a product risk.)

Who is normally responsible for the creation and update of a test plan for a project? a. The project manager b. The test manager c. The tester d. The product owner

B (B is correct per the syllabus. A is not correct. The PM is usually responsible for the overall project plan. C is not correct. The tester may contribute to the plan but is generally not responsible for writing it. D is not correct. The PO may contribute to the plan and review the plan, but they do not normally write the plan)

Which of the following test techniques uses the requirements specifications as a test basis? a. Structure-based b. Black-box c. White-box d. Exploratory

B (B is correct, per syllabus. Black-box testing is based off the requirements documents. A and C are incorrect because these use the structure of the software as the test basis. D is incorrect because exploratory testing is often done when there is no specification, thus giving the tester the opportunity to learn about the software while testing.)

If you have a section of code that has one simple IF statement, how many tests will be needed to achieve 100% decision coverage? a. 1 b. 2 c. 5 d. Unknown with this information

B (B is correct. A simple IF statement will be composed of If ... then ... else.... end if. There are two decision outcomes, one for the result of the If being true and one for it being false. Since 100% decision coverage requires at least one test case for each decision outcome, two tests are needed. A and C are incorrect because these are the wrong numbers of tests. D would be correct if this weren't defined as a simple if statement because a complex if statement could include more than two outcomes.)

If test cases are derived from looking at the code, what type of test design technique is being used? a. Black-box b. White-box c. Specification-based d. Behavior-based

B (B is correct. A, C and D are all black-box and use the specifications or requirements for the test design)

Which of the following is a true statement about exhaustive testing? a. It is a form of stress testing b. It is not feasible except in the case of trivial software c. It is commonly done with test automation d. It is normally the responsibility of the developer during unit testing

B (B is correct. Exhaustive testing, all combinations of inputs and preconditions, is not feasible unless the software is trivially simple.Otherwise it would take too long and might not even be possible.)

If a review session is led by the author of the work product, what type of review is it? a. Ad hoc b. Walkthrough c. Inspection d. Audit

B (B is correct. In a walkthrough, the author normally leads the review session. A is not correct as this is not normally an organized session. C is not correct because an inspection is normally led by the facilitator (moderator). D is not correct because an audit is usually led by a third party)

Which of the following is a true statement regarding the V-model lifecycle? a. Testing involvement starts when the code is complete b. The test process is integrated with the development process c. The software is built in increments and each increment has activities for requirements, design, build and test d. All activities for development and test are completed sequentially

B (B is correct. In the V-Model, testing activities are paired with each development activity. A and D are not correct. These behaviors are typical of a waterfall model. C is not correct. This is typical of an incremental model.)

What is the test basis? a. The point during software development when testing should start b. The body of knowledge used for test analysis and design c. The source to determine the actual results from a set of tests d. The method used to systematically devise test conditions

B (B is correct. Per the glossary, the test basis is "a source to determine expected results to compare with the actual result of the system under test". A is not correct because this is usually defined as the moment of involvement for testing. C is not correct because this is the test oracle. D is not correct because the test basis is not a method)

Why is software testing sometimes required for legal reasons? a. It prevents developers from suing testers b. Contracts may specify testing requirements that must be fulfilled c. International laws require software testing for exported products d. Testing across systems must be accompanied by legal documentation

B (B is correct. Software testing may be required to meet contractual requirements and commitments and penalties are sometimes assessed when quality goals are not met. A is not correct because lawsuits, unfortunately, are not limited. C is not correct because there are not international laws covering all exported products. D is not correct because cross system testing may occur within an organization and require no legal documentation.)

Which testing technique would be most effective in determining and improving the maintainability of the code (assuming developers fix what is found)? a. Peer reviews b. Static analysis c. Dynamic testing d. Unit testing

B (B is correct. Static analysis with tools will give the best results for improving maintainability and ensuring adherence to good coding practices. A may help, but depending on the peer, it may just reinforce bad habits. C is unlikely to help because only failures will be observed, not the underlying code. D may help, but since it's usually done by the developer who wrote the code, it's unlikely to highlight maintenance issues.)

Which of the following best describes the behaviors defined in a use case that should be covered by tests? a. Positive path and negative path b. Basic, exception and error c. Normal, error, data, and integration d. Control flow, data flow and decision paths

B (B is correct. The basic, exception and error behaviors should be covered with tests for a use case. A good use case should define all of these. A is not correct. Positive path equals the basic behavior and negative path equals the error behavior but neither handles the exception paths. C and D are not correct as they are investigating areas that would not be covered in a use case)

Consider the following test cases that are used to test an accounting system: TestID | Name | Dependency | Priority 1 | Purchase Item | None | 2 2 | Receive Invoice | Test 1 | 3 3 | Receive Goods | Test 1 | 2 4 | Send Payment | Test 2 | 3 5 | Report Payments | Test 4 | 1 Given this information, what is the proper order in which to execute these test cases? a. 5, 1, 3, 2, 4 b. 1, 2, 4, 5, 3 c. 1, 3, 2, 4, 5 d. 3, 4, 5, 1, 2

B (B is correct. The goal is to run the highest priority tests as soon as possible. Dependency has to be considered in order for the tests to actually be executed. In order to get the highest priority test run as soon as possible, the correct order is as follows: test 1 has to go first since everything else is dependent on it. Then we need to do 2 so we can do 4 and 5 (the highest priority test) and then 3 is last because 5 is not dependent on it. A is not correct because 5 cannot be run first. C is not correct because it does not run 5 as soon as possible; it defers it until after 3 is run. D is not correct because 3 can't be run first as it requires 1 and 2.)

When exploratory testing is conducted using time-boxing and test charters, what is it called? a. Schedule-based testing b. Session-based testing c. Risk-based testing d. Formal chartering

B (B is correct. This is often called session-based testing and may use session sheets. A is not correct. Exploratory doesn't usually comply to schedules but rather allows the tester to explore and learn about the software. Coverage is difficult to assess which is one of the reasons it is difficult to match the time spent to the amount accomplished. C is not correct. This may be one of the forms of risk-based testing, but it is not entirely RBT. D is not correct as this is not actually a testing term)

What type of activity is normally used to find and fix a defect in the code? a. Regression testing b. Debugging c. Dynamic analysis d. Static analysis

B (B is correct. This normally occurs during debugging)

Usability testing is an example of which type of testing? a. Functional b. Non-functional c. Structural d. Change-related

B (B is correct. Usability is one of the non-functional test types according to ISO 25010)

Use cases are a test basis for which level of testing? a. Unit b. System c. Load and performance d. Usability

B (B is correct. Use cases are a good test basis for system testing because they include end-to-end transaction scenarios. A is not correct because unit testing concentrates on individual components, not transactions. C and D are not testing levels)

If the author of the code is leading a code review for other developers and testers, what type of review is it? a. An informal development review b. A walkthrough c. An inspection d. An audit

B (B is correct. When the author of the document being reviewed is leading the review, this is a typically a walkthrough. A is not correct because there is a group of people conversing in the review rather than a more formal review meeting. C is a formal review type and the facilitator (moderator) would lead the review. D is not correct because an audit is normally conducted by a third party external to the team.)

You are testing a machine that scores exam papers and assigns grades. Based on the score achieved the grades are as follows: 1-49 = F, 50-59 = D-, 60-69 = D, 70-79 = C, 80-89 = B, 90-100=A If you apply equivalence partitioning, how many test cases will you need to achieve minimum test coverage? a. 6 b. 8 c. 10 d. 12

B (B is correct. You need a test for the invalid too low (0 or less), one for each valid partition, and one for invalid too high (>100). It may not allow you to enter a value > 100, but it should be tested to make sure it provides a proper error)

You are running a performance test with the objective of finding possible network bottlenecks in interfaces between components of a system. Which of the following statements describes this test? a) A functional test during the integration test level b) A non-functional test during the integration test level c) A functional test during the component test level d) A non-functional test during the component test level

B (See section 2.2 for the description of component and integration test levels, and section 2.3 for the description of functional and non-functional tests. a) Is not correct: while this test does match the description of an integration test, it is a non-functional test. b) Is correct: this test matches the description of an integration test and it is a non-functional test. c) Is not correct: this test doesn't match the description of a component test and it is not a functional test. d) Is not correct: while this test is a non-functional test, it doesn't match the description of a component test.)

You are testing a mobile app that allows users to find a nearby restaurant, based on the type of food they want to eat. Consider the following list of test cases, priorities (smaller number is high priority), and dependencies, in the following format: Test Case # Test Condition Covered Priority Logical Dependency 01.001 Select type of food 3 none 01.002 Select restaurant 2 01.001 01.003 Get directions 1 01.002 01.004 Call restaurant 1 01.002 01.005 Make reservation 3 01.002 Which of the following is a possible test execution schedule that considers both priorities and dependencies? a) 01.001, 01.002, 01.003, 01.005, 01.004 b) 01.001, 01.002, 01.004, 01.003, 01.005 c) 01.003, 01.004, 01.002, 01.001, 01.002 d) 01.001, 01.002, 01.004, 01.005, 01.003

B (Test 01.001 must come first, followed by 01.002, to satisfy dependencies. Afterwards, 01.004 and 01.003 should be run in either order, followed by 01.005, to satisfy priority. Therefore, the answer is b.)

Given the following priorities and dependencies for these test cases: TestCase Priority Technical Logical TC1 High TC4 - TC2 Low - - TC3 High - TC4 TC4 Medium - - TC5 Low - TC2 TC6 Medium TC5 - Which of the following test execution schedules BEST considers the priorities and technical and logical dependencies? a) TC1 - TC3 - TC4 - TC6 - TC2 - TC5 b) TC4 - TC3 - TC1 - TC2 - TC5 - TC6 c) TC4 - TC1 - TC3 - TC5 - TC6 - TC2 d) TC4 - TC2 - TC5 - TC1 - TC3 - TC6

B (The test cases should be scheduled in priority order, but the schedule must also take account of the dependencies. The two highest priority test cases (TC1 and TC3) are both dependent on TC4, so the first three test cases should be scheduled as either TC4 - TC1 - TC3 or TC4 - TC3 - TC1 (we have no way to discriminate between TC1 and TC3). Next, we need to consider the remaining medium priority test case, TC6. TC6 is dependent on TC5, but TC5 is dependent on TC2, so the next two three cases must be scheduled as TC2 - TC5 - TC6. This means there are two possible optimal schedules: TC4 - TC1 - TC3 - TC2 - TC5 - TC6 or TC4 - TC3 - TC1 - TC2 - TC5 - TC6 Thus, option B is correct.)

Which of the following is LEAST likely to be an example of product risk analysis CORRECTLY influencing the testing? a) The potential impact of security flaws has been identified as being particularly high, so security testing has been prioritized ahead of some other testing activities. b) Testing has found the quality of the network module to be higher than expected, so additional testing will now be performed in that area. c) The users had problems with the user interface of the previous system, so additional usability testing is planned for the replacement system. d) The time needed to load web pages is crucial to the success of the new website, so an expert in performance testing has been employed for this project.

B (a) Is not correct: As we are told security flaws have a particularly high impact, their risk level will be higher, and thus we have prioritized the security testing ahead of some other testing. Thus, product risk analysis has influenced the testing. b) Correct: As less defects than expected have been found in the network module, the perceived risk in this area should be lower, and so less testing should be focused on this area, NOT additional testing. Thus, product risk analysis has NOT CORRECTLY influenced the testing in this situation. c) Is not correct: Because the users had problems with the user interface of the previous system, there is now high awareness of the risk associated with the user interface, which has resulted in additional usability testing being planned. Thus, product risk analysis has influenced the thoroughness and scope of testing. d) Is not correct: As the time needed to load web pages has been identified as crucial to the success of the new website, the performance of the website should be considered a risk, and the employment of an expert in performance testing helps to mitigate this risk. Thus, product risk analysis has influenced the testing.)

Which of the following descriptions of statement coverage is CORRECT? a) Statement coverage is a measure of the number of lines of source code (minus comments) exercised by tests. b) Statement coverage is a measure of the proportion of executable statements in the source code exercised by tests. c) Statement coverage is a measure of the percentage of lines of source code exercised by tests. d) Statement coverage is a measure of the number of executable statements in the source code exercised by tests.

B (a) Is not correct: Statement coverage is a measure of the proportion of executable statements exercised. The number of executable statements is often close to the number of lines of code minus the comments, but this option only talks about the number of lines of code exercised and not the proportion exercised. b) Correct: Statement coverage is a measure of the proportion of executable statements exercised (normally presented as a percentage), per syllabus (4.3.1). c) Is not correct: Statement coverage is a measure of the percentage of executable statements exercised, however many of the lines of source code are not executable (e.g. comments). d) Is not correct: Statement coverage is a measure of the proportion of executable statements exercised. This option only talks about the number of executable statements exercised and not the proportion (or percentage) exercised)

Which of the following is an example of a task that can be carried out as part of the test process? a) Analyzing a defect b) Designing test data c) Assigning a version to a test item d) Writing a user story

B (a) Is not correct: analyzing a defect is part of debugging, not testing, per section 1.1.2 b) Is correct: creating test data is a test implementation task per section 1.4.2. c) Is not correct: while a tester may need to identify a test item's version for results reporting purposes, assigning a test item's version is part of configuration management, per section 5.4 d) Is not correct: writing a user story is not a testing activity and should be done by the product owner)

A product owner says that your role as a tester on an Agile team is to catch all the bugs before the end of each iteration. Which of the following is a testing principle that could be used to respond to this statement? a) Defect clustering b) Testing shows the presence of defects c) Absence of error fallacy d) Root cause analysis

B (a) Is not correct: defect clustering has to do with where defects are most likely to be found, not whether all of them can be found. b) Is correct: testing can show the presence of defects but cannot prove their absence, which makes it impossible to know if you have caught all the bugs. Further, the impossibility of exhaustive testing makes it impossible for you to catch all the bugs. c) Is not correct: this principle says that you can find and remove many bugs but still release an unsuccessful software product, which is not what the product owner is asking you to ensure. d) Is not correct: root cause analysis is not a testing principle.)

During a period of intensive project overtime, a system architecture document is sent to various project participants, announcing a previously-unplanned technical review to occur in one week. No adjustments are made to the participants' list of assigned tasks. Based on this information alone, which of the following is a factor for review success that is MISSING? a) Appropriate review type b) Adequate time to prepare c) Sufficient metrics to evaluate the author d) Well-managed review meeting

B (a) Is not correct: per section 3.2.3, technical reviews are appropriate for technical documents such as a system architecture. b) Is correct: per section 3.2.5, adequate time for preparation is important, but people are working overtime and no adjustments are made for this new set of tasks. c) Is not correct: per section 3.2.5, gathering metrics from a review to evaluate participants is a factor that leads to failure, not success, because it destroys trust. d) Is not correct: per section 3.2.5, a well-managed review meeting is important, but there is no reason to think the review meeting will not be well managed based on the information provided)

Prior to an iteration planning session, you are studying a user story and its acceptance criteria, deriving test conditions and associated test cases from the user story as a way of applying the principle of early QA and test. What test technique are you applying? a) White-box b) Black-box c) Experience-based d) Error guessing

B (a) Is not correct: per section 4.1.2, structure-based or white-box techniques are based on an analysis of the architecture, detailed design, internal structure, or the code of the test object. b) Is correct: per section 4.1.2, behavior-based or black-box techniques are based on an analysis of the appropriate test basis (e.g., formal requirements documents, specifications, use cases, user stories, or business processes), which describe functional and non-functional behavior. c) Is not correct: per section 4.1.2, experience-based techniques leverage the experience of developers, testers, and users to determine what should be tested. d) Is not correct: per section 4.4.1, error guessing is a type of experience-based testing, which is not black-box)

You are engaged in planning a test effort for a new mobile banking application. As part of estimation, you first meet with the proposed testers and others on the project. The team is well-coordinated and has already worked on similar projects. To verify the resulting estimate, you then refer to some industry averages for testing effort and costs on similar projects, published by a reputable consultant. Which statement accurately describes your estimation approach? a) A simultaneous expert-based and metrics-based approach b) Primarily an expert-based approach, augmented with a metrics-based approach c) Primarily a metrics-based approach, augmented with an expert-based approach d) Primarily planning poker, checked by velocity from burndown charts.

B (a) Is not correct: the two methods are used sequentially, not simultaneously. b) Is correct: the primary sources of information come from the experienced testers, who are the experts. The consultant's industry averages augment the original estimate from published metrics. c) Is not correct: the expert-based approach is the primary approach, augmented by a metrics-based approach. d) Is not correct: we do not know if this project is following Agile methods, and burndown charts do not come from external consultants.)

What is quality? a) Part of quality management focused on providing confidence that quality requirements will be fulfilled. b) The degree to which a component, system or process meets specified requirements and/or user/customer needs and expectations. c) The degree to which a component or system protects information and data so that persons or other components or systems have the degree of access appropriate to their types and levels of authorization. d) The total costs incurred on quality activities and issues and often split into prevention costs, appraisal costs, internal failure costs and external failure costs.

B (a) Is not correct: this is the Glossary definition of quality assurance. b) Is correct: this is the Glossary definition of quality. c) Is not correct: this is the Glossary definition of security. d) Is not correct: this is the Glossary definition of cost of quality.)

You are working on a video game development project, using Agile methods. It is based on Greek mythology and history, and players can play key roles in scenarios such as the battles between the Greeks and Trojans. Consider the following user story and its associated acceptance criteria: As a player, I want to be able to acquire the Rod of Midas (a new magic object), so that I can turn objects and other players into gold AC1: The Rod must work on any object or player, no matter what size, which can be touched anywhere by the player holding the Rod AC2: Holding the Rod does not change the player holding it into gold AC3: Any object or player touched by the Rod transforms completely into gold within one millisecond AC4: The Rod appears as shown in Prototype O.W.RoM AC5: The transformation starts at the point of contact with the Rod and moves at a rate of one meter per millisecond You are participating in a checklist-based review session of this user story. This user story and its associated acceptance criteria contain which of the following typical defects identified by static testing in this type of work product? a) Deviation from standards b) Contradiction c) Security vulnerability d) Coverage gaps

B (a) Is not correct: while deviation from standards is a typical defect per section 3.1.3, we aren't given any standard with which the user stories should comply. b) Is correct: section 3.1.3 lists contradiction as a typical requirements defect. AC3 and AC5 conflict if the Rod is touched to an object that extends more than 1 meter in any direction from the point at which touched, since AC1 does not limit the size of the objects to be touched. c) Is not correct: while security vulnerabilities are typical defects per section 3.1.3, there is nothing here related to security. d) Is not correct: while test coverage gaps are typical defects per section 3.1.3, including missing tests for acceptance criteria, we are not provided with any information about which tests do and don't exist.)

You are defining the process for carrying out product risk analysis as part of each iteration on an Agile project. Which of the following is the proper place to document this process in a test plan? a) Scope of testing b) Approach of testing c) Metrics of testing d) Configuration management of the test object

B (a) Is not correct: while scope is a topic addressed in a test plan per section 5.2.1, the implementation of a risk-based testing strategy on this project is the approach, so this topic should be addressed in that section. b) Is correct: approach is a topic addressed in a test plan per section 5.2.1, and the implementation of a risk-based testing strategy on this project is the approach. c) Is not correct: while metrics for test monitoring and control is a topic addressed in a test plan per section 5.2.1, the implementation of a risk-based testing strategy on this project is the approach, so this topic should be addressed in that section. d) Is not correct: configuration management is not a topic addressed in a test plan per section 5.2.1.)

When the tester verifies the test basis while designing tests early in the lifecycle, which common test objective is being achieved? a. Gaining confidence b. Finding defects c. Preventing defects d. Providing information for decision making

C (C is correct per the syllabus. The other three are achieved primarily by doing dynamic testing. This is a bit tricky because you are very likely to find defects while doing this analysis and this may lead to either gaining or destroying confidence and needing to supply information to the decision makers. However, the wording of the question matches the wording in the syllabus that defines preventing defects.)

When a system is targeted for decommissioning, what type of maintenance testing may be required? a. Retirement testing b. Regression testing c. Data migration testing d. Patch testing

C (C is correct, per syllabus. Data migration to another system or data migration to an archival system may be needed. A is incorrect, there is no such testing type. B is incorrect because this is more appropriate for current systems, not the system being retired. D is incorrect because this is of no use for a system being retired.)

You are testing a scale system that determines shipping rates for a regional web-based auto parts distributor. Due to regulations, shipments cannot exceed 100 lbs. You want to include boundary value analysis as part of your black-box test design. How many tests will you need to execute to achieve 100% two-value boundary value analysis? Weight 1-10lb 11-25lb 26-50lb 51-100lb Shipping Cost $5 $7.5 $12 $17 a. 4 b. 8 c. 10 d. 12

C (C is correct. 2 per valid weight range plus one for a negative weight and one for a weight exceeding 100 lbs (-1, 0, 10, 11, 25, 26, 50, 51, 100, 101).)

You are participating in a role-based review session. Your assigned role is that of a senior citizen. The product is an online banking application that is targeted for use on smart phones. You are currently reviewing the user interface of the product with a prototype that works on iPhones. Which of the following is an area that you should review? a. The speed of response from the banking backend b. The attractiveness of the application c. The size and clarity of the instruction text d. The reliability of the application when the connection is dropped

C (C is correct. As a senior citizen, you should be checking that the size of the instruction text is clearly readable and you should verify that the instructions will make sense to a senior citizen. A is not correct because this is not particular to your role as senior citizens are generally not as time compressed as younger users. B is not correct. Although it is nice, attractiveness tends to be very subjective and is difficult to evaluate at a role level. D is not correct because the reliability will be assumed by the senior citizen. This should be reviewed by the technical users and people on the go who are likely to move between covered and not covered zones.)

Which of the following is an extension of equivalence partitioning? a. Decision tables b. Decision testing c. Boundary value analysis d. State transition testing

C (C is correct. BVA is an extension of EP, looking at the boundaries on the edges of the partitions (or classes) of values.)

You have been receiving daily builds from the developers. Even though they are documenting the fixes they are including in each build, you are finding that the fixes either aren't in the build or are not working. What type of testing is best suited for finding these issues? a. Unit testing b. System testing c. Confirmation testing d. Regression testing

C (C is correct. Confirmation testing will determine if a fix is present in a build and if it actually fixes the defect it is supposed to fix. A is not correct because this would be conducted by the developer as they fix the issues. While it might catch a fix that doesn't work, it's not likely to catch the check-in/build process that is excluding the fix from the build. B is not correct because system testing will take longer to pinpoint this problem and may result in more troubleshooting time when the problem is discovered again. D is not correct because this is the testing that is done to see if there have been any unintended changes in the software's behavior.)

Which of the following is the activity that removes the cause of a failure? a. Testing b. Dynamic testing c. Debugging d. Reverse engineering

C (C is correct. Debugging is the process of finding, analyzing and removing the causes of failures in software. A and B are incorrect because they will find the failure caused by a defect. D is incorrect. Reverse engineering is a process for determining the source code from the object code.)ddddd

Which of the following is an example of debugging? a. A tester finds a defect and reports it b. A tester retests a fix from the developer and finds a regression c. A developer finds and fixes a defect d. A developer performs unit testing

C (C is correct. Debugging is what the developer does to identify the cause of the defect, analyze it and fix it. D may involve debugging, if the developer finds a defect, but the act of unit testing is not the same as debugging.)

You are testing a thermostat for a heating/air conditioning system. You have been given the following requirements: • When the temperature is below 70 degrees, turn on the heating system • When the temperature is above 75 degrees, turn on the air conditioning system • When the temperature is between 70 and 75 degrees, inclusive, turn on fan only Which of the following is the minimum set of test temperature values to achieve 100% two-value boundary value analysis coverage? a. 70, 75 b. 65, 72, 80 c. 69, 70, 75, 76 d. 70, 71, 74, 75, 76

C (C is correct. For the heating system, the values to test are 69, 70. For the air conditioning system, the values are 75, 76 For the fan only, the values are 69, 70, 75, 76 <-- 69 | 70 - 75 | 76 -> The proper test set combines all these values, 69, 70, 75, 76)

You are getting ready to test another upgrade of an ERP system. The previous upgrade was tested by your team and has been in production for several years. For this situation, which of the following is the most appropriate test effort estimation technique? a. Effort-based b. Expert-based c. Metric-based d. Schedule-based

C (C is correct. In this case, you should have access to the effort that was required on the previous version of the ERP system and you should be able to use that information to predict the effort for this release. A and D are not correct because these are not estimation techniques. B is not correct because it's better to use internal metrics.)

Which of the following are major objectives of a pilot project for a tool introduction? a. Roll out, adapt, train, implement b. Monitor, support, revise, implement c. Learn, evaluate, decide, assess d. Evaluate, adapt, monitor, support

C (C is correct. Learn more about the tool, evaluate the fit in the organization, decide on standard usage and assess benefits to be achieved are all objectives for a pilot project.)

A metric that tracks the number of test cases executed is gathered during which activity in the test process? a. Planning b. Implementation c. Execution d. Reporting

C (C is correct. Test execution metrics are gathered during the Test Execution activity. These metrics are used in reporting.)

A new retail product was released to production by your company. Shortly after the release it was apparent that there were numerous problems with the point of sale application. This resulted in a number of customer complaints and negative postings on social media encouraging people to take their business to your competitor. You have investigated the problems and have discovered that the production point of sale equipment is a later model than the model used in testing. The software functions correctly on the old version, but fails on the later model. Given this scenario, what is the root cause and what is the effect? a. The root cause is the old equipment and the effect is the new equipment b. The root cause is the customer complaints and the effect is the social media postings c. The root cause is conducting the testing on the wrong version of the equipment and the effect is the customer complaints and postings d. The root cause is the software failing on the later model and the effect is the customer complaints

C (C is correct. The root cause is that the testing, and maybe the development, were conducted on the wrong version of the POS equipment. The effect of the problem is the customer complaints and the social media postings.)

In a formal review, which role is normally responsible for documenting all the open issues? a. The facilitator b. The author c. The scribe d. The manager

C (C is correct. The scribe is normally responsible for documenting all issues, problems and open points. The author may take notes as well, but that is not their primary role.)

Which of the following variances should be explained in the Test Summary Report? a. The variances between the weekly status reports and the test exit criteria b. The variances between the defects found and the defects fixed c. The variances between what was planned for testing and what was actually tested d. The variances between the test cases executed and the total number of test cases

C (C is correct. The variances or deviations between the test plan and the testing that was actually done must be explained in the test summary report. A is not correct because if the weekly status reports have been tracking incorrectly to the test exit criteria, something is wrong and should have been caught a lot earlier. B is not correct because this information should be included in the test summary report, but a variance is expected. D is not correct because this should be tracked in the metrics section of the report rather than as a variance.)

You are testing an e-commerce transaction that has the following states and transitions: 1. Login (invalid) > Login 2. Login > Search 3. Search > Search 4. Search > Shopping Cart 5. Shopping Cart > Search 6. Shopping Cart > Checkout 7. Checkout > Search 8. Checkout > Logout For a state transition diagram, how many transitions should be shown? a. 4 b. 6 c. 8 d. 16

C (C is correct. There are 8 transitions that should be shown in the state transition diagram as explained in the question. A is not correct as this is only checking one transition from each state. B is not correct because this is probably excluding login > login and search > search. D is not correct because it is checking the invalid transitions as well and those would be included in a state table, not a state transition diagram. These are: 1. Login (invalid) > Login 2. Login > Search 3. Login > Shopping Cart (invalid transition) 4. Login > Checkout (invalid transition) 5. Search > Login (invalid transition) 6. Search > Search 7. Search > Shopping Cart 8. Search > Checkout (invalid transition) 9. Shopping Cart > Login (invalid transition) 10.Shopping Cart > Search 11.Shopping Cart > Shopping Cart (invalid transition) 12.Shopping Cart > Checkout 1 3.Checkout > Login (invalid transition) 14.Checkout > Search 15.Checkout > Shopping Cart (invalid transition) 16.Checkout > Logout)

If you are using error guessing to target your testing, which type of testing are you doing? a. Specification-based b. Structure-based c. Experience-based d. Reference-based

C (C is correct. This is an experience-based technique.)

What is the biggest problem with a developer testing his own code? a. Developers are not good testers b. Developers are not quality focused c. Developers are not objective about their own code d. Developers do not have time to test their own code

C (C is correct. This is the biggest problem. A and B are not necessarily true - some developers are good testers and have a good quality focus. D is not correct because unit testing is part of their job and time should be made in the schedule for at least unit testing.)

You are preparing for a review of a mobile application that will allow users to transfer money between bank accounts from different banks. Security is a concern with this application and the previous version of this application had numerous security vulnerabilities (some of which were found by hackers). It is very important that this doesn't happen again. Given this information, what type of review technique would be most appropriate? a. Ad hoc b. Role-based c. Checklist-based d. Scenario

C (C is correct. This review should be conducted with checklist guidance with the checklist including security vulnerabilities. A is not correct because this will not provide the needed guidance. B is not correct because the roles are not a concern - even the hacker role - compared to checking the vulnerabilities. D is not correct because the concern is about the security vulnerabilities, not the functionality of the product.)

If your test strategy is based off the list of the ISO 25010 quality characteristics, what type of strategy is it? a. Regulatory b. Analytical c. Methodical d. Reactive

C (C is correct. When tests are derived from a systematic use of a preset list of quality characteristics, this is a methodical strategy. A is not correct because this is not a regulation. B is not correct because it is based off the predefined list rather than an analysis. D is not correct because it is not responding to the software's behavior, but rather following something that is already defined.)

Who normally writes the test plan for a project? a. The project manager b. The product owner c. The test manager d. The tester

C (C is correct. Writing and updating the test plan is normally the responsibility of the test manager. A, B and D may contribute to the test plan, but the overall responsibility belongs to the test manager)

You are testing a scale system that determines shipping rates for a regional web-based auto parts distributor. You want to group your test conditions to minimize the testing. Identify how many equivalence classes are necessary for the following range. Weights are rounded to the nearest pound. Weight 1-10lb 11-25lb 26-50lb 51lb&up Shipping Cost $5 $7.5 $12 $17 a. 8 b. 6 c. 5 d. 4

C (C is correct. You need a partition for each of the 4 classes and one for a zero or negative weight.)

You have been given the following conditions and results from those condition combinations. Given this information, using the decision table technique, what is the minimum number of test cases you would need to test these conditions? Conditions: Valid Cash Valid Credit Card Valid Debit Card Valid Pin Bank Accepts Valid Selection Item in Stock Results: Reject Cash Reject Card Error Message Return Cash Refund Card Sell Item a. 7 b. 13 c. 15 d. 18

C (C is correct.)

You are testing an e-commerce system that sells cooking supplies such as spices, flour, and other items in bulk. The units in which the items are sold are either grams (for spices and other expensive items) or kilograms (for flour and other inexpensive items). Regardless of the units, the smallest valid order amount is 0.5 units (e.g., half a gram of cardamom pods) and the largest valid order amount is 25.0 units (e.g., 25 kilograms of sugar). The precision of the units field is 0.1 units. Which of the following is a MINIMAL set of input values that cover the equivalence partitions for this field? a) 10.0, 28.0 b) 0.4, 0.5, 25.0, 25.1 c) 0.2, 0.9, 29.5 d) 12.3

C (Per 4.2.2, there are three equivalence partitions, with the boundaries as shown: - Invalid too low (0.4 and below) - Valid (0.5 to 25.0) - Invalid too high (25.1 and above) So, the correct and incorrect answers are as follows: a) Is not correct: only two of the equivalence partitions are covered in this set of tests. b) Is not correct: each of those four boundary values are included in this set of tests, but the question asked for equivalence partition coverage with minimal tests, so either 0.5 or 25.0 should be dropped. c) Is correct: each of these three equivalence partitions are covered in this set of tests. d) Is not correct: only one of those equivalence partitions is covered by this test)

You are testing an e-commerce system that sells cooking supplies such as spices, flour, and other items in bulk. The units in which the items are sold are either grams (for spices and other expensive items) or kilograms (for flour and other inexpensive items). Regardless of the units, the smallest valid order amount is 0.5 units (e.g., half a gram of cardamom pods) and the largest valid order amount is 25.0 units (e.g., 25 kilograms of sugar). The precision of the units field is 0.1 units. Which of the following is a set of input values that cover the boundary values with two-point boundary values for this field? a) 0.3, 10.0, 28.0 b) 0.4, 0.5, 0.6, 24,9,25,0, 25.1 c) 0.4, 0.5, 25.0 25.1 d) 0.5, 0.6, 24.9, 25.0

C (Per 4.2.2, there are three equivalence partitions, with the boundaries as shown: - Invalid too low (0.4 and below) - Valid (0.5 to 25.0) - Invalid too high (25.1 and above) So, the correct and incorrect answers are as follows: a) Is not correct: none of those four boundary values are included in this set of tests. These tests do cover the equivalence partitions. b) Is not correct: all of these four boundary values are included in this set of tests, but two additional values are included, one for each boundary. These are the values associated with threepoint boundary value analysis. c) Is correct: each of those four two-point boundary values are included in this set of tests. d) Is not correct: these four values are all included in the valid partition)

Consider the following decision table for the portion of an online airline reservation system that allows frequent flyers to redeem points for reward travel: Condition 1 2 3 Account/password okay N Y Y Sufficient points - N Y Action Show flight history N Y Y Allow reward travel N N Y Suppose that there are two equivalence partitions for the condition where Account/password okay is not true, one where the account is invalid and another where the account is valid but the password is invalid. Suppose that there is only one equivalence partition corresponding to the condition where Account/password okay is true, where both the account and password are valid. If you want to design tests to cover the equivalence partitions for Account/password okay and also for this portion of the decision table, what is the minimum number of tests required? a) 2 b) 3 c) 4 d) 9

C (Per section 4.2.3, there is at least one test for each column in the decision table. However, column one requires two tests, one where the account is invalid and another where the account is valid but the password is invalid, so the minimum number of tests is four. Therefore, the answer is c.)

Consider the following types of defects that a test level might focus on: 1. Defects in separately testable modules or objects 2. Not focused on identifying defects 3. Defects in interfaces and interactions 4. Defects in the whole test object Which of the following list correctly matches test levels from the Foundation syllabus with the defect focus options given above? a) 1 = performance test; 2 = component test; 3 = system test; 4 = acceptance test b) 1 = component test; 2 = acceptance test; 3 = system test; 4 = integration test c) 1 = component test; 2 = acceptance test; 3 = integration test; 4 = system test d) 1 = integration test; 2 = system test; 3 = component test; 4 = acceptance test

C (Performance testing is a test type per section 2.3, not a test level. Per section 2.2., component testing focuses on defects in separately testable modules or objects, integration testing on defects in interfaces and interactions, system testing on defects in the whole test object, and acceptance testing is not typically focused on identifying defects. Therefore, c is the correct answer)

Given the following test activities and test tools: 1. Performance measurement and dynamic analysis. 2. Test execution and logging. 3. Management of testing and testware. 4. Test design. A. Requirements coverage tools. B. Dynamic analysis tools. C. Test data preparation tools. D. Defect management tools. Which of the following BEST matches the activities and tools? a) 1 - B, 2 - C, 3 - D, 4 - A b) 1 - B, 2 - A, 3 - C, 4 - D c) 1 - B, 2 - A, 3 - D, 4 - C d) 1 - A, 2 - B, 3 - D, 4 - C

C (The correct pairings of test activities and test tools are, per syllabus (6.1.1): 1. Performance measurement and dynamic analysis - (b) Dynamic analysis tools 2. Test execution and logging - (a) Requirements coverage tools 3. Management of testing and testware - (d) Defect management tools 4. Test design - (c) Test data preparation tools Thus, option C is correct.)

A smart home app measures the average temperature in the house over the previous week and provides feedback to the occupants on their environmental-friendliness based on this temperature. The feedback for different average temperature ranges (to the nearest °C) should be: Up to 10°C - Icy Cool! 11°C to 15°C - Chilled Out! 16°C to 19°C - Cool Man! 20°C to 22°C - Too Warm! Above 22°C - Hot & Sweaty! Using two-point BVA, which of the following sets of test inputs provides the highest level of boundary coverage? a) 0°C, 11°C, 20°C, 22°C, 23°C b) 9°C, 15°C, 19°C, 23°C, 100°C c) 10°C, 16°C, 19°C, 22°C, 23°C d) 14°C, 15°C, 18°C, 19°C, 21°C, 22°C

C (The input equivalence partitions, with two-point boundary values, can be represented as the number of boundary values covered by the test inputs is therefore: a) 0°C 11°C 20°C 22°C 23°C → 4 (11, 20, 22 and 23) b) 9°C 15°C 19°C 23°C 100°C → 3 (15, 19 and 23) c) 10°C 16°C 19°C 22°C 23°C → 5 (10, 16, 19, 22 and 23) d) 14°C 15°C 18°C 19°C 21°C 22°C → 3 (15, 19 and 22) Thus, option C is correct.)

Which of the following statements about test estimation approaches is CORRECT? a) With the metrics-based approach, the estimate is based on test measures from the project and so this estimate is only available after the testing starts. b) With the expert-based approach, a group of expert users identified by the client recommends the necessary testing budget. c) With the expert-based approach, the test managers responsible for the different testing activities predict the expected testing effort. d) With the metrics-based approach, an average of the testing costs recorded from several past projects is used as the testing budget

C (a) Is not correct: Estimates may be updated as more information becomes available, but estimates are needed to assist with planning before the testing starts. b) Is not correct: In the expert-based approach, the experts need to be experts in testing, not in using the test object. c) Correct: Test -Managers, who will be leading testers doing the testing, are considered experts in their respective areas and suitable for estimating the necessary resources needed. d) Is not correct: While it is useful to know the testing costs from previous projects, a more sophisticated approach is needed than simply taking an average of past projects (the new project may not be like the previous projects, e.g. it may be far larger or far smaller than previous projects).)

Which of the following BEST defines risk level? a) Risk level is calculated by adding together the probabilities of all problem situations and the financial harm that results from them. b) Risk level is estimated by multiplying the likelihood of a threat to the system by the chance that the threat will occur and will result in financial damage c) Risk level is determined by a combination of the probability of an undesirable event and the expected impact of that event. d) Risk level is the sum of all potential hazards to a system multiplied by the sum of all potential losses from that system.

C (a) Is not correct: Risk is determined by considering a combination of the likelihood of problem situations and the harm that may result from them but cannot be calculated by adding these together (the probability would be in the range 0 to 1 and the harm could be in dollars). b) Is not correct: Risk is determined by considering a combination of a likelihood and an impact. This definition only considers likelihood and chance (both forms of probability) with no consideration of the impact (or harm). c) Correct: As described in the syllabus (5.5.1). d) Is not correct: Risk is determined by considering a combination of a likelihood and an impact. This definition only considers hazards and losses (a hazard is a bad event, like a risk, while loss is a form of impact) with no consideration of the likelihood (or probability).)

Which of the following BEST describes the concept behind error guessing? a) Error guessing requires you to imagine you are the user of the test object and guess mistakes the user could make interacting with it. b) Error guessing involves using your personal experience of development and the mistakes you made as a developer. c) Error guessing involves using your knowledge and experience of defects found in the past and typical mistakes made by developers. d) Error guessing requires you to rapidly duplicate the development task to identify the sort of mistakes a developer might make.

C (a) Is not correct: error guessing is not a usability technique for guessing how users may fail to interact with the test object. b) Is not correct: Although a tester who used to be a developer may use their personal experience to help them when performing error guessing, the technique is not based on prior knowledge of development. c) Correct: The basic concept behind error guessing is that the tester tries to guess what mistakes may have been made by the developer and what defects may be in the test object based on past-experience (and sometimes checklists). d) Is not correct: Duplicating the development task has several flaws that make it impractical, such as the requirement for the tester to have equivalent skills to the developer and the time involved in performing the development. It is not error guessing)

You are working as a project manager on an in-house banking software project. To prevent rework and excessive find/fix/retest cycles, the following process has been put in place for resolving a defect once it is found in the test lab: 1. The assigned developer finds and fixes the defect, then creates an experimental build 2. A peer developer reviews, unit tests, and confirmation tests the defect fix on his/her desktop 3. A tester—usually the one who found the defect—confirmation tests the defect fix in the development environment 4. Once a day, a new release with all confirmed defect fixes included, is installed in the test environment 5. The same tester from step 3 confirmation tests the defect fix in the test environment Nevertheless, a large number of defects which the testers confirmed as fixed in the development environment (in step 3) are somehow failing confirmation testing in the test environment, with the resulting rework and cycle time outcomes. You have the highest confidence in your testers, and have ruled out mistakes or omissions in step 3. Which of the following is the MOST likely part of the process to check next? a) The developers, who may not be adequately testing in step 2 b) The testers, who may be confused about what to test in step 5 c) Configuration management, which may not be maintaining the integrity of the product in step 4 d) The developers, who may not be fixing defects properly in step 1

C (a) Is not correct: if inadequate developer testing were the problem, the confirmation test would not pass in step 3. b) Is not correct: the same tester who successfully performed the confirmation test in step 3 is repeating it in step 5. c) Is correct: per section 5.4, configuration management maintains the integrity of the software. If a test that passes in step 3 fails in step 5, then something is different between those two steps. One possible difference is the test object, the option listed here. Another possible difference is the between the development environment and the test environment, but that is not an option listed here. d) Is not correct: if the developers were not fixing the defect, the confirmation test would not pass in step 3.)

You are working as a tester on an Agile team, and have participated in over two dozen user story refinement sessions with the product owner and the developers on the team at the start of each iteration. As the reviews have gotten more effective at detecting defects in user stories and the product owner more adept at correcting those defects, you and the team notice that the team's velocity, as shown in your burndown charts, has started to increase. Which of the following is a benefit of static testing that MOST DIRECTLY applies to increased velocity? a) Increasing total cost of quality b) Reducing testing cost c) Increasing development productivity d) Reducing total cost of quality

C (a) Is not correct: per section 3.1.2, reviews reduce, not increase, the total cost of quality. b) Is not correct: while section 3.1.2 lists this as a benefit of static testing, increasing velocity is a sign of increasing development productivity overall, not just testing, so B only partially applies. c) Is correct: section 3.1.2 lists this as a benefit of static testing, and velocity is a way of measuring productivity in Agile development. d) Is not correct: while section 3.1.2 does list this as a benefit of static testing, the benefit mentioned here has to do with increasing overall development team productivity)

You are testing a mobile app that allows customers to access and manage their bank accounts. You are running a test suite that involves evaluating each screen and each field on each screen against a general list of user interface best practices, derived from a popular book on the topic, that maximize attractiveness, ease-of-use, and accessibility for such apps. Which of the following options BEST categorizes the test technique you are using? a) Specification-based b) Exploratory c) Checklist-based d) Error guessing

C (a) Is not correct: the book provides general guidance, and is not a formal requirements document, a specification, or a set of use cases, user stories, or business processes as described in section 4.1.2 b) Is not correct: while you could consider the list as a set of test charters per section 4.4.2, it more closely resembles the list of test conditions described in section 4.4.3. c) Is correct: the list of user interface best practices is the list of test conditions described in section 4.4.3. d) Is not correct: the tests are not focused on failures that could occur, as described in section 4.4.1, but rather on knowledge about what is important for the user, in terms of usability.)

A tester participated in a discussion about proposed database structure. The tester identified a potential performance problem related to certain common user searches. This possible problem was explained to the development team. Which of the following is a testing contribution to success that BEST matches this situation? a) Enabling required tests to be identified at an early stage b) Ensuring processes are carried out properly c) Reducing the risk of fundamental design defects d) Reducing the risk of untestable functionality

C (a) Is not correct: while enabling required tests to be identified in an early stage is a testing contribution to success per section 1.2.1, there is no indication in the question that the tester did so. b) Is not correct: ensuring processes are carried out properly is part of quality assurance, not a testing contribution to success, per sections 1.2.1 and 1.2.2 c) Is correct: reducing the risk of fundamental design defects is a testing contribution to success per section 1.2.1. Database structure is related to design, and performance problems can be a significant product risk. d) Is not correct: while reducing the risk of untestable functionality is a testing contribution to success per section 1.2.1, the tester here has not identified something untestable, but rather something that would result in performance tests failing.)

Which of the following statements is true? a) Impact analysis is useful for confirmation testing during maintenance testing b) Confirmation testing is useful for regression testing during system design c) Impact analysis is useful for regression testing during maintenance testing d) Confirmation testing is useful for impact analysis during maintenance testing

C (a) Is not correct: while impact analysis is useful during maintenance testing, per section 2.4, it is not necessary for confirmation testing, since confirmation testing is on the intended effects of a bug fix or other change per section 2.3. b) Is not correct: per section 2.3, confirmation and regression testing are two separate activities, and confirmation testing is not part of system design. c) Is correct: per section 2.4, impact analysis can be used to select regression tests for maintenance testing. d) Is not correct: confirmation testing is not part of impact analysis, per section 2.4, though confirmation testing will typically happen during maintenance testing)

You are performing system testing of a train booking system and have found that occasionally the system reports that there are no available trains when you believe that there should be, based on the test cases you have run. You have provided the development manager with a summary of the defect and the version of the system you are testing. The developers recognize the urgency of the defect and are now waiting for you to provide more details so that they can fix it. Given the following pieces of information: 1. Degree of impact (severity) of the defect. 2. Identification of the test item. 3. Details of the test environment. 4. Urgency/priority to fix. 5. Actual results. 6. Reference to test case specification. Apart from the description of the defect, which includes a database dump and screenshots, which of the pieces of information would be MOST useful to include in the initial defect report? a) 1, 2, 6 b) 1, 4, 5, 6 c) 2, 3, 4, 5 d) 3, 5, 6

D (Considering each of the pieces of information: 1. Degree of impact (severity) of the defect - the developers are already aware of the problem and are waiting to fix it, so this is a less important piece of information. 2. Identification of the test item - as the developers are already aware of the problem and you are performing system testing, and you have already provided the version of the system you are testing you can assume they know the item that was being tested, so this is a less important piece of information. 3. Details of the test environment - the set-up of the test environment may have a noticeable effect on the test results, and detailed information should be provided, so this is an important piece of information. 4. Urgency/priority to fix - the developers are already aware of the problem and are waiting to fix it, so this is a less important piece of information. 5. Actual results - the actual results may well help the developers to determine what is going wrong with the system, so this is an important piece of information. 6. Reference to test case specification - this will show the developers the tests you ran, including the test inputs that caused the system to fail (and expected results), so this is an important piece of information. Thus, option D is correct)

Which of the following is a project risk? a. A module that performs incorrect calculations due to a defect in a formula b. A failed performance test c. An issue with the interface between the system under test and a peripheral device d. A problem with the development manager which is resulting in his rejecting all defect reports

D (D is a project risk. The other three are product risks.)

What type of testing is normally conducted to verify that a product meets a particular regulatory requirement? a. Unit testing b. Integration testing c. System testing d. Acceptance testing

D (D is correct per the syllabus. Regulatory acceptance is a form of acceptance testing. The other types of testing should be conducted as well, but the focus on the compliance with the regulatory requirements should occur during acceptance testing. It is a good practice to conduct this testing as early as possible, but formal acceptance by a regulatory agency is normally done during acceptance testing.)

Which of the following techniques is a form of static testing? a. Error guessing b. Automated regression testing c. Providing inputs and examining the resulting outputs d. Code review

D (D is correct, per syllabus. A, B and C are all forms of dynamic testing)

How is statement coverage determined? a. Number of test decision points divided by the number of test cases b. Number of decision outcomes tested divided by the total number of executable statements c. Number of possible test case outcomes divided by the total number of function points d. Number of executable statements tested divided by the total number of executable statements

D (D is correct, per syllabus. A, B and C are not valid measures)

As a tester, which of the following is a key to effectively communicating and maintaining positive relationships with developers when there is disagreement over the prioritization of a defect? a. Escalate the issue to human resources and stress the importance of mutual respect b. Communicate in a setting with senior management to ensure everyone understands c. Convince the developer to accept the blame for the mistake d. Remind them of the common goal of creating quality systems

D (D is correct, per syllabus. Start with collaboration rather than battles and remind everyone that it is a common goal to build better quality systems. A and B are incorrect because this type of escalation is inappropriate. C is incorrect as it is the opposite approach to take because blame placing is not going to build a better team or product)

Which of the following is a project risk? a. A defect that is causing a performance issue b. A duplicate requirement c. An issue with a data conversion procedure d. A schedule that requires work during Christmas shutdown

D (D is correct, this is a risk to the entire project. A, B and C are product risks.)

Why is it important to avoid the pesticide paradox? a. Dynamic testing is less reliable in finding bugs b. Pesticides mixed with static testing can allow bugs to escape detection c. Tests should not be context dependent d. Running the same tests over and over will reduce the chance of finding new defects

D (D is correct. As tests are run repeatedly, the pesticide (the tests) become less effective. A is not correct because dynamic testing should be used and helps to alleviate the pesticide paradox. B doesn't actually make sense. C is not correct because testing should be context dependent.)

When following the fundamental test process, when should the test control activity take place? a. During the planning activities b. During the implementation and execution activities c. During the monitoring activities d. During all the activities

D (D is correct. Control occurs throughout the project to ensure that it is staying on track based on the plan and to take any corrective steps that may be necessary. The monitoring information is used to determine if control actions are needed.)

If you are testing a module of code, how do you determine the level of decision coverage you have achieved? a. By taking the number of decisions you have tested and dividing that by the total number of executable statements in the module b. By taking the number of decisions you have tested and dividing that by the total number of decisions in the module c. By taking the number of decisions you have tested and dividing that by the total lines of code in the module d. By taking the number of decision outcomes you have tested and dividing that by the total number of decision outcomes in the module

D (D is correct. Decision coverage looks at the number of decision outcomes, not just the decision statements)

What is the main difference between static and dynamic testing? a. Static testing is performed by developers; dynamic testing is performed by testers b. Manual test cases are used for dynamic testing; automated tests are used for static testing c. Static testing must be executed before dynamic testing d. Dynamic testing requires executing the software; the software is not executed during static testing

D (D is correct. Dynamic testing is done while the software is actually running whereas static testing depends on examining the software while it is not running. A is not correct because both types of testing can be done by both developers and testers. B is not correct because manual and automated tests can be used for dynamic testing. C is not correct because static testing can occur at any time although it is usually done before dynamic testing.)

You have received the following description section in a defect report: The report executed per the attached steps, but the data was incorrect. For example, the information in column 1 was wrong. See the attached screenshot. This report is critical to the users and they will be unable to do their jobs without this information. What is the biggest problem with this defect report? a. The developer won't know how important the problem is b. The developer won't know how to repeat the test c. The developer won't be able to see what the tester is saying is wrong d. The developer won't know what the tester expected to see

D (D is correct. From this information, the developer only knows the tester thinks the information is wrong, but it's not clear what was expected. A is incorrect because, although vague, the incident report seems to indicate this is an important problem. B is incorrect because the steps are attached (or so it says). C is incorrect because the screen shot should indicate column 1 that is wrong.)

Which of the following is most correct regarding the test level at which functional tests may be executed? a. Unit and integration b. Integration and system c. System and acceptance d. All levels

D (D is correct. Functional testing should be conducted at all levels)

During which level of testing should non-functional tests be executed? a. Unit and integration only b. System testing only c. Integration, system and acceptance only d. Unit, integration, system and acceptance only

D (D is correct. Non-functional tests can and should be executed at all levels of testing.)

Which of the following is the correct statement? a. An error causes a failure which results in a defect b. A defect causes a failure which results in an error c. A failure is observed as an error and the root cause is the defect d. An error causes a defect which is observed as a failure

D (D is correct. The error or the mistake made by the developer causes a defect in the code. When that code is executed, a failure can be observed.)

You are testing a banking application that allows a customer to withdraw 20, 100 or 500 dollars in a single transaction. The values are chosen from a drop-down list and no other values may be entered. How many equivalence partitions need to be tested to achieve 100% equivalence partition coverage? a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4

D (D is correct. The values to be tested are 20, 100, 500 and no selection.)

Which of the following is an example of a good exit criterion from system testing? a. All tests should be completed b. The project budget should be spent c. All defects should be fixed d. All severity 1 defects must be resolved

D (D is correct. This is measurable and clear. A is not correct because completed is not a clear term and this might not be a reasonable goal. B is not correct because spending the budget is generally not the goal and you wouldn't expect the budget to be spent when system testing is done because that leaves no money for acceptance testing or roll out. C is not correct because this is a should and also probably is not realistic)

You have been testing software that will be used to track credit card purchases. You have found a defect that causes the system to crash, but only if a person has made and voided 10 purchases in a row. What is the proper priority and severity rating for this defect? a. Priority high, severity high b. Priority high, severity low c. Priority low, severity low d. Priority low, severity high

D (D is correct. This is not likely to happen, so the urgency to fix it is low but it does crash the system so the impact to the system is high so the severity should be high.)

You are testing a machine that scores exam papers and assigns grades. Based on the score achieved the grades are as follows: 1-49 = F, 50-59 = D-, 60-69 = D, 70-79 = C, 80-89 = B, 90-100=A If you apply two-value boundary value analysis, how many test cases will you need to achieve minimum test coverage? a. 8 b. 10 c. 12 d. 14

D (D is correct. You need the following test cases: 0, 1, 49, 50, 59, 60, 69, 70, 79, 80, 89, 90, 100, 101)

Which of the following are two factors that can be used to determine the level of risk? a) Testing and development b) Dynamic and reactive c) Statement and decision d) Likelihood and impact

D (Per section 5.5.1, the level of risk will be determined by the likelihood of an adverse event happening and the impact (the harm) from that event. Therefore, the answer is d)

During an Agile development effort, a product owner discovers a previously-unknown regulatory requirement that applies to most of the user stories within a particular epic. The user stories are updated to provide for the necessary changes in software behavior. The programmers on the team are modifying the code appropriately. As a tester on the team, what types of tests will you run? a) Confirmation tests b) Regression tests c) Functional tests d) Change-related tests

D (The change in behavior may be either functional or nonfunctional, per section 2.3.1 and 2.3.2, but, per section 2.3.4, you need to run change-related tests, some of which are confirmation tests and others are regression tests. Therefore, d is the correct answer)

Given the following examples of entry and exit criteria: 1. The original testing budget of $30,000 plus contingency of $7,000 has been spent. 2. 96% of planned tests for the drawing package have been executed and the remaining tests are now out of scope. 3. The trading performance test environment has been designed, set-up and verified. 4. Current status is no outstanding critical defects and two high-priority ones. 5. The autopilot design specifications have been reviewed and reworked. 6. The tax rate calculation component has passed unit testing. Which of the following BEST categorizes them as entry and exit criteria: a) Entry criteria - 5, 6 Exit criteria - 1, 2, 3, 4 b) Entry criteria - 2, 3, 6 Exit criteria - 1, 4, 5 c) Entry criteria - 1, 3 Exit criteria - 2, 4, 5, 6 d) Entry criteria - 3, 5, 6 Exit criteria - 1, 2, 4

D (The correct pairings of examples to entry and exit criteria are: Entry criteria o (3) The trading performance test environment has been designed, set-up and verified - example of the need for a test environment to be ready before testing can begin. o (5) The autopilot design specifications have been reviewed and reworked - example of the need for the test basis to be available before testing can begin. o (6) The tax rate calculation component has passed unit testing - example of the need for a test object to have met the exit criteria for a prior level of testing before testing can begin. Exit criteria o (1) The original testing budget of $30,000 plus contingency of $7,000 has been spent - example of spending the testing budget being a signal to stop testing. o (2) 96% of planned tests for the drawing package have been executed and the remaining tests are now out of scope - example of all the planned tests being run being a signal to stop testing (normally used alongside the exit criteria on outstanding defects remaining). o (4) Current status is no outstanding critical defects and two high-priority ones - example of the number of outstanding defects achieving a planned limit being a signal to stop testing (normally used alongside the exit criteria on planned tests being run). Thus, option D is correct.)

Consider the following testing activities: 1. Selecting regression tests 2. Evaluating completeness of test execution 3. Identifying which user stories have open defect reports 4. Evaluating whether the number of tests for each requirement is consistent with the level of product risk Consider the following ways traceability can help testing: A. Improve understandability of test status reports to include status of test basis items B. Make testing auditable C. Provide information to assess process quality D. Analyze the impact of changes Which of the following best matches the testing activity with how traceability can assist that activity? a) 1D, 2B, 3C, 4A b) 1B, 2D, 3A, 4C c) 1D, 2C, 3A, 4B d) 1D, 2B, 3A, 4C

D (Traceability assists with: • Selecting regression tests in terms of analyzing the impact of changes. • Evaluating completeness of test execution which makes testing auditable. • Identifying which user stories have open defect reports which improves understandability of test status reports to include status of test basis items. • Evaluating whether the number of tests for each requirement is consistent with the level of product risk which provides information to assess test process quality (i.e., alignment of test effort with risk). Therefore, d is correct, per section 1.4.4)

Which of the following descriptions of decision coverage is CORRECT? a) Decision coverage is a measure of the percentage of possible paths through the source code exercised by tests. b) Decision coverage is a measure of the percentage of business flows through the component exercised by tests. c) Decision coverage is a measure of the 'if' statements in the code that are exercised with both the true and false outcomes. d) Decision coverage is a measure of the proportion of decision outcomes in the source code exercised by tests.

D (a) Is not correct: A path through source code is one potential route through the code from the entry point to the exit point that could exercise a range of decision outcomes. Two different paths may exercise all but one of the same decision outcomes, and by just changing a single decision outcome a new path is followed. Test cases that would achieve decision coverage are typically a tiny subset of the test cases that would achieve path coverage. In practice, most non-trivial programs (and all programs with unconstrained loops, such as 'while' loops) have a potentially infinite number of possible paths through them and so measuring the percentage covered is practically infeasible. b) Is not correct: Coverage of business flows can be a focus of use case testing, but use cases rarely cover a single component. It may be possible to cover the decisions within business flows, but only if they were specified in enough detail, however this option only suggests coverage of "business flows" as a whole. c) Is not correct: Achieving full decision coverage does require all 'if' statements to be exercised with both true and false outcomes, however, there are typically several other decision points in the code (e.g. 'case' statements and the code controlling loops) that also need to be taken into consideration when measuring decision coverage. d) Correct: Decision coverage is a measure of the proportion of decision outcomes exercised (normally presented as a percentage), as per syllabus (4.3.2).)

Which of the following BEST explains a benefit of independent testing? a) The use of an independent test team allows project management to assign responsibility for the quality of the final deliverable to the test team, so ensuring everyone is aware that quality is the test team's overall responsibility. b) If a test team external to the organization can be afforded, then there are distinct benefits in terms of this external team not being so easily swayed by the delivery concerns of project management and the need to meet strict delivery deadlines. c) An independent test team can work totally separately from the developers, need not be distracted with changing project requirements, and can restrict communication with the developers to defect reporting through the defect management system. d) When specifications contain ambiguities and inconsistencies, assumptions are made on their interpretation, and an independent tester can be useful in questioning those assumptions and the interpretation made by the developer.

D (a) Is not correct: Quality should be the responsibility of everyone working on the project and not the sole responsibility of the test team. b) Is not correct: First, it is not a benefit if an external test team does not meet delivery deadlines, and second, there is no reason to believe that external test teams will feel they do not have to meet strict delivery deadlines. c) Is not correct: It is bad practice for the test team to work in complete isolation, and we would expect an external test team to be concerned with changing project requirements and communicate well with developers. d) Correct: Specifications are never perfect, meaning that assumptions will have to be made by the developer. An independent tester is useful in that they can challenge and verify the assumptions and subsequent interpretation made by the developer)

You are reading a user story in the product backlog to prepare for a meeting with the product owner and a developer, noting potential defects as you go. Which of the following statements is true about this activity? a) It is not a static test, because static testing involves execution of the test object b) It is not a static test, because static testing is always performed using a tool c) It is a static test, because any defects you find could be found cheaper during dynamic testing d) It is a static test, because static testing does not involve execution of the test object.

D (a) Is not correct: per section 3.1, static testing does not involve execution of the test object. b) Is not correct: per section 3.1, some static tests involve the use of a tool, especially static analysis, but reviews (such as the activity described here) do not necessarily involve the use of a tool. c) Is not correct: the review activity described here is part of a static test, but, per section 3.1.2, defects found in static tests are usually cheaper than those found in dynamic testing. d) Is correct: per section 3.1, static testing does not involve execution of the test object.)

Consider a mobile app that allows customers to access and manage their bank accounts. A user story has just been added to the set of features that checks customers' social media accounts and bank records to give personalized greetings on birthdays and other personal milestones. Which of the following test techniques could a PROGRAMMER use during a unit test of the code to ensure that coverage of situations when the greetings ARE supposed to occur and when the greetings ARE NOT supposed to occur? a) Statement testing b) Exploratory testing c) State transition testing d) Decision testing

D (a) Is not correct: per section 4.3.1, statement testing exercises the executable statements in the code, which might result in the absence of certain greetings not being tested. b) Is not correct: unless the test charter specifically mentioned testing both the presence and the absence of each type of greeting, coverage can be difficult to assess for an exploratory test, per section 4.4. c) Is not correct: per section 4.2.4, state transition testing is useful for situations where the test object responds differently to an input depending on current conditions or previous history, but in this case the test object has to decide whether the current date matches a particular milestone and thus whether to display the relevant greeting. d) Is correct: per section 4.3.2, decision testing involves test cases that follow the control flows that occur from a decision point, which in this case would be deciding whether a greeting should or should not be given.)

You have just completed a pilot project for a regression testing tool. You understand the tool much better, and have tailored your testing process to it. You have standardized an approach to using the tool and its associated work products. Which of the following is a typical test automation pilot project goal that remains to be carried out? a) Learn more details about the tool b) See how the tool would fit with existing processes and practices c) Decide on standard ways of using, managing, storing, and maintaining the tool and the test assets d) Assess whether the benefits will be achieved at reasonable cost

D (a) Is not correct: per section 6.2.2, this is an objective for a pilot, but you have achieved it because you understand the tool much better due to the pilot. b) Is not correct: per section 6.2.2, this is an objective for a pilot, but you have achieved it because you have tailoring your testing processes. c) Is not correct: per section 6.2.2, this is an objective for a pilot, but you have achieved it because you have standardized an approach to using the tool and its associated work products. d) Is correct: per section 6.2.2, assessing the benefits and configuring the metrics collection are the two objectives missing from this list.)

Programmers often write and execute unit tests against code which they have written. During this selftesting activity, which of the following is a tester mindset that programmers should adopt to perform this unit testing effectively? a) Good communication skills b) Code coverage c) Evaluating code defects d) Attention to detail

D (a) Is not correct: the programmer appears to be performing unit testing on their own. b) Is not correct: code coverage is useful for unit testing, but it is not a tester mindset described in section 1.5.2 c) Is not correct: per section 1.5.2, the programmer's mindset included contemplating what might be wrong with the code, but that is not a tester's mindset d) Is correct: this tester mindset in section 1.5.2, attention to detail, will help programmers find defects during unit testing)

A phone ringing in an adjacent cubicle momentarily distracts a programmer, causing the programmer to improperly program the logic that checks the upper boundary of an input variable. Later, during system testing, a tester notices that this input field accepts invalid input values. The improperly coded logic for the upper boundary check is: a) The root cause b) The failure c) The error d) The defect

D (a) Is not correct: the root cause is the distraction that the programmer experienced while programming b) Is not correct: the accepting of invalid inputs is the failure. c) Is not correct: the error is the mistaken thinking that resulted in putting the defect in the code. d) Is correct: the problem in the code is a defect.)

What is decision coverage? a) The percentage of condition outcomes that have been exercised by a test suite b) Decision coverage is a synonym for statement coverage c) The percentage of executable statements that have been exercised by a test suite d) The percentage of decision outcomes that have been exercised by a test suite

D (a) Is not correct: this is the Glossary definition of condition coverage. b) Is not correct: decision coverage is a higher level of coverage per section 4.3 and the two terms are not defined as synonyms in the Glossary. c) Is not correct: this is the Glossary definition of statement coverage. d) Is correct: this is the Glossary definition of coverage as applied to decisions.)

A mass market operating system software product is designed to run on any PC hardware with an x86- family processor. You are running a set of tests to look for defects related to support of the various PCs that use such a processor and to build confidence that important PC brands will work. What type of test are you performing? a) Performance test b) Processor test c) Functional test d) Portability test

D (a) Is not correct: while per section 2.3.2, the test described is a non-functional test, it is a portability test, not a performance test. b) Is not correct: processor test is not a test type defined in section 2.3. c) Is not correct: per section 2.3.2, the test described is a nonfunctional test, specifically a portability test. d) Is correct: per section 2.3.2, testing supported devices is a non-functional test, specifically a portability test)

You are working as a tester on an online banking system. Availability is considered one of the top product (quality) risks for the system. You find a reproducible failure that results in customers losing their connections to the bank Web site when transferring funds between common types of accounts and being unable to reconnect for between three and five minutes. Which of the following would be a good summary for a defect report for this failure, one that captures both the essence of the failure and its impact on stakeholders? a) Web server logs show error 0x44AB27 when running test 07.005, which is not an expected error message in /tmp filesystem b) Developers have introduced major availability defect which will seriously upset our customers c) Performance is slow and reliability flaky under load d) Typical funds-transfer transaction results in termination of customer session, with a delay in availability when attempting to reconnect

D (a) Is not correct: while this information is useful for developers, it does not provide managers with a sense of the impact on product quality per section 5.6. b) Is not correct: this summary does not provide developers or managers with the necessary information described in section 5.6 and attacks the developers (see section 1.5). c) Is not correct: this summary does not provide developers or managers with the necessary information described in section 5.6 and attacks the developers (see section 1.5). d) Is correct: this summary gives a good sense of the failure and its impact, providing the information discussed in section 5.6.)

During a project following Agile methods, you find a discrepancy between the developer's interpretation of an acceptance criteria and the product owner's interpretation, which you bring up during a user story refinement session. Which of the following is a benefit of test independence exemplified by this situation? a) Recognizing different kinds of failures b) Taking primary responsibility for quality c) Removing a defect early d) Challenging stakeholder assumptions

D (a) Is not correct: while, per section 5.1.1, recognizing different kinds of failures is a benefit of tester independence, in the scenario here no code yet exists that can fail, and the problem is that the developer and product owner are both assuming different things about the acceptance criteria. b) Is not correct: per section 5.1.1, developers losing a sense of responsibility for quality is a drawback, not a benefit. c) Is not correct: while the effect of the discovery of this disagreement is the earlier removal of the defect, prior to coding, defects can be discovered early by various people, not just independent testers. d) Is correct: per section 5.1.1, challenging stakeholder assumptions is a benefit of tester independence, and here the developer and product owner are both assuming different things about the acceptance criteria.)

Match the following test work products (1-4) with the right description (A-D). 1. Test suite. 2. Test case. 3. Test script. 4. Test charter. A. A group of test scripts with a sequence of instructions. B. A set of instructions for the execution of a test. C. Contains expected results. D. An instruction of test goals and possible test ideas on how to test. a) 1A, 2C, 3B, 4D. b) 1D, 2B, 3A, 4C. c) 1A, 2C, 3D, 4B. d) 1D, 2C, 3B, 4A.

a (Test suite: Glossary 3.2.1: A set of test cases or test procedures to be executed in a specific test cycle."(1A). Test case: Glossary "A set of preconditions, inputs, actions (where applicable), expected results and post conditions, developed based on test conditions" (2C). Test script: Glossary "A sequence of instructions for the execution of a test" (3B). Test charter: Glossary "A statement of test objectives, and possibly test ideas about how to test. Documentation of test activities in session-based exploratory testing" (4D). Thus: a) Is correct b) Is not correct c) Is not correct d) Is not correct)

Given the following test activities and tasks: A. Test design B. Test implementation C. Test execution D. Test completion 1. Entering change requests for open defect reports 2. Identifying test data to support the test cases 3. Prioritizing test procedures and creating test data 4. Analyzing discrepancies to determine their cause Which of the following BEST matches the activities with the tasks? a) A-2, B-3, C-4, D-1 b) A-2, B-1, C-3, D-4 c) A-3, B-2, C-4, D-1 d) A-3, B-2, C-1, D-4

a (The correct pairing of test activities and tasks, according to the syllabus (1.4.2) is: A. Test design - (2) Identifying test data to support the test cases B. Test implementation - (3) Prioritizing test procedures and creating test data C. Test execution - (4) Analyzing discrepancies to determine their cause D. Test completion - (1) Entering change requests for open defect reports Thus, option A is correct.)

Which of the following CORRECTLY matches the roles and responsibilities in a formal review? a) Manager - Decides on the execution of reviews b) Review Leader - Ensures effective running of review meetings c) Scribe - Fixes defects in the work product under review d) Moderator - Monitors ongoing cost-effectiveness

a (a) Correct: As stated in the syllabus (3.2.2). b) Is not correct: The moderator should ensure the effective running of review meetings, as per syllabus (3.2.2). c) Is not correct: The author fixes the work product under review, as per syllabus (3.2.2). d) Is not correct: The manager monitors ongoing cost effectiveness, as per syllabus (3.2.2).)

Which of the following statements CORRECTLY describes a role of impact analysis in Maintenance Testing? a) Impact analysis is used when deciding if a fix to a maintained system is worthwhile. b) Impact analysis is used to identify how data should be migrated into the maintained system. c) Impact analysis is used to decide which hot fixes are of most value to the user. d) Impact analysis is used to determine the effectiveness of new maintenance test cases.

a (a) Correct: Impact analysis may be used to identify those areas of the system that will be affected by the fix, and so the extent of the impact (e.g. necessary regression testing) can be used when deciding if the change is worthwhile, as per syllabus (2.4.2). b) Is not correct: Although testing migrated data is part of maintenance testing (see conversion testing), impact analysis does not identify how this is done. c) Is not correct: Impact analysis shows which parts of a system are affected by a change, so it can show the difference between different hot fixes in terms of the impact on the system, however it does not give any indication of the value of the changes to the user. d) Is not correct: Impact analysis shows which parts of a system are affected by a change, it cannot provide an indication of the effectiveness of test cases.)

Which of the following is a major objective of testing? a) To prevent defects. b) To validate the project plan works as required. c) To gain confidence in the development team. d) To make release decisions for the system under test.

a (a) Correct: One of the major objectives of testing from the syllabus (1.1.1). b) Is not correct: Validation of the project plan would be a project management activity. c) Is not correct: Gaining confidence in the development team would be achieved through observation and experience. d) Is not correct: One of the main objectives during acceptance testing may be to give information to stakeholders about the risk of releasing the system at a given time - so testing provides information for stakeholders to make decisions, it does not provide the release decision)

Which one of the statements below describes the most common situation for a failure discovered during testing or in production? a) The product crashed when the user selected an option in a dialog box. b) The wrong version of a compiled source code file was included in the build. c) The computation algorithm used the wrong input variables. d) The developer misinterpreted the requirement for the algorithm.

a (a) Is correct: A crash is clearly noticeable by the user (syllabus chapter 1.2.3). b) Is not correct: this is a defect, not a failure, since there is something wrong in the code. It may not result in a visible or noticeable failure, for example if the changes in the source code file are only in comments (syllabus chapter 1.2.3). c) Is not correct: The use of wrong input variables may not result in a visible or noticeable failure, for example if nobody uses this particular algorithm; or if the wrong input variable has a similar value to the correct input variable; or if the FALSE result of the algorithm is not used (syllabus chapter 1.2.3). d) Is not correct: This type of fault will not necessarily lead to a failure; for example, if no one uses this special algorithm (syllabus chapter 1.2.3).)

Which of the following lists contains only typical exit criteria from testing? a) Reliability measures, test coverage, test cost, schedule and status about fixing errors and remaining risks. b) Reliability measures, test coverage, degree of tester's independence and product completeness. c) Reliability measures, test coverage, test cost, availability of test environment, time to market and product completeness. d) Time to market, remaining defects, tester qualification, availability of testable use cases, test coverage and test cost.

a (a) Is correct: See syllabus chapter 5.2.3 (all 5 dots). b) Is not correct: The "degree of tester's independence" does not play a role in exit criteria (syllabus chapter 5.2.3). c) Is not correct: "Availability of test environment" is an entry criterion, see syllabus 5.2.3 3. dot. d) Is not correct: "The availability of testable requirements" is an entry criterion (syllabus chapter 5.2.3).)

Which one of the following is the characteristic of a metrics-based approach for test estimation? a) Budget which was used by a previous similar test project. b) Overall experience collected in interviews with test managers. c) Estimation of effort for test automation agreed in the test team. d) Average of calculations collected from business experts.

a (a) Is correct: See syllabus chapter 5.2.6: the metrics-based approach: estimating the testing effort based on metrics of former similar projects or based on typical values. b) Is not correct: This is expert-based approach: estimating the tasks based on estimates made by the owners of the tasks or by experts (syllabus chapter 5.2.6). c) Is not correct: This is expert-based approach: estimating the tasks based on estimates made by the responsible team of the tasks or by experts (syllabus chapter 5.2.6). d) Is not correct: This is expert-based approach: estimating the tasks based on estimates made by the owners of the tasks or by experts (syllabus chapter 5.2.6).)

Which one of the following is the BEST definition of an incremental development model? a) Defining requirements, designing software and testing are done in phases where in each phase a piece of the system is added. b) A phase in the development process should begins when the previous phase is complete. c) Testing is viewed as a separate phase which takes place after development has been completed. d) Testing is added to development as an increment.

a (a) Is correct: Syllabus chapter 2.1.1: incremental development involves establishing requirements, designing, building, and testing a system in pieces. b) Is not correct: This is a sequential model (syllabus chapter 2.1.1). c) Is not correct: This describes the waterfall model (syllabus chapter 2.1.1). d) Is not correct: Testing alone is not an increment/additional step in the development (syllabus chapter 2.1.1).)

Which of the following metrics would be MOST useful to monitor during test execution? a) Percentage of executed test cases. b) Average number of testers involved in the test execution. c) Coverage of requirements by source code. d) Percentage of test cases already created and reviewed .

a (a) Is correct: Syllabus chapter 5.3.1: test case execution (e.g. number of test cases run/not run, and test cases passed/failed). b) Is not correct: This metric can be measured, but its value is low. The number of testers does not give any information about the quality of the test object or test progress. c) Is not correct: the coverage of requirements by source code is not measured during test execution. At most, the TEST(!) coverage of the code or requirements is measured. d) Is not correct: This metric is part of test preparation and not test execution.)

Which statement about the relationship between statement coverage and decision coverage is true? a) 100% decision coverage also guarantees 100% statement coverage. b) 100% statement coverage also guarantees 100% decision coverage. c) 50% decision coverage also guarantees 50% statement coverage. d) Decision coverage can never reach 100%.

a (a) Is correct: The statement is true. Achieving 100% decision coverage guarantees 100% statement coverage (syllabus chapter 4.3.3 third paragraph). b) Is not correct: The statement is false because achieving 100 % statement coverage does not in any case mean that the decision coverage is 100% (syllabus chapter 4.3.3 third paragraph). c) Is not correct: The statement is false, because we can only do statements about 100% values (syllabus chapter 4.3.3 third paragraph). d) Is not correct: The statement is false (syllabus chapter 4.3.3).)

Which one of the following is NOT included in a test summary report? a) Defining pass/fail criteria and objectives of testing. b) Deviations from the test approach. c) Measurements of actual progress against exit criteria. d) Evaluation of the quality of the test item.

a (a) Is correct: This information has been defined earlier in the test project. b) Is not correct: This information is included in a test report; see the syllabus chapter 5.3.2: information on what occurred during a test period. c) Is not correct: This information is included in a test report; see syllabus chapter 5.3.2: Information and metrics to support recommendations and decisions about future actions, such as an assessment of defects remaining, the economic benefit of continued testing, outstanding risks, and the level of confidence in the tested software. d) Is not correct: This information is included in a test report; see syllabus chapter 5.3.2: Information and metrics to support recommendations and decisions about future actions, such as an assessment of defects remaining, the economic benefit of continued testing, outstanding risks, and the level of confidence in the tested software.)

Which of the following should NOT be a trigger for maintenance testing? a) Decision to test the maintainability of the software. b) Decision to test the system after migration to a new operating platform. c) Decision to test if archived data is possible to be retrieved. d) Decision to test after "hot fixes".

a (a) Is correct: This is maintainability testing, not maintenance testing. b) Is not correct: This is a trigger for maintenance testing, see the syllabus chapter 2.4.1: Operational tests of the new environment as well as of the changed software. c) Is not correct: This is the trigger for maintenance testing, see the syllabus chapter 2.4.1: testing restore/retrieve procedures after archiving for long retention periods. d) Is not correct: This is the trigger for maintenance testing, see the syllabus chapter 2.4.1: Reactive modification of a delivered software product to correct emergency defects that have caused actual failures)

Which TWO of the following can affect and be part of the (initial) test planning? a) Budget limitations. b) Test objectives. c) Test log. d) Failure rate. e) Use cases. Select TWO options.

a,b (a) Is correct: According to syllabus chapter 5.2.1 budgeting (7.dot) and making decisions about what to test (4.dot) are documented in the test plan. This means when you are planning the test and there are budget limitations, prioritizing is needed; what should be tested and what should be omitted. b) Is correct: See syllabus 5.2.1. c) Is not correct: See syllabus 1.4.2, test monitoring and control. d) Is not correct: See syllabus chapter 5.3.1, common test metrics, and 4. dot. e) Is not correct: It is a part of test analysis (syllabus chapter 1.4.2).)

Which TWO of the following statements about static testing are MOST true? a) Static testing is a cheap way to detect and remove defects. b) Static testing makes dynamic testing less challenging. c) Static testing allows early validation of user requirements. d) Static testing makes it possible to find run-time problems early in the lifecycle. e) When testing safety-critical system, static testing has less value because dynamic testing finds the defects better. Select TWO options

a,c (a) Is correct: Syllabus chapter 3.1.2: defects found early are often much cheaper to remove than defects detected later in the lifecycle. b) Is not correct: Dynamic testing still has its challenging objectives (syllabus chapter 3.1.2). c) Is correct: Syllabus chapter 3.1.2: preventing defects in design or coding by uncovering omissions, inaccuracies, inconsistencies, ambiguities, and redundancies in requirements. d) Is not correct: This is dynamic testing (see glossary V.3.2). e) Is not correct: Static testing is important for safety-critical computer systems (syllabus chapter 3.1).)

The reviews being used in your organization have the following attributes: There is a role of a scribe The purpose is to detect potential defects The review meeting is led by the author Reviewers find potential defects by individual review A review report is produced Which of the following review types is MOST likely being used? a) Informal Review b) Walkthrough c) Technical Review d) Inspection

b (Considering the attributes and the syllabus (3.2.3): There is a role of a scribe - specified for walkthroughs, technical reviews and inspections; thus, the reviews being performed cannot be informal reviews. The purpose is to detect potential defects - the purpose of detecting potential defects is specified for all types of review. The review meeting is led by the author - this is not allowed for inspections and is typically not the author for technical reviews, but is part of walkthroughs, and allowed for informal reviews Reviewers find potential issues by individual review - all types of reviews can include individual review (even informal reviews) A review report is produced - all types of reviews can produce a review report, although it would be less likely for an informal review. Thus, option B is correct.)

You have been asked to take part in a checklist-based review of the following excerpt from the requirements specification for a library system: Librarians can: 1. Register new borrowers. 2. Return books from borrowers. 3. Accept fines from borrowers. 4. Add new books to the system with their ISBN, author and title. 5. Remove books from the system. 6. Get system responses within 5 seconds. Borrowers can: 7. Borrow a maximum of 3 books at one time. 8. View the history of books they have borrowed/reserved. 9. Be fined for failing to return a book within 3 weeks. 10. Get system responses within 3 seconds. 11. Borrow a book at no cost for a maximum of 4 weeks. 12. Reserve books (if they are on-loan). All users (librarians and borrowers): 13. Can search for books by ISBN, author, or title. 14. Can browse the system catalogue. 15. The system shall respond to user requests within 3 seconds. 16. The user interface shall be easy-to-use. You have been assigned the checklist entry that requires you to review the specification for inconsistencies between individual requirements (i.e. conflicts between requirements). Which of the following CORRECTLY identifies inconsistencies between pairs of requirements? a) 6-10, 6-15, 7-12 b) 6-15, 9-11 c) 6-10, 6-15, 9-11 d) 6-15, 7-12

b (Considering the potential inconsistencies: 6-10 - If librarians should get system responses within 5 seconds, it is NOT inconsistent for borrowers to get system responses within 3 seconds. 6-15 - If librarians should get system responses within 5 seconds, it is inconsistent for all users to get system responses within 3 seconds. 7-12 - If borrowers can borrow a maximum of 3 books at one time it is NOT inconsistent for them to also reserve books (if they are on-loan). 9-11 - If a borrower can be fined for failing to return a book within 3 weeks it is inconsistent for them to also be allowed to borrow a book at no cost for a maximum of 4 weeks - as the length of valid loans are different. Thus, of the potential inconsistencies, 6-15 and 9-11 are valid inconsistencies, and so option B is correct.)

A daily radiation recorder for plants produces a sunshine score based on a combination of the number of hours a plant is exposed to the sun (below 3 hours, 3 to 6 hours or above 6 hours) and the average intensity of the sunshine (very low, low, medium, high). Given the following test cases: T Hours Intensity Score T1 1.5 vlow 10 T2 7.0 medium 60 T3 0.5 vlow 10 What is the minimum number of additional test cases that are needed to ensure full coverage of all valid INPUT equivalence partitions? a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4

b (The following valid input equivalence partitions can be identified: Hours 1. below 3 hours 2. 3 to 6 hours 3. above 6 hours Intensity 4. very low 5. low 6. medium 7. high The given test cases cover the following valid input equivalence partitions: T1 1.5 (1) Very low (4) T2 7.0 (3) Medium (6) T3 0.5 (1) Very low (4) Thus, the missing valid input equivalence partitions are: (2), (5) and (7). These can be covered by two test cases, as (2) can be combined with either (5) or (7). Thus, option B is correct.)

The project develops a "smart" heating thermostat. The control algorithms of the thermostat were modeled as Matlab/Simulink models and run on the internet connected server. The thermostat uses the specifications of the server to trigger the heating valves. The test manager has defined the following test strategy/approach in the test plan: 1. The acceptance test for the whole system is executed as an experience-based test. 2. The control algorithms on the server are tested during implementation using continuous integration. 3. The functional test of the thermostat is performed as risk-based testing. 4. The security tests of data / communication via the internet are executed together with external security experts. What four common types of test strategies/approaches did the test manager implement in the test plan? a) methodical, analytical, reactive and regression-averse. b) analytical, model-based, consultative and reactive. c) model-based, methodical, analytical and consultative. d) regression-averse, consultative, reactive and methodical.

b (The mapping of points 1 to 4 to approaches according to syllabus chapter 5.2. is only correct for option b). The mappings can be justified as follows: 1. See syllabus chapter 5.2.2, 7. dot, last sentence: Exploratory testing is a common technique employed in reactive strategies, whereby the explorative testing is assigned to the experience-based testing category 2. The control algorithms is 'modelled' on the server, therefore it's tested with a model-based strategy (see syllabus chapter 5.2.2, 2. dot). 3. See syllabus chapter 5.2.2, 1. dot, second sentence: "Risk-based testing is an example of an analytical approach, where tests are designed and prioritized based on the level of risk". 4. See syllabus chapter 5.2.2, 5. dot: "This type of test strategy is driven primarily by the advice, guidance, or instructions of stakeholders, business domain experts, or technology experts, who may be outside the test team or outside the organization itself. Thus: a) Is not correct b) Is correct c) Is not correct d) Is not correct)

Which of the following statements BEST compares the purposes of confirmation testing and regression testing? a) The purpose of regression testing is to ensure that all previously run tests still work correctly, while the purpose of confirmation testing is to ensure that any fixes made to one part of the system have not adversely affected other parts. b) The purpose of confirmation testing is to check that a previously found defect has been fixed, while the purpose of regression testing is to ensure that no other parts of the system have been adversely affected by the fix. c) The purpose of regression testing is to ensure that any changes to one part of the system have not caused another part to fail, while the purpose of confirmation testing is to check that all previously run tests still provide the same results as before. d) The purpose of confirmation testing is to confirm that changes to the system were made successfully, while the purpose of regression testing is to run tests that previously failed to ensure that they now work correctly.

b (a) Is not correct: Although the description of regression testing is largely correct, the description of confirmation testing (which should be testing a defect has been fixed) is not correct. b) Correct: The descriptions of both confirmation and regression testing match the intent of those in the syllabus. c) Is not correct: Although the description of regression testing is largely correct, the description of confirmation testing (re-running all previously run tests to get the same results) is not correct, as the purpose of confirmation testing is to check that tests that previously failed now pass (the fix worked). d) Is not correct: Although the description of confirmation testing is largely correct, the description of regression testing (re-running tests that previously failed) is not correct (this is a more detailed description of confirmation testing).)

Which of the following provides the BEST description of a test case? a) A document specifying a sequence of actions for the execution of a test. Also known as test script or manual test script. b) A set of input values and expected results, with execution preconditions and execution postconditions, developed for a particular test condition. c) An attribute of a system specified by requirements documentation (for example reliability, usability or design constraints) that is executed in a test. d) An item or event of a system that could be verified by one or more test conditions, e.g., a function, transaction, feature, quality attribute, or structural element.

b (a) Is not correct: Based on definition of a test procedure specification. b) Correct: Based on definition from Glossary. c) Is not correct: Based on Glossary definition of feature. d) Is not correct: Based on definition of test condition but replaced the term test case with test condition.)

Which of the following qualities is MORE likely to be found in a tester's mindset rather than in a developer's? a) Experience on which to base their efforts. b) Ability to see what might go wrong. c) Good communication with team members. d) Attention to detail.

b (a) Is not correct: Both developers and testers gain from experience. b) Correct: Developers are often more interested in designing and building solutions than in contemplating what might be wrong with those solutions. c) Is not correct: Both developers and testers should be able to communicate well. d) Is not correct: Both developers and testers need to pay attention to detail.)

Which of the following statements is a valid objective for testing? a) The test should start as late as possible so that development had enough time to create a good product. b) To find as many failures as possible so that defects can be identified and corrected. c) To prove that all possible defects are identified. d) To prove that any remaining defects will not cause any failures

b (a) Is not correct: Contradiction to principle 3: "Early testing saves time and money". b) Is correct: This is one objective of testing (syllabus chapter 1.1.1). c) Is not correct: Principle #2 states that exhaustive testing is impossible, so one can never prove that all defects were identified (syllabus chapter 1.3). d) Is not correct: To make an assessment whether a defect will cause a failure or not, one has to detect the defect first. Saying that no remaining defect will cause a failure implicitly means that all defects were found. This again contradicts principle #2. (syllabus chapter 1.3).)

Which one of the following answers describes a test condition? a) An attribute of a component or system specified or implied by requirements documentation. b) An aspect of the test basis that is relevant to achieve specific test objectives. c) The degree to which a software product provides functions which meet stated and implied needs when the software is used under specified conditions. d) The percentage of all single condition outcomes that independently affect a decision outcome that have been exercised by a test suite.

b (a) Is not correct: Definition of feature according to glossary. b) Is correct: From glossary. c) Is not correct: Definition of functionality suitability according to glossary. d) Is not correct: Definition of modified condition decision coverage according to glossary.)

Which of the following provides the BEST description of exploratory testing? a) A testing practice in which an in-depth investigation of the background of the test object is used to identify potential weaknesses that are examined by test cases. b) An approach to testing whereby the testers dynamically design and execute tests based on their knowledge, exploration of the test item and the results of previous tests. c) An approach to test design in which test activities are planned as uninterrupted sessions of test analysis and design, often used in conjunction with checklist-based testing. d) Testing based on the tester's experience, knowledge and intuition.

b (a) Is not correct: Exploratory testing is often carried out when timescales are short, so making in-depth investigations of the background of the test object is unlikely. b) Correct: Glossary definition. c) Is not correct: Based on the Glossary definition of session based testing, but with test execution replaced by test analysis. d) Is not correct: Glossary definition of experience-based testing)

Which of the following statements BEST describes how tasks are divided between the test manager and the tester? a) The test manager plans testing activities and chooses the standards to be followed, while the tester chooses the tools and set the tools usage guidelines. b) The test manager plans and controls the testing activities, while the tester specifies the tests and decides on the test automation framework. c) The test manager plans, monitors, and controls the testing activities, while the tester designs tests and decides on the release of the test object. d) The test manager plans and organizes the testing and specifies the test cases, while the tester prioritizes and executes the tests.

b (a) Is not correct: Selection of tools is a test manager task (syllabus 5.1.2 11. dot.). b) Is correct: See Syllabus 5.1.2 (test manager 2. + 4. + 8.dot; tester 5.+ 6.dot). c) Is not correct: The tester does not decide on the release of the test object (syllabus chapter 5.1.2) d) Is not correct: The tester specifies the test cases, the test manager does the prioritization (syllabus chapter 5.1.2).)

Which one of the following is the description of statement coverage? a) It is a metric, which is the percentage of test cases that have been executed. b) It is a metric, which is the percentage of statements in the source code that have been executed. c) It is a metric, which is the number of statements in the source code that have been executed by test cases that are passed. d) It is a metric, that gives a true/false confirmation if all statements are covered or not.

b (a) Is not correct: Statement coverage measures the percentage of statements exercised by test cases. b) Is correct: Syllabus 4.3.1: statement testing exercises the executable statements in the code. Statement coverage is measured as the number of statements executed by the tests divided by the total number of executable statements in the test object, normally expressed as a percentage. c) Is not correct: The coverage does not measure pass/fail. d) Is not correct: It is a metric and does not provide true/false statements.)

Which of the following statements comparing component testing and system testing is TRUE? a) Component testing verifies the functionality of software modules, program objects, and classes that are separately testable, whereas system testing verifies interfaces between components and interactions between different parts of the system. b) Test cases for component testing are usually derived from component specifications, design specifications, or data models, whereas test cases for system testing are usually derived from requirement specifications or use cases. c) Component testing only focuses on functional characteristics, whereas system testing focuses on functional and non-functional characteristics. d) Component testing is the responsibility of the testers, whereas system testing typically is the responsibility of the users of the system.

b (a) Is not correct: System testing does not test interfaces between components and interactions between different parts of the system; this is a target of integration tests (syllabus chapter 2.2.2). b) Is correct: Syllabus 2.2.1: Examples of work products that can be used as a test basis for component testing include detailed design, code, data model, component specifications. Syllabus 2.2.3: Examples of work products for system testing include system and software requirement specifications (functional and non-functional) use cases. c) Is not correct: Component testing does not ONLY focus on functional characteristics. d) Is not correct: Component tests are also executed by developers, whereas system testing typically is the responsibility of testers (syllabus chapter 2.2).)

Which of the following statements correctly describes the difference between testing and debugging? a) Testing identifies the source of defects; debugging analyzes the defects and proposes prevention activities. b) Dynamic testing shows failures caused by defects; debugging finds, analyzes, and removes the causes of failures in the software. c) Testing removes defects; debugging identifies the causes of failures. d) Dynamic testing prevents the causes of failures; debugging removes the failures

b (a) Is not correct: Testing does not identify the source of defects, debugging identifies the defects (syllabus chapter 1.1.2). b) Is correct: Dynamic testing can show failures that are caused by defects in the software. Debugging eliminates the defects, which are the source of failures, not the root cause of the defects (syllabus 1.1.2). c) Is not correct: Testing does not remove faults, but debugging remove defects that cause the faults (syllabus chapter 1.1.2). d) Is not correct: Dynamic testing does not directly prevent the causes of failures (defects), but detects the presence of defects (syllabus chapter 1.3, 1. principle).)

You are testing a new version of software for a coffee machine. The machine can prepare different types of coffee based on four categories. i.e., coffee size, sugar, milk, and syrup. The criteria are as follows: Coffee size (small, medium, large), Sugar (none, 1 unit, 2 units, 3 units, 4 units), Milk (yes or no), Coffee flavor syrup (no syrup, caramel, hazelnut, vanilla). Now you are writing a defect report with the following information: Title: Low coffee temperature. Short summary: When you select coffee with milk, the time for preparing coffee is too long and the temperature of the beverage is too low (less than 40 °C ) Expected result: The temperature of coffee should be standard (about 75 °C). Degree of risk: Medium Priority: Normal What valuable information was omitted in the above defect report? a) The actual test result. b) Data identifying the tested coffee machine. c) Status of the defect. d) Ideas for improving the test case

b (a) Is not correct: The test result is given in the short summary. b) Is correct: When testing different versions of software, identifying information is necessary (syllabus chapter 5.6, paragraph: "A defect report...." 4. dot). c) Is not correct: You are just writing the defect report; hence, the status is automatically open. d) Is not correct: This information is useful for the tester but does not need to be included in the defect report.)

In what way can testing be part of Quality Assurance? a) It ensures that requirements are detailed enough. b) It contributes to the achievement of quality in a variety of ways. c) It ensures that standards in the organization are followed. d) It measures the quality of software in terms of number of executed test cases.

b (a) Is not correct: This is quality assurance but not testing (syllabus chapter 1.2.2). b) Is correct: Syllabus 1.2.2. Testing contributes to the achievement of quality in a variety of ways, e.g. such as reducing the risk of inadequate software quality (syllabus chapter 1.1.1). c) Is not correct: This is quality assurance but not testing (syllabus chapter 1.2.2). d) Is not correct: The quality cannot be measured by counting the number of executed test cases without knowing the outcome (syllabus chapter 1.2.2).)

Which of the following BEST describes how value is added by maintaining traceability between the test basis and test artifacts? a) Maintenance testing can be fully automated based on changes to the initial requirements. b) It is possible to determine if a new test case has increased coverage of the requirements. c) Test managers can identify which testers found the highest severity defects. d) Areas that may be impacted by side-effects of a change can be targeted by confirmation testing

b (a) Is not correct: Traceability will allow existing test cases to be linked with updated and deleted requirements (although there is no support for new requirements), but it will not help with the automation of maintenance testing. b) Correct: If all test cases are linked with requirements, then whenever a new test case (with traceability) is added, it is possible to see if any previously-uncovered requirements are covered by the new test case. c) Is not correct: Traceability between the test basis and test artifacts will not provide information on which testers found high-severity defects, and, even if this information could be determined, it would be of limited value. d) Is not correct: Traceability can help with identifying test cases affected by changes, however areas impacted by side-effects would be the focus of regression testing.)

The following statement refers to decision coverage: "When the code contains only a single 'if' statement and no loops or CASE statements, and its execution is not nested within the test, any single test case we run will result in 50% decision coverage." Which of the following statement is correct? a) The statement is true. Any single test case provides 100% statement coverage and therefore 50% decision coverage. b) The statement is true. Any single test case would cause the outcome of the "if" statement to be either true or false. c) The statement is false. A single test case can only guarantee 25% decision coverage in this case. d) The statement is false. The statement is too broad. It may be correct or not, depending on the tested software.

b (a) Is not correct: While the given statement is true, the explanation is not. The relationship between statement and decision coverage is misrepresented (syllabus chapter 4.3). b) Is correct: Since any test case will cause the outcome of the "if" statement to be either TRUE or FALSE, by definition we achieved 50% decision coverage (syllabus chapter 4.3). c) Is not correct: A single test case can give more than 25% decision coverage, this means according to the statement above always 50 % decision coverage (syllabus chapter 4.3). d) Is not correct: The statement is specific and always true, because each test case achieves 50 % decision coverage (syllabus chapter 4.3))

Which activities are carried out within the planning of a formal review? a) Collection of metrics for the evaluation of the effectiveness of the review. b) Answer any questions the participants may have. c) Verification of input criteria for the review.. d) Evaluation of the review findings against the exit criteria.

c (a) Is not correct: 'Collection of metrics' belongs to the main activity "Fixing and Reporting" (syllabus chapter 3.2.1). b) Is not correct: 'Answer any question.' belongs to the main activity "Initiate Review" (syllabus chapter 3.2.1). c) Is correct: According to syllabus chapter 3.2.1: The checking of entry criteria takes place in the planning of a formal review. d) Is not correct: The evaluation of the review findings against the exit criteria belongs to the main activity "Issue communication and analysis" (syllabus chapter 3.2.1).)

For which of the following situations is explorative testing suitable? a) When time pressure requires speeding up the execution of tests already specified. b) When the system is developed incrementally and no test charter is available. c) When testers are available who have sufficient knowledge of similar applications and technologies. d) When an advanced knowledge of the system already exists and evidence is to be provided that it should be tested intensively.

c (a) Is not correct: Exploratory testing is not suitable to speed up tests, which are already specified. It is most useful when there are few or inappropriate specified requirements or significant time pressure on testing (syllabus chapter 4.4.2). b) Is not correct: The absence of a test charter, which may have been derived from the test analysis, is a poor precondition for the use of exploratory testing (syllabus chapter 1.4.3 and 4.4.2). c) Is correct: Exploratory tests should be performed by experienced testers with knowledge of similar applications and technologies (syllabus chapter 4.4 and 1.4.2). d) Is not correct: Explorative testing alone is not suitable to provide evidence that the test was very intensive, instead the evidence is provided in combination with other test methods (syllabus chapter 4.4.2).)

Which of the review types below is the BEST option to choose when the review must follow a formal process based on rules and checklists? a) Informal Review. b) Technical Review. c) Inspection. d) Walkthrough.

c (a) Is not correct: Informal review does not use a formal process (syllabus chapter 3.2.3). b) Is not correct: Use of checklists are optional (syllabus chapter 3.2.3). c) Is correct: As per syllabus 3.2.3: inspection is a formal process based on rules and checklists. d) Is not correct: Does not explicitly require a formal process and the use of checklists is optional (syllabus chapter 3.2.3).)

Which of the following statements about test types and test levels is CORRECT? a) Functional and non-functional testing can be performed at system and acceptance test levels, while white-box testing is restricted to component and integration testing. b) Functional testing can be performed at any test level, while white-box testing is restricted to component testing. c) It is possible to perform functional, non-functional and white-box testing at any test level. d) Functional and non-functional testing can be performed at any test level, while Whitebox testing is restricted to component and integration testing.

c (a) Is not correct: It is possible to perform any of the test types (functional, non-functional, white-box) at any test level - so, although it is correct that functional and non-functional testing can be performed at system and acceptance test levels, it is incorrect to state that white-box testing is restricted to component and integration testing. b) Is not correct: It is possible to perform any of the test types (functional, non-functional, white-box) at any test level - so, it is incorrect to state that white-box testing is restricted to component testing. c) Correct: It is possible to perform any of the test types (functional, non-functional, white-box) at any test level. d) Is not correct: It is possible to perform any of the test types (functional, non-functional, white-box) at any test level - so, it is incorrect to state that white-box testing is restricted to component testing and integration testing.)

Which one of the following is TRUE? a) The purpose of regression testing is to check if the correction has been successfully implemented, while the purpose of confirmation testing is to confirm that the correction has no side effects. b) The purpose of regression testing is to detect unintended side effects, while the purpose of confirmation testing is to check if the system is still working in a new environment. c) The purpose of regression testing is to detect unintended side effects, while the purpose of confirmation testing is to check if the original defect has been fixed. d) The purpose of regression testing is to check if the new functionality is working, while the purpose of confirmation testing is to check if the original defect has been fixed.

c (a) Is not correct: Regression testing does not check successful implementation of corrections and confirmation testing does not check for side effects (syllabus chapter 2.4). b) Is not correct: The statement about confirmation testing should be about regression testing (syllabus chapter 2.4). c) Is correct: Syllabus chapter 2.3.4. d) Is not correct: Testing new functionality is not regression testing (syllabus chapter 2.4).)

How can white-box testing be applied during acceptance testing? a) To check if large volumes of data can be transferred between integrated systems. b) To check if all code statements and code decision paths have been executed. c) To check if all work process flows have been covered. d) To cover all web page navigations.

c (a) Is not correct: Relevant for integration testing (syllabus chapter 2.2.2). b) Is not correct: Relevant for component testing (syllabus chapter 2.2.1). c) Is correct: syllabus chapter 2.3.5: For acceptance testing, tests are designed to cover all supported financial data file structures and value ranges for bank-to-bank transfers. d) Is not correct: Relevant for system testing (syllabus chapter 2.2.3).)

A video application has the following requirement: The application shall allow playing a video on the following display resolution: 1. 640x480. 2. 1280x720. 3. 1600x1200. 4. 1920x1080. Which of the following list of test cases is a result of applying the equivalence partitioning test technique to test this requirement? a) Verify that the application can play a video on a display of size 1920x1080 (1 test case). b) Verify that the application can play a video on a display of size 640x480 and 1920x1080 (2 test cases). c) Verify that the application can play a video on each of the display sizes in the requirement (4 test cases). d) Verify that the application can play a video on any one of the display sizes in the requirement (1 test case).

c (a) Is not correct: See correct answer c). b) Is not correct: See correct answer c). c) Is correct: This is a case where the requirement gives an enumeration of discrete values. Each enumeration value is an equivalence class by itself; therefore, each will be tested when using equivalence partitioning test technique. d) Is not correct: See correct answer c).)

Mr. Test has been testing software applications on mobile devices for a period of 5 years. He has a wealth of experience in testing mobile applications and achieves better results in a shorter time than others. Over several months Mr. Test did not modify the existing automated test cases and did not create any new test cases. This leads to fewer and fewer defects being found by executing the tests. What principle of testing did Mr. Test not observe? a) Testing depends on the environment. b) Exhaustive testing is not possible. c) Repeating of tests will not find new defects. d) Defects cluster together.

c (a) Is not correct: Testing is context dependent, regardless of it being manual or automated (syllabus chapter 1.3, 6. principle), but does not result in detecting a decreasing number of faults as described above. b) Is not correct: Exhaustive testing is impossible, regardless of the amount of effort put into testing (syllabus chapter 1.3, 2. principle). c) Is correct: Syllabus 1.3: principle #5 says "If the same tests are repeated over and over again, eventually these tests no longer find any new defects. To detect new defects, existing tests and test data may need changing, and new tests may need to be written." Automated regression testing of the same test cases will not bring new findings. d) Is not correct: "Defects cluster together" (syllabus chapter 1.3.4, 4. principle). A small number of modules usually contain most of the defects, but this does not mean that fewer and fewer defects will be found.)

Which of the following is a defect rather than a root cause in a fitness tracker? a) Because he was unfamiliar with the domain of fitness training, the author of the requirements wrongly assumed that users wanted heartbeat in beats per hour. b) The tester of the smartphone interface had not been trained in state transition testing, so missed a major defect. c) An incorrect configuration variable implemented for the GPS function could cause location problems during daylight saving times. d) Because she had never worked on wearable devices before, the designer of the user interface misunderstood the effects of reflected sunlight.

c (a) Is not correct: The lack of familiarity of the requirements author with the fitness domain is a root cause. b) Is not correct: The lack of training of the tester in state transition testing was one of the root causes of the defect ( the developer presumably created the defect, as well). c) Correct: The incorrect configuration data represents faulty software in the fitness tracker (a defect), that may cause failures. d) Is not correct: The lack of experience in designing user interfaces for wearable devices is a typical example of a root cause of a defect.)

Which of the following is an example of a failure in a car cruise control system? a) The developer of the system forgot to rename variables after a cut-and-paste operation. b) Unnecessary code that sounds an alarm when reversing was included in the system. c) The system stops maintaining a set speed when the radio volume is increased or decreased. d) The design specification for the system wrongly states speeds in km/h.

c (a) Is not correct: This is an example of a mistake made by the developer. b) Is not correct: This is an example of a defect (something wrong in the code that may cause a failure). c) Correct: This is a deviation from the expected functionality - a cruise control system should not be affected by the radio. d) Is not correct: This is an example of a defect (something wrong in a specification that may cause a failure if subsequently implemented).)

What is checklist-based testing? a) A test technique in which tests are derived based on the tester's knowledge of past faults, or general knowledge of failures. b) Procedure to derive and/or select test cases based on an analysis of the specification, either functional or non-functional, of a component or system without reference to its internal structure. c) An experience-based test technique whereby the experienced tester uses a list of items to be noted, checked, or remembered, or a set of rules or criteria against which a product has to be verified. d) An approach to testing where the testers dynamically design and execute tests based on their knowledge, exploration of the test item and the results of previous tests.

c (a) Is not correct: This is error guessing, defined in glossary V.3.2. b) Is not correct: This is black-box test technique, defined in glossary V.3.2. c) Is correct: Defined in glossary V.3.2. d) Is not correct: This is exploratory testing, defined in Glossary V.3.2.)

A speed control and reporting system has the following characteristics: If you drive 50 km/h or less, nothing will happen. If you drive faster than 50 km/h, but no more than 55 km/h, you will be warned. If you drive faster than 55 km/h but not more than 60 km/h, you will be fined. If you drive faster than 60 km/h, your driving license will be suspended. The speed in km/h is available to the system as an integer value. Which would be the most likely set of values (km/h) identified by applying the boundary value analysis, where only the boundary values on the boundaries of the equivalence classes are relevant? a) 0, 49, 50, 54, 59, 60. b) 50, 55, 60. c) 49, 50, 54, 55, 60, 62. d) 50, 51, 55, 56, 60, 61.

d

Given the following statements about the relationships between software development activities and test activities in the software development lifecycle: 1. Each development activity should have a corresponding testing activity. 2. Reviewing should start as soon as final versions of documents become available. 3. The design and implementation of tests should start during the corresponding development. activity 4. Testing activities should start in the early stages of the software development lifecycle. Which of the following CORRECTLY shows which are true and false? a) True - 1, 2; False - 3, 4 b) True - 2, 3; False - 1, 2 c) True - 1, 2, 4; False - 3 d) True - 1, 4; False - 2, 3

d (Considering each statement: 1. Each development activity should have a corresponding testing activity. TRUE - as described in the syllabus (2.1.1). 2. Reviewing should start as soon as final versions of documents become available. FALSE - it should start as soon as drafts are available, as per syllabus (2.1.1). 3. The design and implementation of tests should start during the corresponding development activity. FALSE - the analysis and design of tests should start during the corresponding development activity, not the implementation, as per syllabus (2.1.1). 4. Testing activities should start in the early stages of the software development lifecycle. TRUE - as described in the syllabus (2.1.1). Thus, option D is correct.)

A fitness app measures the number of steps that are walked each day and provides feedback to encourage the user to keep fit. The feedback for different numbers of steps should be: Up to 1000 - Couch Potato! Above 1000, up to 2000 - Lazy Bones! Above 2000, up to 4000 - Getting There! Above 4000, up to 6000 - Not Bad! Above 6000 - Way to Go! Which of the following sets of test inputs would achieve the highest equivalence partition coverage? a) 0, 1000, 2000, 3000, 4000 b) 1000, 2001, 4000, 4001, 6000 c) 123, 2345, 3456, 4567, 5678 d) 666, 999, 2222, 5555, 6666

d (The following valid equivalence partitions can be identified: 1) Up to 1000 - Couch Potato! 2) Above 1000, up to 2000 - Lazy Bones! 3) Above 2000, up to 4000 - Getting There! 4) Above 4000, up to 6000 - Not Bad! 5) Above 6000 - Way to Go! The sets of test inputs therefore cover the following partitions: a) 0 (1), 1000 (1), 2000 (2), 3000 (3), 4000 (3) - 3 partitions (out of 5) b) 1000 (1), 2001 (3), 4000 (3), 4001 (4), 6000 (4) - 3 partitions (out of 5) c) 123 (1), 2345 (3), 3456 (3), 4567 (4), 5678 (4) - 3 partitions (out of 5) d) 666 (1), 999 (1), 2222 (3), 5555 (4), 6666 (5) - 4 partitions (out of 5) Thus, option D is correct.)

Which test tool (A-D) is characterized by the classification (1-4) below? 1. Tool support for management of testing and testware. 2. Tool support for static testing. 3. Tool support for test execution and logging. 4. Tool support for performance measurement and dynamic analysis. A. Coverage tools. B. Configuration management tools. C. Review tools. D. Monitoring tools. a) 1A, 2B, 3D, 4C. b) 1B, 2C, 3D, 4A. c) 1A, 2C, 3D, 4B. d) 1B, 2C, 3A, 4D.

d (Tool support for management of testing and testware, syllabus chapter 6.1.1, configuration management tools (1B). Tool support for static testing, syllabus chapter 6.1.1, tools that support reviews (2C). Tool support for test execution and logging, syllabus chapter 6.1.1, coverage tools (3A). Tool support for performance measurement and dynamic analysis, syllabus chapter 6.1.1, performance testing tools/monitoring tools/dynamic analysis tools (4D). Thus: a) Is not correct b) Is not correct c) Is not correct d) Is correct)

As a result of risk analysis, more testing is being directed to those areas of the system under test where initial testing found more defects than average. Which of the following testing principles is being applied? a) Beware of the pesticide paradox. b) Testing is context dependent. c) Absence-of-errors is a fallacy. d) Defects cluster together

d (a) Is not correct: 'Beware of the pesticide paradox' is concerned with re-running the same tests and their fault-finding effectiveness decreasing. b) Is not correct: This testing principle is concerned with performing testing differently based on the context (e.g. games vs safety-critical). c) Is not correct: This testing principle is concerned with the difference between a tested and fixed system and a validated system. No 'errors' does not mean the system is fit for use. d) Correct: If clusters of defects are identified (areas of the system containing more defects than average), then testing effort should be focused on these areas.)

A company's employees are paid bonuses if they work more than a year in the company and achieve a target which is individually agreed before. These facts can be shown in a decision table: Condition T1 T2 T3 T4 C1 Employment for more than a year YES NO NO YES C2 Agreed Target NO NO YES YES C3 Achieved Target NO NO YES YES Action Bonus Payment NO NO NO NO Which of the following test cases represents a situation that can happen in real life,and is missing in the above decision table? a) Condition1 = YES, Condition2 = NO, Condition3 = YES, Action= NO b) Condition1 = YES, Condition2 = YES, Condition3 = NO, Action= YES c) Condition1 = NO, Condition2 = NO, Condition3 = YES, Action= NO d) Condition1 = NO, Condition2 = YES, Condition3 = NO, Action= NO

d (a) Is not correct: If there was no agreement on targets, it is impossible to reach the targets. Since this situation can´t occur, this is not a scenario happening in reality. b) Is not correct: The test case is objectively wrong, since under these conditions no bonus is paid because the agreed target was not reached. c) Is not correct: There was no agreement on targets, it is impossible to reach the targets. Since this situation can´t occur, this is not a scenario happening in reality. d) Is correct: The test case describes the situation that the too short period of employment and the non-fulfilment of the agreed target leads to non-payment of the bonus. This situation can occur in practice, but is missing in the decision table)

You will be invited to a review. The work product to be reviewed is a description of the in-house document creation process. The aim of the description is to present the work distribution between the different roles involved in the process in a way that can be clearly understood by everyone. You will be invited to a checklist-based review. The checklist will also be sent to you. It includes the following points: i. Is the person who performs the activity clearly identified for each activity? ii. Is the entry criteria clearly defined for each activity? iii. Is the exit criteria clearly defined for each activity? iv. Are the supporting roles and their scope of work clearly defined for each activity? In the following we show an excerpt of the work result to be reviewed, for which you should use the checklist above: "After checking the customer documentation for completeness and correctness, the software architect creates the system specification. Once the software architect has completed the system specification, he invites testers and verifiers to the review. A checklist describes the scope of the review. Each invited reviewer creates review comments - if necessary - and concludes the review with an official review done-comment." Which of the following statements about your review is correct? a) Point ii) of the checklist has been violated because it is not clear which condition must be fulfilled in order to invite to the review. b) You notice that in addition to the tester and the verifier, the validator must also be invited. Since this item is not part of your checklist, you do not create a corresponding comment. c) Point iii) of the checklist has been violated as it is not clear what marks the review as completed. d) Point i) of the checklist has been violated because it is not clear who is providing the checklist for the invitation to the review.

d (a) Is not correct: It is described that the software architect must have completed the system specification. b) Is not correct: In syllabus chapter 3.2.4 'checklist-based', last sentence it is documented that you should also look for defects outside the checklist. c) Is not correct: It is described: every reviewer did his review done comment. d) Is correct: It is described that a checklist is available, but who provides the checklist?)

Which of the following sequences BEST shows the main activities of the work product review process? a) Initiate review - Reviewer selection - Individual review - Issue communication and analysis - Rework b) Planning & preparation - Overview meeting - Individual review - Fix- Report c) Preparation - Issue Detection - Issue communication and analysis - Rework - Report d) Plan - Initiate review - Individual review - Issue communication and analysis - Fix defects & report

d (a) Is not correct: Reviewer selection is not one of the main activities for the work product review process in the syllabus (3.2.1). b) Is not correct: This is a possible set of activities for a work product review process, but it is missing the 'Issue communication and analysis' activity, and it does not match the main activities for the work product review process in the syllabus (3.2.1). c) Is not correct: This is a possible set of activities for a work product review process, but it is missing the 'initiate review' activity, and it does not match the main activities for the work product review process in the syllabus (3.2.1). d) Correct: This is the order of the activities as provided in the syllabus (3.2.1).)

Which of the following statements CORRECTLY reflects the value of static testing? a) By introducing reviews, we have found that both the quality of specifications and the time required for development and testing have increased. b) Using static testing means we have better control and cheaper defect management due to the ease of removing defects later in the lifecycle. c) Now that we require the use of static analysis, missed requirements have decreased and communication between testers and developers has improved. d) Since we started using static analysis, we -find coding defects that might have not been found by performing only dynamic testing.

d (a) Is not correct: Reviews should increase the quality of specifications, however the time required for development and testing should decrease, as per syllabus (3.1.2). b) Is not correct: Removing defects is generally easier earlier in the lifecycle, as per syllabus (3.1.2). c) Is not correct: Reviews will result in fewer missed requirements and better communication between testers and developers, however this is not true for static analysis, as per syllabus (3.1.2). d) Correct: This is a benefit of static analysis, as per syllabus (3.1.2).)

Which of the following options are roles in a formal review? a) Developer, Moderator, Review leader, Tester. b) Author, Moderator, Manager, Developer. c) Author, Manager, Review leader, Designer. d) Author, Moderator, Review leader, Scribe.

d (a) Is not correct: Tester and developer are NOT roles in a formal review as per syllabus chapter 3.2.2. b) Is not correct: Developer is NOT a role in a formal review as per syllabus chapter 3.2.2. c) Is not correct: Designer is NOT a role in a formal review as per syllabus chapter 3.2.2. d) Is correct: See syllabus chapter 3.2.2.)

Which one of the following is MOST likely to be a benefit of test execution tools? a) It is easy to create regression tests. b) It is easy to maintain version control of test assets. c) It is easy to design tests for security testing. d) It is easy to run regression tests

d (a) Is not correct: The benefits are not when creating regressions tests, more in executing them. b) Is not correct: This is done by configuration management tools. c) Is not correct: This needs specialized tools. d) Is correct: Syllabus chapter 6.1.2: Reduction in repetitive manual work (e.g. running regression tests, environment set up/tear down tasks, re-entering the same test data, and checking against coding standards), thus saving time)

Which of the following activities is part of the main activity "test analysis" in the test process? a) Identifying any required infrastructure and tools. b) Creating test suites from test scripts. c) Analyzing lessons learned for process improvement. d) Evaluating the test basis for testability.

d (a) Is not correct: This activity is performed during the test design activity (syllabus chapter 1.4.2, test design). b) Is not correct: This activity is performed during the test implementation activity (syllabus chapter 1.4.2, test implementation). c) Is not correct: This activity is performed during the test completion activity (syllabus chapter 1.4.2, test completion). d) Is correct: This activity is performed during the test analysis activity (syllabus chapter 1.4.2, test analysis).)

Which one of the following options is categorized as a black-box test technique? a) A technique based on analysis of the architecture. b) A technique checking that the test object is working according to the technical design. c) A technique based on the knowledge of past faults, or general knowledge of failures. d) A technique based on formal requirements.

d (a) Is not correct: This is a white-box test technique (syllabus chapter 2.2.2 and 4.1.2). b) Is not correct: This is a white-box test technique (syllabus chapter 4.1.2). c) Is not correct: This is an experience-based test technique (syllabus chapter 4.4). d) Is correct: Syllabus 4.1.2: Black-box test techniques are based on an analysis of the appropriate test basis (e.g. formal requirements documents, specifications, use cases, user stories).)

An employee's bonus is to be calculated. It cannot be negative, but it can be calculated down to zero. The bonus is based on the length of employment: less than or equal to 2 years, more than 2 years but less than 5 years, 5 to 10 years inclusively or longer than 10 years. What is the minimum number of test cases required to cover all valid equivalence partitions for calculating the bonus? a) 3. b) 5. c) 2. d) 4.

d (a) Is not correct: one too few (see the four correct partitions in d). b) Is not correct: one too much (see the four correct partitions in d). c) Is not correct: two too few (see the four correct partitions in d). d) Is correct: The 4 equivalence partitions correspond to the description in the question; i.e. at least one test case must be created for each equivalence partition 1. Equivalence partition: 0 ≤ employment time ≤ 2. 2. Equivalence partition: 2 < employment time < 5. 3. Equivalence partition: 5 ≤ employment time ≤ 10. 4. Equivalence partition: 10 < employment time)