Kinesiology Exams

E1: If I were to touch my right elbow to my CONTRALATERAL knee, which knee would I be touching/ a. Right b. Left

b. Left

E2: Which of the following statements is true? a. Fractures of the scapula often occur when an elderly person falls on an outstretched arm b. Only high trauma forces are likely to create a scapula fracture c. The scapula is thin inferiorly, and thicker superiorly d. The serratus anterior muscle is a scapular retractor, therefore can be trained with a rowing motion

b. Only high trauma forces are likely to create a scapula fracture

E1: To give someone a "thumbs up" sign I would be raising my thumb on the _____ aspect of my hand. a. Ulnar b. Radial c. Dorsal d. Ventral

b. Radial

E3: You have assessed a patient's squat and noticed their heel rises off the ground at the bottom position. What muscle would you likely address the mobility of?

Soleus

E2: Consider a person performing a pushup and answer the following questions: 1. Is this a closed kinetic chain or open kinetic chain movement? Describe how you know this. 2. Define the mobile and stable surfaces of teh radiocarpal joint, humero-ulnar joint, humero-radial joint and glenohumeral joint. 3. Define each of the above joints as rolling and gliding in the same direction or opposite direction. 4. During the lowering portion of the pushup, what type of contraction is occurring? (concentric, eccentric, or isometric). Describe how you know this.

((11/12 pts) 1. The push up is closed because their hands are on a surface or the ground. 2. Radiocarpal: carpals are stable, radius is mobile Humero-ulnar: Ulna is stable, humerus is mobile Humero-radial: radius is stable, humerus is mobile Glenohumeral: Humerus is stable, glenoid is mobile (THINK THIS IS THE MISSED POINT) 3. Radiocarpal: Same Humero-ular: Opposite Humero-radial: Opposite Glenohumeral: Same (If 2 was wrong then this is opposite) 4. Lower portion is eccentric. The triceps are lengthening to slow the body down as it is approaching the floor.

E1: Consider a person performing a squat and answer the following questions. 1. Is this an open or closed kinetic chain movement? How do you know? 2. Define the mobile and stable segments at the talocrural, tibiofemoral and femoroacetabular joints 3. Define the type of contraction occurring on the lowering portion of the squat (concentric, eccentric, isometric). Explain how you know this.

(10/10 pts) 1. A squat is a closed kinetic chain because the most distal part is grounded and not free to move around. 2. Talocrural: The tibia (mobile) is on the talus (stable) Tibiofemoral: The femur (mobile) is on the tibia (stable) Femoroacetabular: The pelvis (mobile) is on the femur (stable). 3. The type of contraction on the lowering portion of the squat is eccentric because the quadriceps are stretched or lengthening under this force.

E2: Describe the significance of the homunculus (sensory or motor) and what it intends to explain? (This is the powerpoint model with the larger hands and facial features versus the rest of the body) *humonculus*

(3/3pts) The homunculus model intends to show where the body is most sensitive (sensory) or has the most motor control (motor). The bigger the area on the homunculus model the greater the amount. For example, the hands are the biggest on the motor model because we have the most motor control in our hands compared to other parts of our body.

E3: What is the windlass mechanism and what is its function?

(3/4pts) It increases or decreases the navicular arch of your foot depending on load acceptance or creation. If there is load acceptance, the navicular arch lowers and creates more area to soften the load. If it is force creation, then the arch increases to make a more rigid area to propel off of. Like lifting the toes increases arch because the foot would be getting ready to propel off the ground.

E3: Sometimes healthcare professionals will say that squats are unsafe for the knees because the patellofemoral contact forces are highest in higher degrees of knee flexion. Why might this NOT be the case?

(4/4 pts) This may not be the case because the increased forces, from higher degrees of knee flexion, are offset by increased surface/contact area

E2: What resist motion is greater - radial or ulnar deviation? Why?

(4/4 pts) Ulnar has more deviation because the ulna is wider proximally/narrower distally and therefore has more space to deviate

E2: What wrist position do we create the greatest amount of force? Why?

(5/6pts) The greatest amount of force is produced at 30 degrees of extension. This is because there is optimal length for wrist extensors and flexors to produce optimal force.

E2: Name the muscles of the rotator cuff

- Supraspinatus - Infraspinatus - Subscapularis - Teres minor

E1: A hinge joint has how many planes of movement? Answer numerically

1

E3: Define each bone of the foot as '"hindfoot", "midfoot", or "forefoot" 1. cuboid 2. navicular 3. talus 4. calcaneus 5. phalanges 6. metatarsals 7. cuneiforms

1. midfoot 2. midfoot 3. hindfoot 4. hindfoot 5. forefoot 6. forefoot 7. midfoot

E2: The overall movement ratio of scapulohumeral rhythm is ____ degree(s) of scapular upward rotation for every _____ degree(s) of humeral abduction

1, 2

E1: Place these in correct order of movement for normal lumbopelvic rhythm during bending down to touch your toes: - Anterior tilt of the pelvis - Hip flexion - Lumbar flexion

1. Lumbar flexion 2. Anterior tilt of the pelvis 3. Hip flexion

E1: For each joint and movement, select whether the roll and slide are in the opposite or the same direction or have no movement: The concentric portion of a bicep curl at the elbow joint = ________ The eccentric portion of a squat at the knee joint = _________ The isometric portion of a lunge at the hip joint = ________

1. Roll and slide same 2. Roll and slide opposite 3. No movement

E2: Order the carpal bones from radial to ulnar, proximal row first, then distal. 1. (Radial side of proximal row) = ... 8. (Ulnar side of distal row) =

1. Scaphoid 2. Lunate 3. Triquetrum 4. Pisiform 5. Trapezium 6. Trapezoid 7. Capitate 8. Hamate

E3: For each characteristic, define it as either "hip" or "knee" dominant of squat pattern. 1. more flexed trunk 2. knees progress over toes more 3. greater hip than knee flexion 4. similar hip and knee flexion 5. more vertical tibia 6. more erect trunk

1. hip 2. knee 3. knee 4. hip 5. hip 6. knee

E3: When considering the femur's structure, the femoral angle of inclination is typically _____ and the femoral torsion is usually _____ degrees of anteversion. *Numerical answers*

125, 15

E1: Select whether the resistance, fulcrum, or effort is in the middle for each class of lever: - 1st class lever: - 2nd class lever: - 3rd class lever:

1st class lever: The fulcrum is in the middle 2nd class lever: The resistance is in the middle 3rd class lever: The effort is in the middle

E3: Select the correct force restrained against by each ligament: ACL PCL MCL LCL Forces: - posterior translation of tibia on femur - anterior translation of tibia on femur - valgus stress - varus stress

ACL - anterior translation of tibia on femur PCL - posterior translation of tibia on femur MCL - valgus stress LCL - varus stress

E3: Match each structure with the correct descriptor (INTRA-ARTICULAR or EXTRA-ARTICULAR): - ACL = - PCL = - MCL = - LCL =

ACL = intra-articular PCL = intra-articular MCL = extra-articular LCL = extra-articular

E3: The acetabulum has hyaline cartilage in an inverted horseshoe because neutral weight-bearing the load is _______ and during flexion the load is ________. Choices for each: - posterior-inferior - anterior-superior - anterior-inferior - posterior-superior

Answer 1: anterior-superior Answer 2: posterior-superior

E1: Match the ligament with it's correct function - Anterior longitudinal ligament - Posterior longitudinal ligament - Intertransverse ligament - Interspinous ligament - Supraspinous ligament Functions: - Resisted flexion - Resisted rotation - Resisted lateral flexion - Resists extension

Anterior longitudinal ligament - Resists extension Posterior longitudinal ligament - Resists flexion Intertransverse ligament - Resists lateral flexion Interspinous ligament - Resists flexion Supraspinous ligament - Resists flexion

E1: Please select the primary movement that occurs at each joint: - Atlanto-occipital/C0-C1 = - Atlanto-axial/C1-C2 =

Atlanto-occipital/C0-C1 = Flexion/extension Atlanto-axial/C1-C2 = Rotation

E1: Select the general function of each type of structure: - Cartilagenous structures - Ligamentous structures - Tendinous structures - Bony structures Functions: - Levers that muscles act on to produce movement - Flexible link between bony structures - Transmits muscular forces - Stability and shock attenuation

Cartilagenous structures - Stability and shock attenuation Ligamentous structures - Flexible link between bony structures Tendinous structures - Transmits muscular forces Bony structures - Levers that muscles act on to produce movement

E1: Please select whether each of these is a primary or secondary curvature of the spine: - Cervical spine lordosis - Thoracic spine kyphosis - Lumbar spine lordosis - Sacral spine kyphosis

Cervical spine lordosis - Secondary Thoracic spine kyphosis - Primary Lumbar spine lordosis - Secondary Sacral spine kyphosis - Primary

E2: Match the part of the wrist/hand with the appropriate cutaneous innervation. Dorsal aspect of the lateral hand = Dorsal aspect of the medial hand = Palmar side of distal phalanx digit 3 = Palmar aspect of thumb = Palmar aspect of the lateral hand =

Dorsal aspect of the lateral hand = Radial Dorsal aspect of the medial hand = Ulnar Palmar side of distal phalanx digit 3 = Median Palmar aspect of thumb = Median Palmar aspect of the lateral hand = Ulnar

E2: Match the extrinsic wrist extensor muscle with its correct distal attachment. - Extensor carpi ulnaris - Extensor carpi radialis brevis - Extensor carpis radialis longus - Extensor digitorum - Extensor pollicis longus - Extensor digitorum brevis Attachments: - 2nd metacarpal - 5th metacarpal - 3rd metacarpal - distal phalanx of thumb - proximal phalanx of thumb - middle and distal phalanges of digits 2,3,4,5

Extensor carpi ulnaris - 5th metacarpal Extensor carpi radialis brevis - 3rd metacarpal Extensor carpis radialis longus - 2nd metacarpal Extensor digitorum - middle and distal phalanges of digits 2,3,4,5 Extensor pollicis longus - distal phalanx of thumb Extensor digitorum brevis - proximal phalanx of thumb

E2: Match the extrinsic flexor muscle with its correct distal attachment. - Flexor carpi ulnaris - Flexor carpi radialis - Flexor digitorum superficialis - Flexor digitorum profundus - Flexor pollicis longus Attachments: - Distal phalanx of digits 2,3,4,5 - Distal phalanx of the thumb - Metacarpals 2 and 3 - Metacarpal 5, pisiform, and hamate - Middle phalanx of digits 2 ,3,4,5

Flexor carpi ulnaris - metacarpal 5, pisiform, and hamate -Flexor carpi radialis - metacarpals 2 and 3 Flexor digitorum superficialis - middle phalanx of digits 2 ,3,4,5 Flexor digitorum profundus,- distal phalanx of digits 2,3,4,5 Flexor pollicis longus - distal phalanx of the thumb

E3: Select the correct distal attachment of the following muscles: Gluteus maximus Gluteus medius Gluteus minimus Attachments: - middle to posterior portion of greater trochanter - gluteal ridge of femur and iliotibial band - anterior of greater trochanter

Gluteus maximus - gluteal ridge of femur and iliotibial band Gluteus medius - middle to posterior portion of greater trochanter Gluteus minimus - anterior of greater trochanter

E3: Match the ligament with its correct function: Iliofemoral ligament Pubofemoral ligament Ischiofemoral ligament Ligamentum teres Functions: - restrain hip ABduction - restrain hip extension - conduit for neurovascular bundle - restrains hip flexion

Iliofemoral ligament - restrain hip extension Pubofemoral ligament- restrain hip ABduction Ischiofemoral ligament- restrains hip flexion Ligamentum teres- conduit for neurovascular bundle

E3: When comparing the medial to lateral meniscus you see that the medial meniscus is: (larger or smaller), (crescent shaped or circular shaped), and (shallower or deeper)

Larger Crescent shaped Shallower

E2: Lumbrical contraction consists of what motions at each joint - MCP = - PIP = - DIP =

MCP = flexion PIP = extension DIP = extension

E2: Match the scapular motion to the muscles that create that motion. - Protraction - Retraction - Elevation - Depression - Upward rotation - Downward rotation Muscles: - Rhomboid, pec minor, upper trap, lower trap, middle trap, serratus anterior, subclavius, latissimus dorsi, levator scapulae,

Protraction - Serratus anterior, pec minor Retraction - Middle trap, lower trap, rhomboid Elevation - Upper trap, levator scapulae, rhomboid Depression - Lower trap, pec minor, subclavius, latissimus dorsi Upward rotation - lower trap, serratus anterior Downward rotation - Rhomboid, pec minor

E3: Match the muscle with its correct proximal attachment: Rectus femoris Sartorius Tensor fascia latae Attachments: - anterior iliac crest and ilial surface just anterior - anterior inferior iliac spine - anterior superior iliac spine

Rectus femoris - anterior inferior iliac spine Sartorius - anterior superior iliac spine Tensor fascia latae - anterior iliac crest and ilial surface just anterior

E1: Select which portion of the annulus (outer or inner) applies to these statements: Resists tensile load = Resists compressive load = Higher concentration of type 1 collagen = Lower concentration of type 2 =

Resists tensile load = Outer annulus Resists compressive load = Inner annulus Higher concentration of type 1 collagen = Outer annulus Lower concentration of type 2 = Inner annulus

E1: Please select the appropriate classification for each rib: Rib 1 = Rib 4 = Rib 9 = Rib 12 = Classifications: - False rib - Floating rib - True rib

Rib 1 = True Rib Rib 4 = True Rib Rib 9 = False Rib Rib 12 = Floating Rib

E3: Select the correct distal attachment of the hamstring muscles. Semitendinosus Semimembranosus Biceps femoris Attachments: - anterior-medial aspect of proximal tibia - lateral tibial condyle and proximal fibular head - posterior-medial aspect of proximal tibia

Semitendinosus - anterior-medial aspect of proximal tibia Semimembranosus - posterior-medial aspect of proximal tibia Biceps femoris - lateral tibial condyle and proximal fibular head

E1: Match each movement to the axis it occurs around: - Shoulder adduction - Wrist extension - Knee flexion - Hip external rotation Axes: - Longitudinal - Frontal/medial lateral axis - Sagittal/anterior-posterior axis

Shoulder adduction - Sagittal/anterior-posterior axis Wrist extension - Frontal/medial-lateral axis Knee flexion - Frontal/medial lateral axis Hip external rotation - Longitudinal axis

E1: Match each movement to the plane it occurs in: - Shoulder flexion - Shoulder abduction - Elbow flexion - Forearm pronation Planes: - Frontal - Transverse - Sagittal

Shoulder flexion - Sagittal Shoulder abduction - Frontal Elbow flexion - Sagittal Forearm pronation - Transverse

E2: Which of the following results of elbow flexion is considered most "normal"? a. During elbow flexion, the forearm is pulled into the same plane as the humerus b. During elbow flexion, the forearm is pulled medial to the humerus c. During elbow flexion , the forearm is pulled lateral to the humerus d. none of the above

a. During elbow flexion, the forearm is pulled into the same plane as the humerus

E1: How often do flexor muscles produce extension? a. Never b. Always c. Sometimes d. Rarely

a. Never

E2: What function does the angle of the glenoid fossa provide to the glenohumeral joint? a. The angle creates greater compressive force at the GHJ due to increased friction between the humeral head and glenoid fossa, aiding in stability b. The angle improves the length-tension relationship of the rotator cuff allowing more effective stabilization of the GHJ c. This angle maximizes joint contact for optimal shoulder external rotation ROM d. none of these

a. The angle creates greater compressive force at the GHJ due to increased friction between the humeral head and glenoid fossa, aiding in stability

E1: True or False: A posterior tilt of the pelvis creates concomitant lumbar flexion and hip extension. a. True b. False

a. True

E1: True or False: During a rotational movement, 2 points of a segment move different linear distances a. True b. False

a. True

E1: True or False: Osteokinematics refers to the movement of bones in space a. True b. False

a. True

E1: True or False: The ligament structure of the thoracic spine is tough a. True b. False

a. True

E1: True or False: With normal posture of the thoracic spine there is a constant flexion torque on the spine, creating compression on the anterior portion of the IV discs and tension on the posterior portion of the IV discs a. True b. False

a. True

E2: True or False: All wrist extensors are innervated by the radial nerve. a. True b. False

a. True

E3: True or False: Running general progresses from heel to toe while landing from a jump generally progresses from toe to heel a. True b. False

a. True

E3: True or False: The ankle is more stable in dorsiflexion than in plantarflexion a. True b. False

a. True

E3: True or False: There is no weight-bearing at the very central portion of the acetabulum and femoral head a. True b. False

a. True

E2: A pitcher comes to you reporting pain on the inside of the elbow. What structure(s) do you most suspect are injured? a. UCL b. RCL c. Flexor-pronator muscles d. Extensor-supinator muscles

a. UCL c. Flexor-pronator muscles

E2: As the wrist approaches full extension... a. all the carpals are locked and motion occurs entirely at the radiocarpal joint (yes) b. scaphoid locks onto distal carpal row to move on stable lunate and triquetrum c. movement occurs entirely at midcarpal joint d. none of these

a. all the carpals are locked and motion occurs entirely at the radiocarpal joint (yes)

E3: What motion(s) do the lateral ankle ligaments resist? a. dorsiflexion b. plantarflexion c. inversion d. eversion

a. dorsiflexion b. plantarflexion c. inversion

E2: Which muscle is most likely to create the greatest force during radial deviation? a. extensor carpi radialis longus b. extensor carpi radialis brevis c. extensor digitorum d. extensor carpi ulnaris

a. extensor carpi radialis longus

E3: The hip joint contains which of the following (select all that apply) a. high level of congruency b. hyaline cartilage c. synovial fluid d. weak anterior capsule

a. high level of congruency b. hyaline cartilage c. synovial fluid

E3: Functions of the meniscal cartilage (select all that apply) a. improve joint stability b. dissipate compressive forces c. distribute force over large area d. dissipate shearing forces e. create a "seat" for the femoral condyles f. limit ranges of motion

a. improve joint stability b. dissipate compressive forces c. distribute force over large area e. create a "seat" for the femoral condyles

E1: In general, the superficial muscles of the trunk create _____ amplitude movements, while the deep muscles of the trunk create ______ amplitudes of movement. a. large, small b. small, large c. small, small d. large, large

a. large, small

E3: Which direction of patellar subluxation is most common? a. lateral b. superior c. patellar subluxation rarely happens d. medial e. inferior

a. lateral

E3: The quadriceps vectors resolve with a force that influences the patella more _____ placing greater stress on non-contractile structure to provide a ______ force a. lateral, medial b. medial, lateral

a. lateral, medial

E1: Which of the following is NOT true of slow twitch muscle fibers a. moderate duration of force b. low activation threshold c. active in long distance running d. long duration of force

a. moderate duration of force

E2: What are the functions of the flexor pulley system? a. permit full PIP and DIP active flexion b. allow for segmental control of PIP and DIP joints c. prevent "bowstringing" of finger flexors d. none of the above

a. permit full PIP and DIP active flexion b. allow for segmental control of PIP and DIP joints c. prevent "bowstringing" of finger flexors

E3: What is a significant immediate concern with dislocation of the hip and damage to the ligamentum teres? a. potential disruption of blood supply to the femoral head b. impaired sensation from nerve damage c. need for future hip replacement due to instability of the hip d. none of the above

a. potential disruption of blood supply to the femoral head

E2: During CMC flexion and extension, the 1st metacarpal will roll and slide in the ______ direction and during CMC abduction and adduction the 1st metacarpal will roll and slide the ______ direction a. same, opposite b. opposite, same c. same, same d. opposite, opposite

a. same, opposite

E2: Choose the correct force vector(s) for the supraspinatus muscle. a. superior b. inferior c. medial d. lateral

a. superior c. medial

E3: What bone of the lower leg is the primary weight bearing bone? a. tibia b. fibula

a. tibia

E1: The plane and the axis of movement are ______ perpendicular to each other. a. Never b. Always c. Sometimes

b. Always

E1: The most common type of lever found in the human body is a 2nd class lever. a. True b. False

b. False

E1: True or False: A saddle joint has the same arthrokinematics regardless of what plane the movement of the segment occurs in a. True b. False

b. False

E1: True or False: Due to the excessive forces of weightbearing, the more inferior vertebral bodies tend to be thinner than the more superior vertebrae a. True b. False

b. False

E2: True or False - you would expect a muscle that runs from one of the humeral epicondyles to the proximal phalanx of the first digit to cause 1st digit extension at the MCP joint only a. True b. False

b. False

E2: True or False: All wrist flexors are innervated by the median nerve a. True b. False

b. False

E2: True or False: Circumduction at the wrist occurs in the transverse plane through a vertical axis a. True b. False

b. False

E2: True or False: During OKC pronation/supination, the ulna moves around the radius, but during CKC pronation/supination, the radius moves around the ulna a. True b. False

b. False

E2: True or False: Opposition is a movement in the hand typically attributed to extrinsic muscles. a. True b. False

b. False

E2: True or False: The acromioclavicular, sternoclavicular, glenohumeral, and scapulothoracic joints are the only 4 bony joints of the shoulder complex a. True b. False

b. False

E3: True or False: If you encounter a patient with too much lateral movement of the patella then selective strengthening of the VMO would be high on your list of muscles to strengthen a. True b. False

b. False

E3: True or False: It is important to completely avoid any medial knee or lower leg movement (valgus) during CKC to minimize injury risk a. True b. False

b. False

E3: True or False: It is possible for the sacrum to become out of place and a joint manipulation or chiropractic adjustment can put it back in a. True b. False

b. False

E3: True or False: Removing the patella would have minimal effect on total force production of the quads because the length and size of the quads would not change much. a. True b. False

b. False

E3: True or False: We would expect joint arthrokinematics to remain "normal" following an ACL tear a. True b. False

b. False

E3: If someone sustained an injury that required healing to be undergone in the maximal joint contact position - which positions would you place their hip in? a. Adduction b. Flexion c. Extension d. External Rotation e. Internal Rotation f. Abduction

b. Flexion d. External Rotation f. Abduction

E3: Select all that apply to foot pronation in closed kinetic chain: a. calcaneal inversion b. calcaneal eversion c. talar abduction d. calcaneal abduction e. talar adduction f. tibial internal rotation g. talar plantarflexion h. calcaneal adduction i. talar dorsiflexion j. tibial external rotation

b. calcaneal eversion d. calcaneal abduction e. talar adduction f. tibial internal rotation g. talar plantarflexion

E3: What structure absorbs the most force while running? a. heel pad b. calf muscles c. shoe d. arch

b. calf muscles

E1: A pushup is considered a(n) _____ movement while a seated knee extension is considered a(n) ______ movement. a. open kinetic chain; closed kinetic chain b. closed kinetic chain; open kinetic chain c. open kinetic chain; open kinetic chain d. closed kinetic chain; closed kinetic chain

b. closed kinetic chain; open kinetic chain

E3: In general, the smaller muscles of the hip are primarily for ______ while the larger muscles are primarily for ______. a. force production, control b. control, force production c. control, control d. force production, force production

b. control, force production

E3: The lateral side of the tibial plateau is slightly more _____ with a ______ meniscus than the medial tibial plateau. a. concave, shallower b. convex, deeper c. concave, deeper d. convex, shallower

b. convex, deeper

E2: Choose the correct force vector(s) for the subscapularis, teres minor, and infraspinatus muscle complex. a. superior b. inferior c. medial d. lateral

b. inferior c. medial

E2: As the scapula undergoes upward rotation, the inferior of the angle of the scapula will move _________ relative to the spinous process of T7 (select all that apply) a. medial b. lateral c. superior d. inferior

b. lateral c. superior

E1: BONUS: During the presentation of his clinical scenario, what body part of the golfer was painful? a. low back b. left hip c. right knee d. right elbow

b. left hip

E3: Someone with increased femoral torsion (excess anteversion) will likely have _______ of the hip a. no change in motion b. more internal rotation c. more external rotation

b. more internal rotation

E3: What motion(s) do the medial ligaments resist? a. inversion b. plantarflexion c. eversion d. dorsiflexion

b. plantarflexion c. eversion d. dorsiflexion

E2: What is the function of the palmar plate at the MCP joint? a. prevent excess flexion b. prevent excess extension c. prevent excess abduction and adduction d. none of the above

b. prevent excess extension

E2: Which of the following is NOT a function of the glenoid labrum? a. deepen glenoid fossa to increase amount of articulation for humeral head b. provide support dynamic movements of the UE as a contractile structure c. create negative intra-articular pressure at the GHJ d. provide an attachment point for the biceps brachii

b. provide support dynamic movements of the UE as a contractile structure

E3: During weight acceptance, the lower extremity _____ to absorb force. In propulsion, the lower extremity _____ to generate force. a. softens, softens b. softens, stiffens c. stiffens, softens d. stiffens, stiffens

b. softens, stiffens

E3: At the bottom of a squat your client's heels rise off the ground, demonstrating a lack of ankle mobility? a. anterior tibialis b. soleus c. gastrocnemius d. none of the above

b. soleus

E2: Which of these are correct attachments of the biceps brachii muscle? a. infraglenoid tubercle b. supraglenoid tubercle c. radial tuberosity d. ulnar tuberosity e. 1st metacarpal

b. supraglenoid tubercle c. radial tuberosity

E1: The cervical spine is unique in its structure because the transverse processes have a hole called the transverse foramen, which allows passage of the.... a. Vertebral vein b. Vertebral artery c. Both A and B d. None of the above

c. Both A and B

E2: A tennis player dives for a ball and lands with their arms outstretch. They sustain a fracture. What is the most likely bone that they fractured? a. No way to discern b. Ulna c. Radius d. None, wrist/hand fractures are rare

c. Radius

E3: Which muscle are the sesamoids of the foot embedded in? a. flexor hallucis longus b. extensor digitorum c. flexor hallucis brevis d. abductor hallucis

c. flexor hallucis brevis

E1: During shoulder flexion the ______ is the mobile segment while the _______ is the stable segment. a. humeral head, humeral head b. glenoid, humeral head c. humeral head, glenoid d. glenoid, glenoid

c. humeral head, glenoid

E3: Your client has a collapsed arch on their right foot. Do you suspect their navicular height on the right is [HIGHER, LOWER, OR THE SAME] as the navicular height on the left? a. higher b. the same c. lower

c. lower

E3: During running, as speed increases, the base of support.... a. widens b. stays the same c. narrows

c. narrows

E3: What is the keystone of the medial longitudinal arch? a. talus b. medial cuneiform c. navicular d. cuboid

c. navicular

E1: Which of these is NOT an attachment for the sternocleidomastoid muscle? a. clavicle b. sternum c. mastoid process d. 1st rib

d. 1st rib

E2: If you are faced with an attacker wielding a crowbar and you have been able to grab their forearm, what would be an appropriate response to disarm them? a. scratch them b. bite them c. bend wrist into max extension d. bend wrist into max flexion e. tickle them

d. bend wrist into max flexion

E1: What is NOT true regarding the atlas/C1? a. it has no body b. it gets the name Atlas from Greek mythology c. it forms a ring d. none of the above

d. none of the above

E2: What is the secondary function of the brachialis muscle? a. wrist flexion b. shoulder flexion c. pronation d. none of the above

d. none of the above

E1: Unilateral contraction of the right external oblique creates what motion? a. rotation to the same side b. trunk flexion c. lateral flexion opposite d. rotation opposite

d. rotation opposite

E2: Which of these is NOT a purpose of scapulohumeral rhythm? a. distribute motion among joints to permit large ROM with less compromise in individual stability b. maintain optimum position of the glenoid fossa to maintain humeral head congruence and minimize shear c. maintain a good length-tension relationship within the muscles acting on the humerus d. these are all purposes of scapulohumeral rhythm

d. these are all purposes of scapulohumeral rhythm

E2: Which of the following muscles attach to the lateral epicondyle of the humerus? a. extensor carpi ulnaris b. extensor carpi radialis longus c. extensor carpi radialis brevis d. extensor digitorum e. all of the above f. none of the above

e. all of the above

E2: Pair the muscle with the correct innervation: - flexor carpi ulnaris = - extensor digitorum = - Abd pollicis longus = - palmar interossei = - flexor digiti minimi brevis = - lumbricals =

flexor carpi ulnaris = ulnar extensor digitorum = radial Abd pollicis longus = radial palmar interossei = ulnar flexor digiti minimi brevis = ulnar lumbricals = median and ulnar

E2: The hypothenar muscles reference muscles at the base of the _____ ; while the thenar muscles reference muscles at the base of the _______

pinky; thumb

E3: What muscle "unlocks: the screw home mechanism of the knee?

popliteus