Large animal VTNE

What is the maximum volume that can be injected intramuscularly in the larger muscle groups of an average adult horse? 25 ml 5 ml 3 ml 15 ml

15 ml

The respiratory rate for an adult horse should generally be: 5-8 breaths per minute 30-40 breaths per minute 40-50 breaths per minute 8-20 breaths per minute

8-20 breaths per minute

Pregnancy check in the mare can be performed via ultrasound as early as which of the following? 60 days 14 days 42 days 30 days

14 days

Trichomoniasis causes which of the following conditions in cattle? Abortions Severe watery diarrhea Mucopurulent nasal discharge Dry, scaly skin lesions

Abortions

What is the primary defense method for a pig? Biting Striking Kicking Running

Biting

In what position is colic surgery most commonly performed? Dorsal recumbency Standing Lateral recumbency Ventral recumbency

Dorsal recumbency

For which species is it most common to clip and clean the surgical site prior to anesthetic induction? Horse Dog Cat Ferret

Horse

Which of the following species have hypsodont teeth? Horses Monkeys Dogs Pigs

Horses

Which species is not susceptible to "hoof-and-mouth" disease? Horses Cattle Pigs Sheep

Horses

Urine from which of the following species is normally cloudy or milky in appearance? Dogs and ferrets Horses and rabbits Cats and cattle Sheep and goats

Horses and rabbits

What is the usual vector of western equine encephalitis? Soft ticks Mosquito Lice Biting flies

Mosquito

What is a frightened sheep most likely to do? Kick Run Head butt Bite

Run

When a horse is feeling threatened or is resisting restraint, what is its first instinct to do? Raise up on its back legs Run away Kick with the back legs Bite

Run away

Which organism causes equine protozoal myeloencephalitis (EPM) in the horse? Sarcocystis neurona Gasterophilus intestinalis Micronema deletrix Haemonchus contortus

Sarcocystis neurona

A pot-bellied piglet presents with a history of hair loss and severe itching. You help the doctor perform a skin scraping around one of the lesions on his side and you see the following under the microscope. What parasite is this? (Giardia) Hematopinus Demodex Otodectes Sarcoptes

Sarcoptes

You are asked to administer an intramuscular injection to a beef cow. Where should you administer it? Neck muscles Shoulder muscles Epaxial muscles Gluteal muscles

Neck muscles

You are riding along on an emergency call to assist the vet with a sick foal who was born two days ago. The foal appeared normal at birth, but is now lethargic and icteric. It has a fever of 102 F. The packed cell volume is down to 15%. Which of the following diseases leads to jaundice and anemia in young foals? Bacterial hepatitis Viral hepatitis Congenital portocaval shunt Neonatal isoerythrolysis

Neonatal isoerythrolysis

If a horse gets a cut on loose barbed wire or steps on a rusty nail, which disease would be the biggest risk? Rhodococcus Leptospirosis Tetanus Blackleg

Tetanus

Which of the following conditions causes muscle rigidity and a "saw horse"-like stance? Myasthenia gravis Immune-mediated thrombocytopenia (ITP) Cushing's disease Tetanus

Tetanus

Streptococcus equi is a bacterium that causes swollen glands in horses. The common term for this condition is: Strangles Choke Sweeney Founder

Strangles

What is the causative agent of Equine strangles? Staphylococcus aureus Equine herpesvirus 1 (EHV1) Moraxella bovis Streptococcus equi

Streptococcus equi

Horses have unique structures that are paired diverticuli of the Eustachian tube located near the pharyngeal region of the horse. What is the common name of these structures? The dorsal pharyngeal recesses The hyoid apparatus The oropharyngeal openings The nasopharyngeal pouches The guttural pouches

The guttural pouches

Which disease does an intradermal caudal skin fold test check for in cattle? Moraxella bovis Anthrax Tuberculosis Dermatophytosis

Tuberculosis

In a horse, what is the most common surgical approach to the abdominal cavity? Ventral midline incision Parasaggital incision Flank incision Transverse incision

Ventral midline incision

When are needle teeth in piglets usually clipped? At 3 days of age Within 24 hours of birth At 3 weeks of age At 3 months of age

Within 24 hours of birth

Which area of the horse is generally referred to as the withers? Where the dorsal neck joins the thorax The area ventral to the neck and extending between the forelimbs The region between the tuber coxae The male genitalia

Where the dorsal neck joins the thorax

Sheep mostly breed during which season? Winter Spring Fall Summer

Fall

A 620-kg horse weighs how many pounds? 281 pounds 1,364 pounds 1,625 pounds 1,240 pounds

1,364 pounds

Your practice recently purchased a portable ultrasound machine. A client calls and asks how early her mare can have an ultrasound to determine if she is pregnant. What is the very earliest that a pregnancy can be confirmed with an ultrasound in a horse? 45 days 63 days 30 days 11 days

11 days

How many thoracic vertebrae do horses have? 18 12 13 9

18

How many mammary glands does the goat have? 1 4 6 2

2

What is the ideal time period to withhold food in large ruminants prior to general anesthesia for an elective procedure? 24-48 hours Ruminants should not be fasted prior to anesthesia 8-12 hours 4-6 hours

24-48 hours

The heart rate for an adult horse should generally be in which of the following ranges? 25-50 beats per minute 60-80 beats per minute 15-25 beats per minute 45-65 beats per minute

25-50 beats per minute

At what age should pigs be castrated? 5 - 14 days 8 months 4 months 4 weeks

5 - 14 days

What is the proper location for a hog snare? Around the hind leg, above the hock Around the mandible Around the neck, dorsal to the ears Around the maxilla, over the snout

Around the maxilla, over the snout

What is the average gestation length of a horse? Approximately 230 days Approximately 340 days Approximately 400 days Approximately 290 days

Approximately 340 days

What is the most common lead system used in a horse for electrocardiography (ECG) tracings? Base-apex lead Lead III Lead II aVL aVR

Base-apex lead

Where is the standard tuburculosis test administered in the bovine species? Ear pinna Proximal axilla Eye lid Caudal tail fold

Caudal tail fold

Which of the following is an appropriate anticoagulant for collection of blood from a donor horse for the purposes of blood transfusion to a recipient horse? Heparin Citrate-phosphate-dextrose adenine (CPDA) Citrate phosphate dexamethasone Sodium fluoride EDTA

Citrate-phosphate-dextrose adenine (CPDA)

A method of castration in cattle that is performed without incising the skin is known as: Closed castration Inguinal castration Occult castration Cryptic castration

Closed castration

What type of placenta does a ruminant have? Zonary Cotyledonary Diffuse Discoid

Cotyledonary

You have been working in the barn with baby calves that have been having severe diarrhea. You now are having a severe watery diarrhea. Which parasite would be most likely for you to have contracted from these calves? Cryptococcus Toxocara Cryptosporidium Coccidia

Cryptosporidium

How is a bull tested for Trichomonas foetus? Blood culture Wet mount of feces Blood smear Culture of smegma Microscopic exam of sperm

Culture of smegma

A rancher pulls into the clinic you are working at and rushes in to say his horse is having difficulty breathing. You assist the vet in examining the horse and note that the horse is in respiratory distress. He has dilated pupils and bright red mucous membranes. You are asked to pull blood for testing which you note is also bright red in color. Which of the following may cause this in the horse? Cyanide toxicity Walnut toxicity Choke Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease (COPD)

Cyanide toxicity

You are asked to take a dorsomedial-palmarolateral oblique radiograph of a horse's fetlock with a portable x-ray unit. A cross-section of the limb is diagrammed and labeled below with the red lines representing two possible x-ray cassette placement locations. Pick the letter that corresponds to the correct cassette placement and the correct placement of the marker on the cassette. A B D C

D

A diet high in concentrates or grains may lead to which of the following in cattle? Hyperlipidemia Increased rumen pH Hypocalcemia Decreased rumen pH

Decreased rumen pH

The most common method of identification of pigs is what? Ear notching Lip tattoo Freeze branding Ear tags

Ear notching

In which species is it common to observe Rouleaux formation in a blood smear? Equine Canine Avian Bovine

Equine

You are assisting with Coggins testing. What does this test for? Equine Herpes Virus-2 Streptococcus equi Equine Infectious Anemia Sarcoidosis

Equine Infectious Anemia

Ruminants frequently belch or burp to release gas from the forestomach. What is the term for this process known as? Apnea Fermentation Eructation Casting

Eructation

Where would you find Anaplasma marginale? White blood cells of horses Urine of sheep Erythrocytes of cattle Platelets of horses

Erythrocytes of cattle

When a calf is born, milk goes immediately to the omasum and bypasses the rumen and reticulum. Which anatomic structure makes this possible? Reticular folds Esophageal groove Gastric rugae Epiploic foramen

Esophageal groove

On average, cows have their estrous cycle how often? Every 21 days Every 6 months Every 30 days Every 60 days

Every 21 days

What procedure performed in horses includes filing and smoothing their teeth? Quidding Floating Cribbing Raking

Floating

Which of the following is an indicator that a spinal needle has successfully been placed into the epidural space in a horse? There is moderate resistance when pushing fluid through the spinal needle Spinal fluid fills the hub of the needle Fluid is immediately drawn in when placed on the hub of the needle Fluid bubbles immediately when placed on the hub of the needle

Fluid is immediately drawn in when placed on the hub of the needle

Flunixin meglumine is sometimes used in horses, cattle, and pigs for which purpose? For constipation For tapeworm infestation For analgesia For acid reflux

For analgesia

What is one way to help determine if a nasogastric tube was properly placed in a horse? Fluid will automatically come out of the tube when it is properly placed Infuse water down the tube to see if the horse coughs When the horse breathes, you can feel air coming from the tube Gently blow air into the tube and listen for gurgling

Gently blow air into the tube and listen for gurgling

What equine gastrointestinal parasite, when deposited at an abnormal site on the skin or mucous membranes, is responsible for causing the eosinophilic granulomas known as summer sores? Onchocerca cervicalis Strongylus vulgaris Oxyuris equi Strongyloides westeri Habronema spp.

Habronema spp.

What is most commonly used to restrain a horse for basic procedures? Squeeze chute Twitch Halter Hobbles

Halter

What is the number one way to prevent transmission of disease in the large-animal hospital setting? Hand hygiene Gowning Foot baths Separation of species

Hand hygiene

Which of the following techniques should NOT be performed when trying to stimulate breathing in a newborn calf? Pour cold water over the calf's head. Place a finger or piece of straw in the calf's nose. Hang the calf off the ground by its back legs and shake or swing it to stimulate breathing. Use of acupuncture points on the muzzle. Use of a respiratory stimulant such as doxapram.

Hang the calf off the ground by its back legs and shake or swing it to stimulate breathing.

Traumatic reticuloperitonitis or pericarditis in cattle is most commonly known as which of the following conditions? Metal heart disease Hardware disease Reticulitis White muscle disease

Hardware disease

When cattle are placed in lateral recumbency during general anesthesia, how should the head be positioned to decrease the risk of aspiration? Head and oral cavity lower than the neck Head and oral cavity at the same level as the neck Head and oral cavity higher than the neck Head and oral cavity higher than the neck or at the same level as the neck

Head and oral cavity lower than the neck

Goats exhibiting aggressive behavior may do so most commonly in which manner? Head butting Biting Urinating and defecating Kicking with the hind legs

Head butting

A farmer brings the one-half inch grub shown in the image to you one spring day, telling you it emerged from a hole in the back of one of his prize show cattle. What is the name of the parasite in the image? Habronema Hypoderma bovis Musca autumnalis Cuterebra

Hypoderma bovis

Which structure is NOT a part of the equine large intestine? Pelvic Flexure Cecum Left Dorsal Colon Ileum Right Dorsal Colon

Ileum

The clinical condition of "founder" in the horse refers to what? Inflammation of the distal sesamoid bone of the hoof and subsequent crushing of the bone Inflammation of the laminae of the equine hoof and subsequent rotation of the third phalanx Inflammation of the laminar joint of the hoof and subsequent lameness Inflammation of the coronary band of the hoof and subsequent abscess formation

Inflammation of the laminae of the equine hoof and subsequent rotation of the third phalanx

Which nutrient must piglets be supplemented with? Potassium Calcium Folate Iron

Iron

A horse with extended forelimbs and arched and tense back that is painful when turning most likely has which of the following conditions? Fractured shoulder Laminitis Colic Spinal cord compression

Laminitis

Where is the most recommended area to administer a subcutaneous injection in a horse? Over the withers Caudal aspect of the forearm Dorsal aspect of the flank Lateral aspect of the neck

Lateral aspect of the neck

Castration is a common procedure performed in horses. How is a horse commonly positioned for the procedure? Dorsal recumbency with rear legs positioned cranially Lateral recumbency with upper rear leg tied around neck Dorsal recumbency with legs spread wide Dorsal recumbency with legs "hog" tied

Lateral recumbency with upper rear leg tied around neck

When performing a lameness examination in a horse, perineural anesthesia is used to localize the site of lameness. The most common medication used to perform perineural anesthesia in a horse is what drug? Phenylbutazone Flunixin meglumine Butorphanol Lidocaine Ketamine

Lidocaine

You are assisting with exams on 1-week old piglets. Which of the following may be used as a method of restraint? Lift the piglet by its snout Lift the piglet by its tail Lift the piglet by its rear leg Lift the piglet by its front leg

Lift the piglet by its rear leg

Where would you collect cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) from a standing sedated horse? Lumbosacral space Temporohyoid space Atlantooccipital space Cervical-thoracic space

Lumbosacral space

"Grass tetany" may been seen in sheep or goats due to a deficiency in which mineral? Copper Magnesium Potassium Sulfur

Magnesium

Which of the following is not a potential job responsibility of the technician during colic surgery? Opening surgical packs Administering anesthesia Making the initial incision into the abdomen Placing a jugular catheter

Making the initial incision into the abdomen

What type of estrous cycle does a cow have? Induced ovulation when bred Estrus every 6 months Polyestrous in the fall Non-seasonal polyestrous

Non-seasonal polyestrous

In a cow that is having difficulty calving and seems to have her legs splaying out from underneath her, you are most concerned about damage to which nerve? Peroneal Tibial Femoral Obturator

Obturator

Which of the following is NOT a common method of restraint in the horse? Skin twitch Lip chain Nose chain Nose twitch Ocular pressure

Ocular pressure

What is the definitive host for the causative agent of equine protozoal myelitis/myeloencephalitis? Opossum Horse Raccoon Wildebeest Donkey

Opossum

Contagious ecthyma is a disease that causes painful oral ulcerations, pustules, and scabs. It is most often seen in sheep and goats, and is more commonly known as: Orf Oral Thrush Foot-and-Mouth disease Blue Tongue

Orf

What is of the biggest concern when shipping pigs? Gastric dilatation Dehydration Stress-induced diarrhea Overheating

Overheating

What species, if overworked, is most at risk for hyperthermia? Horses Cats Cows Rats Sheep

Sheep

Which of the following is considered a reportable swine disease? Sarcoptic mange Erysipelas Pseudorabies Pasturella multocida

Pseudorabies

A veterinarian has diagnosed a horse with a fracture of the distal metatarsal. In regards to emergency management, which of the following is NOT part of triage? Developing a treatment plan Stabilization of the fracture Repair of the fracture Assessment and treatment of pain

Repair of the fracture

Phenylbutazone (bute) is often used for pain relief in horses. What side effect has been associated with this drug? Right dorsal colitis Colonic impaction Esophageal stricture Laminitis

Right dorsal colitis

What is the most likely period of time for a scrotal hernia to occur in a stallion? Shortly after a trailer ride Shortly after heavy jumping Shortly after a race Shortly after breeding

Shortly after breeding

The California Mastitis Test (CMT) is an assay that gives a score that corresponds to which of the following? Presence of contagious bacteria in milk Presence of environmental bacteria in milk Fat content of milk Somatic cell count in milk

Somatic cell count in milk

Which of the following would not typically be caused by tetanus in the horse? Inability to chew or swallow Muscular rigidity Convulsions Spontaneous abortion Respiratory arrest

Spontaneous abortion

Which of the following is NOT considered a clinically important large strongyle in the horse? Strongylus edentatus Strongylus equorum Strongylus equinus Strongylus vulgaris

Strongylus equorum

In the horse, the condition known as Sweeney is caused by damage to which structure? Radial nerve First cervical vertebrae Brachial plexus Suprascapular nerve

Suprascapular nerve

You are examining a 4-year old Paint gelding and notice the pictured abnormality on physical examination. Which of the following diagnostic tests would help determine if platelets are associated with this finding? Antithrombin Activity (AT) Template Bleeding Time (TBT) Prothrombin Time (PT) Activated Partial Thromboplastin Time (APTT)

Template Bleeding Time (TBT)

You are asked to take a DLPMO radiograph of a horse's fetlock with a portable x-ray unit. Where will the x-ray unit be and where should the film cassette be? The x-ray beam should come from the more dorsal side of the limb, and the film will be on the more medial aspect of the limb. The x-ray beam should come from the more dorsal side of the limb, and the film will be on the more lateral aspect of the limb. The x-ray beam should come from the more plantar side of the limb, and the film will be on the more medial aspect of the limb. The x-ray beam should come from the more plantar side of the limb, and the film will be on the more lateral aspect of the limb.

The x-ray beam should come from the more dorsal side of the limb, and the film will be on the more medial aspect of the limb.

Why should pigs be fed from a bin or trough and not on the ground? It causes gastroesophageal reflux It causes them to swallow excessive amounts of air To prevent development of trichobezoars They cannot swallow well unless their food is elevated from the floor

To prevent development of trichobezoars

Mulberry heart disease in swine is caused by which of the following? Strict confinement Vitamin E deficiency Toxicity of eating the fruit of mulberry plants Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae

Vitamin E deficiency

A castrated male goat is known as a: Buck Gelding Wether Barrow

Wether

Under which circumstances are pigs most likely to bite each other's tails? When a pig has an open wound When they are fed a grain-only diet When there is more than one male in a group When the facility is over-crowded

When the facility is over-crowded

Which of the following drugs is NOT approved for the use in cattle? Diazepam Albendazole Butorphanol Xylazine

Xylazine

Which of the following drugs should be used with extreme caution in ruminants? Acepromazine Lidocaine Atropine Xylazine

Xylazine

How many upper incisors does a goat have? Two Four Six One Zero

Zero