Lectures

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In supine pelvis is in a A. PPT B. APT

No blisters, dry surface; delayed pain, tender A. Epidermal burn (1st degree) B. Superficial partial-thickness burn (2nd degree) C. Deep partial-thickness burn (3rd degree) D. Full-thickness burn (4th degree) E. Subdermal burn (5th degree)

Normal A. Clear B. Yellow C. Green D. Pink frothy E. Red F. Brown G. Black

Noxious stimulus (pinprick) to sole of foot >> toes extend, foot DF, LE flexes uncontrollably A. Flexor withdrawal reflex B. Crossed extension reflex C. Traction reflex D. Asymmetrical tonic neck reflex (ATNR)

Nystagmus: Latency 1-40 sec, short duration <1 min A. Canalithaisis (BPPV) B. Cupulolithiasis (BPPV)

Occurs in large intestine and rectum A. Ulcerative colitis (IBD) B. Crohn's disease (IBD)

Speech production is labored or lost completely A. Wernicke's (fluent/receptive) aphasia B. Broca's (non-fluent/expressive) aphasia

Stages of lymphedema: edema present (soft and pitting), edema reduces with elevation A. Stage 0 (latency) B. Stage 1 (reversible) C. Stage 2 (spontaneously irreversible) D. Stage 3 (lymphostatic elephantitis)

Standing with support A. 7-8 mos B. 8-10 mos C. 10 mos D. 15 mos E. 2 years F. 2.5-3 yrs G. 3 yrs H. 4 yrs

Straight leg raise: flexion, knee extension and ankle dorsiflexion with eversion and toe extension. Which nerve is MOST likely being biased in this position? A. Common peroneal nerve B. Tibial nerve C. Sciatic and Tibial nerve D. Sural nerve

Taste to anterior 2/3 of tongue A. CN5 B. CN7 C. CN10 D. CN9 E. CN12

Tender, hard and immobile A. Normal lymph node B. Abnormal lymph node

The PT is observing the gait of a patient with right trans femoral amputation. The therapist notices excessive right plantar flexion at heel strike. What could be the possible cause for this foot slap? A. Plantar flexion bumper too rigid B. Plantar flexion bumper too soft C. Heel cushion is too rigid D. Excessive inset of the foot

The patient's medical history includes hypercholesterolemia, and type 2 diabetes. The patient's systolic BP is 122 mm Hg, and diastolic BP is 77 mm Hg. Which of the following categories MOST appropriately describes the type of hypertension? A. Normal B. Elevated C. Pre-hypertension D. Stage 1

Toeing-out, subtalar supination, lateral tibial torsion, lateral femoral torsion (ER) A. Excessive anteversion B. Excessive retroversion C. Coxa vara D. Coxa valga

Tongue deviates to ipsi side with inj A. CN10 B. CN12 C. CN9

Tonic hold of muscles contributes to passive joint stiffness A. Spastic CP B. Dystonic CP C. Ataxic CP D. Athetosis CP

Treat infections (UTI most common) A. Stress incontinence B. Urge incontinence C. Functional incontinence D. Overflow incontinence

Pincer grasp, tower of two cubes A. 7 mos B. 8-9 mos C. 10-15 mos

Refers pain to groin A. Hiatal hernia B. Femoral hernia C. Inguinal hernia D. Umbilical hernia

the additional air that can be forcibly exhaled after the expiration of a normal tidal volume A. Tidal volume (TV) B. Inspiratory reserve volume (IRV) C. Expiratory reserve volume (ERV) D. Residual volume (RV)

A 28-year-old male patient with a left above knee amputation is referred to an outpatient amputee clinic. During gait analysis, the PT observes a medial heel whip during swing phase. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of this deviation? A. Taut extension aid B. Inadequate medial rotation of the knee joint. C. Prosthetic knee bolt is externally rotated. D. Short prosthesis

C. (LIME — lateral heel whip IR, medial heel whip ER)

PNF patterns: EABIR A. UE/D1 flexion B. UE/D2 flexion C. UE/D1 extension D. UE/D2 extension

C. "Pushing away"

RLCF: confused-agitated A. Lvl 1 B. Lvl 2 C. Lvl 3 D. Lvl 4 E. Lvl 5 F. Lvl 6 G. Lvl 7 H. Lvl 8

Stemmer's sign

(+) = skin on the dorsal surface of fingers or toes can not be pinched (lifted) or is difficult to pinch compared with the uninvolved limb. Indicates stage 2 or 3 lymphedema A positive Stemmer Sign is indicative of a worsening condition

Causes of BPPV

- infection - head trauma - vestibular weakness - advancing age

Medial movement/ADD A. Superior rectus B. Lateral rectus C. Inferior rectus D. Inferior oblique E. Medial rectus F. Superior oblique

E. (CN3)

Brunnstrom's stages of recovery (stroke): increased complex movement, greater independence from limb synergies A. Stage 1 B. Stage 2 C. Stage 3 D. Stage 4 E. Stage 5 F. Stage 6 G. Stage 7

E. (Complex mvmts, greater independence from synergy)

Can be used with gels, normal saline, or topical antimicrobials to keep the wound moist. Can be used on infected wounds. Effective delivery of topicals if kept moist. A. Transparent films B. Hydrocolloids C. Hydrogels D. Foams E. Alginates F. Gauze dressings

Causes: hyperparathyroidism, tumors, hyperthyroidism, vitamin A intoxication. Observe for; fatigue, depression, mental confusion, N/V, increased urination, occasional cardiac arrhythmias. A. Hypokalemia B. Hyperkalemia C. Hyponatremia D. Hypernatremia E. Hypocalcemia F. Hypercalcemia G. Hypomagnesemia H. Hypermagnesemia

Determine whether pt can accurately ID when something is upright (ex. Hold cane and ask pt when it is vertical, ask pt to determine whether their own body is vertical) A. Figure-ground discrimination B. Form constancy C. Position in space D. Spatial relations E. Topographical disorientation F. Vertical disorientation G. Agnosia

Epidermis and dermis from donor site A. Allograft B. Xenograft C. Biosynthetic graft D. Autograft E. Split-thickness graft F. Full-thickness graft

Excessive hyperreflexia Socket too posterior, DF stop too stiff A. Excessive knee flexion B. Insufficient knee flexion C. Excessive lateral thrust D. Excessive medial thrust E. Early knee flexion F. Delayed knee flexion

Exudative wounds. Wounds with dead space, tunneling or sinus tracts. Wounds with a combo of exudate or necrotic tissue. Mechanical debridement of necrotic tissue and slough (wet to dry). A. Transparent films B. Hydrocolloids C. Hydrogels D. Foams E. Alginates F. Gauze dressings

Imaging and lymphedema: D/D from venous insufficiency A. Indirect lymphography (lymphangiography) B. Lymphoscintigraphy (lymphangioscintigraphy) C. MRI/CT D. Ultrasonography E. Fluorescent microlymphography F. Doppler US

Made of cotton or synthetic fabric that is absorptive and permeable to water and oxygen. May be used wet, moist, dry or impregnated with petrolatum, antiseptics, or other agents. A. Transparent films B. Hydrocolloids C. Hydrogels D. Foams E. Alginates F. Gauze dressings

What are the scapular retractors?

Major League Rules MT LT Rhomboids

With a burn to the knee you will often see _________ contracture. And ______ will stress the burned tissue. The pt should be positioned in ____________ knee splint.

Flexion Extension Posterior

With a burn to the hip/groin you will often see _________ and _______ contracture. And ______ motions (esp hip ext and ABD) will stress the burned tissue. The pt should be positioned in ____________ position with slight ________.

Flexion and ADD all motions Hip neutral (0 deg flex/ext), slight ABD

Contact precautions used for what conditions?

MRS WEE M = multi drug resistance organisms R = respiratory infection S = skin infection W = wound infection E = enteric (C. Diff) E = eye infection (conjunctivitis)

PCA supplies

OT Occipital lobe, temporal lobe portion of midbrain, subthalamic nucleus, basal nucleus, thalamus, inferior temporal lobe, occipital and occipitoparietal cortices

Upper extremity extension synergy: list what happens at Scapula: Shoulder: Elbow: Forearm: Wrist/fingers:

Scapula: protraction Shoulder: ADD, IR Elbow: extension Forearm: pronation Wrist/fingers: flexion Google a video to better visualize - OPP of extensor synergy with the exception of wrist/fingers being the same

Problems with rolling if persists A. Palmar grasp reflex B. Moro reflex C. Symmetrical tonic labrythine (TLR/STLR) reflex D. Positive supporting reflex

C. (Bc need to flex arms in supine position to roll but this reflex causes arms in extension in supine)

Looks down and out A. Superior rectus B. Lateral rectus C. Inferior rectus D. Inferior oblique E. Medial rectus F. Superior oblique

C. (CN3)

A 58-year-old male underwent a total hip arthroplasty on the left side using a postero-lateral approach. The PT is working on a gait training program for the patient. The therapist should instruct the patient to hold the crutch or cane in the: A. Left hand to decrease activity in the left hip abductors. B. Left hand to facilitate activity in the left hip abductors. C. Right hand to decrease activity in the left hip abductors. D. Right hand to facilitate activity in the left hip abductors.

C. (Cane goes opp of affected side, decreases compressive F/activity of affected hip ABD)

A 42-year-old female patient presents with chief complaints of asymmetrical weakness of lower and upper extremities. There is presence of muscle fasciculations and impaired speech, but her sensations seem relatively intact. Her husband mentions that she randomly starts laughing or crying for "no reason at all". Which of the following signs and symptoms should the therapist LEAST likely expect to be positive in this case? A. Presence of memory impairments B. Presence of foot slap while walking C. Cervical flexor muscle weakness D. Reduced vital capacity

C. (Cervical EXTENSOR weakness)

Produces hormones that act to control the rate at which cells burn the fuel from food A. Hypothalamus B. Pituitary gland C. Thyroid gland D. Parathyroid gland E. Adrenal gland

C. (Controls metabolism)

A 6-year-old boy has been diagnosed with a positive Gower's sign. The MOST appropriate physical therapy goal is: A. Inhibition of abnormal muscle tone and facilitation of normal movement and postural reactions. B. Preservation of strength and muscle tone. C. Prevention of contractures and determine the best method of mobility D. Facilitation of normal movement and improvement of strength

C. (Degenerative condition uses less recovery in rehab, look to slow decline and maintain) (goal is to maintain mobility as long as possible and keep them moving as long as possible, prevent contractures)

A PT is evaluating a patient who had a TBI with lesion in the left parietal lobe. On asking the patient to place their arms on their laps in the sitting position, the patient doesn't comply. When asked to point to their toes, the patient seems confused. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate way to document these finding? A. Right-left discrimination B. Anosognosia C. Somatognosia D. Unilateral neglect

C. (Don't have awareness of body structure and body parts in relation to each other)

A PT examination reveals posterior superior iliac spine (PSIS) is low on the left; anterior superior iliac spine (ASIS) is high on the left. Interventions should MOST likely include: A. Stretching the right hip flexors to correct right anterior rotated innominate B. Strengthening of left hip flexors to correct left posterior rotated innominate C. Stretching the left hip extensors to correct left posterior rotated innominate D. Strengthening the right hip extensors to correct right posterior rotated innominate

C. (FIRST STRETCH hip extensors so they let go of posterior rotation of innominate so pelvis can return to neutral alignment) (then will strengthen after but first must regain ROM)

A PT examines a patient complaining of tingling into the 4th and 5th digits with muscle wasting over the hypothenar eminence. The PT suspects ulnar neuropathy and decides to examine the integrity of the nerve. Which of the following testing procedure would be the BEST? A. Have the patient flex both wrists while holding them for one minute B. Have the patient make a fist around the thumb and perform ulnar deviation C. Have the patient grasp a piece of paper between their first and second fingers while the examiner pulls the paper and monitors for first finger D. Have the patient perform extension of the 3rd digit of the hand against examiner resistance

C. (Froment's sign - tests ADD pollicis which is innervated by ulnar n) A is Phalen's test for median n/CTS, B Finkelstein's for DeQuervain's, and D is Maudsley's for lateral epicondylitis

Active insufficiency of right iliopsoas will be caused by? A. Hip extension and right lateral flexion of the trunk B. Hip extension and left lateral flexion of the trunk C. Hip flexion and right lateral flexion of the trunk D. Hip flexion and left lateral flexion of the trunk

C. (Function/action of R iliopsoas is hip flex and ipsi lateral flexion0

A PT is examining a 45 old patient who presents with weakness and tingling in the lower extremities over the past 2 weeks. Which of the following examination findings would MOST likely confirm diagnosis of Guillain-Barré syndrome? A. Hypertonicity in the affected muscles B. Positive Babinski sign C. Diminished tendon reflexes D. Presence of clonus with rapid passive foot dorsiflexion

C. (GBS is peripheral/LMN inj)

What glucose lvl is considered hyperglycemia? A. 150 mg/dL B. 200 mg/dL C. 315 mg/dL D. 215 mg/dL

C. (Glucose >300 mg/dL = hyperglycemia)

when is ABG considered partially compensated??

When all 3 values (PaCO2, pH and HCO3) are ABNORMAL - body is trying to make adjustments to compensate and get pH back to normal

What are the symptoms of GERD? (5)

1. Heart burn - 30 mins AFTER eating and at night 2. Dysphagia (trouble swallowing) 3. Sour taste (regurgitation of acids) 4. Hoarseness of voice 5. Atypical pain of head/neck Risks aspiration pneumonia, asthma, esophagitis

Resting tremor, muscle rigidity, akinesia, bradykinesia, postural instability (flexed forward posture, inc kyphosis, hip flexor tightness, neck rigidity), decreased vital capacity A. Parkinson's B. Huntington's C. Multiple Sclerosis D. Myasthenia Gravis E. Cerebellar Disorder F. Guillian-Barre Syndrome G. Amyotrophic Lateral Sclerosis

What are 4 causes of pelvic drop?

1. Opp glute med (ABD) weakness 2. Opp ADD magnus tightness/contracture 3. Same side ABD tightness 4. Same side ADD magnus weakness

Describe the order in testing CN 8 (vestibulocochlear)

1. Perform Rinne's test 2. Perform Weber's test

Normal magnesium lvl

1.8-2.4 mg/dL

When taking girth measurements: Limb circumference at that landmark and at ____ cm intervals

Shine light in R eye and both pupils (L and R) constrict simultaneously A. Normal pupillary light reflex B. Ipsilateral CN3 lesion C. Contralateral CN3 lesion D. Ipsilateral CN2 lesion E. Contralateral CN2 lesion

Normal total calcium in blood

8.4-10.4 mg/dL

What are the normal values for.... PaO2 PaCO2 pH HCO3

80-100 mmHg 35-45 mmHg 7.35-7.45 22-26 mEq/L

What are the HR percentages that correlate with RPE?

9 = 50% HRmax add 5% for each number after 10 = 55% etc..

What is the criteria for diagnosing preeclampsia?

A BP reading in excess of 140/90 mmHg and a SECOND abnormal BP reading 4 hours after the first. Is an emergency call 911.

Short duration (days-months), may remain symptom free for years. Unpredictable attacks which may or may not leave permanent deficits followed by periods of remission. A. Relapsing-remitting (RRMS) B. Secondary-progressive (SPMS) C. Primary-progressive (PPMS) D. Progressive-relapsing (PRMS)

Side effects of levodopa: dynamic, involuntary choreoathetotic movements A. Dyskinesias B. Dystonia

Side effects of levodopa: initially facial grimacing with twitching of lips (tardative kinesis), tongue protrusion A. Dyskinesias B. Dystonia

Side effects of levodopa: occurs during on-phase of drug, during peak levodopa dose A. Dyskinesias B. Dystonia

Side effects of levodopa: severe effects involves limbs, trunk and neck A. Dyskinesias B. Dystonia

Sign of cholecystitis A. Murphy's sign B. McBurney's point D. Rovsing sign E. Rebound tenderness

Small amp, beginning of range A. Grade 1 mobilization B. Grade 2 mobilization C. Grade 3 mobilization D. Grade 4 mobilization E. Grade 5 mobilization

Soft A. Normal lymph node B. Abnormal lymph node

Speech flow smoothly with grammatical errors (preserved melody of speech), doesn't make sense. Difficulty comprehending spoken language and following commands. A. Wernicke's (fluent/receptive) aphasia B. Broca's (non-fluent/expressive) aphasia

Stages of lymphedema severity: pressure on edematous tissues with fingertips causes indentation of skin that persists for several seconds after pressure is removed. Significant but short duration edema with little or no fibrotic changes in skin/subcutaneous tissue. A. Pitting edema B. Brawny edema C. Weeping edema

Stages of lymphedema: no clinical edema/no visible objective evidence , subjective reports from pt (occasional reports of limb heaviness), tissue/skin appears normal A. Stage 0 (latency) B. Stage 1 (reversible) C. Stage 2 (spontaneously irreversible) D. Stage 3 (lymphostatic elephantitis)

Increased vocal resonance with greater clarity and loudness of spoken words (ex. May ask the pt to say the word 99) A. Bronchophony B. Egophony C. Whispered pectoriloquy D. Normal voice sound

Inter-dependence of joint motion applies (motion at one joint requires adjustment at the distal and proximal joints) A. CKC B. OKC

Intermittent claudication: definite discomfort or pain, but only of initial/modest lvls (established but minimal) A. Grade 1 B. Grade 2 C. Grade 3 D. Grade 4

Involuntary leakage of urine during coughing, sneezing or exertion A. Stress incontinence B. Urge incontinence C. Functional incontinence D. Overflow incontinence

Issues with feeding if reflex persists A. Asymmetrical tonic neck reflex (ATNR) B. Symmetrical tonic labyrinthine reflex (TLR/STLR) C. Symmetrical tonic neck reflex (STNR)

Jaw reflex A. CN5 B. CN7 C. CN10 D. CN9 E. CN12

LLQ pain, and low back pain A. Ulcerative colitis (IBD) B. Crohn's disease (IBD)

Late signs: fruity odor (acetone breath), coma A. Hyperglycemia B. Hypoglycemia

Lesion in auditory association cortex (L temporal lobe) A. Wernicke's (fluent/receptive) aphasia B. Broca's (non-fluent/expressive) aphasia

Loss of ABD and ER of shoulder A. Erb's palsy B. Klumpke's palsy

Low cortisol lvls, low ACTH (adrenal gland) A. Addison disease B. Hasimoto's disease C. Cushing's disease D. Hypothyroidism

Low prosthetic walls are similar to A. Weak muscles B. Tight muscles

Maintains quadruped and assumes sitting from quadruped. Trunk rotation in sitting. A. 7 mos B. 8-9 mos C. 10-15 mos

May neglect all input form affected side A. Spatial-perceptual dysfunction B. Prosopagnosia C. Figure-ground discrimination D. Form discrimination E. Position in space impairment

Memory and behavioral impairments due to frontal lobe involvement, urinary incontinence A. ACA stroke B. MCA stroke

Mild to moderate pain. Pain increased in dependent position. Elevation decreases pain. A. Venous insufficiency B. Lymphedema C. Lipedema D. Arterial insufficiency

Modified Ashworth Scale: no increase in muscle tone A. MAS 0 B. MAS 1 C. MAS 1+ D. MAS 2 E. MAS 3 F. MAS 4

Most common (85%) A. Relapsing-remitting (RRMS) B. Secondary-progressive (SPMS) C. Primary-progressive (PPMS) D. Progressive-relapsing (PRMS)

Motor/efferent of gag reflex A. CN10 B. CN12 C. CN9

Non-absorptive, not to be used on wounds with fragile surrounding skin or infected skin. Allow 1-2 in wound margin around bed. A. Transparent films B. Hydrocolloids C. Hydrogels D. Foams E. Alginates F. Gauze dressings

Non-tender, non-palpable A. Normal lymph node B. Abnormal lymph node

Non-velocity dependent resistance to movement A. Rigidity B. Spasticity

Normal volume is 500 mL A. Tidal volume (TV) B. Inspiratory reserve volume (IRV) C. Expiratory reserve volume (ERV) D. Residual volume (RV)

Normal volume of air going in and out of lungs A. Tidal volume (TV) B. Inspiratory reserve volume (IRV) C. Expiratory reserve volume (ERV) D. Residual volume (RV)

Not seen in the feet A. Lipedema B. Lymphedema

Often asymmetrical, especially in the early stages of PD. It typically affects proximal muscles first, especially the shoulders and neck, and it progresses to involve muscles of the face and extremities. A. Rigidity B. Spasticity

Onset: 28 wks gestation, integrated: 9 mos A. Plantar grasp reflex B. Symmetrical tonic neck reflex (STNR) C. Startle reflex

Onset: birth, integrated: 4-6 mos A. Palmar grasp reflex B. Moro reflex C. Symmetrical tonic labrythine (TLR/STLR) reflex D. Positive supporting reflex

PF stop too hard A. DF (excessive) B. PF (excessive)

PH: 7.14, PACO2: 51, HCO3: 31 A. Partially compensated respiratory acidosis B. Partially compensated metabolic acidosis C. Uncompensated respiratory acidosis D. Uncompensated metabolic acidosis

PNF patterns: functional activities: eating, combing hair on L side of head with R hand, rolling supine > prone A. UE/D1 flexion B. UE/D2 flexion C. UE/D1 extension D. UE/D2 extension

PNF: put pants/socks on, cross legs A. LE/D1 flexion B. LE/D2 flexion C. LE/D1 extension D. LE/D2 extension

PaCO2: 55, pH: 7.25, HCO3: 26 A. Respiratory acidosis B. Respiratory alkalosis C. Metabolic acidosis D. Metabolic alkalosis

Pain on pressure A. Lipedema B. Lymphedema

Palpate near R subcostal margin, deep breath, if pain/tenderness with inspiration test is (+) A. Murphy's sign B. McBurney's point D. Rovsing sign E. Rebound tenderness

Pitting edema scale: mild, barely perceptible indentation, <1/4 in pitting A. 1+ B. 2+ C. 3 D. 4+

Pregnancy induced acute hypertension after the 20th week of gestation. Increase in protein in urine, hyperreflexia, edema, HA and sudden weight gain seen. A. Preeclampsia B. Eclampsia C. Gestational diabetes D. Gestational hypotension

Problems with imitation and bimanual tasks, apraxia A. ACA stroke B. MCA stroke

Prosthetic causes: short prosthesis, low lateral wall A. Lateral trunk lean B. Abduction of limb C. Lordosis D. Forward flexion of trunk

Proximal weakness, fatigue, drowsiness, myalgias, depression, stocking/glove sensory loss, osteopenia, confusion, gout A. Hyperparathyroidism B. Hypoparathyroidism

Pt cannot comprehend, use treatment gestures/demonstration A. Wernicke's aphasia B. Broca's aphasia

RLCF: no response: completely unresponsive to any stimuli A. Lvl 1 B. Lvl 2 C. Lvl 3 D. Lvl 4 E. Lvl 5 F. Lvl 6 G. Lvl 7 H. Lvl 8

Rectal pain, bleeding, LBP, fecal urgency, bloody diarrhea with mucus/pus, weight loss A. Ulcerative colitis (IBD) B. Crohn's disease (IBD)

Refers pain to shoulder A. Hiatal hernia B. Femoral hernia C. Inguinal hernia D. Umbilical hernia

Reflex disappears to allow for normal development A. Integrated reflexes B. Persistent reflexes

Straight leg raise: flexion, knee extension and ankle plantarflexion with inversion. Which nerve is MOST likely being biased in this position? A. Common peroneal nerve B. Tibial nerve C. Sciatic and Tibial nerve D. Sural nerve

Strengthen pelvic floor muscles A. Stress incontinence B. Urge incontinence C. Functional incontinence D. Overflow incontinence

Symmetrical A. Lipedema B. Lymphedema

TV + IRV (max amt of air that can be inspired) A. Inspiratory capacity (IC) B. Functional reserve capacity (FRC) C. Vital capacity (VC) D. Total lung capacity (TLC)

Techniques for lymphedema: stroking during MLD A. Distal to proximal B. Proximal to distal

Toeing-in, subtalar pronation, lateral patellar subluxation, medial tibial torsion, medial femoral torsion A. Excessive anteversion B. Excessive retroversion C. Coxa vara D. Coxa valga

Torsional down beating > 60 sec seen with L DHP A. L ASC Cupulolithiasis B. L PSC Cupulolithiasis C. L ASC canalithaisis D. L PSC canalithaisis

Typically heals in 3-4 days A. Epidermal burn (1st degree) B. Superficial partial-thickness burn (2nd degree) C. Deep partial-thickness burn (3rd degree) D. Full-thickness burn (4th degree) E. Subdermal burn (5th degree)

Ulcer with irregular, shallow appearance, flaking/dry skin, brownish discoloration A. Venous insufficiency B. Lymphedema C. Lipedema D. Arterial insufficiency

Use of other human skin (cadaver; temporary graft for large burns, used until autograft available) A. Allograft B. Xenograft C. Biosynthetic graft D. Autograft E. Split-thickness graft F. Full-thickness graft

Uvula deviates to contra side with inj A. CN10 B. CN12 C. CN9

Very mild exudate A. Transparent film B. Hydrogel C. Hydrocolloid D. Foam E. Alginates

Visual field loss on same side in both eyes, due to occipital lesion (either hemisphere) A. Homonymous hemianopsia B. Hemineglect

Wagner Diabetic Foot Ulcer Classification: intact skin A. Grade 0 B. Grade 1 C. Grade 2 D. Grade 3 E. Grade 4 F. Grade 5

Waiter's tip deformity A. Erb's palsy B. Klumpke's palsy

When flexing the elbow and shoulder at the same time the bicep will experience: A. Active insufficiency B. Passive insufficiency

When workload/intensity increases CO ______ A. Increases (linear/direct relationship) B. Decreases (inverse relationship)

When workload/intensity increases HR ______ A. Increases (linear/direct relationship) B. Decreases (inverse relationship)

When workload/intensity increases SBP ______ A. Increases B. Decreases C. Stays the same

Minimal/absent symptoms, if symptoms present they are only one side of the body (slight tremor, some stiffness/slowing of movement) A. Hoehn-Yahr stage 1 B. Hoehn-Yahr stage 2 C. Hoehn-Yahr stage 3 D. Hoehn-Yahr stage 4 E. Hoehn-Yahr stage 5

A. (Stage 1 >> unilateral >> one side)

Neurodegenerative genetic disease, degeneration of basal ganglia and cerebellar cortex, leads to combination of movement disorder, cognitive decline and behavioral changes A. Parkinson's B. Huntington's C. Multiple Sclerosis D. Myasthenia Gravis E. Cerebellar Disorder F. Guillian-Barre Syndrome G. Amyotrophic Lateral Sclerosis

No direct response; Shine light in L eye and L eye does not constrict A. Normal pupillary light reflex B. Ipsilateral CN3 lesion C. Contralateral CN3 lesion D. Ipsilateral CN2 lesion E. Contralateral CN2 lesion

Normal volume is about 3,100 mL A. Tidal volume (TV) B. Inspiratory reserve volume (IRV) C. Expiratory reserve volume (ERV) D. Residual volume (RV)

Not recommended for wounds with heavy exudate, sinus tracts or infections; wounds that expose bone or tendon; or wounds with fragile surrounding skin. Change every 3-7 days with leakage as needed. Avoid in wounds with infection or tracts. A. Transparent films B. Hydrocolloids C. Hydrogels D. Foams E. Alginates F. Gauze dressings

Noxious stim to ball of foot of LE fixed in extension >> opposite LE flexes then ADD and extends A. Flexor withdrawal reflex B. Crossed extension reflex C. Traction reflex D. Asymmetrical tonic neck reflex (ATNR)

Occurs anywhere in GI tract A. Ulcerative colitis (IBD) B. Crohn's disease (IBD)

Occurs at age 35-55 yrs A. Parkinson's B. Huntington's C. Multiple Sclerosis D. Myasthenia Gravis E. Cerebellar Disorder F. Guillian-Barre Syndrome G. Amyotrophic Lateral Sclerosis

On examination PT notices pt is able to clench his teeth but unable to smile, whistle or close his eyes tight. Pt reports most sounds around him seem unpleasant and too loud. What nerve is affected? A. CN5 B. CN7 C. CN10 D. CN9 E. CN12

Onset: 28 wks gestation, integrated: 5-6 mos A. Palmar grasp reflex B. Moro reflex C. Symmetrical tonic labrythine (TLR/STLR) reflex D. Positive supporting reflex

Onset:; 4-6 mos, integrated: 8-12 mos A. Plantar grasp reflex B. Symmetrical tonic neck reflex (STNR) C. Startle reflex

PF stop too soft A. DF (excessive) B. PF (excessive)

PH: 7.12, PACO2: 30, HCO3: 14 A. Partially compensated respiratory acidosis B. Partially compensated metabolic acidosis C. Uncompensated respiratory acidosis D. Uncompensated metabolic acidosis

PNF patterns: functional activities: opening up chest (helpful with Parkinson's patients/flexed forward kyphotic posture), combing hair on R side of head with R hand, lifting a racquet in tennis to serve, backstroke in swimming A. UE/D1 flexion B. UE/D2 flexion C. UE/D1 extension D. UE/D2 extension

PNF patterns: good to promote trunk extension (good for PD patients) A. UE/D1 flexion B. UE/D2 flexion C. UE/D1 extension D. UE/D2 extension

PNF: moving over in the seat- very awkward position A. LE/D1 flexion B. LE/D2 flexion C. LE/D1 extension D. LE/D2 extension

PaCO2: 30, pH: 7.50, HCO3: 26 A. Respiratory acidosis B. Respiratory alkalosis C. Metabolic acidosis D. Metabolic alkalosis

Pain relieved by defecation, sharp cramps in am or after eating, N/V, bloating, foul breath, diarrhea, symptoms disappear while sleeping A. IBD B. IBS

Pain relieved by passing gas, joint arthritis, abdominal pina, weight loss A. Ulcerative colitis (IBD) B. Crohn's disease (IBD)

Pancoast tumor A. Refers to mid-back and scapular region B. Refers to C8-T2 C. Refers to R shoulder

Paralysis of intrinsics of hand, claw hand A. Erb's palsy B. Klumpke's palsy

Perceptual impairments (unilateral neglect, depth perception, spatial relations, agnosia, apraxia) A. MCA lesion in R hemisphere B. MCA lesion in L hemisphere

Pitting edema scale: moderate, easily identified depression, 1/4-1/2. Inch, returns to normal within 15 seconds A. 1+ B. 2+ C. 3 D. 4+

Present as rash, mostly unilateral, raised to palpation (<2 mm height), pink with silvery white appearance A. Herpes simplex virus type 1 B. Herpes zoster C. Acne vulgaris D. Herpes simplex type 2

Problems crawling and rolling bc need disassociation of arms and neck to do so A. Plantar grasp reflex B. Symmetrical tonic neck reflex (STNR) C. Startle reflex

Problems with rolling and sitting if not integrated A. Palmar grasp reflex B. Moro reflex C. Symmetrical tonic labrythine (TLR/STLR) reflex D. Positive supporting reflex

Prosthetic causes: long prosthesis, abducted hip joint A. Lateral trunk lean B. Abduction of limb C. Lordosis D. Forward flexion of trunk

Pt fails to be aware of items to one side of space, due to R hemisphere damage A. Homonymous hemianopsia B. Hemineglect

Pt is instructed to say a long E sound and it is clearly heard as a nasal sounding A A. Bronchophony B. Egophony C. Whispered pectoriloquy D. Normal voice sound

Quadruped, creeping, sits better from quadruped A. 7 mos B. 8-9 mos C. 10-15 mos

RLCF: generalized response: pt reacts inconsistently and non-specifically to stimuli A. Lvl 1 B. Lvl 2 C. Lvl 3 D. Lvl 4 E. Lvl 5 F. Lvl 6 G. Lvl 7 H. Lvl 8

Refers pain to lateral pelvic wall A. Hiatal hernia B. Femoral hernia C. Inguinal hernia D. Umbilical hernia

Side effects of levodopa: clawing of toes/fingers or cramping of calf, neck, face and para spinal musculature (may see dragging leg) A. Dyskinesias B. Dystonia

Side effects of levodopa: occurs during off-phase/off period of drug A. Dyskinesias B. Dystonia

Side effects of levodopa: prolonged, involuntary contraction that causes twisting or torsion of body segments A. Dyskinesias B. Dystonia

Skip lesions present A. Ulcerative colitis (IBD) B. Crohn's disease (IBD)

Have to pick out an object from an array of similarly shaped but diff sized objects (ex. Large block from group of blocks) A. Figure-ground discrimination B. Form constancy C. Position in space D. Spatial relations E. Topographical disorientation F. Vertical disorientation G. Agnosia

Healing: moderate edema; spontaneous healing; minimal scarring; discoloration A. Epidermal burn (1st degree) B. Superficial partial-thickness burn (2nd degree) C. Deep partial-thickness burn (3rd degree) D. Full-thickness burn (4th degree) E. Subdermal burn (5th degree)

High anterior wall is similar to tight _______ _______ muscle A. Hip extensor B. Hip flexor C. Hip ABD D. Hip ADD

High pitched sound heard in expiration, in severe cases may be heard in inspiration too A. Rhonchi B. Wheeze C. Crackles D. Pleural rub

Hyperextension of knee joint, GRF passes anterior to knee between heel strike and MST A. Stiff heel cushion or hard PF bumper B. Soft heel cushion or soft PF bumper

Hypothyroidism, low lvls of thyroid hormone A. Addison disease B. Hasimoto's disease C. Cushing's disease D. Hypothyroidism

Hypothyroidism, splinting/muscle guarding A. Nausea/vomiting B. Constipation C. Diarrhea D. Abdominal pain E. GI bleeding F. Heart burn

Imaging and lymphedema: gold standard A. Indirect lymphography (lymphangiography) B. Lymphoscintigraphy (lymphangioscintigraphy) C. MRI/CT D. Ultrasonography E. Fluorescent microlymphography F. Doppler US

Imaging and lymphedema: measures during rest and exercises, ID lymphatic insufficiency A. Indirect lymphography (lymphangiography) B. Lymphoscintigraphy (lymphangioscintigraphy) C. MRI/CT D. Ultrasonography E. Fluorescent microlymphography F. Doppler US

In PT session, the therapist commands the patient to wear a shirt, but the patient is unable to complete the task due to inability to find buttons on his shirt. Which of the following is the MOST APPROPRIATE diagnosis and the best possible strategy to address this deficit? A. Form discrimination, patient should be encouraged to use touch to identify objects. B. Figure-ground discrimination, patient should be encouraged to use touch to identify objects. C. Position in space impairment, orienting the patient with one object in relation to another D. Ideational apraxia, having the patient perform one part of the task at a time and guiding the patient with the task if needed.

In phase 1 of treatment of lymphedema the low-stretch bandages have __________ working pressure A. Low B. High

In sitting pelvis is in a A. PPT B. APT

Inability to interpret information A. Somatognosia B. Agnosia C. Propagnosia D. Simultanagnosia

Inability to recognize an object by sight, touch or hearing A. Spatial-perceptual dysfunction B. Agnosia C. Figure-ground discrimination D. Form discrimination E. Apraxia

Increased resistance to passive movement that affects only agonist OR antagonist muscles A. Rigidity B. Spasticity

Indicates CNS damage, bad A. Integrated reflexes B. Persistent reflexes

Intermittent claudication: moderate discomfort/pain which the pt's attn can be diverted from (pt can be distracted from the pain) A. Grade 1 B. Grade 2 C. Grade 3 D. Grade 4

Involuntary contraction of detrusor muscle with a strong desire to void (urgency) A. Stress incontinence B. Urge incontinence C. Functional incontinence D. Overflow incontinence

Issues with rolling if reflex persists A. Asymmetrical tonic neck reflex (ATNR) B. Symmetrical tonic labyrinthine reflex (TLR/STLR) C. Symmetrical tonic neck reflex (STNR)

Large amp, within range (not reaching limit) A. Grade 1 mobilization B. Grade 2 mobilization C. Grade 3 mobilization D. Grade 4 mobilization E. Grade 5 mobilization

Late signs: slurred speech, drowsiness, confusion, loss of consciousness and coma A. Hyperglycemia B. Hypoglycemia

Maintain a moist wound environment, non-adhesive to healing tissue, impermeable to external bacteria and contaminants. Support autolytic debridement. Waterproof. For mild-moderate absorption. A. Transparent films B. Hydrocolloids C. Hydrogels D. Foams E. Alginates F. Gauze dressings

Max amt of fluid that lymphatic system CAN transport A. Lymphatic load B. Transport capacity C. Venous insufficiency D. Lymph node removal

Modified Ashworth Scale: slight inc in muscle tone, minimal resistance at END of ROM A. MAS 0 B. MAS 1 C. MAS 1+ D. MAS 2 E. MAS 3 F. MAS 4

Neck stiffness, muscle cramps, seizures, irritability, depression, muscle twitching, cardiac arrhythmias, paresthesia's of fingertips and mouth A. Hyperparathyroidism B. Hypoparathyroidism

Slow/steady progression with or w/o relapses, relapses do not fully remit. Initial relapsing-remitting that suddenly begins to have a decline w/o periods of remission. A. Relapsing-remitting (RRMS) B. Secondary-progressive (SPMS) C. Primary-progressive (PPMS) D. Progressive-relapsing (PRMS)

UE > impaired than LE, and face impaired, contralateral motor and sensory loss A. ACA stroke B. MCA stroke

Unilateral, seen in distal areas (feet) A. Lipedema B. Lymphedema

Use of skin from other species (pigskin, temporary graft) A. Allograft B. Xenograft C. Biosynthetic graft D. Autograft E. Split-thickness graft F. Full-thickness graft

Velocity-dependent resistance to movement A. Rigidity B. Spasticity

Vertigo with bending over, emptying dishwasher and weeding A. Posterior canal BPPV B. Anterior canal BPPV

Wagner Diabetic Foot Ulcer Classification: superficial ulcer of skin/subcutaneous tissue A. Grade 0 B. Grade 1 C. Grade 2 D. Grade 3 E. Grade 4 F. Grade 5

Weak quads Soft heel cushion, socket too far posterior, low prosthetic heel A. Excessive knee flexion B. Insufficient knee flexion C. Excessive lateral thrust D. Excessive medial thrust E. Early knee flexion F. Delayed knee flexion

What is the gold criteria for COPD? A. FEV1 <0.60 B. FEV1 <0.70 C. FEV1 <0.90

When performing MLD for lymphedema the direction of massage is towards specific lymph nodes and involves ________ stroking: A. Proximal-distal B. Distal-proximal

When this DECREASES and cannot handle the load it can lead to lymphedema A. Lymphatic load B. Transport capacity C. Venous insufficiency D. Lymph node removal

Which of the following burn wound classifications is MOST likely to produce the keloid scar shown in the picture? A. Superficial burn B. Deep partial-thickness burn C. Superficial partial-thickness burn D. Subdermal burn

additional air that can be forcibly inhaled after the inspiration of a normal tidal volume A. Tidal volume (TV) B. Inspiratory reserve volume (IRV) C. Expiratory reserve volume (ERV) D. Residual volume (RV)

is a sustained resistance to passive movement, with no fluctuations A. Cogwheel rigidity B. Lead pipe rigidity

typically heals in 7-10 days A. Epidermal burn (1st degree) B. Superficial partial-thickness burn (2nd degree) C. Deep partial-thickness burn (3rd degree) D. Full-thickness burn (4th degree) E. Subdermal burn (5th degree)

• scoliosis • Sarcoidosis • Interstitial lung disease • Pregnancy • Atelectasis • Kyphosis • PD • Obesity • Muscular dystrophy A. Obstructive lung diseases B. Restrictive lung diseases

A 31-year-old pregnant obese female, in her third trimester, is diagnosed with damage of pudendal nerve. The patient is referred to PT clinic for pelvic floor strengthening. What is the BEST initial physical therapy intervention? A. Supine and perform a maximum of 5 contractions held for 3 seconds each B. Left side lying and perform a maximum of 10 contractions held for 5 seconds each C. Right side lying and perform a maximum of 10 contractions held for 5 seconds each D. Sitting and perform a maximum of 10 contractions held for 10 seconds each

B. (D (sitting) is a good progression of B)

A PT is using aquatic therapy to treat a 29-year-old patient who had a recent ACL repair. The patient is immersed to the level of sternoclavicular notch. Which of the following is the MOST expected physiological response of aquatic therapy? A. Decreased cardiac output B. Decreased systolic blood pressure C. Increased heart rate D. Increased V02max

B. (CO inc, SV inc, BP dec, HR dec)

A 74-year-old retired contractor walks to the treatment room. Patient presents with backward trunk lean during the swing phase of gait. What is the MOST likely cause and associated movement pattern seen? A. Ipsilateral gluteus maximus weakness B. Ipsilateral hip flexor weakness C. Ipsilateral gluteus medius weakness D. Ipsilateral vastus medialis muscle weakness

B. (During STANCE phase weak muscles are a magnet to the trunk) (During swing phase trunk moves OPP weak muscles/away from weak muscles)

Low Ca (in blood) and high phosphorous A. Hyperparathyroidism B. Hypoparathyroidism

B. (Hypo >> phospho = rhymes = high phosphorous)

During assessment skin sensation, which of the following structures are responsible for transmission of the cold sensation? A. Meissner corpuscles B. Krause end bulbs C. Golgi tendon organs D. Ruffini endings

B. Krause >> K for cold (cold temp) Meissner >> mice is really fine (light) to catch and it's body is really smooth to touch >> fine/light touch Ruffini endings >> uff/huff >> ruff >> hot sensation Pacinian corpuscles >> P for pressure and PEED >> DEEP pressure (Pressure/vibration) Free nerve endings - pain/itch Markel disc - crude touch

Intermediate pitch and intensity, between 1st and 2nd interspace anteriorly and between the scapulae A. Vesicular B. Bronchiovesicular C. Bronchial D. Tracheal

B. Think of breath sound intensity and pitch of expiration as going to a concert. Your mouth/nose are the stage of performance" • trachea = closest to stage (loudest) • Vesicular is furthest from stage (softest) • Closer to the stage the sound intensity will be highest and the further away the intensity reduces

A patient comes to PT clinic for a gait and posture evaluation. The PT notices the trunk lean on the right side and a pelvis drop on the left side. Which of the observations is correct for this posture? A. Weak hip extensors on the right side B. Hip adduction contracture on right side C. Hip adduction contracture on left side D. Hip flexion contracture on the left side

B. Weakness of R hip ABD or tightness of R hip ADD can cause L pelvic drop and R trunk lean -trunk lean to R side is compensation for R sided glute med weakness (shortens the moment arm the R glute med is working on)

A PT is treating a child in an outpatient clinic. PT notices that the child is unable to transfer a toy from one hand to other hand. What age would be considered normal for a child to be able to transfer an object from one hand to another hand? A. 4 months B. 9 months C. 12 months D. 18 months

B. (Rule of extremes — 4 too young, 18 mos too old — leaves you between 9 and 12 mos) (4 mos = supine to prone >> prone 4 letters = 4 mos) (Floor to stand, walk = 12 mos) (Pointing to a body part = 18 mos)

Known as "crawling reflex" contributes to transitioning from laying down to getting up on their hands and knees A. Asymmetrical tonic neck reflex (ATNR) B. Symmetrical tonic labyrinthine reflex (TLR/STLR) C. Symmetrical tonic neck reflex (STNR)

Large amp, performed TO the limit/end range (into tissue resistance) A. Grade 1 mobilization B. Grade 2 mobilization C. Grade 3 mobilization D. Grade 4 mobilization E. Grade 5 mobilization

Lhermitte's sign (neck flexion induces electric shock sensations down spine), Uhtoff's phenomenon (heat sensitivity) A. Parkinson's B. Huntington's C. Multiple Sclerosis D. Myasthenia Gravis E. Cerebellar Disorder F. Guillian-Barre Syndrome G. Amyotrophic Lateral Sclerosis

Marked edema; slow healing; excessive scarring A. Epidermal burn (1st degree) B. Superficial partial-thickness burn (2nd degree) C. Deep partial-thickness burn (3rd degree) D. Full-thickness burn (4th degree) E. Subdermal burn (5th degree)

McBurneys, Rovsing's and Blumberg's (rebound tenderness) are positive A. Diverticulitis B. Ulcerative colitis C. Appendicitis D. Chronic pancreatitis

Mixed red, waxy white; blanching with slow capillary refill A. Epidermal burn (1st degree) B. Superficial partial-thickness burn (2nd degree) C. Deep partial-thickness burn (3rd degree) D. Full-thickness burn (4th degree) E. Subdermal burn (5th degree)

Modified Ashworth Scale: slight inc in muscle tone, minimal resistance through LESS THAN 1/2 ROM A. MAS 0 B. MAS 1 C. MAS 1+ D. MAS 2 E. MAS 3 F. MAS 4

More in females, 20-40 yrs (peak age 30 yrs), more in caucasians A. Parkinson's B. Huntington's C. Multiple Sclerosis D. Myasthenia Gravis E. Cerebellar Disorder F. Guillian-Barre Syndrome G. Amyotrophic Lateral Sclerosis

Most severe and long duration of lymphedema. Fluid leaks form cuts/sores, wound healing significantly impaired. Almost exclusively in LEs. Stages of lymphedema severity: A. Pitting edema B. Brawny edema C. Weeping edema

No consensual response; Shine light in L eye and L eye dilates but R eye does not A. Normal pupillary light reflex B. Ipsilateral CN3 lesion C. Contralateral CN3 lesion D. Ipsilateral CN2 lesion E. Contralateral CN2 lesion

Not used for heavily exuding wounds, may dry out and then adhere to wound bed. May macerate surrounding skin. Dressing changes every 8-48 hours. A. Transparent films B. Hydrocolloids C. Hydrogels D. Foams E. Alginates F. Gauze dressings

RLQ pain A. Ulcerative colitis (IBD) B. Crohn's disease (IBD)

Rest and digest, slows HR A. SNS B. PNS

Rolls supine > side-lying A. 2-3 mos B. 3-4 mos C. 4-5 mos D. 6-7 mos E. 7-8 mos F. 8-10 mos G. 15 mos

Rubbery and firm A. Normal lymph node B. Abnormal lymph node

Pain and itch sensation A. Meissner corpuscles B. Free nerve endings C. Pacinian corpuscles D. Markel disc

Normal potassium lvl

3.5-5.5 mEq/L

RLCF: purposeful, appropriate (stand by assistance) A. Lvl 1 B. Lvl 2 C. Lvl 3 D. Lvl 4 E. Lvl 5 F. Lvl 6 G. Lvl 7 H. Lvl 8

Closed kinetic chain foot supination includes what motions?

IPAD Inversion, PF, ADD (opposite of OKC but inversion stays the same)

Kidney pain referral pattern

flank

List all (12) CN in order and whether they are motor, sensory or both

1 = olfactory (S) 2 = optic (S) 3 = occulomotor (M) 4 = trochlear (M) 5= trigeminal (B) 6= abducens (M) 7= facial (B) 8= vestibulocochlear (S) 9 = glossopharyngeal (B) 10 = vagus (B) 11 = spinal accessory (M) 12 = hypoglossal (M)

Heavy exudate A. Transparent film B. Hydrogel C. Hydrocolloid D. Foam E. Alginates

Inability to carry out learned sequential movements on command A. Spatial-perceptual dysfunction B. Agnosia C. Figure-ground discrimination D. Form discrimination E. Apraxia

Inability to perceive spatial concepts (up/down/user/over/in/out/in front/ behind) A. Spatial-perceptual dysfunction B. Prosopagnosia C. Figure-ground discrimination D. Form discrimination E. Position in space impairment

Modified Ashworth Scale: considerable increase in tone, PASSIVE movement DIFFICULT A. MAS 0 B. MAS 1 C. MAS 1+ D. MAS 2 E. MAS 3 F. MAS 4

Not recommended for dry or lightly exudating wounds. Can dry wound bed. A. Transparent films B. Hydrocolloids C. Hydrogels D. Foams E. Alginates F. Gauze dressings

Positive for BOTH appendicitis and diverticulitis (appendicitis is RLQ, diverticulitis is LLQ) A. McBurney's point B. Rovsing's sign C. Blumberg's sign D. Murphy's sign E. Pinch an inch test F. Obturator's sign G. Psoas sign

Produces corticosteroids that will regulate water and sodium balance; the body's response to stress, the immune system, and metabolism A. Hypothalamus B. Pituitary gland C. Thyroid gland D. Parathyroid gland E. Adrenal gland

Pt asked to raise arm above head and is unable (R parietal lobe lesion) A. Spatial-perceptual dysfunction B. Prosopagnosia C. Figure-ground discrimination D. Form discrimination E. Position in space impairment

RLCF: confused-inappropriate (not agitated) A. Lvl 1 B. Lvl 2 C. Lvl 3 D. Lvl 4 E. Lvl 5 F. Lvl 6 G. Lvl 7 H. Lvl 8

RLCF: intervention in quiet environment, highly structured functional tasks, give control to pt when safe and appropriate, give options, use cues/external direction, use assistive devices, treatment plans should include using a daily planner. A. Lvl 1 B. Lvl 2 C. Lvl 3 D. Lvl 4 E. Lvl 5 F. Lvl 6 G. Lvl 7 H. Lvl 8

Skin grafting, extensive surgery, amputation may be necessary A. Epidermal burn (1st degree) B. Superficial partial-thickness burn (2nd degree) C. Deep partial-thickness burn (3rd degree) D. Full-thickness burn (4th degree) E. Subdermal burn (5th degree)

Small amp, high velocity thrust at end range A. Grade 1 mobilization B. Grade 2 mobilization C. Grade 3 mobilization D. Grade 4 mobilization E. Grade 5 mobilization

Soft, absorbent, non-woven dressings derived from seaweed that have a fluffy cotton like appearance. React with wound exudate to form a viscous hydrophillic gel mass over the wound area. Available in ropes and pads. A. Transparent films B. Hydrocolloids C. Hydrogels D. Foams E. Alginates F. Gauze dressings

Stairs step to pattern A. 7-8 mos B. 8-10 mos C. 10 mos D. 15 mos E. 2 years F. 2.5-3 yrs G. 3 yrs H. 4 yrs

Symptoms on both sides of the body and unable to walk (wheelchair dependent) A. Hoehn-Yahr stage 1 B. Hoehn-Yahr stage 2 C. Hoehn-Yahr stage 3 D. Hoehn-Yahr stage 4 E. Hoehn-Yahr stage 5

Test with tongue protrusion A. CN5 B. CN7 C. CN10 D. CN9 E. CN12

When this INCREASES and exceeds capacity it can lead to lymphedema A. Lymphatic load B. Transport capacity C. Venous insufficiency D. Lymph node removal

Rinne's test: describe what indicates normal, sensorineural loss or conduction loss

- AC (air conduction) > BC (bone conduction) - normal or sensorineural loss - BC > AC - conduction loss

What are the signs and symptoms of vertebrobasilar artery: Locked in syndrome?

- BA infarct of bilateral pons - rapids progression from hemiparesis > tetraplegia - CN palsy (CN 5-12) - rapid progression from dysarthria > anarthria - pt cannot move or speak but is alert and oriented

Elevated lesion filled with purulent fluid, <1 cm in size A. Blisters B. Vesicles C. Wheals D. Pustules

What are appropriate interventions for stage 2 (4-6 weeks) post THA?

- regain strength/muscular endurance - strengthen hip ABD and ER's - improve CV and pulmonary endurance - restore ROM within dislocation precautions - improve postural stability, balance and gait

Deficits seen with parietal lobe lesion

- sensory loss - taste affected - perceptual disorders (hemineglect, agnosia, visuospatial) (when lesion is in R hemisphere)

Weber's test: describe what indicates normal, sensorineural loss or conduction loss

- sound equal in both ears - normal - sound in affected ear louder > unaffected ear - conduction loss - sound in unaffected ear louder > affected ear - sensorineural loss

Deficits seen with temporal lobe lesion

- Wernicke's aphasia (receptive/fluent) - auditory loss - language comprehension

synergy patterns

- When higher centers of the brain lose control and stereotyped patterns from the middle and lower centers emerge result when higher centers of the brain lose control and the uncontrolled or partially controlled stereotyped patterns of the middle and lower centers emerge. groups of muscles work together to provide pattern of movement (flexion/extension)

What are 2 exceptions to the convex-concave rule?

- adhesive capsulitis - the spine

Anterior/anterolateral total hip arthroplasty precautions (to avoid dislocation):

- avoid hip flexion > 90 deg - avoid hip extension, ADD and ER past neutral - avoid combined: ABD, flexion and ER of hip Anterior/anterolateral approach has lower risk of dislocation than posterior approach Also think about it the motions to avoid are the motions that stress the surgical site (for ex. ADD and ER stress/stretch the lateral side) (hip extension stresses the anterior aspect)

What are the side effects of beta-blockers (beta-adrenergic blocking drugs)?

- competes with epi and norepinephrine for adrenergic receptors in the heart - reduce HR and contractility (lowers myocardial O2 demand) - for pts with CAD and HTN - lowers HR during

When should you avoid exercise with a diabetic patient? When is exercise recommended (time of day)?

- during peak insulin hours (bc exercise lowers BG and insulin will further lower BG) - insulin is absorbed much more quickly in an active extremity (could lower BG lvls even more) - exercise is recommended in the morning to avoid hypoglycemia from fluctuations in insulin sensitivity

What are appropriate interventions for stage 1 (max protection phase 0-6 weeks) post THA?

- education to pt/caregiver to avoid precautions - WBAT (usually) - ankle pumps - prevent DVT formation - monitor for possible infection - maximize functional mobility (bed mobility, transfer training, appropriate trunk mechanics when sit > stand to avoid violating precautions) - strengthen UE's for assistance with daily tasks - avoid hip flexion contracture

interventions for stage 3 (around 12 weeks) post THA?

- extended rehab and modification of activities if necessary - ensure good strength of hip ABD and ER's - return to sport and higher lvl activities

Rule of nines for adults: list the following percentages: - head - trunk - back - arms - legs - groin

- head = 4.5% - trunk = 18% - back = 18% - arms = 4.5% each - legs = 9% each - groin = 1%

Rule of nines for children: list the following percentages: - head - trunk - back - arms - legs - groin

- head = 8.5% (remember child's head is much bigger in proportion to their body until they grow into it) - trunk = 18% - back = 18% - arms = 4.5% each - legs = 6.5% each - groin = 1%

Posterior/posterolateral total hip arthroplasty precautions (to avoid dislocation):

- hip ADD past neutral (stresses/stretches lateral side) - hip IR past neutral (no crossing legs) - hip flexion >90 Highest risk for dislocation but will restore gait pattern quicker

S/sx of cushing's disease and syndrome

- moon face, excessive facial hair - fat deposition >> cervical fat pad/truncal obesity - BUFFALO hump - easy bruising and poor wound healing - weight gain (children show poor growth height)

Deficits seen with Frontal lobe lesion

- motor loss - olfaction (smell) - Broca's aphasia - apraxia (inability to perform familiar motor tasks) - emotional and behavioral controls affected

Management/treatment of lymphedema

- no cure - main goal is to minimize - MLD, compression therapy - diaphragmatic breathing, muscle contractions - muscle contraction

Exercise precautions with diabetic patients:

- provide carbohydrate snack initially and have readily available during exercise - do not exercise in extreme cold or hot temperatures

Brandt daroff exercises

- used as HEP for persistent/residual or mild vertigo (remaining after CRM) (or for pt who doesn't tolerate CRM)

Deficits seen with occipital lobe lesion

- visual loss - contra homonymous hemianopia - inability to ID previous known objects

What are the locations of major lymph nodes?

-submaxillary -cervical -axillary -iliac -mesenteric -inguinal -popliteal -cubital -supraclavicular -parasternal

List APGAR scoring

0 = worst score, 2= best score per item Severely depressed: 0-3 Moderately depressed: 4-6 Excellent condition: 7-10

Apgar is a quick test performed on a baby at _______ and ______ minutes after birth. The _______-minute score determines how well the baby tolerated the birthing process. The ____-minute score tells the health care provider how well the baby is doing outside the mother's womb. In rare cases, the test will be done 10 minutes after birth.

1, 5, 1, 5

Gait related impairments seen with PD: (11)

1- festinating gait (inc in speed and shortening of stride) 2- freezing of gait (common with turns and doorways) 3- difficulty turning (inc steps needed) 4- dec stride length (inc step to step variability) 5- reduced speed of walking 6- inc double limb support item 7- insufficient hip knee and ankle flexion (shuffling steps and rigid in extension) 8- insufficient heel strike (inc forefoot loading) 9- reduced trunk rotation (dec or absent arm swing) (lack of reciprocal arm swing) 10- difficulty with dual task (difficulty with motor and cognitive tasks) 11- difficulty with attentional demands and complex environments

Complications of burns:

1- infection 2- Pulmonary complications - inhalation injury (smoke inhalation; facial burns, singed nasal hairs, harsh cough, hoarseness, abnormal breath sounds, resp distress, carbonaceous sputum, hypoxemia) 3- metabolic complications (inc metabolic and catabolic activity - dec in body weight, negative nitrogen balance, muscle mass, dec energy stores which are all vital to healing process) 4- CV complications 5- heterotopic ossification (HO) = formation of bone in soft tissue 6- neuropathy (peripheral, polyneuropathy) 7- pathological scars

What are precautions with Down syndrome?

1. AVOID forceful neck flexion and rotation activity (laxity of odontoid lig/Atlanta-axial joint instability) 2. AVOID hyperextension of elbows and knees during WB (ligament laxity) Down syndrome shows LMN signs

Metabolic syndrome includes 3 or more of the following: (list 5 factors)

1. Abdominal obesity (waist >40 in men, >35 in women) 2. Cholesterol: elevated triglycerides 150 mg/dL or greater or using cholesterol medicine 3. Low HDL: <40 for men, <50 for women 4. High BP: greater than or equal

Appendicitis tests (7)

1. Blumberg sign 2. Pinch an inch test (RLQ) A. Pain is present upon release 3. Psoas sign 4. Obturator sign 5. Markel's sign 6. McBurney's point 7. Rovsing's sign

What are the precautions associated with a hernia?

1. Do not put too much pressure (do not want to inc intra-abdominal P >> bc this will cause more stress and hernia will get worse) 2. AVOID valsalva

Symptoms of Down syndrome (6)

1. Hypotonia and ligament laxity 2. Delayed motor milestones (running and jumping most delayed) 3. Deficits in memory and expressive language 4. Impairments in postural control and coordination 5. Dec quad and hip ABD strength 6. Inefficient mvmt strategies bc of hypotonia (quad and hip ABD weakness)

Precautions with GERD? (6)

1. Maintain upright positions 2. Eat meals 3-4 hours BEFORE sleep 3. AVOID supine (straightens esophagus) 4. Sleep on L side-lying (to inhibit nocturnal reflex) 5. Exercise 2-3 hours AFTER OR BEFORE meals 6. AVOID spicy, chocolate, fatty food

What are the 6 sub scales used in The Braden Scale for Predicting Pressure Sore Risk?

1. Sensory perception 2. Skin moisture 3. Activity 4. Mobility 5. Friction/shear 6. Nutritional status

Symptoms of autism spectrum disorder (ASD) (6)

1. Social/communication skills esp non-verbal 2. Repetitive behaviors (routines, highly focused interest, spinning of hands) 3. Sensory processing issues 4. Unable to develop relationships 5. Hypo or hyper reactive to sensory input 6. Dyspraxia (inability to imitate mvmt) INTERVENTIONS FOR AUTISM SPECTRUM DISORDER • Multi-sensory input • Give specific information • Behavioral interventions • Encouraging motor development • Visual supports (lines on the floors for gait) • Using First, then (or sequencing)

What are the 4 clinical concepts?

1. Stretch BEFORE strengthening (need to regain the ROM before strengthening) 2. Closed chain OVER open chain for strengthening (more functional, strengthens more muscle groups at once) 3. Eccentric requires MORE force than concentric 4. Rule of 6: 6 weeks, 12 weeks, 6 mos (following a major surgery first 6 weeks not a lot of activity, 12 weeks start active activity/AROM, 6 mos return to sport)

Normal sodium lvl

135-146 mEq/L

Blood in abdominal cavity secondary to liver trauma, pancreatic cancer (head of pancreas) A. Refers to mid-back and scapular region B. Refers to C8-T2 C. Refers to R shoulder

What is normal cardiac output (CO)?

5 L/min (CO = HR x SV = total amt of blood flowing through the system)

define lymphedema

A chronic disorder characterized by an abnormal accumulation of lymph fluid in the tissues of one or more body regions Caused by increased lymphatic load or decreased transport capacity Primary - congenital/hereditary Secondary-injury to lymph system

Pinch an inch test

A fold of abdominal skin over McBurney's point is grasped and elevated away from the peritoneum. The skin is allowed to recoil back briskly against the peritoneum. If the patient has increased pain when the skin fold strikes the peritoneum, the test is positive and peritonitis probably is present A test for peritonitis associated with appendicitis. Gently grasp 2-3 inches of skin over McBurney point and lift. Assess the patient's pain response with quick release of the skin. A positive test in pain reported with the release when the skin rests against the peritoneum.

Brief, discontinuous, popping lung sounds that are high-pitched. Can be heard in both inspiration and expiration. A. Rhonchi B. Wheeze C. Crackles D. Pleural rub

standard precautions

A strict form of infection control that is based on the assumption that all blood and other body fluids are infectious. Hand hygiene; use of gloves, gown, mask, eye protection or face shield (depending on anticipated exposure and safe injection practices Respiratory hygiene/cough etiquette

Incorrect perception of self and illness (unaware of injury/impairments) and incorrect perception of self in space A. Spatial-perceptual dysfunction B. Prosopagnosia C. Figure-ground discrimination D. Form discrimination E. Position in space impairment

Increased resistance to passive movement that affects both agonist and antagonist muscles A. Rigidity B. Spasticity

Which of the following pulmonary changes occur with pregnancy? A. A-P and transverse chest diameters inc B. A-P and transverse chest diameters dec C. Diaphragm elevated D. Diaphragm depressed E. RR unchanged F. RR inc G. Depth of respiration inc H. Depth of respiration dec I. TV and minute ventilation inc J. TV and minute ventilation dec K. TLC unchanged or slightly dec L. TLC unchanged or slightly inc M. WOB increase bc of hypoventilation

A, C, E, G, I, K, M

Which are the upward rotators of the scapula? A. UT B. Rhomboids C. Levator scap D. Serratus ant E. Pec minor F. LT

A, D, F Upset Loki Smacks Thor A (UT), F (LT), D (serratus ant), T for traps

all hernias are located on the _____ side, and all surgeries are done _________ A. Anterior B. Posterior C. Lateral

A, A (Cannot protrude posteriorly due to spine)

Plagiocephaly leads to: _________ frontal bossing ________ occipitoparitel flattenign _______ occipital bossing A. Ipsilateral B. Contralateral

A, A, B Leads to parallelogram shape

Active insufficiency is always the ________ as the muscles action Passive insufficiency is always the ________ as the muscles action A. Same B. Opposite

A, B

Onset: 28 wks gestation, integrated: 1-2 mos A. Flexor withdrawal reflex B. Crossed extension reflex C. Traction reflex D. Asymmetrical tonic neck reflex (ATNR)

A, B

Stages of lymphedema: Stemmer sign negative A. Stage 0 (latency) B. Stage 1 (reversible) C. Stage 2 (spontaneously irreversible) D. Stage 3 (lymphostatic elephantitis)

A, B

Decreases with restrictive lung disease A. TV B. IC C. ERV D. VC E. FVC F. RV G. FRC H. TLC I. FEV1

A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H

Can refer to mid-back/scapula A. Esophagus B. Gall bladder C. Liver D. Heart E. Diaphragm F. Stomach G. Pancreas H. Diaphragm I. Tail of pancreas J. Pericardium K. Head of pancreas L. Peptic ulcer M. Colon N. Appendix O. Pelvic viscera

A, B, F, G

Low anterior thigh wall is similar to weak ____________ muscle. Low lateral wall is similar to weak _________ muscle. A. Quadriceps B. Hamstring C. Abductors D. Adductors

A, C

Causes of excessive knee extension (select multiple): A. Quad weakness B. Hamstring weakness C. Excessive ankle PF D. Hip flexor weakness E. Excessive ankle DF

A, C, D Quad weakness - lock knee out in hyperextension Excessive ankle PF - like with high heels (lock knee in hyperextension) Hip flexor weakness - forward trunk lean towards weak muscle (leads to excessive knee hyperextension)

When performing MLD for lymphedema which areas should be cleared first to remove congestion and make room? A. Trunk B. Arms C. Groin D. Buttock E. Axilla F. Legs G. Feet

A, C, D, E (clear the proximal congestion first to make room for fluid from more distal areas)

Which of the following MSK changes occur with pregnancy: A. APT B. PPT C. Forward head D. Increased kyphosis and lordosis E. Decreased kyphosis and lordosis F. Hyper mobility (dec ligament tensile strength) G. Hypo mobility (inc ligament tensile strength)

A, C, D, F (COG shifts anterior and superiorly and think everything gets stretched and weakened)

Located in the epidermis A. Keratinocytes B. Collagen C. Reticulum D. Fibroblasts E. Melanocytes F. Langerhans cells G. Macrophages H. Basal cells I. Lymphatic glands J. Blood vessels K. Nerve fibers

A, E, F, H (A and E - keratinocytes and melanocytes color your skin so makes sense they are on the surface)

Upper crossed syndrome has weak: A. Deep cervical flexors B. SCM C. UT D. Levator scap E. Pectoralis F. LT G. Serratus ant

A, F, G

Increases with obstructive lung disease A. TV B. IC C. ERV D. VC E. FVC F. RV G. FRC H. TLC I. FEV1

A, F, G, H

Which conditions refer to RLQ? A. Appendix B. Peptic ulcers C. Gall bladder pathology D. Diverticulitis E. Tail of pancreas F. Spleen pathology G. Ulcerative colitis H. IBS I. Head of pancreas J. Crohn's

A, J (AC >> appendix, Crohn's)

0-6 weeks post op A. Stage 1: Max protection phase post THA (total hip arthroplasty) B. Stage 2 post THA C. Stage 3 post THA

3,600 mL A. Inspiratory capacity (IC) B. Functional reserve capacity (FRC) C. Vital capacity (VC) D. Total lung capacity (TLC)

52-year-old female has a history of multiple sclerosis and described that the symptoms initially would appear for a few days and disappear but have now become continuous and do not disappear. This patient MOST likely has which of the following type of MS: A . Secondary-Progressive B. Primary-Progressive C. Progressive-relapsing D. Relapsing-remitting

A 30 years old male client visits a town which is 9000 feet above sea level. What are the INITIAL cardiovascular responses during the first week in town? A. Increased BP, increased cardiac output with tachycardia and no significant changes in SV. B. Decreased BP, decreased cardiac output with bradycardia and increased SV. C. Increased BP, decreased cardiac output with bradycardia and increased SV. D. Decreased BP, increased cardiac output with tachycardia and increased SV.

A 30-year-old male patient presents with right lower abdominal pain. PT performs the "pinch-an-inch" test result is positive. Which condition below is MOSTLY related to the symptoms described? A. Appendicitis B. Diverticulitis C. Crohn's disease D. Irritable bowel syndrome

A 82-year-old patient suffered a right sided CVA about a week ago. The therapist is educating him on various positioning strategies. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate while lying on the left side? A. Head/neck: neutral, left Scapular protracted; L arm in slight abduction and external rotation; elbow extended, forearm supinated, wrist neutral, fingers extended, and thumb abducted. B. Head/neck: neutral, left Scapular retracted; L arm in slight abduction and internal rotation; elbow extended, forearm pronated, wrist neutral, fingers extended, and thumb adducted C. Head/neck: neutral, right Scapular retracted; L arm in slight abduction and internal rotation; elbow extended, forearm pronated, wrist neutral, fingers extended, and thumb adducted D. Head/neck: neutral, left Scapular protracted; L arm in slight adduction and external rotation; elbow flexed, forearm supinated, wrist extended, fingers flexed, and thumb abducted.

A patient has a pressure ulcer with bone visible. The wound has necrotic tissue and exudate present. Which of the following is the BEST wound care option? A. Calcium Alginate B. Hydrocolloid dressing C. Hydrogel dressings D. Transparent films

A patient with right hemisphere damage would MOST likely have: A. Left unilateral neglect and difficulty reaching for objects presented on the Left side of the body. B. Left unilateral neglect and difficulty reaching for objects presented in the midline of the body. C. Difficulty crossing midline to reach objects on the Right side of the body. D. Difficulty stabilizing gaze and locating objects on the right side of the body.

A physical therapist is examining a 41-year-old male patient in an outpatient clinic. Which of the following sound is PT auscultating when listening over each lung segment? A. Vesicular sounds B. Mitral valve C. Pulmonary valve D. Tracheal sounds

Affected leg is longer in supine and shorter in sitting A. Anterior pelvic rotation (on one side) B. Posterior pelvic rotation (on one side)

Affected side is side of less intense nystagmus (away from ground) A. HSC Cupulolithiasis B. HSC canalithaisis

Affects LE > UE, contralateral motor and sensory loss A. ACA stroke B. MCA stroke

Affects skin's elasticity, sensitive to pressure/touch, bruise easily and painful A. Lipedema B. Lymphedema

Amount of lymphatic fluid that NEEDs to be transported (amt of lymphatic fluid transported) A. Lymphatic load B. Transport capacity C. Venous insufficiency D. Lymph node removal

Anatomic causes: weak abductors, short amputation limb A. Lateral trunk lean B. Abduction of limb C. Lordosis D. Forward flexion of trunk

Auditory comprehension is impaired (should communicate by writing things down, provide visuals/pictures to help, give non-verbal cues) A. Wernicke's (fluent/receptive) aphasia B. Broca's (non-fluent/expressive) aphasia

BPPV, vestibular neuritis, labrynthitis, acoustic neuroma. Can be treated with PT. A. Peripheral vestibular pathology B. Central vestibular pathology

Bilateral, seen in proximal areas of the lower extremities (buttocks, thighs) A. Lipedema B. Lymphedema

Brunnstrom's stages of recovery (stroke): flaccidity, no active limb movement A. Stage 1 B. Stage 2 C. Stage 3 D. Stage 4 E. Stage 5 F. Stage 6 G. Stage 7

Cannot do things on command. Ex. If give them a toothbrush and ask them what toothbrush is used for, they will be able to explain its purpose ("to brush teeth") but unable to complete the action on command A. Ideomotor apraxia B. Ideational apraxia

Inadequate friction, slack extension aid A. High heel rise (early heel rise) B. Terminal impact C. Heel whip D. Foot rotation

Can be heard in pts with heart issues (such as heart failure) A. Rhonchi B. Wheeze C. Crackles D. Pleural rub

Causes: Deficient potassium or excessive loss due to diarrhea, vomiting, metabolic acidosis or alkalosis, renal tubular disease. Observe for muscle weakness, aches, fatigue; cardiac arrhythmias; abdominal distention and N/V. A. Hypokalemia B. Hyperkalemia C. Hyponatremia D. Hypernatremia E. Hypocalcemia F. Hypercalcemia G. Hypomagnesemia H. Hypermagnesemia

Causes: diabetes, renal insufficiency or failure, diarrhea. Observe for hyperventilation (compensatory), deep respirations; weakness, muscular twitching; malaise, nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea; headache; dry skin and mucous membranes; poor skin turgor. May lead to stupor and coma (death). A. Metabolic acidosis B. Metabolic alkalosis C. Respiratory acidosis D. Respiratory alkalosis

Chronic progressive neurodegenerative disorder with depletion of dopamine from the substantia nigra A. Parkinson's B. Huntington's C. Multiple Sclerosis D. Myasthenia Gravis E. Cerebellar Disorder F. Guillian-Barre Syndrome G. Amyotrophic Lateral Sclerosis

Clear, adhesive, semipermeable membrane dressings. Permeable to atmospheric oxygen and moisture vapor yet impermeable to water, bacteria and environmental contaminants. A. Transparent films B. Hydrocolloids C. Hydrogels D. Foams E. Alginates F. Gauze dressings

Continuous low pitched, rattling lung sounds that resemble snoring. A. Rhonchi B. Wheeze C. Crackles D. Pleural rub

Corneal reflex A. CN5 B. CN7 C. CN10 D. CN9 E. CN12

Cover wound, keep it moist/clean and protect from trauma. Use transparent dressing over a gauze moistened with saline or a hydrogel foam or Hydrocolloid dressing to insulate/protect. A. Red wound color B. Yellow wound color C. Black wound color

DF stop too soft A. DF (excessive) B. PF (excessive)

DHP: (A) The patient's head is turned (45 degrees) toward her _________ ear while she is in a sitting position. (B) (B) The patient is quickly moved into a supine position with her head extended (20-30 degree off the table) and rotated 45 degrees toward her ear. A. Affected B. Unaffected

Damage to the lower/inferior division of the MCA will cause A. Wernicke's aphasia B. Broca's aphasia

During exam pt has impaired facial sensation, difficulty with jaw opening, and an impaired corneal reflex. Which CN could be affected? A. CN5 B. CN7 C. CN10 D. CN9 E. CN12

Early signs: loss of sense of smell, constipation, sleep disorders (can occur 3-4 yrs before being diagnosed) A. Parkinson's B. Huntington's C. Multiple Sclerosis D. Myasthenia Gravis E. Cerebellar Disorder F. Guillian-Barre Syndrome G. Amyotrophic Lateral Sclerosis

Elevated Ca and decreased serum phosphate. Elevated Ca in blood. Can demineralize bone and cause bone weakness and decreased density. A. Hyperparathyroidism B. Hypoparathyroidism

Energy absorbing cushion heel, PF in early stance, limited transverse and mediolateral motion, cannot be used on uneven terrain A. SACH foot B. SAFE foot C. Seattle foot D. Microprocessor foot

Epidermis, dry/red skin without open areas, heals in 5 days w/o scarring A. Superficial burn (stage 1) B. Superficial partial thickness burn (stage 2) C. Deep partial thickness burn (stage 3) D. Full thickness burn (stage 4) E. Subdermal burn (stage 5)

Erythematosus, pink or red, irritated dermis A. Epidermal burn (1st degree) B. Superficial partial-thickness burn (2nd degree) C. Deep partial-thickness burn (3rd degree) D. Full-thickness burn (4th degree) E. Subdermal burn (5th degree)

Excessive knee flexion (knee flexes through more than normal range to allow sole of foot to reach floor) A. Stiff heel cushion or hard PF bumper B. Soft heel cushion or soft PF bumper

FEV1 >80% of predicted, chronic cough, +/- sputum A. GOLD stage 1 COPD B. GOLD stage 2 COPD C. GOLD stage 3 COPD D. GOLD stage 4 COPD

Fight or flight, increases HR A. SNS B. PNS

Fine/light touch A. Meissner corpuscles B. Krause end bulbs C. Golgi tendon organs D. Ruffini endings

Flexion contracture, weak quads High prosthetic heel, insufficient PF, socket too anterior, stiff heel A. Excessive knee flexion B. Insufficient knee flexion C. Excessive lateral thrust D. Excessive medial thrust E. Early knee flexion F. Delayed knee flexion

For proximal limb measurement A. Girth measurement B. Volumetric measurement C. Bioelectrical impedance D. Lymphoscintigraphy

For stage 1 and 2 pressure ulcers, used for autolytic debridement. Impermeable to external fluids and bacteria. A. Transparent films B. Hydrocolloids C. Hydrogels D. Foams E. Alginates F. Gauze dressings

Gallbladder, stomach, pancreas and small intestines A. Refers to mid-back and scapular region B. Refers to C8-T2 C. Refers to R shoulder

Hand washing, gloves, gown A. Contact precautions B. Droplet precautions C. Airborne precautions

Have to pick out an object from an array of objects (ex. Brake form rest of WC) A. Figure-ground discrimination B. Form constancy C. Position in space D. Spatial relations E. Topographical disorientation F. Vertical disorientation G. Agnosia

Healing: minimal edema, spontaneous healing, no scars A. Epidermal burn (1st degree) B. Superficial partial-thickness burn (2nd degree) C. Deep partial-thickness burn (3rd degree) D. Full-thickness burn (4th degree) E. Subdermal burn (5th degree)

High risk of fall/breaking bones. Should avoid high intensity exercise and combined flexion/rotation. A. Hyperparathyroidism B. Hypoparathyroidism

Hypoactive adrenal gland, low ACTH/adrenal A. Addison's disease B. Graves disease C. Cushing's syndrome D. Hashimoto's disease

Which of the following activities should be the PRIMARY emphasis of a PT treatment program for a child who has athetoid cerebral palsy with abnormal, involuntary movement? A. Facilitating co-contraction patterns and encouraging control in voluntary movement B. Preservation of strength and muscle tone C. Facilitating use of primitive reflexes to perform fine motor skills D. Prevention of contractures and determine the best method of mobility

With knee valgus: A. Leg IR, foot overpronates B. Leg IR, foot oversupinates C. Leg ER, foot overpronates D. Leg ER, foot oversupinates

is a jerky, ratchet-like resistance to passive movement as muscles alternately tense and relax. It occurs when tremor coexists with rigidity A. Cogwheel rigidity B. Lead pipe rigidity

• COPD • Asthma • CF • Emphysema • Bronchitis • Bronchiectasis A. Obstructive lung diseases B. Restrictive lung diseases

Pancreas produces no insulin, mostly at childhood but can be any age. A. Type 1 diabetes B. Type 2 diabetes

A. (Type ONE >> NONE (rhymes) = no insulin)

A PT is examining a 46-year-old patient who underwent a radical mastectomy. The patient has developed lymphedema on the right UE. Which of the following statements is CORRECT intervention in this patient? A. The trunk and axilla should be decongested first followed by arm and hand B. Manual lymphatic drainage should involve proximal to distal stroking C. The hand should be decongested first followed by trunk and axilla D. Manual lymphatic drainage is contraindicated in post mastectomy

A. (B is incorrect because should move distal to proximal towards the lymph node) (C is not correct because trunk/axilla should be drained first before more distal areas)

Fluid filled vesicle 0.5 cm or less in diameter, from pressure and friction on sites such as palms/soles. Produced from friction on upper skin layer. A. Blisters B. Vesicles C. Wheals D. Pustules

A. (Bullae if >1 cm)

Pituitary adenoma (enlarged) >> more ACTH secreted by pituitary gland which stimulates adrenal gland >> more cortisol is released >> inc BP A. Cushing's disease B. Cushing's syndrome

A. (D for disease comes before S for syndrome >> pituitary gland comes before adrenal gland)

A PT is evaluating a 26-year-old female basketball player with a vague diagnosis of right knee pain. The patient is performing a jump landing as shown. The PT treatment should MOST likely focus on: A. Strengthening of the right gluteus medius B. Strengthening of the right adductor magnus C. Strengthening of the right vastus medialis D. Strengthening of the right tibialis anterior

A. (Stick to your plane - valgum (frontal plane), glute med (frontal plane))

Regulation of ANS (body temp, appetite, sweating, thirst, sexual behavior, rage, fear, BP, sleep) A. Hypothalamus B. Pituitary gland C. Thyroid gland D. Parathyroid gland E. Adrenal gland

A. TALE >> temperature, appetite, libido, emotions

Heard during Inspiratory longer than expiratory A. Vesicular B. Bronchiovesicular C. Bronchial D. Tracheal

A. Think of breath sound intensity and pitch of expiration as going to a concert. Your mouth/nose are the stage of performance" • trachea = closest to stage (loudest) • Vesicular is furthest from stage (softest) • Closer to the stage the sound intensity will be highest and the further away the intensity reduces

Soft and low pitch, over most of lungs A. Vesicular B. Bronchiovesicular C. Bronchial D. Tracheal

A 74-year-old retired contractor walks to the treatment room with a prominent backward lean, when he is in stance on the left lower extremity. From this observation, you hypothesize that the MOST LIKELY cause is: A. Weak hip extensors on the left during stance phase B. Weak hip flexors on the left during stance phase C. Weak hip extensors on the right during swing phase D. Weak hip flexors on the right during swing phase

A. (During STANCE phase weak muscles are a magnet to the trunk) (During swing phase trunk moves OPP weak muscles/away from weak muscles)

A physical therapist is examining a 25-year-old male who had a recent fall while fixing the roof. The patient seems distracted, and the PT has difficulty maintaining the patient's attention. Which area of the brain is MOST likely injured? A. Frontal lobe B. Temporal lobe C. Parietal lobe D. Occipital lobe

A. (Frontal lobe: CEO of the whole body, EF, cognitive skills (capacity to plan, organize and achieve goal), planning, organizing, initiating, self monitoring, voluntary movement, expressive language)

A PT is ordered to examine a 76 year old patient who has suffered a recent stroke. The occupational therapist informs the PT that the patient has apraxia. She cannot drink from the bottle on command. However, she can point out to the bottle and verbalize the purpose of the bottle. From this information, what sort of apraxia does this patient have? How should the PT approach treatment? A. Ideomotor apraxia; The PT should speak in short concise sentences. B. Ideational apraxia; The PT should always give the patient 3-step commands C. Ideomotor apraxia; The PT should always give the patient 3-step commands D. Ideational apraxia; The PT should speak in short concise sentences.

A. (They cannot stick with 3 step commands because they cannot follow commands)

A PT notices that a patient is experiencing early toe-off during terminal stance in gait. Which of the following identifies a likely cause, AND an appropriate intervention to address that cause? A. Hip flexion contracture, prolonged stretch B. Hip adductor weakness, progressive strengthening C. Gastrocnemius weakness, ultrasound D. Great toe flexion weakness, progressive strengthening

A. Contracture = decreases ROM of opposite motion muscle Weakness = decrease ROM of same motion of muscle

When observing a patient ambulating, a PT notices that the patient's gait has the following characteristics : impaired trunk control and ataxic gait. There is also circumduction to assist with foot clearance due to weakness of dorsiflexors of the right foot. This gait pattern is often observed in patients with diagnosis of: A. Multiple Sclerosis B. Parkinson's Disease C. Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy D. Guillain Barre Syndrome (GBS)

A. (Foot drop and toe drag)

A 61-year-old female presents with a wound on her right lower extremity and has a history of painful cramping in the legs especially after walking for a few minutes. Medical history is significant for DM II and hypertension. Which of the following would BEST describe the characteristic of this wound? A. Wound located on the dorsum of toes, base of the wound is pale and necrotic with lack of granulation tissue B. Wound located on the dorsum of the foot, hemosiderin staining present along with fibrosis of dermis C. Wound located on the medial malleolus with swelling of bilateral lower extremities that is relieved with rest D. Pitting edema in the lower extremities, numbness and tingling along with hyperkeratosis of the skin

A. Hemosideran (dark coloring seen with venous) Medial malleolus >> venous Hyperkeratosis >> thickening outer layer of skin

Sharp, enzymatic, autolytic A. Selective wound debridement B. Non-selective wound debridement

A. Selective - removal of ONLY non-viable tissues from wound Sharp - use scalpel/scissors/forceps Enzymatic - topical application Autolytic - use of body's own mechanism

PNF patterns: FAdER A. UE/D1 flexion B. UE/D2 flexion C. UE/D1 extension D. UE/D2 extension

A. "Eating" — bringing fork to mouth Patterns named by end motion of flex/ext

C5-C6, MOI: BP stretched downward A. Erb's palsy B. Klumpke's palsy

A. ( E comes before K >> C5-C6 before C8-T1)

2nd IC space, right sternal border A. Aortic B. Pulmonic C. Tricuspid D.. Mitral

A. (APTM 2245) (aoRTic - R side)

Which of the following exercise programs is most appropriate for a 67 years old postmenopausal female patient with MS who has poor balance and decreased strength? A. Stretching, posture and balance program with strengthening exercise as tolerated B. Stretching and progressive hill training on treadmill C. Warm water aquatic training D. Progressive hill training on treadmill with plyometric training

A. (Avoid activities that would raise body temperature such as treadmill and warm water aquatic)

A. (Avoid anything that raises body temp to much due to heat sensitivity - so avoid hill training/treadmill training and avoid warm water bc would inc body temp)

Problems with walking if reflex persists A. Plantar grasp reflex B. Symmetrical tonic neck reflex (STNR) C. Startle reflex

A. (Bc flexion of toes)

A two-year-old child with Down syndrome is being treated by a physical therapist. The child has moderate developmental delay and exhibits hypo tonicity. The MOST appropriate physical therapy treatment should include: A. Pushing a toy cart while standing B. Locomotor training using body weight support C. Rolling and somersault activities D. Rhythmic stabilization of postural extensors in sitting

A. (Because standing while strengthening >> more functional than sitting) (To address hypotonicity focus on WB)

Looks up and out A. Superior rectus B. Lateral rectus C. Inferior rectus D. Inferior oblique E. Medial rectus F. Superior oblique

A. (CN3)

A patient comes to PT clinic following a left below knee amputation. Assuming the black dot in the middle was the patient's COM before amputation, which of the following location is MOST likely to the new COM after amputation. A. Moves higher on the right side (Yellow dot) B. Moves lower on the right side (Red dot) C. Moves higher on the left side (Blue dot) D. Moves lower on the left side (Green dot)

A. (COM moves toward heavier/intact side and up towards HAT -head, arms, trunk)

Pain with palpation between ASIS and belly button A. McBurney's point B. Rovsing's sign C. Blumberg's sign D. Murphy's sign

A. (Can suggest bowel dysfunction, appendicits

Postural changes that occur with pregnancy: A. FHP, kyphosis, increased lordosis, APT B. FHP, kyphosis, decreased lordosis, PPT C. Rounded shoulders, flattened lordosis, APT

A. (Change in COM to more anterior)

Has continuous lesions A. Ulcerative colitis (IBD) B. Crohn's disease (IBD)

A. (Colitis >> C >> continuous lesions)

Creeping A. 7-8 mos B. 8-10 mos C. 10 mos D. 15 mos E. 2 years F. 2.5-3 yrs G. 3 yrs H. 4 yrs

A. (Creeping = belly up, crawling = belly on ground)

Plagiocephaly is named by the A. Flat side B. Bossed/enlarged side

A. (Ex. R plagiocephaly = R side is flat)

A 45-year-old male with a BMI of 38 kg/m2 is enrolled in a 6-week fitness training program. Which is the MOST appropriate measure to assess change in fitness from pre and post fitness training? A. The time it takes for the heart rate to return to baseline B. Resting respiration rate at pre training C. Rating on a Wong Baker scale D. Increase in blood pressure during exercise

A. (Fit has lower resting HR and takes less time to return back to normal)

Maintained pressure to ball of foot under toes >> maintained flexion of toes A. Plantar grasp reflex B. Symmetrical tonic neck reflex (STNR) C. Startle reflex

A. (Flexion of toes >> trying to keep grip on floor)

A 44-year-old female patient arrived at a clinic after sustaining a fall involving a hand/wrist injury. Upon examination, the PT observed the radius dislocated in a volar direction. Which of the following conditions would MOST likely match this description? A. Smith's Fracture B. Colle's Fracture C. Scaphoid Fracture D. Dinner fork Deformity

A. (Garden spade deformity - radius dislocates VOLAR) B is dinner fork deformity (radius dislocates dorsal), C dinner fork deformity (same as option B, both are wrong)

What glucose lvl is considered hypoglycemia? A. 60 mg/dL B. 110 mg/dL C. 75 mg/dL D. 80 mg/dL

A. (Glucose <70 mg/dL = hypoglycemia)

Maintained pressure to palm of hand >> maintained flexion of fingers A. Palmar grasp reflex B. Moro reflex C. Symmetrical tonic labrythine (TLR/STLR) reflex D. Positive supporting reflex

A. (Hair pulling stage)

Is an absolute contraindication to exercise during pregnancy: A. Type 1 DM B. Diastasis recti present

A. (High risk, don't want baby to become hypoglycemic)

After normal delivery, the woman comes to a PT clinic with a complaint of leaking of urine involuntarily during coughing and sneezing and when she is climbing stairs. Which of the following diagnosis is MOST likely based on the patient presentation? A. Stress incontinence B. Overflow incontinence C. Functional incontinence D. Urge incontinence

A. (Involuntary leakage on exertion)

The pt reports difficulty with vision when looking from the center to the right, which CN is MOST likely affected? A. CN 6 B. CN 4 C. CN3 D. CN2

A. (LR6 - lateral rectus CN 6 - abducts eye)

Cold intolerance, excessive fatigue, headaches, weight gain, dry skin, peripheral edema, peripheral neuropathy, proximal weakness A. Hypothyroidism B. Hyperthyroidism

A. (Low thyroid hormone, slow metabolism, everything slow)

A patient presents with foot pain during running. The PT noted the patient has excessive foot pronation and would like to provide an orthotic that could help relieve pain. Which of the following orthotic would MOST LIKELY benefit this patient? A. Forefoot medial post under first metatarsal head B. Cushion heel C. Forefoot lateral post under fifth metatarsal head D. Posterior leaf spring

A. (Medial arch is collapsing - put something underneath it to lift/build it back up) (Would use option C in the case of over supination) RULE OF OPPOSITES (narrowed it down to A and C)

A 32-year-old female patient arrived at a clinic with the following skin disorder showing a blister around the lip and mouth. Which of the following is the MOST appropriately describe these findings? A. Herpes simplex virus type 1 B. Herpes Zoster C. Acne vulgaris D. Herpes Simplex type 2

A. (Mouth comes above genitals >> type 1 = mouth, type 2 =. Genitals/below waist line)

"lub"; closure of mitral and tricuspid valves, onset of systole A. S1 B. S2 C. S3 D. S4

A. (Normal heart sound)

Roll test: Geotropic nystagmus seen, greater intensity towards L side A. L HSC canalithaisis B. R HSC canalithaisis C. L HSC Cupulolithiasis D. R HSC Cupulolithiasis

A. (Nystagmus MORE intense towards affected side)

A PT is performing cranial nerve testing on a 58- year- old male patient. The patient has ptosis, lateral strabismus, and a dilated pupil in the right eye. Which of the following cranial nerve test results is MOST likely to be abnormal? A. Right oculomotor nerve (CN III) B. Right optic nerve (CN II) C. Right facial nerve (CN VII) D. Right trigeminal nerve (CN V)

A. (Occulomotor n controls efferent/motor of pupil reflex) (ciliary muscles)

A PT is treating a patient who was originally diagnosed with a pressure injury stage 3. The patient presents to clinic with ulcer shown in the picture. Which of the following findings is MOST accurate? A. No change has occurred in the pressure injury B. The pressure injury has improved to Stage 1 C. The pressure injury has improved to Stage 2 D. The pressure injury has become unstageable

A. (Original designation of the wound does not change — a wound can get worse in it's assigned stage and go from 3 >> 4 but cannot get better)

Assumes prone on elbows (when placed in prone) A. 2-3 mos B. 3-4 mos C. 4-5 mos D. 6-7 mos E. 7-8 mos F. 8-10 mos G. 15 mos

A. (POE >> prone on elbows >> 3 letters = 2-3 mos)

Up beating torsional nystagmus A. Posterior canal BPPV B. Anterior canal BPPV

A. (PUP = posterior canal = up beating nystagmus)

What type of compression bandage do you want to use in phase 1 of treatment of lymphedema? A. Low-stretch B. High-stretch

A. (Provides low resistance but high working pressure- can be worn day and night) (NEVER WANT high stretch)

C/l weakness/paralysis, c/l neglect, spatial perceptual problems, poor judgement, impulsivity, short attn span, STM loss, communication problems, weakness of facial muscles, cognitive problems, falls risk A. Right CVA B. Left CVA

A. (R >> rocket >> act like a child/falls risk) (L sided weakness/paralysis, L neglect)

Torticollis is named after A. Ipsi side of side bend B. Contra side of side bend

A. (R torticollis = R side bend and L rotation >> this indicates the R SCM is tight bc it does ipsi side bend and contra rotation)

Treatment: turn head R >> L side-lying >> R side-lying >> sit up A. L Cupulolithiasis B. R Cupulolithiasis C. L canalithaisis D. R canalithaisis

A. (Semont maneuver to treat) Semont: turn head to unaffected side >> side lying on affected side >> side lying unaffected side (without moving head at all)

Which type of contraction do the quads and glutes undergo during stand to sit transition? A. Eccentric B. Concentric C. Isometric

A. (Slowing/lengthening)

PNF patterns: FAdER A. LE/D1 flexion B. LE/D2 flexion C. LE/D1 extension D. LE/D2 extension

A. (Soccer kick "pull your leg up and across")

A therapist examines a 69-year-old woman who has suffered a recent stroke. The therapist needs to focus on pre gait activities. Which PNF diagonal best encourages normal gait? A. D1 B. D2 C. PNF is contraindicated D. pelvic PNF patterns only

A. (Soccer kick)

For partial-thickness wounds, autolytic debridement of necrosis/slough, wounds with mild exudate. A. Transparent films B. Hydrocolloids C. Hydrogels D. Foams E. Alginates F. Gauze dressings

During the initial evaluation, PT asks the stroke patient to lift her left arm as high as she is able. Patient is able to lift her arm off of her lap; however, she is only able to move it with elbow flexion, shoulder elevation, and wrist flexion with significant increased tone. Which of the following Brunnstrom's Stages of Recovery is MOST appropriate description for this patient? A. Stage 3 B. Stage 4 C. Stage 5 D. Stage 6

A. (Stage 3 -spasticity is at peak)

A 39-year-old comes to an outpatient clinic complaining of hip problems. The physical therapist notices a drop of the left hip during right midstance. The MOST appropriate treatment for this impairment would be: A. Stand on right leg and abduct the left leg B. Stand on left leg and extend the right leg C. Stand on right leg and flex the right leg D. Stand on left leg and flex the right leg

A. (Stick to your plane (frontal plane ADD/ABD))

Pregnancy: No __________ lying in 3rd trimester A. Supine B. Side

A. (Supine login can cause compression of IVC after 4th month and could cause a decline in CO and supine hypotensive syndrome)

Which of the following activities should be the PRIMARY emphasis of a physical therapy treatment program for a child who has athetoid cerebral palsy? A. Facilitating co-contraction patterns and encouraging control in voluntary movement B. Preservation of strength and muscle tone C. Facilitating use of primitive reflexes to perform fine motor skills D. Prevention of contractures and determine the best method of mobility

A. (These pts have involuntary movements and you want to focus on encouraging control)

Early signs: weakness, dry mouth, frequent scant urination, deep and rapid respirations, dull senses, confusion, diminished reflexes, excessive thirst A. Hyperglycemia B. Hypoglycemia

A. (Think about how you feel if you ate a lot of sugar/candy)

After evaluating a baseball player, the PT concludes that there is insufficient deceleration of the shoulder during throwing. Which of the following strengthening techniques will be MOST effective in improving control of deceleration of the shoulder? A. Eccentric exercises of the teres minor and infraspinatus B. Eccentric exercises of the teres major and pectoralis major C. Concentric exercises of the teres minor and infraspinatus D. Concentric exercises of the teres major and pectoralis major

A. (Throwing has IR of shoulder, deceleration relies on eccentric ER muscles)

Which type of contraction do the triceps undergo as the shoulder moves from 180° toward 90° of flexion? A. Eccentric B. Concentric C. Isometric

A. (Triceps is shortening during shoulder extension)

One crutch and opposite extremity move together, followed by opposite crutch and extremity (requires 2 ADs (canes or crutches)) A. Two-point gait B. Three-point gait C. Four-point gait D. Swing-to gait E. Swing-through gait

A. (Two point is like walking with 2 feet but with addition of device moving for extra support)

Ulcer proximal to the medial malleolus A. Venous insufficiency B. Lymphedema C. Lipedema D. Arterial insufficiency

A. (VENOM >> medially located ulcer)

Which type of contraction do the biceps undergo as the shoulder moves from 180° toward 90° of flexion? A. Eccentric B. Concentric C. Isometric

A. (Working eccentrically/lengthening to control shoulder extension)

What structures refer pain to pelvis, low back and sacrum? (Mnemonic)

CAP Colon, appendix, pelvic viscera

What are the effects of age on CV function? (List effects on SV, contractility, VO2max, HR, SV)

ALL DECREASE Just think goes downhill >> decreases with age

List the locations of all 12 CN

CE MB PONS MEDU CN1-2 - cerebrum CN3-4 - midbrain CN5-8 - pons CN9-12 - medulla

Forceful hip flexion, inadequate friction, taut extension aid A. High heel rise (early heel rise) B. Terminal impact C. Heel whip D. Foot rotation

A PT assesses a patient's voice sounds as part of a respiratory examination. The therapist positions the stethoscope over the thorax and asks the patient to say "E". Which type of voice sound is assessed using this technique? A. Bronchophony B. Egophony C. Pectoriloquy D. Rhonchi

Drop pt backwards from sitting position >> ext, ABD of UEs, hand opening followed by crying, flexion and ADD of arms across chest A. Palmar grasp reflex B. Moro reflex C. Symmetrical tonic labrythine (TLR/STLR) reflex D. Positive supporting reflex

ERV + RV (amt of air remaining in lungs after normal expiration) A. Inspiratory capacity (IC) B. Functional reserve capacity (FRC) C. Vital capacity (VC) D. Total lung capacity (TLC)

Elevated fluid filled lesion up to 1 cm in size A. Blisters B. Vesicles C. Wheals D. Pustules

A PT is treating a patient with Epley maneuver starting with the head in 30 degrees extension and right ear towards the ceiling. Which of the following test is MOST likely expected to be positive for the therapist to choose this intervention? A. Torsional upbeating nystagmus with right dix hallpike test B. Torsional upbeating nystagmus with left dix hallpike test C. Geotropic nystagmus on supine roll test D. Ageotropic nystagmus on supine roll test

Epidermis and some dermis, weeping blisters, blanches to pressure with quick capillary refill, extremely painful, heals in 4-10 days, minimal scarring A. Superficial burn (stage 1) B. Superficial partial thickness burn (stage 2) C. Deep partial thickness burn (stage 3) D. Full thickness burn (stage 4) E. Subdermal burn (stage 5)

FEV1 50-80% of predicted, chronic cough, +/- sputum, dyspnea A. GOLD stage 1 COPD B. GOLD stage 2 COPD C. GOLD stage 3 COPD D. GOLD stage 4 COPD

Causes: excess vomiting, excess diuretics, hypokalemia; peptic ulcer, and excessive intake of antacids. Observe for hypoventilation (compensatory), depressed respirations; dysrhythmias; prolonged vomiting, diarrhea; weakness, muscle twitching; irritability, agitation, convulsions and coma (death). A. Metabolic acidosis B. Metabolic alkalosis C. Respiratory acidosis D. Respiratory alkalosis

Cellulitis A. Lipedema B. Lymphedema

Kehr's sign

Acute pain in tip of shoulder due to blood or other irritants in the peritoneal cavity When lying down and legs elevated Kehr sign in L shoulder = classic symptom of ruptured spleen (spLeen >> L side)

With a burn to the shoulder-axilla you will often see _________ and _____contracture. And ______, _______ and _______ will stress the burned tissue. The pt should be positioned in ____________ and _______.

Adduction and IR ABD, flexion, ER Flexion and ER

BBQ/Lempert to treat HSC canalithaisis or Cupulolithiasis:: Start supine >> turn head 90 deg to _________ side >> neutral >>> turn head to _______ side >>>>> turn another 90 deg to _______ side >>> then prone (another 90 deg to ______ side) >> then sit up

Affected, unaffected, unaffected, unaffected

What is the mnemonic to remember location for auscultation of the heart valves?

All Physical Therapists Make $2245 (APTM 2245) Aortic - 2nd intercostal space, R side Pulmonary - 2nd intercostal space, L side Tricuspid - 4th intercostal space, R side Mitral - 5th intercostal space, L side

What is an anatomical cause of R lateral trunk lean with R AKA (above knee amputation)? What's a prosthetic cause?

Anatomical: - weak R glute med (dec moment arm) Prosthetic: - low lateral wall (lack of support on lateral side)

Contralateral homonymous hemianopsia A. ACA stroke B. MCA stroke

Cruises sideways (using furniture), can stand alone A. 7 mos B. 8-9 mos C. 10-15 mos

DF stop too hard A. DF (excessive) B. PF (excessive)

Which conditions refer to RUQ? A. Appendix B. Peptic ulcers C. Gall bladder pathology D. Diverticulitis E. Tail of pancreas F. Spleen pathology G. Ulcerative colitis H. IBS I. Head of pancreas J. Crohn's

B, C, I (PGP >> peptic ulcers, gall bladder >> head of pancreas)

Damage to pre-motor area (L frontal lobe) A. Wernicke's (fluent/receptive) aphasia B. Broca's (non-fluent/expressive) aphasia

Can refer to R shoulder: A. Esophagus B. Gall bladder C. Liver D. Heart E. Diaphragm F. Stomach G. Pancreas H. Diaphragm I. Tail of pancreas J. Pericardium K. Head of pancreas L. Peptic ulcer M. Colon N. Appendix O. Pelvic viscera

B, C, K, L (RUQ = PGP = peptic ulcers, gallbladder, head of Pancreas)

Damage to the upper/superior division of the MCA will cause A. Wernicke's aphasia B. Broca's aphasia

Difficulty naming people on sight A. Spatial-perceptual dysfunction B. Prosopagnosia C. Figure-ground discrimination D. Form discrimination E. Position in space impairment

Down beating torsional nystagmus A. Posterior canal BPPV B. Anterior canal BPPV

Flow of speech is slow, hesitant and vocabulary is limited, syntax (sentence structure/arrangement of words) is impaired. Comprehension is good. A. Wernicke's (fluent/receptive) aphasia B. Broca's (non-fluent/expressive) aphasia

Inspiratory and expiratory sounds are equal A. Vesicular B. Bronchiovesicular C. Bronchial D. Tracheal

B, D Think of breath sound intensity and pitch of expiration as going to a concert. Your mouth/nose are the stage of performance" • trachea = closest to stage (loudest) • Vesicular is furthest from stage (softest) • Closer to the stage the sound intensity will be highest and the further away the intensity reduces

(+) stemmer's sign A. Lipedema B. Lymphedema

2,400 mL A. Inspiratory capacity (IC) B. Functional reserve capacity (FRC) C. Vital capacity (VC) D. Total lung capacity (TLC)

78-year-old patient was admitted with a diagnosis of acute exacerbation of COPD. The patient has a FEV1 of 40% with FEV1/FVC <70% and has shortness of breathing during ambulation. According to the GOLD classification, the patient would MOST likely be classified as: A. Very severe B. Severe C. Moderate D. Mild

A PT needs to check the walking gait of patient who suffered from CVA and decides to evaluate muscle function. The 3 hamstring muscles contract eccentrically during which phase of gait cycle? A. Initial Swing B. Terminal Swing C. Midstance D. Terminal Stance

B (full knee ext to prepare for loading response/heel strike)

A 34-year-old pregnant female is performing pelvic floor exercises in the supine position. She reports dizziness, sweating and nausea. Which condition is MOST likely present based on the patient position and diagnosis? A. Increased pressure on the inferior vena cava causing hypertensive syndrome. B. Increased pressure on the inferior vena cava causing hypotensive syndrome. C. Increased pressure on the superior vena cava causing hypotensive syndrome. D. Increased pressure on the superior vena cava causing hypertensive syndrome.

A 6-year-old male child is referred to PT. The mother is concerned that child is using his hands to climb up their legs in order to stand up as shown in the picture. Which of the following condition the PT can suspect? A. Cerebral Palsy B. Muscular Dystrophy C. Autism Spectrum Disorder D. Down Syndrome

A PT assessed the resting blood pressure of a 45-year-old male patient. The BP reading was 126/78. Based on the American Heart Association blood pressure guidelines, the PT would categorize the BP as: A. Pre-hypertension B. Elevated C. Stage 1 D. Stage 2

Trained/fit individuals have a lower ________ and a higher ______ than an unfit person A. SV B. HR C. SBP

B, A (heart is more efficient and can maintain CO with a lower HR due to greater SV)

Minimal exudate A. Transparent film B. Hydrogel C. Hydrocolloid D. Foam E. Alginates

B, C Hydrocolloids (stage 2 or 3 with minimal exudate)

Upper crossed syndrome has tight: A. Deep cervical flexors B. SCM C. UT D. Levator scap E. Pectoralis F. LT G. Serratus ant

B, C, D, E

Decreases with obstructive lung disease A. TV B. IC C. ERV D. VC E. FVC F. RV G. FRC H. TLC I. FEV1

B, C, D, E, I

Located in the dermis A. Keratinocytes B. Collagen C. Reticulum D. Fibroblasts E. Melanocytes F. Langerhans cells G. Macrophages H. Basal cells I. Lymphatic glands J. Blood vessels K. Nerve fibers

B, C, D, G, I, J, K

Which are the downward rotators of the scapula? A. UT B. Rhomboids C. Levator scap D. Serratus ant E. Pec minor F. LT

B, C, E Little Minor Pirates Love Rum then fall down lats, E (pec minor), Pec major, C (levator), B (rhomboids)

Which of the following CV changes occur with pregnancy: A. Blood volume progressively decreases 35-50% B. Blood volume progressively increases 35-50% C. Venous P in LE increases D. Venous P in LE decreases E. Inc P in IVC F. Dec P in IVC G. CO inc H. CO dec I. Dec in BP J. Inc in BP

B, C, E, G, I (BP decreases bc of inc P on IVC, but everything else increases)

For distal limb measurement A. Girth measurement B. Volumetric measurement C. Bioelectrical impedance D. Lymphoscintigraphy

A PT is treating a pediatric patient with cerebral palsy. The patient is seen in standing with a toe-in posture. Which of the following postural strategies most accurately correlates with the observed foot position? A. Internal tibial torsion, increased femoral retroversion B. Internal tibial torsion, increased femoral anteversion C. External tibial torsion, increased femoral retroversion D. External tibial torsion, increased femoral anteversion

A PT notices the patient's arm, hand, trunk, breasts appears mildly swollen. When the PT elevates the patient's arm, the swelling resolves. This clinical presentations are seen at what stage of lymphedema? A. Stage 0 B. Stage I C. Stage II D. Stage III

A cold A. Clear B. Yellow C. Green D. Pink frothy E. Red F. Brown G. Black

A healed wound with thick fibrous tissue that remains within original wound border A. Normal scar B. Hypertrophic scar C. Keloid

A patient develops a Stage 2 pressure injury over the sacrum and is referred to physical therapy for wound care. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate initial application to clean the wound? A. Povidone-iodine solution B. Sterile normal saline C. Zinc oxide cream D. Nitrofurazone solution

A physical therapist is developing an exercise program for a patient who has upper extremity lymphedema. Which of the following exercises should the patient perform FIRST? A. Elbow flexion B. Cervical rotation C. Shoulder abduction D. Shoulder circumduction

A physical therapist is treating a patient with presence of geotropic nystagmus on head turns in the supine position. The nystagmus was weaker on the right side. Which of the following is the MOST APPROPRIATE sequence of administering the intervention for these symptoms? A. Canalith repositioning maneuver with head in 20 deg extension, head turn to 90 deg to right, then moved to the left, then get the patient in prone position with neck in flexion and finally sit the patient up. B. Canalith repositioning maneuver with head in 20 deg flexion, head turn to 90 deg to left, then moved to the right, then get the patient in prone position with neck in flexion and finally sit the patient up. C. Canalith repositioning maneuver with head in 20 deg ext, head turn to 90 deg to left, then moved to the right, then get the patient in prone position with neck in flexion and finally sit the patient up. D. Canalith repositioning maneuver with head in 20 deg flexion, head turn to 90 deg to right, then moved to the left, then get the patient in prone position with neck in flexion and finally sit the patient up.

Adhesive wafers containing hydro active/absorptive particles that interact with wound fluid to form gelatinous mass over the wound bed. Occlusive or semi-occlusive. Can be used as a filler for shallow cavity wounds. A. Transparent films B. Hydrocolloids C. Hydrogels D. Foams E. Alginates F. Gauze dressings

Affected leg is shorter in supine and longer in sitting A. Anterior pelvic rotation (on one side) B. Posterior pelvic rotation (on one side)

Affected side is side of more intense nystagmus (toward ground) A. HSC Cupulolithiasis B. HSC canalithaisis

Affects muscle coordination, cognitive decline and psychiatric problems. Involuntary jerking/writhing movements (chorea), rigidity or muscle contractures (dystonia), slow/abnormal eye movements, impaired gait/posture/balance, difficulty with production of speech or swallowing A. Parkinson's B. Huntington's C. Multiple Sclerosis D. Myasthenia Gravis E. Cerebellar Disorder F. Guillian-Barre Syndrome G. Amyotrophic Lateral Sclerosis

Anatomical causes: abduction contracture, knee instability A. Lateral trunk lean B. Abduction of limb C. Lordosis D. Forward flexion of trunk

Aphasia (speech and language impairments) A. MCA lesion in R hemisphere B. MCA lesion in L hemisphere

Body weight support (BWS) > ___% is contraindicated as it interferes with gait cycle (unable to achieve flat foot during stepping) A. 50% B. 55% C. 40% D. 45%

Body's resistance to insulin/defective insulin. Occurs secondary to other dysfunctions. A. Type 1 diabetes B. Type 2 diabetes

Brain related (CVA, MS, vestibular migraine, cerebellum). Refer out to physician. A. Peripheral vestibular pathology B. Central vestibular pathology

Bright pink or red, mottled red; inflamed dermis; Erythematous with blanching and brisk capillary refill A. Epidermal burn (1st degree) B. Superficial partial-thickness burn (2nd degree) C. Deep partial-thickness burn (3rd degree) D. Full-thickness burn (4th degree) E. Subdermal burn (5th degree)

C8-T1, MOI: Stretching of arm overhead A. Erb's palsy B. Klumpke's palsy

Can be heard in pts with COPD, bronchioectasis, pneumonia, chronic bronchitis or cystic fibrosis A. Rhonchi B. Wheeze C. Crackles D. Pleural rub

Can be used on uneven terrain, greater mediolatearl motion in rear foot, heavier/less durable A. SACH foot B. SAFE foot C. Seattle foot D. Microprocessor foot

Can benefit from strengthening exercises A. >2 cm diastasis recti B. <2 cm diastasis recti C. >/= 3 cm diastasis recti D. > 4 cm diastasis recti

Can include seizures, convulsions and coma. A. Preeclampsia B. Eclampsia C. Gestational diabetes D. Gestational HTN

Caused by airway obstruction; asthma, COPD or aspiration of foreign body A. Rhonchi B. Wheeze C. Crackles D. Pleural rub

Causes: Inadequate secretion w/acute renal failure, kidney disease, metabolic acidosis, diabetic ketoacidosis, sickle cell anemia and SLE. Symptomless unless severe lvls; observe for muscle weakness, arrhythmias, ECG changes (tall T wave, prolonged P-R interval and QRS duration. A. Hypokalemia B. Hyperkalemia C. Hyponatremia D. Hypernatremia E. Hypocalcemia F. Hypercalcemia G. Hypomagnesemia H. Hypermagnesemia

Causes: emotional stress, anxiety, high fat, lactose foods A. IBD B. IBS

A 65-year-old is performing 6-min walk test for endurance testing post MI. After walking for 50 feet on level surface, the patient reported 7/20 on the RPE scale and oxygen saturation at 94%. Which of the following actions would be MOST appropriate? A. Terminate the test B. Continue the test on the level surface C. Activate emergency system D. Take a break until oxygen returns to 100%

B. (7-extremely light, only stop if SpO2 <90%)

A PT is reviewing the lab values of a 58-year-old male patient. Which of the following about glucose monitoring is LEAST appropriate? A. Hypoglycemia is documented for fasting blood glucose value of 40mg/dL B. Diabetes mellitus is when fasting blood glucose levels are between 80 and 110 mg/dL measured on 2 separate days C. Glycosylated Hemoglobin normal reference range is 4-6% D. A1C level above 10% requires immediate insulin therapy

B. (B is incorrect because DM is when FASTING BG is 125 or greater on 2 separate days) Glycosylated HgB norm is 4-6% A1C normal is 4 - 5.6% 5.7 - 6.4% is pre-diabetes 6.5% or higher is diabetes 10% needs immediate insulin therapy Hypoglycemia is FASTING BG <70

Adrenal gland tumor >> adrenal gland secrets more cortisol A. Cushing's disease B. Cushing's syndrome

B. (D for disease comes before S for syndrome >> pituitary gland comes before adrenal gland)

A 63-year-old patient suffered a CVA 3 month ago. During ascending stairs, the patient is able to keep the involved foot on the step above but is unable to transfer the weight to the next stair level due to weak quadriceps. The BEST intervention to solve the problem is A. Bridging, holding B. Standing, partial wall squats C. Supine, knee flexion with hip extension D. Standing, side steps

B. (Functional, similar to the motion of stepping up the stair/advancing leg up the stair) (Side stepping - more for hip ABD and in the frontal plane — stick to your plane (sagittal plane))

A physical therapist is examining a 54-year-old patient and diagnoses a right pelvic drop during walking at self- selected walking speed. Which of the following is a potential cause of right pelvic drop? A. Weak hip abductors on right side B. Hip abductor contracture on right side C. Weak hip adductors on left side D. Hip abductors contracture on left side

B. 4 causes of pelvic drop: 1. Opp glute med (ABD) weakness 2. Opp ADD magnus tightness/contracture 3. Same side ABD tightness 4. Same side ADD magnus weakness

Wet-to-dry dressings, wound irrigation, hydrotherapy A. Selective wound debridement B. Non-selective wound debridement

B. Non-selective - removal of BOTH non-viable and viable tissues from wound Wound irrigation (low pressure 4-15 PSI for selective, high pressure for non-selective)

PNF patterns: FABER A. UE/D1 flexion B. UE/D2 flexion C. UE/D1 extension D. UE/D2 extension

B. "Going to war - sword up"

Both crutches, both canes or walker and involved leg are advanced together, then uninvolved leg advanced forward (for use with involvement of one extremity ex. LE fracture) A. Two-point gait B. Three-point gait C. Four-point gait D. Swing-to gait E. Swing-through gait

B. (3 points advance together ex. 1 limb + both sides of device = 3)

2nd IC space, left sternal border A. Aortic B. Pulmonic C. Tricuspid D.. Mitral

B. (APTM 2245 - puLmonic - L side)

A 44-year-old male patient is being evaluated by a physical therapist. The patient underwent a hernia repair 3 weeks ago and should AV O I D which of the following activities? A. Walking at a metabolic equivalent of 4 after 3 weeks after surgery B. Stretching of the anterior spinal and hip musculature before the incision is fully healed C. Stretching of the posterior spinal and hip musculature before the incision is fully healed D. Wall sits performed in an upright position

B. (Avoid extension activities which will stretch anterior part and damage incision)

All of the following options are exercise considerations when planning a treatment session for a patient with Multiple Sclerosis EXCEPT A. time of day the appointment is scheduled B. exercise at maximal intensity C. have an appropriate balance of exercise and rest D. fatigue level

B. (Avoid max intensity >> heat sensitivity would cause flare up from over exerting themselves)

A 32-year-old healthy male is working out on a stationary bike in an outpatient physical therapy clinic. After the first 4 minutes of constant-load, sub-maximal exercise, VO2 reaches steady state, indicating that: A. Levels of lactic acid in the blood has reached steady state. B. The ATP demand is being met aerobically. C. The exercise should be discontinued immediately. D. The respiratory rate is insufficient to meet the ATP demand.

B. (Body no longer dependent on anaerobic system and has switched over to aerobic to get what is needed for constant steady state exercise)

A 48-year-old female presents with chief complaints of urinary incontinence. The PT suspects that the patient may have overflow incontinence. A positive response to which of the following questions could have led the PT to arrive at that conclusion? A. Do you urinate more than 8 times a day? B. Do you dribble the urine during the day or night? C. Do you have premature loss of urine because you can't unfasten your pants on time? D. Do you ever lose urine when you laugh or cough suddenly?

B. (Overflow/bladder not functioning how it should be)

The 54-year-old male patient's chart states that they have been taking beta-blockers for the past 5 years. Prior to starting an exercise training program, the patient should receive an explanation of the: A. Greater benefits from cardiovascular exercise to be achieved at lower SBP rather than at higher SBP levels. B. Need to use measures other than heart rate to determine intensity of exercise. C. Greater benefits from cardiovascular exercise to be achieved at lower HR than at higher HR levels. D. Need for longer warm-up periods and cool-down periods during exercise sessions.

B. (Borg or RPE)

Stages of lymphedema severity: pressure on edematous tissue feels hard with palpation. More severe interstitial swelling with progressive, fibrotic changes in subcutaneous tissues. A. Pitting edema B. Brawny edema C. Weeping edema

B. (Brawny >> brawny man >> strong/hard)

A PT is performing cranial nerve testing on a 48-year-old male patient. Which of the following is NOT an expected sign seen in a patient with facial nerve (CN VII) palsy. A. Hyperacusis B. Absence of sensation in the anterior 2/3 of the tongue C. Absence of corneal reflex D. Decreased lacrimation

B. (CN5 is afferent/sensation of the tongue) (CN7 is taste of the tongue)

Lateral movement/abducts A. Superior rectus B. Lateral rectus C. Inferior rectus D. Inferior oblique E. Medial rectus F. Superior oblique

B. (CN6)

Techniques for lymphedema: decongestion (selecting areas of decongestion should you use MLD to decongest more proximal areas first or distal) A. Distal to proximal B. Proximal to distal

B. (Clear trunk/axilla/groin/buttocks before more distal areas such as feet and limbs)

Nystagmus: immediate (no latency), persistent duration >1 min A. Canalithaisis (BPPV) B. Cupulolithiasis (BPPV)

B. (Cupulolithiasis is more severe which is why nystagmus is longer duration)

In a diabetic patient exercise may result in A. Hyperglycemia B. Hypoglycemia

B. (Dec blood glucose lvls bc glucose used for energy with exercise)

Techniques for lymphedema: exercises (active muscle contraction to clear/drain areas of congestion) A. Distal to proximal B. Proximal to distal

B. (Ex. Start with cervical motions first and move distally)

Hyperthyroid A. Addison's disease B. Graves disease C. Cushing's syndrome D. Hashimoto's disease

B. (Hashimoto's is hypothyroid)

To prevent contractures in a patient with an above knee (transfemoral) amputation, emphasis should be placed on designing a positioning program that maintains range of motion in hip: A. Flexion and abduction. B. Extension and adduction. C. Adduction and lateral rotation. D. Flexion and medial rotation

B. (Have to position them in the opposite position/how to prevent contracture)

Tachycardia, increased sweating, heat intolerance, increased appetite, dyspnea, weight loss, inability to gain weight A. Hypothyroidism B. Hyperthyroidism

B. (Increased thyroid hormone, metabolism high, burns through fuel quick)

A patient reports fatigue, proximal upper extremity weakness, and double vision that increases in intensity as the day progresses. The patient demonstrates bilateral ptosis of the eyelids, difficulty chewing, dysphagia, and inability to raise the eyebrows. Which of the following conditions is MOST likely present? A. Bell palsy B. Myasthenia gravis C. Trigeminal neuralgia D. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis

B. (Involves multiple cranial nerves)

When extend knee and flex hip at same time hamstring will experience: A. Active insufficiency B. Passive insufficiency

B. (It is stretched/lengthened bc the two motions are opp of the action of the hamstrings which is hip ext and knee flex)

PNF patterns: FABIR A. LE/D1 flexion B. LE/D2 flexion C. LE/D1 extension D. LE/D2 extension

B. (Karate kick "kick your leg up an out")

A PT administers a series of cranial nerve tests to a patient with a confirmed lower motor neuron disease. Assuming the patient has a lesion impacting the right hypoglossal nerve, which clinical presentation would be most likely? A. right-sided tongue atrophy and deviation toward the left with tongue protrusion B. right-sided tongue atrophy and deviation toward the right with tongue protrusion C. left-sided tongue atrophy and deviation toward the left with tongue protrusion D. left-sided tongue atrophy and deviation toward the right with tongue protrusion

B. (Lick your lesions- atrophy and deviation of tongue happen towards the affected side)

A PT is treating a patient with complains of chest pain. The PT attempts to assess heart sounds with a stethoscope. Which of the following is true about the first sound during auscultation of the heart? A. The first sound is of the closure of the aortic and pulmonic valves B. The first sound is of the closure of the mitral and tricuspid valves C. The first sound is of the opening of the aortic and pulmonic valves D. The first sound is of the opening of the mitral and tricuspid valves

B. (Lub - end of diastole - closure of top (aortic) valves located in 2nd intercostal space on R and L) (S2 - dub - beginning of systole - heart contracts)

Secretes endorphins, reduces sensitive to pain. Controls ovulation and catalyst for testes and ovaries to create sex hormones. A. Hypothalamus B. Pituitary gland C. Thyroid gland D. Parathyroid gland E. Adrenal gland

B. (Master gland)

"dub"; closure of aortic and pulmonary valves, onset of diastole A. S1 B. S2 C. S3 D. S4

B. (Normal heart sound)

A pregnant woman has a blood glucose of 190 mg/dL. Which condition does she likely have? A. Preeclampsia B. Gestational Diabetes C. Eclampsia D. Ectopic Pregnancy

B. (Only occurs while pregnant, once baby is born mother's blood glucose goes back to normal)

A 45-year-old female presents to PT with a recent diagnosis of MS. Upon initial evaluation, she complains of eye pain that is worsened by eye movement, vision loss in one eye, visual field loss. Which of the following cranial nerves listed below is most likely involved? A. Facial (VII) B. Optic (II) C. Abducens (VI) D. Oculomotor (III)

B. (Optic neuritis is a symptoms of MS)

Autoimmune disease characterized by inflammation, selective demyelination and gliosis. Any area of the CNS can be affected: cortical, subcortical, cerebellum and spinal cord. A. Parkinson's B. Huntington's C. Multiple Sclerosis D. Myasthenia Gravis E. Cerebellar Disorder F. Guillian-Barre Syndrome G. Amyotrophic Lateral Sclerosis

A 21-year-old male works as a cashier. He is having trouble giving cash back to a customer as shown in the picture. During right forearm pronation at the proximal radioulnar joint, the PT should do the following to the radial head: A. Roll and slide posteriorly B. Roll anteriorly and slide posteriorly C. Roll and slide anteriorly D. Roll posteriorly and slide anteriorly

B. (PPP - posterior mobilization used for pronation at PRUJ and is a convex (radial head) on concave (radial notch) so roll and slide are opposite)

Hand washing, mask A. Contact precautions B. Droplet precautions C. Airborne precautions

B. (Pathogens spread through mucous membranes or close respiratory contact with respiratory secretions) Do NOT need gown or gloves

A patient was recently fitted with a patellar tendon-bearing (PTB) socket after a transtibial amputation. The patient comes for a follow up visit and the PT notes redness of the skin upon inspection. Redness on which of the following structures should be a concern for the PT? A. Patellar tendon B. Fibular head and neck C. Medial tibial plateau D. Tibial and fibular shaft

B. (Pressure sensitive area - should not be red)

Slow, hesitant speech, use yes/no questions A. Wernicke's aphasia B. Broca's aphasia

B. (Pt comprehends what is said but has difficulty with language production)

C/l weakness/paralysis, aphasia, cautious, compulsive, disorganized, difficulty with new information, decreased memory, difficulty generalizing/conceptualizing A. Right CVA B. Left CVA

B. (R sided weakness) (L >>oLd >> acts like old person/cautious)

A patient underwent surgical repair of Full Thickness Rotator cuff tear 6 days ago. PT wants to perform passive and assisted movement. Which position will be MOST appropriate for the patient? A. Patient in sitting with arm abducted 70 degrees with slight flexion. B. Patient is supine with arm abducted 45 degrees with slight flexion. C. Patient in sitting with arm abducted 15 degrees with slight flexion. D. Patient in supine with arm abducted 90 degrees with slight flexion.

B. (Rule of 6 - first phase is 6 weeks, no aggressive stretching of incision/repair site)

The pt reports difficulty with vision when reading the newspaper, which CN is MOST likely affected? A. CN 6 B. CN 4 C. CN3 D. CN2

B. (SO4 - superior oblique supplied by CN4 - looks down and in)

The pt reports difficulty with vision when walking down the stairs, which CN is MOST likely affected? A. CN 6 B. CN 4 C. CN3 D. CN2

B. (SO4 - superior oblique supplied by CN4 - looks down and in)

Initial symptoms of pain and paresthesia localized to the affected dermatome (dermatomal pattern) A. Herpes simplex virus type 1 B. Herpes zoster C. Acne vulgaris D. Herpes simplex type 2

B. (Shingles)

A young adult underwent right Achilles tendon repair 6 weeks ago and is now able to fully weight bear. The PT is giving him advice on proper shoe modification. Which of the following would be BEST for the patient to utilize? A. Normal shoes B. Shoes with 1- 1.5 cm heel lift C. Shoes with lower than the regular heel D. Shoes with 5 cm heel lift

B. (Shoes keep the pt in slight PF and prevent excessive DF to avoid any stress on Achilles' tendon)

Which type of contraction do the hamstrings undergo during stand to sit transition? A. Eccentric B. Concentric C. Isometric

B. (Shortening)

Brunnstrom's stages of recovery (stroke): beginning of minimal voluntary movement, movement in synergy with associated reactions, increase in tone A. Stage 1 B. Stage 2 C. Stage 3 D. Stage 4 E. Stage 5 F. Stage 6 G. Stage 7

B. (Spasticity and appearance of synergy)

Minimal bilateral or midline involvement, symptoms on both sides of body (speech difficulty and face masking), balance and walking not impaired A. Hoehn-Yahr stage 1 B. Hoehn-Yahr stage 2 C. Hoehn-Yahr stage 3 D. Hoehn-Yahr stage 4 E. Hoehn-Yahr stage 5

B. (Stage 2 >> bilateral >> both sides)

A 30-year-old patient is unable to control descent when moving from standing to sitting position. Which of the following interventions would be MOST appropriate to address this problem? A. Hamstring strengthening with concentric contractions B. Quadriceps strengthening with eccentric contractions C. Quadriceps strengthening with concentric contractions D. Gluteus medius strengthening with eccentric contractions

B. (Stick to your plane, glute med is frontal plane ABD, sit to stand happens in the sagittal plane >> quads work in sagittal plane)

A therapist is assessing the gait of a patient with Parkinson disease. Which of the following is MOST likely to be expected in this patient? A. Decreased steps per turn B. Decreased hip and knee flexion C. Decreased heel strike with decreased forefoot loading D. Decreased step-to-step variability

B. (Stiff in extension, rigid posture) (stiff and shuffling gait)

Pain in RLQ with palpation of LLQ A. McBurney's point B. Rovsing's sign C. Blumberg's sign D. Murphy's sign

B. (Suggestive of acute appendicitis)

Perceptual disorders occur with a lesion to the A. L hemisphere B. R hemisphere

B. (The non-dominant side of the brain)

High prosthetic walls are similar to A. Weak muscles B. Tight muscles

B. (They can pinch the groin etc. pt tries to move away form high wall to avoid pinching)

PT is treating a 6-year-old child with autism in outpatient pediatric physical therapy. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate intervention? A. Tumbling on mat to promote core strength. B. Ball toss, hopping, and running with a partner with verbal cues for turn taking. C. Perform activities in a fast-paced environment with long explanations for sequencing. D. Performing standing dance routine in different rooms to improve generalizability of a skill.

B. (They need a lot of structure)

Early sings: Pallor/sweating, shakiness, poor coordination/unsteady gait, tachycardia/palpitations, dizziness/fainting, excessive hunger A. Hyperglycemia B. Hypoglycemia

B. (Think about how you feel when you haven't eat = NO FOOD - you feel shaky/sweat etc.)

Spastic, nervous or irritable colon A. IBD B. IBS

B. (Think of 4th year medical student = last year of medical school syndrome • emotional stress, anxiety, high fat foods, lactose foods • Colon irritable • In sleep - not eating, not digesting and not stressed)

20-year-old female, after an uncomplicated delivery has a 3- cm diastasis recti and weak abdominal muscles. Which of the following exercises is MOST appropriate for the patient? A. Sitting on a Swiss Ball B. Head lifts with arms bracing the abdomen C. Double leg lifts D. Deep breathing exercises in bridging position

B. (This exc is gentle while putting some stress on abdomen >> using arms to brace abdomen helps prevent damage to weak/stretched muscles) Double leg lifts - CONTRAINDICATED too vigorous Sitting on Swiss ball or in bridging position - not enough support want supine

A patient complaining of left lower abdominal pain. The patient denied weight loss, nausea, & vomiting, but reveals they have had bloody stool lately. The patient's pain is MOST likely due to which diagnosis? A. Diverticulitis B. Ulcerative colitis C. Appendicitis D. Chronic pancreatitis

B. (Type of IBD, bloody stool is key and LLQ) Appendix = RLQ Diverticulitis = would have bloody stool, LLQ pain, fever, elevated WBC and pinch an inch test (+)

A PT was testing gag reflex in a 45 old male complaining of sudden change of voice quality. When PT asks the patient to say "Ahh", the PT finds the patient's uvula deviated to the left side. Which cranial nerve is MOST likely affected? A. Left vagus nerve B. Right vagus nerve C. Left hypoglossal nerve D. Right glossopharyngeal nerve

B. (Vagus nerve - motor to gag reflex - tested by saying AHH) (U turn - goes away from affected side and deviates to contralateral side)

Flexion or extension of the head >> if head flexes: flexion of UE and ext of LEs, if head extends: extension of UEs and flexion of LEs A. Plantar grasp reflex B. Symmetrical tonic neck reflex (STNR) C. Startle reflex

B. (Whatever head does UEs also do)

A 39-year-old comes to an outpatient clinic complaining of hip problems. The PT notices a drop of the left hip during right midstance. What is the MOST appropriate way to strengthen the weak right hip abductors? A. Stand on L leg and ABD R leg out against resistance band B. Stand on R leg and ABD L leg out C. Stand on L leg and ABD R leg out

B. (Why: strengthens in closed chain (stabilizes R leg), is most functional (you need the hip to function better in gait/closed chain), increases moment arm by ABD L leg for more aggressive strengthening) Strengthens in position that is functional to meet the goal which is walking/gait - R hip needs to support pelvis while standing on R leg

A 58-year-old patient has chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. Which of these pulmonary test results will NOT be increased when compared with those of a 58-year-old healthy individual? A. Total lung capacity. B. FEV1/FVC ratio. C. Residual volume. D. Functional residual capacity.

B. (With OLD RV, FRC and TLC increase, FEV1/FVC ratio decreases)

Unable to know the purpose of an object (ex. If give them a toothbrush they may try to brush their hair with it) A. Ideomotor apraxia B. Ideational apraxia

B. (Wrong "idea", wrong purpose)

Intact blisters, moist wearing or glistening surface when blisters removed; very painful, sensitive to changes in temp, exposure to air currents and light touch A. Epidermal burn (1st degree) B. Superficial partial-thickness burn (2nd degree) C. Deep partial-thickness burn (3rd degree) D. Full-thickness burn (4th degree) E. Subdermal burn (5th degree)

B. (since nerves and capillaries still intact would expect it to be sensitive)

Bacterial infection A. Clear B. Yellow C. Green D. Pink frothy E. Red F. Brown G. Black

What are signs and symptoms of MS? (9)

Based on lesion location - wide variations 1- visual impairments 2- sensory impairments 3- motor impairments 4- intention tremor (PD has resting tremor) 5- fatigue 6- cognitive impairments 7- bowel and bladder dysfunction 8- emotional disturbance 9- psychosocial problems

Begins to walk unassisted. Transitions in/out of squatting. Floor to stand. A. 7 mos B. 8-9 mos C. 10-15 mos

A patient demonstrated painful ROM in horizontal abduction movement during range of motion examination of shoulder. Which of the following joint mobilization techniques is MOST appropriate for the patient? A. Large amplitude oscillations performed at the beginning of the range of motion in an anterior-inferior direction B. Small amplitude oscillations into tissue resistance up to the limit of available motion in a posterior-superior direction C. Large amplitude oscillations within the available range of motion in an anterior-inferior direction D. Small amplitude oscillations into tissue resistance at the limit of available joint motion in a postero-inferior direction

C Rationale: • extremity is going posterior with horizontal ABD (XAO) = posterior roll and anterior glide • Inferior component is because it's already in 90 deg ABD so glide is inferior (to improve ABD) • Since pt has PAIN need grade 1 or grade 2 mobilization ◦ Grade 1 = SMALL amp at BEGINNING of ROM ◦ Grade 2 = LARGE amp WITHIN the ROM

What is the best glide/mobilization for a patient with limited shoulder ER, IR and ABD? A. Anterior-inferior B. Anterior-Superior C. Posterior-Inferior D. Posterior-Superior

C (post-inf is the best glide for adhesive capsulitis)

Anatomical causes: hip flexion contracture, weak extensors A. Lateral trunk lean B. Abduction of limb C. Lordosis D. Forward flexion of trunk

Anorexia, N/V, elevated temp, leukocytosis, fever. Immediate medical attn required. A. Diverticulitis B. Ulcerative colitis C. Appendicitis D. Chronic pancreatitis

Normal volume is about 1,200 mL A. Tidal volume (TV) B. Inspiratory reserve volume (IRV) C. Expiratory reserve volume (ERV) D. Residual volume (RV)

C, D

Onset: birth, integrated: 6 mos A. Palmar grasp reflex B. Moro reflex C. Symmetrical tonic labrythine (TLR/STLR) reflex D. Positive supporting reflex

C, D

Tested using gag reflex A. CN5 B. CN7 C. CN10 D. CN9 E. CN12

C, D

"ventricular gallop"; ventricular filling, associated with heart failure A. S1 B. S2 C. S3 D. S4

4,800 mL A. Inspiratory capacity (IC) B. Functional reserve capacity (FRC) C. Vital capacity (VC) D. Total lung capacity (TLC)

A 2-year-old patient is being treated for gait training in outpatient physical therapy. The patient has calluses on the dorsal aspect of the toes and is unable to perform MTP extension. Which of the following is MOST likely true? A. The patient has a persistent ATNR B. The patient has an integrated STNR C. The patient has a persistent plantar grasp reflex D. The patient has an integrated plantar grasp reflex

A 45-year-old man with lymphedema of the left leg is being examined by a PT. The PT determines that it is a stage 2 lymphedema and pitting scale grade is 3+. Which of the following statements in MOST likely clinical presentation? A. Elevation of the foot reduces the swelling. B. The indentation on finger pressure last for less than 15 seconds C. Skin is hardening due to fibrosis. D. The indentation produced is less than 1/2 inch

A 58-year-old patient recently suffered an above knee amputation and underwent surgery. A PT is examining the wound site and sees an exudate. Which of the following findings indicates an infected wound and should be reported to be physician? A. Dark red blood B. Bright red blood C. Viscous yellow exudate D. Serosanguineous exudate

A PT is assessing a patient's lymph nodes 6 months post- chemotherapy treatment. When assessing the lymph nodes, which presentations LEAST likely require referral to physician? A. Hard and immobile lymph nodes less than 1cm in diameter B. Rubbery and firm lymph nodes more than 1 cm in diameter C. Soft and non tender lymph nodes less than 1 cm in diameter D. Palpable and tender lymph nodes more than 1 cm in diameter

A PT is performing cranial nerve testing on a 55-year-old male patient. When observing the patient's right pupillary response to light, the PT observes that there is no constriction of the right pupil but the left pupil does constrict. Which cranial nerve is the MOST likely cause of this impairment? A. Left Oculomotor nerve (CN III) B. Right Optic nerve (CN II) C. Right Oculomotor nerve (CN III) D. Left Trochlear nerve (CN IV)

A patient is seen after an uncomplicated vaginal delivery of her third child. During the treatment, the patient begins to complain of a headache and visual disturbances, and suddenly develops a seizure. Which condition is MOST likely? A. Preeclampsia B. Gestational Diabetes C. Eclampsia D. Ectopic Pregnancy

A patient presents complains of loss of sensation over the ulnar side of the hand. On evaluation, there is weakness intrinsic hand muscles leading to nonfunctional hand. Which of the following is the MOST LIKELY diagnosis? A. Radial nerve palsy B. Erb's palsy C. Klumpke's palsy D. C6 radiculopathy

A patient recovering from TBI is functioning at stage IV on the Rancho Los Amigos Level of Cognitive Functioning scale. During the therapist's initial examination, the patient becomes agitated and tries to bite the therapist. The BEST course of action is to: A. Postpone the examination until later in the day when the patient calms down B. Postpone the examination for 1 week and then try again C. Document the behaviors and engage in a calming activity D. Restructure the formal exam so the therapist can complete it in three very short sessions.

A patient with an above knee prosthetic limb is displaying right lateral trunk bending while ambulating. Which of the following would be the MOST likely cause of this gait abnormality? A. Right anterior wall is too high B. Right medial wall too low C. Right lateral wall too low D. Right posterior wall is too high

A physical therapist is called to assess a patient with traumatic brain injury. The therapist documents that the patient has decerebrate posturing pattern. Which of the following is MOST likely to be seen in this patient? A. Sustained contraction and posturing of the trunk and lower limbs in extension, and the upper limbs in flexion, fists clenched B. Sustained contraction and posturing of the trunk and lower limbs in flexion, and the upper limbs in extension, fists clenched C. Sustained contraction and posturing of the trunk and limbs in a position of full extension D. Sustained contraction and posturing of the trunk and limbs in a position of full flexion

AVOID aggressive exercises, gentle strengthening, head lifts only A. >2 cm diastasis recti B. <2 cm diastasis recti C. >/= 3 cm diastasis recti D. > 4 cm diastasis recti

Causes: hypoventilation, drugs/over sedation , chronic pulmonary disease (emphysema, asthma, bronchitis, pneumonia) or hyper metabolism (sepsis, burns). Observe for dyspnea, hyperventilation, cyanosis; restlessness, headache. May lead to disorientation, stupor, coma and death. A. Metabolic acidosis B. Metabolic alkalosis C. Respiratory acidosis D. Respiratory alkalosis

Causes: water intoxication due to excess intake or excess ADH. Observe for confusion; dec mental alternates can progress to convulsions; signs of inc intracerebral pressure; poor motor coordination; sleepiness; anorexia. A. Hypokalemia B. Hyperkalemia C. Hyponatremia D. Hypernatremia E. Hypocalcemia F. Hypercalcemia G. Hypomagnesemia H. Hypermagnesemia

Clean wound/remove layer. Cover in moisture-retentive dressing (hydrogel or foam or moist gauze with or w/o debriding enzyme), hydrotherapy or Pulsatile lavage. A. Red wound color B. Yellow wound color C. Black wound color

Clear clutter and prompted voiding A. Stress incontinence B. Urge incontinence C. Functional incontinence D. Overflow incontinence

Combo of collagen and synthesis A. Allograft B. Xenograft C. Biosynthetic graft D. Autograft E. Split-thickness graft F. Full-thickness graft

Crawling A. 7-8 mos B. 8-10 mos C. 10 mos D. 15 mos E. 2 years F. 2.5-3 yrs G. 3 yrs H. 4 yrs

Debride wound, use enzyme product, conservative sharp debridement or hydrotherapy with Pulsatile lavage. With inadequate blood supply and non-infected heel ulcers don't debride. Keep clean and dry. A. Red wound color B. Yellow wound color C. Black wound color

Epidermis and dermis, mottled red/white, blanches to pressure with slow capillary refill, decreased pin prick sensation, up to 3 weeks to heal, large wounds managed surgically A. Superficial burn (stage 1) B. Superficial partial thickness burn (stage 2) C. Deep partial thickness burn (stage 3) D. Full thickness burn (stage 4) E. Subdermal burn (stage 5)

Excessive scar tissue growth outside of original margins of wound A. Normal scar B. Hypertrophic scar C. Keloid

FEV1 30-50% of predicted, chronic cough, +/- sputum, increased dyspnea A. GOLD stage 1 COPD B. GOLD stage 2 COPD C. GOLD stage 3 COPD D. GOLD stage 4 COPD

Feet to mouth, self-supported sitting propped forward on arms A. 2-3 mos B. 3-4 mos C. 4-5 mos D. 6-7 mos

Fill dead space, rehydrate wound beds, promote autolytic debridement, minimal-moderate absorption, transparent or translucent. A. Transparent films B. Hydrocolloids C. Hydrogels D. Foams E. Alginates F. Gauze dressings

Fill dead space. Rehydrate dry wound beds. Promote autolytic debridement. For minimal-moderate absorption. Transparent to translucent. A. Transparent films B. Hydrocolloids C. Hydrogels D. Foams E. Alginates F. Gauze dressings

Grasp forearm and pul up from supine into sitting position >> grasp and total flexion of UE A. Flexor withdrawal reflex B. Crossed extension reflex C. Traction reflex D. Asymmetrical tonic neck reflex (ATNR)

Have pt demonstrate diff limb positions (ex. Put arm overhead, put foot underneath chair) A. Figure-ground discrimination B. Form constancy C. Position in space D. Spatial relations E. Topographical disorientation F. Vertical disorientation G. Agnosia

Healing through scar formation and re-epithelialization A. Epidermal burn (1st degree) B. Superficial partial-thickness burn (2nd degree) C. Deep partial-thickness burn (3rd degree) D. Full-thickness burn (4th degree) E. Subdermal burn (5th degree)

Hyperactive adrenal gland, high ACTH/adrenal A. Addison's disease B. Graves disease C. Cushing's syndrome D. Hashimoto's disease

IRV + ERV + TV (total amt of air that can be expired after fully inhaling) A. Inspiratory capacity (IC) B. Functional reserve capacity (FRC) C. Vital capacity (VC) D. Total lung capacity (TLC)

If perforated can lead to peritonitis A. Diverticulitis B. Ulcerative colitis C. Appendicitis D. Chronic pancreatitis

Imaging and lymphedema: honeycomb patterns in soft tissue. D/D lipedema and lymphatic obstruction by foreign substance A. Indirect lymphography (lymphangiography) B. Lymphoscintigraphy (lymphangioscintigraphy) C. MRI/CT D. Ultrasonography E. Fluorescent microlymphography F. Doppler US

Impaired righting reflex symptoms on both sides of body, minimal difficulty walking (some activities restricted, but pt can live independently and continue some forms of employment) A. Hoehn-Yahr stage 1 B. Hoehn-Yahr stage 2 C. Hoehn-Yahr stage 3 D. Hoehn-Yahr stage 4 E. Hoehn-Yahr stage 5

Inability to locate important objects that are not prominent in a visual image (lesion in R hemisphere parietal-occipital area) (ex. Unable to find buttons on a shirt). Should encourage patient to use touch to ID objects. A. Spatial-perceptual dysfunction B. Prosopagnosia C. Figure-ground discrimination D. Form discrimination E. Position in space impairment

Inability to recognize familiar faces A. Somatognosia B. Agnosia C. Propagnosia D. Simultanagnosia

Increase in loudness of whispering. Ask pt to whisper for ex. "1,2,3" and it is clearly heard when auscultated. A. Bronchophony B. Egophony C. Whispered pectoriloquy D. Normal voice sound

Infection such as diverticulitis, IBS, hyperthyroidism A. Nausea/vomiting B. Constipation C. Diarrhea D. Abdominal pain E. GI bleeding F. Heart burn

Intermittent claudication: intense pain, from which pt's attn cannot be diverted A. Grade 1 B. Grade 2 C. Grade 3 D. Grade 4

Issues with crawling if reflex persists A. Asymmetrical tonic neck reflex (ATNR) B. Symmetrical tonic labyrinthine reflex (TLR/STLR) C. Symmetrical tonic neck reflex (STNR)

On sensory examination, the PT finds that a patient does not recognize light touch with a cotton ball on the left side of his face. The patient reports being unable to chew his food though there is no problem swallowing. On further testing, corneal reflex is also affected. What could be the cause of this presentation? A. Facial Nerve palsy B. Oculomotor nerve palsy. C. Trigeminal nerve palsy D. Glossopharyngeal nerve palsy.

Onset: 28 wks gestation, integrated: 2-5 mos A. Flexor withdrawal reflex B. Crossed extension reflex C. Traction reflex D. Asymmetrical tonic neck reflex (ATNR)

PNF patterns: functional activities: getting out of a chair, pushing car door open from inside, tennis backhand stroke, rolling prone > supine A. UE/D1 flexion B. UE/D2 flexion C. UE/D1 extension D. UE/D2 extension

PNF: Getting out of car A. LE/D1 flexion B. LE/D2 flexion C. LE/D1 extension D. LE/D2 extension

PaCO2: 35, pH: 7.25, HCO3: 20 A. Respiratory acidosis B. Respiratory alkalosis C. Metabolic acidosis D. Metabolic alkalosis

Paresthesias, numbness, loss of proprioception/vibration sense, paresis, spasticity, increased DTR A. Parkinson's B. Huntington's C. Multiple Sclerosis D. Myasthenia Gravis E. Cerebellar Disorder F. Guillian-Barre Syndrome G. Amyotrophic Lateral Sclerosis

Partial and full-thickness wounds, wounds with necrosis and slough, burns and tissue damaged by radiation. A. Transparent films B. Hydrocolloids C. Hydrogels D. Foams E. Alginates F. Gauze dressings

Pitting edema scale: severe depression, 1/2-1 in, takes 15-30 sec to rebound A. 1+ B. 2+ C. 3 D. 4+

Pre-post surgery lymphedema measurements A. Girth measurement B. Volumetric measurement C. Bioelectrical impedance D. Lymphoscintigraphy

Pregnancy: is considered best as it decreases compression of IVC, maximizes CO, decreases GERD as internal organs are relaxed and improves maternal and fetal circulation A. Supine B. Right side lying C. Left side lying

Pressure and vibratory sense A. Meissner corpuscles B. Free nerve endings C. Pacinian corpuscles D. Markel disc

Prone or supine position >> Prone: inc flexor tone of all limbs, supine: inc extensor tone of all limbs A. Palmar grasp reflex B. Moro reflex C. Symmetrical tonic labrythine (TLR/STLR) reflex D. Positive supporting reflex

Prosthetic causes: anterior socket wall discomfort (high anterior wall) A. Lateral trunk lean B. Abduction of limb C. Lordosis D. Forward flexion of trunk

Pull to sit without head lag (when you pull their trunk they bring head with them) A. 2-3 mos B. 3-4 mos C. 4-5 mos D. 6-7 mos E. 7-8 mos F. 8-10 mos G. 15 mos

RLCF: localized response: patient reacts inconsistently, but specifically to stimuli A. Lvl 1 B. Lvl 2 C. Lvl 3 D. Lvl 4 E. Lvl 5 F. Lvl 6 G. Lvl 7 H. Lvl 8

Rolls prone > supine A. 2-3 mos B. 3-4 mos C. 4-5 mos D. 6-7 mos

Sensory/afferent of gag reflex A. CN10 B. CN12 C. CN9

Slightly flexible plastic keel bends at heel contact, keel stores energy and recoils it in late stance (for springy motion), heavier than SACH A. SACH foot B. SAFE foot C. Seattle foot D. Microprocessor foot

Stages of lymphedema: hard swelling present, progresses to no pitting "brawny" edema, tissue is fibrosclerotic, proliferation of adipose tissue. (+) stemmer's sign A. Stage 0 (latency) B. Stage 1 (reversible) C. Stage 2 (spontaneously irreversible) D. Stage 3 (lymphostatic elephantitis)

Stead worsening from the start, do not have periodic relapses/remissions. Steady increase in disability without attacks. A. Relapsing-remitting (RRMS) B. Secondary-progressive (SPMS) C. Primary-progressive (PPMS) D. Progressive-relapsing (PRMS)

The PT is reviewing the lab reports of a patient admitted in an ICU. PaCO2: 48 mmHg, pH: 7.20, HCO3: 24 mEq/L. The BEST diagnosis for this patient would be: A. Uncompensated Metabolic acidosis. B. Uncompensated Respiratory alkalosis. C. Uncompensated Respiratory acidosis. D. Uncompensated Metabolic alkalosis.

This condition can cause an increase in lymphatic load leading to lymphedema A. Lymphatic load B. Transport capacity C. Venous insufficiency D. Lymph node removal

Visual impairments are usually one of the 1st symptoms. Optic neuritis (ice pick-like pain behind eye), nystagmus, diplopia A. Parkinson's B. Huntington's C. Multiple Sclerosis D. Myasthenia Gravis E. Cerebellar Disorder F. Guillian-Barre Syndrome G. Amyotrophic Lateral Sclerosis

Wagner Diabetic Foot Ulcer Classification: ulcers extend into tendon, bone, capsule A. Grade 0 B. Grade 1 C. Grade 2 D. Grade 3 E. Grade 4 F. Grade 5

Water or glycerine-based gels. Insoluble in water. Available in solid sheets, amorphous gels, or impregnated gauze. A. Transparent films B. Hydrocolloids C. Hydrogels D. Foams E. Alginates F. Gauze dressings

Weakness, paresthesias, spasticity, hypertonicity, hyperreflexia, positive Babinski sign, incoordination, optic neuritis, ataxia, vertigo, dysarthria, diplopia, bladder incontinence, tremor balance deficits, falls and cognitive deficits A. Parkinson's B. Huntington's C. Multiple Sclerosis D. Myasthenia Gravis E. Cerebellar Disorder F. Guillian-Barre Syndrome G. Amyotrophic Lateral Sclerosis

charcot's triad (scanning speech, nystagmus, can have cerebellar involvement) A. Parkinson's B. Huntington's C. Multiple Sclerosis D. Myasthenia Gravis E. Cerebellar Disorder F. Guillian-Barre Syndrome G. Amyotrophic Lateral Sclerosis

subtalar pronation, medial rotation of leg, short ipsi leg, anterior pelvic rotation A. Excessive anteversion B. Excessive retroversion C. Coxa vara D. Coxa valga

Expiratory sounds longer than inspiratory sounds A. Vesicular B. Bronchiovesicular C. Bronchial D. Tracheal

C. Think of breath sound intensity and pitch of expiration as going to a concert. Your mouth/nose are the stage of performance" • trachea = closest to stage (loudest) • Vesicular is furthest from stage (softest) • Closer to the stage the sound intensity will be highest and the further away the intensity reduces

Loud and high pitched, over manubrium A. Vesicular B. Bronchiovesicular C. Bronchial D. Tracheal

A PT is examining a patient in an outpatient clinic and notices swelling on patient's right foot. Which of the following conditions can the PT suspect? A. Heart failure B. Lipidema C. Lymphedema D. Chronic Venous insufficiency

C. (HF and lipedema would cause bilateral swelling/symptoms) (lipedema would not be seen in the feet) (CVI would cause ulcers on medial malleolus)

A male patient complains of having significant weight gain in abdomen and in the face. The labs show high levels of cortisol and elevated blood glucose and high levels of ACTH coming from pituitary gland. The patient MOST LIKELY has this diagnosis: A. Addison disease B. Hasimoto's disease C. Cushing's disease D. Hypothyroidism

C. Cushing's >> MORE Moon face Osteoporosis Retention of water Elevated BP

A review of the patient's medical chart BP of 168/90 mm Hg, triglyceride level of 160 mg/dL, and a fasting blood glucose level of 115 mg/dL. Patients BMI is 40 kg/m2 and his waistline is 54-inch. These findings are suggestive of: A. Chronic heart disease. B. Type 2 diabetes. C. Metabolic syndrome. D. Stage I hypertension.

C. Metabolic syndrome: WEIGHHT (weight) WE = waist expand (>35 in F, >40 in M) IG = impaired glucose (>110 mg/dL) H = HTN (BP > 130/85) H = HDL (<50 F, <40 M) T = TG (>150 mg/dL)

A 47-year-old mine-worker was admitted to acute care for burn injury. The PT observes that the anterior surface of the patient's trunk and both anterior lower extremities were affected. Which of the following BEST represents the percentage of body surface area involved? A. 18% B. 27% C. 36% D. 45%

C. Rule of 9s Head - 4.5% ant, 4.5% post = 9% total Chest - 18% Back - 18% Arm - 4.5% ant, 4.5% post = 9% total (ea arm) Leg - 9% ant, 9% post = 18% total (ea leg) Genitals - 1%

A 50-year-old patient complains of restriction of shoulder movements during overhead activities. The PT notes hyperactive reflexes. The patient is taking anti- inflammatory drugs since last 4 weeks but has had no resolution of symptoms. Which condition is MOST associated with the above findings? A. Metabolic syndrome B. Biceps tendinitis C. Hyperthyroidism D. Supraspinatus tendinitis

C. With hyperthyroidism >>> inc Ca deposits Can lead to periarticular or tendinous calcification Chronic peri-arthritis Hyperactive reflexes = sign of hyperthyroidism Can also cause adhesive capsulitis due to calcification Biceps and supraspinatus tendinitis would not alter reflexes and would respond to anti-inflammatory drugs

A 45-year-old obese male (BMI 33kg/m2) with type 2 DM is working out on the treadmill in a hospital setting. While exercising, the patient suddenly develops light-headedness, dizziness, and instability. The MOST appropriate action is: A. Stop the treadmill and call the primary care physician B. Keep the treadmill moving and have the patient drink orange juice C. Stop the treadmill and have the hospital nurse check blood glucose levels D. Slow the treadmill speed and have the patient drink cold water

C. ( MUST ALWAYS CHECK and confirm it is hypoglycemia before giving orange juice >> always check and confirm first) (Do not give fluids while treadmill is going and stop TM because they are having instability)

PNF patterns: EABIR A. LE/D1 flexion B. LE/D2 flexion C. LE/D1 extension D. LE/D2 extension

C. ("Push your leg down and out")

Slow gait pattern. One crutch is advanced forward, then opposite leg, then not her crutch and then opposite remaining leg. Requires use of 2 ADs (crutches or canes). Max stability (3 points of support while one limb is moving). A. Two-point gait B. Three-point gait C. Four-point gait D. Swing-to gait E. Swing-through gait

C. (4 points that all move separately)

Diastasis recti separation where PT intervention is needed: A. 1 cm B. 0.5 cm C. 3 cm

C. (>2 cm needs PT, even <2 cm can benefit, <1 cm separation no intervention needed)

When workload/intensity increases DBP ______ A. Increases B. Decreases C. Stays the same

C. (A 10 mmHg change in either direction (up or down) is ok but any more than that is bad/there is a problem/heart not getting enough rest time)

The patient presents with acute inflammatory demyelinating polyradiculoneuropathy (AIDP), 4 weeks following a relatively benign respiratory illness with complaints of finger dysesthesias and proximal muscle weakness of the lower extremities. The weakness may progress over hours to days to involve the arms, truncal muscles, cranial nerves, and muscles of respiration. These characteristics are for what condition? A. Amyotrophic lateral Sclerosis B. Multiple Sclerosis C. Guillain Barre Syndrome D. Myasthenia Gravis

C. (AIDP = GBS - ascending (distal > proximal), symmetrical, bilateral symptoms, viral infection)

4th IC space, left sternal border A. Aortic B. Pulmonic C. Tricuspid D.. Mitral

C. (APTM 2245 - tRIcuspid - R side)

A physical therapist is testing the hamstrings in the prone position. It is important to maintain appropriate positioning of the knee joint in order to: A. Minimize active insufficiency of the hamstrings and rectus femoris. B. Maximize the active insufficiency of the rectus femoris and passive insufficiency of the hamstrings. C. Minimize the active insufficiency of the hamstrings and passive insufficiency of the rectus femoris. D. Maximize the passive insufficiency of the hamstrings and rectus femoris.

C. (Hamstrings - knee flexion and hip ext, RF - hip flexion, knee ext) (pt is placed prone on table = hip ext and they flex the knee)

A 58-year-old patient has chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. During an examination, a PT finds that a patient has a weak wet cough. Which of the following is MOST appropriate to help this patient clear secretions? A. Assisted coughing in the supine position B. Postural drainage in the side lying position C. Huffing D. Mechanical percussion

C. (Huffing helps people with OLD keep their airways open longer) (because it says they have a weak wet cough > means secretions are already mobilized/coming up)

Pain in RLQ, comes in waves progressing to steady A. Diverticulitis B. Ulcerative colitis C. Appendicitis D. Chronic pancreatitis

C. (Immediate medical attn required)

Typically heals in 3-5 weeks. Extremely important to keep wound infection free. A. Epidermal burn (1st degree) B. Superficial partial-thickness burn (2nd degree) C. Deep partial-thickness burn (3rd degree) D. Full-thickness burn (4th degree) E. Subdermal burn (5th degree)

C. (Infection could convert it to deeper injury)

A 35-year-old male presents with a skin condition as shown in the picture below. There are irregular areas of localized skin edema. Which of the following is the MOST likely diagnosis for this patient? A. Blisters B. Vesicles C. Wheals D. Pustules

C. (Irregular eruptions, not fluid filled)

Fast pace, knee bolt rotated, prosthesis donned in malrotation A. High heel rise (early heel rise) B. Terminal impact C. Heel whip D. Foot rotation

C. (LIME — lateral heel whip IR, medial heel whip ER)

Excessive foot inset A. Excessive knee flexion B. Insufficient knee flexion C. Excessive lateral thrust D. Excessive medial thrust E. Early knee flexion F. Delayed knee flexion

C. (LIMO - lateral thrust inset, medial thrust outset)

A patient presents with throbbing of the shoulder. He demonstrates limited active and passive motion of the shoulder joint, and increased pain with both motions. The best initial intervention is: A. AROM B. PROM C. Grade 1-2 mobilization D. Grade 3-4 mobilization

C. (MANAGE PAIN - the question highlights BOTH passive and active motion of the shoulder, as well as pain (TWICE). For this reason, an intervention focused on pain would be first priority)

A PT is treating a patient with a diagnosis of ALS. The patient has weakness of all extremities and gets fatigued very easily while doing ADLs. His main goal is to maintain mobility and function as much as possible. Which of the following will be LEAST appropriate for this patient? A . Recommending soft foam collar for neck B. Taking frequent breaks during activities C. Recommend KAFO and walker for ambulation D. Slow, prolonged stretches and ROM exercises for UE and LE

C. (Muscles are already denervated do not want to overly tax them by adding a KAFO and walker which adds excess weight)

Incontinence due to mobility, dexterity or cognitive deficits A. Stress incontinence B. Urge incontinence C. Functional incontinence D. Overflow incontinence

C. (Not due to control of bladder >> due to not being able to get on/to toilet in time or unbutton pants in time)

Hand washing, mask (N-95 respirator or higher lvl) A. Contact precautions B. Droplet precautions C. Airborne precautions

C. (Private room with airborne infection isolation room, door must remain closed) Do NOT need gown or gloves

A 39-year-old comes to an outpatient clinic complaining of hip problems. The PT notices a drop of the left hip during right midstance. The MOST LIKELY cause of this impairment can be the injury of: A. Right inferior gluteal nerve B. Right femoral nerve C. Right superior gluteal nerve D. Right obturator nerve

C. (R stance = tests R hip = + for R glute med weakness)

A newborn is examined at birth using the APGAR screening test. The following scores are reported at 5 min: heart rate (2), respiration (2), reflex irritability (1), muscle tone (2) and color (2). The PT should: A. Monitor the APGAR score again at 10 minutes B. Expect respiratory complications due to low score on respiration C. Expect good heart rate, good respiration and normal muscle tone D. Expect neurological complications due to low score on reflex irritability

C. (Score is 9/10 = excellent)

Broken blisters, wet surface; sensitive to pressure but insensitive to light touch or soft pinprick A. Epidermal burn (1st degree) B. Superficial partial-thickness burn (2nd degree) C. Deep partial-thickness burn (3rd degree) D. Full-thickness burn (4th degree) E. Subdermal burn (5th degree)

C. (Since its a deeper burn starts to affect more superficial sensations)

Brunnstrom's stages of recovery (stroke): voluntary control of movement synergy, spasticity at peak, further increase in tone to peak lvl A. Stage 1 B. Stage 2 C. Stage 3 D. Stage 4 E. Stage 5 F. Stage 6 G. Stage 7

C. (Spasticity at peak)

Sudden loud/harsh noise >> sudden extension or ABD of UEs and crying A. Plantar grasp reflex B. Symmetrical tonic neck reflex (STNR) C. Startle reflex

C. (Throw arms up and out)

A PT is evaluating an 86 years old female, who sustained a right CVA due to a MCA infarction 1 week ago. Patient has the classical signs and symptoms of MCA CVA. During the Initial evaluation, the PT performs reflex testing on the patient. PT would expect? A. Right side hyperreflexia and - Babinski B. Right side hyporeflexia and + Babinski C. Left side hyperreflexia and + Babinski D. Left side hyporeflexia and - Babinski

C. (UMN inj >> hyper reflexes)

On observing the gait of the patient, the PT notices that the patient does the initial contact with the forefoot followed by the heel region. PROM of ankle dorsiflexion and plantarflexion is within functional limits. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of this presentation? A. Weak plantarflexors B. Plantarflexor contracture C. Common peroneal nerve palsy D. Calcaneal fracture

C. (Weakness of ankle DF >> foot drop) With B and D heel would not touch the ground

A PT is educating one of their patients regarding the effects of pregnancy and the implication for positioning and posture. Which of the following is the LEAST appropriate recommendation by the therapist? A. Patient with pregnancy induced hypertension must not do high intensity exercises B. Breath-holding exercising, and Valsalva's maneuver should be avoided C. A small-wedge must be used under the left hip while sleeping in supine in the second semester D. Borg's scale score of 12-14 during exercise is acceptable for uncomplicated pregnancy

C. (Would cause R side-lying which is not recommended) (If put wedge under R hip that would be good >> would cause L side-lying)

A 44-year-old male who consumes excessive amounts of alcohol is referred to PT clinic for knee pain. During treatment, patient reports right-sided shoulder pain. Which of the following structures is the MOST likely source of the referred pain? A. Prostate B. Appendix C. Liver D. Kidney

C. (liveR >> R side)

With a burn to the hand you will often see _________ _____ (also called intrinsic minus position) contracture. And ______ will stress the burned tissue. The pt should be positioned in ____________ _____ position.

Claw hand Extension Intrinsic plus (wrist ext, MCP flexion, PIP/DIP extension, thumb ABD)

Both crutches advanced forward together >> weight shifted onto hands >> both legs swung forward to meet crutches. For individuals with limited use of both LEs and trunk instability. A. Two-point gait B. Three-point gait C. Four-point gait D. Swing-to gait E. Swing-through gait

What are the two types of inflammatory bowel disease (IBD)?

Crohn's disease and ulcerative colitis

Causes: water deficits with dehydration, insufficient water intake. Observe for: circulatory congestion (pitting edema, excessive weight gain); pulmonary edema with dyspnea; HTN, tachycardia, agitation, restlessness, convulsions. A. Hypokalemia B. Hyperkalemia C. Hyponatremia D. Hypernatremia E. Hypocalcemia F. Hypercalcemia G. Hypomagnesemia H. Hypermagnesemia

Contact to ball of foot in upright standing position >> rigid extension (co-contraction) of LEs A. Palmar grasp reflex B. Moro reflex C. Symmetrical tonic labrythine (TLR/STLR) reflex D. Positive supporting reflex

Crude touch A. Meissner corpuscles B. Free nerve endings C. Pacinian corpuscles D. Markel disc

Causes: anxiety attack with hyperventilation, hypoxia (emphysema, pneumonia), impaired lung expansion, CHF, PE, diffuse liver or CNS disease, salicylate poisoning, extreme stress (stimulation of respiratory center). Observe for tachypnea, dizziness, anxiety, difficulty concentrating, numbness, tingling, blurred vision, diaphoresis, muscle cramps, twitching/tetany, weakness, arrhythmias or convulsions. A. Metabolic acidosis B. Metabolic alkalosis C. Respiratory acidosis D. Respiratory alkalosis

Disorder of BG, involuntary movements that are slow and writhing A. Spastic CP B. Dystonic CP C. Ataxic CP D. Athetosis CP

Be calm, be consistent (same treatment time, therapist and location), provide orientation, know when to stop/change activity RLCF: A. Lvl 1 B. Lvl 2 C. Lvl 3 D. Lvl 4 E. Lvl 5 F. Lvl 6 G. Lvl 7 H. Lvl 8

Which conditions refer to LLQ? A. Appendix B. Peptic ulcers C. Gall bladder pathology D. Diverticulitis E. Tail of pancreas F. Spleen pathology G. Ulcerative colitis H. IBS I. Head of pancreas J. Crohn's

D, G, H (DUI >> diverticulitis, ulcerative colitis, IBS)

Can refer to L shoulder: A. Esophagus B. Gall bladder C. Liver D. Heart E. Diaphragm F. Stomach G. Pancreas H. Diaphragm I. Tail of pancreas J. Pericardium K. Head of pancreas L. Peptic ulcer M. Colon N. Appendix O. Pelvic viscera

D, I (LUQ = PS = taiL of pancreas, spleen)

"atrial gallop"; abnormal, ventricular filling and atrial contraction A. S1 B. S2 C. S3 D. S4

6,000 mL A. Inspiratory capacity (IC) B. Functional reserve capacity (FRC) C. Vital capacity (VC) D. Total lung capacity (TLC)

A 46-year-old patient with right knee pain of 8/10 is referred to physical therapy. The PT observes swelling and patient reports pain during movement. Which of the following end-feels would you MOST likely encounter? A. Soft end feel B. Hard end feel C. Springy end feel D. Empty end feel

A 65-year-old patient presents to the clinic post CVA. The PT reviews the angiogram and identifies a blockage of the upper division of left MCA. Which of the following conditions is the PT MOST likely to note upon performing an evaluation? A. Weakness in the left upper extremity B. Presence of non-expressive aphasia C. Left homonymous hemianopia D. Presence of expressive aphasia

A PT is examining a 10-year-old patient diagnosed as level 2 on gross motor classification of CP. According to the gross motor classification of CP what is the MOST likely ambulation status of this patient? A. Patient will walk without restrictions but will have limitations in more advanced gross motor skills. B. Patient will walk with assistive device with limitations in walking outdoors and in the community. C. Patient self mobility will be severely limited, even with the use of assistive technology. D. Patient will walk without assistive device with limitations in walking outdoors and in the community.

A PT is examining a 46-year-old patient who underwent a radical mastectomy with axillary node removal. Which of the following signs would indicate INITIAL development of lymphedema in the patient? A. Non-pitting edema of lower leg and foot B. Shallow wound beds on the forearm C. Atrophy of the biceps muscle D. Decreased flexibility of the fingers

A patient diagnosed with Parkinson's Disease exhibits a forward stooped posture. As part of the patient's care plan the PT selects a number of active exercises that promote improved posture. Which PNF pattern would be the MOST appropriate to achieve the PT's objective? A. D1 Extension B. D1 Flexion C. D2 Extension D. D2 Flexion

A patient has a superficial partial-thickness wound resulting from an abrasion. The wound bed is red and moist and with minimal exudate. Which of the following wound dressings is MOST appropriate to use? A. Wet to dry gauze B. Foams C. Calcium alginate D. Transparent films

A patient presents with limitations in shoulder active and passive ROM that are pain free. The best initial intervention is: A. AROM B. PROM C. Grade 1-2 mobilization D. Grade 3-4 mobilization

A pt comes into the clinic reporting difficulty scratching their back with their R hand. Which glide would address this? A. Anteriorly B. Superiorly C. Inferiorly D. Posteriorly

All symptoms present and severe (bilateral), moderate difficulty walking, increased assistance on ADL A. Hoehn-Yahr stage 1 B. Hoehn-Yahr stage 2 C. Hoehn-Yahr stage 3 D. Hoehn-Yahr stage 4 E. Hoehn-Yahr stage 5

Amount of air that always remains in lungs and cannot be forcibly exhaled A. Tidal volume (TV) B. Inspiratory reserve volume (IRV) C. Expiratory reserve volume (ERV) D. Residual volume (RV)

Anatomical causes: weak quads Prosthetic causes: unstable knee joint, short walker A. Lateral trunk lean B. Abduction of limb C. Lordosis D. Forward flexion of trunk

Areas depressed; heals with skin grafting; scars A. Epidermal burn (1st degree) B. Superficial partial-thickness burn (2nd degree) C. Deep partial-thickness burn (3rd degree) D. Full-thickness burn (4th degree) E. Subdermal burn (5th degree)

Auscultation in lower lateral chest areas, occurs with each inspiration and expiration. Can indicate pleural inflammation. A. Rhonchi B. Wheeze C. Crackles D. Pleural rub

Epidermis, dermis, some subcutaneous tissue, dry/rigid/leathery eschar, lack of pain/pressure and temp sensation. >3 weeks to heal, requires surgical closure and may have contractures. A. Superficial burn (stage 1) B. Superficial partial thickness burn (stage 2) C. Deep partial thickness burn (stage 3) D. Full thickness burn (stage 4) E. Subdermal burn (stage 5)

FEV1 <30% of predicted, chronic cough, +/- sputum, very severe dyspnea (possible respiratory or right heart failure, weight loss) A. GOLD stage 1 COPD B. GOLD stage 2 COPD C. GOLD stage 3 COPD D. GOLD stage 4 COPD

Have pt duplicate a pattern of 2 or 3 blocks A. Figure-ground discrimination B. Form constancy C. Position in space D. Spatial relations E. Topographical disorientation F. Vertical disorientation G. Agnosia

Hot sensation A. Meissner corpuscles B. Krause end bulbs C. Golgi tendon organs D. Ruffini endings

IRV + ERV + TV + RV (max amt of air that can fill the lungs) A. Inspiratory capacity (IC) B. Functional reserve capacity (FRC) C. Vital capacity (VC) D. Total lung capacity (TLC)

Imaging and lymphedema: for assessing soft tissue for thickening and fibrosis A. Indirect lymphography (lymphangiography) B. Lymphoscintigraphy (lymphangioscintigraphy) C. MRI/CT D. Ultrasonography E. Fluorescent microlymphography F. Doppler US

Inability to perceive or attend to subtle difference in form and shape (ex. Confusing a pen with a toothbrush) A. Spatial-perceptual dysfunction B. Prosopagnosia C. Figure-ground discrimination D. Form discrimination E. Position in space impairment

Inability to perceive visual stimulus as a whole A. Somatognosia B. Agnosia C. Propagnosia D. Simultanagnosia

Incontinence caused by neurological condition that causes a disruption of the activity of the detrusor muscle A. Stress incontinence B. Urge incontinence C. Functional incontinence D. Overflow incontinence

Intermittent claudication: excruciating and unbearable pain A. Grade 1 B. Grade 2 C. Grade 3 D. Grade 4

Medication and catheterization A. Stress incontinence B. Urge incontinence C. Functional incontinence D. Overflow incontinence

Microcomputer controls DF and PF, improves ability to ambulate on incline, stairs and uneven surfaces, not widely used (maintenance and cost) A. SACH foot B. SAFE foot C. Seattle foot D. Microprocessor foot

Moderate exudate A. Transparent film B. Hydrogel C. Hydrocolloid D. Foam E. Alginates

Modified Ashworth Scale: more marked inc in tone, through MOST of ROM, affected part EASILY moved A. MAS 0 B. MAS 1 C. MAS 1+ D. MAS 2 E. MAS 3 F. MAS 4

Muffled and not clearly heard A. Bronchophony B. Egophony C. Whispered pectoriloquy D. Normal voice sound

Neuromuscular junction disorder (caused by autoimmune mediated ach receptor damage resulting in deficit in neuromuscular transmission) A. Parkinson's B. Huntington's C. Multiple Sclerosis D. Myasthenia Gravis E. Cerebellar Disorder F. Guillian-Barre Syndrome G. Amyotrophic Lateral Sclerosis

Not for use with dry eschar or wounds with no exudate. A. Transparent films B. Hydrocolloids C. Hydrogels D. Foams E. Alginates F. Gauze dressings

Onset: birth, integrated: 4-6 mos A. Flexor withdrawal reflex B. Crossed extension reflex C. Traction reflex D. Asymmetrical tonic neck reflex (ATNR)

PNF patterns: functional activities: pitching a baseball, hitting a ball during tennis serve, buttoning pants on L side with R hand A. UE/D1 flexion B. UE/D2 flexion C. UE/D1 extension D. UE/D2 extension

PaCO2: 35, pH: 7.50, HCO3: 28 A. Respiratory acidosis B. Respiratory alkalosis C. Metabolic acidosis D. Metabolic alkalosis

Parchment-like, leathery, rigid, dry, anesthetic (doesn't feel); body hairs pull out easily A. Epidermal burn (1st degree) B. Superficial partial-thickness burn (2nd degree) C. Deep partial-thickness burn (3rd degree) D. Full-thickness burn (4th degree) E. Subdermal burn (5th degree)

Pitting edema scale: very severe, >1 in, lasts >30 sec A. 1+ B. 2+ C. 3 D. 4+

Provides some padding, insulates wounds. Manages minimal-heavy exudate. A. Transparent films B. Hydrocolloids C. Hydrogels D. Foams E. Alginates F. Gauze dressings

Pulmonary edema due to heart failure (L sided HF) A. Clear B. Yellow C. Green D. Pink frothy E. Red F. Brown G. Black

RLCF: confused agitated: alert, increased state of activity, may exhibit aggressive or flight behavior, absent short-term memory, unable to really cooperate with treatment A. Lvl 1 B. Lvl 2 C. Lvl 3 D. Lvl 4 E. Lvl 5 F. Lvl 6 G. Lvl 7 H. Lvl 8

RLCF: set-up in quiet room, remove possible distractions, remove objects that could be aggressively thrown. Provide simple instructions with time to process. Watch frustration and know when to stop/change activity. Provide safe choices for pt (allows pt to feel they have control over situation). A. Lvl 1 B. Lvl 2 C. Lvl 3 D. Lvl 4 E. Lvl 5 F. Lvl 6 G. Lvl 7 H. Lvl 8

Refers pain around umbilical ring in mid-lower abdomen A. Hiatal hernia B. Femoral hernia C. Inguinal hernia D. Umbilical hernia

Regulate Ca and phosphate A. Hypothalamus B. Pituitary gland C. Thyroid gland D. Parathyroid gland E. Adrenal gland

Removal of eschar and skin grafting necessary, risk contracture without preventative measures A. Epidermal burn (1st degree) B. Superficial partial-thickness burn (2nd degree) C. Deep partial-thickness burn (3rd degree) D. Full-thickness burn (4th degree) E. Subdermal burn (5th degree)

Rolls supine > prone A. 2-3 mos B. 3-4 mos C. 4-5 mos D. 6-7 mos

Semi-permeable membranes that are either hydrophilic or hydrophobic. For partial and full thickness wounds with minimal-moderate exudate. Secondary dressing for wound with packing to provide additional absorption (protection and insulation). A. Transparent films B. Hydrocolloids C. Hydrogels D. Foams E. Alginates F. Gauze dressings

Severe pain. Elevation increases pain. A. Venous insufficiency B. Lymphedema C. Lipedema D. Arterial insufficiency

Shine light in L eye and neither eye constricts (no response) (no direct response or consensual response) A. Normal pupillary light reflex B. Ipsilateral CN3 lesion C. Contralateral CN3 lesion D. Ipsilateral CN2 lesion E. Contralateral CN2 lesion

Sits alone without support (hands free) A. 2-3 mos B. 3-4 mos C. 4-5 mos D. 6-7 mos

Sitting equilibrium: protective extension forward, transitions quadruped <> sitting A. 2-3 mos B. 3-4 mos C. 4-5 mos D. 6-7 mos

Small amp, performed AT end range (into tissue resistance) A. Grade 1 mobilization B. Grade 2 mobilization C. Grade 3 mobilization D. Grade 4 mobilization E. Grade 5 mobilization

Stabilization exercises only A. >2 cm diastasis recti B. <2 cm diastasis recti C. >/= 3 cm diastasis recti D. > 4 cm diastasis recti

Stages of lymphedema: severe "brawny" edema, (+) stemmer's sign, skin changes (papillomas, deep skin fold, warty protrusions, hyperkeratosis, mycotic infections, etc.), bacterial and viral infections are common A. Stage 0 (latency) B. Stage 1 (reversible) C. Stage 2 (spontaneously irreversible) D. Stage 3 (lymphostatic elephantitis)

Steadily worsen from the start. Flare-ups with or without remissions (super imposed attacks) A. Relapsing-remitting (RRMS) B. Secondary-progressive (SPMS) C. Primary-progressive (PPMS) D. Progressive-relapsing (PRMS)

Stiff heel cushion, malrotated foot A. High heel rise (early heel rise) B. Terminal impact C. Heel whip D. Foot rotation

Straight leg raise: flexion, knee extension and ankle dorsiflexion with inversion. Which nerve is MOST likely being biased in this position? A. Common peroneal nerve B. Tibial nerve C. Sciatic and Tibial nerve D. Sural nerve

Taste to posterior 1/3 of tongue A. CN5 B. CN7 C. CN10 D. CN9 E. CN12

Thin and shiny skin, hair loss, yellow nails A. Venous insufficiency B. Lymphedema C. Lipedema D. Arterial insufficiency

This procedure can cause a decrease in transport capacity and lead to lymphedema A. Lymphatic load B. Transport capacity C. Venous insufficiency D. Lymph node removal

To measure with lymphatic insufficiency A. Girth measurement B. Volumetric measurement C. Bioelectrical impedance D. Lymphoscintigraphy

Ulcer has smooth edges/well defined, tends to be deep A. Venous insufficiency B. Lymphedema C. Lipedema D. Arterial insufficiency

Use of pt's own skin A. Allograft B. Xenograft C. Biosynthetic graft D. Autograft E. Split-thickness graft F. Full-thickness graft

Wagner Diabetic Foot Ulcer Classification: deep ulcer with osteomyelitis or abscess A. Grade 0 B. Grade 1 C. Grade 2 D. Grade 3 E. Grade 4 F. Grade 5

Walking A. 7-8 mos B. 8-10 mos C. 10 mos D. 15 mos E. 2 years F. 2.5-3 yrs G. 3 yrs H. 4 yrs

Weakness that worsens during periods of activity and improves after periods of rest, variable degrees of weakness, ranging from ptosis or diplopia to critical respiratory weakness. Muscles that control speech, facial expression, mastication, swallowing, breathing, neck and limb movements may be involved. A. Parkinson's B. Huntington's C. Multiple Sclerosis D. Myasthenia Gravis E. Cerebellar Disorder F. Guillian-Barre Syndrome G. Amyotrophic Lateral Sclerosis

White (ischemic), charred, tan, fawn, mahogany, black, red (hemoglobin fixation); no blanching; thrombosed vessels; poor distal circulation A. Epidermal burn (1st degree) B. Superficial partial-thickness burn (2nd degree) C. Deep partial-thickness burn (3rd degree) D. Full-thickness burn (4th degree) E. Subdermal burn (5th degree)

subtalar supination, lateral rotation of leg, long ipsi leg, posterior pelvic rotation A. Excessive anteversion B. Excessive retroversion C. Coxa vara D. Coxa valga

Very loud and high pitch, over trachea in the neck A. Vesicular B. Bronchiovesicular C. Bronchial D. Tracheal

D. Think of breath sound intensity and pitch of expiration as going to a concert. Your mouth/nose are the stage of performance" • trachea = closest to stage (loudest) • Vesicular is furthest from stage (softest) • Closer to the stage the sound intensity will be highest and the further away the intensity reduces

A patient presents to the clinic with complains of knee pain. On evaluation the PT notices that the patient has excessive ankle plantar flexion along with excessive anterior pelvic tilt. What could be the correlated motion at the knee joint? A. Genu valgum B. Coxa vara C. Medial tibial torsion D. Knee hyperextension

D. (Genu valgum - pes planus, excess hip ADD, subtalar pronation) (Coxa varus/genu varum - hip Er, excess hip ABD) (Medial tibial torsion - toeing-in, metatarsus ADD, subtalar pronation)

During an evaluation, the PT checks the active and passive ankle ROM. The patient lacks 8 degrees of passive ankle dorsiflexion. The same limitation in range of motion is present whether the knee is extended or flexed. The muscle MOST likely contributing to the restriction in passive range of motion is? A. Tibialis Anterior B. Hamstrings C. Gastrocnemius D. Soleus

D. (Knee flexed isolates to test soleus only — bc gastroc is working at knee joint, so testing for tightness of soleus at ankle)

PNF patterns: EAdIR A. UE/D1 flexion B. UE/D2 flexion C. UE/D1 extension D. UE/D2 extension

D. "Put the sword back"

A 6-month-old child was referred to physical therapy for right torticollis. The MOST effective method to stretch the muscle is by positioning the head and neck into: A. Flexion, left side-bending, and left rotation. B. Extension, right side-bending, and left rotation. C. Flexion, right side-bending, and left rotation. D. Extension, left side-bending, and right rotation.

D. ( if R SCM tight = R side bend and L rotation >>> do the opp of this motion to stretch)

PNF patterns: EAdER A. LE/D1 flexion B. LE/D2 flexion C. LE/D1 extension D. LE/D2 extension

D. ("Pull your leg down and behind")

A patient complains of sudden onset of mild hearing loss on the left side. Weber's test findings show sound lateralized to the right ear. Rinne test was consistent with air conduction greater than bone conduction on both sides. Which of the following is the MOST likely? A. Right side sensorineural hearing loss B. Left side conduction hearing loss C. Right side conduction hearing loss D. Left side sensorineural hearing loss

D. (AC > BC - normal or SN loss) (Weber's test lateralis Ed to R/unaffected ear with SN loss = L ear is affected ear)

5th IC space, midclavicular line A. Aortic B. Pulmonic C. Tricuspid D.. Mitral

D. (APTM 2245 - mitraL - L side)

Ulcer located on lower 1/3 of leg, toe, lateral malleolus A. Venous insufficiency B. Lymphedema C. Lipedema D. Arterial insufficiency

D. (ArteriaL >> has L >> lateral)

Feeding is a problem if this reflex persists. Rolling can also be affected. A. Flexor withdrawal reflex B. Crossed extension reflex C. Traction reflex D. Asymmetrical tonic neck reflex (ATNR)

D. (Bc hand goes away)

Looks up and in A. Superior rectus B. Lateral rectus C. Inferior rectus D. Inferior oblique E. Medial rectus F. Superior oblique

D. (CN3)

A 52-year male has a history of episodic expiratory wheezing, tightness in the chest, and coughing that is worse at night. During exacerbations. patient experiences dyspnea at rest and uses accessory muscles of respiration. Which of the following changes are MOST LIKELY on pulmonary function tests during exacerbation of symptoms? A. Increased FEV1 and reduced RV B. Reduced FEV1 and reduced RV C. Increased FEV1 and increased RV D. Reduced FEV1 and increased RV

D. (COPD is obstructive lung disease >> trouble exhaling/getting air out)

A patient who is 3 months post right ankle fracture has an active range of motion of 0° to 30° of dorsiflexion and 0° to 5° of plantar flexion. To restore motion required for normal dorsiflexion, which of the following joint mobilization techniques the PT should perform? A. Anterior glide of the talus B. Lateral glide of the calcaneus C. Medial glide of the calcaneus D. Posterior glide of the talus

D. (Convex talus moves on concave mortise XAO)

A PT is assessing the integrity of right optic nerve. Which of the following is LEAST appropriate to assess the function of this sensory nerve? A. Confrontation test B. Reading the Snellen's eye chart with left eye shut C. Shining light in the eye of the right eye D. Touching the cornea of the right eye with cotton

D. (Corneal reflex is CN 5/trigeminal)

Brunnstrom's stages of recovery (stroke): movement outside of synergy, decreased tone A. Stage 1 B. Stage 2 C. Stage 3 D. Stage 4 E. Stage 5 F. Stage 6 G. Stage 7

D. (Dec spasticity and movement outside of synergy)

Treatment: turn head R >> supine and neck ext >> turn head L >> L side lying >> sit up A. L Cupulolithiasis B. R Cupulolithiasis C. L canalithaisis D. R canalithaisis

D. (Epleys/CRM to treat) Epleys: turn head to affected side >> supine/neck ext >> turn head to unaffected side >> side lying on unaffected side

Ly mphedema occurs due to disruption of the normal circulation of lymphatic fluid in the body. All of the following are causes of secondary lymphedema EXCEPT: A. Infection by Wuchereria Bancroffti B. Kaposi's sarcoma C. Traumatic injuries D. Milroy's disease

D. (Genetic) Wuchereria Bancroffti - filariasis which is a parasite

A male patient with BMI of 38 kg/m2 presented to an outpatient clinic with excessive fatigue. The PT observes ichthyosis on the lower extremities as shown in the picture. What would be the MOST likely cause in this patient? A. Addison's disease B. Graves disease C. Cushing's syndrome D. Hashimoto's disease

D. (HYPO rhymes with hasiMOTO >> hypothyroidism)

Tissue defects; heals with skin graft or flap; scarring A. Epidermal burn (1st degree) B. Superficial partial-thickness burn (2nd degree) C. Deep partial-thickness burn (3rd degree) D. Full-thickness burn (4th degree) E. Subdermal burn (5th degree)

A 44-year-old male patient is being evaluated by a PT. The patient reports referred pain in the left shoulder with diagnosis of a positive Kehr's sign. Which of the following is NOT a potential cause of a positive Kehr's sign and left shoulder pain? NPTE-The Final Frontier: Prep Course A. Recent laparoscopy B. Intra-abdominal bleeding C. Rupture of the spleen D. Trauma to head of pancreas

D. (Head of pancreas = RUQ >> R shoulder, the head is always R (your brain is always R) = upper quadrant) (taiL of pancreas >> LUQ)

A PT is performing an exercise stress test on a 45-year- old male patient. The patient resting values are: BP 130/90 mm Hg. HR 75 bpm and RR 24 breaths/min. Which of the following is an ABNORMAL response to vigorous aerobic exercise? A. Diastolic blood decreases to 88 mm Hg B. Diastolic blood pressure increases to 100 mm Hg C. Respiratory rate increases to 34 breaths/minute D. Systolic blood pressure decreases to 100 mm Hg

D. (If SBP drops during exc (20 mmHg or more) this is red flag, terminate exercise)

Rotation of head to one side >> flexion of skull limbs (side head is turned away from) and extension of jaw limbs (side head is turned towards). Bow and arrow posture. A. Flexor withdrawal reflex B. Crossed extension reflex C. Traction reflex D. Asymmetrical tonic neck reflex (ATNR)

D. (If turn head to R side = RUE extends, LUE flexes)

A physical therapist examines the viscosity and color of a sputum sample after completing postural drainage activities. The sputum is yellowish-greenish color and is very thick. The PT can best describe the sputum as: A. Fetid B. Frothy C. Mucoid D. Purulent

D. (Infection - green/yellow) Fetid - found smelling Mucoid - white Frothy - pulmonary edema from L sided HF

Excessive foot outset A. Excessive knee flexion B. Insufficient knee flexion C. Excessive lateral thrust D. Excessive medial thrust E. Early knee flexion F. Delayed knee flexion

D. (LIMO - lateral thrust inset, medial thrust outset)

A 68-year-old male patient comes to the clinic with a history of cognitive deficits and Alzheimer disease. The patient's chief complaint is urinary incontinence. Which of the following is MOST appropriate intervention for this patient? A. Use of absorbent pads B. Pelvic floor exercises targeting levator ani muscles C. Breathing exercises to develop sphincter control D. Scheduled toileting and prompted voiding

D. (Likely functional incontinence due to forgetting to void)

A patient complains of lack of grip strength. PT notices that the patient has a stronger grip with wrist in extension, but the grip strength decreases as the patient starts flexing the wrist. What is the MOST appropriate intervention to improve the ROM? A. Stretch the flexor digitorum and strengthen extensor digitorum B. Strengthen extensor digitorum and put a flexion splint C. Stretch flexor digitorum and extensor digitorum D. Stretch extensor digitorum and strengthen flexor digitorum

D. (Loss of grip strength with ext is due to passive insufficiency of ED and active insufficiency of FD) (can happen after prolonged immobilization) (Strengthen actively insufficient muscle groups. Stretch passively insufficient muscle groups)

All of the following are guidelines in treating patients with GERD EXCEPT A. Any intervention requiring a supine position should be scheduled before meals and avoided just after eating B. Encourage the patient to sleep on left side for nocturnal reflex C. Modification of position towards a more upright posture may be required if symptoms persists during therapy D. Encourage the patient to sleep on right side for nocturnal reflex

D. (Nocturnal reflex is in inhibited with L side-lying)

A chronic smoker is diagnosed with COPD and undergoes ABG analysis. The physical therapist is MOST likely to see following changes in the ABG report? A. Decreased PaCO2, increased PaO2, and decreased pH. B. Decreased PaCO2, decreased PaO2, and increased pH. C. Increased PaCO2, increased PaO2, and increased pH. D. Increased PaCO2, decreased PaO2, and decreased pH.

D. (Obstructive lung disease >> trouble getting air out of lungs >> build up/accumulation of CO2)

A patient with a transfemoral amputation is unable to wear a total contact prosthesis for the past 4 days. The patient reports shooting pain at the end of the residual limb. Examination of the residual limb does not show any erythema. The MOST LIKELY cause is: A. Cellulitis B. Dermatitis C. Impetigo D. Neuroma

D. (Occurs with nerve regrowth, nerve was cut and regrows abnormally)

A patient presents with dizziness with rolling in bed and bending forward to load the dishwasher. On assessment, the patient tests positive for the dix hall pike test on the right side. Which of the following is MOST likely expected to be present in this patient? A. Pendulum nystagmus B. Abnormal saccades C. Ageotropic nystagmus D. Upbeating torsional nystagmus

D. (PUP)

A 50-year-old female patient arrived at an outpatient clinic with increased swelling in bilateral lower extremities. Which of the following is the LEAST likely finding in a patient with diagnosis of lipedema? A. Patients would be susceptible to bruising of the affected area. B. Patient would have a negative stemmer sign. C. Patient would have no distal edema. D. Patient would report no pain on pressure.

D. (Pain to pressure)

After gait training a patient with a new below knee prosthesis, you notice redness along the patellar tendon and medial tibial flare. This would indicate A. The socket is too small and the residual limb is not seated properly B. The socket is too large and pistoning is occurring C. Improper weight distribution during stance D. Pressure tolerant weight bearing during stance

D. (Patellar tendon is pressure tolerant area - expect it to be red after prosthetic use)

A 58-year-old patient comes to PT clinic for a gait and posture evaluation. The patient has a right sided transtibial amputation and in unable to fully flex the right knee in stance phase. What is the MOST likely cause for this gait deviation is: A. Anterior displacement of the socket relative to the foot. B. The knee bolt is rotated externally C. The prosthesis is too light D. Posterior displacement of the socket relative to the foot.

D. (Stuck in extended position or less flexion than needed)

A PT is evaluating a 34-year-old female patient with a vague diagnosis of low back pain. The patient displays a positive Thomas test. Which sub phase of the gait cycle will MOST likely show limitation in the hip ROM? A. Loading response B. Initial contact C. Midstance D. Terminal stance

D. (Tight hip flexors limit hip ext, TST has greatest hip ext)

All of the following are components of treatment for lymphedema EXCEPT: A. Decongest the trunk quadrants first before addressing the lymphedematous extremity B. Exercise should always be performed with a compression bandage C. Decongesting the proximal portions of the limb first and then working distally with the direction of flow always towards the trunk D. Affected limbs are bandaged with high -stretch compression bandages

D. (Want LOW stretch, high working pressure)

Excessive upward rotation of the left scapula is noted as the patient attempts shoulder abduction. Which of the following exercises is MOST appropriate to help correct the excessive scapular rotation? A. Forearm wall slides to strengthen serratus anterior B. Shoulder shrugs to strengthen upper trapezius C. Standing wall push-ups to strengthen serratus anterior D. Standing rows to strengthen the rhomboids

D. (With excessive UR this means DR are not controlling or slowing the upward rotation motion so need to strengthen the downward rotators)

Roll test: Ageotropic nystagmus seen, greater intensity towards L side A. L HSC canalithaisis B. R HSC canalithaisis C. L HSC Cupulolithiasis D. R HSC Cupulolithiasis

D. (With this nystagmus is LESS intense towards affected side)

A PT is testing the active shoulder range of motion of a 45- year-old female patient. The PT asks the patient to move the shoulder to full medial/internal rotation. During medial rotation at the shoulder joint (GH joint), the humerus will slide: A. Anteriorly B. Superiorly C. Inferiorly D. Posteriorly

D. (XAO, rolls ant, slide post)

With a burn to the anterior neck you will often see _________ contracture. And ______ will stress the burned tissue. The pt should be positioned in ____________.

Flexion, hyperextension, extension

Unable to learn new info, frequent brief periods of non-purposeful sustained attn, consistent appropriate response to simple commands in structured environment, often demonstrates inappropriate use of objects without external intervention. RLCF: A. Lvl 1 B. Lvl 2 C. Lvl 3 D. Lvl 4 E. Lvl 5 F. Lvl 6 G. Lvl 7 H. Lvl 8

TIPS for Burn Types - Nerves live in the ________, no ________ = no pain - Most painful - Superficial partial thickness - Hypertrophic & Keloid Scar formation begins: ________ ______ thickness burns - Superficial Partial- Thickness → Sensitive to changes in temperature, exposure to air current Deep Partial- Thickness → Sensitive to pressure but insensitive to light touch or soft pinprick Full-Thickness and Subdermal both produce scarring & no pain (receptors are gone).

Dermis, dermis, deep partial

Wagner Diabetic Foot Ulcer Classification: partial foot gangrene A. Grade 0 B. Grade 1 C. Grade 2 D. Grade 3 E. Grade 4 F. Grade 5

Wounds with moderate-large amts of exudate. Wounds with combo exudate and necrosis. Wounds that require packing and absorption. Infected and non-infected exuding wounds. A. Transparent films B. Hydrocolloids C. Hydrogels D. Foams E. Alginates F. Gauze dressings

Closed kinetic chain foot pronation includes what motions?

EDAB Eversion, DF, ABD (opposite of OKC except eversion stays the same)

Open kinetic chain foot pronation includes what motions?

EPAD Eversion, PF, ADD (opposite of CKC except eversion stays the same)

Flexion contracture Socket too far anterior, DF stop too soft A. Excessive knee flexion B. Insufficient knee flexion C. Excessive lateral thrust D. Excessive medial thrust E. Early knee flexion F. Delayed knee flexion

Gastritis, peptic ulcers, ulcerative colitis A. Nausea/vomiting B. Constipation C. Diarrhea D. Abdominal pain E. GI bleeding F. Heart burn

Which conditions refer to LUQ? A. Appendix B. Peptic ulcers C. Gall bladder pathology D. Diverticulitis E. Tail of pancreas F. Spleen pathology G. Ulcerative colitis H. IBS I. Head of pancreas J. Crohn's

E, F (PS >> tail of Pancreas, spleen) (taiL of pancreas >> L side)

Bleeding A. Clear B. Yellow C. Green D. Pink frothy E. Red F. Brown G. Black

Both crutches are advanced forward together; weight shifted onto hands and both legs which are swung forward beyond the point of the crutch. Requires use of 2 crutches. A. Two-point gait B. Three-point gait C. Four-point gait D. Swing-to gait E. Swing-through gait

Causes: reduced albumin lvls, hyperphosphatemia, hypoparathyroidism, malabsorption of calcium and vitamin D, alkalosis, acute pancreatitis, vitamin D deficiency. Observe for: muscle cramps, tetany, spasms; paresthesias, anxiety, irritability, twitching, convulsions, arrhythmias, hypotension. A. Hypokalemia B. Hyperkalemia C. Hyponatremia D. Hypernatremia E. Hypocalcemia F. Hypercalcemia G. Hypomagnesemia H. Hypermagnesemia

Charred. Subcutaneous tissue evident; anesthetic (no feeling), muscle damage, neurological involvement A. Epidermal burn (1st degree) B. Superficial partial-thickness burn (2nd degree) C. Deep partial-thickness burn (3rd degree) D. Full-thickness burn (4th degree) E. Subdermal burn (5th degree)

Determine whether pt can navigate a familiar route on his/her own (ex. Travel from room to PT clinic) A. Figure-ground discrimination B. Form constancy C. Position in space D. Spatial relations E. Topographical disorientation F. Vertical disorientation G. Agnosia

Epidermis and upper layers of dermis from donor site A. Allograft B. Xenograft C. Biosynthetic graft D. Autograft E. Split-thickness graft F. Full-thickness graft

Epidermis, dermis, subcutaneous tissue. Charred/dry and exposed deep tissue. Requires surgical intervention, amputation and paralysis possible. A. Superficial burn (stage 1) B. Superficial partial thickness burn (stage 2) C. Deep partial thickness burn (stage 3) D. Full thickness burn (stage 4) E. Subdermal burn (stage 5)

Fills in dead space, supports debridement in presence of exudate. A. Transparent films B. Hydrocolloids C. Hydrogels D. Foams E. Alginates F. Gauze dressings

List GCS points (TBI):

EVM - 456 Eye opening (4 points) >> ESPN E = spontaneously = 4 S = to sound = 3 P = to pain = 2 N = no response = 1 Verbal response (5 points) >> "Our Country WinS" O = oriented = 5 C = confused = 4 W = inappropriate Words = 3 S = incomprehensible Sounds = 2 No response = 1 Motor response (6 points) >> "Can't Live Without Fan Enthusiasm: C = obeys Commands = 6 L = Localizes pain = 5 F = Flexion to pain (decorticate) = 3 E = Extension to pain (decerebrate) = 2 No response = 1

Cervical extensor muscle weakness A. Parkinson's B. Huntington's C. Multiple Sclerosis D. Myasthenia Gravis E. Cerebellar Disorder F. Guillian-Barre Syndrome G. Amyotrophic Lateral Sclerosis

PT examination and interventions for DMD (PSEUDOHYPERTROPHIC MUSCULAR DYSTROPHY)

Examination - Strength, - ROM, - Functional testing, - skeletal alignment, - respiratory function, - assess need for adaptive equipment PT interventions - Maintain mobility as long as possible - Maintain joint ROM with active/passive

Autoimmune response, pt's antibodies attack peripheral nerves, typically observed after respiratory infection, GI infection, characterized by diarrhea, surgery, vaccination or childbirth. A. Parkinson's B. Huntington's C. Multiple Sclerosis D. Myasthenia Gravis E. Cerebellar Disorder F. Guillian-Barre Syndrome G. Amyotrophic Lateral Sclerosis

Avoid direct contact with granulating tissue. A. Transparent films B. Hydrocolloids C. Hydrogels D. Foams E. Alginates F. Gauze dressings

Blood or dirt accumulated A. Clear B. Yellow C. Green D. Pink frothy E. Red F. Brown G. Black

Brunnstrom's stages of recovery (stroke): individual joint movement, coordinated movement A. Stage 1 B. Stage 2 C. Stage 3 D. Stage 4 E. Stage 5 F. Stage 6 G. Stage 7

Modified Ashworth Scale: affected part RIGID in flexion or extension A. MAS 0 B. MAS 1 C. MAS 1+ D. MAS 2 E. MAS 3 F. MAS 4

Peripheral/lower motor neuron lesion A. Parkinson's B. Huntington's C. Multiple Sclerosis D. Myasthenia Gravis E. Cerebellar Disorder F. Guillian-Barre Syndrome G. Amyotrophic Lateral Sclerosis

RLCF: confused-appropriate A. Lvl 1 B. Lvl 2 C. Lvl 3 D. Lvl 4 E. Lvl 5 F. Lvl 6 G. Lvl 7 H. Lvl 8

RLCF: highly structured functional tasks, dec cues/external direction, dec use of assistive devices, inc speed and complexity of tasks as able A. Lvl 1 B. Lvl 2 C. Lvl 3 D. Lvl 4 E. Lvl 5 F. Lvl 6 G. Lvl 7 H. Lvl 8

RLCF: little carry-over for new learning, max assistance for new earning with little or no carry-over, consistently follows simple direction, unaware of impairments/disabilities/safety risks A. Lvl 1 B. Lvl 2 C. Lvl 3 D. Lvl 4 E. Lvl 5 F. Lvl 6 G. Lvl 7 H. Lvl 8

Rapid onset weakness distal > proximal with bilateral symptoms peaking at approx 2-3 weeks, but progressing no greater than 4 weeks A. Parkinson's B. Huntington's C. Multiple Sclerosis D. Myasthenia Gravis E. Cerebellar Disorder F. Guillian-Barre Syndrome G. Amyotrophic Lateral Sclerosis

Respiratory muscle involvement (mechanical ventilation), facial and oral-motor weakness (vision, speech and swallowing problems) A. Parkinson's B. Huntington's C. Multiple Sclerosis D. Myasthenia Gravis E. Cerebellar Disorder F. Guillian-Barre Syndrome G. Amyotrophic Lateral Sclerosis

Stairs reciprocal pattern A. 7-8 mos B. 8-10 mos C. 10 mos D. 15 mos E. 2 years F. 2.5-3 yrs G. 3 yrs H. 4 yrs

Symmetrical, bilateral, ascending (distal >proximal), CSF contains more protein than normal, initially bilateral sensory loss in "glove and stocking" distribution, pain in large muscles of body (back, thighs, buttocks). Stiffness, cramping, "deep aching". Burning, tingling pins/needles, numbness. A. Parkinson's B. Huntington's C. Multiple Sclerosis D. Myasthenia Gravis E. Cerebellar Disorder F. Guillian-Barre Syndrome G. Amyotrophic Lateral Sclerosis

Wagner Diabetic Foot Ulcer Classification: whole foot gangrene A. Grade 0 B. Grade 1 C. Grade 2 D. Grade 3 E. Grade 4 F. Grade 5

Looking down and in A. Superior rectus B. Lateral rectus C. Inferior rectus D. Inferior oblique E. Medial rectus F. Superior oblique

F. (CN4)

ACA supplies

FP medial aspect of frontal and parietal lobes Upper frontal and parietal lobe, basal ganglia, corpus collosum Executive functioning, prefrontal cortex, sensorimotor, movement initiation, social interaction

MCA supplies

FPT frontal, parietal, and temporal lobes Lateral convexity of hemisphere = Broca's and Wernicke's areas, face and arm areas (motor/sensory) and frontal eye field.

With a burn to the elbow you will often see _________ and _______ contracture. And ______ and _______will stress the burned tissue. The pt should be positioned in ____________.

Flexion and pronation Extension and supination Extension

Fasiculation and loss of dexterity (loss of finger movements) A. Parkinson's B. Huntington's C. Multiple Sclerosis D. Myasthenia Gravis E. Cerebellar Disorder F. Guillian-Barre Syndrome G. Amyotrophic Lateral Sclerosis

Brunnstrom's stages of recovery (stroke): normal function A. Stage 1 B. Stage 2 C. Stage 3 D. Stage 4 E. Stage 5 F. Stage 6 G. Stage 7

Causes; hemodialysis, blood transfusions, chronic renal disease, hepatic cirrhosis (alcoholism), chronic pancreatitis, hypoparathyroidism, malabsorption syndromes, severe burns, excess loss of body fluid. Observe for: hyper irritability, confusion; leg and foot cramps. A. Hypokalemia B. Hyperkalemia C. Hyponatremia D. Hypernatremia E. Hypocalcemia F. Hypercalcemia G. Hypomagnesemia H. Hypermagnesemia

Fungal infection, smoking A. Clear B. Yellow C. Green D. Pink frothy E. Red F. Brown G. Black

Inability to recognize familiar objects with one sensory modality (ex. Sensation/touch, vision) while retaining ability to recognize same object with other sensory modalities (ex. Pt doesn't recognize a clock by sight) A. Figure-ground discrimination B. Form constancy C. Position in space D. Spatial relations E. Topographical disorientation F. Vertical disorientation G. Agnosia

Mid to late 50s, quickly with death usually within 5 years A. Parkinson's B. Huntington's C. Multiple Sclerosis D. Myasthenia Gravis E. Cerebellar Disorder F. Guillian-Barre Syndrome G. Amyotrophic Lateral Sclerosis

Muscle weakness, Hyporeflexia, hypotonicity, atrophy, muscle cramps, fasiculations, spasticity, pathological reflexes, hyperreflexia, dysphagia, dysarthria, sialorrhea, pseudobulbar affect, dyspnea, loss of insight, emotional blunting, attn deficits, deficits in cognitive flexibility, irritability, social disinhibition A. Parkinson's B. Huntington's C. Multiple Sclerosis D. Myasthenia Gravis E. Cerebellar Disorder F. Guillian-Barre Syndrome G. Amyotrophic Lateral Sclerosis

RLCF: automatic, appropriate A. Lvl 1 B. Lvl 2 C. Lvl 3 D. Lvl 4 E. Lvl 5 F. Lvl 6 G. Lvl 7 H. Lvl 8

RLCF: min supervision for new learning, with carry-over. Initiation and follow through of basic ADLs. Minimal supervision for safety in routine home/community activities. Attends to highly familiar tasks in non-distraction environment for at least 30 mins with minimal assist to complete task. A. Lvl 1 B. Lvl 2 C. Lvl 3 D. Lvl 4 E. Lvl 5 F. Lvl 6 G. Lvl 7 H. Lvl 8

RLCF: structured functional tasks, increase complexity of tasks, work on coordination and find motor control A. Lvl 1 B. Lvl 2 C. Lvl 3 D. Lvl 4 E. Lvl 5 F. Lvl 6 G. Lvl 7 H. Lvl 8

Tricycle A. 7-8 mos B. 8-10 mos C. 10 mos D. 15 mos E. 2 years F. 2.5-3 yrs G. 3 yrs H. 4 yrs

UMN and LMN signs, bulbar, respiratory, frontotemporal dementia, cognitive and behavioral impairments A. Parkinson's B. Huntington's C. Multiple Sclerosis D. Myasthenia Gravis E. Cerebellar Disorder F. Guillian-Barre Syndrome G. Amyotrophic Lateral Sclerosis

List the convex concave rule (listing from hip down LE)

Hip = OPP Knee = SAME Ankle = OPP Toes = SAME

Contact precautions require what 2 things?

Gloves and gown

Airborne precautions require what 3 things?

Gown, gloves and respirator mask

Causes; renal failure, diabetic acidosis, hypothyroidism, Addison's disease, with dehydration and with use of antacids. Observe for; hypo-reflexia, muscle weakness, drowsiness, lethargy, confusion, bradycardia and hypotension. A. Hypokalemia B. Hyperkalemia C. Hyponatremia D. Hypernatremia E. Hypocalcemia F. Hypercalcemia G. Hypomagnesemia H. Hypermagnesemia

RLCF: consistent orientation to person, place, time. Independent with familiar tasks for an hour in distracting environment. Uses memory devices to recall schedules (phone, alarm, planner). Able to recall and integrate past and recent events. A. Lvl 1 B. Lvl 2 C. Lvl 3 D. Lvl 4 E. Lvl 5 F. Lvl 6 G. Lvl 7 H. Lvl 8

RLCF: structured and unstructured functional tasks, increase complexity of tasks, work on coordination and fine motor control A. Lvl 1 B. Lvl 2 C. Lvl 3 D. Lvl 4 E. Lvl 5 F. Lvl 6 G. Lvl 7 H. Lvl 8

Standing on tip toes A. 7-8 mos B. 8-10 mos C. 10 mos D. 15 mos E. 2 years F. 2.5-3 yrs G. 3 yrs H. 4 yrs

List APGAR scoring (HR, Resp effect, Reflex irritability, Muscle tone, Color)

HR = 0 absent, 1 is <100 BPM, 2 is 100-140 BPM Resp effect = 0 absent, 1 slow/shallow, 2 good/crying/irregular Reflex irritability = 0 no response, 1 grimace, 2 cough/squeeze Muscle tone = 0 flaccid, 1 some flexion, 2 active motion/extremities Color = 0 blue, 1 pink body/blue extremities, 2 all pink

What are the late changes (after acclimation) that occur with exercise capacity from working at a higher altitude?

HR and BP learn how to stabilize CO is increased because GAIN an increased/higher SV — allows them to maintain CO while keeping HR lower

What are the CV effects that occur with aquatic therapy?

HR, BP = dec SV, CO = inc

What are the initial/acute changes that occur when exercising at high altitude before acclimation has occurred? (To HR, BP, CO, SV)

HR, BP, CO = all increase SV = no change

Lower extremity extension synergy: list what happens at Hip: Knee: Ankle: Toe:

Hip: extension, ADD, IR Knee: extension Ankle: PF, inv Toe: extension Lots of similarities to UE extension synergy —look up video - OPP of LE flexion synergy

Lower extremity flexion synergy: list what happens at Hip: Knee: Ankle: Toe:

Hip: flexion, ABD, ER Knee: flexion Ankle: DF Toe: flexion Lots of similarities to UE flexion synergy —look up video - OPP of LE extension synergy

Positioning strategies to reduce common malalignment with stroke: list the following for SIDE-LYING on LESS affected side position Head/neck: Trunk: More affected UE: (scapula, shoulder, arm, elbow, wrist/fingers)

Head/neck: neutral and symmetrical Trunk: aligned in midline (small pillow/towel can place under rib cage to elongate hemiplegia side which is the uppermost side) More affected UE: - scapula: protracted - shoulder: forward, - arm: on a supporting pillow - elbow: extended - wrist: neutral - fingers: extended, thumb ABD

Positioning strategies to reduce common malalignment with stroke: list the following for SIDE-LYING on MORE AFFECTED SIDE position Head/neck: Trunk: More affected UE: (scapula, shoulder, arm, elbow, forearm, wrist/fingers) More affected LE: (hip, knee, feet, ankle)

Head/neck: neutral and symmetrical Trunk: aligned midline More affected UE: - scapula: protracted (bc synergy is retracted) - shoulder forward/flexed - arm: slight ABD and ER - elbow: extended - forearm: supinated - wrist: neutral - fingers: extended, thumb ABD More affected LE: - hip: extended - knee: flexed (supported by pillows) Or slight hip and knee flexion with pelvic protraction

Stays normal with restrictive lung disease A. TV B. IC C. ERV D. VC E. FVC F. RV G. FRC H. TLC I. FEV1

Open kinetic chain foot supination includes what motions?

IDAB Inversion, DF, ABD (opposite of CKC but inversion stays the same)

What is the purpose of the long sitting (supine to sit) test

IDs SIJ dysfunction that may be the cause of leg length discrepancy

Treatment of hypoglycemia in conscious client?

Immediate administration of sugar - always safer to give sugar even when there is a doubt concerning origin of symptoms 10-15 g of carbs to reverse hypoglycemic episode - 1/2 cup fruit juice or soda - 8 oz milk - 2 packets of sugar - 2 oz tube of honey/cake decorating gel - glucose tablets Any episode/suspected episode of hypoglycemia must be treated promptly and reported to the client's physician

Cholecystitis

Inflammation of the gallbladder; blockage or impaction of gallstones in cystic duct resulting in inflammation of the gallbladder Pain in RUQ radiating to R scapula 3 Fs - female, fat and eat fatty foods = increased risk Fat, fair (Caucasian), food

Describe compensations that occur with excessive plantarflexion: at the knee, trunk and lumbar

Knee hyperextension Forward trunk lean Lumbar lordosis

what is the gold standard drug for Parkinson's?

Levodopa/Carbidopa (Sinemet) Carbidopa - allows higher percentage of levodopa to enter the brain to allow for use of lower doses of levodopa and fewer adverse side effects

Technique to remember descriptions of mobilization grades

Look at hand starting at pinky Pinky = small = small amp Ring finger = larger than pinky = large amp Middle finger = larger than ring = large amp Index finger = smaller than middle = smaller amp Thumb = thrust = HVT SARO, LARO, one more LARO, SARO

Bioimpedance measurements: used in lymphedema (GOLD standard) • Use of a _______-level ___________ electrical current to measure the resistance to the flow through the extracellular fluid in UE • The ________ the resistance to flow, the more extracellular fluid present. • Measurements must be taken prior to surgery and re-measurements should be taken at set intervals throughout the treatment.

Low, alternating, higher

List the 5 lvl of gross motor classification of CP

Lvl 1 = walk WITHOUT RESTRICTIONS (limitations in more advanced skills) Lvl 2 = walk WITHOUT AD, limitations in outdoors/community Lvl 2 >> 2 feet only (no device) Lvl 3 = walk WITH AD, limitations in outdoors/community Lvl 3 >> 2 feet + something else = 3 Lvl 4 = self mobility SEVERELY limited, use WC or power mobility Lvl 4 >> 4 wheels = WC Lvl 5 = severely limited even with assistive technology

Can refer to pelvis/low back/sacrum: A. Esophagus B. Gall bladder C. Liver D. Heart E. Diaphragm F. Stomach G. Pancreas H. Diaphragm I. Tail of pancreas J. Pericardium K. Head of pancreas L. Peptic ulcer M. Colon N. Appendix O. Pelvic viscera

M, N, O

What are the pressure tolerant areas for below knee (transtibial) prosthetic?

M-DPT Medial tibia Distal end (of limb) Patellar tendon Tibial and fibular shaft

A 60-year-old patient sustained a fall on an outstretched arm and hand (wrist in extension). He says that when he fell "the elbow was straight and his hand was out away from his body". This resulted in tendency for the forearm & hand to move into valgus. What structures are vulnerable to injury?

MCL/UCL of the elbow MCL of wrist Scaphoid TFCC DRUJ Colles fx (fx distal radius dislocates dorsally)

S/sx of hypothyroidism

MOM'S SO TIRED Memory loss Obesity Malar flush/menorrhagia Slowness (mentally/physically) Skin/hair dryness Onset gradual Tiredness Intolerance to cold Raised BP Energy lvls fall Depression/delayed relaxation of reflexes

What are the new BP guidelines/classes?

Normal: LESS than 120/80 (pre-HTN NO LONGER a category) Elevated: 120-129 AND diastolic LESS than 80 Stage 1: 130-139 OR diastolic 80-89 Stage 2: 140 OR 90 HTN crisis: GREATER than 180 and/or diastolic GREATER than 120

What deficits are seen with PCA syndrome? (5)

PCA supplies OT (occipital, temporal) 1- contralateral homonymous hemianopsia 2- memory deficits 3- visual agnosia 4- prosopagnosia (difficulty naming ppl on sight) 5- central post-stroke (thalamic) pain (pt will have pain but cannot tell you where they have pain)

What structures refer pain to mid-scapula? (Mnemonic)

PEGS Pancreas, esophagus, gallbladder, stomach

With a burn to the ankle you will often see _________ contracture. And ______ motions (esp DF) will stress the burned tissue. The pt should be positioned in plastic _______ with cutout at Achilles' tendon and ankle positioned in ________.

PF all AFO, neutral

S/sx of BPPV

Positional Vertigo (dizziness/room is spinning feeling) Nausea w/ or w/o vomiting Nystagmus

What are the scapular depressors?

Powerful Lonely Lady is depressing Pec minor/major Lower trap Lats

What are the scapular protractors?

Pretty Pretty San Antonio Pec minor Pec major Serratus Ant

When performing MLD for Lymphedema: Fluid in the involved extremity is then cleared, first in the ________ portion and then in the ________ portion of the limb

Proximal, distal

Liver pain pattern referral

R shoulder

Rovsing sign

RLQ pain intensified by LLQ palpation *peritoneal irritation *appendicitis

What are the mnemonics for typical pain patterns that refer to RUQ, RLQ, LLQ, LUQ?

RUQ = PGP (peptic ulcers, gall bladder, head of Pancreas) Or good luck hot pack (gallbladder, liver, head of pancreas, peptic ulcer) RLQ = AC (appendix, Crohn's) Air conditioning LLQ = DUI (diverticulitis, ulcerative colitis, IBS) LUQ = PS (tail of Pancreas, spleen) LUQ = don't banana split split (diaphragm, body and tail of pancreas, stomach, spleen)

Droplet precautions used for what conditions?

SPIDER-MAN S = spesis/scarlet fever, streptococcal P = pneumonia, pertussis I = influenza D = diphtheria (pharyngeal) E = epiglottis R = rubella M = mumps, meningitis, meningeal pneumonia AD = adenovirus

What are the signs of venous insufficiency? (6)

STUBED Stasis dermatitis Trendelenberg test positive Ulceration of medial malleolus Brown pigment coloration Edema Dependency pain (painful when leg below body lvl)

Upper extremity flexion synergy: list what happens at Scapula: Shoulder: Elbow: Forearm: Wrist/fingers:

Scapula: retraction, elevation or hyperextension (think about it these scapular motions occur with shoulder flexion) Shoulder: ABD, ER Elbow: flexion Forearm: supination Wrist/fingers: flexion Google a video to better visualize - OPP of flexor synergy with the exception of wrist/fingers being the same

List the convex concave rule (listing from shoulder down UE)

Shoulder = OPP Elbow (between humerus and ulna) = SAME PRUJ (between radius and ulna) = OPP DRUJ (between radius and ulna) = SAME Wrist = OPP Fingers = SAME

List the stages of pressure ulcers (4)

Stage 1 >> redness that doesn't go away (skin INTACT) (non-blanchable redness) Stage 2 >> first 2 layers of skin, superficial in nature (shallow crater) (stage 2 >> first 2 layers of skin) Stage 3 >> subcutaneous tissue may be visible fat (FAT >> 3 letters >> stage 3) (bone, tendon and muscle NOT exposed) (undermining and tunneling may be present) Stage 4 >> down to the bone, muscle or tendons too (BONE >> 4 letters) (deep crater and necrosis) (slough and eschar)

List RPE scale 6-20

Start at lucky 13 and spell SHVEM 13 - somewhat hard 15 - hard 17 - very hard 19 - extremely hard 20- max exertion Then count down from 13 (opp of SHVEM so replace hard with light) 11- light 9- very light 7.5 - extremely light 6 - no exertion (starts at 6 bc 60 is resting HR)

"Pusher Syndrome" "contraversive pushing" • characterized by distorted postural orientation • tend to use the ________ side to actively "PUSH" towards the _______ side

Stronger (uninvolved) side, weaker (involved) side • Efforts by the therapist to passively correct the patient's tilted posture often result in the patient pushing stronger. • Patients should be asked to look at their posture and see if they are upright. Environmental prompts can be used to assist orientation. • Intervention: the therapist can sit on the patient's less involved side and instruct the patient to "lean over to me." • Or the patient can be positioned with the less involved side next to a wall and instructed to "lean toward the wall. Spontaneous body tilting toward the more-affected side Abduction and extension of the less-affected extremities The patient should be fully involved in problem solving. For example, the therapist should ask questions such as "what direction are you tilted?" and "what direction do you have to move in order to achieve vertical?"

What are the symptoms of Type1 and Type2 diabetes and any differences?

Symptoms of both: - polyphagia - weight loss - polyuria - polydipsia - blurred vision - dehydration Type 1 DM ONLY: - ketoacidosis

T/F will see (+) R and L roll test with L HSC affected

T (horizontal canal always see + test to both sides)

Parkinson's clinical syndrome 4 cardinal signs:

TRAP Tremors Rigidity Akinesia, Bradykinesia (MUST be present) Postural instability

Trendelenberg test of extremities

Tests for venous insufficiency. The affected leg is raised so that veins are emptied by gravity Tourniquet around upper thigh Subject then asked to stand and degree of filling of saphenous vein is noted (—) - veins fill w/in 30 sec with tourniquet still in place (+) - veins take >30sec to refill with tourniquet in place

Rubor of dependency test

Tests of peripheral arterial circulation: STEPS: Pt. in supine and note color of plantar aspect. Elevate to 45 deg for 1 min. Note color, return to original position Normal: Return normal red/pink color in 15-20 sec Insufficiency: pallor within 30 sec of elevation With insufficiency - Pallor develops in elevation; reactive hyperemia (rubor of dependency) develops in dependent position. -Assesses LE arterial circulation -Patient begins with legs elevated to 35 to 45 degrees and assessed for color (pale vs. normal "pink") -Then, placed in a dependent position -Normal response: to see a rapid pink flush in the feet. Arterial insufficiency will demonstrate a deep, red color (rubor) after 30 seconds in this dependent position. Pt. is supine, note color of both feet, elevate affected limb for several seconds, record the time it takes the affected foot to return to a matching color of the unaffected foot.

What structures refer pain to the shoulder? (Mnemonic)

The shoulder "Lives, Dies in Peris" Liver (R) Diaphragm (L) Pericardium (L- like heart) Right, left, left

Positioning strategies to reduce common malalignment with stroke: list the following for SUPINE position Head/neck: Trunk: More affected UE: (scapula, shoulder, arm, elbow, wrist/fingers) More affected LE: (hip, knee, feet, ankle)

Think about trying to combat synergy and bring them into reflex inhibiting position Head/neck: neutral and symmetrical; supported on pillow Trunk: aligned in midline More affected UE: - scapular protraction - shoulder: slightly forward/flexed and ABD - arm supported on pillow - elbow extended with hand resting on pillow - wrist neutral, fingers extended, thumb ABD More affected LE: - hip: forward (pelvis protracted) - knee: small pillow/towel roll prevent hyperextension - feet: nothing against soles of feet - ankle: PF

Frank-Starling mechanism (CV)

Think of ventricle like a water balloon >> the more blood/water you put in it >> the more it stretches >> the more contraction strength Force tension relationship More stretch = better contraction strength

What is the diagnosis criteria (McDonald) to diagnose multiple sclerosis?

Using MRI: Lesions with dissemination (separation) in space and time — 2 separate lesions that are distinct (May also look at CSF analysis for elevated Ig and protein elevation and evoked potential/nerve conduction velocity)

Skin infections VCHIPS

V - varicella zoster C - cutaneous diphtheria H - herpez simplex I - impetigo P - pediculosis S - scabies

What are the respiratory effects that occur with aquatic therapy?

VC = dec Work of breathing = inc

Pre load and relationship with SV

Volume of blood in the ventricles at the end of diastole, immediately before ventricular contraction. End diastolic volume (EDV) Good indicator of high SV

What are the MSK effects that occur with aquatic therapy?

WB (weight bearing) = dec Edema = dec

Diabetic ulcers are generally located on the __________-_______ surface of the foot.

Weight-bearing (2nd toe, heel)

Define passive insufficiency

When the muscle is over stretched and cannot lengthen anymore Muscle is over stretched and cross bridge are separated (cannot generate force) ALWAYS HAPPENS OVER 2 JOINTS WITH 2 JOINT MUSCLES (muscle cannot shorten or lengthen simultaneously over 2 joints)

Describe active insufficiency

When the muscle is too short and cannot contract any further Force production decreases ALWAYS HAPPENS OVER 2 JOINTS WITH 2 JOINT MUSCLES (muscle cannot shorten or lengthen simultaneously over 2 joints)

rebound tenderness (Blumberg's sign) is an indication of

appendicitis/inflammation in abdominal cavity pain that increases when pressure (as from a hand) is removed a sign of inflammation of the peritoneum in which increased pain is elicited by the sudden release of the fingertips pressing on the abdomen.

Onset: birth, integrated: persists A. Plantar grasp reflex B. Symmetrical tonic neck reflex (STNR) C. Startle reflex

Standard Precautions requires what 2 things?

hand hygiene and gloves

droplet precautions require what 3 things?

mask, gown, gloves

Murphy's sign

pain with palpation of the RUQ during inspiration, indicative of cholecystitis (palpation of gall bladder)

Blumberg's sign

rebound tenderness peritoneal irritation appendicitis this sign is also known as rebound tenderness, and is a reliable sign of peritoneal inflammation/appendicitis

After load and relationship with SV

the pressure that must be exceeded before ejection of blood from the ventricles can occur = MAP (mean arterial pressure) Resistance to eject blood from ventricle = pressure your heart pumps against Inverse relationship with SV

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