Major 4

How can you tell if bleeding from the ears or nose contains cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)? a. CSF has a high glucose content. b. CSF clots within 10 seconds. c. CSF has a dark brown color. d. CSF is a bright yellow (halo-like) color.

CSF has a high glucose content

External bleeding would be the most difficult to control in a patient with a large laceration to the: a. carotid artery. b. jugular vein. c. femoral vein. d. brachial artery.

Carotid artery

A 30-year-old man presents with jaw and neck stiffness and fever. During your assessment, he tells you that he cut his hand on a piece of metal about a week ago. You should suspect: a. tetanus. b. a staph infection. c. a viral infection. d. meningitis.

Tetanus

Which of the following factors influences the severity of a stab wound? a. The anatomic area involved b. The size of the attacker c. The size of the victim d. The position of the victim

The anatomic area involved

While managing an internal hemorrhage, it is important to monitor and record vital signs at least every: a. 10 minutes. b. 3 minutes. c. 15 minutes. d. 5 minutes.

5 minutes

The greatest amount of kinetic energy would be created if a 140-pound driver struck a tree while traveling at what speed? a. 40 mph b. 30 mph c. 50 mph d. 30 mph

50 mph

Infants and children who experience hemorrhaging may have a normal blood pressure until they have lost what percentage of their blood volume? a. 60% b. 40% с. 50% d. 30%

50%

A healthy adult can tolerate blood loss of up to how many milliliters over a period of 15 to 20 minutes without any negative effects? a. 1,500 mL b. 500 mL c. 1,000 mL d. 750 mL

500 mL

Which of the following is the initial point of bodily impact when an unrestrained passenger takes the "down-and-under" pathway during a frontal collision? a. Knees b. Abdomen c. Pelvis d. Femurs

Knees

Which of the following is the initial point of bodily impact when an unrestrained passenger takes the "down-and-under" pathway during a frontal collision? a. Pelvis b. Abdomen c. Femurs d. Knees

Knees

The initial stage of hemorrhagic shock is characterized by which of the following signs or symptoms? a. Low circulating blood volume with minimal signs of hypoperfusion b. Cold, mottled, and pulseless extremities c. Tachycardia d. Increased systemic vascular resistance (SVR)

Low circulating blood volume with minimal signs of hypoperfusion

Which of the following will be of greatest benefit in helping the paramedic predict the type of injuries that a patient experienced? a. Index of suspicion b. Age of the patient c. Mechanism of injury d. Past medical history

Mechanism of injury

Which of the following dressings should be used to treat an open injury to the neck? a. Triangular bandage b. Medical tape c. Circumferential dressing d. Occlusive dressing

Occlusive dressing

Trauma patients with which type of injuries are most likely to have injuries incompatible with life? a. Paralysis b. Crushed or pulseless extremity c. Open skull injuries d. Pelvic fractures

Open skull injuries

Which of the following mechanisms of injury poses the least threat for significant injury? a. Rear-end collision with restrained driver b. Vehicular intrusion of greater than 12 inches c. Death of an occupant in the same vehicle d. Motorcycle crash at greater than 20 mph

Rear-end collision with restrained driver

When a person falls from a significant height and lands on their feet, axial loading results in: a. shearing injuries to the liver, spleen, and aorta. b. crushing injuries to the heels. c. compression or burst fractures to the lumbar spine. d. disc injuries to the lower cervical and upper thoracic spine.

compression or burst fractures to the lumbar spine

Decompensated shock in the adult is characterized by: a. falling blood pressure. b. bounding radial pulses. c. increased tidal volume. d. 15% blood loss or more.

falling blood pressure

Compared to a handgun, a rifle: a. fires a single projectile. b. has less powerful ammunition. c. is less accurate. d. fires at a higher velocity

fires at a higher velocity

Compared to a handgun, a rifle: a. is less accurate. b. fires a single projectile. c. fires at a higher velocity. d. has less powerful ammunition.

fires at a higher velocity

A specific attribute of a Level I trauma center is that it: a. has rapid access to an off-site anesthesiologist. b. can initiate definitive care for all injured patients. c. is involved in an injury prevention program. d. has 24-hour in-house coverage by various specialists.

has 24-hour in-house coverage by various specialists.

Penetrating trauma occurs when: a. internal organs are lacerated and bleed profusely. b. a fractured rib perforates the parenchyma of a lung. c. blunt force trauma causes explosive open injuries. d. skin is broken by single or multiple objects.

skin is broken by single or multiple objects

According to the American College of Surgeons, an injured patient should be transported to a Level I trauma center if their: a. systolic blood pressure is less than 90 mm Hg. b. respiratory rate is less than 14 breaths/min. c. heart rate is greater than 100 beats/min. d. Glasgow Coma Scale score is less than 15.

systolic blood pressure is less than 90 mm Hg

The forces applied to the driver during a frontal vehicle collision will differ based on: a. the patient's physical size. b. the patient's age. c. objects inside the vehicle. d. the motor vehicle's safety features.

the motor vehicle's safety features

During an explosion, secondary blast injuries occur when: a. the patient sustains severe burns from the intense heat. b. hollow organs rupture due to the pressure wave. c. the patient is struck by flying debris, such as shrapnel. d. the patient is thrown against a stationary object.

the patient is struck by flying debris, such as shrapnel.

Which of the following is a factor when considering transport of a trauma patient via helicopter? a. The patient's preference to be transported using ground transport b. The need for definitive airway management c. The patient's medical facility preference d. Distance from the scene to the landing zone and hospital.

Distance from the scene to the landing zone and hospital

The most significant falls for adults occur from a height greater than: a. 5 feet. b. 1.5 times the patient's height. c. 15 feet. d. 2 times the patient's height.

15 feet

Class Il hypovolemic shock caused by hemorrhagic trauma would be characterized by which amount of blood loss from a patient who weighs 154 pounds? a. 30% to 40% b. Less than 15% C. Greater than 40% d. 15% to 30%

15% to 30%

To avoid exsanguination from severe hemorrhaging of an extremity injury below the axilla or groin, a tourniquet should be applied in less than: a. 20 seconds. b. 10 seconds. c. 30 seconds. d. 40 seconds.

20 seconds

To avoid exsanguination from severe hemorrhaging of an extremity injury below the axilla or groin, a tourniquet should be applied in less than: a. 40 seconds. b. 20 seconds. c. 10 seconds. d. 30 seconds.

20 seconds

When packing a wound, you should hold firm, direct manual pressure on the wound for at least: a. 15 minutes. b. 10 minutes. c. 3 minutes. d. 5 minutes.

3 minutes

Arterial bleeding may require how many minutes or more of direct pressure to form a clot? a. 20 minutes b.15 minutes c. 5 minutes d. 10 minutes

5 minutes

Children who have outgrown a car seat but are too small to be restrained by seat belts designed for adults are at risk for which type of injury? a. Cervical spine b. Lung c. Abdominal d. Head

Abdominal

The most common site of deceleration injury in the chest is the a. heart. b. vena cava. c. esophagus. d. aorta.

Aorta

Upon arriving on the scene of a motor vehicle accident, you notice the vehicle has a deformed front end and cracked windshield. The patient's head and face are bruised and heavily lacerated. Based on these findings, which of the following injuries would you expect? a. Flail chest b. Whiplash injuries c. Fractured patella d. Cervical spine injury

Cervical spine injury

A patient exhibiting signs of shock has a markedly elevated respiratory rate, cold and pale skin, diminished urine output, and a thready pulse of 125 beats/min. This patient would be characterized as being in which class of hypovolemic shock? a. Class III b. Class IV c. Class d. Class

Class III

Which of the following interventions encourages drainage from the site of a closed wound and reduces swelling? a. Splinting b. Elevation c. Firm compression d. Application of ice

Elevation

When assessing a gunshot wound, how can you determine which wound is the exit wound? a. Exit wounds are typically more ragged. b. Exit wounds tend to have more powder residue around the wound. c. Exit wounds are usually on the anterior side of the body. d. Exit wounds are usually smaller.

Exit wounds are typically more ragged.

Which of the following statements regarding exit wounds is correct? a. Despite fragmentation of the projectile, there is usually only one exit wound for each round that is fired. b. Compared to entrance wounds, exit wounds are generally much smaller and typically have regular edges. C. Exit wounds occur when the projectile's energy is not entirely dissipated along its trajectory through the body. d. With low-velocity gunshot wounds, the exit wound is always a mirror image of the entrance wound.

Exit wounds occur when the projectile's energy is not entirely dissipated along its trajectory through the body.

Following a head-on collision of a motorcycle, the motorcyclist would most likely strike the handle bars with the: a. wrists and forearms. b. femurs and tibias. c. chest and abdomen. d. cervical spine.

Femurs and tibias

Which component gives red blood cells their red color? a. Oxygen b. Megakaryocytes c. Hemoglobin d. Plasma

Hemoglobin

After packing a severe groin injury with hemostatic gauze, you should: a. cover the gauze with a trauma dressing. b. soak the dressing with sterile saline. c. administer an IV analgesic. d. hold direct pressure.

Hold direct pressure

Confusion, a sustained heart rate of 130 beats/min, and a respiratory rate of 32 breaths/min in a 70-kg patient are consistent with which class of hemorrhage? a. IV b. I c. I d. II

III

Which of the following injury locations can cause a junctional hemorrhage? a. Side of the neck b. Behind the knee C. Antecubital fossa d. In the axilla

In the axilla

Which of the following is true of bleeding from an open vein? a. It is bright red in color. b. It spurts in time with the pulse. c. It is darker red in color. d. It oozes from a wound slowly.

It is darker red in color.

Which of the following organs or body systems requires a constant blood supply, regardless of external factors? a. Kidneys b. Muscles c. Gastrointestinal tract d. Skin

Kidneys

Which of the following aggregates into a sticky clump and forms much of the foundation of a blood clot during the process of hemostasis? a. Fibrin b. Plasmin c. Platelets d. Calcium

Platelets

How should you remove a patient's clothing when looking for bullet entrance and exit wounds? a. Cut through the bullet holes so you can identify the location of the entrance and exit wounds. b. Remove the patient's clothing and dispose of it in a sanitary manner. c. Do not remove the patient's clothing because it will be used as evidence. d. Preserve the clothing as evidence and cut around bullet holes.

Preserve the clothing as evidence and cut around bullet holes.

Which of the following is a benefit of a properly worn seat belt? a. Prevention of secondary collision with objects inside the vehicle b. Distribution of deceleration energy over a smaller surface area c. Prevention of partial or complete ejection from the vehicle d. Minimal risk of whiplash injuries after a rear-end collision

Prevention of partial or complete ejection from the vehicle

Which of the following is an example of a quinary blast injury? a. High-pressure wave b. Radiation exposure c. Blunt head injury d. Full-thickness burn

Radiation exposure

You should suspect which type of injury when you see a cracked windshield, bent steering wheel, dashboard damage, intrusion into a vehicle, or an open ankle fracture after a fall? a. Facial b. Spinal c. Chest d. Lower body

Spinal

Which of the following factors DIRECTLY affects cardiac output? a. Stroke volume and pulse rate b. Vessel size and stroke volume c. Preload and afterload d. Blood pressure and pulse rate

Stroke volume and pulse rate

Which of the following characteristics of an entry wound indicates that the weapon was fired at close range? a. Severe bleeding from the wound b. Abrasions around the wound c. Indentation of cutaneous tissues d. Tattoo (stippling) marks from powder burns

Tattoo (stippling) marks from powder burns

Which of the following injury mechanisms would most likely result in blunt trauma? a. Small-caliber gunshot wound b. Falling from a tree onto a picket fence c. Explosion involving shards of glass d. The pressure wave caused by a blast

The pressure wave caused by a blast

Which of the following statements regarding lacerations is correct? a. The first priority in treating a laceration is to cover it with a sterile dressing to prevent infection. b. The seriousness of a laceration depends on its depth and the structures that have been damaged. c. Lacerations are linear cuts that always heal well due to their even wound margins. d. A laceration must be sutured or otherwise closed within 8 to 10 hours following the injury.

The seriousness of a laceration depends on its depth and the structures that have been damaged.

When a patient has multiple non-life-threatening open wounds on an extremity, you can use of which of the following to allow for constant pressure over large areas that may not be possible using hands alone? a. Air splint b. Hemostatic dressing c. Tourniquet d. Occlusive dressing

Tourniquet

The acute physiologic and structural change that occurs in a patient's body when an external source of energy dissipates faster than the body's ability to sustain and deplete it is called: a. kinematics. b. deceleration. c. pathology. d. trauma.

Trauma

Which of the following injuries would most likely require transport to a Level I trauma center? a. Penetrating injury that is distal to the elbow or knee b. Two or more proximal long bone fractures c. Superficial burns to an entire lower extremity d. Lower back pain following a motor vehicle crash

Two or more proximal long bone fractures

Which of the following is generally affected by pressure changes caused by an explosion? a. Tympanic membrane b. Liver c. Kidneys d. Spleen

Tympanic membrane

Which of the following statements regarding front airbags is correct? a. Without the use of a seat belt, front airbags are insufficient in preventing ejection. b. Small children riding in the front seat are protected when the airbag deploys. c. Front airbags will activate in side impacts or impacts to the front quarter panel. d. Airbags will provide protection from both initial and secondary impacts.

Without the use of a seat belt, front airbags are insufficient in preventing ejection

When summoning an air medical service to transport a critically injured patient, it is most important for you to: a. ensure that the fire department is present. b. activate the service as soon as possible. c. determine the flight crew's credentials. d. predetermine the destination facility.

activate the service as soon as possible.

When an adult pedestrian is struck by a motor vehicle, lateral and posterior injuries are most common because: a. adults tend to turn to the side or away from the impact. b. the initial impact by the bumper spins the patient to the side. c. the patient is thrust onto the hood of the vehicle. d. the patient is thrown and lands on their side or back.

adults tend to turn to the side or away from the impact

A fall in blood pressure causes the release of: a. T3 and T4 from the thyroid gland. b. aldosterone and antidiuretic hormone. c. acetylcholine and angiotensin I. d. glycogen and luteinizing hormone.

aldosterone and antidiuretic hormone

Lap belts that are worn alone and too high by a pregnant woman: a. will provide equal distribution of forces and prevent forward flexion of the mother. b.allow enough forward flexion and subsequent compression to rupture the uterus. c. usually do not injure the fetus because the uterus is a highly muscular organ. d. will provide adequate protection for the uterus if the air bag properly deploys.

allow enough forward flexion and subsequent compression to rupture the uterus.

The subcutaneous tissue is: a. the deep fascial layer that ensheathes muscle and other internal structures. b. also called the superficial fascia and consists mainly of adipose tissue below the dermis. c. a thin layer of tissue from which blood vessels exclusively originate. d. the layer of tissue above the dermis that mainly produces sweat.

also called the superficial fascia and consists mainly of adipose tissue below the dermis.

A young woman attempted to commit suicide by cutting her wrist. Bright red blood is spurting from the injury site. Despite direct pressure, the wound continues to bleed heavily. You should: a. apply supplemental oxygen and keep her warm. b. elevate the extremity above the level of her heart. c. apply a tourniquet between her elbow and wrist. d. locate and apply digital pressure to the brachial artery.

apply a tourniquet between her elbow and wrist.

Unlike adults, children who are struck by a motor vehicle are more likely to: a. be propelled onto the hood of the vehicle during the second impact. b. be run over by the vehicle as they are propelled to the ground. c. experience injuries to the lower extremities from the initial impact. d. turn away from the oncoming vehicle, resulting in posterior trauma.

be run over by the vehicle as they are propelled to the ground.

Hemoglobin functions by: a. binding to oxygen that is absorbed in the lungs and transporting it to the tissues. b. absorbing hydrogen ions in the blood in order to maintain acid-base balance. c. transporting red blood cells throughout the body to ensure adequate oxygenation. d. dissolving in blood plasma to create the partial pressure of carbon dioxide.

binding to oxygen that is absorbed in the lungs and transporting it to the tissues

Much of the bleeding associated with unsplinted fractures continues because: a. swelling associated with such fractures prevents platelet aggregation. b. bone ends will continue to move and destroy partially formed clots. c. most fractures are unstable and usually lacerate major blood vessels. d. patient anxiety increases the blood pressure, which exacerbates bleeding.

bone ends will continue to move and destroy partially formed clots.

When applying a dressing and bandage to a scalp wound, you should: • a. carefully assess the skull for an underlying fracture. b. apply a cervical collar in case the c-spine is injured. c. always use a loose dressing to soak up the blood. d. remove any foreign particles from the wound first.

carefully assess the skull for an underlying fracture.

If a person survives the initial trauma from a shotgun wound at close range: a. it is likely that only soft tissue was injured and major organs were spared. b. nervous system damage is likely due to the internal dispersal of the pellets. c. contaminants that were driven into the wound can cause a severe infection. d. they will typically die within 24 hours secondary to liver or renal failure.

contaminants that were driven into the wound can cause a severe infection.

Damage control resuscitation (DRC) focuses on: a. definitive repair of all internal injuries, induction of hypothermia to reduce metabolic demand, and oxygen therapy. b. controlling hemorrhage, maintaining circulating volume, and correcting coagulopathy, acidosis, and hypothermia. c. maintaining a systolic blood pressure of at least 100 mm Hg, administration of TXA, and providing advanced airway management. d. inducing a slightly alkaline state, increasing the blood pressure with vasoactive drugs, and administering high-flow oxygen.

controlling hemorrhage, maintaining circulating volume, and correcting coagulopathy, acidosis, and hypothermia.

Damage control resuscitation (DRC) focuses on: a. maintaining a systolic blood pressure of at least 100 mm Hg, administration of TXA, and providing advanced airway management. • b. definitive repair of all internal injuries, induction of hypothermia to reduce metabolic * demand, and oxygen therapy. c. inducing a slightly alkaline state, increasing the blood pressure with vasoactive drugs, and administering high-flow oxygen. d. controlling hemorrhage, maintaining circulating volume, and correcting coagulopathy, acidosis, and hypothermia.

controlling hemorrhage, maintaining circulating volume, and correcting coagulopathy, acidosis, and hypothermia.

If you suspect a skull fracture, you should: a. consider the use of a tourniquet and hemostatic dressings. b. apply direct pressure to the bleeding site. c. apply cold compresses while the patient leans forward. d. cover the bleeding site loosely with a sterile gauze pad.

cover the bleeding site loosely with a sterile gauze pad.

The third phase of a motor vehicle accident involves: a. injuries caused by flying debris. b. crush injuries to the body. c. impact by another vehicle. d. deceleration of internal organs.

deceleration of internal organs

Most external hemorrhage can be controlled with a combination of: a. elevation and immobilization. b. pressure dressings and ice. c. pressure point control and elevation. d. direct pressure and pressure dressings.

direct pressure and pressure dressings.

Rapid deceleration of a motor vehicle that is traveling at 60 mph: a. typically generates _g_ forces of up to 10 to 20 _g_. b.dissipates tremendous forces and can cause major injuries c. causes the driver's body to stop moving at the same time. d. initially causes whiplash injuries to the patient's neck.

dissipates tremendous forces and can cause major injuries

The law of conservation of energy states that: a. kinetic energy can be converted only to thermal or chemical energy. b. energy can be neither created nor destroyed; it can only change form. c. a body at rest will remain at rest unless acted upon by an outside force. d. the force that an object can exert is the product of its mass multiplied by its acceleration.

energy can be neither created nor destroyed; it can only change form

After packing a severe groin injury with hemostatic gauze, you should: a. administer an IV analgesic. b. hold direct pressure. c. soak the dressing with sterile saline. d. cover the gauze with a trauma dressing.

hold direct pressure

After packing a severe groin injury with hemostatic gauze, you should: a. administer an IV analgesic. b. hold direct pressure. c. soak the dressing with sterile saline. d. cover the gauze with a trauma dressing.

hold direct pressure.

Unlike blunt trauma, penetrating trauma: a. is more likely to be fatal because of the severe external bleeding that accompanies it. b. often causes damage to a large body surface area, even from a single projectile. c. involves a disruption of the skin and underlying tissues in a small, focused area. d. is especially common during the primary blast injury following an explosion.

involves a disruption of the skin and underlying tissues in a small, focused area.

Venous bleeding: a. is bright red in color and typically spurts from a wound. * b. is dark red in color and usually oozes from the wound. c. is more likely to clot spontaneously than arterial bleeding. d. is generally more difficult to control than arterial bleeding.

is more likely to clot spontaneously than arterial bleeding.

During abrupt deceleration: a. the skull provides excellent protection for the brain. b. shearing or rupturing of internal organs can occur. c. supporting structures of the aorta keep it attached. d. the neck commonly sustains hyperextension injuries.

shearing or rupturing of internal organs can occur.

Hematochezia: a. indicates digested blood from the upper gastrointestinal tract. b. suggests kidney injury and is characterized by bloody urine. c. is the passage of stools that contain bright red blood. d. is the passage of dark stools and indicates lower gastrointestinal bleeding.

is the passage of dark stools and indicates lower gastrointestinal bleeding

If you suspect internal bleeding during the primary assessment, you should: a. determine the source of the internal bleeding. b. stop the assessment and transport at once. c. start two large-bore IV lines of normal saline. d. keep the patient warm and administer oxygen.

keep the patient warm and administer oxygen.

During a lateral impact collision: a. the patient's head moves away from the object causing the impact, resulting in stretching injuries. b. the far-side occupant, even if properly restrained, experiences double the amount of force as the driver. c. properly worn seat belts protect the passenger from pelvic trauma at the time of impact. d. lateral forces can easily cause spinal injury.

lateral forces can easily cause spinal injury

The peak magnitude of the pressure wave experienced by a person: a. causes secondary and tertiary injuries as a result of the explosion. b. lessens as the person is farther away from the center of the explosion. c. causes more severe trauma if the person is in an open area during the explosion. d. will cause less severe trauma if the person is standing beside a solid object.

lessens as the person is farther away from the center of the explosion

When applying a tourniquet to control major external hemorrhage from an extremity injury, you should: a. apply a pressure dressing over the tourniquet to further help control the bleeding. b. apply the tourniquet over a joint, as this will further help compress blood vessels. c. maintain direct pressure to the wound until the tourniquet has been fully applied. d. secure the tourniquet in place until the pulses distal to the injury have weakened.

maintain direct pressure to the wound until the tourniquet has been fully applied.

A trauma patient with hypotension secondary to internal hemorrhage should receive IV fluid boluses in order to: a. increase the pulse rate by no more than 10 beats/min. b. restore the patient's blood pressure to its pretrauma reading. c. increase the systolic blood pressure to at least 110 mm Hg. d. maintain the systolic blood pressure in a low normal range.

maintain the systolic blood pressure in a low normal range.

The "platinum 10 minutes" refers to the: a. maximum time spent at a scene for a trauma patient. b. maximum amount of time to extricate a patient. c. amount of time taken to perform a rapid assessment. d. amount of time before decompensated shock occurs.

maximum time spent at a scene for a trauma patient.

A properly worn motorcycle helmet will: a. eliminate the risk of secondary impacts. b. eliminate the risk of a spinal injury. c. not protect the cervical spine. d. eliminate any risk of head trauma.

not protect the cervical spine

The second impact that occurs when an adult pedestrian is struck by a motor vehicle would most likely result in injuries to the: a. pelvis and chest. b. hips and knees. c. head and neck. d. lower extremities.

pelvis and chest

Patients with internal hemorrhage will benefit MOST from: a. IV therapy. b. rapid transport. c. high-flow oxygen. d. TXA administration.

rapid transport.

The paramedic's main goal in treating a patient with shock is to: a. maintain body temperature and elevate the patient's legs 6 to 12 inches in order to x improve blood flow to the core of the body. b. administer oxygen in a concentration sufficient to maintain an oxygen saturation greater than 95%. c. recognize the signs and symptoms of shock in its earliest phase and begin immediate treatment before permanent damage occurs. • d. start two large-bore IV lines and infuse enough isotonic crystalloid solution.

recognize the signs and symptoms of shock in its earliest phase and begin immediate treatment before permanent damage occurs

The paramedic's main goal in treating a patient with shock is to: a. administer oxygen in a concentration sufficient to maintain an oxygen saturation greater than 95%. b. maintain body temperature and elevate the patient's legs 6 to 12 inches in order to improve blood flow to the core of the body. c. recognize the signs and symptoms of shock in its earliest phase and begin immediate treatment before permanent damage occurs. d. start two large-bore IV lines and infuse enough isotonic crystalloid solution.

recognize the signs and symptoms of shock in its earliest phase and begin immediate treatment before permanent damage occurs.

During a frontal collision, most pneumothoraces occur when: a. the patient is ejected through the windshield, and their chest collides with a secondary object outside the vehicle. b. the patient takes a deep breath just before impact and the lungs rapidly decompress at the time of impact. c. the chest is struck by a penetrating object. d. the diaphragm rapidly ascends into the chest cavity during impact, causing an increase in intrathoracic pressure.

the patient takes a deep breath just before impact and the lungs rapidly decompress at the time of impact

The most significant factor that determines how well the body compensates for blood loss is: a. whether the bleeding is internal or external. b. the period of time over which the blood is lost. c. whether the bleeding is venous or arterial. d. the patients pulse rate at the time of the injury.

the period of time over which the blood is lost

A trauma patient with hypotension secondary to internal hemorrhage should receive IV fluid boluses in order to: a. increase the pulse rate by no more than 10 beats/min. b. maintain the systolic blood pressure in a low normal range. c. increase the systolic blood pressure to at least 110 mm Hg. d. restore the patient's blood pressure to its pretrauma reading.

the systolic blood pressure in a low normal range

The most critical factor determining the seriousness of a gunshot wound is: a. the age of the patient. b. the presence of an exit wound. c. the type of tissue through which the projectile passes. d. the presence of temporary cavitation.

the type of tissue through which the projectile passes

A trauma patient with suspected internal hemorrhage and inadequate breathing requires: a. on-scene I therapy and rapid fluid boluses. b. ventilation assistance and rapid transport. c. intubation that is facilitated by medications. d. oxygen via nonrebreathing mask and transport.

ventilation assistance and rapid transport

If a Level I trauma center is 30 miles away, and a Level II trauma center is 10 miles away, it would be most appropriate to transport a patient with a severe traumatic brain injury: a. by ground to the Level I trauma center. b. by ground to the Level II trauma center. c. to the closest hospital for stabilization. d. via air transport to the Level I trauma center.

via air transport to the Level I trauma center